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FIRE PROTECTION AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

1. Out of hate and jealousy, Inggo destroyed the house of Edgar by the use of fire.
However, only quarter of the entire building was burned. What was the crime committed
by Inggo if there is any?
a. malicious mischief
b. arson
c. destruction of property
d. frustrated arson

2. Arson is a mala in se crime. This statement is –


a. false, arson is defined and punished by a statute
b. false, crime arson is not inherently evil or wrongful
c. true, law on arson is originally defined and punished under Revised Penal Code
d. false, it is simply because arson is mala prohibitum

3. The intention of Andoy was to burn the house of Mandy. He conducted initial
assessment as part of his plan. He did not intend to hurt anybody. When he executed his
plan, he thought no one is inside the building. He did not know that Edna, daughter of
Mandy was still inside the house. Edna died of suffocation caused by the fire. What was
the crime/s committed by the Andoy?
a. arson
b. arson with homicide
c. homicide
d. arson and homicide

4. Kiko was able to set fire to the rags he planted near the house of his Kokoy, but the
fire was put out before any part of the building was burned. What was the crime
committed by Kiko if there is any?
a. attempted arson
b. malicious mischief
c. frustrated arson
d. arson

5. Nonong bought bottles of lighter fluid, gallons of gasoline, matches and gathered logs
and rags. A reliable source has information that Nonong has a plan of burning the house
of Totoy. When Nonong arrived on his house, the police together with the informant and
Totoy arrested him. Was the arrest valid?
a. no, Nonong did not commit any crime
b. yes, crime committed is attempted arson
c. yes, crime committed is frustrated arson
d. yes, Nonong exhibited overt acts when he bought the preparations

6. John and Peter, business partners came up with a resolution to address their financial
crisis. Their business is at the verge of bankruptcy. Both of them came to an agreement
of burning the insured assets of their business. What was the crime committed if there is
any?
a. conspiracy to commit arson
b. none, proposal and conspiracy are not punishable
c. proposal to commit arson
d. either conspiracy or proposal
7. Arson in three (3) stages (attempted, frustrated and consummated) is punishable
under the law. Elements of arson in attempted stage are the following, EXCEPT –
a. offender commences the commission of the felony
b. offender performed overt acts
c. offender performed all the acts of executions
d. offender did not commit arson by reason of causes independent of his will

8. The culprit sets fire to the wooden building. However the structure did not hold the
fire. Fibers of the wooden walls were just charred. What was the crime committed by the
culprit if there is any?
a. attempted arson
b. consummated arson
c. frustrated arson
d. none

9. A person, intending to burn a wooden structure, collects some rags, soaks them in
gasoline and places them beside the wooden wall of the building. When he is about to
light a match to set fire to the rags, rain poured. He fled for his fear of being caught and
left all the preparations. What was the crime committed by him if there is any?
a. attempted arson
b. arson
c. frustrated arson
d. none

10. Mere discoloration of a concrete wall subjected to fire is not consummated arson.
Arson committed may be in the frustrated stage. There is frustrated arson when –
a. all the acts of execution were performed
b. perpetrator is convinced that the felony has been produced
c. an overt act was performed but did not produce the felony by reason of accident
d. independent of the will of the one who perpetrated all the acts of execution of the
arson, the crime was not produced

11. The suspected arsonist was apprehended at the scene when an informant disclosed
the former’s plan to the police. Preparations which are intended to be used as trailers
and plants were seen and the suspect has been subjected to frisking. Police officers
found lighter in his pocket. Such item found at the suspect’s possession is –
a. fuel
b. heat
c. chemical
d. oxidizing agent

12. The fire scene was processed by the arson investigator. When he examined the point
of origin, he found purple stain. This stain is indicative of a mixture of chemicals. He
thinks that the contrivance was chemical. It is believed that the mixture was subjected to
small amount of heat. The reaction occurred in the setting of fire is termed –
a. hypogolic
b. pyrolytic
c. hypergolic
d. oxidation
13. When a solid fuel is subjected to an intense heat, decomposition will occur. Solid
material turns to vapor and to a flammable gas composed of –
a. alipato
b. free radicals
c. fire gases
d. smoke

14. Museums and offices for safekeeping of computer data should not use water in their
sprinkler system device. This might ruin their assets. Expensive companies use reagent

a. soda acids
b. carbon monoxide
c. specialized foam
d. clear agent

15. Reagents may be used in the extinguishment of fire. Among them are Halon 1301,
Inergen, FM 200 and FE 13. What particular element of fire is suppressed or disabled by
using them?
a. removing fuel
b. lowering temperature
c. expelling oxygen
d. breaking chain reaction

16. Chemical which is easily oxidized once exposed in the atmosphere and heated with
little amount of heat. This is used in making matches –
a. antimony pentasulfide
b. sulphuric acid
c. potassium permanganate
d. glycerin

17. Fire extinguisher with carbon dioxide as reagent can be used when suppressing
accelerants such as kerosene and alcohol. Such chemical extinguishes fire by means of

a. removing fuel
b. expelling oxygen
c. cooling
d. breaking chain reaction

18. Fire extinguisher may still suppress fire during the first phase of development.
However it will only be done by the use of an appropriate reagent. This is done by –
a. determining the duration of fire
b. locating the origin of fire
c. knowing the classification of fire
d. arresting the suspect

19. A veteran fire investigator would seek to gather facts to determine the cause of fire.
Occurrence of the emergency is criminal when –
a. accidental
b. unknown
c. providential
d. incendiary
20. Pablo gathered logs and plenty of carbonaceous materials for his plan to destroy the
building of his business competitor by the use of fire. When he lighted the preparations,
he immediately fled from the scene. It has been seen by the roving guard who in turn told
the authorities. The emergency response team managed to suppress the fire by the use
of fire extinguisher. What was the classification of fire in the incident?
a. class a
b. class c
c. class b
d. class d

