SECTION-A

1. What is the lower limit of pharynx?

A] Upper border of cricoid cartilage
B] Lower border of cricoid cartilage
C] Upper border of thyroid cartilage
D] Lower border of thyroid cartilage

2. A 55 year old man is diagnosed with carcinoma limited to the hypopharynx. Which of
the following sites will not be involved?
A] Posterior pharyngeal wall
B] Epiglottis
C] Pyriform sinus
D ] Post-cricoid region

3. Which of the following is not a part of MALT [mucosal associated lymphoid tissue]
structure?
A] Tonsil
B] Adenoids
C] Retropharyngeal lymph nodes
D] Posterior pharyngeal nodules

4. You are performing posterior rhinoscopy procedure on a patient. Where will you
locate the pharyngeal opening of the eustachian tube?
A] 2.25cm behind posterior end of the inferior turbinate
B] 1.25cm behind posterior end of the inferior turbinate
C] 2.25cm behind posterior end of the middle turbinate
D] 1.25cm behind posterior end of the middle turbinate

5. You are observing a tissue sample from the nasopharynx through an electon
microscope. Which of the following epithelium will you see?
A] Squamous epithelium
B] Cuboidal epithelium
C] Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
D] Transitional epithelium

6. Which of the following is the most common site for nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
A] Sinus of Morgagni
B] Passavant’s ridge
C] Fossa of Rosenmuller
D] Rathke’s pouch

7. Which of the following structures is present in the oropharynx?

A] Pharyngotympanic tube
B] Fossa of Rosenmuller
C] Lingual tonsil
D] Pyriform fossa
8. Which of the following muscle forms the Passavant’s ridge?
A] Stylopharyngeus
B] Palatopharyngeus
C] Salpingopharyngeus
D] Levator veli palatini

9. Where is thornwaldt cyst located?

A] Ear
B] Nasopharynx
C] Oropharynx
D]Hypopharynx

10. An 8 year old boy diagnosed with adenoid hypertrophy has undergone an
adenoidectomy procedure. following the procedure. He developed grisel syndrome.
What is the reason for this condition?
A] Damage to upper incisors
B] Temporomandibular joint dislocation
C] Atlantoaxial joint subluxation
D] Damage to lower incisors

11. A school going child presents with a history of recurrent upper respiratory tract
infection, mouth breathing and impaired hearing. On examination ,a high arched palate
is noted. What is the management of this condition?
A] Tonsillectomy
B]Adenoidectomy
C] Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion
D] Myringotomy with grommet insertion

12. A 6 year old child has been posted for an adenoidectomy procedure. Which of the
following conditions if present in this child will be a contraindication to perform the
surgery?
A] Large adenoids
B] Large tonsils
C] Cleft lip
D] Cleft palate

13. Which of the following is not an indication for an adenoidectomy procedure?

A] Recurrent sore throat
B] Recurrent upper respiratory tract infections
C] Recurrent middle ear infections with deafness
D] Obstructive sleep apnea

14. A 5 year old child is brought by his mother to the ent opd with frequent upper
respiratory tract infections. His mother gives a history of loud snoring at night and
posterior rhinoscopy examination shows enlarged adenoids. Which of the following will
you not advise in the management of this patient?
A] Decongestants
B] Antihistaminics
C] Adenoidectomy
D] Beta 2 agonists

15. What are adenoids also known as?

A] Nasopharyngeal tonsil
B] Palatine tonsil
C]Faucial tonsil
D] Lingual tonsil

16. At what age do the tonsils attain their maximum size?

A] 3 year
B] 5 year
C] 8 year
D] 12 year

17. Which of the following is the main arterial supply of palatine tonsils?
A] Tonsillar branch of the facial artery
B] Descending palatine branch of maxillary artery
C] Buccal branch of maxillary artery
D] Ascending palatine branch of facial artery

18. Which of the following nerve is responsible for referred otalgia from tonsillitis?
A] Glossopharyngeal nerve
B] Facial nerve
C] Trigeminal nerve
D] Vagus nerve

19. Which of the following organism is implicated in Vincent’s angina?

A] Beta-haemolytic streptococci
B] Bacillus fusiformis
C] Treponema pallidum
D] Microaerophilic streptococci

20. Which of the following complication would you not expect to see in a patient
diagnosed with diphtheria?
A] Myocarditis
B] Arrhythmias
C]Airway obstruction
D] Hard palate paralysis

