IMMUNOSERO (Quizlet)

MTAP: Immunology and Serology
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_byyiqp

Organs, tissues, and cells of the immune system that you are born
with (e.g., skin)
A) Innate immunity
A
B) Acquired immunity
C) Active immunity
D) Passive immunity
Immunity that develops during your lifetime
A) Innate immunity
B B) Acquired immunity
C) Active immunity
D) Passive immunity
Develops in response to an infection or vaccination
A) Innate immunity
C B) Acquired immunity
C) Active immunity
D) Passive immunity
Develops after you receive antibodies from someone or some-
where else
A) Innate immunity
D
B) Acquired immunity
C) Active immunity
D) Passive immunity
Statement 1: Everyone has a natural barriers of immunity, regard-
less of age, gender, or medical status.
Statement 2: Examples of innate immunity include the mucus
membrane, skin, cough reflex, pH secretions, and enzymes in
A saliva.
A) Both statements are correct
B) Both statements are incorrect
C) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect
D) Statement 2 is correct, statement 1 is incorrect
Statement 1: Natural Active Immunity involves antibodies received
through mother e.g., through breast milk
Statement 2: Artificial Passive Immunity involves antibodies re-
ceived from a medicine, e.g., from a gamma globulin injection or
D infusion
This type of immunity develops due to exposure among antigens
Acquired immunity
found in the environment
Type of acquired immunity wherein the body is exposed to cer-
Active immunity tain antigens and produces the corresponding antibodies to the
organism.
Type of acquired immunity wherein antibodies are received from
Passive immunity
another source or chemically synthesized
T/F: Both types of ACTIVE immunity (natural and artificial) are
T specific and long-term, while both types of PASSIVE immunity are
specific and immediate
T/F: Innate immunity is specific, while acquired immunity is
F
non-specific
Due to the production of ______ cells, active immunity persists for
memory
a longer period of time; however, it is not immediate.
T/F: Passive immunity is not long term due to the neutraliza-
T tion of antibodies by foreign antigens, eliminating them from the
serum/plasma.
1 / 19
Which type/s of immunity is considered the best?
A) Natural Active Immunity
B) Natural Passive Immunity
C) Artificial Active Immunity
G D) Artificial Passive Immunity
E) Innate Immunity
F) Both B and D
G) Both A and C
H) Both A and E
Statement 1: Cells that confer humoral immunity defend against
infected cells, cancers, and transplant tissues
Statement 2: Cells that confer cell-mediated immunity secrete
antibodies that defend against extracellular pathogens
B
Substances produced by cells that confer humoral immunity are
plasma seen in the patient's ______, wherein antibodies are secreted to
defend against pathogens.
Fill in the blanks (separate answers with a comma, ex: antigens,
immunity)
The following are functions mediated by B-cell with the help of
antibodies, complement, interleukins Helper T-cell:
Production of _________
Activation of __________ system
Release of cytokines and ____________
This refers to the defense mechanism of the body involving direct
cell-mediated immunity killing of the antigen by either the cytotoxic T cells or natural killer
cells
T/F: Substances found in the plasma are of humoral immunity
T whereas, if it involves direct killing of infected/cancer cells or
transplanted tissues, then they are of cell-mediated immunity.
This immunoglobulin has the greatest plasma concentration, at
around 70%.
A) IgG
A B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE
Which immunoglobulin has the capacity to cross the placenta?
A) IgG
B) IgM
A
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE
Arrange the following in order of efficiency in crossing the placenta
(most efficient to least efficient):
A) IgG3>IgG1>IgG2>IgG4
D
B) IgG1>IgG2>IgG3>IgG4
C) IgG2>IgG4>IgG3>IgG1
D) IgG1>IgG3>IgG4>IgG2
Which immunoglobulin is capable of:
- Neutralization of toxins
- Activation of complement
A - Agglutination
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
2 / 19
D) IgD
E) IgE
This is the largest immunoglobulin molecule
A) IgG
B) IgM
B
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE
This immunoglobulin is considered the best at activating comple-
ment
A) IgG
B B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE
This immunoglobulin is cold reacting
A) IgG
B) IgM
B
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE
Due to IgM being a ________ in structure, it can easily activate
pentamer
complement
immunity)
monomer, dimer
IgA comes in two forms. In serum, it is a _______, while in
secretions (such as saliva and tears), it is a _____
This immunoglobulin, although its function is still unknown, is
found in the surface of B cells, thus serving as a marker
A) IgG
D B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE
This immunoglobulin is responsible for allergic reactions
A) IgG
B) IgM
E
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE
immunity)
basophils, histamine
IgE binds with mast cells or _________, which mediates the
release of _________ and heparin.