21. It has been found the investigator that the cause of fire is accidental. The incident
occurred first in the kitchen as indicated by the depth of char. The owner of the house
said that he believes it was because of the vegetable oil he was using. Cause of fire can
be suppressed by means of –
a. foam
b. soda acid
c. dry chemicals
d. carbon dioxide

22. An investigator can identify the burning product by mere observation of the fire and
the surrounding conditions. The color of the so-called distinct products of combustion
may help him arrive on a sound conclusion. These products are also known as –
a. flame
b. light
c. heat
d. smoke

23. There are fuels that do not burn easily. Usually they are non-carbonaceous. Oxidation
could be determined in their glowing surface. This also known as –
a. solid fire
b. flaming fire
c. luminous fire
d. pyrolysis

24. A special condition characterized by explosion that occurs when oxygen is


introduced into a room full of hot gases –
a. rollover
b. backdraft
c. flashover
d. pyrolysis

25. Warehouse of a department store selling cooking appliances is burning. When the
firefighting team arrived, and evaluated the fire with their general inquiry as to the
contents of the building. Employees said that most of the materials are lithium-based.
What should be the reagent to use in order to suppress such fire considering its class?
a. AFFF
b. Halon
c. water
d. carbon dioxide
26. Fire spread on buildings and other structures near the burning house. What element
of fire is responsible for such incident?
a. fuel
b. smoke
c. oxygen
d. heat

27. A special chemical reagent is being used by the firefighters in extinguishing almost
all classes of fire. This is known for its name AFFF. A stands for –
a. acute
b. aqueous
c. aquatic
d. acid

28. Gases are remained when products of combustion are cooled to normal temperature.
This occurs during what stage of fire development?
a. decay
b. growth
c. extinction
d. fully developed

29. Fire investigator should search for the boundary line between the charred and
uncharred materials upon entering the fire scene. Facts to consider in his objective are
the colors of the walls, floors, internal structures and the depth of char. This boundary
between them is known as –
a. baseline
b. line of demarcation
c. fire margin
d. free throw line

30. When the building to be burnt happens to be deprived of oxygen, an oxidizing agent
may be used to complete the elements necessary for combustion. The following are
oxidizing agents EXCEPT –
a. chlorine
b. pyroxylin
c. fluorine
d. hydrocarbon

31. The law of conservation and transformation may be observed in the oxidation by
means of burning. Potential energy is stored and converted into kinetic. As a result,
when wood is used as fuel, with sufficient amount of oxygen and exposure to high
temperature, new chemicals are formed. These chemicals / compounds are –
a. sodium and sulfur
b. potassium and acid
c. carbon and oxygen
d. carbon dioxide and vapor
32. Muscular skill of a person is diminished when the oxygen levels drop to 15%. This
condition is known as ANOXIA. What is the oxygen level sufficient to start a fire?
a. 21 %
b. 16 %
c. 15 %
d. 18 %

33. Normal level of atmospheric oxygen needed for breathing –


a. 21 %
b. 16 %
c. 15 %
d. 18 %

34. Death may result from exposure to excessive heat for a sufficient period of time
without visible signs of burning as in the flash fire. This condition is known as
HYPERTHERMIA. When such heat transferred to the body by electromagnetic energy in
air vacuum or open space, this process is called –
a. radiation
b. convection
c. conduction
d. pyrolysis

35. Fire extinguisher may be able to suppress fire for the first five (5) minutes. This could
be done with the proper reagent and assessment of the fire class. The following may be
suppressed using dry chemical EXCEPT –
a. Class A c. Class C
b. Class B d. Class D

36. Precaution should be exercised by the firefighter in entering the fire scene. He must
be equipped with knowledge to safely secure and save lives of trapped people. When it is
noticeable that fire has already consumed all the available fuels, temperatures decrease,
and fire gets less intense he should wear breathing apparatus for he is surrounded by
toxic gases. This condition occurs during what stage of fire development?
a. smothering c. flaming
b. heating d. smoldering

37. Fire investigator should know the movement of fire and its products to determine the
origin and cause of fire. Which of the following is the usual and normal behavior of fire?
a. rises and moves horizontally to find vertical outlets
b. rises and moves horizontally then drops to the ground
c. horizontal then finds vertical outlets and drops
d. vertical or horizontal

38. When the investigator examined the burned building and with the help of the
neighbors, he learned that the items, furniture and appliances were replaced. Some of
them, including important documents were removed. Who among the following is the
most possible suspect?
a. owner of the house c. business competitor
b. neighbor d. fire investigator
39. When upon arrival at the scene the investigator found that there were other fires that
are separate, nonrelated and simultaneously burning near the area, cause might be
felonious. In fact, this occurrence may be presented in court as –
a. conclusive evidence c. corpus delicti
b. prima facie evidence d. real evidence

40. It was found that a lighter fluid was used as accelerant in the fire scene. A man who
seems to be amazed of the flames was apprehended. He was then searched due to his
suspicious behavior. A receipt has been found on his pocket. When the officer checked
it, one of the purchased items is a lighter fluid. Other items are rags and volumes of bond
papers. The receipt is not sufficient without other findings of the officers. Receipt is an
example of –
a. corpus delicti c. overt act
b. prima facie evidence d. circumstantial evidence

41. Debris was collected and submitted to PNP crime laboratory to determine presence of
accelerants. Some portions were examined by a private expert. Result of the examination
conducted by the crime laboratory indicates that it is positive for kerosene. Shortly, the
finding of the private expert is the same. Result of the examination of the expert
supporting that of the PNP is an example of –
a. cumulative evidence c. circumstantial evidence
b. corroborative evidence d. supplemental evidence