21. Which of the following cases cannot be posted for an elective tonsillectomy?
A] A 7 year old child with acute tonsillitis
B] A young adult with chronic tonsillitis refractory to treatment
C] A patient with unilateral enlargement of tonsil with suspected malignancy
D] A middle aged man with recurrent quinsy

22. Which of the following is not a contraindication to perform a tonsillectomy?

A] Acute tonsillitis
B] Bleeding disorder
C] Cleft palate
D] Diphtheria carrier

23. A patient develops bleeding from the surgical site five hours after an elective
tonsillectomy. Which among the following would best describe the condition?
A] Primary haemorrhage
B] Secondary haemorrhage
C] Reactionary haemorrhage
D] Tertiary haemorrhage

24. Which of the following disorders is unlikely to cause chronic laryngitis (Laryngitis
that lasts longer than 3 weeks)?
A] Chronic bronchitis
B] Frequent vomiting
C] Bacterial infection of the larynx
D] Gastroesophageal reflux disease [GERD]

SECTION – B

1.Nasopharyngeal fibroma is also called

A] Rhabdomyosarcoma
B] Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
C] Fibrosarcoma
D] Liposarcoma

2. Which of the following hormone is found to play a role in JNA?

A] Oestrogen
B] Progesterone
C] Testosterone
D] Insulin

3. The nasopharyngeal fibroma is not capsulated

A] True
B] False

4. The deformity seen in JNA is

A] Adenoid facies
B] Frog face deformity
C] Leonine faces
D] Moon facies

5. The pathognomic sign in CT scan for JNA is

A] Antral sign
B] Holman miller sign
C] A and B
D] Spalding sign

6. Burning incense or wood produces

A] Polycyclic hydrocarbons
B] H2O2
C] Acetic acid
D] Free radicals

7. Which vitamin blocks nitrosification of amines ?

A. B 12
B. B 6
C. E
D. C

8. Preserved salted fish produces ------

A. Free radicals
B. Nitrosamines
C. H2O2
D. Polycyclic hydrocarbons

9. Which of the following viruses is associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A] Human papilloma virus
B] Human immunodeficiency virus
C] Epstein- barr virus
D] Hepatitis C virus

10. The following EB antigens are important in nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

A] Viral capsid antigen – VCA
B] Early antigen – EA
C] Core antigen
D] A and B

11. Trotter’s triad consists of

A] Frequent sneezing, watering of eyes, post nasal drip
B] Nasal polyposis, aspirin insensitivity, bronchial asthma
C] Conductive deafness, ipsilateral temporoparietal neuralgia, palatal paralysis
D] Facial paralysis, horner syndrome, palatal paralysis

12. The most common cranial nerve involved in NPC is

A] i
B] iii
C] x
D] vi

13. Deep cervical fascia consists of superficial and deep layer

A] True
B] False

14. The duct involved in parotid abscess is

A] Stenson’s duct
B] Wharton’s duct
C] Thoracic duct
D] Cystic duct

15. Peritonsillar abscess is also called

A] Tonsillitis
B] Tonsillolith
C] Quinsy
D] Trismus

16. The speech seen in quinsy is

A] Nasal voice
B] Hoarse voice
C] Stuttering
D] Hot potato voice

17. The tonsillectomy done in quinsy is called

A] Abscess tonsillectomy
B] Hot tonsillectomy
C] Tonsillotomy
D] A and B

18. The space formed by fibrous raphe is called

A] Space of Gillete
B] Submandibular space
C] submaxillary space
D] submental space

19. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess is also called

A] Parapharyngeal abscess
B] Prevertebral abscess
C] Submanidular abscess
D] Parotid abscess

20. Prevertebral abscess is mostly caused due to

A] Trauma
B] Tuberculosis
C] Hepatitis
D] autoimmune

21. Submandibular space consists of

A] Sublingual and parotid space
B] Submaxillary and parotid space
C] Submaxillary and sublingual space
D] Parapharyngeal and prevertebral space

22. Parapharyngeal space is also called

A] Lateral pharyngeal space
B] Infratemporal space
C] Pharyngomaxillary space
D] A and C
23. Masticator space consists of
A] Parotid space, temporal space, prevertebral space
B] Masseteric space temporal space, submandibular space
C] Sublingual space, temporal space, submandibular space
D] Masseteric space, temporal space, pterygomandibular space

