Preparation Completo

19/2/23, 15:51 Sistema Virtual de Educación [Evaluaciones]
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Segundo Parcial
SECOND TERM EXAM PREPARATION
You will 50 minutes to solve the following 20 multiple choice questions.

Puntaje total: 20.00
Puntaje de aprobación: 14.00
Incorrectas restan: No
Abierta: desde 19/02/2023 14:30 hasta 19/02/2023 16:30
Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:32:09

Tiempo realización: 00:21:06 Aprobada - 19.00
Cantidad de veces realizada: 1
Cantidad de respuestas correctas: 19 / 20
PE2. What is the university which developed TKT exam?
The University of Philadelphia
The University of Cambridge ESOL.
The University of Oxford.
Th University of Harvard.
(1.00 puntos)
PE8. How is the TKT exam done?
Four main modules and two specialized modules.
Three main modules and four specialized modules.
Two main modules and five specialized modules.
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Three main modules and two specialized modules.

(1.00 puntos)
PE11. What does the Band 4 mean in the results of TKT exam?
The highest Band.
The lowest Band.
The intermediate Band.
The high intermediate Band.

(1.00 puntos)
PE15. What is the third module of the TKT exam?
Managing the teaching and learning process.
Managing speaking and listening process.
Managing reading and writing process.
Managing assesment and evaluation process.

(1.00 puntos)
PE21. How many modules does DELTA exam consist of?
Two modules.
Three modules.
Four modules.
Five modules.
(1.00 puntos)
PE28. What are the ways for taking DELTA course?
DELTA can be taken as a face-to-face, online, blended or distance course.
DELTA can be taken as a face-to-face, onsite, blended or distance course.
DELTA can be taken as a face-to-face, online or distance course.
DELTA can be taken as a face-to-face, blended or distance course.

(1.00 puntos)
PE31. What is the age required for taking CELTA course?
15 years or more.
16 years or more.
17 years or more.
18 years or more.
(1.00 puntos)
PE38. What are the themes of the CLIL module of the TKT exam?
CLIL and the practice of speaking, reading and assessing curriculum vitae.
CLIL and the practice of reading, listening and assessing curriculum format.
CLIL and the practice of planning, teaching and assessing curriculum subjects.
CLIL and the practice of writing, use of English and assessing curriculum subjects.
(1.00 puntos)
PE40. How many questions does the ClIL module from the TKT exam have?
It consists of a single paper containing 80 questions in two parts.
It consists of a single paper containing 90 questions in three parts.
It consists of a single paper containing 100 questions in four parts.
It consists of a single paper containing 120 questions in five parts.

(1.00 puntos)
PE45. Which of the following facts is not part of the lesson components teachers need
to know in the TKT course?
motivation
guessing
the role of error
learner needs
(1.00 puntos)
PE50. What is the second modele from the DELTA course:
Developing professional practice.
Improving listening skills.
Contrasting L1 and L2.
Improving productive skills in English

(1.00 puntos)
PE51. GRE and GMAT are exams aimed at:
professionals who want to study in the United States.
professionals who want to study in the United Kingdom
professionals who want to study in Argentina.

(1.00 puntos)
PE53. The required test for liberal arts, science and maths is:
GMAT
GRE
TKT
(1.00 puntos)
PE54. The required test for Master Business Schools is:
GMAT
GRE
TKT
(1.00 puntos)
PE80. In GMAT the ability to make arguments, evaluate arguments, and formulate or
evaluate a plan of action is assessed by:
Reading Comprehension
Critical Reasoning
Sentence Correction
(1.00 puntos)
PE82. How many sections does the CPA exam consist of?
Two
Three
Four
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PE84. The computer based CPA examination consists of:
Two basic question formats.
Three basic question formats.
Four basic question formats.

(1.00 puntos)
PE87. What is the minimum passing score in CPA test?
65
75
55
(1.00 puntos)
PE90. Written communication tasks of CPA count for:
50% of the total score
35% ot the total score

(1.00 puntos)
PE92. The financial accounting and reporting section of CPA exam includes:
Sixty six multiple choice questions as well as eight task based simulations that use
real-life work situations to test your skill.
Ten multiple-choice questions as well as eight task-based simulations that use

Six multiple-choice questions as well as eight task-based simulations that use real-
life work situations to test your skill.
(1.00 puntos)
Anterior
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Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:15:19

PE4. What is the meaning of the acronym DELTA exam?
Distinction in Learning English to Listeners of Other Languages.
Dialogues in Approching English as International Language.
Diagnostic Evaluation of English as Native Language.
Diploma in Teaching English to Speakers of Other Languages.

(1.00 puntos)
PE5. Who is DELTA exam for?
Experienced teachers who want to extend their expertise in a specialist area.
Novice teachers who want to share their expertise in a teaching area.
Experienced trainners who want to reduce their practice in a legal area.
Expert teachers who want to write about their expertise in a particular area.
(1.00 puntos)
PE7. How does the CELTA course last?
All CELTA courses include at least 180 hours of training.
All CELTA planning includes at least 100 hours of practice.
All CELTA courses include at least 120 hours of study.
All CELTA programs sell at least 110 hours of study.

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PE9. How many questions does each module of TKT exam have?
80 questions per module.

(1.00 puntos)
PE17. What is the fifth module of TKT exam?
IL, Intensive Learners.
EL, Experienced Learners.
PL, Professional Learners.
YL, Young Learners.

(1.00 puntos)
PE27. How is the third module of DELTA exam assessed?

A speaking assignment.
A reading assignment.
A listening assignment.
A written assignment.
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PE35. What are the themes of the first module of the TKT exam?
Describing speaking and speaking skills, background to speaking learning, backgroung to speaking teaching.
Describing reading and reading skills, background to reading learning, backgroung to reading teaching.
Describing writing and writing skills, background to writing learning, backgroung to writing teaching.
Describing language and language skills, background to language learning, backgroung to language teaching.
(1.00 puntos)
PE39. What are the themes of the YL module of the TKT exam?
Knowledge of the strategies and skills required to teach adult learners.
Knowledge of the strategies and skills required to teach children learners.
Knowledge of the strategies and skills required to teach elder learners.
Knowledge of the strategies and skills required to teach young learners.

(1.00 puntos)
PE44. What is the content covered in Module 1 of the TKT exam?
Concepts and terminology for describing language skills and sub-skills.
Definitions and lexicology for improving language skills and sub-skills.
Concepts and ice braking activities for describing language skills and sub-skills.
Gist and skimming for describing scanning skills and sub-skills.

(1.00 puntos)
PE47. What is the main characteristic of CELTA course?
It is a breif assessment course leding to a certificate in speaking.
It is a non-assessment course leding to a certificate in listening.
It is a parcial assessment course leding to a certificate writing.
It is a continuous assessment course leding to a certificate qualification.

(1.00 puntos)
GMAT
GRE
TKT
(1.00 puntos)
PE55. The GRE is:
A paper based test.
A computer-delivered test.
A paper based or a computer-delivered test.

(1.00 puntos)
PE58. The GRE Suject test includes:
Phychology, Mathematics, Physics, Literature in English, Biology and Chemistry.
Phychology, Mathematics, Medicine, Physics, Literature in English, Biology and Chemistry.
Phychology, Mathematics, Physics, Geography, Biology and Chemistry.

(1.00 puntos)
PE63. The reading comprehension passages of GRE include different subject matter areas such as:
Humanities, social sciences and natural sciences.
Literature and philosophy.
Mathematics and humanities.

(1.00 puntos)
PE70. The Quantitative Reasoning in GRE assesses basic mathematical skills:
Understanding of elementary mathematical concepts, ability to reason quantitatively and to model and solve problems with quantitative
methods.
Understanding of elementary mathematical concepts and to model and solve problems with quantitative methods.
Ability to reason quantitatively and to model and solve problems with quantitative methods.
(1.00 puntos)
PE74. What are the scored GMAT sections?
Analytical Writing Assessment, Integrated Reasoning, Quantitative and Verbal Reasoning.
Integrated Reasoning, Quantitative and Verbal Reasoning.
Analytical Writing Assessment, Integrated Reasoning and Quantitative Reasoning.

(1.00 puntos)
PE86. Each section of the CPA test is graded on a scale of:
Zero to 100
Zero to 89
Zero to 99
(1.00 puntos)
Sixty six multiple choice questions as well as eight task based simulations that use real-life work situations to test your skill.
Ten multiple-choice questions as well as eight task-based simulations that use real-life work situations to test your skill.
Six multiple-choice questions as well as eight task-based simulations that use real-life work situations to test your skill.
(1.00 puntos)
PE98. What does LSAT stand for?
Language School Admission Test
Learner School Admission Test
Law School Admission Test
(1.00 puntos)
Anterior

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:02:26


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PE24. What is the name of the third module in DELTA exam?
Extending Practice and ELT Specialism or English Language Teaching

Management.
Extending Production and ELT Sppeaking or English Language Teaching

Process.
Extending Participation and ELT Production or English Language Teaching

Moments.
Enhancing Practice and ELT Reading or English Language Learning

Management.
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(1.00 puntos)
PE30. What are the dates for taking TKT exam?
You can register to take TKT up to four weeks before a test session.
You can register to take TKT up to five weeks before a test session.
You can register to take TKT up to six weeks before a test session.
You can register to take TKT up to seven weeks before a test session.
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15 years or more.
16 years or more.
17 years or more.
18 years or more.
(1.00 puntos)
PE36. What are the themes of the second module of the TKT exam?
Planning and preparing a lesson or sequence of lessons and selection and use
of resources and materials.
Planning and preparing a unit or sequence of units and selection and use of
books and magazines.
Planning and preparing a class or sequence of classes and selection and use of
audio and video.
Planning and preparing a dialogue or sequence of dialogues and selection and

use of articles and lectures.
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CLIL and the practice of writing, use of English and assessing curriculum
subjects.
(1.00 puntos)
PE41. What are the ways of taking the DELTA course?
Face to face, teaching learning, or on site course.
Face to face, blended learning, or distance course.
Face to face, language learning, or distance course.
Face to face, resources learning, or matrial course.

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
PE52. The standardized admission tests are intended to:
Provide a common measure for comparing the abilities of students from

different backgrounds.
Provide a common measure for comparing the abilities of students from the
same backgrounds.
Provide a common measure for comparing the abilities of students who are the
same age.
(1.00 puntos)
GMAT
GRE
TKT
(1.00 puntos)
PE64. The reading comprehension passages of GRE has:
Two paragraphs
From one paragraph to four or five paragraphs
From five to ten paragraphs

(1.00 puntos)
Analytical Writing Assessment, Integrated Reasoning, Quantitative and Verbal

Reasoning.
Analytical Writing Assessment, Integrated Reasoning and Quantitative

Reasoning.
(1.00 puntos)
Two
Three
Four
(1.00 puntos)
Zero to 100
Zero to 89
Zero to 99
(1.00 puntos)
PE91. To get an excellent score at CPA exam, it is necessary to apply one of the
following strategies.
Develop solutions approach like solving task-based simulations and multiple -

choice questions.
Study the material the night before.
Study the material the day before.

(1.00 puntos)
Sixty six multiple choice questions as well as eight task based simulations that
use real-life work situations to test your skill.

Six multiple-choice questions as well as eight task-based simulations that use

(1.00 puntos)
PE96. What does SAT stand for?
School Aptitude Test
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Secondary Aptitude Test

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
Anterior
Segundo Parcial
SECOND TERM EXAM
SECOND TERM EXAM

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:08:41

The highest Band.
The lowest Band.
YL, Young Learners.
PE18. What does the acronym CELTA mean?
Certificate of English Language Teaching to Adults.
Certificate of English Learning and Teaching to Adults.
Certificate of Enhancing Language Teaching to Adults.
Certificate of Encourage Language Teaching to Adults.
PE26. How is the second module of DELTA exam assessed?
A manual of coursebook, including lessons practice.
A rubric of coursebook, including lessons assessment.
A portfolio of coursebook, including lessons observations.
A lesson plan of coursebook, including lessons rubrics.
motivation
guessing
the role of error
learner needs
Provide a common measure for comparing the abilities of students from different
backgrounds.
Provide a common measure for comparing the abilities of students from the same
backgrounds.
same age.
PE65. The task where the aim is to fill in the blanks and create a coherent, meaningful
whole from short passages in GRE is:
Sentence equivalence
Reading comprehension
Text completion
Understanding of elementary mathematical concepts, ability to reason

quantitatively and to model and solve problems with quantitative methods.
Understanding of elementary mathematical concepts and to model and solve

problems with quantitative methods.
Ability to reason quantitatively and to model and solve problems with quantitative
methods.
PE71. What does GMAT stand for?
Graduate Math Admission Test
Graduate Management Admission Test
Graduate Medicine Admission Test

Reasoning.
PE76. The Integrated Reasoning section in GMAT tests the ability to:
Present the student's own point of view on the topic
Analyze the soundness of the author's evidence and reasoning
Synthesize information presented in graphics, text, and numbers
PE81. What does CPA exam stand for?
Certified Public Accountant
Certified Public American
Certified Professional Accountant
65
75
55
PE94. What is the module in CPA exam that refers to Professional Responsabilities?
Module 2
Module 3
Module 1
PE99. What does ECCE stand for?
Examination for the Certificate of Competency in English
Examination for the Center of Classroom in English

Examination for the Classroom Competency in English
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Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:17:39

PE1. What does TKT stand for?
Teaching Knowledege Test.
Teachers Knowledge Transition.
Takers Knowing Test.
Total Knoledge Test.

(1.00 puntos)
YL, Young Learners.

(1.00 puntos)
PE19. How many words does each writing assignment in CELTA exam demand?
From 550 to 800 words.

(1.00 puntos)
PE20. How many writing assignments does CELTA exam have?
4 assignments.
5 assignments.
6 assignments.
7 assignments.
(1.00 puntos)
15 years or more.
16 years or more.
17 years or more.
18 years or more.
(1.00 puntos)
PE32. What is the minimum English language requeriment for CELTA exam?
CEFR level high C1 or above.
CEFR level high B2 or above.
CEFR level high A2 or above.

(1.00 puntos)
subjects.
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
PE42. What is the experience required as a teacher to take DELTA course?
Three years of experience.
Two years of experience.
One year of experience.
No experience needed.
(1.00 puntos)

same backgrounds.
same age.
(1.00 puntos)
GMAT
GRE
TKT
(1.00 puntos)
PE59. The ability to analyze and draw conclusions from discourse; reason from
incomplete data; identify author's assumptions and/or perspective in GRE refers to:
The verbal reasoning
Quantitative reasoning
Analytical writing
(1.00 puntos)

Reasoning.

Reasoning.
(1.00 puntos)
Two
Three
Four
(1.00 puntos)
(1.00 puntos)
Zero to 100
Zero to 89
Zero to 99
(1.00 puntos)
65
75
55
(1.00 puntos)
PE93. Auditing and Attestation of CPA exam contains:
Eighty modules and 2 supplemental sections
Eight modules and 1 supplemental section
Six modules and 1 supplemental section

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
PE100. What does CAEL stand for?
Canadian Academic English Language Assessment
Chinese Academic English Language Assessment

Cuban Academic English Language Assessment

(1.00 puntos)
Anterior
Segundo Parcial

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 14:31:19

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PE13. What is the first module of the TKT exam?
Teaching and background to English learning and teaching.
Overcome and background to language learning and teaching.
Language and background to language learning and teaching.
Learning and background to language learning and teaching.

(1.00 puntos)
PE14. What is the second module of the TKT exam?
Planning test and rubrics for language teaching.
Planning exercises and resources for language learning.
Planning lessons and speaking facts for language teaching.
Planning lessons and resources for language teaching.

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
PE22. What is the name of the first module in DELTA exam?
Understanding Speaking, Methodology and Resources for Learning.
Understanding Writing, Methodology and Material for Teaching.
Understanding Language, Methodology and Resources for Teaching.
Understanding Reading, Methodology and Resources for Learning.

(1.00 puntos)


(1.00 puntos)
PE29. What is the level of English for taking TKT exam?
Recommended for teachers with an English level of A1 or above.
Recommended for teachers with an English level of B1 or above.

(1.00 puntos)
PE32. What is the minimum English language requeriment for CELTA exam?
CEFR level high C1 or above.
CEFR level high A2 or above.

(1.00 puntos)
PE37. What are the themes of the third module of the TKT exam?
Teachers and principals' work in classroom and classroom management.
Teachers and learners' language in classroom and classroom management.
Teachers and community's work in classroom and classroom management.
Society and learners' language in daily activities and classroom management.

(1.00 puntos)
PE43. What was the TKT exam developed for?
For experts of English to writers of other languages.
For teachers of English to listeners of other languages.
For lectures of English to readers of other languages.
For teachers of English to speakers of other languages.

(1.00 puntos)
PE49. What is the first module from the DELTA course?
Learning language, methodology and resources for learning.
Understanding language, methodology and resources for teaching.
Sharing language, methodology and resources for reading.
Discovering language, methodology and resources for wrting.

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
PE62. The types of questions in GRE verbal reasoning are:
Reading comprehension, text completion and sentence equivalence.
Multiple choice questions.
Reading comprehension.
(1.00 puntos)
PE66. In text completion of GRE, the test taker has to:
use the remaining information in the passage as a basis for selecting words or
short phrases.
select the sentence in the passage that meets a certain description.
select one or more answer choices.
(1.00 puntos)


Ability to reason quantitatively and to model and solve problems with

quantitative methods.
(1.00 puntos)
PE75. The essay section of GMAT exam is also known as:
Integrated reasoning
Analytical Writing
Verbal
(1.00 puntos)
Critical Reasoning
Sentence Correction
(1.00 puntos)
PE85. The computer based CPA has:
Three written communication tasks, 276 multiple-choice questions, and 28 task-

based simulations.
Four written communication tasks, 276 multiple-choice questions, and 28 task-

based simulations.
Five written communication tasks, 276 multiple-choice questions, and 28 task-

based simulations.
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
Anterior
Segundo Parcial

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:15:19


(1.00 puntos)
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(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
YL, Young Learners.

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
PE35. What are the themes of the first module of the TKT exam?
Describing speaking and speaking skills, background to speaking learning, backgroung to speaking teaching.
Describing reading and reading skills, background to reading learning, backgroung to reading teaching.
Describing writing and writing skills, background to writing learning, backgroung to writing teaching.
Describing language and language skills, background to language learning, backgroung to language teaching.
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
GMAT
GRE
TKT
(1.00 puntos)
PE55. The GRE is:
A paper based test.

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
PE63. The reading comprehension passages of GRE include different subject matter areas such as:

(1.00 puntos)
Understanding of elementary mathematical concepts, ability to reason quantitatively and to model and solve problems with quantitative
methods.
Understanding of elementary mathematical concepts and to model and solve problems with quantitative methods.
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
Zero to 100
Zero to 89
Zero to 99
(1.00 puntos)
Sixty six multiple choice questions as well as eight task based simulations that use real-life work situations to test your skill.
Ten multiple-choice questions as well as eight task-based simulations that use real-life work situations to test your skill.
Six multiple-choice questions as well as eight task-based simulations that use real-life work situations to test your skill.
(1.00 puntos)
(1.00 puntos)
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Segundo Parcial
SECOND TERM EXAM
SECOND TERM EXAM

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:25:23

1 de 6 19/02/2023, 16:09
PE13. What is the first module of the TKT exam?
15 years or more.
16 years or more.
17 years or more.
18 years or more.
2 de 6 19/02/2023, 16:09
GMAT
GRE
TKT
PE55. The GRE is:
A paper based test.
Phychology, Mathematics, Medicine, Physics, Literature in English, Biology and

Chemistry.
Two paragraphs
From one paragraph to four or five paragraphs
3 de 6 19/02/2023, 16:09
From five to ten paragraphs
PE65. The task where the aim is to fill in the blanks and create a coherent, meaningful
Text completion
PE68. They test the ability to reach a conclusion about how a passage should be
completed on the basis of partial information in GRE refers to:
Text completion
Analytical Writing
Verbal
PE77. What does graphic interpretation in GMAT measure?
the ability to interpret the information presented in a graph or other graphical

image.
the ability to examine data from multiple sources text passages.
the ability sort and analyze a table of data.
PE78. The ability to read and comprehend written material, reason and evaluate
4 de 6 19/02/2023, 16:09
arguments in GMAT belongs to:
Analytical Writing Assessment
Verbal reasoning
Integrated Reasoning
PE88. Multiple-choice questions of CPA test count for:
PE95. What is the Pearson Language Test?
PTE
PLT
CPA
5 de 6 19/02/2023, 16:09
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Segundo Parcial
SECOND TERM EXAM
SECOND TERM EXAM

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:56:10

1 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
PE10. How are the TKT exam results reported?
In bands from 1 to 3.
2 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
PE22. What is the name of the first module in DELTA exam?
3 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
PE45. Which of the following facts is not part of the lesson components teachers need to know in the TKT course?
motivation
guessing
the role of error
learner needs
PE48. Which of the following facts is not part of the components of the CELTA couse?
Globalization.
Imput.
Teaching practice.
Peer observation.
PE49. What is the first module from the DELTA course?
4 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
Provide a common measure for comparing the abilities of students from different backgrounds.
Provide a common measure for comparing the abilities of students from the same backgrounds.
Provide a common measure for comparing the abilities of students who are the same age.
GMAT
GRE
TKT
PE57. The GRE General Test measures:
Quantitative reasoning, critical thinking and analytical writing skills
Verbal reasoning, qualitative reasoning, quantitative thinking and analytical writing skills
Verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, critical thinking and analytical writing skills
5 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
PE65. The task where the aim is to fill in the blanks and create a coherent, meaningful whole from short passages in
GRE is:
Text completion
Understanding of elementary mathematical concepts, ability to reason quantitatively and to model and solve
6 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
Understanding of elementary mathematical concepts and to model and solve problems with quantitative
methods.
7 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
Anterior
8 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
Segundo Parcial

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:34:39


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YL, Young Learners.

(1.00 puntos)

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15 years or more.
16 years or more.
17 years or more.
18 years or more.
(1.00 puntos)
PE34. How many hours of teaching practice are needed to aprove CELTA exam?
A total of 4 hours, working with adult classes at a minimum of one levels of

ability.

ability.
A total of 6 hours, working with adult classes at a minimum of two levels of

ability.
A total of 7 hours, working with adult classes at a minimum of three levels of

ability.
(1.00 puntos)
subjects.
(1.00 puntos)
PE45. Which of the following facts is not part of the lesson components teachers
need to know in the TKT course?
motivation
guessing
the role of error
learner needs
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)

same backgrounds.
same age.
(1.00 puntos)

Chemistry.

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
PE73. GMAT measures the ability to analyze and evaluate:
oral material and problem solving
problem solving
written material, think critically, and solve problems

(1.00 puntos)

Reasoning.

Reasoning.
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(1.00 puntos)
PE83. Each CPA exam section can be completed in:
One hour
Four hours
Eighteen months
(1.00 puntos)
PE97. What is the exam used to cover analysis, reasoning, psychological of

candidates and the knowledge of biological systems?
Medical College Admission Test
PTE
SAT
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
Anterior
Segundo Parcial
SECOND TERM EXAM
SECOND TERM EXAM

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:08:41

The highest Band.
The lowest Band.
YL, Young Learners.
motivation
guessing
the role of error
learner needs
backgrounds.
backgrounds.
same age.
Text completion


methods.

Reasoning.
65
75
55
Module 2
Module 3
Module 1

Anterior
Segundo Parcial
SECOND TERM EXAM
SECOND TERM EXAM

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:08:41

The highest Band.
The lowest Band.
YL, Young Learners.
motivation
guessing
the role of error
learner needs
backgrounds.
backgrounds.
same age.
Text completion


methods.

Reasoning.
65
75
55
Module 2
Module 3
Module 1

Anterior

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 14:36:25


(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
15 years or more.
16 years or more.
17 years or more.
18 years or more.
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
PE48. Which of the following facts is not part of the components of the CELTA
couse?
Globalization.
Imput.
Teaching practice.
Peer observation.
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
GMAT
GRE
TKT
(1.00 puntos)
PE55. The GRE is:
A paper based test.

(1.00 puntos)
PE56. What does GRE stand for?
Grades Record Examination
Graduate Record Examination
Great Record Examination

(1.00 puntos)
PE60. The ability to select important points; distinguish major from irrelevant points;
summarize text; understand the structure of a text in GRE refers to:
Analytical writing
(1.00 puntos)
PE63. The reading comprehension passages of GRE include different subject matter
areas such as:

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
problem solving

(1.00 puntos)

image.

(1.00 puntos)
Zero to 100
Zero to 89
Zero to 99
(1.00 puntos)
PE89. Tasked-based simulations of CPA count for:

(1.00 puntos)
PE91. To get an excellent score at CPA exam, it is necessary to apply one of the
following strategies.
Develop solutions approach like solving task-based simulations and multiple -

choice questions.