42. When the heat is transferred through a fluid or gas caused by molecular action, this
process is called –
a. radiation c. conduction
b. convection d. pyrolysis

43. What is the condition when ignition temperature is reached and all the items in the
building burst into flame?
a. rollover c. backdraft
b. flashover d. pyrolysis

44. Includes all nuclear reactions in which two (2) light nuclei combine to form heavier
nucleus, with emission of other particles and gamma rays –
a. nuclear reaction c. nuclear fission
b. uninhibited chain reaction d. nuclear fusion

45. Made up of very fine solid particles and condensed vapor as a consequence of
combustion. A warning of fire and contributes to panic –
a. smoke c. flame
b. fire d. hot gases

46. The element of fire which is probably the most important because it is something that
burns –
a. fuel
b. oxygen
c. heat
d. uninhibited chain
47. Biting smoke which may irritate the eyes, the throat and the skin indicates the
presence of –
a. Chlorine
b. Pyroxylin
c. Hydrocarbon
d. Sodium Glutamate

48. Which is that stage of fire development where all of the available fuels in the house or
area are burned, flame is reduced and area is full of gases?
a. Overheating
b. Free-burning phase
c. Flaming
d. Smoldering

49. Which of the following usually refers to as glowing combustion that results in
flameless fire?
a. Gas-phased
b. Condense-phased
c. Explosion
d. Detonation

50. Which is the process where the burning solid fuel decomposes to vapor that turns to
gas and burns?
a. Anoxia
b. Hypergolic reaction
c. Olfactory fatigue
d. Pyrolysis

SPECIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION WITH SIMULATION ON INTERVIEW AND


INTERROGATION

1. Which is the questioning employed during custodial investigation?


interview
preliminary inquiry
interrogation
criminal investigation

2. What kind of questioning is conducted when IRONIC format is adopted?


interview
preliminary inquiry
interrogation
criminal investigation

3. The officer who will conduct the questioning, in IRONIC must introduce himself during –
identity
introduction
interrogation
intellectualization

4. IRONIC format, in questioning, is commonly utilized by the police. Which of the following is
done after the officer identifies himself / herself?
ask the suspect questions material to the crime being investigated
have the suspect physically and psychologically examined
offer a drink or ask questions that have nothing to do with the case being investigated
recite the Miranda Warning

5. Part of the IRONIC is narration. Who among the following will narrate?
the interviewer
the witness
the victim
the subject

6. Narration is part of the IRONIC format. What kind of question is ideal in order to obtain
narration?
ask questions answerable by yes or no
ask questions that have nothing to do with the crime being investigated
ask open-ended questions
intimidate the subject

7. Police officers have the authority to conduct custodial investigation. Who is placed under
custodial investigation?
witness
victim
investigator
suspect

8. Custodial investigation is conducted when such investigation is no longer –


a general inquiry
a concern of the police
conducted by the police
a criminal case

9. Statements were obtained from the witnesses and the victim. When such accounts are
reduced into writing, it is called –
deposition
information
complaint
sworn statement

10. The suspect made an admission during the questioning. The statements given by the
suspect were reduced into writing. Such statement, reduced into writing is known as –
deposition
information
complaint
sworn statement

11. Lina, suspect in robbery, acknowledged her guilt during the custodial investigation. It was
unclear whether the acknowledgement is direct or merely partial. The statement of Lina is
considered what?
judicial
custodial
extrajudicial
extra-territorial

12. The accused admitted all the allegations against him and pleaded guilty in the arraignment.
Since arraignment is done in an open court, the acknowledgement of guilt made by the accused
is considered what?
judicial
custodial
extrajudicial
extra-territorial

13. Abel, a barangay tanod, was able to arrest a known thief in their locality. The arrested was
interrogated by Konsi, the Chairman of the barangay. The thief confessed. When asked, the
thief claimed that before the interrogation, he was not informed of the rights under the Miranda
warning. Is the confession admissible?
No. The statement was involuntary
No. There was no counsel during the interrogation
Yes. The thief is a suspect
Yes. The questioning conducted by Chairman is not custodial investigation

14. After conducting interviews and collecting evidence, the investigator found that one of the
witnesses is the suspect. Said witness was told that he is a suspect so he went to the police
station to answer some questions and prove that he is innocent. Some of the allegations were
affirmed but a justification was presented thereafter. The statement given by him is considered –
admission
confession
deposition
conclusion

15. The suspect went to the police station to answer some questions and prove that he is
innocent. His statement was reduced into writing. It is called –
sworn statement
deposition
affidavit
counter-affidavit

16. A witness was asked to testify in a rape case. He made a revelation during the direct
examination. He said that he has a boyfriend and that he is a proud gay. Is the statement given
by the witness admissible?
No. It is not competent
Yes. It was given during direct examination
Yes. It was given in an open court
No. It is not relevant

17. The suspect who is not arrested went to the police headquarters and submitted himself to
be placed under investigation. He was questioned by the police officer. If Miranda warning was
not read prior to the questioning, may his statements be used in evidence against him in court?
Yes. He is not entitled thereto, as he is not arrested.
No. He is placed under custodial investigation.
Yes. Miranda Warning may be recited after the questioning
No. He must be arrested first
18. IRONIC format is often employed by the police in the conduct of questioning. Which part of
IRONIC is concerned with the clarification of some vague information and interruption of the
narration to enable the subject to refresh and recall some of the details?
intermediary
inquiry
insight
intimidation

19. Statements obtained from the suspect during custodial investigation may only be admissible
if counselled. What is meant by counselled?
lawyer was present during the custodial investigation
suspect fully understands his rights under the Miranda warning
he was informed that his statements may be used against him court
the questioning was in accordance with the Constitution and rules on evidence

20. The interviewer offered cigarette and water. What is done next after the offer in IRONIC?
opening statement
rapport
conclusion
recite Miranda Warning

21. Which is an example of open-ended question used in interview / interrogation?


How are you?
What do you want?
What are you doing last October 25, 2022, 6PM?
Did you kill the victim?