24. The gold standard for diagnosis of sleep apnea is _____

Ans - Polysomnography

25. The common surgical procedure done for snoring and OSA is ____
Ans - uvulopalatoplasty (UPP)

26. The scale used for assessing sleep is ____

Ans - Epsworth sleepiness scale

27. The two phases of sleep is ____

Ans - Rem and N-Rem

28. The ____ sleep consists of four stages

Ans – N-Rem

SECTION-C
1. Mucous cyst is most commonly seen in
A] Tonsillar fossa
B] Epiglottis
C] Base of tongue
D] Vallecula

2. Which of the following is most common variety of malignancy in oropharynx ?

A] Squamous cell carcinoma
B] Lymphoepithelioma
C] Adenocarcinoma
D] Lymphomas

3. Which of the following is not a subsite in oropharynx ?

A] Base of tongue
B] Tonsil and tonsillar fossa
C] Subglottis
D] Faucial arch

4. TNM classification of oropharyngeal cancer - T4a involves

A] Tumour invades larynx ,deep/extrinsic muscle of tongue,medial pterygoid,hard
palate or mandible
B] Tumour more than 4cm in greatest dimension
C] Tumour invades lateral pterygoid muscle,pterygoid plates,lateral nasopharynx,or
base of skull or encases carotid artery
D] Tumour more than 2cm but not more than 4cm in greatest dimension

5. TNM classification of oropharyngeal cancer -N2b involves

A] Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6cm in greatest dimension
B] Metastasis in bilateral or contralateral lymphnodes ,none more than 6cm in greatest
dimension
C] Metastasis in single ipsilateral lymph node more than 3cm but not more than 6cm in
greatest dimesnion
D] Metastasis in multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes,none more than 6cm in greatest
dimension

6. Gross appearance of tumour of oropharynx involves

A] Exophytic
B] Ulcerative
C] Infiltrative
D] All of the above

7. Which of the following is not a benign tumour of oropharynx

A] Haemangioma
B] Papilloma
C] Pleomorphic adenoma
D] Lymphoepithelioma

8. Treatment of carcinoma oropharynx involves

A] Surgery
B] Radiotherapy
C] Combination therapy
D] All the above

9. Eagle syndrome is due calcification of which of following ligament

A] Stylohyoid ligament
B] Mylohyoid ligament
C] Omohyoid ligament
C] Cricothyroid ligament

10. Most common type of carcinoma of hypopharynx is

A] Lymphoma
B] Adenocarcinoma
C] Squamous cell carcinoma
D] Basal cell carcinoma

11. Most common subsite of carcinoma hypopharynx

A] Post cricoid region
B] Pyriform sinus
C. Posterior pharyngeal wall
D. Subglottis

12. Most common age group involved in carcinoma pyriform sinus is

A] >40 years
B] 20-40 years
C]10-20 years
D]<10 years

13. The Earliest symptom of carcinoma hypopharynx

A] Voice change
B] Dysphagia
C] Fever
D] Pricking sensation on swallowing

14. Which of following syndrome is related to carcinoma postcricoid region ?

A] Eagle syndrome
B] Plummer Vinson syndrome
C] Ramsay hunt syndrome
D] Men syndrome

15. Which of the following is the least common laryngopharyngeal malignancy

A] Carcinoma posterior pharyngeal wall
B] Carcinoma postcricoid
C] Carcinoma pyriform sinus
D] Parapharyngeal tumours

16. Investigation of choice in hypopharyngeal diverticulum

A] USG
B] Barium swallow
C] MRI
D] CT

17. Which of the following is not an treatment option in hypopharyngeal diverticulum?

A] Excision of pouch and cricopharyngeal myotomy
B] Dohlman’s procedure
C] Endoscopic laser treatment
D] Radiation therapy

18. Which of the following is not an indication for tracheostomy

A] Respiratory obstruction
B] Retained secretions
C] Respiratory insufficiency
D] Carcinoma lung

19. Which of the following is not an indication for tracheostomy?

A] Acute laryngo tracheo bronchitis
B] Diphtheria
C] Chronic adenotonsillitis
D] Peri tonsillar abscess

20. Common indication of tracheostomy below 1 year of age

A] Subglottic haemangioma
B] Glottic web
C] Bilateral vocal cord paralysis
D] All of the above