Statement 1: IgM is elevated during the primary response.
Statement 2: IgG is elevated during the secondary response.
A
An increase in this immunoglobulin during infection indicates re-
covery or immunity.
A) IgG
A B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE
3 / 19
Of all the different types of cells that originate from the blood stem
cell, ___________ have a different stem cell lineage.
A) Neutrophils
D B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes
This WBC is considered the first responder when foreign organ-
isms enter the body.
A) Neutrophils
A B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes
This WBC is considered the effector cell for hypersensitivity reac-
tions
A) Neutrophils
B B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes
This WBC is considered the primary responder to parasitic infec-
tions
A) Neutrophils
C B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes
T T/F: The ratio of B cells to T cells is 1:8
immunity)
bone marrow, thymus The lymphocytes are formed in the thymus and the bone marrow.
The ___________ is the site of maturation for both B cells and NK
cells, while the ______ is the site of maturation for T cells.
immunity)
TCR-1, TCR-2, immunoglobulins, complement The surface receptor for T cells are _____ or _____, for B cells
they have surface _______________, either D or M, or have
__________ receptors, while NK cells have none.
Surface markers for: T cells (choose all that apply, separate an-
swers with a comma, ex: G, H, L)
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 8
A, B, C, E
F) 16
G) 19
H) 20
I) 21
J) 22
K) 55
L) 56
Surface markers for: B cells (choose all that apply, separate an-
swers with a comma, ex: G, H, L)
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
4 / 19
E) 8
F) 16
G) 19
H) 20
G, H, I
I) 21
J) 22
K) 55
L) 56
Surface markers for: NK cells (choose all that apply, separate
answers with a comma, ex: G, H, L)
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 8
F, L
F) 16
G) 19
H) 20
I) 21
J) 22
K) 55
L) 56
immunity)
CD4, CD8 ___ T cells mediate the release of cytokines and interact with B
cells. This type of T cell can become a memory cell. On the other
hand, ___ T cells can become cytotoxic.
Statement 1: NK cells can kill viruses, infected cells, and tumor
cells directly.
Statement 2: T cells can evolve into plasma cells and become
memory cells.
C
T/F: Surface receptors are used to identify the type of lymphocyte
F
found in the body
short, 6 immunity)
MHC is synthesized in the _____ arm of chromosome _
This MHC class encodes for HLA A, B, and C genes.
A) Class I
A
B) Class II
C) Class III
This MHC class encodes for DP, DQ, DR genes
A) Class I
B
B) Class II
C) Class III
This MHC class encodes for soluble products, and is not found in
the surface of the cell (Complement proteins and TNF)
C A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
This MHC class is expressed in almost all nucleated cells.
A) Class I
A
B) Class II
C) Class III
5 / 19
Select all that apply to: MHC-I (separate answers with a comma,
ex: A, B)
A) Cellular expression: CD8 T cells
A, C
B) Cellular expression: CD4 T cells
C) Antigen specificity: 8-10 amino acid peptides
D) Antigen specificity: 13-18 amino acid peptides
Select all that apply to: MHC-II (separate answers with a comma,
ex: A, B)
A) Cellular expression: CD8 T cells
B, D
B) Cellular expression: CD4 T cells
C) Antigen specificity: 8-10 amino acid peptides
D) Antigen specificity: 13-18 amino acid peptides
T/F: MHC-III - are not expressed on cells, have no antigen speci-
T
ficity and presentation, but are located in membrane receptors.