22. Who shall make the opening statement in IRONIC format?


Commander of the police station
Appointed counsel
PAO lawyer
Interviewer

23. The trust and confidence of the interviewee may be obtained when a friendly relation is
established. It is done before discussing matters relevant to the crime under investigation. What
is done during opening statement?
purpose of the questioning is disclosed
rights under the Miranda warning are read
questions which have no connection to the crime are asked
interviewee is given the opportunity to make a confession

24. Which is the purpose of questioning using the IRONIC format?


to obtain valuable information from the subject
to have a confession
to have a deposition
to determine suspect

25. What is the investigation conducted by the law enforcement officers after a person has been
arrested or deprived of his freedom of action or invited?
preliminary investigation
custodial investigation
criminal investigation
crime scene processing

26. The recital of Miranda Warning is necessary when the investigation is conducted by law
enforcers after the subject has been arrested or deprived of his freedom of action or invited. The
subject refers to –
interviewee
suspect
respondent
accused

27. What is the acknowledgement when allegations are accepted by the suspect without
presenting any justification or exculpatory statement?
admission
confession
speculation
affirmation

28. What is the acknowledgement made by the suspect when not all the allegations are
accepted and the intent as deduced in giving his statements is to free himself from any criminal
liability that would arise from the alleged commission of the offense?
admission
confession
justification
affirmation

29. The Barangay captain asked the suspect who confessed to re-enact the crime. The re-
enactment was made without the assistance of a counsel. May the re-enactment be used in
evidence against the suspect in court?
Yes. The assistance of counsel is only necessary in confession
No. The assistance of counsel is necessary in re-enactment
Yes. The Barangay captain is not a law enforcer thus what he conducted is not custodial
investigation
No. There must be at least a communication with the local police and the barangay

30. A person placed under custodial investigation is entitled to rights under the Miranda
doctrine. Which right is NOT recited?
right to remain silent
right to have a lawyer
right to be provided with a lawyer in case he cannot afford to hire
right to be informed of the rights in a language known to him

31. What is the effect on the police officer who conducted the interview if he would fail to recite
the Miranda Warning prior to questioning?
statements given by the suspect shall not be admissible
confession shall be invalid
police officer is held criminally liable for violating the Constitution
police officer is criminally liable for violating the custodial rights law
32. The witness was asked concerning the crime under investigation. Said witness confessed
during the questioning. What is confession?
acceptance of allegations against the suspect
acknowledgement of guilt made in the presence of a counsel
narration of involvement in a crime under investigation during arraignment
direct acknowledgement of guilt made by the suspect

33. A witness was questioned by the investigator. The purpose of questioning was to obtain
valuable information that might be used as lead. However, the witness confessed. He told the
police that he committed the offense. May the statement be used in evidence against the
witness?
No. A reading of miranda warning is necessary before the giving of confession
Yes. The witness is not entitled to rights embodied in the miranda warning
No. The witness is the suspect so he is entitled to rights under miranda doctrine
Yes. The questioning was not part of custodial investigation

34. The statement given by the suspect is admission when after acknowledging his guilt, he
presented –
exculpatory statements
inculpatory statements
evidence
deposition

35. A report that an item was stolen was received through a phone call by the desk officer. The
desk officer must seek to obtain information concerning –
the cardinal points of investigation
identity of the offender
location of the offender
the item

36. The police officer using the IRONIC format in an interview need not wait for the interviewee
to narrate fully. What is the last part of the IRONIC format?
Recital of the rights embodied in the miranda warning
Clarifications of some vague information
Classification of the statements
Conclusion whether the subject is the suspect or not

37. There is difference between admission and confession. Which is NOT a characteristic of a
confession?
Confession is given by the suspect
The suspect affirms the allegations despite his awareness that penalty awaits
Statements in confession are exculpatory
Confession is not a defense

38. Confession and admission are different. Which is NOT a characteristic of an admission?
Admission is given by the suspect
Acceptance of some allegations does not constitute an admission of guilt
Statements in admission are exculpatory
Admission is a defense of alibi
39. There is an acknowledgement of some allegations in admission. However, the
acknowledgement is only partial and usually coupled with statement that would exempt him
from criminal liability or justify the act. Hence, admission is a kind of defense. What kind of
defense is an admission?
Negative defense
Affirmative defense
Admissible defense
Defense of alibi

40. The suspect acknowledges some of the allegations in admission. However, statements that
would exempt him from criminal liability or justify are usually presented thereafter. Said
statements which have the effect of exempting him from the liability or justifying his act is
considered are –
Inculpatory
Exculpatory
Tacit
Incriminating

41. A report of sexual abuse from the victim was received by the desk officer. The officer
believes that the crime committed was Simple Seduction so he asked the victim how old she is.
The victim answered that she is 19 years old. Was the crime committed simple seduction?
No. The victim must be lower than 12 years old
No. The victim must be between 12 and 18 years old
Yes. The victim is between 18 and 21 years old
Yes. The victim is between 19 and 25 years old

42. Victim reports that she was sexually abused. The officer thinks that the crime committed
was simple seduction so he must determine whether the victim is a virgin or not. When may the
victim be considered a virgin?
if her hymen is still intact
if the victim has not had sexual intercourse
if the victim is not married and not a prostitute
if the victim is single and ready to mingle