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
PTE
PLT
CPA
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
Anterior
Segundo Parcial
SECOND TERM EXAM
SECOND TERM EXAM

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 14:39:00


YL, Young Learners.
PE21. How many modules does DELTA exam consist of?
Two modules.
Three modules.
Four modules.
Five modules.
PE25. How is the first module of DELTA exam assessed?
Listening examination.
Writing examination.
Reading examination.
Speaking examination.
Verbal reasoning, qualitative reasoning, quantitative thinking and analytical

writing skills
Verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, critical thinking and analytical writing

skills
PE61. The ability to understand the meaning of individual words, sentences and
entire texts; understand relationships among words and among concepts in GRE
refers to:
Analytical writing
PE65. The task where the aim is to fill in the blanks and create a coherent,
meaningful whole from short passages in GRE is:
Text completion
PE66. In text completion of GRE, the test taker has to:
use the remaining information in the passage as a basis for selecting words or
short phrases.
select the sentence in the passage that meets a certain description.
select one or more answer choices.
Text completion
PE69. The Question Structure consists of a single sentence, one blank, and six
answer choices in GRE, refers to:
Text completion
PE72. GMAT is a standardized test that often required for:
admission to graduate business program
admission to graduate medicine program
admission to graduate teaching program

Reasoning.

Reasoning.
Verbal reasoning
Module 2
Module 3
Module 1
Anterior
2/19/23, 3:15 PM Sistema Virtual de Educación [Evaluaciones]

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:00:41

YL, Young Learners.

(1.00 puntos)
PE23. What is the name of the second module in DELTA exam?
Describing Professional Production.
Developing Pre-professional Practice.
Developing Post-professional Practice.
Developing Professional Practice.

(1.00 puntos)
(1.00 puntos)

ability.

ability.

ability.

ability.
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)

Chemistry.

(1.00 puntos)
PE72. GMAT is a standardized test that often required for:
admission to graduate business program
admission to graduate medicine program
admission to graduate teaching program

(1.00 puntos)
problem solving

(1.00 puntos)
Critical Reasoning
Sentence Correction
(1.00 puntos)
Two
Three
Four
(1.00 puntos)
One hour
Four hours
Eighteen months
(1.00 puntos)
Sixty six multiple choice questions as well as eight task based simulations that
use real-life work situations to test your skill.

Six multiple-choice questions as well as eight task-based simulations that use

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
Module 2
Module 3
Module 1
(1.00 puntos)

PTE
SAT
(1.00 puntos)


(1.00 puntos)
Anterior
Segundo Parcial
SECOND TERM EXAM
SECOND TERM EXAM

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:25:23

1 de 6 19/02/2023, 16:09
15 years or more.
16 years or more.
17 years or more.
18 years or more.
2 de 6 19/02/2023, 16:09
GMAT
GRE
TKT
PE55. The GRE is:
A paper based test.

Chemistry.
Two paragraphs
From one paragraph to four or five paragraphs
3 de 6 19/02/2023, 16:09
From five to ten paragraphs
PE65. The task where the aim is to fill in the blanks and create a coherent, meaningful
Text completion
Text completion
Analytical Writing
Verbal

image.
4 de 6 19/02/2023, 16:09
Verbal reasoning
PTE
PLT
CPA
5 de 6 19/02/2023, 16:09
Anterior
6 de 6 19/02/2023, 16:09
Segundo Parcial
SECOND TERM EXAM
SECOND TERM EXAM

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:56:10

1 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
PE10. How are the TKT exam results reported?
2 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
PE22. What is the name of the first module in DELTA exam?
3 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
PE45. Which of the following facts is not part of the lesson components teachers need to know in the TKT course?
motivation
guessing
the role of error
learner needs
PE48. Which of the following facts is not part of the components of the CELTA couse?
Globalization.
Imput.
Teaching practice.
Peer observation.
PE49. What is the first module from the DELTA course?
4 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
Provide a common measure for comparing the abilities of students from different backgrounds.
Provide a common measure for comparing the abilities of students from the same backgrounds.
GMAT
GRE
TKT
Verbal reasoning, qualitative reasoning, quantitative thinking and analytical writing skills
Verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, critical thinking and analytical writing skills
5 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
PE65. The task where the aim is to fill in the blanks and create a coherent, meaningful whole from short passages in
GRE is:
Text completion
Understanding of elementary mathematical concepts, ability to reason quantitatively and to model and solve
6 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
Understanding of elementary mathematical concepts and to model and solve problems with quantitative
methods.
7 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
Anterior
8 de 8 19/2/2023, 16:16
SECOND TERM EXAM
SECOND TERM EXAM

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 14:33:13

PE3. Who can take TKT exam?
Teacher who has not experience as teacher.
Teacher who has great experience in teaching English.
Teachers of English in general.
Practitioners of English as second language.
PE16. What is the fourth module of TKT exam?
CLIL, community and language integrated process.
CLIL, content and language integrated learning.
CLIL, context and writing integrated learning.
CLIL, condition and speaking integrated learning.
Writing examination.
PE33. How many students per tutors are necessary for CELTA exams?
5 students.
6 students.
7 students.
8 students.
PE37. What are the themes of the third module of the TKT exam?
Teachers and principals' work in classroom and classroom management.
Teachers and learners' language in classroom and classroom management.
Teachers and community's work in classroom and classroom management.
Society and learners' language in daily activities and classroom management.
PE40. How many questions does the ClIL module from the TKT exam have?
It consists of a single paper containing 80 questions in two parts.
It consists of a single paper containing 90 questions in three parts.
It consists of a single paper containing 100 questions in four parts.
It consists of a single paper containing 120 questions in five parts.

Verbal reasoning, qualitative reasoning, quantitative thinking and analytical writing

skills
Verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, critical thinking and analytical writing

skills
PE63. The reading comprehension passages of GRE include different subject matter
areas such as:
PE69. The Question Structure consists of a single sentence, one blank, and six answer
choices in GRE, refers to:
Text completion
Critical Reasoning
Sentence Correction
PE85. The computer based CPA has:
Three written communication tasks, 276 multiple-choice questions, and 28 task-

based simulations.
Four written communication tasks, 276 multiple-choice questions, and 28 task-

based simulations.
Five written communication tasks, 276 multiple-choice questions, and 28 task-

based simulations.
PTE
PLT
CPA
Anterior
Segundo Parcial

Realización
Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:34:39


(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
YL, Young Learners.

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)

15 years or more.
16 years or more.
17 years or more.
18 years or more.
(1.00 puntos)

ability.

ability.

ability.

ability.
(1.00 puntos)
subjects.
(1.00 puntos)
PE45. Which of the following facts is not part of the lesson components teachers
need to know in the TKT course?
motivation
guessing
the role of error
learner needs
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)

same backgrounds.
same age.
(1.00 puntos)

Chemistry.

(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
problem solving

(1.00 puntos)

Reasoning.

Reasoning.
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
One hour
Four hours
Eighteen months
(1.00 puntos)

PTE
SAT
(1.00 puntos)

(1.00 puntos)
Anterior
21/8/23, 20:10 Sistema Virtual de Educación [Evaluations]
Program > Unit > Evaluation
Segundo Parcial
You will have 60 minutes to solve the following 20 multiple choice questions.
Total score: 20.00
Score of approval: 14.00
Incorrect answers lower your score: No
Open: since 21/08/2023 19:30 until 21/08/2023 21:00
Achievement
Date: 08/21/2023 7:43:59 PM

Achievement time: 00:25:34 Passed - 19.00
Number of times done: 1
Quantity of right answers: 19 / 20
PE3. Who can take TKT exam?
Teacher who has not experience as teacher.
Teacher who has great experience in teaching English.
Teachers of English in general.
Practitioners of English as second language.
PE6. Who is CELTA exam for?
Experienced teachers with lots of experience in their career.
New teachers with no experience starting their career.
New teachers with no experience looking for a new career.
New teachers with experience in different branches of their career.
PE20. How many writing assignments does CELTA exam have?
4 assignments.
5 assignments.
6 assignments.
7 assignments.
Written examination.
PE33. Factors in the language-learning process are included:
In the TKT Module 1 Part 1.
A total of 4 hours, working with adult classes at a minimum of one levels of ability.
A total of 5 hours, working with adult classes at a minimum of one levels of ability.
A total of 6 hours, working with adult classes at a minimum of two levels of ability.
A total of 7 hours, working with adult classes at a minimum of three levels of ability.
backgrounds.
backgrounds.
PE56. What does GRE stand for?
Grades Record Examination
Graduate Record Examination
Great Record Examination
PE67. The text completion passage of GRE is composed of:
one to five sentences, one to three blanks, three answer choices per blank.
from one paragraph to four or five paragraphs.

PE79. What are the types of questions in the Verbal Section of GMAT?
Table Analysis and Graphics Interpretation.
Reading Comprehension and Table Analysis
Reading Comprehension, Critical Reasoning, and Sentence Correction.
PE89. Tasked-based simulations of CPA count for:
PE91. To get an excellent score at CPA exam, it is necessary to apply one of the following
strategies.
Develop solutions approach like solving task-based simulations and multiple -choice
questions.
Previous
LEARNING ACTIVITY 7

Total score: 20.00
Open: since 07/08/2023 20:00 until 07/08/2023 23:00
Achievement
Date: 08/07/2023 9:01:18 PM

LA14. Who is in charge of the Medical College Admission Test?
The Association of British Medical Colleges and Pearson VUE
The Association of American Medical Colleges and Pearson VUE
The Association of English Medical Colleges and Pearson VUE
LA12. The PTE online exam can be taken in:
1 hour
2 hours
3 hours
LA10. Multiple-choice questions count for ...... percent of the total score of CPA
exam.
60
50
40
LA15. What does LSAT stand for?
Law School Association Test
LA16. What does ECCE stand for?
Examination for the Certificate in English
Examination for the Competency in English
LA4. The computer based CPA exam has three written communication tasks:
276 multiple-choice questions and 28 task-based simulations.
276 multiple-choice questions.
28 task-based simulations.
LA7. The CPA exam is divided into four main sections.
Listening, grammar, reading and speaking
Auditing and attestation, financial accoANSunting and reporting, regulation and

businnes environment and concepts.
Auditing, attestation, financial accounting and reporting.
LA11. To take the PTE exam, you should be ..... years old at least.
16
18
15
LA8. The whole CPA exam can last:
16 hours
4 hours
12 hours
LA13. What does SAT stand for?
Social Science Aptitude Test
Skills Aptitude Test
LA19. The CAEL exam is used by:
employers
schools
employers, schools, colleges, and universities.
LA18. The CAEL exam evaluates:
English language skills
Accounting skills
Methodological skills
LA17. Who is in charge of the ECCE?
The University of Michigan
Pearson
Cambridge University
LA3. Candidates have up to ....... hours to complete each exam section in CPA exam.
three
four
two
LA1. What does CPA stand for?
Certified Professor Accountant
College Public Accountant
LA9. The order of the sections taken in the CPA exam depends on:
the teacher
the examiner
the candidate
LA2. How many sections does CPA exam have?
Five sections
Six sections
Four sections
LA6. The minimum passing score of CPA exam is:
80
99
75
LA5. Each section of the CPA test is graded on a scale of:
zero to 75
zero to 99
zero to 100
LA20. The CAEL exam covers:
Speaking, Integrated Reading and Listening and academic units.
Speaking, Listening, Reading and Writing.
Grammar, Reading and Speaking
Previous
Primer Parcial
FIRST PERIOD EXAM

Total score: 20.00
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 8:19:40 PM

E2. How many questions does the listening paper 2 of PET exam have?
50 questions
25 questions
35 questions
(1.00 score)
E3. Paper 3 of PET exam, Speaking has a total of:
25 marks
35 marks
45 marks
(1.00 score)
E5. What is Part 1 of Speaking PET exam about?
Each candidate interacts with the interlocutor
Candidates interact with each other
Extended turn. A color photograph is given to each candidate

(1.00 score)
E17. How many papers does the C1 Advanced have?
Three papers
Five papers
Four papers
(1.00 score)
E22. What should you do in paper 2 of C1 Advanced exam?
Use a range of vocabulary, grammar, style and tone.
Write answers that are much longer than the word limit.
Write addresses for a letter.

(1.00 score)
E24. How many times is every part of the listening paper C1 exam heard?
Once
Twice
Three times
(1.00 score)
E26. What shouldn't you do in paper 3 C1 Advanced exam?
Don't leave any question without an answer.
Don't check the spelling.
Don't answer the questions the first time the recording is played.
(1.00 score)
E29. The meaning of TOEIC is:
Test of English for International Communication
Test of Enforcement for Interactive Communication
Test of Experienced Interlocutors Community
Test of Expressing Intelligence Communication

(1.00 score)
E33. The TOEFL test consists of:
Four components: reading, grammar, speaking and inferring
Four components: skimming, listening, scanning and writing
Four components: paraphraising, listening, speaking and syllabication
Four components: reading, listening, speaking and writing

(1.00 score)
E38. What is the total number of questions in the reading section of the TOEFL test?
Sixty questions
Fifty questions
Forty questions
Thirty questions
(1.00 score)
E42. What are the English-speaking countries which commonly accept the IELTS test
for those people who want to study there?
South Africa and Scotland
Wales and Netherlands
Autralia and UK
USA and Canada

(1.00 score)
E49. What is the minimum length of words for the second task in the Writing section
from IELTS test?
250 words
260 words
270 words
280 words
(1.00 score)
E57. What is the content of Paper 4 of B2 First exam?
Two parts
Four parts
Three parts
(1.00 score)
E59. What is the name of Part 4 of Paper 4 B2 First exam?
Discussion
Collaborative task
Long turn
(1.00 score)
E61. What does PET stand for?
Preliminary English Test.
Preparation for Experimental Training.
Practice for Eterprainious Test.
Preliminary English Training.

(1.00 score)
E63. What is the institution which prepares PET exmination?
Cambridge.
Oxford.
Harvard.
Penn.
(1.00 score)
E70. What is the time required to take CAE exam?
About 5 hours.
About 6 hours.
About 4 hours.
About 3 hours.
(1.00 score)
E71. What is the test format for CAE examination?
Computer and on-site.
On-site and e-mail.
On-line and on-site.
Computer and paper-based.

(1.00 score)
E73. What is the description of the paper 3, listening, in CAE examination?
This paper lasts 30 minutes, It has 2 parts and 20 questions.

(1.00 score)
E85. Which module of the IELTS includes reading texts and answering multiple-
choice questions?
Listening
Reading
Writing
(1.00 score)
Previous
Quiz 3 Data Analysis and Joint Display
Choose the correct answer

Total score: 20.00
Open: since 06/08/2023 10:00 until 06/08/2023 23:59
Achievement
Date: 08/06/2023 7:49:02 PM

nueva sección
When developing joint displays, which of the following guidelines should researchers follow?
Keep the visual elements simple and avoid unnecessary complexity
Only use quantitative data to maintain consistency
Avoid providing interpretations or explanations for the data presented
Display qualitative data in tables and quantitative data in charts
What is the purpose of using joint displays in mixed methods research?
To highlight the limitations of the study
To illustrate the complexity of the research process
To minimize the impact of researcher bias
To report only the positive findings
Which data analysis approach focuses on separately analyzing qualitative and quantitative data before combining the results?
Convergent parallel design
Explanatory sequential design
Embedded design
Which mixed methods research design emphasizes using qualitative data to explore and interpret quantitative results?
Embedded design
Which type of mixed methods research design involves collecting both qualitative and quantitative data concurrently and then
comparing the results?
Embedded design
Joint displays in mixed methods research involve:
Displaying only qualitative data
Combining qualitative and quantitative data visually
Presenting raw data without any interpretation
Using only tables and not graphs for data representation
Which type of joint display includes side-by-side comparison of quantitative and qualitative data?
Data transformation displays
Data comparison displays
Data integration displays

Data transformation displays
Which software is commonly used to create joint displays in mixed methods research?
Microsoft Word
Microsoft Excel
SPSS (Statistical Package for the Social Sciences)
NVivo or Altla.ti
Which ethical consideration is essential when collecting data in mixed methods research?
Confidentiality and anonymity of participants
Using leading questions in interviews
Presenting data without any visual aids
Discarding qualitative data due to its subjectivity
What is the term used to describe the extent to which research findings can be generalized to a larger population?
Reliability
Validity
Transferability
Triangulation
What is the first step in the data analysis process for mixed methods research?
Developing a codebook
Data cleaning
Data reduction
Data integration
What is the main goal of conducting member checking during data analysis in mixed methods research?
To compare data from different sources
To validate the findings with participants
To control for confounding variables
To calculate effect sizes
In mixed methods research, what is the term used to describe the process of combining qualitative and quantitative data during
analysis?
Data triangulation
Data transformation
Data integration
Data reduction
What is the primary advantage of using mixed methods research over single-method approaches?
It allows for easier publication of research findings
It provides greater credibility and validity to the research
It is less time-consuming than other research approaches
It eliminates the need for data analysis
Previous Next
Quiz 4 Instruments and Joint Display
Choose the correct answer

Total score: 20.00
Open: since 06/08/2023 14:00 until 06/08/2023 23:59
Achievement
Date: 08/06/2023 8:05:08 PM

What is the primary purpose of a joint display in mixed methods research?
To display qualitative data only
To display quantitative data only
To combine and display both qualitative and quantitative data
To compare different research studies

According to Mason (2002), what is a crucial feature of a qualitative or semi-structured interview?
One-way interaction dominated by the interviewer
No interaction between the interviewer and the participant
Two-way interaction where both the interviewer and the participant have opportunities to talk
No opportunity for the participant to share their perspectives
In-depth interviewing is a qualitative research technique that involves:
Conducting brief individual interviews with a large number of respondents
Conducting intensive individual interviews with a small number of respondents
Conducting group interviews with a small number of respondents
Conducting surveys with a large number of respondents
Which type of mixed methods design involves collecting quantitative data in the first phase and using the results to plan the
second, qualitative phase?
Exploratory sequential mixed methods approach
Three-phase exploratory sequential mixed methods design
Single-phase mixed methods design
Explanatory sequential mixed methods approach
What is the purpose of an informed consent form in an interview guide?
To ensure that the participants answer all the questions honestly
To inform the participants of the research findings
To guarantee that the participants will not be audiotaped during the interview
To inform the participants about the study's purpose, risks, and benefits and obtain their voluntary agreement to participate
When conducting participant observation, the researcher:
Remains detached from the observed individuals or groups
Only records quantitative data during the observation process
Engages actively in the observed activities and interactions
Conducts interviews with participants after the observation is complete
What is one advantage of using joint displays in mixed methods research?
Joint displays eliminate the need for data analysis
Joint displays present only qualitative data for ease of interpretation
Joint displays help researchers avoid triangulation of data
Joint displays allow for clearer communication and understanding of complex findings
Which statement about joint display analysis is correct?
Joint display analysis is limited to visual representations of data.
Joint display analysis can be conducted only by qualitative researchers.
Joint display analysis helps identify inconsistencies between qualitative and quantitative findings.
Joint display analysis is not suitable for presenting findings in research publications.
Which of the following is an example of a data integration display?
Bar chart showing the frequency of survey responses
Table displaying interview transcripts
Line graph depicting changes over time in a quantitative variable
Matrix display aligning survey results with corresponding qualitative themes
In qualitative research, how does Mason (2002) describe the co-construction of knowledge in an interview?
The researcher provides all the answers, and the participant listens
Meanings and understanding are created independently by the researcher
Meanings and understanding are co-produced by the researcher and interviewees
The researcher acts as a passive observer during the interview process
Variations on joint display can include:
Bar charts for qualitative data
Pie charts for quantitative data
Venn diagrams for qualitative and quantitative data
Scatter plots for categorical data
Joint display analysis in mixed methods research involves:
Summarizing only qualitative data
Summarizing only quantitative data
Integrating and interpreting both qualitative and quantitative data
Ignoring the qualitative data during analysis
In the explanatory sequential mixed methods approach, how are the types of participants for the qualitative phase typically
determined?
By randomly selecting participants from the population
By using convenience sampling to recruit participants
By purposefully selecting participants based on the quantitative results
By using snowball sampling to identify participants
Which type of observation involves observing participants without their knowledge or consent?
Direct observation
Non-participant observation
Covert observation
Over observation
Previous
LEARNING ACTIVITY 4
You will have 40 minutes to solve the following 20

multiple-choice questions
Total score: 20.00
Open: since 12/06/2023 21:00 until 12/06/2023 23:59
Achievement
Date: 06/12/2023 9:26:49 PM

P11. What is the range that the MET examination

evaluates?
From elementary to upper intermediate
From high beginner to low advanced
From low intermediate to proficiency
From low beginner to intermediate

(1.00 score)
P2. IELTS is a test that measures:
The English language proficiency of children

who wish to study in the USA.
The English language proficiency of adults

who wish to work or study in English-language
contexts.
The English language proficiency of teenagers

who wish to study in the USA.
(1.00 score)
P19. What was the educational institution which

developed the MET examination?
Michigan Oxford Language Assessments
Michigan Pearson Language Assessments
Michigan Richmond Language Assessments
Cambridge Michigan Language Assessments

(1.00 score)
P1. IELTS stands for:
International English Language Testing

System.
Intenational English Learning Teacher System.
Institute English Language Testing System.

(1.00 score)
P16. What are the two parts in which MET Reading

and Grammar section is divided?
Twenty-five multiple choice questions and fifty

questions about grammar structure
Fifty multiple choice questions and twenty-five

about grammar structure
Forty multiple choice questions and twenty

Eighty multiple choice questions and fifty-five

(1.00 score)
P3. How many sections does IELTS exam have?
Three
Five
Four
(1.00 score)
P18. What is the style of English applied in the MET

examination?
American style
British style
Australian style
Neutral style
(1.00 score)
P17. How much time is used to take the reading

and grammar section from the MET examination?
Sixty minutes
Forty-minutes
Ninety minutes
Eighty minutes
(1.00 score)
P7. In the video about IELTS writing, grammatical

range means:
variety of sentence types
grammatical accuracy
no grammatical errors
(1.00 score)
P5. Students have ..... for the reading section in the

IELTS exam.
1 hour 30 minutes
50 minutes
60 minutes
(1.00 score)
P9. In the IELTS speaking module, you shouldn't:
look confident and speak clearly.
take long pauses to answer the questions.
try to use synonyms or other words to express

your ideas.
(1.00 score)
P8. It is a good idea to ....... in the IELTS listening

section.
choose the option which has the same words

you listen to.
eliminate some options before choosing the

right answer.
choose the first option which looks to be the

correct one.
(1.00 score)
P4. What are the sections of IELTS exam?
Reading, writing, listening and speaking.
Use of English, writing, listening and speaking.
Reading, writing, understanding and speaking.