Transplantation immunology This is the most important application of MHC
Select all that apply to: Hyperacute reactions (separate answers
with a comma, ex: A, B)
A) minutes to hours
B) days to weeks
A, F
C) months to years
D) T-cytotoxic cells
E) T-cytotoxic cells and cytokines
F) ABO incompatibility
Select all that apply to: Acute reactions (separate answers with a
comma, ex: A, B)
A) minutes to hours
B) days to weeks
B, D
C) months to years
Select all that apply to: Chronic reactions (separate answers with
a comma, ex: A, B)
A) minutes to hours
B) days to weeks
C, E
C) months to years
In chronic reactions, _________ are produced in response to the
cytokines
transplanted organs
This test is used to check for the HLA compatibility of the donor and
Microcytotoxicity test recipient by identifying the presence of antigen on the patient's
lymphocyte
Statement 1: In complement-dependent cytotoxicity, if there is the
presence of an antigen on the lymphocyte, an Ag-Ab complex will
form, and the cell will become porous after the addition of more
complement.
Statement 2: therefore, a positive result in the test would be the
C lack of dye uptake indicating that a complex has formed and the
antigen is present on the lymphocyte
6 / 19
Statement 1: The mixed lymphocyte reaction quantifies the de-
gree of MHC compatibility between the donor and recipient and
involves only 1 reaction
Statement 2: In the test, the recipient's lymphocytes are irradiated
to ensure that any lymphocyte activity that occurs will be that of
B
the donor's
The second reaction in the mixed lymphocyte reaction test in-
chromium
volves the use of ________ labeled donor cells.
immunity)
The 2 reactions that occur in the mixed lymphocyte reaction if the
CD4, donor
donor and recipient are incompatible:
- Proliferation of ___ T cells of the recipient cells
- Killing of the _____ cells
Refers to a group of proteins that are synthesized by phagocytes,
complement
hepatocytes, fibroblasts, and endothelial cells
This pathway is activated by antigen-antibody complexes:
A) Classical
A
B) Lectin
C) Alternative
This pathway is activated by microbial surfaces, specifically man-
nose binding lectin (MBL)
B A) Classical
B) Lectin
C) Alternative
This pathway is activated by bacteria, viruses, and fungi
A) Classical
C
B) Lectin
C) Alternative
This pathway has its own name for its complement, factor B and
Factor D.
C A) Classical
B) Lectin
C) Alternative
Common pathway - C3, once activated, activates C5 con-
membrane attack complex vertase which is responsible for the formation of the
______________________ that leads to the lysis of the cell
Select all that apply to: Anaphylatoxins (separate answers with a
comma, ex: A, B)
A) C2a
B) C3a
B, D, F C) C3b
D) C4a
E) C4b
F) C5a
D) C5b
Which of the following is the most potent anaphylatoxin?
A) C2a
B) C3a
C) C3b
F
D) C4a
E) C4b
F) C5a
D) C5b
7 / 19
Which of the following is the most potent opsonin?
A) C2a
B) C3a
C) C3b
C
D) C4a
E) C4b
F) C5a
D) C5b
These complement proteins can increase vascular permeabili-
Anaphylatoxins ty, releases the product histamine to stimulate inflammatory re-
sponses
This process enhances the phagocytic binding capacity of
Opsonization macrophages by coating foreign organisms and attaching them to
their complement receptors
The membrane attack complex is initiated by the binding of the fol-
lowing, causing cell lysis (choose all that apply, separate answers
with a comma, ex: A, B, C)
A) C4a
B) C4b
C) C5a
D, E, F, G, H
D) C5b
E) C6
F) C7
G) C8
H) C9
I) C10
These are responsible for regulating or preventing unnecessary
Inhibitors
activation of the complement pathways
This inhibitor is responsible for inhibiting the C1 component of the
classical pathway.
A) C1 esterase
A
B) C4 binding protein
C) Factor I
D) Factor H
This inhibitor is responsible for binding all C4 available to prevent
C3 activation.