43. Sexual intercourse need not be forcible to constitute rape when the victim is under 12 years
old. This refers to what kind of rape?
Rape with consent
Rape by sexual assault
Statutory rape
Marital rape

44. Which of the following is committed when the sexual intercourse was against the will of the
victim, who is the lawful spouse of the male offender?
Rape with consent
Rape by sexual assault
Statutory rape
Marital rape
45. The resulting death of the unborn when the offender confronted and maltreated the pregnant
victim was not proved. However, the offender is aware that the victim was pregnant at the time
of the incident. What crime was committed by the offender?
Simple abortion
Qualified abortion
Intentional abortion
Unintentional abortion

46. A concerned citizen went to police station to report that he discovered a lifeless body of his
neighbor. The investigator found that the offender is probably the grandson of the victim. The
crime is NOT parricide if –
the victim is over the age of 80 years old
parents of the offender are not married
the motive of the offender is economic
the killing was by the use of poison

47. Agnes lied when she told the police that there was sexual intercourse. She confessed that
the sexual abuse was committed by the offender, against her will, through insertion of a
cucumber inside her genitalia. What was the crime committed by the offender?
Acts of lasciviousness
Sexual harassment
Simple seduction
Rape

48. Marked money was used in the buy-bust operation. The hands of the subject were
examined under ultraviolet light. The examination was made without the assistance of a
counsel. Is result of the examination admissible evidence?
No. It is not admissible because it was uncounseled
No. The result of the examination is excluded by the rules
Yes. Assistance of counsel is unnecessary when the suspect is already put under police
custody
Yes. Ultraviolet examination is not part of the custodial investigation

49. What is done during the first phase of PEACE model?


information gathering
establish rapport
explain the purpose of questioning
identify yourself

50. Specialized crime investigation 2 is the course which deals with –


simulation of custodial investigation
simulation of court hearing
simulation of homicide investigation
investigation of crimes against property

VICE AND DRUG EDUCATION AND CONTROL

1. Stimulants have effect of increasing the mental and activity of its user. Which is the oldest
stimulant in the world?
cocoa
coffee
alcohol
cocaine

2. Drugs may increase or decrease the alertness level of the user. Which of the following has
the effect of increasing the alertness levels of the user?
Hallucinogen
Adhesive
Uppers
Depressants

3. Depressants affect the CNS of the user. Which is a kind of depressant that is used as pain
reliever, anti-diarrhea and cough suppressant?
Expectorant
Barbiturate
Tranquilizer
Narcotic

4. Opium has derivatives. Which derivative of opium is used in cough syrup preparations?
Demerol
Methadone
Expectorant
Codeine

5. Opium is an example of depressant. Which derivative of opium was derived from the name of
the Greek God of Dream?
Heroine
Morphine
Codeine
Methadone

6. Substance like alcohol and paint thinners may be considered drug. Under which classification
of dangerous drugs does alcohol belong?
Hallucinogen
Adhesive
Depressant
Stimulant

7. Depressant affects the central nervous system of its user. Which drug is used as anxiety
relief but does not induce sleep?
Narcotic
Seconal
Barbiturate
Tranquilizer

8. Depressant lowers activity in the CNS of its user. Which is an anti-anxiety drug that also has
the effect of inducing sleep?
Narcotic
Seconal
Barbiturate
Tranquilizer
9. Narcotic is a kind of depressant. Which drug is NOT a narcotic?
Demerol
Methadone
Opium
Amphetamine

10. Dangerous drugs that have the effect of relieving the user from anxiety, increasing appetite,
inducing sleep, also used as pain killer, in childbirth and found in cough syrups.
Hallucinogens
Stimulants
Depressants
Adhesives

11. There are top three (3) commonly abused drugs in the Philippines. Which ranked the least?
Shabu
Alcohol
Marijuana
Adhesives

12. Depressants are used to calm a person who suffers from severe mental illness. Which kind
of depressant is commonly abused by hospitality girls?
Barbiturate
Tranquilizer
Seconal
Narcotic

13. Opium has many derivatives. Which derivative is discovered by Alder Wright?
Codeine
Opioids
Morphine
Heroine

14. Opioids are depressants. Which statement correctly describes opioids?


Opioids are the last derivative of opium
Opioids are discovered by Alder Wright
Opioids are the first derivative of opium
Opioids are synthetic opium

15. Opium is a kind of narcotic. Which derivative of opium is the most powerful?
Heroine
Morphine
Codeine
Methadone

16. Drugs may be administered in many ways. Which is done when the drug is in solid form and
it is taken through nose?
Ingestion
Inhalation
Snorting
Buccal
17. There are several ways of taking drugs. Which is the most common mode?
Oral
Injection
Inhalation
Buccal

18. Routes in administering drug may help the investigator determine the kind of drug taken.
Which is done when the drug is placed under the lips or behind the cheeks so the active
ingredients thereof are absorbed into the bloodstream?
Oral
Injection
Inhalation
Buccal

19. Drugs may be taken orally or by the use of hypodermic needle or syringe. Which is used
when the drug is in gaseous form, entering the lungs and quickly absorbed by capillary system?
Buccal
Oral
Injection
Inhalation

20. Drugs may be administered by means of injection. Which is used in taking drugs through
injection?
Pipe
Tube
Syringe
Foil

21. There are many types of prostitutes. Which is a type of prostitutes who stay near a bar or
tavern?
Call girl
Hustler
Door knocker
Factory girl

22. Door knocker is a type of prostitute. Why do door knockers engage in the commerce of
prostitution?
To pay for their bills
It is their only means of living
In order to support their vices
To commit swindling