(1.00 score)
P14. How many sections does MET examination

have?
Two sections: Listening and Reading and

grammar
Three sections: Use of English, Writing and

Listening
Three sections: Vocabulary, Reading and

Writing
Two sections: Reading and use of English

(1.00 score)
P13. Who are the common users of Met

examination?
Young adults and adult speakers of English
Children and adult speakers of English
Adolescents and adult speakers of English
Elderly and adult speakers of English

(1.00 score)
P10. In the IELTS speaking module, you should:
answer questions just saying "yes" or "no" or

give very short answers.
show that you are willing to participate and

talk in a conversation.
(1.00 score)
P20. How many questions does the listening

section have from the MET examination?
Seventy multiple choice questions
Sixty multiple choice questions
Fifty multiple choice questions
Forty multiple choice questions

(1.00 score)
P15. How many questions does the Reading and

Grammar section have in the MET examination?
Eighty-two questions
Ninety questions
One hundred and twenty questions
Seventy-five questions
(1.00 score)
P12. What is the context that MET examination

users have?
Personal, public, occupational and educational

contexts
Personal, private, amusement and

entertainment contexts
Global, public, legal and philosophical contexts
Religious, public, international and medical

contexts
(1.00 score)
P6. Students have to produce .... in the IELTS writing

Module.
two pieces of writing
three pieces of writing
one piece of writing

(1.00 score)
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Preparation for International Exams. Theme 1 https://evirtual .espe.edu.ec/programas_scorm.cgi?id curso=24080É1d unidad=274012é1d pkg=12...
STETErECCCECECTECECECErr—CECrECCEECCECTErECEEEEEEETTTEEOS
Preparation for
International Exams
SECTA CACCCCCCCCCROCORRRRDoRORCRzoroEcEere—rEroerEEEE
Tema 1.
PET Examinations
Carrera en Línea
Pedagogía de los Idiomas
a.
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:40

Preparation for International Exams. Theme 1 https://evirtual .espe.edu.ec/programas_scorm.cgi?id
curso=24080É1d unidad=274012é1d pkg=12...
DESEE
cm— !MNOVACIÓN PAÑA La EXCELENCIA
—c-)
1.1. Introduction
Students from English programs need to be prepared to different kind of international exams applied by some universities and
colleges around the world, these certify the level of this language and are essential for admissions to universities, migration to
English spoken countries and working abroad. In our case students from our program will guarantee English language
proficiency.
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:40

DESEE INNOVACIÓN PANA LA EXCELENCIA

—c-)
1.2. What is PET (Cambridge Preliminary English Test) about?
In order to understand the skills for the international examinations, it is necessary to take a look at the Common Reference
levels represented in the following table:
Table 1. Global Scale — Table 1 (CEFR 3.3): Common Reference levels
INDEPENDENT
PROFICIENT
í
USER
USER
USER
Source: https:/www coe.int/en/web/common-european-framework-reference-languages
Mable-1-cefr-3.3-common-reference-levels-global-scale
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:40

Can understand with ease virtually everything heard or read. Can summarise information from different spoken and written
cz sources, reconstructing arguments and accounts in a coherent presentation. Can express him/herself spontaneously, very fluently
and precisely, differentiating finer shades of meaning even in more complex situations.
PROFICIENT
USER Can understand a wide range of demanding, longer texts, and recognise implicit meaning. Can express him/herself fluently and
spontaneously without much obvious searching for expressions. Can use language flexibly and effectively for social, academic and
Ci
professional purposes. Can produce clear, well-structured, detailed text on complex subjects, showing controlled use of
organisational patterns, connectors and cohesive devices.
Can understand the main ideas of complex text on both concrete and abstract topics, including technical discussions in his/her
field of specialisation. Can interact with a degree of fluency and spontaneity that makes regular interaction with native speakers
B2
quite possible without strain for either party. Can produce clear, detailed text on a wide range of subjects and explain a viewpoint
on atopical issue giving the advantages and disadvantages of various options.
INDEPENDENT
USER
Can understand the main points of clear standard input on familiar matters regularly encountered in work, school, leisure, etc. Can
deal with most situations likely to arise whilst travelling in an area where the language is spoken. Can produce simple connected
Bi
text on topics which are familiar or of personal interest. Can describe experiences and events, dreams, hopes 6: ambitions and
briefly give reasons and explanations for opinions and plans.
Can understand sentences and frequently used expressions related to areas of most immediate relevance (e.g. very basic personal
and family information, shopping, local geography, employment). Can communicate in simple and routine tasks requiring a simple
AZ
and direct exchange of information on familiar and routine matters. Can describe in simple terms aspects of his/her background,
immediate environment and matters in areas of immediate need.
BASIC
USER
Can understand and use familiar everyday expressions and very basic phrases aimed at the satisfaction of needs of a concrete
type. Can introduce him/herselfand others and can ask and answer questions about personal details such as where he/she lives,
Al
people he/she knows and things he/she has. Can interact in a simple way provided the other person talks slowly and clearly and is
prepared to help.
DESEE —c-)
INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
1.2. What is PET (Cambridge Preliminary English Test) about?
According to Cambridge University Press (2010), The Preliminary English Test corresponds to level B1 of the Common
European Framework and is provided by Cambridge English Language Assessment. All four skills of Writing, Reading,
Speaking, and Listening are assessed, each skill accounting for 25% of total marks available.
PET is useful preparation for higher-level exams, such as FCE (First Certificate in English). The topics used in the PET exams
are:
Clothes Hobbies and leisure Relations with people

Daily life House and home Services
Education Language Shopping
Entertainment and media People Social interaction
Environment Personal feelings Sport
Food and drink Experiences and opinions The natural world
Free time Personal identification Transport
Health, medicine and exercise Places and buildings Weather
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:41

PAPER NAME TIMING CONTENT TEST
FOCUS
Paper 1 Reading Writing | 1 hour Reading: The ability of

, , candidates to
30 minutes Five parts
comprehend
test a range
, the meaning
of reading
of written
skills with a
, English at the
variety of
, word, phrase,
texts, ranging
sentence,
from short
, paragraph,
notices to
and whole-
longer
, text level is
continuous
assessed.
texts.
The capacity
of candidates
Writing: to produce
simple written
Three parts
English,
test a range
" ranging from
of writing
, variations on
skills.
simple
sentences to
continuous
text, is
assessed.
Paper 2 Listening 35 minutes Four parts Candidates'

(approx.) ranging from | capacity to
short understand
exchangesto dialogues and
longer monologues
dialogues on a variety of
and themes in
monologues | both informal

and neutral
situationsis
assessed.
Paper 3 Speaking 10-12 Four parts: Assessment

minutes per of candidates'
pair of bart. capacity to
candidates candidates communicate
interact with
themselves to
an examiner;
perform B1-
In Parts 2
level duties.
and 4 they
To ask and
interact with
understand
another
questions, as
candidate; In
well as to
Part 3, they
respond
have an
appropriately.
extended
To freely
individual
discuss topics
long turn.
of personal
interest.
DESEE —.-) ET
INNOVACIÓN PANA LA EXCELENCIA
1.2.1. Paper 1: Reading and Writing
Table 3. Reading
Reading has 35 questions and Writing

has seven questions which have to be
art] TaskType Task Focus Number of
completed in 1 hour and 30 minutes.
| hree-option multiple Reading reabworkd mies —|5
rete | andother short texts.
In the Reading section: each question
has one mark, this section represents ?
25% of the total marks for the whole > Reading muliple Extsfor— [5
examination.
In the Writing section: Questions 1-5

have one mark each. Question 6 is E
marked out of five, and Question 7/8 is autemicene | TOMA
marked out of 15. It gives a total of 25 O ha
Which is the 25% of the total marks for
the whole examination. aten
and global meaning.
5 | Four option multiple-choios | Un:
Before the examination, take into co
account the time your need for it. ltis Tema
integrated example, with
na tm
approximately 50 minutes in the the text
Reading section and 40 minutes in the vary facu. Tot

Writing one.
Source: Cambridge Preliminary English Test for Schools 1 (2010, p. 6)
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:41

Part | Task Type Task Focus Number of
questions
1 Three-option multiple Reading real-world notices 5

choice. Five short discrete | and other short texts.
texts: signs and messages,
postcards, notes, emails,
etc.
2 Matching. Reading multiple texts for 5

e. , specific information and
Five items in the form of
o detailed comprehension.
descriptions of people to
match eight short adapted
authentic texts.
3 True/False Processing a factual text. 10

, , Scanning for specific
Ten items with an adapted-
, information.
authentic long text.
4 Four option multiple Reading for detailed, 5

choice. comprehension:
e. , understanding attitude,
Five items with an adapted
, opinion, and writer purpose.
authentic long text.
Reading for gist, inference,
and global meaning.
5 Four option multiple-choice | Understanding vocabulary 10

cloze. and grammar in a short text,
and understanding the

Ten items, plus an
lexico-structural patterns in
integrated example, with
the text.
an adapted authentic text
drawn from (one of a
variety of sources. The text
is of a factual or narrative
nature.
E
BESPE INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
uno)
[2777
Table 4. Writing Part 2
Ta Criteria
Allcontentelements are covered appropriately. The message ls
clearly communicated to the reader.
Allcontentelements are adequately dealtwiih. The message was
communicated successfully on the whole.
Allcontentelements were atiempied. The message requires some
effort by the reader
or one content element omitted butothers
eommunicated.
Two content elements were omitied or unsuecessfully dealt with:
In Writing Section Part 1, you have to Messages are only party communicated to the reader. The script may
complete five sentences to test your be slightly short (20 — 25 words)
Little relevant content and/or message requires excessive effort Ey the
grammar. You should write between readeroris short (10-19 words)
one and three words to fill this gap. Totally inelevantor totally incomprehensibke or oo short (under 10
words).
The second sentence must mean the
same as the first sentence.
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:43

Mark Criteria
All content elements are covered appropriately. The message is

clearly communicated to the reader.
All content elements are adequately dealt with. The message was
communicated successfully on the whole.
All content elements were attempted. The message requires some

effort by the reader or one content element omitted but others
communicated.
Two content elements were omitted or unsuccessfully dealt with.

Messages are only partly communicated to the reader. The script may
be slightly short (20 — 25 words)
Little relevant content and/or message requires excessive effort by the

reader or is short (10-19 words)
Totally irrelevant or totally incomprehensible or too short (under 10

words).
- DESEE -) E
In Writing Section 3 you have a choice of task: either a story or an informal letter. You need to write about 100 words for both
tasks. Answers below 80 words will receive fewer marks.
Mark Scheme for Writing Section 3
Examiners grade tasks using assessment scales based on the Common European Framework of Reference for Languages
(CEFRL) (CEFR). The scales, which are used in both the Cambridge English General and Business English Writing
assessments, are divided into four sub-scales:
Content - how well have you met the task's requirements; have you done what you were asked to do?
*
Communicative Achievement - ls your writing style adequate for the task, and have you pitched it in the correct register for
*
the intended audience?

Organization - how have you put the piece of writing together (for example, is it logical and ordered)?
»
Language — how well do you know your vocabulary and grammar (as well as the nature and extent of your language)?
.
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:43

PART | Task Type and Format Task Focus Number
of
questions
1 Sentence transformations. Control and 5
understanding of
Five items, plus an integrated
Threshold/PET
example, that is theme-related.
grammatical
Candidates are given sentences
structures.
and then asked to complete
Rephrasing and
similar sentences using a
reformulating
different structural pattern so that
information.
the sentence still has the same
meaning. Candidates should use
no more than three words.
2 Short communicative message. A short piece of 1

, , writing of 35-45
Candidates are prompted to write
, words focuses on
a short message in the formofa
, communicating
postcard, note, email, etc. The _
, specific messages.
prompt takes the form of a rubric
to respond to.
3 A longer piece of continuous Writing about 100 1

writing. There is a choice of two words focusing on
questions, an informal letter or a control and range of
story. Candidates are primarily language.
assessed on their ability to use
and control a range of Threshold-
level language. Coherent
organization, spelling, and
punctuation are also assessed.
Ev — INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
1.2.2. Paper 2: Listening
Table 6. Paper 2: Listening
it | Task Type and Fomat Task Focus Numberof
E
questions
Multiple choice (discrete). — | Listening to identily key — |7
information from short
Short neutral or informal
exchanges.
monologues or dialogues.
Seven discrete three-option
This section consists of four parts with oo visuals, plus one example.
25 questions based on authentic > vu mas Cami ee
situations. Candidates have 35 Longermonongueor
interview (with one main
| detailed
ree meaning.
remain ana
minutes, including six minutes to apeater) Sian ptr
mulipi<hcios tm
transfer answers. 3 |eapíil Listening to identify, 5
understand and interpret
Longermonologue.
Each question carries one mark. This sigusta Teme
gives a total of 25 marks, which ao a
one or more words in each
represents 25% of the total marks for a.
the whole examination , 64 | TruesFalse Listening for detailed 6
meaning, and identifyin:
Longer informa! dialogue. s "me
the attitudes and opinions
Candidates need to decide | of he speakers.
whethersix statements are
corrector incorrect.
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:43

Part | Task Type and Format Task Focus Number of
questions
1 Multiple choice (discrete). Listening to identify key 7

information from short
Short neutral or informal
, exchanges.
monologues or dialogues.
Seven discrete three-option

multiple-choice items with
visuals, plus one example.
2 Multiple choice. Listening to identify 6

specific information and
Longer monologue or
. . . , detailed meaning.
interview (with one main
speaker). Six three-option
multiple-choice items.
3 Gap-fill Listening to identify, 6

understand and interpret
Longer monologue.
information.
Six gaps to fill in.
Candidates need to write
one or more words in each
space.
64 | True/False Listening for detailed 6

meaning, and identifying
Longer informal dialogue.
the attitudes and opinions
Candidates need to decide of the speakers.
whether six statements are
correct or incorrect.
" HESPE INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA

El
uns)
patio Tu
1.2.3. Paper 3: Speaking
Table 7. Paper 3: Speaking
Part | Task Type and Fomat Task Focus Timing

T— | Ezch candidate interacs wi | Giving information ora 25
the interlocutor. The factual, personal kind. The — | minutes
interlocutor asks the candidates respond to
candidates questions, in tum, | questions about present
using standardized questions, | circumstances, past
experiences, and plans.
There are two candidates and two 2 | simulated situation Using functional language to
Candidates interact with each | make and respond to
| 23
minutes
examiners. One of the examiners acts other. Visual stimulus is given | cuggestions, discuss
to the candidates to aid he — | alternatives, make
as an interlocutor and the other as an discussion task, The recommendationsand
interlocutor sets up the negetiate agreements.
assessor. The interlocutor directs the activity using a standardized
test, while the assessor takes no part nubric
3 | Extended tum. A cor Describing pholographs and_| 5
in the interaction. The time for this photograph is given to each | managing discourse, using — | minutes
section is from 10 to 12 minutes per candidate in tum and they are | appropriate vocabulary, in a
asked to talk aboutitfor up to | longer tum.
pair of candidates. There are a total of 2 minute, Both photographs
relate to the same topic.
25 marks, making 25% of the total 24 | General conversation The candidates Elk iogeiher |S
score for the whole examination. Candidates interact with each | about
other. The topic of he
heir opinions,
Nikesvdislikes, preferences,
minutes
conversation develops the experiences, habits, eto.
theme establishedin Part3
The interlocutor sets up the
activity using a standardized
rubric
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:44

Part | Task Type and Format Task Focus Timing
1 Each candidate interacts with | Giving information of a 2-3

the interlocutor. The factual, personal kind. The minutes
interlocutor asks the candidates respond to

candidates questions, in turn, | questions about present
using standardized questions. | circumstances, past
2 Simulated situation. Using functional language to | 2-3

Candidates interact with each | make and respond to minutes
other. Visual stimulus is given | suggestions, discuss
to the candidates to aid the alternatives, make
discussion task. The recommendations and

interlocutor sets up the negotiate agreements.
rubric.
3 Extended turn. A color Describing photographs and | 3

photograph is given to each managing discourse, using minutes
candidate in tum and they are | appropriate vocabulary, in a
asked to talk about it for up to | longer turn.
a minute. Both photographs
relate to the same topic.
4 General conversation. The candidates talk together | 3

Candidates interact with each | about their opinions, minutes
other. The topic of the likes/dislikes, preferences,
conversation develops the experiences, habits, etc.
theme established in Part 3.

The interlocutor sets up the
rubric.
- DESEE cx) INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
Assessment
Candidates are assessed on their language skills, not their personality, intelligence, or knowledge of the world. They must
be prepared to develop the conversation, where appropriate, and respond to the tasks set. Prepared speeches are not
acceptable.
You can practice this exam online on the following website:

https ://www.examenglish.com/PET/pet grammar.htm
You can find PET samples on the following website:

https://)www.cambridgeenglish.org/exams-and-tests/preliminary-for-schools/preparation/
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:44

— INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
Self-evaluation
1. The Preliminary English Test (PET) corresponds to:
(9) B1 level.
O) B2 level.
() C1 level.
Pregunta 1 de 10
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:38

EEE t.)
Self-evaluation
2. The common reference level for Preliminary English Test (PET) is:
() Basic user.
(e) Independent user.
() Proficient user.
Pregunta 2 de 10
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:38

o DESEE uo)
a INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
Self-evaluation
3. Choose the correct reference level to Preliminary English Test (PET):
Can introduce him/herself and others and can ask and answer questions about personal details such as where he/she
lives.
Can communicate in simple and routine tasks requiring a simple and direct exchange of information on familiar and
routine matters.
— Can describe experiences and events, dreams, hopes, and ambitions and briefly give reasons and explanations for
opinions and plans.
Pregunta 3 de 10
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:38

HESPE > E
— INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA fro fu
Self-evaluation
4. Whatis Paper 1 in PET exam about?
() Listening.
O Speaking.
5 ) Reading and Writing.
Pregunta 4 de 10
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:38

EEE t.)
Self-evaluation
5. Choose the topic which does NOT correspond to PET exams?
C) Dailylife.
(9) Schedules.
O Shopping.
Pregunta 5 de 10
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:59

EEE INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXECELENEIA

t.)
Self-evaluation
6. Which paper has 35 questions and Writing has seven questions which have to be completed in 1 hour and 30 minutes in
PET exams?
Use of English.
U Writing.
(9) Reading.
Pregunta 6 de 10
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:59

EEE t.)
Self-evaluation
7. Writing Section Part 1, you have to complete five sentences to test your . You should write between one and thre:
words to fill this gap
() mistakes.
(9). grammar
() knowledge.
Pregunta 7 de 10
1 de2 9/5/2023, 16:59

o DESEE uo)
Self-evaluation
8. What does PET focus on listening?
It focuses on candidates' capacity to understand dialogues and monologues on a variety of themes in both informal
and neutral situations.
It focuses on following and understanding a range of spoken materials, such as news programs, presentations, public
announcements, etc.; or interacting speakers.
The testing focuses on understanding specific information, gist, attitude, opinion, context, main points and detail.
Pregunta 8 de 10
1 de2 9/5/2023, 17:00


t.)
Self-evaluation
9. Choose the correct task focus in paper 2 Listening part 1 at PET
Listening to identify, understand and interpret information.

Listening for detailed meaning, and identifying the attitudes and opinions of the speakers.
(*) Listening to identify key information from short exchanges.
Pregunta 9 de 10
1 de2 9/5/2023, 17:00

—
E —
MESES e INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
Self-evaluation
10. Choose the correct task focus in paper 3 Speaking part 3 at PET
. Describing photographs and managing discourse, using appropriate vocabulary, in a longer turn.
Giving information of a factual, personal kind. The candidates respond to questions about present circumstances, past
The candidates talk together about their opinions, likes/dislikes, preferences, experiences, habits, etc.
Pregunta 10 de 10
1 de2 9/5/2023, 17:00

SECC CCECTECCCCCCCOCECEOcrECCOccrrErrEreoCECErrCECENE
Preparation for
International Exams
SECC CEACCCCCCCTEACCCEACCCECCCOCCOCOCEOOrorECCCCECECEOTES
Tema 2.
B2 FIRST/CAE Examinations
: Carrera en Línea
y Pedagogía de los Idiomas
1 de2 16/5/2023, 18:35

DESEE —) INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
2.1. What is B2 FIRST about?
This is a B2-level exam from Cambridge ESOL. It consists of four main chapters: Reading and Use of English, Writing, Listening
and Speaking.
2.1.1 Paper 1: Reading and Use of English
Time: 1 hour 15 minutes.

Content: 7 parts with 52 questions.
Marks: 40% of total
Purpose: This paper shows you can deal confidently with different types of text, such as fiction, newspapers, magazines,
journals, books (fiction and non-fiction), and promotional and informational material. Ilt tests your use of English with tasks that
show how well you can control your grammar and vocabulary.
For parts 1 to 4, you read a range of texts and do grammar and vocabulary tasks.
1 de2 16/5/2023, 18:36

Adobe Captivate Widget https://evirtual .espe.edu.ec/programas_scorm.cgi?id
2.1.1 Paper 1:
Reading and Use of English
Part 1
(Multiple-choice cloze)
In this section, you will find a text with some multiple-choice questions. Each question
A
has four options (A, B, C, or D). You have to choose the correct option. The
vocabulary taken into accountis idioms, collocations, shades of meaning, phrasal
verbs, fixed phrases, etc. This section contains 8 questions with 1 mark for each
correct answer.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:36

2.1.1 Paper 1:
Part2
(Open cloze)
In this section, you will find a text in which there are some gaps, each of which
NA
represents one missing word. You have to think of the correct word for each gap. lt
contains grammar and vocabulary divided into 8 questions with 1 mark for each
correct answer.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:36

2.1.1 Paper 1:
Part 3
(Word formation)
In this section, you will find a text containing eight gaps. Each gap represents a word.
At the end of the line is a “prompt” word which you have to change in some way to
complete the sentence correctly. It contains vocabulary in 8 questions which have 1
2 mark for each correct answer.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:36

Adobe Captivate Widget https://evirtual .espe.edu.ec/programas_scorm.cgi?id curso=24080É1d unidad=274012é1d pkg=12...
2.1.1 Paper 1:
Part4
(Keyword transformations)
In this section, you will find questions consisting of a sentence followed by a “keyword
and a second sentence with a gap in the middle. You have to use this keyword to
complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. It
contains grammar and vocabulary in 6 questions which have up to 2 marks for each
correct answer.
For parts 5 to 7, you read a series of texts and answer questions that test your
reading ability and show that you can deal with a variety of different types of texts.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:36

2.1.1 Paper 1:
Part 5
(Multiple choice)
In this section, you will find some multiple-choice questions. For each question, there
=>
are four options and you have to choose A, B, C, or D. It contains reading for detail,
opinion, tone purpose, main idea, implication, and attitude in 6 questions which have
2 marks for each correct answer.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:37

2.1.1 Paper 1:
tE
Part6
(Gapped text)
In this section, you will find a single page of text with some numbered gaps which
y»
represent missing sentences. After the text, some sentences are not in the right
order. You have to read the text and the sentences and decide which sentence best
fits each gap. It focuses on understanding the structure and development of a text in
6 questions which have 2 marks for each correct answer.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:37

2.1.1 Paper 1:
Part 7
(Multiple matching)
In this section, you will find a series of statements followed by a text divided into
sections of several short texts. You have to match each statement to the section of
text in which you can find the information. It focuses on reading for specific
information, detail, opinion, and attitude in 10 questions which have 1 mark for each
uy correct answer.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:37

EEE t.)
2.1.2 Paper 2: Writing
Time: 1 hour 20 minutes
Content: 2 parts
Purpose: This paper requires you to be able to produce two different pieces of writing, such as letters, reports, reviews, and
essays.
1 de2 16/5/2023, 18:37

2.1.2 Paper 2:
Writing
Part 1
(Compulsory question)
In this section, you will find an essay title and two ideas clearly linked to the title. You
write an essay giving your opinions about the title, using the ideas given. You must
also add a third, different idea of your own linked to the title. The title will be a subject
of general interest — you won't need any specialized knowledge. It focuses on the use
of language functions, such as evaluating, expressing opinions, hypothesizing,
justifying, and persuading in one compulsory question from 140 to 190 words.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:37

2.1.2 Paper 2:
Writing
Part2
(Situationally based writing task)
In this section, you write a text from a choice of text types article, email/letter, report,
or review. To guide your writing, you'll be given information about context, topic
purposes, and target reader. It focuses on writing different types of text, you will find
one task to be selected from a choice of three, and the words to be used go from 140
to 190. (Casals, FCE Writing, 2022)
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:37

2.1.3 Paper 3:
Listening
Part 1 (Multiple choice)
In this section, you will find eight short extracts from monologues or conversations
between interacting speakers. There is one multiple-choice question for each extract,
and you have to choose A, B, or C. It focuses on listening for feeling, attitude,
opinion, purpose, function, agreement, gist, and detail. There are 8 questions with 1
mark for each correct answer.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:38

2.1.3 Paper 3:
Listening
Part 2 (sentence completion)
In this section, you will listen to a monologue (which may be introduced by a

presenter) lasting approximately 3 minutes. You have to complete the sentences on
the question paper with the missing information which you hear on the recording. lt
focuses on listening for specific information, and stated opinions. There are 10
questions with 1 mark for each correct answer.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:38

2.1.3 Paper 3:
Listening
Part 3 (Multiple matching)
In this section, you will find a series of five themed monologues of approximately 30
seconds each. On the questions paper, you have to select five correct options from a
list of eight possible answers. It focuses on listening for gist, attitude, opinion,
purpose, feeling, main points, and detail. There are 5 questions with 1 mark for each
correct answer.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:38

2.1.3 Paper 3:
Listening
Part 4 (Multiple choice)
In this section, you will find a conversation between two or more speakers of
approximately 3-4 minutes. You have to answer some multiple-choice questions by
choosing the correct answer for three options (A, B, or C). It focuses on listening for
attitude, opinion, detail, gist, main idea, and specific information. There are 7
questions with 1 mark for each correct answer. (Casals, FCE Listening, 2022)
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:38

EEE t.)
2.1.4 Paper 4: Speaking
Time: 14 minutes per pair of candidates.
Content: 4 parts with 20% of total marks.
Purpose: It tests your ability to communicate effectively in face-to-face situations. Candidates will take the Speaking test with
one or two other candidates.
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2.1.4 Paper 4:
Speaking
Part 1 (Interview)
In this section, you will have a conversation with the examiner. The examiner asks
questions and you may have to give information about your interests, studies, career,
etc. You have to give information about yourself and express your opinion about
various topics. You have 2 minutes for this section.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:39

2.1.4 Paper 4:
Speaking
Part 2 (Long turn)
In this section, the examiner gives you two photographs and asks you to talk about
them. You have to speak for 1 minute without interruption and the interlocutor then
asks the other candidate to comment on your photographs for about 30 seconds. The
other candidate receives a different set of photographs and you have to listen and
comment when they have finished speaking. The question you have to answer about
your photographs is written at the top of the page to remind you what you should talk
about. You should focus on talking on your own about something: comparing,
describing, expressing opinions, speculating. There is 1 minute per candidate.
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:39

2.1.4 Paper 4:
Speaking
Part 3 (Collaborative task)
In this section, you will have to talk to the other candidate. The examiner gives you
some material and a task to do. You have to talk with the other candidate and make a
decision. You need to focus on exchanging ideas, expressing and justifying opinions,
agreeing and/or disagreeing, suggesting, speculating, evaluating, reaching a decision
through negotiation, etc. There are 3 minutes for this part (a 2-minute-discussion
followed by a 1-minute decision-making task)
1ldel 16/5/2023, 18:39

2.1.4 Paper 4:
Speaking
Part 4 (Discussion)
In this section, you have a further discussion with the other candidate, guided by
questions from the examiner, about the topics or issues raised in the task in Part 3.
You need to focus on expressing and justifying opinions, agreeing and/or disagreeing.
You have to speak for 4 minutes.
Cambridge ESOL (2010) gives some advice for this examination: (Casals, FCE
Speaking, 2022)
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2.1.5 Some Tips
Tips for Reading
* Read the instructions first then you will have an idea of what type of text it is and what it is about.
* Answer the questions one by one. Start with the ones you are sure about and go back to the ones you are not sure about
later.
Don't choose an answer because you thinkitis true, wonder why the other options are false.
Answer all the questions by writing them on the answer sheet including the ones you are not totally sure about.
“+
Don't guess, the information to help you decide is in the text.