A) C1 esterase
B
B) C4 binding protein
C) Factor I
D) Factor H
This inhibitor degrades C3b
A) C1 esterase
C B) C4 binding protein
C) Factor I
D) Factor H
This inhibitor competes with factor B in alternative pathway
A) C1 esterase
D B) C4 binding protein
C) Factor I
D) Factor H
The following proteins are considered acute phase proteins, which
increase during inflammatory reactions (choose all that apply,
separate answers with a comma, ex: A, B, C)
A) Alpha-1 antitrypsin
A, B, D, E, F, G B) Alpha-2 macroglobulin
C) Alpha-fetoprotein
D) Ceruloplasmin
E) C-reactive protein
F) Fibrinogen
8 / 19
G) Haptoglobin
H) all of the above
This refers to an immune system that is too sensitive.
A) Hypersensitive
A
B) Autoimmune disorders
C) Immunodeficiency
This refers to an immune system that fails to recognize self from
nonself, wherein it starts to attack its own cells.
B A) Hypersensitive
C) Immunodeficiency
This refers to an immune system that fails to respond when need-
ed during infection.
C A) Hypersensitive
C) Immunodeficiency
immunity)
E, G
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by Ig_, while type
II hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by Ig_.
This type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the binding of aller-
gens to immunoglobulin receptors on mast cells and basophils,
causing the release of cellular secretions, namely histamine and
heparin.
A
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
This type of hypersensitivity involves complexes often found on the
surface of the cell, and is mediated by IgG
A) Type I
B
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
This type of hypersensitivity involves soluble antigen-antibody
complexes that are freely floating in the plasma.
A) Type I
C
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
This type of hypersensitivity involves the presence of cytotoxic T
cells which mediate the hypersensitivity
A) Type I
D
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Select all that apply to: Type I hypersensitivity reactions (separate

answers with a comma, ex: A, B)
A) IgG-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B) Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
C) Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
D) IgE-mediated hypersensitivity
D, E, J
E) Anaphylactic, immediate
F) ADCC
G) Delayed
H) Transfusion reaction, HA, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Good Pas-
teur Disease
I) RA, SLE, Serum sickness/Arthus reaction
9 / 19
J) Hay fever, food allergic, asthma
K) Contact dermatitis, TB, GVHD
Select all that apply to: Type II hypersensitivity reactions (separate
A, F, H
F) ADCC
G) Delayed
teur Disease
Select all that apply to: Type III hypersensitivity reactions (separate
B, I
F) ADCC
G) Delayed
teur Disease
Select all that apply to: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions (sepa-
rate answers with a comma, ex: A, B)
C, G, K
F) ADCC
G) Delayed
teur Disease
This is the most common test used to identify autoimmune prob-
Antinuclear antibody test
lems
Select all that apply to: SLE (separate answers with a comma, ex:
A, B)
A) Anti-DNA
B) Antimitochondrial
C) Antinuclear
D) Antiribosome
E) Anti-DNP
A, C, D, E F) Antimyelin
G) Antiparietal cell
H) Anticentriole
I) Antiacetylcholine receptor blocking
J) Antiacetylcholine receptor binding
K) Anti-intrinsic factor
L) Anti-Scl
M) Anti-SS-A
10 / 19
N) Anti-SS-B
O) Antithyroglobulin
P) Antiplatelet
Q) Antiglomerular basement membrane
R) Anti-Jo-1