23. Prostitution is prohibited under the law. Which type of prostitute is also known as part time
prostitute?
Call girl
Prostitute
Door Knocker
Factory Girl
24. Court order is necessary to effect a valid and legal raid operation. What is that order needed
in order to conduct raid operation?
Subpoena
Writ of Amparo
Warrant of Arrest
Search Warrant

25. There are different drug routes. Which is known as the second most common way of taking
administering drug?
Snorting
Oral Ingestion
Injection
Buccal

26. Vices come in different forms. Alcoholism and gambling are the most common. Which is a
type of sexual deviation characterized by indiscriminate provision of sexual relations in return for
money?
Prostitution
Promiscuity
Delinquency
Vice

27. Though Nene receives gifts, clothes, jewelries, or even money, the relation is essentially of
a non-commercial character as such returns do not constitute the conscious reason for resorting
thereto. This is an example of –
delinquency
deviance
prostitution
promiscuity

28. There are three (3) most commonly abused drugs in the Philippines. Which is the most
commonly abused hallucinogen in the country?
Shabu
Marijuana
Cocaine
Psilocybin

29. There are four (4) common types of prostitutes. Which type is the real professional and work
in regular brothel / casa?
Call girls
Door knockers
Factory girls
Massage therapists

30. What is the route of administration when the drug is taken by the mouth and must pass
through the stomach before being absorbed into the bloodstream?
Oral ingestion
Inhalation
Injection
Buccal
31. Administration of drugs may be done by using hypodermic needle / syringe. What is the
route of administration in skin testing which is usually done to determine allergic reaction?
Injection
Buccal
Oral Ingestion
Snorting

32. Cocaine and shabu are both stimulants. Which is the other name for shabu?
Pleasurable feeling
Serenity, tranquility and peace
Designer’s drug
Poor man’s cocaine

33. There are no strict laws in the country prohibiting and regulating the taking of intoxicating
liquors. Nevertheless, intoxication may affect the criminal liability of an offender under the
Revised Penal Code. Intoxication under the RPC is considered –
Exempting circumstance
Mitigating circumstance
Aggravating circumstance
Alternative circumstance

34. When does the circumstance intoxication increase the criminal liability of an offender under
the Revised Penal Code?
When the alcohol taken is fermented
When the offender is a minor
When the offender commits a crime against person
When the intoxication was intentional

35. Which of the following laws are not related to regulation of, and prohibition against selling
intoxication liquors and intoxication?
P.D. No. 1602
P.D. No. 1619
R.A. No. 10351
R.A. No. 10586

36. Generally, there are three (3) major categories of dangerous drugs. Which produces
reactions such as perceptual alterations and changes in the state of consciousness and distort
reality, thinking and perceptions of time, sound, space and sensation?
Depressant
Stimulant
Psychedelic
Adhesives

37. In the survey conducted by DDB on the most commonly abused drugs in the Philippines,
rugby, solvent, thinner, ranked –
The most commonly abused
The second most commonly abused
The least most commonly abused
The tenth most commonly abused

38. Marijuana is also known as cannabis sativa. Marijuana means –


Serenity, tranquility and peace
God of Dream
Wild grass
Pleasurable Feeling

39. Stimulants are anorexic. It means they reduce appetite. Which is prescribed to help manage
obesity?
Cocaine
Shabu
Ecstasy
Amphetamines

40. There are no strict laws which penalize its sale and consumption. It is one of the reasons it
is called the “king of all drugs.” To which does the statements refer?
Cigarette
Adhesives
Marijuana
Alcohol

41. Operatives of Philippine Coast Guard, agents of PDEA and members of the PNP manned
the ports of Zamboanga, Basilan, Sulu, and Tawi-tawi to disrupt illegal drug trafficking activities.
Such measure implemented by the government is considered what?
Supply reduction strategy
Demand reduction strategy
Oplan Tokhang
Mission Impossible

42. Congress through enactment of law added taxes on fermented liquors. This measure by the
government is a prevention strategy commonly known as –
Supply reduction
Demand reduction
Oplan Tokhang
Mission Impossible

43. Uppers are commonly used as jargon when referring to stimulants. An effect of stimulants is
increased activity in the CNS characterized by alertness. Which is NOT a stimulant?
MDMA
Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
Phencyclidine
Shabu

44. The NARCOM enforced the Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972. Such law enforcement agency
was abolished and its members were absorbed by the PNP in 1990. Which law is enforced by
PDEA?
R.A. No. 6975
R.A. No. 8551
R.A. No. 6425
R.A. No. 9165
45. There are many ways of administering drug into the body. Which mode is used in taking
cocaine?
Injection
Snorting
Ingestion
Topical

46. Hallucinogens alter the sensory perception of its user. Which is NOT an example of
hallucinogen?
Angel Dust
LSD
Psilocybin
Marijuana

47. A driver was stopped and apprehended by the police officer as the former has shown
probable signs of intoxication. When may the police officer subject the said driver to chemical
test?
The driver has no driver’s license
The driver is ugly and stinks
The driver is not wearing the proper driving attire
The driver failed in the physical test

48. Which is the most commonly abused hallucinogen in the world?


Marijuana
LSD
PCP
Ecstasy

49. Which law decriminalized vagrancy?


R.A. No. 10586
R.A. No. 10351
R.A. No. 9287
R.A. No. 9208

50. Which is the first derivative of opium?


Narcotic
Seconal
Morphine
Heroine

FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION AND INTELLIGENCE

1. The presence of counsel is required in custodial investigation. What should be the exacting
standards of a counsel?
undefeated and humble
noble and honorable
competent and independent
public and remorseful
2. The suspect must be informed of his right to have a counsel during the arrest. What must be
done in case the suspect has no financial capacity to hire and pay for the services of an
attorney?
drop the case
release the suspect
proceed without a lawyer
provide one