21. Tracheostomy care involves

A] Suction
B] Prevention of crusting and tracheitis
C] Care of tracheostomy tube
D] All of the above

22. Which of the following is an late complication of tracheostomy ?

A] Tracheal stenosis
B] Displacement of tube
C] Atelactasis
D]Aspiration of blood

23. A high tracheostomy is done above the level of _______

Ans – Thyroid isthmus

24. The cuffed tracheostomy tube is periodically deflated to prevent ________

Ans - Pressure necrosis

25. Killian’s dehiscence is a weak area between two parts of ________ muscle
Ans - Inferior constrictor muscle

26. most common subsite of carcinoma hypopharynx _________

Ans - Pyriform sinus

27. Elongated styloid process or calcification of stylohyoid ligament is seen in ______

syndrome.
Ans - Eagle’s syndrome

SECTION-D

1. Non neoplastic tumours of larynx include all of the following except

A] Vocal nodule
B] Leukoplakia
C] Amyloid tumour
D] Chondroma

2. Which of the following does not come under the management of contact granuloma ?
A] Antireflux therapy
B] Speech therapy
C] Microlayngeal surgery
D] Radiotherapy

3. All of the following are true about laryngocele , except

A] It is a fluid filled cystic swelling
B] Presents with hoarseness of voice, cough, and obstruction of airway
C] It is a reducible swelling
D] Treatment is marsupilization or surgical excision

4. Supraglottic carcinoma of larynx arises in all of the following subsites except :

A] Suprahyoid epiglottis
B] Infrahyoid epiglottis
C] Arytenoids
D] Vocal cords

5. In TNM staging of cancer larynx- supraglottis, T2 stage represents

A] Tumour limited to one subsite of supraglottis with normal vocal cord mobility
B] Tumour limited to larynx with vocal cord fixation
C] Tumour invades mucosa of more than one adjacent subsites of supraglottis without
fixation of larynx
D] Tumour invades through thyroid cartilage and invades tissues beyond larynx

6. In TNM staging of cancer larynx, N2a represents

A] Single ipsilateral node 3cm or less in greatest dimension
B] Single ipsilateral node >3cm , <6cm in greatest dimension
C] Multiple ipsilateral nodes not more than 6cm in greatest dimension
D] Bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes not more than 6cm in greatest dimension

7. Total laryngectomy is contraindicated in which of the following conditions in cancer

larynx
A] T3 lesions
B] All T4 lesions
C] Patients with distant metastasis
D] Lesions of posterior commissure

8. Which of the following factors are considered in the treatment options for cancer
larynx ?
A] Status of cervical lymph node
B] Mobility of the cord
C] Age of patient
D] All of the above

9. Most common benign neoplasm of larynx in children is -------

Ans - Juvenile papillomatosis

10. In TNM staging of ca larynx – glottis, tumor involving both vocal cords comes under
-----
Ans - Stage – T1b

11. All muscles that move the vocal cord are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve
except
A] Posterior cricoaretynoid
B] Lateral cricoaretynoid
C] Cricothyroid
D] Thyroaretynoid
12. What is/are the causes of laryngeal paralysis ?
A] Supranuclear
B] Nuclear
C] High vagal lesions
D] All of the above

13. Which nerve is typically affected in idiopathic laryngeal paralysis ?

A] Vagus nerve
B] Facial nerve
C] Hypoglossal nerve
D] Trigeminal nerve

14. What is the position of vocal cord if it is 7mm from midline ?

A] Median
B] Paramedian
C] Cadaveric
D] Gentle abduction

15. In bilateral abductor paralysis , the vocal cord lies in which position ?
A] Cadaveric
B] Paramedian
C] Gentle abduction
D] Full abduction

16. Paralysis of superior laryngeal nerve causes paralysis of which muscle?

A] Posterior cricoaretynoid
B] Lateral cricoaretynoid
C] Cricothyroid
D] Thyroaretynoid

17. Thyroplasty type II is

A] Medial displacement of vocal cord
B] Lateral displacement of vocal cord
C] Shortening the vocal cord
D] Lengthening the vocal cord

18. In bilateral abductor paralysis patients usually present with --------

Ans - Dyspnoea/ stridor

19. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from vagus and loops around ------- then
ascends into tracheo – esophageal groove
Ans – Arch of aorta

20. For the production of normal voice, vocal cords should be able to
A] Approximate properly with each other
B] Have proper size and stiffness
C] Have the ability to vibrate regularly in response to air column
D] All of the above
21. Which of the following is not true regarding evaluation of hoarsensss of voice?
A] Many local laryngeal causes can be diagnosed by indirect laryngoscopy
B] Many hoarseness persisting more than 4 weeks deserves examination of larynx
C] Loss of approximation of cord may be seen in vocal cord paralysis or fixation
D] Size of the cord may increase in edema of the cord.