S) Anti-Ku
T) Anti-Mi-1
U) Anti-PM-1
V) Anti-islet cell
Select all that apply to: Primary biliary cirrhosis (separate answers
A) Anti-DNA
C) Antinuclear
D) Antiribosome
E) Anti-DNP
F) Antimyelin
H) Anticentriole
B
L) Anti-Scl
M) Anti-SS-A
N) Anti-SS-B
P) Antiplatelet
R) Anti-Jo-1
S) Anti-Ku
T) Anti-Mi-1
U) Anti-PM-1
V) Anti-islet cell
Select all that apply to: Myasthenia gravis (separate answers with
a comma, ex: A, B)
A) Anti-DNA
C) Antinuclear
D) Antiribosome
E) Anti-DNP
F) Antimyelin
H) Anticentriole
I, J
L) Anti-Scl
M) Anti-SS-A
N) Anti-SS-B
P) Antiplatelet
R) Anti-Jo-1
S) Anti-Ku
T) Anti-Mi-1
U) Anti-PM-1
V) Anti-islet cell
11 / 19
Select all that apply to: Pernicious anemia (separate answers with
a comma, ex: A, B)
A) Anti-DNA
C) Antinuclear
D) Antiribosome
E) Anti-DNP
F) Antimyelin
H) Anticentriole
G, K
L) Anti-Scl
M) Anti-SS-A
N) Anti-SS-B
P) Antiplatelet
R) Anti-Jo-1
S) Anti-Ku
T) Anti-Mi-1
U) Anti-PM-1
V) Anti-islet cell
Select all that apply to: Multiple sclerosis (separate answers with
a comma, ex: A, B)
A) Anti-DNA
C) Antinuclear
D) Antiribosome
E) Anti-DNP
F) Antimyelin
H) Anticentriole
F
L) Anti-Scl
M) Anti-SS-A
N) Anti-SS-B
P) Antiplatelet
R) Anti-Jo-1
S) Anti-Ku
T) Anti-Mi-1
U) Anti-PM-1
V) Anti-islet cell
Select all that apply to: Scleroderma (separate answers with a
comma, ex: A, B)
A) Anti-DNA
C) Antinuclear
D) Antiribosome
E) Anti-DNP
H, L
F) Antimyelin
H) Anticentriole
L) Anti-Scl
12 / 19
M) Anti-SS-A
N) Anti-SS-B
P) Antiplatelet
R) Anti-Jo-1
S) Anti-Ku
T) Anti-Mi-1
U) Anti-PM-1
V) Anti-islet cell
Select all that apply to: Sjogren's syndrome (separate answers
A) Anti-DNA
C) Antinuclear
D) Antiribosome
E) Anti-DNP
F) Antimyelin
H) Anticentriole
M, N
L) Anti-Scl
M) Anti-SS-A
N) Anti-SS-B
P) Antiplatelet
R) Anti-Jo-1
S) Anti-Ku
T) Anti-Mi-1
U) Anti-PM-1
V) Anti-islet cell
Select all that apply to: Graves' disease (separate answers with a
comma, ex: A, B)
A) Anti-DNA
C) Antinuclear
D) Antiribosome
E) Anti-DNP
F) Antimyelin
H) Anticentriole
O
L) Anti-Scl
M) Anti-SS-A
N) Anti-SS-B
P) Antiplatelet
R) Anti-Jo-1
S) Anti-Ku
T) Anti-Mi-1
U) Anti-PM-1
V) Anti-islet cell
13 / 19
Select all that apply to: Polymyositis (separate answers with a
comma, ex: A, B)
A) Anti-DNA
C) Antinuclear
D) Antiribosome
E) Anti-DNP
F) Antimyelin
H) Anticentriole
R, S, T, U
L) Anti-Scl
M) Anti-SS-A
N) Anti-SS-B
P) Antiplatelet
R) Anti-Jo-1
S) Anti-Ku
T) Anti-Mi-1
U) Anti-PM-1
V) Anti-islet cell
Select all that apply to: Goodpasture's syndrome (separate an-
swers with a comma, ex: A, B)
A) Anti-DNA
C) Antinuclear
D) Antiribosome
E) Anti-DNP
F) Antimyelin
H) Anticentriole
Q
L) Anti-Scl
M) Anti-SS-A
N) Anti-SS-B
P) Antiplatelet
R) Anti-Jo-1
S) Anti-Ku
T) Anti-Mi-1
U) Anti-PM-1
V) Anti-islet cell
Select all that apply to: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (sep-
arate answers with a comma, ex: A, B)
A) Anti-DNA
C) Antinuclear
D) Antiribosome
E) Anti-DNP
P
F) Antimyelin
H) Anticentriole
L) Anti-Scl
14 / 19
M) Anti-SS-A
N) Anti-SS-B
P) Antiplatelet
R) Anti-Jo-1
S) Anti-Ku
T) Anti-Mi-1
U) Anti-PM-1
V) Anti-islet cell
Select all that apply to: Insulin-dependent diabetes (separate an-
A) Anti-DNA
C) Antinuclear
D) Antiribosome
E) Anti-DNP
F) Antimyelin
H) Anticentriole
V
L) Anti-Scl
M) Anti-SS-A
N) Anti-SS-B
P) Antiplatelet
R) Anti-Jo-1
S) Anti-Ku
T) Anti-Mi-1
U) Anti-PM-1
V) Anti-islet cell
This disease is characterized by lack of granules in the neutrophil,
rendering it unable to kill pathogens despite being capable of
phagocytosis.