3. The State, in some cases, provide the suspect a counsel. Said counsel is a lawyer under the
employ of –
National Prosecution Service
Philippine Attorney Organization
PAO
People’s Law Enforcement Board

4. Patrolman Torres, without warrant, arrested Julius, suspect in a robbery. The suspect was
turned over to the fiscal. What is the investigation conducted by fiscal to determine whether the
case should proceed for trial or be dismissed?
preliminary proceeding
initial investigation
initial proceeding
inquest proceeding

5. The suspect who has been arrested for committing an offense punishable by Arresto Menor
was arrested without warrant. He was brought to the fiscal’s office, fourteen (14) hours from the
time of the arrest. The lawyer of the suspect was claiming that the offense is Light so the
arresting officer must be held liable for committing Unlawful Arrest, as his client (suspect) was
not brought before the fiscal within 13 hours from the time of arrest. Was the contention of the
lawyer correct?
No. The arresting officer may be liable for Illegal Detention
No. The suspect must be brought to the fiscal’s office within 24 hours
No. The offense committed is Less Grave
No. The arresting officer may be liable for violating Article 125 of the RPC

6. Article 125 of the RPC applies when the arrest is warrantless. Who may be held liable for
violating Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code?
Judge
Fiscal
Arrested
Police Officer

7. Mang George, the Barangay Captain of Brgy. Ligtas ordered the arrest of Boy Badtrip,
suspect for the crime of theft. The tanod who arrested Badtrip saw the latter holding the
reported stolen iPhone. George interrogated Badtrip. Badtrip confessed. The suspect was never
informed of the right to remain silent and to be assisted by a counsel. May the confession be
used in evidence against Badtrip in court?
No. There was a violation of his constitutional right
No. The arrest must be with warrant
Yes. The confession is given in an interrogation
Yes. What Mang George has conducted is not a custodial investigation
8. The fiscal found no probable cause so the decision is RFI. When does a fiscal order the RFI?
When there is no crime committed
When the evidence on hand does not allow the fiscal to prepare a warrant
When the evidence on hand does not allow the fiscal to charge the suspect
When the fiscal believes that the arrest was invalid

9. The investigating fiscal found a probable cause. Which of the following is to be prepared and
submitted by the fiscal?
Information
Complaint
Warrant of Arrest
Counter-Affidavit

10. The investigator applied for a warrant because he believes that Inggo committed the
offense. Evidence and statements of the witnesses convinced the issuing authority to approve
the application. What must be found before a warrant is issued?
probable cause
clear and convincing proof
just cause
proof beyond reasonable doubt

11. The suspect arrested without warrant needs to be prosecuted. What must be found by the
fiscal before charging the suspect in court?
clear and convincing proof
probable cause
just cause
proof beyond reasonable doubt

12. Suspect who was arrested without warrant must be brought before the fiscal’s office for
prosecution. Who must bring the suspect to the fiscal’s office?
public attorney
relative
arresting officer
judge

13. Every theory of an investigator must be supported by evidence. What kind of evidence is
obtained when the method of collection is interview?
Object
Real
Documentary
Testimonial
14. A person who is under investigation for the commission of an offense has the right to be
assisted by a counsel. When may the suspect be provided with a Public Lawyer?
Whenever the arresting officer so requires the suspect to be assisted with one
When the arrest was conducted without warrant
When the suspect is not yet arrested
When the suspect cannot afford the services of a private counsel

15. An arrested suspect who has been inquested may demand to be subject to preliminary
investigation. However, he must first sign what?
Waiver of his right against torture
Waiver of his right to remain silent
Waiver of Article 125
Waiver of Article 124

16. Arrest is performed either by a police officer or by an ordinary citizen. What must be present
for the arrest to be considered valid?
approval from the court
permission from a high-ranking official
probable cause
written order

17. Arrest may be made with or without a court order. Who among the following may arrest a
suspect with or without a warrant?
police officer
security guard
private individual
police officers and private individuals

18. The patrol officer left, went to a different place where he thinks his presence is much more
necessary. The thief took the chance and robbed the unguarded convenience store. A
bystander saw the thief in the act of stealing the cash in the register so he arrested the culprit.
Was the arrest valid?
No. Unless the bystander knows and will recite the Miranda Warning, the arrest was
illegal
No. The bystander should have called the patrol officer and have the latter arrest the
thief
Yes. The arrest was valid since the thief committed theft
Yes. The arrest was based on a legal ground

19. The arrest was conducted by the police officer with a valid warrant. Who finds probable
cause when the arrest is with warrant?
victim
arresting officer
judge
police officer

20. Albert, a private citizen, arrested the suspect without a warrant. Who finds probable cause
when the arrest is conducted with no warrant?
victim
arresting officer
judge
police officer

21. The probative value of every piece of evidence may be dependent on the legality of the
arrest. Which is the basis of a valid arrest?
presence of the arresting officer
the existence of a valid warrant
probable cause
the reading of the rights embodied in Miranda Warning
22. Every police officer must adhere to law when apprehending a person for committing an
offense. The arrest can never be valid when –
there is no warrant of arrest
the arresting officer fails to read the Miranda Warning
conducted by a private individual
probable cause is inexistent

23. The police officer arrested the suspect without warrant. The arresting officer found and
confiscated suspected shabu in possession of the suspect. The arrest, search and seizure were
conducted with no warrant. The seizure of the suspected shabu is not unlawful when –
there is a warrant of arrest
the search is permitted under the Terry doctrine
there is no consent from the suspect
the arrest and search are valid