+
In part 1, read the text first, don't answer yet. Understand the text.
»
In part 2, when you have completed the text with all the sentences, read the whole text to realize that everything makes
*
sense.
* In part 3, Read the instructions and the questions before you look at the text which is not necessary to be read completely.
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2.1.5 Some Tips
Tips for Writing
* Practice writing frequently thinking about who is this writing for and the style you should use according to the situation.
* Use new vocabulary, expressions, and a range of tenses.
* Write the same things in different ways so your ability to paraphrase will be developed and your texts will look more
interesting.
* Plan before writing, in the end, check all the text to see if you have made any mistakes.
* When you have finished writing, check that you have answered all the aspects of the question and whether the
information is relevant and related to the question.
* In Part 1, check that you have included all the notes.
* In Part 2, read the questions carefully before you decide which one to do. Remember to choose the one you feel more
comfortable about.
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2.1.5 Some Tips
Tips for Use of English
* Check that your spellings are correct and that your writing is clear and understandable.
* Use a monolingual dictionary to practice before the exam, it can help you find new collocations and new ways of saying
common words.
* When you find a new word, write down all the forms (noun, verb, adjective, adverb) and any collocations.
* There may be more than one possible answer for a gap. Only write one. If your write two answers and both are correct, you
will get the mark, but if one of them is incorrect, you won't.
* Read the texts in Parts 1, 2, and 3 through with the missing words added to make sure they make sense.
* In Part 4, check you haven't made any silly mistakes, like misspellings.
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2.1.5 Some Tips
Tips for Listening
Read through the questions in the time given before the task to know exactly what you are listening for.
If you doubt an answer, mark the possible ones. Confirm your answer the second time.
+.
Use the second listening to confirm your answers even if you are sure about them. Don't stop listening.
+
Write only the missing word or short phrase on the answer sheet in Part 2, and don't rephrase it.
»
Don't choose an answer based on a single word or phrase in Parts 1, 3, and 4, concentrate on the whole meaning of what
*
you hear.

https://)ww.examenglish.com/F CE/fce_grammar.htm
You can find some sample exams on the following website:

https://)ww.cambridgeenglish.org/images/167 792-b2-first-for-schools-handbook.pdf
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INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXECELEMEIA
2.2. C1 Advanced or Cambridge English Advanced (CAE) Exam.
Itis the in-depth, high-level qualification that shows the language skills of the candidate according to the Common European
Framework of Reference for Languages (CEFR) which is an international standard for describing language ability on a six-
point scale, from A1 for beginners, up to C2 for those who have mastered a language.
What C1 Advanced is about.

Scale score: 180-199
Test format: Computer or paper-based
No, of papers: 4
Exam length: About 4 hours
According to Kathy Gude 8 Mary Stephens (Cambridge English Advanced corresponds to Level Four in the Cambridge ESOL
five-level system. It also corresponds to the association of Language Teachers in Europe (ALTE) Level Four (Competent
User), and Council of Europe level C1 (Effective Proficiency).
This Exam assesses your knowledge and ability in English at Level C1. lItis accepted by universities, employers, and
government departments around the world as an indicator that you have achieved a high level of skill in the English language.
Itis based on deep research to make sure that each paper is the right length and level so it will reflect the candidates' abilities
accurately. Besides its design shows your ability to use English in a range of different ways. It can be paper or computer-
based.
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ce II INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA

Table 8. Paper 1: Reading and Use of English
This paper tests your reading skills, such
as reading for detail or understanding how One text with eight gaps. You must complete each gap with the best word
a text is organized, your knowledge, and ud or phrase from a set of four options.
the use of a range of vocabulary and FE —
grammar in 1 hour 30 minutes. The texts Part 2 One text with eight gaps. You must complete each gap with a single word.
can be taken from newspapers, There are no multiple-choice options.
magazines, journals, non-literary books, One text with eight gaps. For each gap you are given a word. You must change
leaflets, brochures, etc. It means authentic Part 3 the form of this word to fit the gap, using the correct form of the word with
material with minor edits directed to people regard to meaning and grammatical form
who know English not specifically English 1 hour N - -
lo text. You are given six sentences to rewrite using a key word, and
learners. Every text has 550-800 words, so 30 minutes Part 4 k 1 : pa
you!ll read 3,000-3,500 words in total. eeping t same meaning ast e origina sentence.
parto Part 5 One long text with six multiple-choice questions

In this section, a correct answer gets 1 or Four short texts on a related theme. You must identify opinions and
2 marks, an incorrect answer gets 0 and Part 6 attitudes that are expressed in each text and match a prompt to it.
no answer gets 0 marks. If you don't know
the answer, guess. Be careful with One long text with gaps where six paragraphs have been removed. You
. Dn " . e: Part 7 :
spelling, don't mix American and British, must put these paragraphs back into the text in the correct place.
use only one of them. One page of text (a single text, a text in sections or several short texts)
Part 8 £ - :
Candidates will get two scores. The clioSins ala
reading score is based on Parts 1,5, 6, 7,
and 8 and the Use of English score is Source: https:/Awww.cambridgeenglish.org/Images/608129-c1 -advanced-information-for-candidates-
based on Parts 2, 3, and 4. Tee e
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WHAT SHOULD YOU DO IN PAPER 1?
* Read the instructions, and information about the texts, titles, and the texts before starting to answer. Understand the
context.
* In Parts 1, 2, and 3, check your answers have the right meaning, and that they fit with the surrounding grammar and with
the whole text.
* In Parts 5-8, read the text quickly first for general understanding and find links between the questions and areas or sections
in the text.
In Parts 5-8, use the general context of the text to choose your answers.
In Parts 5-8, make sure your choice answers the questions fully.
.
Remember that in Parts 1 and 5, the questions come in the same order as the answers in the text.
.»
In Part 7, when you choose an option you think is correct, decide why the other options are incorrect. Make sure the extra
.
paragraph does not fit! Read the whole text and check that it makes sense.
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WHAT SHOULDN'T YOU DO IN PAPER 1?
Don't write on the answer sheet with a pen. The marking machine just reads answers in pencil.
Don't leave any questions without an answer.
+.
Don't write more than one answer.

+
Don't copy the words, just the correct letter in Part 1.

+
Don't give personal opinions in Parts 5-8.

+
Don't choose an answer after reading only one section in Parts 6 and 8.
+»
Don't reread every section for every question in Parts 5 and 8.

*
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According to Kathy Gude 8 Mary Stephens (2012), this paper has two parts. The Part 1 question is compulsory and is based
on input information. In Part 2, you choose one question from three.
Answers for Part 1 should be 220-260 words in length and answers for Part 2 should be 220-260 words in length.
The task types for Parts 1 and 2 include the following: articles, contributions to leaflets and brochures, letters, reports,
proposals, reviews, essays, competitions entries, set texts, and memos.
According to the Cambridge Assessment English website, the time for this paper is 1 hour 30 minutes, there are four
assessment criteria:
Content: Have you done what you were asked to do?

Communicative Achievement: Have you used the right register?
Organization: Is the text logical and organized, using a range of cohesive devices?
Language: Do you use a wide range of sophisticated grammar and vocabulary with fluency and accuracy?
For both exam tasks, you receive marks from 0 to 5 for each of the four criteria. These scores are combined to calculate your
final mark for the Writing paper.
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* Read every part of the question carefully so you can ensure that you answer all the content points in the task in a fully
developed way.
Think carefully about whether the task requires you to persuade or justify your opinion.
Use a range of vocabulary, grammar, style, and tone which are suitable for the task.
+.
In Part 1, read the opening paragraphs and instructions very carefully to understand your role and who you are writing to.
.»
In Part 1, remember that do not necessarily need to use all the input information. Usually, you have to select the
.*
appropriate information.
. Don't use the exact words from the Part 1 question.

. Don't write answers that are much longer than the word limit.
. Don't write addresses for a letter since they are not required.
* Don'tuse a pencil.
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2.2.3 Paper 3: Listening
This paper lasts 40 minutes. It has four

parts and 30 questions. The recorded Table 9. Paper 3: Listening
texts may include the following:
Monologues, announcements, radio Three short extracts from conversations between interacting speakers. For
broadcasts, telephone messages, Part 1
each recording answer two multiple-choice questions.
speeches, talks, lectures, anecdotes,
conversations between two or more Listen to one person speaking for about 3 minutes and complete eight
Part 2
speakers: interviews, discussions, radio sentences with information that you hear.
About
broadcasts.
40 minutes Listen to a conversation between two or more speakers for about
Part 3
The testing focuses on understanding 4 minutes and answer six multiple-choice questions
4 parts
specific information, gist, attitude, opinion,
Listen to five short recordings of about 30 seconds each. Each recording
context, main points and detail. has only one person speaking. On the question paper, there are two tasks
Part 4
and for each task you have to match each of the five speakers to one of
Each part is heard twice. The speakers will eight possible answers.
have a variety of accents. There may be
some background sounds, before the
peaking begins, to give contextual
information. There may also be some Source: httbs:/Awww.cambridgeenglish.org/Images/608129-c1 -advanced-information-for-candidates-
subdued reaction from audiences to talks, booklet.pdf

speeches, etc.
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In Part 1, you have to choose the best answer from multiple-choice questions on three unrelated short extracts with interacting
speakers.
In Part 2, you have to write a word or short phrase heard in the monologue to complete gaps in sentences.
In Part 3, you have to choose the best answer from multiple-choice questions on conversations with two or more speakers.
In Part 4, you have to select the correct answer from a list of eight options on five short theme-related monologues.
During the exam, always read the questions before you start listening.
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nes) DT
* Listen to all the instructions in the test — and read them too. It's really important to understand what you're listening for and
what you have to do.
Use the time before each recording to prepare, read the questions and think about the topic.
Try to answer the questions the first time the recording is played, the second time should be for checking your answers.
.
In Parts 1-3, remember that the order of information is the same as the order of questions.
.»
In Part 2, try to use the actual words that you hear and look at the information before and after the gap to check the
.
answers make sense.

* In Part 2, check the spelling and that you've copied only the missing words.
* In Part 4, remember that there are two questions for speaker.
* Don't worry if you miss a question. You should continue with the next one, and complete the questions you could not do the
second time you hear the recording. Don't leave any question without an answer.
* Don't panic about a difficult question in Part 2. There is enough time to write your answers as you listen.
* Don't leave a blank space if you are not sure about an answer, in that case, guess.
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uns)
This section has 4 parts, it lasts about 15

minutes. Candidates are tested together in
pairs or groups of three. If there are three Table 10. Paper 4: Speaking
candidates together, the test lasts longer
so each candidate gets enough time to
speak. Part 1 Each candidate has a brief general conversation (about 2 minutes) with
"
the examiner
During this section, there are two You and the other candidate(s) each speak for 1 minute about two
examiners doing different jobs. One Part 2 photographs from a selection of three. After the other candidate has
person is an interlocutor, it means they as spoken, you also have 30 seconds to respond to what they said
speak to the candidate and manage the e ue You and the other candidate(s) discuss and complete a decision-making
test. The other person is an assessor, who » Part 3 task. You have 15 seconds to read the task first, then 2 minutes to discuss
only listens and does not participate in the and 1 minute to make a decision together
test. Together the interlocutor and the Part 4 The candidates and the examiner all speak together about topics related to
assessor decide how well the candidate zo

performed.
The interlocutor gives the candidate a Source: https://Awvww.cambridgeenglish.org/|mages/608129-c1 -advanced-information-for-candidates-

general mark for how well the whole test booklet.pdf
was done, and the assessor specifically
considers five criteria: Grammatical
Resource, Lexical Resource, Discourse
Management, Pronunciation and
Interactive Communication.
1 de2 16/5/2023, 18:45


WHAT SHOULD YOU DO?
You should show that you can communicate effectively.

You should speculate on the content of the visual materials, even if you are not sure what they show.
.
You should listen carefully to the instructions and questions during the test, so you can focus on the task.
+
You should speak clearly so that both the interlocutor and assessor can hear you.
+
You should give full and extended responses, using your very best English.
+
You should involve your partner in the conversation, and give him or her opportunities to speak. Listen to what he or she says.
»
You should ask the examiner to repeat if you don't understand.

*
WHAT SHOULDN'T YOU DO?
You shouldn't waste the opportunity to show what you can do.
You shouldn't let your partner take the lead, you should take the initiative too.
.
You shouldn't speak too quietly. The examiners must listen to you.
++
You shouldn't stop talking when you dont know a word. Use other words.
+
You shouldn't interrupt your partner.

+»
You shouldn't leave long pauses, keep talking.

*
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Assessment
The last but not the least
During the exam, you must not talk to other people or try to see their answers. At the end of the paper-based exam, the
examiner will tell you to stop writing and you must do it immediately. This is a rule for all the Cambridge examinations.

https://uww.flo-joe.co.uk/cae/students/tests/
You can find some sample exams on the following website:

https://)www.cambridgeenglish.org/exams-and-tests/advanced/preparation/
1 de2 16/5/2023, 18:46

EEE t.)
Self-evaluation
1. B2 First consists of four main chapters: Reading and Use of English, Writing, and Speaking:
(e) Listening.
() Grammar.
() Collocations.
Pregunta 1 de 10
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Self-evaluation
2. The First or FCE exam corresponds to:
() B1 level.
O) B2 level.
(9) C1 level.
Pregunta 2 de 10
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—
E —
MESES e INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
Self-evaluation
3. Wihatis the chapter for the following purpose at B2 FIRST? This paper shows you can deal confidently with different types
of text, such as fiction, newspapers, magazines, journals, books (fiction and non-fiction), and promotional and informational
material.
Writing.
- Listening.
. Reading and use of English.
Pregunta 3 de 10
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t.)
Self-evaluation
4. Whatis the chapter for the following purpose at B2 FIRST? This paper requires you to be able to produce two different
pieces of writing, such as letters, reports, reviews, and essays.
Listening.
Reading and use of English.
- ) Writing.
Pregunta 4 de 10
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Self-evaluation
5. How many parts does Paper 1 of B2 First have?
(e) Four parts.

() Seven parts.
O Two parts.
Pregunta 5 de 10
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Self-evaluation
6. How long does CAE exam last?
() 1 hour 15 minutes.
(0) 2 hours 30 minutes.
(e) 4 hours.
Pregunta 6 de 10
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Self-evaluation
7. How many parts does Paper 1 of CAE exam have?
() Seven parts.
(9) Eight parts.
O) Two parts.
Pregunta 7 de 10
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EEE t.)
Self-evaluation
8. Which paper lasts 40 minutes, it has four parts and 30 questions in CAE?
5 ) Listening.
() Writing.
() Reading and Use of English.
Pregunta 8 de 10
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t.)
Self-evaluation
9. During the Speaking Part in the CAE exam, you shouldn”t ...
Involve your partner in the conversation.

Speak clearly so that both the interlocutor and assessor can hear you.
- ) Stop talking when you don't know a word.
Pregunta 9 de 10
1 de2 16/5/2023, 18:37


t.)
Self-evaluation
10. During the Reading Part in the B2 First exam, you should...
- ) Read the instructions first then you will have an idea of what type of text it is and whatit is about.
Guess the answers, you could be lucky.
Choose an answer because you think it is true
Pregunta 10 de 10
1 de2 16/5/2023, 18:58

Preparation for
International Exams
CEE EACEACCCCACCTCCACCOACRCACEARC=—CCCCOCCCTECCECCEECECTEEEES
Tema 3.
TOEFLAND TOEIC Exams
: Carrera en Línea
l Pedagogía de los Idiomas
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OA INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA

——_
3.1. Introduction
The TOEFL (Test of English as a Foreign Language) is one of the most widely administered and commonly accepted English
language tests, particularly for students looking to gain admission into a U.S. university. Taking an official exam can potentially
open many doors for an international student.
According to the American Language Center, “the TOEIC (Test of English for International Communication) is a proficiency test
for people whose native language is not English. It measures the everyday English skills of people working in an international
environment. The scores indicate how well people can communicate in English with others in business, commerce, and industry.
The test does not require specialized knowledge or vocabulary beyond that of a person who uses English in everyday work
activities”. (nttps://alctangier.org/toeic-test/)
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DESEE —.—) ET
3.2. TOEFL exam
The TOEFL test consists of four components: reading, listening, speaking, and writing. The TOEFL can either be taken online
(internet-based testing, or IBT) where itis offered 50 times a year in various locations around the world, or on paper (paper-
based testing, or PBT) which is offered only in locations where the Internet version of the test cannot be administered.
The minimum recommended time to begin studying for the TOEFL is eight weeks before your exam date, although preparation
even before that could be beneficial to students looking to achieve a high score.
The online exam takes a total of four anda half hours, with 30 minutes allotted for check-in. It is recommended to arrive 30
minutes before the exam begins. Otherwise you may not be permitted to take it. You must confirm your identity to sit for the
exam, so bring a current, valid form of identification with you (preferably the same one you used to register). A seat will be
assigned to you; the only thing you are allowed to have at your seat is your identification.
The results of the TOEFL exam are posted online about 10 days after the exam date, and if you are receiving your scores in
the mail, you should see those about 13 days after your exam date.
Although there is no limit to how many times you can take the TOEFL, the exam cannot be taken more than once in a period of
12 days. Make sure to take it on a date that gives you enough time to submit your scores to the universities you are applying
to.
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" HESPE INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
3.2. TOEFL exam

3.2.1. Parts and definition of the exam
Table 11.
Reading as 36-56 questions OL reading passages to answer
The TOEFL exam AECA 60-90 , Audio clips containing 4-6 short lectures
evaluate candidates' Listening minutes 34-51 questions and 2-3 lengthy conversations.
communicative skills as:
reading, writing, listening, Break 10 minutes - -
and speaking abilities in a
university setting, as well
Speaki 20 minut 6 Task Itis necessary to speak on familiar topics
determine the English peaking pio — or on any academic-related issues.
language competency.
After comparing a reading passage to a

Writing 50 minutes 2 Tasks classroom lecture, express your opinion,
logic, and argument.
Source: https://impeloverseas.com/standardized-tests/toefl/
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3.2. TOEFL exam
TOEFL: Reading Section
The principal goal of this section is to assess the candidate's ability to understand English and provide an accurate response
to all the questions included.
Reading Questions Covered in TOEFL
3-4 passages, 10 questions each

Total no. of questions: About 40
Total time: 54-72 minutes
Source: www.aeccglobal in/english-proficiency-test"toefl/syllabus
Source: https:/Avww. wes.org/advisor-blog/an-introduction-to-toefl/
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_— INNOVACIÓN
3.2. TOEFL exam

PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
TOEFL: Listening Section
This is the first section of this exam, it focuses on evaluating the aspirant's ability to understand not only the English language
but also the different accents used around the world. Candidates who follow proper TOEFL Listening Preparation Tips can
easily score above 25 on a scale of 30. Paper based exam consists of short dialogues, long conversations and talks with
multiple choice questions; on the other hand, IBT exam has short dialogues, casual conversations, academic discussions and
academic lectures. The IBT test is computer adaptive, this means that the difficulty of the questions depends on how well you
answer the questions, it means it could be easier or harder depending on the correct or incorrect answers. (Phillips, 2004)
Listening Questions Covered in TOEFL:
* 3-4 lectures (3-5 minutes long, about 500-800 words), 6 questions each; About
30 questions in total
e 2-3 conversations (about 3 minutes long, about 12-25 exchanges), 5 questions each;
About 12 questions in total : Total no. of questions: 40+ , Total time: 41-57 minutes
Source: www.aeccglobal.in/english-proficiency -testtoefl/syllabus
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DESEE ——) INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
3.2. TOEFL exam

TOEFL: Speaking Section
Speaking becomes the most important skill the test assesses, with and excellent result in this productive skill they guarantee
fluency. The primary goal is to determine the applicant's comfort level in speaking English in educational situations.
Speaking Questions covered in TOEFL Syllabus:
* independent task (prep time: 15 sec; response time: 45 sec)

e 3 integrated tasks — Read/Listen/Speak (prep time: 30 sec; response time: 60 sec)
Total no. of questions: 4 , Total time: 17 minutes
Writing Questions Covered in TOEFL Syllabus
a) 1 integrated task — Read/Listen/Write (20 minutes) (reading time: 3 min; listening

time: 2 min; writing: 15 min)
b) 1 independent task (30 minutes) : Total no. of questions: 2 , Total time: 50 minutes
Source: www.aeccglobal in/english-proficiency-test"toefl/syllabus
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- DESEE —)
3.2. TOEFL exam
3.2.2. Purpose and focus of the exam
TOEFLiis one of the most widely accepted English proficiency exams at universities around the world. Preparing for the
TOEFL examis a highly individual experience.
Exam takers prepare for the TOEFL in two ways: self-study and attending coaching classes. Both of these study methods
have distinct advantages, depending on the learning styles you are. Candidates should first understand the format of the
test, as well as the results and scoring system of the test, when preparing for it. The organisation that administers the
TOEFL exam, also provides free and paid study materials that are easily accessible.
(nttps://www.aeccglobaLin/english-proficiency-test/toefl/syllabus)
To purchase a TOEFL book, keep the following points in mind:
* Make sure your TOEFL book is up to date with the most recent test format.
* For the full experience, a TOEFL book with a CD or online Listening exercises; is required.
* Andan answer key is required to fully utilise your TOEFL book's practice tests.
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E INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA

—
3.2. TOEFL exam
Top 8 All-Time Best Books to Prepare for the TOEFL IBT
Official Guide to the TOEFL Test (ETS)

Official TOEFL ¡BT Tests (ETS)
+
Cambridge Preparation for the TOEFL ¡BT Test (CUP)

+
TOEFL Preparation Course (Macmillan)

+
TOEFL ¡BT (Barron)

+
TOEFL ¡BT Prep Plus (Kaplan)

+»
The TOEFLiiBT Test Prep Planner (ETS)

»
Essential Words for the TOEFL (Barron's)

*
(https:///uww.aeccglobal.in/english-proficiency-test/toefl/syllabus)
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ts) II
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3.2. TOEFL exam
3.2.3. Overview of the Module
Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL) is a test conducted for students from non-English speaking country looking for
overseas education. ltis a test conducted for assessing the fundamental abilities in English and is accepted by over 6000
colleges and universities in 110 countries. A TOEFL score is valid for two years and then is deleted from the official database.
(https://connectingwings.com/ielts
.php)
Performing TOEFL test provides many benefits that help you to assists for your overseas education. Some of them are:
* Regardiess to the place where you want to study, TOEFL test enables you to reach your desired country you want to study.
Depending on the test score you will be qualified for getting admission in a college or university in the world.
* There is much flexibility in performing a TOEFL test whenever you want to take. You will be offered practice tools and
feedback, and more alternatives to study abroad than any other English-language test in the world
* TOEFL enables various facilities such as, listening to lectures, view films, attend seminars, read textbooks, perform online
research, speak with professors and other students, write academic papers, reports, e-mails and more
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Test Modules
As mentioned before, TOEFL test consists of four distinct modules, each determining the essential language proficiency that is used in the atmosphere of the
academic.
* Reading skill.
Determines the proficiency of understanding intellectual reading issues. The Reading

component consists of 3-5 comprehensive passages (long passages and questions
asked about them). They are chosen from the academic topics, which are found in
undergraduate university textbooks.
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Test Modules
academic.
Listening skill.
Determines the proficiency of understanding the English language since it is used in

colleges and universities. Consists of 6 comprehensive passages, two passages will be
the conversations of the students and the other four will be academic lectures or
discussions. Students have to comprehend the conversations and answer for the
passage questions.
1ldel 23/60/2023, 16:25

Test Modules
academic.
Speaking skill
Consists of 6 tasks, two independent tasks and four integrated tasks. In the
independent tasks, students must answer to opinion questions concerning to the
academic life. In two of the integrated tasks, students have to read a passage, listen to
a passage and speak about how the ideas in the two passages are related. In the last
two integrated tasks, students must listen to long passages, review them and speak
about the information included in these passages.
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Test Modules
academic.
Writing skill.
Determines the proficiency of writing that is appropriate for colleges and universities
assignments. It consists of two tasks, one independent task where students have to
read an academic passage, listen to an academic passage and write their reviews
about both passages. The other partis the integrated task where students have to write
an own essay (https://www.rset.edu.in/dswh/toefl-2/)
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ÍA
3.2. TOEFL exam