A) Chronic granulomatous disease
B
B) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
C) Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
D) Di George's syndrome
E) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
This disease is characterized by the lack of antibody production.
C
This disease is characterized by the dysfunction of T cells, result-
ing in serious viral infections.
D B) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Patients with this disease typically do not reach adulthood.
E
15 / 19
These are useful in monitoring the progress of cancer and the
Tumor markers
response of the patient to cancer treatment.
This tumor marker is associated with cancer in the liver, ovary, and
testes.
A) AFP
B) PSA
A
C) CEA
D) CA 15-3
E) CA 125
F) CA 19-9
This tumor marker is associated with cancer in the prostate.
A) AFP
B) PSA
B C) CEA
D) CA 15-3
E) CA 125
F) CA 19-9
This tumor marker is associated with cancer in the colon, breast,
and lung.
A) AFP
B) PSA
C
C) CEA
D) CA 15-3
E) CA 125
F) CA 19-9
This tumor marker is associated with cancer in the breast.
A) AFP
B) PSA
D C) CEA
D) CA 15-3
E) CA 125
F) CA 19-9
This tumor marker is associated with cancer in the ovary.
A) AFP
B) PSA
E C) CEA
D) CA 15-3
E) CA 125
F) CA 19-9
This tumor marker is associated with cancer in the pancreas.
A) AFP
B) PSA
F C) CEA
D) CA 15-3
E) CA 125
F) CA 19-9
Select all that apply to: Non-specific treponemal tests (separate
A) VDRL
B) TP-PA
A, C
C) RPR
D) FTA-ABS
E) TP-EIA
F) CIA
Select all that apply to: specific treponemal tests (separate an-
B, D, E, F A) VDRL
B) TP-PA
C) RPR
16 / 19
D) FTA-ABS
E) TP-EIA
F) CIA
Statement 1: Non-treponemal tests are non-specific tests which
detect the presence of antibodies which are not specific for Tre-
ponema pallidum, and can be produced in other diseases such as
malaria.
Statement 2: Confirmatory treponemal test are based upon the
C
detection of the specific antigens against treponemal antibodies.
T/F: Treponemal tests can be reported either qualitatively or quan-
F
titatively.
T/F: The use of only one type of serological test for syphilis is
F
sufficient for diagnosis.
Select all that apply to: primary stage of syphilis tests (separate
A) RPR
B) VRDL
A, B, C
C) FTA-ABS
D) MHA-TP
E) TPI
F) All of the above
Select all that apply to: secondary stage of syphilis tests (separate
A) RPR
B) VRDL
F
C) FTA-ABS
D) MHA-TP
E) TPI
F) All of the above
Select all that apply to: tertiary stage of syphilis tests (separate
A) RPR
B) VRDL
C, D, E
C) FTA-ABS
D) MHA-TP
E) TPI
F) All of the above
this test is the most sensitive in all stages of syphilis infection.
A) RPR
B) VRDL
C
C) FTA-ABS
D) MHA-TP
E) TPI
Kissing disease Other name for infectious mononucleosis
Epstein-Barr virus Causative agent of infectious mononucleosis
immunity)
Antigens and antibodies commonly encountered in patient's
Capsid, Diffuse, Nuclear serum with infectious mononucleosis:
- Viral ______ antigen
- Early antigen-_______
- Epstein Barr _______ antigen
Refer to the antibody response curve to EBV antigens.