22. Dysphonia plica ventricularis is defined as

A] Functional disorder mostly seen in emotionally labile females in age group of 15-30
years
B] Persistence of childhood high pitched voice
C] Voice produced by false cords which is rough , low pitched and unpleasant
D] Lack of nasal resonance for words

24. All of the following are true regarding abductor dysphonia except :
A] It is due to spasm of cricothyroid muscle
B] Patient has a breathy voice
C] Symptoms aggravated during periods of stress
D] Treatment consists of injection of botulinum toxin

25. Weakness of voice due to fatigue of phonatory muscles is called ---------

Ans - Phonasthenia

26. Lack of nasal resonance for words is called -----------

Ans - Rhinolalia clausa

27. The muscles that act as tensor of vocal cord are ----- and ------
Ans - Cricothyroid, Vocalis

28. Vocal cord is in the cadaveric position if it is -----mm from midline

Ans - 3.5mm

29. In phonoasthenia , elliptical space is formed between the cords due to weakness of
------ muscle
Ans – Thyroarytenoid

30. Hypernasality of certain words is called ----

Ans - Rhinolalia aperta

SECTION-E

1. Larynx has …… paired and ……. unpaired cartilage

A] 1,1
B] 2,2
C] 3,1
D]3,3

2. Which among the following is a paired cartilage of larynx?

A] Thyroid
B] Arytenoid
C] Cricoid
D] Epiglottis

3. Following are the paired cartilages of larynx except

A] Cricoid
B] Arytenoid
C] Corniculate
D] Cuneiform

4. Only abductor of larynx is

A] Posterior cricoarytenoid
B] Lateral cricoarytenoid
C] Inter arytenoid
D] Cricothyroid

5. Opener of laryngeal inlet

A] Interaytenoid
B] Aryepiglottic
C] Thyroepiglottic
D] All of the above

6. Most common organism seen in acute epiglottitis

A] Streptoccocus pneumoniae
B] Staphylococcus aureus
C] H. Influenza B
D] All of the above

7. Thumb sign is seen in

A] Acute epiglotitis
B] Acute laryngo tracheo bronchitis
C] Edema of larynx
D] Laryngomalacia

8. Steeple sign is seen in

A] Acute epiglottitis
B] Acute laryngo tracheobronchitis
C] Edema of larynx
D] Laryngomalacia

9. Causative factors of Reinke’s edema is/are

A] Misuse of voice
B] Chronic smoking
C] Laryngopharyngeal reflex
D] All of the above

10. Scleroma of larynx is caused by

A] Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
B] Klebsiella pneumoniae
C] Streptococcus pneumoniae
D] Haemophilus influenza

11. Odynophagia is seen in

A] Acute epiglottitis
B] Acute laryngo tracheo bronchitis
C] Both of the above
D] None of the above

12. Virus associated with ALTB

A] Parainfluenza
B] Influenza virus
C] Both of above
D] None of the above

13. On direct laryngoscopy, omega shaped larynx is seen in

A] Laryngeal stenosis
B] Laryngomalacia
C] Laryngocoele
D] Laryngeal cyst

14. Which nerve injury results in congenital vocal cord paralysis?

A] Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B] Superior laryngeal nerve
C] Both 1 and 2
D] None of the above

15. Expiratory stridor involves pathology over

A] Thoracic trachea and bronchi
B] Pharynx and subglottis
C] Glottis
D] None of the above

16. Bronchial foreign body ……… stridor is seen

A] Expiratory stridor
B] Inspiratory stridor
C] Biphasic stridor
D] None of the above

17. All of the following are congenital causes of stridor except

A] Laryngomalacia
B] Subglottic stenosis
C] Laryngeal web
D] Papillomatosis

18. All of the following are acquired causes of stridor except

A] Laryngeal edema
B] Diphtheria
C] Infectious mononucleosis
D] Laryngeal hemangioma
19. Lesions outside respiratory tract causing stridor
A] Oesophageal atresia
B] Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
C] Congenital goitre
D] All of the above