Table 12. Structure of the TOEFL ¡BT Test
Testing
Section Description Time Questions Score Scale
3-5 passages from
academic texts;
approximately 700 words
long; 12-14 questions per 60-100 36-70
Reading passage minutes questions 0-30
4-6 lectures, some with
classroom discussion, each
3-5 minutes long; 6
questions each. 2-3
conversations; each 3
minutes long; S questions 34-51
Listening each, questions 0-30
Break
2 tasks to express an 0-4 points
opinion on a familiar topic; converted to
4 tasks to speak based on 0-30 score
Speaking what is read and listened to. 6 tasks scale
1 task to vrrite based on 0-5 points
what is read and listened to; converted to
1 task to support an opinion 0-30 score
on a topic. 2 tasks scale
0-120
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3.3. TOEIC Exam
The TOEIC exam is used by many organizations to measure how well you might do in workplace and real-life situations where
you are required to communicate in English effectively. Many universities and institutions of colleges and universities require
students to take the TOEIC test prior to graduation. Employers worldwide use this test to determine who can communicate
effectively in English across borders and cultures with co-workers and clients., multinational corporations, small businesses and
agencies of many governments use TOEIC scores as a management tool to make personnel decisions that include hiring,
promoting and assigning overseas projects.
(https://ocw.upj.ac.id/files/Handout-CPS103-TOEIC-01-Introduction-to-TOEIC.pdf)
A high TOEIC score looks really respectable on a Curriculum Vitae for non-native speakers applying for a job with a company
that sells products from around the world. Some international companies use it to measure qualifications for internal
advancement. It can be a requirement for students as proof of English proficiency to graduate from or attend some universities.
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3.3. TOEIC Exam

The TOEIC Listening and Reading is one of the most popular and the most well-known exam with over 6 million test-takers
every year. It lasts two hours and there are 200 multiple-choice questions.
There are also the complementary tests TOEIC Speaking and TOEIC Writing. Taking all three TOEICs would give a clear
picture of business English skills.
The TOEIC Bridge testis for English learners with a lower level of A1 or A2 (elementary and pre-intermediate levels).
Individuals who sign up for the TOEIC Listening and Reading test will choose a testing center and will certainly take the paper-
based test. The other version which is the online is reserved for institutions such as language schools, university classes, or
companies testing large groups.
The TOEIC Listening and Reading test is not an easy but a difficult exam. Perhaps too difficult for anyone with a CEFR level
lower than B1. Taking it before you have a B1 level would definitely be discouraging and maybe not even useful. It measures
the test takers” knowledge of grammar, work-life vocabulary, and causal business expressions.
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- DESEE —)
3.3. TOEIC Exam
The reading comprehension section includes a short grammar section, followed by extensive questions from emails, business
reports and articles from the press. The next section is listening comprehension which covers short dialogues, announcements
at events or for transportation, informal conversations at work or in a restaurant as well as more formal dialogues in meetings.
The listening section is tested first when test-takers are, luckily, more alert. It lasts 45 minutes and has 4 parts, you must mark
your answer on a separate answer sheet.
The reading section takes 75 minutes and has three parts with a variety of texts in which you have to answer several different
types of reading comprehension questions. The testis 50% reading comprehension (100 questions) and 50% listening
comprehension (100 questions). (ETS, 2016)
The listening section of the TOEIC LR requires a great deal of concentration
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3.3. TOEIC Exam

Among the reasons why the listening section is difficult are:

the 4 accents and the fact that workplace phrasal verbs are common.
There is very little time between questions and no time to go back and
change an answer. It's very easy to lose your place on the answer sheet.
Even native speakers find it difficult to maintain concentration. Distinguishing
words that sound alike, and having the time to read the listening
comprehension questions before the listening passage starts.
One of the common challenges for non-native speakers is that the listening
skill parts of the TOEIC contain four different accents. There are four accents:
principally American and Canadian, with some British and Australian.
Its not the scholarly English that we are familiar with from classwork. It's
English in the workplace so there are a lot of phrasal verbs typically used in
casual business conversation. (Allure.com, 2022)
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- DESEE Mime
3.3. TOEIC Exam

The TOEIC reading is not an easy section, for some students they could not
finish in 75 minutes. Very few of them finish the 100 questions. most students
will spend too much time in the grammar section answering 25 multiple-
choice questions. Those should be done as quickly as possible and continue
with the other section.
Many students have trouble understanding the comprehension questions and

may need extra time to read thoroughly or reread passages before
answering. Scanning and skimming skills in English are important here to
quickly find obvious answers. (Allure.com, 2022)
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DESEE —.) E
3.3. TOEIC Exam

The TOEIC exam is an excellent way for students and professionals to show off
their business English skills. So it is paramount taking the TOEIC and getting a
good score which is an achievement you can be proud of. It can also be a great
way to get a job or promotion.
Some people think that the preparation for the exam is too time-consuming and
expensive but it really depends on what your goals are. If you are preparing in
business areas, it's important to take the TOEIC Listening and Reading because
employers in many countries, especially in Asian countries such as China, Japan,
Korea, and Vietnam assess applicants. Some universities and colleges require
the TOEIC for admission or for graduation. (Allure.com, 2022)
The TOEIC exam measures proficiency so there is no pass or fail score. All levels
of students take the TOEIC from beginner to advanced. There are many different
factors that go into how high your score should be.
Some universities require a TOEIC Listening and Reading score of 785 just to
graduate with an engineering degree. A score of 785 is equal to a B2 CEFR level
or also known as upper-intermediate level.
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> ESPE INNOVACIÓN
3.3. TOEIC Exam

PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
Table 13.
Companies who require the TOEIC to CEFR | Listening General CEFR level CEFR| Listening General CEFR level
contract applicants may ask for a tii! Eat description saitaall has description
score even higher than 785 because of . Can understand very basic
Can express him/herself personal and family
competition for the position, your level
945. | Nuently and spontaneously. 225. | information, shopping, local
of education and the industry you're 1| 990 A? | 545 |geography, employment).
applying to could all be factors for Can use language flexibly
and effectively. Can communicate ina
higher score requirements. It also
simple and direct way
depends on the position that you're Can understand the main Can understand and use
applying for. If you want to enter into ideas of complex text, familiar everyday
negotiation areas, you need a high B2 785- including technical ” 120- expressions.
score of 900. Ifyou want to work in
TD | on 20 Caninteractin a simple
sales with international clients, you Can interactwith native way if the other person
need the score of 800 at least. speakers. talks slowly and clearly.
Can understand the main
The next is a chart which correlates points of standard
the widely recognized CEFR levels 21 | 550- documents.
(the Common European Framework of 780 | Candeal with most
Reference for Languages) anda situations while travelling.
TOEIC Listening and Reading level. Can produce simple text.
Its taken from the ETS Global website.
Source: https://www.businessenglishallure.comAwhat-is-the-toeic-test-all-your-questions-
answered/
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——_
3.3. TOEIC Exam
If you get a score of around 785. That's a B2 level from the CEFR. That's a good score and level for this exam.
There is no set fee for the TOEIC Listening and Reading test. The price is set by the testing centers. It ranges from $125 to
$200 US dollars depending on the country and the type of test taken. For example, in France, the TOEIC LáR costs around
$135 for an individual to sign up and take the testin a testing center. ETS calls this the Public Programme.
For the TOEIC Speaking and Writing which are online exams, the price is around at $160. Since September 2021 you can
obtain your official score report online. The TOEIC Listening and Reading test is available at over 1000 locations worldwide.
(Allure.com, 2022)
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" HESPE EVE E

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26 pico ete
3.3. TOEIC Exam
Itis recommended to do as many practice tests as possible. You can find free tests just take into consideration that the test
was updated in 2018. Build your vocabulary by reading newspapers and magazines in English but stick to workplace topics.
Revise grammar you could miss on the practice tests but don't waste too much time on this part. Vocabulary is another
important section due to it is 75% of the test.
The following topics could be included in the TOEIC exams: business travel, finance, health, housing, banking, entertainment,
offices, shopping, restaurants, travel, transportation.
The pros and cons of the TOEIC LER exam
Pros: ltis very well-known and respected exam by managers working for international companies across the world.
Cons: It could be considered very difficult and expensive for some people from Latin American countries. Anyone can take the
test butit is recommended a B1 level before attempting the TOEIC Listening and Reading. You can, however, take it as many
times as you want, but remember it does cost around $135. This test does not cover all four communication skills, the only
skills are listening and reading. The Speaking % Writing communication skills at TOEIC are sold and taken separately.
(Allure.com, 2022)
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” BESPE — INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
3.4. TOEFL and TOEIC Exams
In order to succeed in the evaluation process for these international examinations, practice these exams as often as you can to
improve your skills. The TOEFL ¡BT and the TOEIC test features with all 4 sections.
* View correct answers in the practice key books.

* Listen to sample Speaking responses.
* Read sample Writing responses.
1 de2 23/60/2023, 16:28


3.4.1. Practice tests TOEFL
TOEFL iBTO Free Practice Test ya —
Practice as often as you can. The TOEFL iBTO free practice test TOEFL 18T" E64
features a full test with all 4 sections and real past test questions. _ c
* View correct answers in the Reading and Listening sections.

* Listen to sample Speaking responses.
* Read sample Writing responses.
Launch the TOEFL iBT Free Practice Test
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—
TOEFL IBTO Paper Edition Practice Test
This free official practice test uses real TOEFL iBT past test questions for Me ninc
the Reading, Listening, and Writing sections. It has the same paper-
delivered format you'll experience on test day. The practice test includes
all audioi files and transcripts.
i TOEFLIOT
1 A Edition
The Speaking section of the Paper Edition test is taken on a computer.

You can practice for the Speaking section using the free Speaking_
Practice Sets.
Download the TOEFL ¡BT Paper Edition Practice Test (zip) mu
1 de2 23/60/2023, 16:28

EEE t.)
TOEFL iBTO Practice Sets
Practice for each section of the test with free sets of TOEFLiiBT questions from
previous tests. You can become familiar with the types of questions and content on
the actual test and understand how the test sections are structured. Emo
* Reading Practice Sets TOEFL ¡BT*

Practice
* Listening Practice Sets Sets
* Speaking Practice Sets
* Writing Practice Sets
https://www.ets.org/toefl/test-takers/ibt/prepare/tests/
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3.4.2. Practice tests TOEIC
The TOEIC test is a two-hour, paper-and-pencil, multiple-choice test that consists of 200 questions divided into two separately-
timed sections:
Section |: Listening: This section consists of 100 questions and is delivered by audiocassette. ltis divided into four parts.
Examinees listen to a variety of statements, questions, short conversations, and short talks recorded in English, then answer
questions based on the listening parts. The Listening section takes approximately 45 minutes.
* Part 1: Photographs 20 items (4-choice)
* Part ?: Question-Response 30 items (3-choice)
* Part 3: Short Conversations 30 items (4-choice)
* Part 4: Short Talks 20 items (4-choice)
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3.4.2. Practice tests TOEIC
Section II: Reading. The Reading section consists of 100 questions presented in written format in the test booklet. Examinees
read a variety of materials and respond to questions based on the item content. The Reading section lasts approximately 75
minutes.
* Part 5: Incomplete Sentences 40 items (4-choice)
* Part 6: Error Recognition 20 items (4-choice)
* Part 7: Reading Comprehension 40 items (4-choice)
Examinees respond to test questions by marking one of the letters (A), (B), (C), or (D) with a pencil on a separate answer
sheet. Although the actual testing time is approximately two hours, additional time is needed to let examinees to complete the
biographical questions and to respond to a brief questionnaire about their educational and work history. Consequenttly, you
should have approximately 21/2 hours to the complete process of the exam.
https://)www.ets.org/s/toeic/pdf/toeic-listening-reading-sample-test-updated.pdf
https:///ww.4tests.com/toeic
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3.4.3. Overview
TOEFL Practice Test Guide - TOEFL Practice Tests, Mock Tests.
Check these links to some TOEFL sample tests you should use for practice!
* Sample reading test
* Sample listening test
* Sample writing test
* Sample speaking test
Tips for the TOEFL exam
Relax! TOEFL preparation isn't as hard as it seems. If you're nervous on your way toTips the examination center, sweating
buckets, don't panic! Everyone suffers the same at the beginning. Being nervous is a positive sign of you taking the task at
hand seriously.
Starting your preparation and feeling lost about not knowing what to do, where to start, how to answer is a feeling we all have
done through. Here are a few section-wise tips to help vou prepare for the TOEFL exam.
1 de2 23/60/2023, 16:29

TOEFL exam
preparation tips
How to nail every section of the exam
.
$ iISchoolConnect
* Questions are asked paragraph-wise. So

read the first para, answer related questions,
read the second para, answer Its questions,
and so on and so forth.
Notice which question type you're falling at
“”
during mock tests and practice accordingly.
* Learn how to make quick, legible notes as

you're listening
to someone speak.
* Figure out what's more important for you -
taking more notes..or
less.
* Draw a flow chart. Write one sentence for
each key point and connect lines where
necessary,
* Prepare a standard response structure for

each question type.
* Record yourself speaking. If you're making
mistakes, work on eliminating them.
* When you have 15-20 seconds left, start with
the conclusion. Never end your response
abruptly.
WRITING SECTION
* Keep a standard essay structure in mind -

Introduction, Problem, Solution, Benefits of
the solution, Drawbacks of the solution,
Conclusion. Dedicate one para to each,
* Write the entire essay first. Edit it all later,
* Practice, practice, practice!

—
3.4.3. Overview
TOEIC Practice Test Guide - TOEIC Practice Tests, Mock Tests.
There are some sample Tests for Free TOEIC Exam Preparation, Lessons, and Tips
To look for a free TOEIC practice test, go to this link below to start a 2 hours free TOEIC sample test.
https:///ww.bestmytest.com/toeic/test
Below you'll find a complete list of TOEIC simulated online tests.
Full-Length TOEIC Practice Tests
Exam 1 Exam 2 Exam 3 Exam 4 Exam 5 Exam 6 Exam 7 Exam 6 Exam 9 Exam 10 Exam 11 Exam 12 Exam 13 Exam 14
Exam 15
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o DESEE uo)
Self-evaluation
1. Whatis the definition for TOEIC?
— Is a proficiency test for people whose native language is not English. It measures the everyday English skills of people
working in an international environment.
Is one of the most widely administered and commonly accepted English language tests, particularly for students
looking to gain admission into a U.S. university.
Is a test conducted for students from non-English speaking country looking for overseas education.
Pregunta 1 de 10
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t.)
Self-evaluation
2. Which are the sections TOEFL exam evaluate?
Reading, writing, listening, and use of English

(*) Reading, writing, listening, and speaking
Vocabulary, use of English, reading, writing, listening, and speaking
Pregunta 2 de 10
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t.)
Self-evaluation
3. Which section of TOEFL exam corresponds to the following description? “It is necessary to speak on familiar topics or on
any academic-related issues”
Reading
Listening.
(9) Speaking
Writing
Pregunta 3 de 10
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EEE t.)
Self-evaluation
4. How many questions are there in TOEFL exam Reading section?
() 10-20 questions.
() 34-51 questions.
(9) 36-56 questions.
Pregunta 4 de 10
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t.)
Self-evaluation
5. Which section corresponds to the following information at TOEFL exam: “it focuses on evaluating the aspirant's ability to
understand not only the English language but also the different accents used around the world”.
Reading section.
(e) Listening section.
Speaking section.
Pregunta 5 de 10
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EEE t.)
Self-evaluation
6. Exam takers prepare for the TOEFL in two ways: self-study and coaching classes
(e) attending
() assisting
O present
Pregunta 6 de 10
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EEE t.)
Self-evaluation
7. A TOEFL score is valid for years and then is deleted from the official database.
Pregunta 7 de 10
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EEE t.)
Self-evaluation
8. There are also the complementary tests for TOEIC exam: and TOEIC Writing.
() Grammar
O Use of English
(e) Speaking
Pregunta 8 de 10
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t.)
Self-evaluation
9. The other version for TOEIC exam is the online which is reserved for institutions such as language schools,
, Or companies testing large groups.
(e) university classes

high schools
primary schools
Pregunta 9 de 10
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t.)
Self-evaluation
10. The reading section takes 75 minutes and has parts with a variety of texts in which you have to answer several
different types of reading comprehension questions.
Pregunta 10 de 10
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- DESEE —)
4.1. IELTS Exams
Now we are going to continue learning about international exams and this time we have to IELTS exams, the
International English Language Testing System (IELTS)
4.1.1. Definition
IELTS exam is the main test used to assess the language proficiency of students from a non-English-speaking
background who want to study in an English-speaking country, especially Australia or the UK. It has four subtests, or
sections. (Hogan, Campbell, 6 Perrett, 1991), this definition
4.1.2. Purpose
According to Foster “IELTS is a test that measures the English language proficiency of adults who wish to work or study
in English-language contexts. Test-takers choose between two modules—Academic or General Training—depending on
their expected future context” (Foster, 1989), the academic module tests general Academic English ability while General
Training module emphasizes on a broad social and educational context which is intended to let test takers asses the
English language proficiency and work in an English speaking context or non-academic training
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——_
4.1. IELTS Exams
4.1.3. Kind of questions
As mentioned before, IELTS exams have four sections: reading, writing, listening and speaking
In the General Training Reading Module students have 60 minutes to read some written texts in English and they must
answer around 40 questions which is scored one mark per question. These texts are taken from magazines,
newspapers, signs, advertisements, etc.
About reading, it is important to develop good reading skills to do it fast and accurately because IELTS has a time limit.
The skills in reading are:
Skim and scan a text to find specific information

PILOTO
Identify the main idea of a section or complete a text

Distinguish details from main ideas
Understand vocabulary from context
Distinguish facts from opinions and assumptions
Understand the writers “point of view (Young, Liew, €: Aucoin, 2013)
=
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4.1. IELTS Exams
4.1.3. Kind of questions (Continuation...)
The writing Module, people will have 60 minutes to produce two pieces of writing, one task is to write a letter of at least
150 words and task 2 is to write an essay of minimum 250 words. As a recommendation you have to spend around 20
minutes on ask 1 and 40 minutes for task 2 because it is longer and worth more. The criterion for this section is: task
achievement, coherence and cohesion; grammar accuracy and lexical resource (Young, Liew, % Aucoin, 2013)
In writing, the criterion in task 1 is called task achievement and in task 2 is called task response, but in both cases, it
measures how well you have answered the question, if the question was understood, if it is included the necessary
information, if the opinion in the essay is clear and it is supported.
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” BESPE INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA

El
EMánen
patio Tu
E
4.1. IELTS Exams
4.1.4. Tips
IELTS Reading: Top 10 Tips
In the Reading module

students need to develop the
ability to obtain and interpret
meaning from the texts so it
is important that students
become familiar with these
kind of questions.
Remember to read
magazines, books,
newspapers or any other
authentic material to improve
this skill every time you read.
(Young, Liew, € Aucoin,
202
Source: https://youtu.be/4PDgVEhfKso
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- ESPE
4.1. IELTS Exams

4.1.4. Tips
E2 IELTS Writing | How to score 8+ in Writing Task 2 with Jay!

In the writing module students need
to organize their time efficiently to
plan, write a draft, cover all the
aspects of the rubric in order of
importance; do not forget to start a
paragraph with a topic sentence and
the rest of sentences support the
main idea; avoid using the same
words or phrases repeatedly; use
linking words which are essential in
a paragraph to join ideas; write short
and grammatically correct
sentences; when you finish, do not
forget to review your writing and
check spelling, grammar and
punctuation.(Moutsou, 2008)
In the following video we are going
to know more tips about writing
tasks.
Source: httos://youtu.be/Zx-JeXsbUgQ
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- ESPE
4.1. IELTS Exams

4.1.4. Tips
In the listening module it is important

IELTS Listening - Top 14 tips!
to look at the information or pictures
carefully to know what you need to
do; as you listen you need to be
concentrated and be ready to
eliminate some options before
choosing the right answer, in some
questions you need to identify the
speakers with the topic or content of
the conversation and where the
conversation is taking place; special
attention must be taken about the
speakers” intonation and word stress
which refers to the speakers”
feelings, mood or attitude; finally,
make sure you transfer all the
answers to the answer sheet.
(Moutsou, 2008)
In the following video we are going

to know more about tips for listening.
Source: https://youtu.be/OualsHB1F qE
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- DESEE —) INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
4.1. IELTS Exams

4.1.4. Tips
In the speaking module you need to look
confident and speak clearly so that the IELTS Hablando Tarea N* 1 Como conseguir un alto puntaje en la prueba.
examiner can hear you; do not take long
pauses to answer the questions and show that
you can express your ideas in a limited
amount of time; avoid answering questions
just saying “yes” or “no” or giving very short
answers; another key tip is to ask for
clarification when you do not understand
something using questions like “Could you
please repeat that?”; if you do not remember
words, try to use synonyms or other words to
express your ideas; as in writing, it is
important no to repeat the same words or
phrases all the time to show a wide range of
vocabulary; expressions like “well, let me
think” help you when you need more time to
answer; finally, show that you are willing to
participate and talk in a conversation
(Moutsou, 2008).
In the following video the teacher explains

abhait haw ta he nrenared far eneakina nart 1 Source: httos://youtu.be/sREE Kvsw-vs
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EEE t.)
4.1. IELTS Exams
Sample test questions
The general tip for this exam

is to remember to answer all
the questions and never
leave answers blank.
4.1.5. Sample tests
There is a variety of exams

available on internet, you
can find some sample exams
on the following website:
Source: https:/Avww.ielts.org/for-test-takers/sample-test-questions
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4.1. IELTS Exams
IELTS practice test
4.1.6. Practice tests
To practice IELTS exams,

let's go to the following
website:
Source: httos:/Avww.ielts.org/usa/dielts-practice-test
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DESEE —.—) ET
4.2. MET Exams
Michigan English Test is developed by the Cambridge Michigan Language Assessments, and it has the purpose to measure
English language ability going from high beginner to low advanced levels in personal, public, occupational, and educational
contexts. (Foster, 1989)
MET exams are intended for candidates with a secondary level of education trying to certify their general English language
proficiency in educational, social and workplace contexts.
4.2.1. Definition
MET Exam is suggested to be for adolescent and adult speakers of English to measure their general English language
proficiency in different contexts like social, educational and workplace, but it is not proposed to be used as admission test for
students applying to colleges or universities. It measures the ability of the examinee to communicate effectively in English.
(Foster, 1989)
4.2.2. Purpose
Even though MET exams certify people with English speaking abilities going from A2 to C1, in practice it emphasizes
intermediate level fluency B1 and B2 over accuracy, This means it principally assesses a student's ability to use English to
express ideas instead of their formal knowledge of grammatical rules. An important aspect to consider MET exam uses the
conventions of American English in other words, spelling, grammar, and pronunciation used throughout the exam the
American English style. (Corp, 1999)
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” DESEE INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA

El
eMined
patio Tu
4.2. MET Exams
4.2.3. Structure
MET Exams consists of two sections: Listening and Reading and grammar.
Listening is the first section of this exam; it is composed of 60 multiple choice questions to be answered in 45 minutes. These
60 questions are subdivided into three parts: short conversations, longer conversations, and discussions. (Corp, 1999)
Reading and grammar is the second section of MET exam and it contains 75 questions to be answered in 90 minutes. These
questions are subdivided into two parts, which emphasize reading and grammatical correctness. The reading comprehension
section contains 50 multiple choice questions, and the other 25 questions are used to assess student's knowledge of a variety
of grammatical structures. (Corp, 1999)
The following table shows the outlines MET scores as they correspond to the CEFR levels
Table 14
CEFR MET section | scaled | MET Section II scaled

score score
AZ 39 or below 39 or below
B1 40-52 40-52
B2 53-63 53-63
Gi 64 and above 64 and above
(Foster, 1989)
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EEE— INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA

t.)
4.2. MET Exams
MET Listening Part 1: Tips for Test Takers
4.2.4. Tips
In the listening section part 1

we have the following tips:
Source: https://youtu.be/3seOR H7wUGk
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EEE— INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA

t.)
4.2. MET Exams
An Overview of the Michigan English Test (MET)
4.2.4. Tips (Continuation...)
We have an overview of
MET exams
Source: https://youtu.beXxmViNaZpgo
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4.2. MET Exams
Michigan English Test (MET) Speaking Sample Test
4.2.5. Sample tests
In the following video we

have a sample test for
speaking
Source: https://youtu.be/thbp8VnD--ws
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——_
4.2. MET Exams
4.2.5. Sample tests
In the following image you have a sample of writing task 1 B2 level and the corresponding commentary.
Task 1:
1. What do you like to do in your free time? How often do you do it?
In my free time | like to talk to my friends and | do it everyday, | also like to watch movie, but only during the weekends,
because | dont have much time during the week.
2. What do you like about the activity and why?

like talking to my friends because they always make me laugh. And watching movies is a good thing because you can
travel to many other places just by sitting on the sofa.
3. Tell about the last time you did this.