Which antibody forms first?
17 / 19
A) EA IgG
B B) VCA IgM
C) VCA IgG and EBNA IgG
Which antibody is produced during acute infection?
A A) EA IgG
B) VCA IgM
Which indicates convalescence period or that patients had recov-
ered from the infection?
C
A) EA IgG
B) VCA IgM
This antigen/antibody found in hepatitis B infections is a marker of
infectivity, indicating that the patient is very infectious:
A) HBsAg
B
B) HBeAg
C) IgM Anti-HBc
D) Anti-HBs
This antigen/antibody found in hepatitis B infections is the first to
appear upon infection and can indicate acute infection:
A) HBsAg
A
B) HBeAg
C) IgM Anti-HBc
D) Anti-HBs
This antigen/antibody found in hepatitis B infections is indicative
of acute infection:
A) HBsAg
C
B) HBeAg
C) IgM Anti-HBc
D) Anti-HBs
This antigen/antibody found in hepatitis B infections is indicative
of recovery from infection and starts to appear in the 5th month,
or can occur from immunization?
D A) HBsAg
B) HBeAg
C) IgM Anti-HBc
D) Anti-HBs
In HIV, this is the first to increase in the patient's serum:
A) p24 antigen
B B) HIV RNA
C) CD4 T cells
D) Anti-HIV
Screening methods for HIV detect the presence of this substance,
which only occurs during the 10th day of infection in which the
amount may still not be detectable:
D A) p24 antigen
B) HIV RNA
C) CD4 T cells
D) Anti-HIV
Select all that apply: Detected by 1st Gen ELISA (separate an-
A) IgG Ab to HIV-1
B) IgG Ab to HIV-2
A
C) IgM Ab to HIV-1
D) IgM Ab to HIV-2
E) p24 antigen
F) all of the above
18 / 19
Select all that apply: Detected by 2nd Gen ELISA (separate an-
A) IgG Ab to HIV-1
B) IgG Ab to HIV-2
A, B
C) IgM Ab to HIV-1
D) IgM Ab to HIV-2
E) p24 antigen
F) all of the above
Select all that apply: Detected by 3rd Gen ELISA (separate an-
A) IgG Ab to HIV-1
B) IgG Ab to HIV-2
A, B, C, D
C) IgM Ab to HIV-1
D) IgM Ab to HIV-2
E) p24 antigen
F) all of the above
Select all that apply: Detected by 4th Gen ELISA (separate an-
A) IgG Ab to HIV-1
B) IgG Ab to HIV-2
F
C) IgM Ab to HIV-1
D) IgM Ab to HIV-2
E) p24 antigen
F) all of the above
This confirmatory test for HIV detects the presence of proteins in
the patient's serum.
A A) Western blot
B) Indirect immunofluorescence assay
C) Nucleic acid amplification test
This confirmatory test for HIV is often requested when the physi-
cian wants to check the patient's viral load and to determine the
effectiveness of antiviral medications.
C
A) Western blot
B) Indirect immunofluorescence assay
C) Nucleic acid amplification test
Streptococcus pyogenes Etiologic agent for scarlet fever, RF, post-strep glomerulonephritis
Streptococcal serology significance: to prevent __________ factor
rheumatoid
formation or determination of whether or not it has been produced
Positive result in anti-streptolysin O titer:
A) hemagglutination
B B) hemolysis
C) turbidity
D) color change
T/F: in the ASO titer, the last tube that contains agglutination is the
F
tube reported
Dilution in tube 2 for ASO titer:
A) 1:2
C B) 1:4
C) 1:8
D) 1:16
This test is considered more specific than the ASO titer, since the
Anti-DNAse
ASO titer can be prone to cross-reactions with other antibodies.
19 / 19

IMMUNOSERO (Quizlet)

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

IMMUNOSERO (Quizlet)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

MTAP: Immunology and Serology

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_byyiqp

Select all that apply to: Type I hypersensitivity reactions (separate

You might also like