20. Following are the symptoms of laryngotracheal trauma

A] Respiratory distress
B] Change in voice
C] Haemoptysis
D] All of the above

21. Following are the causes of laryngotracheal trauma

A] RTA
B] Strangulation
C] Both a and b
D] None of the above

22. Epiglottis develop from …………..

Ans - Hypobronchial eminence

23.…………. nerve passes through thyrohyoid membrane

Ans - Recurrent laryngeal nerve

24. Laryngomalacia also called as ……….

Ans - Congenital laryngeal stridor

25. Laryngeal fractures are common after ……. yrs of age because of ………… of laryngeal
framework
Ans - 40, calcification

SECTION-F

1.What is the primary indication for a tonsillectomy?1

A] Chronic ear infections
B] Enlarged adenoids
C] Recurrent tonsillitis
D] Dental cavities

2. What is the most common age group for patients undergoing tonsillectomy ?
A] Infants
B] School- age children
C] Teenagers
D] Adults

3. The time period for reactionary hemorrhage ?

A] At the time of operation
B] Within 24 hrs
C] Within 1 week
D] Within 2 weeks

3. Which blood vessel causes most common cause of haemorrhage in tonsillectomy ?

A] Lingual artery
B] Tonsillar artery
C] Peritonsillar vein
D] Ascending pharyngeal artery

4. Most common method of tonsillectomy ………..

Ans - Dissection and snare method

5. Which part of nose is addressed during septoplasty?

A] Nasal septal cartilage
B] Nasal bones
C] Nasal mucosa
D] Nasal turbinates

6. How is septoplasty different from rhinoplasty?

A] Septoplasty is for cosmetics , while rhinoplasty for functional issues
B] Septoplasty is performed on external nose, while rhinoplasty is performed on
internal structures
C] Septoplasty is to correct deviated septum, rhinoplasty is for aesthetic changes
D] Septoplasty is a non- surgical, while rhinoplasty is a surgical

7. After septoplasty what is the common post-operative recommendation?

A] Immediate return to strenuous physical activities
B] Frequent nose blowing to clear nasal passages
C] Rest and avoiding activities that could risk nasal trauma
D] Exposure to cold temperatures to reduce swelling

8. Most common incision on nasal mucosa , done cephalis to caudal end of septum
………..
Ans - Killian’s incision

9. HIV related oral manifestations can include

A] Dry eyes
B] Thrush ( oral candidiasis)
C] Hearing loss
D] Chronic sinusitis

10. What is the primary mode of transmission of HIV ?

A] Casual contact
B] Blood and body fluids
C] Airborne respiratory droplets
D] Food and water

11. HIV can lead to compromised immune function, which may make individuals more
susceptible to ent infections, including
A] Improved resistance to bacterial infections
B] Chronic ear infections
C] Enhance the sense of smell
D] Decreased risk of tonsillitis

12. Treatment best for HIV patients ………

Ans - HAART ( Highly active antiretroviral therapy )

13. Which age group is more prone for laryngeal foreign bodies?
A] Infants and young children
B] Adolescents
C] Adults
D] Elderly individuals

14. In a case of foreign body in larynx, what is immediate intervention?

A] Administer antibiotics
B] Perform chest X-ray
C] Laryngoscopy/ bronchoscopy for removal
D] Prescribe antitussive medication

15. Manoeuvre done to remove the laryngeal foreign body

Ans - Heimlich manoeuvre

16. What is the diagnostic tool often used to visualize and locate a foreign body in the
esophagus?
A] echocardiogram
B] Chest X-ray
C] X-ray barium swallow
D] Ultrasound

17.Common site of foreign body lodgement in esophagus- cricopharyngeal sphincter

following chemo drugs acts as radiosensitizers except?
A] Cisplatin
B] Mitomycin-C
C] Hydroxyurea
D] Methotrexate

18. What is carbogen ?

A] 95% o2 + 5%co2
B] 95%co2 + 5 % o2
C] 75% o2 + 25% co2
D] 25% o2 + 75 % co2

19. Monoclonal antibody which is used as targeted chemotherapy along with radiation?
A] Eculizumab
B] Trastuzumab
C] Cetuximab
D] Iinfliximab
20. Antioxidants used as radioprotectors except …….
A] Ascorbic acid
B] Retinol
C] Tocopherol
D] Calciferol