| did both things two days ago. My friends and | went to the cinema, and after that, we stay at the mall just talking and
laughing.
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—— INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
4.2. MET Exams
Table 15
commentary
y x
*e The response is directly e The writer does not attempt
relevant to the task to use any sophisticated
* The writer provides vocabulary.
supporting detail that clearly
relates to the task (1 like
talking to my friends because
they always make me laugh”)
* The grammatical errors that
are present do not interfere
with meaning.
* Word choice is generally
appropriate.
e There are no spelling or
sentence boundary errors:
Source: (Assessment, 2020) A
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4.2. MET Exams
4.2.5. Sample tests (Continuation...)
We continue with a sample of writing task 2 and the corresponding commentary.
Task 2:
Would you prefer an interesting job with low pay or a boring job with a high salary?
Honestly, | would prefer an interesting job rather than a boring job even though this job could only give me a low salary. In my
opinion, one person's job is really important, itis essential for your happiness since it's something you do almost every single
day of your life, if you dont like it because it's boring, you are bound to spend lots of hours being miserable even more hours
that the ones you would spend happy at the shopping making use of your high salary.
Perhaps if your job doesn't pay you much you don't get to go shopping every single day but |'m positive you will be happier
this way as long as your job is doing something that you like. There's a saying that says “if you work doing something that you
like, you dont have to work at all” and | think that couldn't be more true.
In conclusion, even though |'m the kind of person that loves spending money (we all do), | love even more spending my time
doing what | like.
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UNIVERSIDAD
DE LAS FUERZAS ARMADAS
c—MMOVACIÓN PAÑA La EXCELENCIA
4.2. MET Exams
Table 16
commentary
; Xx
e The response is generally *e There are some sentence
very cohesive. boundary errors (see
e Thewriter gives some paragraph 1).
supporting details that are * Some grammatical errors are
clearly relevant to the task present (even more hours
(“if you don't like it because that the ones you would
it's boring, you are bound to spend happy at the
spend hours being shopping”) but none that
miserable”) interfere with meaning.
* Acombination of simple and
more sophisticated
vocabulary is used
Cessential”, “bound to”,
“miserable”)
Source: (Assessment, 2020) 4 ,
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4.2. MET Exams
4.2.6. Practice tests
To access and practice MET

exams, go to the following
site:
Source: https:/Awww.globalelt.co.ukfiimage/data/Succeed in MET - TB-

Sample/mobile/index.html
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—
Self-evaluation
1. Whatis the definition for IELTS?
- Is the main test used to assess the language proficiency of students from a non-English-speaking background who
want to study in an English-speaking country, especially Australia or the UK.
Is suggested to be for adolescent and adult speakers of English to measure their general English language proficiency
in different contexts like social, educational and workplace, but itis not proposed to be used as admission test for
students applying to colleges or universities.
This exam consists of four sections: Financial Accounting and Reporting (FAR), Auditing and Attestation (AUD),
Regulation (REG), and Business Environment and Concepts (BEC).
Pregunta 1 de 10
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EEE t.)
Self-evaluation
2. Which is the emphasis of General Training module?
(e) A broad social and educational context
() General academic English ability

O Non-academic training
Pregunta 2 de 10
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Self-evaluation
3. How many minutes does the General Training Reading module have?
Pregunta 3 de 10
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Self-evaluation
4. How many skills in Reading are there?
Pregunta 4 de 10
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EEE t.)
Self-evaluation
5. Inthe writing module for IELTS there are two pieces, one is to write a letter and the second is to write a/an
() sentence.
O) paragraph.
(e) essay.
Pregunta 5 de 10
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NS
MESPE es INNOVACIÓN
Self-evaluation
PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
6. Inwriting IELTS, the criterion in task 1 is called task achievement and in task 2 is called task response, but in both cases, it
measures how well you have the question.
(se) answered.
() questioned.
() completed.
Pregunta 6 de 10
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O —lol_—
HESPE mus INNOVACIÓN PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
Self-evaluation
7. Inthe listening IELTS module it is important to look at the information or pictures carefully to know what you need to do; as
you listen you need to be concentrated and be ready to some options before choosing the right answer.
copy.
- eliminate.
paraphrase.
Pregunta 7 de 10
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NS
MESPE es INNOVACIÓN
Self-evaluation
PAÑA LA EXCELENCIA
8. Even though MET exams certify people with English speaking abilities going from A2 to C1, in practice it emphasizes
intermediate level B1 and B2 over accuracy
() development.
() CEFR.
(9) fluency.
Pregunta 8 de 10
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GESPE
ins
Self-evaluation
9. How many questions do reading and grammar section of MET exam contain?
Pregunta 9 de 10
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GESPE
ins
Self-evaluation
10. What is the correct MET section 1 scaled score for B2 level CEFR?
Pregunta 10 de 10
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Unit 4 Quiz
This quiz contains 20 questions and lasts 30 minutes. Please read the questions carefully
and choose the correct answers. chhose
Total score: 20.00
Open: since 12/06/2023 21:00 until 12/06/2023 23:59
Achievement
Date: 06/12/2023 9:35:56 PM

International English Language Testing System.
The English language proficiency of children who wish to study in the USA.
The English language proficiency of adults who wish to work or study in English-
language contexts.
The English language proficiency of teenagers who wish to study in the USA.
P3. How many sections does the IELTS exam have?
Three
Five
Four
P4. What are the sections of the IELTS exam?
Reading, writing, listening, and speaking.
Use of English, writing, listening, and speaking.
Reading, writing, understanding, and speaking.
P5. Students have ..... for the reading section in the IELTS exam.
1 hour 30 minutes
50 minutes
60 minutes
P6. Students have to produce .... in the IELTS writing Module.
P7. In the video about IELTS writing, grammatical range means:
P8. It is a good idea to ....... in the IELTS listening section.
choose the option which has the same words you listen to.
eliminate some options before choosing the right answer.
choose the first option, which looks to be the correct one.
try to use synonyms or other words to express your ideas.
answer questions just saying "yes" or "no" or give short answers.
show that you are willing to participate and talk in a conversation.
P11. What is the range that the MET examination evaluates?
P12. What is the context that MET examination users have?
Personal, public, occupational and educational contexts
Personal, private, amusement and entertainment contexts
Religious, public, international and medical contexts
P13. Who are the common users of Met examination?

P14. How many sections does MET examination have?
Two sections: Listening and Reading and grammar
Three sections: Use of English, Writing and Listening
Three sections: Vocabulary, Reading and Writing
P15. How many questions does the Reading and Grammar section have in the MET
examination?
Ninety questions
P16. What are the two parts in which MET Reading and Grammar section is divided?
Twenty-five multiple choice questions and fifty questions about grammar

structure
Fifty multiple choice questions and twenty-five about grammar structure
Forty multiple choice questions and twenty about grammar structure
Eighty multiple choice questions and fifty-five about grammar structure
P17. How much time is used to take the reading and grammar section from the MET
examination?
Sixty minutes
Forty-minutes
Ninety minutes
Eighty minutes
P18. What is the style of English applied in the MET examination?
American style
British style
Australian style
Neutral style
P19. What was the educational institution which developed the MET examination?
P20. How many questions does the listening section have from the MET
examination?
Seventy multiple-choice questions
Sixty multiple-choice questions
Fifty multiple-choice questions
Forty multiple-choice questions
Previous
Preparation for International Exams. Theme 5 https://evirtual.espe.edu.ec/programas_scorm.cgi?id_curso=24080&id_unidad=274013&id_pkg=12...
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5.1. Introduction
Assessing what the teacher is doing or what the students appear to have learned has been a complex enterprise.
Nowadays, many criteria are used in language teacher education. The University of Cambridge ESOL has developed
the TKT (Teaching Knowledge Test), CELTA and DELTA exams and their preparation courses as part of teaching
awards and tests for prospective and in service English teachers.
Source: https://www.cambridgeenglish.org/latinamerica/teaching-english/teaching-qualifications/delta/
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5.2. TKT exam
TKT is a series of internationally recognized modular teaching qualifications which test teachers’ knowledge in a specific
area of English language teaching. TKT exam consists of three main and two specialized modules. Each of them is
focused on certain aspects of teaching English. It has been developed for teachers of English to speakers of other
languages (Cambridge English, 2015).
Figure 1. Teaching Knowledge Test. Source: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bG7IIJgpIyE
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5.2. TKT exam
TKT consists of five modules which can be taken together or separately in any order. The test for each module consists
of 80 questions of different formats regarding:
⬥ Matching
⬥ Choosing one correct answer from three (multiple choice)
⬥ Finding an extra answer (odd one out)
⬥ Location of answers in the right order (ordering)
It gives teachers a strong foundation in the core areas of teaching knowledge needed in the English language teaching
classroom.
In this kind of exam there is no Pass or Fail. Results are reported in bands from 1 to 4. Band 4 is the highest. Band 1
represents limited knowledge of the content areas tested
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TKT Band Descriptors
Module 1: Module 2: Module 3:

Language systems and background to language Lesson planning and use of resources Managing the teaching and learning process
learning and teaching
The candidate demonstrates comprehensive and accurate knowledge The candidate demonstrates comprehensive and extensive knowledge The candidate demonstrates comprehensive and extensive knowledge
of all areas on the TKT Module 1 syllabus, i.e., language systems of all areas on the TKT Module 2 syllabus, i.e., lesson planning and use of all areas on the TKT Module 3 syllabus, i.e., managing the teaching
and background to language learning and teaching. He/she shows of resources for language teaching. He/she shows familiarity with the and learning process. He/she shows familiarity with the full range of
familiarity with the full range of concepts, terminology, practices and full range of concepts, terminology, practices and processes tested concepts, terminology, practices and processes tested in TKT Module
Band 4 processes tested in TKT Module 1, which relate to describing language in TKT Module 2, which relate to general practice in lesson planning 3, which relate to teachers’ and learners’ language in the classroom
and language skills, factors in the language learning process and and materials use, reasons for carrying out particular activities in and options available for classroom management in order to promote
the range of methods, tasks and activities available to the language the classroom, and for using particular resources and materials. The learning. The candidate is able to relate existing knowledge to both
teacher. The candidate is able to relate existing knowledge to both candidate is able to relate existing knowledge to both familiar and familiar and unfamiliar classroom situations.
familiar and unfamiliar classroom situations. unfamiliar classroom situations.
The candidate generally demonstrates comprehensive and accurate The candidate generally demonstrates comprehensive and extensive The candidate generally demonstrates comprehensive and extensive
knowledge of areas on the TKT Module 1 syllabus, i.e., language knowledge of areas on the TKT Module 2 syllabus, i.e., lesson planning knowledge of areas on the TKT Module 3 syllabus, i.e., managing the
systems and background to language learning and teaching. He/she and use of resources for language teaching. He/she shows familiarity teaching and learning process. He/she shows familiarity with most
shows familiarity with most of the concepts, terminology, practices with most of the concepts, terminology, practices and processes of the concepts, terminology, practices and processes tested in TKT
Band 3 and processes tested in TKT Module 1, which relate to describing tested in TKT Module 2, which relate to general practice in lesson Module 3, which relate to teachers’ and learners’ language in the
language and language skills, factors in the language learning process planning and materials use, reasons for carrying out particular classroom and options available for classroom management in order
and the range of methods, tasks and activities available to the activities in the classroom, and for using particular resources and to promote learning. The candidate is generally able to relate existing
language teacher. The candidate is generally able to relate existing materials. The candidate is generally able to relate existing knowledge knowledge to both familiar and unfamiliar classroom situations.
knowledge to both familiar and unfamiliar classroom situations. to both familiar and unfamiliar classroom situations.
The candidate demonstrates basic knowledge of areas on the TKT The candidate demonstrates basic knowledge of areas on the The candidate demonstrates basic knowledge of areas on the TKT
Module 1 syllabus, i.e., language systems and background to language TKT Module 2 syllabus, i.e., lesson planning and use of resources Module 3 syllabus, i.e., managing the teaching and learning process.
learning and teaching. He/she shows familiarity with some of the for language teaching. He/she shows familiarity with some of the He/she shows familiarity with some of the concepts, terminology,
concepts, terminology, practices and processes tested in TKT Module concepts, terminology, practices and processes tested in TKT Module practices and processes tested in TKT Module 3, which relate to
Band 2 1, which relate to describing language and language skills, factors in 2, which relate to general practice in lesson planning and materials teachers’ and learners’ language in the classroom and options
the language learning process and the range of methods, tasks and use, reasons for carrying out particular activities in the classroom, available for classroom management in order to promote learning.
activities available to the language teacher. The candidate is able and for using particular resources and materials. The candidate is able The candidate is able to relate existing knowledge to familiar
to relate existing knowledge to familiar classroom situations, and to relate existing knowledge to familiar classroom situations, and classroom situations, and occasionally to unfamiliar ones.
occasionally to unfamiliar ones. occasionally to unfamiliar ones.
The candidate demonstrates restricted knowledge of areas on the The candidate demonstrates restricted knowledge of areas on the The candidate demonstrates restricted knowledge of areas on the TKT
TKT Module 1 syllabus, i.e., language systems and background to TKT Module 2 syllabus, i.e., lesson planning and use of resources for Module 3 syllabus, i.e., managing the teaching and learning process.
language learning and teaching. He/she shows familiarity with a language teaching. He/she shows familiarity with a limited range He/she shows familiarity with a limited range of the concepts,
limited range of the concepts, terminology, practices and processes of the concepts, terminology, practices and processes tested in TKT terminology, practices and processes tested in TKT Module 3, which
Band 1 tested in TKT Module 1, which relate to describing language and Module 2, which relate to general practice in lesson planning and relate to teachers’ and learners’ language in the classroom and
language skills, factors in the language learning process and the range materials use, reasons for carrying out particular activities in the options available for classroom management in order to promote
of methods, tasks and activities available to the language teacher. classroom, and for using particular resources and materials. The learning. The candidate is able to relate existing knowledge to familiar
The candidate is able to relate existing knowledge to familiar candidate is able to relate existing knowledge to familiar classroom classroom situations only.
classroom situations only. situations only.
CER/6387/V1/AUG19
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TKT exam aims to increase teachers' confidence and enhance job prospects by focusing on the core teaching
knowledge needed by teachers of children teenagers and adults. This award will help teachers of English to understand:
⬥ different methodologies for teaching

⬥ the 'language of teaching'
⬥ the ways in which resources can be used
⬥ the key aspects of lesson planning
⬥ classroom management methods for different needs
The format of the exam includes 5 modules:
Module 1 - Language and background to language learning and teaching
Describing language and language skills

Background to language learning
Background to language teaching
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Module 2 - Planning lessons and use of resources for language teaching
Planning and preparing a lesson or sequence of lessons.

Selection and use of resources and materials.
Module 3 - Managing the teaching and learning process
Teachers' and learners' language in the classroom.

Classroom management.
Module CLIL - Content and Language Integrated Learning
Knowledge of Content and Language Integrated Learning (CLIL) and the practice of planning, teaching and
assessing curriculum subjects taught in English.
Module YL Young Learners
Knowledge of the strategies and skills required to teach young learners. (Cambridge Assessment English, s.f.)
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5.2.2. Overview of the Modules
Sections of TKT Module 1
TKT Module 1 (Part 1) - Describing language and language skills
The content covered
Concepts and terminology for describing language: grammar, lexis, phonology and functions.
Concepts and terminology for describing language skills and sub-skills:

e.g., reading for gist, listening for specific information
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Number of tasks and questions
There are six tasks consisting of 40 questions.
Lesson components that teachers need to know:
1) reading, writing, speaking, and listening and their subskills

2) features of spoken and written texts
3) parts of speech
4) the forms and use of grammatical structures
5) types of meaning
6) word formation
7) word groupings
8) register
9) International Phonetic Alphabet (IPA) symbols
10) phonemes, word/sentence stress, intonation and connected speech
11) context
12) levels of formality and appropriacy
TKT Module 1 (Part 2) - Background to language learning
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The content covered
Factors in the language-learning process, including: the range of different factors that can affect how learners learn; how
to identify examples of these factors and to relate them to their implications for teachers and teaching.
There are three tasks consisting of 15 questions.
Lesson components teachers need to know:
1) motivation
2) exposure to language and focus on form
3) the role of error
4) the differences between L1 and L2 learning
5) learner characteristics
6) learner needs
TKT Module 1 (Part 3) - Background to language teaching
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The content covered
The range of methods, tasks, activities and terminology available to the language teacher, including: presentation,
techniques and introductory activities, practice activities and tasks for language and skills development
assessment types and tasks
There are four tasks consisting of 25 questions.
Lesson components teachers need to know:
1) introductory activities (e.g. warmers, lead-ins

2) common ways of presenting language
3) the design and purpose of a range of common comprehension and production tasks and activities
4) teaching terms frameworks for activities and tasks (Present-Practice-Produce, Task-Based Learning, Total Physical
Response, the Lexical Approach, Grammar-Translation, Test-Teach-Test, guided discovery etc.
5) purposes for assessment (e.g. diagnostic, placement, achievement, formative, progress, proficiency
6) methods of assessment (e.g. self, peer, portfolio, formal, informal) the design and purpose of a range of tasks and
activities (Perera, 2022)
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TKT: Young Learners
TKT: Young Learners is a specialist module that focuses on the strategies and skills required to teach young learners in the
6–12 age range.
Content outline
Knowledge of concepts related to young learner learning and development, knowledge about planning young learner
lessons and knowledge of teaching strategies, practice activities and resources used to support and challenge young
learners’ language learning, assessment of young learners’ work.
TKT: Young Learners module consists of a single paper containing 80 questions divided into four parts:
⬥ Learning and development in young learners

⬥ Planning lessons for young learners
⬥ Teaching strategies for young learners
⬥ Classroom-based assessment for young learners
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TKT: Content and Language Integrated Learning (CLIL)
CLIL (Content and Language Integrated Learning) describes a developing approach to teaching and learning where subjects
are taught and studied through the medium of a non-native language. It is an optional extension module of the Teaching
Knowledge Test (TKT) for both subject teachers and English language teachers involved in CLIL programmes.
CLIL tests knowledge of concepts related to a CLIL approach and knowledge of CLIL from a teaching perspective: the
planning, teaching and assessing curriculum subjects taught in English. It also focuses on teachers’ awareness of learning
demands (content, language, communication, cognition) and support strategies for learners in CLIL programs
TKT: CLIL module consists of a single paper containing 80 questions divided into two parts:
⬥ Knowledge of CLIL and principles of CLIL

⬥ Lesson preparation and lesson delivery ( Cambridge English Language Assessment , 2022)
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5.3. CELTA Exam
CELTA stands for Certificate of English Language teaching to Adults. It is an initial qualification for people with
little or no previous teaching experience: new teachers starting their career, first-language and non-first language
speakers; and it is highly sought after by employers worldwide.
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5.3.1. Overview
CELTA is a continuous assessment course (participants are assessed throughout the course) leading to a certificate
qualification. It gives equal emphasis to theory and practice. To get a certificate, teachers will be asked to prepare and
deliver 6 hours of lessons through a course of preparation and they will be assessed in many aspects of their teaching. They
will practice their teaching working with adult classes at a minimum of 2 levels of ability. Assessment is based on their overall
performance. In addition, they will complete four written assignments each 750-1000 words.
Components
⇨ Input
⇨ Supervised Lesson planning
⇨ Teaching practice (six assessed hours)
⇨ Feedback on teaching
⇨ Peer Observation
⇨ Observation of experienced teachers (Cambridge, English Language Assessement, 2022)
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5.4. DELTA Exam
Source: https://www.cambridgeenglish.org/teaching-english/teaching-qualifications/delta/prepare-for-delta/
DELTA stands for Diploma in Teaching English to speakers of other languages. It is a teaching degree granted to
professionals with ample experience in teaching. It is recognized internationally.
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5.4.1. Overview
DELTA consists of the following three modules:
Module 1: Understanding Language, Methodology and Resources for Teaching (assessed through a written examination).
Module 2: Developing Professional Practice (assessed through a portfolio of coursework, including observed lessons,
background written essays and an externally assessed lesson observation).
Module 3: Extending Practice and ELT Specialism or English Language Teaching Management (assessed through an
extended written assignment).
Each DELTA Module is assessed in a different way:
⬥ DELTA Module 1: written examination

⬥ DELTA Module 2: a portfolio of coursework, including lesson observations
⬥ DELTA Module 3: a written assignment (Cambridge, 2022)
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Self-evaluation
1. TKT is a series of internationally recognized modular teaching qualifications which test teachers’ ___________ in a specific
area of English language teaching
abilities.
knowledge.
training
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Self-evaluation
2. TKT exam consists of three main and two specialized _________. Each of them is focused on certain aspects of teaching
English.
items.
modules.
characteristics.
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Self-evaluation
3. Choose one of the modules of TKT
Lesson planning and use of resources.

Location of answers in the right order.
Grammatical terms.
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Self-evaluation
4. Choose the correct module that refers to the following aspects: Teachers' and learners' language in the classroom.
Classroom management.

Content and Language integrated learning
Pregunta 4 de 10
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Self-evaluation
5. Choose the correct module that refers to the following aspects: Knowledge of the strategies and skills required to teach
young learners
Module YL Young Learners.

Content and Language Integrated Learning.
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Self-evaluation
6. TKT module 1: Concepts and terminology for describing language: grammar, lexis, ________ and functions
morphology.
phonology.
syntax
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Self-evaluation
7. How many lesson components are there in TKT module 1, part 1?
10.
12.
13.
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Self-evaluation
8. Choose one lesson component that is NOT part of TKT Module 1 part 2. Background to language learning.
Parts of speech.
Motivation.
Peer observation.
Pregunta 8 de 10
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Self-evaluation
9. Choose the correct component referring to CELTA exam.
Learner needs.
Motivation.
Peer observation.
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Self-evaluation
10. Which module is assessed as a portfolio of coursework, including lesson observations in DELTA?.
Module1.
Module 2.
Module 3.
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6.1. Introduction
If graduate and professionals want to study in the United States, they need to know that most US Universities will require
graduate students applying for admission take standardized admission tests. These tests are intended to provide a common
measure for comparing the abilities of students who come from a variety of educational backgrounds and institutions.
For graduate and professional admissions, the most known required tests are GRE (Graduate Record Examinations) for liberal
arts, science and math; and GMAT (Graduate Management Admission Test) for Master Business Schools/ study for Master’s in
Business Administration programs.
Source: https://www.gyandhan.com/blogs/international-entrance-exams-to-study-overseas
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6.2. GRE exam
The GRE is a paper based or a computer-delivered test that features question types that closely reflect the kind of thinking
students will do — and the skills they need to succeed — in graduate school programs, including business and law.
The GRE General Test measures: verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, critical thinking and analytical writing skills — skills that
have been developed over a long period of time and are not related to a specific field of study but are important for all (Kowarski,
2021).
Figure 1. GRE Exam. Source: https://www.gyandhan.com/blogs/gre-all-you-need-to-know
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6.2. GRE exam
The Verbal Reasoning section measures the ability to:
1. analyze and draw conclusions from discourse; reason from incomplete data; identify author's assumptions and/or
perspective; understand multiple levels of meaning, such as literal, figurative and author's intent
2. select important points; distinguish major from irrelevant points; summarize text; understand the structure of a text
3. understand the meaning of individual words, sentences and entire texts; understand relationships among words and
among concepts (Visa, 2022)
There are three types of questions:
1. Reading Comprehension
2. Text Completion
3. Sentence Equivalence
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6.2. GRE exam
1. Reading Comprehension questions:
a. Multiple-choice Questions — Select One Answer Choice: One of five options
b. Multiple-choice Questions — select one or More Answer Choices: These provide three answer choices and
ask to select all that are correct.
c. Select-in-Passage: select the sentence in the passage that meets a certain description.
The reading comprehension passages include three different subject matter areas: humanities, social sciences and
natural sciences.
The passages range in length from one paragraph to four or five paragraphs. (ETS.GRE, 2022)
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6.2. GRE exam
2. Text Completion questions:
In this kind of questions, the task is to fill in the blanks and create a coherent, meaningful whole from short passages
where essential words are omitted. The test taker has to use the remaining information in the passage as a basis for
selecting words or short phrases. Applicants need to be skilled in interpreting, evaluating and reasoning from what they
have read to create a picture of the whole and revising that picture as they go. (ETS.GRE, 2022)
The Question Structure is:
⇨ Passage composed of one to five sentences

⇨ One to three blanks
⇨ Three answer choices per blank (five answer choices in the case of a single blank)
⇨ The answer choices for different blanks function independently, i.e., selecting one answer choice for one blank does
not affect what answer choices you can select for another blank
⇨ Single correct answer, consisting of one choice for each blank; no credit for partially correct answers (Guru, 2022)
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6.2. GRE exam
3. Sentence Equivalence questions:
They test the ability to reach a conclusion about how a passage should be completed on the basis of partial information,
but to a greater extent they focus on the meaning of the completed whole. This kind of questions consist of a single
sentence with just one blank and they ask to find two choices that lead to a complete, coherent sentence while producing
sentences that mean the same thing.
The Question Structure consists of a single sentence, one blank, and six answer choices. It requires students to select
two of the answer choices; no credit for partially correct answers. (ETS.GRE, 2022)
The Quantitative Reasoning assesses basic mathematical skills:
1. understanding of elementary mathematical concepts,