24. A suspect cannot be arrested if the arresting officer does not have a warrant. This statement
is –
False. He cannot be arrested if the arresting officer is a private individual
False. He cannot be arrested if there is no subpoena
False. He cannot be arrested if there is no court order
False. He cannot be arrested if there is no probable cause

25. These are such facts and circumstances which could lead a reasonable prudent man to
believe that a crime has been committed, that the respondent is probably guilty thereof and it
could be held for trial.
probable cause
proof beyond reasonable doubt
physical evidence
admissible evidence

26. When the fiscal within the allowable period is convinced that there could be a probable
cause, what shall be issued to obtain an answer / defense from the respondent?
subpoena
warrant
summons
order

27. Facts and circumstances must lead a reasonable prudent man to believe that a crime has
been committed, the respondent is probably guilty thereof and it could be held for trial for the
Information sheet to be issued and filed with the proper court. The reasonable prudent man
refers to –
judge
police officer
complainant / victim
fiscal

28. The respondent to whom subpoena was issued is given how many days to submit his
response?
5 days
10 days
15 days
20 days

29. When the fiscal believes that probable cause might exist, respondent is subpoenaed. What
must be attached to the subpoena?
copy of complaint
warrant of arrest
court order
affidavit of desistance

30. Parties entered into a compromise agreement. Defense counsel moved for the dismissal of
the case. Said dismissal is not merely temporary. Which of the following is the dismissal sought
by the defense?
Absolute dismissal
Permanent dismissal
Temporary dismissal
Provisional dismissal

31. Both parties in a criminal case agreed to have an amicable settlement. The accused made a
promise of paying the victim with a certain amount in 6 months. What dismissal is sought by the
defense?
Absolute dismissal
Permanent dismissal
Temporary dismissal
Provisional dismissal

32. The information and resolution were already submitted with the proper court. Who among
the following prepares both information and resolution?
Fiscal
Judge
Police officer
PAO lawyer

33. Probable cause must be found for the fiscal to issue –


Information
Warrant of arrest
Subpoena
Affidavit

34. Which of the following is executed by the complainant who has the intention of withdrawing
the case usually before or during the arraignment and would result in the permanent dismissal
of the case?
Subpoena
Warrant of arrest
Information
Affidavit of desistance

35. The case will only proceed to trial when the fiscal believes that probable cause exists. What
must be conducted by the fiscal when the suspect is “at large?”
preliminary investigation
inquest proceeding
preliminary inquiry
initial investigation

36. The suspect was arrested for committing an offense punishable by arresto mayor. He was
detained for three days. Has the arresting officer committed an offense?
Yes. Delay in the delivery of a detained person to proper judicial authority
Yes. Unlawful arrest
Yes. Unjust vexation
No

37. A suspect may be arrested with or without a warrant. Which of the following is the duty of
the judge?
issue subpoena
conduct inquest and arrest the suspect
apply for and serve the warrant of arrest
issue warrant of arrest and order a police officer to arrest the suspect

38. Which of the following is common to both warrant of arrest and information sheet?
issued by the judge
issued by the investigating officer
clear and convincing proof must be found first before their issuance
probable cause must be found first before their issuance

39. The Head security of Waltersons Supermall caught Gringo in the act of stealing a box of
milk chocolates. The suspect was arrested by the said security guard and interrogation was
conducted. May the statement obtained from the interrogation be used in evidence?
No. Miranda Warning must be read prior to the questioning
No. Security guard has no authority to conduct interrogation
Yes. Interrogation conducted is not part of custodial investigation
Yes. Security guards are law enforcers under the law

40. The suspect may be arrested without a warrant when he was caught in flagrante delicto.
What does in flagrante delicto mean?
caught in the act
in the act
in the act of committing a crime
personal knowledge

41. Arrest may be conducted with or without warrant. Similarly, search and seizure may be
performed with or without warrant. Which of the following is a search performed after conducting
an arrest?
consented search
search incidental to a lawful arrest
plain view doctrine search
custom search

42. The suspect who has been inquested requested for a preliminary investigation. He must
sign a waiver. Who will be freed from criminal liability when the suspect signs a waiver?
judge
arresting officer
fiscal
suspect himself / herself

43. The dismissal when affidavit of desistance is executed and approved by the court.
RFI
Permanent dismissal
Temporary dismissal
Provisional dismissal

44. The suspect / respondent becomes accused when –


probable cause is found
warrant of arrest is issued
information sheet and resolution are filed in court
subpoena is issued by the investigating fiscal

45. Probable cause must be found for the judge to issue what?
Subpoena
Warrant of arrest
Information
Affidavit of desistance

46. The complainant may proceed with the regular filing when the suspect is “at large.” What is
meant by “at large?”
the suspect is not yet arrested
suspect is already arrested
warrant is already issued
suspect is already taken into custody

47. A suspect may be arrested with or without a warrant. Which of the following is the duty of
the police officer?
issue subpoena
conduct inquest and arrest the suspect
apply for and serve the warrant of arrest
issue warrant of arrest and order a police officer to arrest the suspect

48. When the offense is victimless, which of the following is available for the early settlement of
the case?
execute affidavit of desistance
enter into an amicable settlement and have the case provisionally dismissed
refrain from attending the hearing for the case to be dropped
plea bargaining

49. In a checkpoint operation, a motorist was asked to unzip his bag. The police officer
unzipped and searched the bag of the driver. The driver did not object. This warrantless search
is called –
consented search
search incidental to a lawful arrest
plain view doctrine search
custom search
50. Which is the certain period within which the complainant is allowed to reopen a provisionally
dismissed case?
prescription
statute of limitation
time-limit
time bar

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