2. ability to reason quantitatively
3. to model and solve problems with quantitative methods
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6.2. GRE exam
Some of the Quantitative Reasoning questions are posed in real-life settings, while others are posed in purely
mathematical settings.
Many of the questions are "word problems," which must be translated and modeled mathematically.
The skills, concepts and abilities are assessed in the following four content areas:
⇨ 1. Arithmetic topics include properties and types of integers, such as divisibility, factorization, prime numbers,
remainders and odd and even integers; arithmetic operations, exponents and roots; and concepts such as estimation,
percent, ratio, rate, absolute value, the number line, decimal representation and sequences of numbers.
⇨ 2. Algebra topics include operations with exponents; factoring and simplifying algebraic expressions; relations,
functions, equations and inequalities; solving linear and quadratic equations and inequalities; solving simultaneous
equations and inequalities; setting up equations to solve word problems; and coordinate geometry, including graphs
of functions, equations and inequalities, intercepts and slopes of lines.
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6.2. GRE exam
⇨ 3. Geometry topics include parallel and perpendicular lines, circles, triangles — including isosceles, equilateral and
30°-60°-90° triangles — quadrilaterals, other polygons, congruent and similar figures, three-dimensional figures,
area, perimeter, volume, the Pythagorean theorem and angle measurement in degrees. The ability to construct
proofs is not tested.
⇨ 4. Data analysis topics include basic descriptive statistics, such as mean, median, mode, range, standard deviation,
interquartile range, quartiles and percentiles; interpretation of data in tables and graphs, such as line graphs, bar
graphs, circle graphs, boxplots, scatterplots and frequency distributions; elementary probability, such as probabilities
of compound events and independent events; conditional probability; random variables and probability distributions,
including normal distributions; and counting methods, such as combinations, permutations and Venn diagrams
(ETS.GRE, 2022).
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6.2. GRE exam
Quantitative Reasoning Question Types
The Quantitative Reasoning has four types of questions:
1. Quantitative Comparison Questions

2. Multiple-choice Questions — Select One Answer Choice
3. Multiple-choice Questions — Select One or More Answer Choices
4. Numeric Entry Questions
The Analytical Writing section measures ability to:
1. articulate complex ideas clearly and effectively

2. support ideas with relevant reasons and examples
3. examine claims and accompanying evidence
4. sustain a well-focused, coherent discussion
5. control the elements of standard written English
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6.2. GRE exam
The Analytical Writing section consists of two separately timed analytical writing tasks:
1. An Analyze an Issue task

2. An Analyze an Argument task
The Analyze an Issue task measures the ability to think critically about a topic of general interest and to express
students’ thoughts about it in a piece of writing. Each issue statement makes a claim that students can discuss from
various viewpoints and apply to many different situations or conditions.
The issue statement is followed by a set of specific instructions. For example:
Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the statement and
explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and supporting your position, you should
consider ways in which the statement might or might not hold true and explain how these considerations
shape your position.
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6.2. GRE exam
The Analyze an Argument task measures the ability to understand, analyze and evaluate arguments and to clearly
convey students’ evaluation in writing.
Applicants will read a brief passage in which the author makes a case of some course of action or interpretation of
events by presenting claims backed by reasons and evidence. The task is to discuss the logical soundness of the case
according to the specific instructions by critically examining the line of reasoning and the use of evidence (ETS.GRE,
2022). This is an example:
Write a response in which you discuss what specific evidence is needed to evaluate the argument and
explain how the evidence would weaken or strengthen the argument.
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6.2.1. Test Structure
Table 18
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6.3. GMAT Exam
Figure 2.
Source: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Uufyybt4wEM
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6.3. GMAT Exam
GMAT stands for Graduate Management Admission Test. It is a standardized test that is often required for admission to
graduate business program (MBA).
The GMAT exam assesses the command of basic arithmetic, algebra, geometry, multi-source data analysis, and
grammar. It measures the ability to analyze and evaluate written material, think critically, and solve problems. The GMAT
is first and foremost a test of the critical thinking skills. (KAPLAN, 2022)
The content on the GMAT is broken down into four scored test sections:
1. Analytical Writing Assessment

2. Integrated Reasoning
3. Quantitative
4. Verbal
In the Analytical Writing Assessment, or “essay” section, test takers will be presented with a brief argument. Students
are not asked to present their own point of view on the topic; instead they are tasked with critiquing the author's
argument, analyzing the soundness of the author’s evidence and reasoning. The applicants have to clearly identify and
insightfully analyze parts of the argument, develop and organize their ideas thoughtfully and logically, and connect their
statements with clear transitions.
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6.3. GMAT Exam
The Integrated Reasoning section measures how well students integrate data to solve complex problems. Specifically, the
Integrated Reasoning section tests the ability to:
1. Synthesize information presented in graphics, text, and numbers.

2. Evaluate relevant information from different sources.
3. Organize information to see relationships and to solve multiple, interrelated problems.
4. Combine and manipulate information from multiple sources to solve complex problems.
There are four types of questions:
a. Multi-Source Reasoning—Measures the ability to examine data from multiple sources text passages, tables, graphics, or
some combination of the three—and to analyze each source of data carefully to answer multiple questions. Some
questions will require to recognize discrepancies among different sources of data; others, to draw inferences, and still
others may require to determine whether data is relevant.
b. Table Analysis—Measures the ability sort and analyze a table of data, similar to a spreadsheet, in order to determine what
information is relevant or meets certain conditions.
c. Graphics Interpretation—Measures the ability to interpret the information presented in a graph or other graphical image
(scatter plot, x/y graph, bar chart, pie chart, or statistical curve distribution) to discern relationships, and make inferences.
d. Two-Part Analysis—Measures the ability to solve complex problems. They could be quantitative, verbal, or some
combination of both (Kaplan, 2020).
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6.3. GMAT Exam
The Verbal Reasoning section measures the ability to read and comprehend written material, reason and evaluate
arguments, and correct material to express ideas effectively in standard written English.
There are three types of questions in the Verbal Section: Reading Comprehension, Critical Reasoning, and Sentence
Correction.
⇨ a. Reading Comprehension measures the ability to understand words and statements, understand logical relationships
between significant points, draw inferences, and follow the development of quantitative concepts.
⇨ b. Critical Reasoning assesses the ability to make arguments, evaluate arguments, and formulate or evaluate a plan of
action.
⇨ c. Sentence Correction measures two broad aspects of language proficiency. First, correct expression, referring to
sentences that are grammatically and structurally sound. Second, effective expression, referring to sentences that
effectively express an idea or relationship clearly, concisely, and grammatically.
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6.3. GMAT Exam
The Quantitative Reasoning section measures the ability to reason mathematically, solve quantitative problems, and
interpret graphic data.
There are two types of questions in the Quantitative Section: Problem Solving and Data Sufficiency. Both types of questions
require some knowledge of arithmetic, elementary algebra and commonly known concepts of geometry.
Problem Solving measures the ability to use logic and analytical reasoning to solve quantitative problems. Students have to
solve the problem and indicate the best of five answer choices.
Data Sufficiency measures the ability to analyze a quantitative problem, recognize which data is relevant, and determine at
what point there are enough data to solve the problem (Council, 2022).
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Self-evaluation
1. Which test is for liberal arts, science, and math?
TOEFL
GRE
GMAT
Pregunta 1 de 10
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Self-evaluation
2. The GRE General Test measures: verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, critical thinking and __________ writing skills.
analytical
reasoning
persuasive.
Pregunta 2 de 10
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Self-evaluation
3. One of the abilities that measures the Verbal Reasoning is:
Select the sentence in the passage that meets a certain description..

Select important points; distinguish major from irrelevant points; summarize text; understand the structure of a text.
Ability to reason quantitatively.
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Self-evaluation
4. Which one is the type of question for the following sentence? “They test the ability to reach a conclusion about how a
passage should be completed on the basis of partial information, but to a greater extent they focus on the meaning of the
completed whole”
Reading Comprehension.
Text Completion.
Sentence Equivalence.
Pregunta 4 de 10
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Self-evaluation
5. In the quantitative reasoning questions; many of the questions are "word problems," which must be translated and
modeled ______________
arithmetically.
Contextually.
mathematically.
Pregunta 5 de 10
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Self-evaluation
6. The content area for the following sentence is:” Include operations with exponents; factoring and simplifying algebraic
expressions; relations, functions, equations and inequalities; solving linear and quadratic equations and inequalities…”
Algebra topics.
Geometry topics.
Arithmetic topics.
Pregunta 6 de 10
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Self-evaluation
7. Which type of question DOES NOT correspond to Quantitative reasoning?
Multiple-choice Questions — Select One Answer Choice.

Table Analysis.
Numeric Entry Questions.
Pregunta 7 de 10
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Self-evaluation
8. The GMAT exam assesses the command of basic arithmetic, algebra, __________, multi-source data analysis, and
grammar:
science.
English.
geometry.
Pregunta 8 de 10
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Self-evaluation
9. The content on the GMAT is broken down into _____scored test sections:
four.
five.
three.
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Self-evaluation
10. The Analytical Writing Assessment, is also called as “______” section
correction.
reasoning.
essay.
Pregunta 10 de 10
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7.1. CPA Exam
To complete the information about international exams and in this case one for specific purpose, we have CPA exam
which stands for Certified Public Accountant and as you can see, it is for people with knowledge in accounting, business
law, general studies and have some work experience in this area.
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7.1.1. CPA overview
According to DÁllegro, CPA has the following takeaways:
The CPA exam consists of four sections: Financial Accounting and Reporting (FAR), Auditing and Attestation (AUD),
Regulation (REG), and Business Environment and Concepts (BEC).
Candidates have up to four hours to complete each exam section; exam sections can be taken individually, and candidates
must pass all four sections within 18 months.
The computer-based CPA examination consists of two basic question formats; Multiple choice questions choosing one of four
responses to a short scenario and a Task-based simulations which is a short case studies used to assess knowledge and
skills in a context close to realistic scenarios and tasks. The computer based has three written communication tasks, 276
multiple-choice questions, and 28 task-based simulations.
Each section of the test is graded on a scale of zero to 99; the minimum passing score is 75. (DÁllegro, 2021)
According to American Institute of Certified Public Accountants. The CPA exam has 276 multiple-choice questions, 28 task-
based simulations, and three writing portions. These are divided into four main sections:
⬥ Auditing and attestation (AUD)

⬥ Financial Accounting and Reporting (FAR)
⬥ Regulation (REG)
⬥ Business Environment and Concepts (BEC) (Accountants, 2021)
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7.1.1. CPA overview
For this exam, candidates have four hours to complete each section, with a total of 16 hours. Each section is taken
individually and candidates can choose the order in which they can take. These sections of the exam must be passed within
18 months.
The American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) develops and scores the test, grading each part on a scale of
zero to 99 and to pass you need to score at least 75 in each section For the AUD, FAR, and REG sections, your total score is
a weighted combination of scaled scores from multiple-choice questions and task-based simulations. Multiple-choice
questions count for 50% of the total score and tasked-based simulations count for the other 50%. (Accountants, 2021)
The same institute explains that your total score for the BEC section is a weighted combination of scaled scores from
multiple-choice questions, task-based simulations, and written communication tasks. Multiple-choice questions count for 50%
of the total score, tasked-based simulations count for 35%, and written communication tasks count for 15% (Accountants,
2021)
The exam sections employ multi-stage testlets for the multiple-choice questions. The first testlet is always of moderate
difficulty. Depending on your performance, the next testlet will be of the same level or slightly more difficult. (Accountants,
2021)
Let’s watch a video about why CPA is considered a difficult exam.
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7.1.1. CPA overview
¿Qué tan difícil es el examen CPA? (GUÍA EXPERTA)
Source: https://youtu.be/OxPfsspdfOE
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7.1.1. CPA overview
To get an excellent score at CPA exam, it is necessary to apply strategies I consider are important as follows:
⬥ Organize study materials

⬥ Develop solutions approach like solving task-based simulations and multiple -choice questions
⬥ Prepare and examination strategy
⬥ Study the material tested recently
⬥ Evaluate your progress regularly (Wittington, 2015)
Referring to the four sections included in this exam, we have the following details:
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7.1.2. Financial Accounting and Reporting
According to DÁllegro, the FAR section tests knowledge and understanding of the financial reporting framework used by
business enterprises, not-for-profit organizations, and government entities. It includes 66 multiple-choice questions as
well as eight task-based simulations that use real-life work situations to test your skill. (DÁllegro, 2021)
In the following video the presenter explains more details of this section
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7.1.2. Financial Accounting and Reporting
CPA FAR
Source: https://youtu.be/7OQ5AsVJ1SA
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7.1.3. Auditing and Attestation
This section contains 8 modules and 1 supplemental section, the following table describes the content of each module.
Source: Information taken from: (Wittington, 2015)
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DÁllegro in his website mentions that the AUD section is a bit easier, especially if you’ve tackled FAR first. It has 72
multiple-choice questions and eight task-based simulations. It covers the planning and reviewing of engagements,
internal controls, obtaining and documenting information, and communications preparation. (DÁllegro, 2021)
In the following video we are going to learn something about auditing
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Introduction to Auditing
Source: https://youtu.be/RhH6qwJs4zY
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Let´s see some sample questions and the corresponding answers of this section
1. Which of the following is ordinarily considered to be a fraud risk factor?
a. The company’s financial statements include a number of last-minute material adjustments.

b. Management regularly informs investors of forecast information.
c. The company has experienced increasing earnings over the previous five years.
d. The company’s president is included as a member of the board of directors.
2. The independent auditor selects several transactions in each functional area and traces them through the entire
system, paying special attention to evidence about whether or not the controls are in operation. This is an example of
a(n)
a. Application test.
b. Test of a controls.
c. Substantive test.
d. Test of a function.
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3. Which is least likely to be a question asked of client personnel during a walk-through in an audit of the internal control
of an issuer (public) company?
a. What do you do when you find an error?

b. Who is most likely to commit fraud among your coworkers?
c. What kind of errors have you found?
d. Have you ever been asked to override the process or controls?
4. If information is for management’s use only, which of the following forms of CPA association with financial information
is most likely to result in no report being issued?
a. An agreed-upon procedures engagement.

b. An audit.
c. A compilation.
d. A review.
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7.1.4. Regulation
The website of DÁllegro explains that REG section covers ethics and professional responsibility, business law, tax
procedures and accounting, and federal taxation for individuals, entities, and property transactions. This section has 76
multiple-choice questions and eight task-based simulations. (DÁllegro, 2021)
In the following video we are going to know how to get a high score at REG section.
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7.1.4. Regulation
My Study Plan
Source: https://youtu.be/MNE2_R_DF2Y
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7.1.5. Business Environment and Concepts
BEC is arguably the easiest section says DÁllegro, and most candidates pass it on their first attempt. The BEC section
has 62 multiple-choice questions, four task-based simulations, and three written communication tasks, wherein test
takers must respond in a letter or memo format to a work scenario. This is used to assess candidates’ writing skills as
well as their organization, clarity, and conciseness. (DÁllegro, 2021)
In the following video we have some tips to pass this section successfully
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7.1.5. Business Environment and Concepts
Uniform CPA Exam
Source: https://youtu.be/stxb6lM620E
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7.1.6. CPA Exam Common Mistakes
According to Whittington (2015), the common mistakes that candidates make at CPA are:
⬥ Failure to understand the exam question requirements

⬥ Misunderstanding the supporting text of the problem
⬥ Material tested lack of knowledge
⬥ Lack of success with computer-based testing and practice tools with electronic research databases failure
⬥ Inability to apply the solutions approach
⬥ Absence of an exam strategy
⬥ Logical errors carelessness (Wittington, 2015)
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7.2. Other exams around the world
To conclude the topics about exams around the world, there are the following ones which needs to be considered.
7.2.1. Pearson Language Test (PTE)
This exam is accepted in universities and colleges in most English-speaking countries and covers the four language
skills. This test is valid for two years; to take this test it is recommended to be at least 16 years old. This exam is online
to be taken in 3 hours. (Kanan, 2021)
To practice this exam, we have the following site
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7.2.2. Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)
This exam is for undergraduate students in the USA and Canada, It is a written test that covers language and
mathematical skills. This exam has two types, with an essay and without an essay lasting from 3 hours to 3 hours 50
minutes, which is scored on a scale of 200 to 800 points. (Kanan, 2021)
7.2.3. Medical College Admission Test
The Association of American Medical Colleges and Pearson VUE are in charge of this exam and it is applied to
candidates looking for an admission into medical schools in the USA, Canada, Australia. This exam is mainly used to
cover analysis, reasoning, psychological of candidates and the knowledge of biological systems. (Kanan, 2021)
7.2.4. Law School Admission Test (LSAT)

This exam is administered by the Law School Admission Council and the type which is important for us is LSAT abroad if
there is interest to enter into law schools in the USA, Canada and Australia. Candidates need 3 hours 30 minutes to
complete all the questions online. (Kanan, 2021)
7.2.5. Examination for the Certificate of Competency in English (ECCE)
This exam is in charge of the University of Michigan to measure fluency in English to show skills to employers. It stands
at the B2 level of CEFR and is accepted in most English countries. (Kanan, 2021)
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7.2.6. Canadian Academic English language Assessment (CAEL)
This English language skills test is accepted by over 180 institutions in Canada and is used by employers, schools,
colleges, and universities. This exam covers Speaking, Integrated Reading and Listening, and academic units A and B
lasting 3 hours 30 minutes. (Kanan, 2021)
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Self-evaluation
1. How many sections does CPA exam consist of?
3.
4.
5.
Pregunta 1 de 10
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Self-evaluation
2. All four sections of CPA exam can be taken within_____ months
18
16
12.
Pregunta 2 de 10
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Self-evaluation
3. The computer-based CPA examination consists of two basic question formats, Multiple choice questions and ___________
Use of English.
Task based simulations.
Likert Scale Question.
Pregunta 3 de 10
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Self-evaluation
4. Written communication tasks count ____ of the total score
50%.
35%.
15%.
Pregunta 4 de 10
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Self-evaluation
5. One of the strategies to get an excellent score is?
Test of a control.
Provide books at the right level.
Organize study materials.
Pregunta 5 de 10
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Self-evaluation
6. How many modules does Auditing and Attestation contain?
8.
7.
6.
Pregunta 6 de 10
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Self-evaluation
7. REG section covers ethics and professional responsibility, ___________, tax procedures and accounting, and federal
taxation for individuals, entities, and property transactions.
simulations.
bussines law.
accounting.
Pregunta 7 de 10
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Self-evaluation
8. Which is the easiest (arguably) section of CPA examination?
FAR.
REG.
BEC.
Pregunta 8 de 10
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Self-evaluation
9. How many years is the Pearson Language Test (PTE) valid?
2.
3.
4.
Pregunta 9 de 10
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Self-evaluation
10. This exam is administered by the Law School Admission Council
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT).

Canadian Academic English language Assessment (CAEL).
Law School Admission Test (LSAT).
Pregunta 10 de 10
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Learning Activity 7: Online Quiz CPA
This quiz contains 20 questions and lasts 30 minutes.

Total score: 20.00
Open: since 12/08/2023 21:00 until 12/08/2023 23:03
Achievement
Date: 08/12/2023 9:37:46 PM

LA1. What does CPA stand for?
Certified Professor Accountant
College Public Accountant
LA2. How many sections does the CPA exam have?
Five sections
Six sections
Four sections
LA3. Candidates have up to ....... hours to complete each exam section in CPA exam.
three
four
two
LA4. The computer-based CPA exam has three written communication tasks:
276 multiple-choice questions and 28 task-based simulations.
276 multiple-choice questions.
28 task-based simulations.
LA5. Each section of the CPA test is graded on a scale of:
zero to 75
zero to 99
zero to 100
LA6. The minimum passing score for the CPA exam is:
80
99
75
LA7. The CPA exam is divided into four main sections.
Listening, grammar, reading, and speaking
Auditing and attestation, financial accounting and reporting, regulation, business environment, and
concepts.
Auditing, attestation, financial accounting, and reporting.
LA8. The whole CPA exam can last:
16 hours
4 hours
12 hours
LA9. The order of the sections taken in the CPA exam depends on:
the teacher
the examiner
the candidate
LA10. Multiple-choice questions count for ...... percent of the total score of CPA exam.
60
50
40
LA11. To take the PTE exam, you should be ..... years old at least.
16
18
15
LA12. The PTE online exam can be taken in:
1 hour
2 hours
3 hours
LA13. What does SAT stand for?
Social Science Aptitude Test
Skills Aptitude Test
LA14. Who is in charge of the Medical College Admission Test?
The Association of British Medical Colleges and Pearson VUE
The Association of American Medical Colleges and Pearson VUE
The Association of English Medical Colleges and Pearson VUE
LA15. What does LSAT stand for?
Law School Association Test
LA16. What does ECCE stand for?
Examination for the Certificate in English
Examination for the Competency in English
LA17. Who is in charge of the ECCE?
The University of Michigan
Pearson
Cambridge University
LA18. The CAEL exam evaluates:
English language skills

Accounting skills
Methodological skills
LA19. The CAEL exam is used by:
employers
schools
employers, schools, colleges, and universities.
LA20. The CAEL exam covers:
Speaking, Integrated Reading and Listening and academic units.
Speaking, Listening, Reading and Writing.
Grammar, Reading and Speaking
Previous Next
The University of Cambridge ESOL has developed which exams for prospective and in-service
English teachers?
A) TKT and CELTA
B) TKT, CELTA, and DELTA
C) TKT and DELTA
D) CELTA and DELTA
ANSWER: B
TKT (Teaching Knowledge Test) is designed for which type of teachers?
A) Teachers of any subject
B) Teachers of English as a foreign language
C) Teachers of mathematics
D) Teachers of science
ANSWER: B
How many modules does the TKT exam consist of according to the contents of this subject?
A) Two modules
B) Three modules
C) Four modules
D) Five modules
ANSWER: D
What is the highest band in the TKT exam results?
A) Band 1
B) Band 2
C) Band 3
D) Band 4
ANSWER: D
The purpose of the TKT exam is to focus on the core teaching knowledge needed by teachers of:
A) Mathematics
B) English to speakers of other languages
C) History
D) Physical education
ANSWER: B
Which module of the TKT exam deals with "Language and background to language learning and
teaching"?
A) Module 1
B) Module 2
C) Module 3
D) Module 4
ANSWER: A
What is the primary focus of language teaching?
A) Developing language skills
B) Applied linguistics
C) Teaching multiple languages simultaneously
D) Teaching various subjects using language
ANSWER: A
How many questions are there in the TKT exam for each module?
A) 40 questions
B) 60 questions
C) 80 questions
D) 100 questions
ANSWER: C
The TKT exam reports results in bands from 1 to 4. Which band represents limited knowledge of
the content areas tested?
A) Band 1
B) Band 2
C) Band 3
D) Band 4
ANSWER: A
What does TKT stand for?
A) Teaching Knowledge Test
B) Test of Knowledge in Teaching
C) Test for Language Teachers
D) Teaching Language Skills Test
ANSWER: A
Which module focuses on planning lessons and the use of resources for language teaching?
A) Module 1
B) Module 2
C) Module 3
D) Module CLIL
E) Module YL Young Learners
ANSWER: B
Classroom management, which involves creating and maintaining a positive learning environment
and responding to disruptive behavior, is covered in which module?
A) Module 1
B) Module 2
C) Module 3
D) Module CLIL
E) Module YL Young Learners

ANSWER: C
Which of the following is a characteristic of a linguistic register?
A) Techniques for classroom management
B) Strategies for teaching young learners
C) Specific vocabulary and language used for particular purposes and by certain groups
D) Principles of Content and Language Integrated Learning (CLIL)
ANSWER: C
How many tasks and questions are in TKT Module 1 (Part 1) - Describing language and language
skills?
A) Three tasks, 15 questions
B) Four tasks, 25 questions
C) Six tasks, 40 questions
D) Four parts, 80 questions
ANSWER: C
TKT: Young Learners is a specialized module that focuses on teaching children in what age range?
A) 6-12 years old
B) 13-18 years old
C) 19-24 years old
D) 25 and above
ANSWER: A
The TKT: CLIL module tests knowledge related to teaching subjects through the medium of a non-
native language. What does CLIL stand for?
A) Center for Language Instruction and Learning
B) Content and Language Integrated Learning
C) Comprehensive Language Instruction and Learning
D) Cooperative Learning and Integrated Language

ANSWER: B
In Module 3 of TKT, what are the topics covered regarding classroom management?
A) Vocabulary and grammar
B) Language skills and sub-skills
C) Learning and development in young learners
D) Strategies for keeping students organized and focused
ANSWER: D
TKT: CLIL module consists of how many parts and questions?
A) One part, 40 questions
B) Two parts, 60 questions
C) Two parts, 80 questions
D) Three parts, 100 questions
ANSWER: C
What is the purpose of the TKT exam for Young Learners?
A) To test teachers' knowledge of language skills
B) To assess teachers' abilities in using classroom resources
C) To focus on teaching strategies and skills required for young learners
D) To evaluate teachers' understanding of CLIL principles
ANSWER: C
How many tasks and questions are there in TKT Module 1 (Part 2) - Background to language
learning?
A) One task, 10 questions
B) Two tasks, 20 questions
C) Three tasks, 15 questions
D) Four tasks, 25 questions

ANSWER: C
What does "CELTA" stand for?
A) Certificate of English Language Testing Assessment
B) Certificate of English Language Teaching to Adults
C) Course of English Learning and Teaching Assessments
D) Course of English Linguistics and Teaching Applications
ANSWER: B
Who is the CELTA exam primarily designed for?
A) Experienced teachers with significant teaching experience
B) People with little or no previous teaching experience
C) Non-native speakers only
D) Employers seeking new teachers
ANSWER: B
What type of qualification does CELTA lead to?
A) Diploma
B) Certificate
C) Degree
D) License
ANSWER: B
What is the focus of CELTA in terms of theory and practice?
A) More emphasis on theory than practice
B) More emphasis on practice than theory
C) Equal emphasis on theory and practice
D) No emphasis on theory or practice
ANSWER: C
How many hours of lessons do teachers need to prepare and deliver to get a certificate?
A) 2 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 8 hours
ANSWER: C
In addition to teaching practice, what other written assignments are required for CELTA?
A) One assignment, 500 words
B) Two assignments, 1000 words each
C) Four assignments, 750-1000 words each
D) Five assignments, 500 words each
ANSWER: C
Which of the following is NOT a component of the CELTA course?
A) Input
B) Teaching practice (six assessed hours)
C) Group discussions
D) Observation of experienced teachers
ANSWER: C
During the CELTA course, teachers will work with adult classes at a minimum of how many levels of
ability?
A) 1 level
B) 2 levels
C) 3 levels
D) 4 levels
ANSWER: B
What is the primary mode of assessment for CELTA participants?
A) Written examinations
B) Group projects
C) Continuous assessment throughout the course
D) Final presentation
ANSWER: C
Who provides feedback on the teaching practice during the CELTA course?
A) Employers
B) Students' peers
C) Experienced teachers
D) The participants themselves
ANSWER: C
What does "DELTA" stand for?
A) Degree in English Language Teaching Assessment
B) Diploma in Teaching English to Adults
C) Diploma in Teaching English to speakers of other languages
D) Degree in English Language Testing Applications
ANSWER: C
DELTA is primarily granted to professionals who have the following:
A) Little teaching experience
B) No teaching experience
C) Ample experience in teaching
D) Experience in a different field
ANSWER: C
How many modules does DELTA consist of?
A) One module
B) Two modules
C) Three modules
D) Four modules
ANSWER: C
Which DELTA module is assessed through a written examination?
A) Module 1
B) Module 2
C) Module 3
D) Module 4
ANSWER: A
How is DELTA Module 2 assessed?
A) Written examination
B) Portfolio of coursework, including lesson observations
C) Oral presentation
D) Final project
ANSWER: B
What is assessed in DELTA Module 3?
A) Lesson observations
B) Written examination
C) Portfolio of coursework
D) Extended written assignment
ANSWER: D
DELTA Module 2 requires teachers to submit a portfolio of coursework that includes:

A) Background written essays and lesson observations
B) Lesson plans and student evaluations
C) Teaching certificates from previous courses
D) Personal reflections on teaching experiences
ANSWER: A
What type of assessment is used for DELTA Module 1?
A) Portfolio assessment
B) Oral examination
C) Written examination
D) Continuous assessment
ANSWER: C
What does DELTA Module 3 assess?
A) Classroom management skills
B) Understanding language and methodology
C) Professional development and ELT specialism or English Language Teaching Management
D) Lesson planning and resource development
ANSWER: C
Which aspect of DELTA Module 2 is assessed externally?
A) Background written essays
B) Lesson observations
C) Portfolio submission
D) Lesson plans
ANSWER: B
Primer Parcial
First Term Video Conference Quiz
This exam contains 20 questions and it lasts 30 minutes. Read the questions and choose
the correct answer.
Total score: 20.00
Open: since 27/06/2023 21:00 until 27/06/2023 23:01
Achievement
Date: 06/27/2023 9:26:50 PM

25 marks
35 marks
45 marks
E7. What is Paper 1 in the B2 First exam?
Listening
Speaking
E10. What kind of questions does Part 1 of B2 First Paper 1 have?
Open cloze
Word formation
Multiple-choice cloze
Keyword transformations
Word formation
Multiple choice
E14. Paper 2 in the B2 First exam is:
Writing
Listening
E15. How long is the Paper 2 of B2 First exam?
1 hour 30 minutes
1 hour 15 minutes
1 hour 20 minutes
E27. The meaning of TOELF is:
Test of Encouragement of Franchise Language
Test of Expertise of French Language
Test of English as a Foreing Language
Test of Extension of Foreing Language
E34. How many times is TOELF-IBT taken in a year?
50 times a year in various locations around the world

E45. How many pieces of writing does IELTS test have?
1 piece
2 pieces
3 pieces
4 pieces
E50. What is range that MET examination evaluate?
From elementary to upper intermediate levels
From high beginner to low advanced levels
From low intermediate to proficiency levels
From low beginner to intermediate levels
E52. Who are the common users of MET examination?
E55. What are the two parts which MET Reading and Grammar section is divided

structure

Two parts
Four parts
Three parts
Discussion
Collaborative task
Long turn
About 5 hours.
About 6 hours.
About 4 hours.
About 3 hours.
E74. Which sections are included in the TOEFL exam?
Reading, writing, listening, and speaking
Grammar, vocabulary, reading, and listening
Speaking, writing, listening, and vocabulary

E76. How soon are the results of the TOEFL exam available?
About 10 days after the exam date
E79. How many multiple-choice questions are there in the TOEIC Listening and
Reading test?
100
150
200
E83. Which of the following is NOT one of the four main areas tested in the IELTS?
Reading
Writing
Grammar
Previous Next
First Term Video Conference Quiz
the correct answer.
Total score: 20.00
Open: since 27/06/2023 21:00 until 27/06/2023 23:01
Achievement
Date: 06/27/2023 9:58:14 PM

E1. In the Writing part of the PET Exam, sentence transformation accepts:
No more than five words
No more than four words
No more than three words
25 marks
35 marks
45 marks
E4. How many examiners does the speaking paper 3 of PET have?
Two examiners, two interlocutors.
Two examiners, two assessors.
Two examiners, one acts as an intercolutor and the other as an assessor.
E11. What will you find in the open cloze part of B2 First Paper 1?
You will find a text with some multiple-choice questions.
You will find a text containing eight gaps with a prompt word at the end of the
line.
You will find a text in which there are some gaps which represent missing
words.
Word formation
Multiple choice
1 hour 30 minutes
1 hour 15 minutes
1 hour 20 minutes
E16. How many parts does the Writing paper of B2 First exam have?
One part
Two parts
Three parts
E18. In the reading paper of C1 Advanced exam you will read:
newspapers, magazines, journals, brochures with minor edits directed to people

who know English.
speeches, telephone messages, talks, andecdotes and interviews.
specific information, gist, attitude and opinion.
E32. The TOEIC test does not require:
Specialized grammar or verbs beyond that of a student who uses English in

everyday class activities
General writing or reading skills beyond that of a person who uses English in
bussines activities
Specialized knowledge or vocabulary beyond that of a person who uses English

in everyday work activities
Academic speaking or listening skills beyond that of a bussines man who uses
English in everyday work activities
Sixty questions
Fifty questions
Forty questions
Thirty questions
E41. What is the purpose of organizations when taking TOEIC tests?
Measuring how well you might do it in school and unreal life situations using
English effectively
Measuring how well you might do it in family and hipotetical situations using
English effectively
Measuring how well you might answer it in common and practical situations
using English effectively
Measuring how well you might do it in workplace and real life situations using
English effectively
E48. What is the minimum length of words for the first task in the Writing section
from IELTS test?
A letter of at least 180 words
E54. How many questions does the Reading and Grammar have in MET
examination?
Ninety questions
Two parts
Four parts
Three parts
E78. Which sections are included in the TOEIC Listening and Reading test?
Reading and writing
Speaking and writing
Listening and reading
E80. What is one of the reasons why the listening section of the TOEIC exam is
difficult?
The test contains four different accents.
The listening section is tested first.
Workplace phrasal verbs are uncommon.
E82. What does IELTS stand for?
International English Language Test System
International English Language Training System
International English Listening and Speaking
Reading
Writing
Grammar
E86. How many tasks are there in the Writing module of the IELTS?
One
Two
Three
Previous Next
Primer Parcial
First Term Exam
the correct answer.
Total score: 20.00
Open: since 23/06/2023 21:00 until 23/06/2023 22:30
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 9:20:33 PM

E6. How many chapters does the B2 First have?
Four chapters
Five chapters
Three chapters
Correct answer (1.00 score)
Word formation
Multiple choice
E13. What will you find in the Gapped text part of B2 First Paper 1?
You will find a single page of text with some numbered gaps which represent
missing sentences.
You will find some multiple-choice questions. For each question, there are 4
options.
You will find a text containing eight gaps with a prompt word at the end of the line.
Three papers
Five papers
Four papers

who know English.
E23. How many parts does the Listening Paper have in the C1 Advanced exam?
Two parts
One part
Four parts
E31. The TOEIC test measures:
The everyday English skills of people studying in an internal environment
The urban English skills of students working in an international environment
The everyday English skills of people working in an international environment
The academic English skills of people translating in an international environment
Wrong answer (1.00 score)
The right answer is

bussines activities
Specialized knowledge or vocabulary beyond that of a person who uses English in

everyday work activities
The right answer is

bussines activities
Specialized knowledge or vocabulary beyond that of a person who uses English in

everyday work activities
E46. What is the time given for the Writing module in IELTS test?
60 minutes
40 minutes
30 minutes
90 minutes
Twenty-five multiple choice questions and fifty questions about grammar structure
E68. What is the time required to take Paper 4: Speaking from the FCE examination?
14 minutes per pair of candidates.

On-site and e-mail.
Reading and writing
E81. How many sections are there in the IELTS exams?
Two sections: reading and writing.
Three sections: reading, writing, and listening.
Four sections: reading, writing, listening, and speaking.
Reading
Writing
Grammar
E85. Which module of the IELTS includes reading texts and answering multiple-choice
questions?
Listening
Reading
Writing
E87. Which module of the IELTS is a face-to-face interview with an examiner?
Listening
Reading
Speaking
Previous
First Term Exam
the correct answer.
Total score: 20.00
Open: since 23/06/2023 21:00 until 23/06/2023 22:30
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 9:12:07 PM

missing sentences.
options.
Writing
Listening
E25. What will you listen to in Part 2 of Paper 3 C1 Advanced exam?
Three short extracts from conversations between interacting speakers.
One person speaking for about 3 minutes.
A conversaton between two or more speakers for about 4 minutes.
E28. The TOELF is a test commonly used:
By students looking to gain admission into a U.S. University
By students looking to gain admission into a U.S. high school
By students looking to gain admission into a U.K. University
By students looking to gain admission into a U.K. Academy

E30. The TOEIC is a test commonly used...
By people whose native language is English
By people whose native language is not English
By people whose second skill is English
By students whose native language is not French
The right answer is
English effectively
English effectively
Measuring how well you might answer it in common and practical situations using
English effectively
English effectively
E44. Which Reading skills DO NOT belong to the IELTS test ?
Skim and Scan a text to find specific information
Infer and deduce the answer of a complete essay
Distinguish details from main ideas
Understand vocabulary from context
1 piece
2 pieces
3 pieces
4 pieces
60 minutes
40 minutes
30 minutes
90 minutes

from IELTS test?
250 words
260 words
270 words
280 words
E53. How many sections does MET examination have?
Cambridge.
Oxford.
Harvard.
Penn.
E65. What is the time required to take Paper 1: Reading and Use of English from the FCE
examination?
2 hours and 20 minutes.
1 hour and 30 minutes.
1 hour and 20 minutes
E76. How soon are the results of the TOEFL exam available?
Reading
Writing
Grammar
Previous Next
First Term Exam
This exam contains 20 questions and it lasts 50 minutes. Read the questions and choose the correct answer.
Total score: 20.00
Open: since 23/06/2023 21:00 until 23/06/2023 22:30
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 9:12:25 PM

You will find a single page of text with some numbered gaps which represent missing sentences.
You will find some multiple-choice questions. For each question, there are 4 options.
newspapers, magazines, journals, brochures with minor edits directed to people who know English.
E20. What should you do in Paper 1 of C1 Advanced exam?
Reread every section for every question.
Leave the questions you don't know without an answer.
Read the instructions and information about the texts and titles before starting to answer.
E21. What is the assessment criteria for the Writing paper of C1 Advanced exam?
Grammar, Vocabulary, Coherence and Punctuation.

Content, Communicative Achievement, Organization and Language.
Syntax, Coherence, Organization and Grammar.
Once
Twice
Three times
Specialized grammar or verbs beyond that of a student who uses English in everyday class activities
General writing or reading skills beyond that of a person who uses English in bussines activities
Specialized knowledge or vocabulary beyond that of a person who uses English in everyday work
activities
Academic speaking or listening skills beyond that of a bussines man who uses English in everyday work
activities
E37. What is the principal goal of the reading section of TOEFL test?
Candidate's ability to read in English and infere accurately responses to all of the questions included
Candidate's ability to understand English and provide an accurate response to all of the questions
included
Candidate's ability to scan English and obtain an accurate response to all of the questions included
Candidate's ability to spell in English and express an accurate budget to all of the questions included
E39. What is the main goal of the speaking section of TOEFL test?
Determine the applicant's comfort level in speaking English in educational situation
Determine the applicant's level in academic speaking English in general situation
Determine the applicant's level in general speaking English in business situation
Determine the applicant's comfort level in speaking English in work situation
1 piece
2 pieces
3 pieces
4 pieces
60 minutes
40 minutes
30 minutes
90 minutes
Two parts
Four parts
Three parts
Discussion
Collaborative task
Long turn
E62. What is the level of PET examination according to CEFR?
A1.
A2.
B1.
B2.
Cambridge.
Oxford.
Harvard.
Penn.
E64. What is the meaning of the acronym FCE?
Framework of Concerning English.
First Certficate of English.
First Certification of Eterprises.
Final Certificade of English
E77. What is the purpose of the TOEIC exam?
To measure English proficiency in workplace and real-life situations
To gain admission into a U.S. university
To assess everyday English skills in an international environment
E79. How many multiple-choice questions are there in the TOEIC Listening and Reading test?
100
150
200
E80. What is one of the reasons why the listening section of the TOEIC exam is difficult?
Previous Next
First Term Exam
the correct answer.
Total score: 20.00
Open: since 23/06/2023 21:00 until 23/06/2023 22:30
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 9:12:22 PM

Four chapters
Five chapters
Three chapters
E8. How long is the Reading and Use of English in the B2 Exam?
60 minutes
1 hour 15 minutes
1 hour 30 minutes

Word formation
Multiple choice
Read the instructions and information about the texts and titles before starting
to answer.

E36. How much time is needed to take the TOEFL test?
Four hours and a half
Three hours and twenty minutes
Five hours sharp.
Two hours and forty five minutes
The right answer is
Four hours and a half
Three hours and twenty minutes
Five hours sharp.
Two hours and forty five minutes
Candidate's ability to read in English and infere accurately responses to all of

the questions included
Candidate's ability to understand English and provide an accurate response to

all of the questions included
Candidate's ability to scan English and obtain an accurate response to all of the
questions included
Candidate's ability to spell in English and express an accurate budget to all of


1 piece
2 pieces
3 pieces
4 pieces
E51. What is the context that MET examination users have?
E58. What is Part 1 of Paper 4 B2 First exam about?
The examiner gives you two photographs and asks you to talk about them.
You will have a conversation with the examiner about interests, studies, career.
You will have to talk to the other candidate.

E66. How many parts does the Reading and Use of English in paper 1 from FCE
have?
5 parts with 52 questions.
About 5 hours.
About 6 hours.
About 4 hours.
About 3 hours.
On-site and e-mail.

Reading and writing
choice questions?
Listening
Reading
Writing
E87. Which module of the IELTS is a face-to-face interview with an examiner?
Listening
Reading
Speaking
Previous Next
Primer Parcial
Unit 4 Quiz
This quiz contains 20 questions and lasts 30 minutes. Please read the questions carefully
and choose the correct answers. chhose
Total score: 20.00
Open: since 12/06/2023 21:00 until 12/06/2023 23:59
Achievement
Date: 06/12/2023 10:05:44 PM

language contexts.
P3. How many sections does the IELTS exam have?

Three
Five
Four
P4. What are the sections of the IELTS exam?
Reading, writing, listening, and speaking.
Use of English, writing, listening, and speaking.
Reading, writing, understanding, and speaking.
1 hour 30 minutes
50 minutes
60 minutes
P6. Students have to produce .... in the IELTS writing Module.
P7. In the video about IELTS writing, grammatical range means:
P8. It is a good idea to ....... in the IELTS listening section.
choose the option which has the same words you listen to.
eliminate some options before choosing the right answer.
choose the first option, which looks to be the correct one.
try to use synonyms or other words to express your ideas.
answer questions just saying "yes" or "no" or give short answers.
show that you are willing to participate and talk in a conversation.
P11. What is the range that the MET examination evaluates?
P13. Who are the common users of Met examination?

P15. How many questions does the Reading and Grammar section have in the MET
examination?
Ninety questions

structure
examination?
Sixty minutes
Forty-minutes
Ninety minutes
Eighty minutes
P18. What is the style of English applied in the MET examination?
American style
British style
Australian style
Neutral style
examination?
Seventy multiple-choice questions
Sixty multiple-choice questions
Fifty multiple-choice questions
Forty multiple-choice questions
Previous Next
Primer Parcial
First Term Exam
the correct answer.
Total score: 20.00
Open: since 23/06/2023 21:00 until 23/06/2023 22:30
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 9:11:51 PM

The right answer is
25 marks
35 marks
45 marks
Word formation
Multiple choice
1 hour 30 minutes
1 hour 15 minutes
1 hour 20 minutes

The academic English skills of people translating in an international
environment
The right answer is

environment
E35. What is the minimum recommended time to begin studying for TOEFL test?
Eighteen weeks
Twelve weeks
Eight weeks
Eighty weeks
Autralia and UK
USA and Canada
E47. What kind of tasks must be developed in writing section of IELTS test?
An article and a book review
An email and a movie review
A letter and an essay

A news report and a comic
examination?
Ninety questions

About 5 hours.
About 6 hours.
About 4 hours.
About 3 hours.
E74. Which sections are included in the TOEFL exam?
Reading, writing, listening, and speaking
Grammar, vocabulary, reading, and listening
Speaking, writing, listening, and vocabulary
E80. What is one of the reasons why the listening section of the TOEIC exam is
difficult?

Reading
Writing
Grammar
choice questions?
Listening
Reading
Writing
E88. Which skills are important for the reading section of the IELTS exams?
Skim and scan a text, identify the main idea, and understand vocabulary from
context.
Write grammatically correct sentences, use linking words, and review spelling
and grammar.
Concentrate on the speakers' intonation, and transfer answers to the answer

sheet.
Previous Next
FIRST PERIOD EXAM

Total score: 20.00
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 8:19:13 PM


(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
60 minutes
1 hour 15 minutes
1 hour 30 minutes
(1.00 score)
E9. What does Paper 1 of B2 Exam have?
Seven parts with 52 questions
Six parts with 52 questions

(1.00 score)
missing sentences.
options.
line.
(1.00 score)
1 hour 30 minutes
1 hour 15 minutes
1 hour 20 minutes
(1.00 score)

who know English.

(1.00 score)
Once
Twice
Three times
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)

environment
(1.00 score)
English effectively
English effectively
English effectively
(1.00 score)
Autralia and UK
USA and Canada

(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
examination?
Ninety questions
(1.00 score)

structure

(1.00 score)
A1.
A2.
B1.
B2.
(1.00 score)
have?

(1.00 score)
E67. What is the time required to take Paper 3: Listening from the FCE examination?
40 minutes and 30 questions.

(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
choice questions?
Listening
Reading
Writing
(1.00 score)
Previous
FIRST PERIOD EXAM

Total score: 20.00
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 8:19:29 PM


(1.00 score)
Four chapters
Five chapters
Three chapters
(1.00 score)
Word formation
Multiple choice
(1.00 score)
Writing
Listening
(1.00 score)
E23. How many parts does the Listening Paper have in the C1 Advanced exam?
Two parts
One part
Four parts
(1.00 score)
Once
Twice
Three times
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
English effectively
English effectively
English effectively
(1.00 score)
E43. What modules can the IELTS test-takers can choose?
Specific or legal training
Business or management training
Proficiency or medical training
Academic or general training

(1.00 score)
60 minutes
40 minutes
30 minutes
90 minutes
(1.00 score)
5 minutes per pair of candidates

(1.00 score)
A1.
A2.
B1.
B2.
(1.00 score)
have?

(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
On-site and e-mail.

(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
Reading test?
100
150
200
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
E82. What does IELTS stand for?
International English Language Test System
International English Language Training System
International English Listening and Speaking

(1.00 score)
Previous
Primer Parcial
FIRST PERIOD EXAM

Total score: 20.00
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 8:19:40 PM

50 questions
25 questions
35 questions
(1.00 score)
25 marks
35 marks
45 marks
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
Three papers
Five papers
Four papers
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
Once
Twice
Three times
(1.00 score)
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
Sixty questions
Fifty questions
Forty questions
Thirty questions
(1.00 score)
Autralia and UK
USA and Canada

(1.00 score)
from IELTS test?
250 words
260 words
270 words
280 words
(1.00 score)
Two parts
Four parts
Three parts
(1.00 score)
Discussion
Collaborative task
Long turn
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
Cambridge.
Oxford.
Harvard.
Penn.
(1.00 score)
About 5 hours.
About 6 hours.
About 4 hours.
About 3 hours.
(1.00 score)
On-site and e-mail.

(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
choice questions?
Listening
Reading
Writing
(1.00 score)
Previous
FIRST TERM EXAM
FIRST TERM EXAM

Total score: 20.00
Open: since 23/06/2023 20:00 until 23/06/2023 21:30
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 8:40:29 PM

1 hour 30 minutes
50 minutes
60 minutes

structure
25 marks
35 marks
45 marks

from IELTS test?
Two parts
Four parts
Three parts
E65. What is the time required to take Paper 1: Reading and Use of English from the
FCE examination?
On-site and e-mail.
Reading test?
100
150
200
Reading
Writing
Grammar
choice questions?
Listening
Reading
Writing
Previous
Primer Parcial
FIRST PERIOD EXAM

Total score: 20.00
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 8:19:40 PM

50 questions
25 questions
35 questions
(1.00 score)
25 marks
35 marks
45 marks
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
Three papers
Five papers
Four papers
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
Once
Twice
Three times
(1.00 score)
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
Sixty questions
Fifty questions
Forty questions
Thirty questions
(1.00 score)
Autralia and UK
USA and Canada

(1.00 score)
from IELTS test?
250 words
260 words
270 words
280 words
(1.00 score)
Two parts
Four parts
Three parts
(1.00 score)
Discussion
Collaborative task
Long turn
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
Cambridge.
Oxford.
Harvard.
Penn.
(1.00 score)
About 5 hours.
About 6 hours.
About 4 hours.
About 3 hours.
(1.00 score)
On-site and e-mail.

(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
choice questions?
Listening
Reading
Writing
(1.00 score)
Previous
Primer Parcial
FIRST TERM EXAM
FIRST TERM EXAM

Total score: 20.00
Open: since 23/06/2023 20:00 until 23/06/2023 21:30
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 8:11:42 PM

language contexts.
1 hour 30 minutes
50 minutes
60 minutes
E11. What will you find in the open cloze part of B2 First Paper 1?
You will find a text with some multiple-choice questions.
line.
You will find a text in which there are some gaps which represent missing
words.
missing sentences.
options.
line.
E16. How many parts does the Writing paper of B2 First exam have?
One part
Two parts
Three parts
E19. How many parts does the Paper 1 of C1 Advanced exam have?
Seven parts
Eight parts
Ten parts
English effectively
English effectively
English effectively
E65. What is the time required to take Paper 1: Reading and Use of English from the
FCE examination?
Previous
Primer Parcial
FIRST TERM EXAM
FIRST TERM EXAM

Total score: 20.00
Open: since 23/06/2023 20:00 until 23/06/2023 21:30
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 8:14:12 PM

language contexts.
examination?
Sixty minutes
Forty-minutes
Ninety minutes
Eighty minutes
examination?
Seventy multiple choice questions
Sixty multiple choice questions
Fifty multiple choice questions
Forty multiple choice questions
Four chapters
Five chapters
Three chapters
Word formation
Multiple choice
Writing
Listening
Autralia and UK
USA and Canada
from IELTS test?

Discussion
Collaborative task
Long turn
A1.
A2.
B1.
B2.
About 5 hours.
About 6 hours.
About 4 hours.
About 3 hours.
E72. How many words are required for writing in paper 2 in CAE examination?
From 200 to 260 words
E75. How long does the TOEFL online exam take?
4 hours
4 and a half hours
5 hours
E86. How many tasks are there in the Writing module of the IELTS?
One
Two
Three
Previous
FIRST PERIOD EXAM

Total score: 20.00
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 8:19:13 PM


(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
60 minutes
1 hour 15 minutes
1 hour 30 minutes
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
missing sentences.
options.
line.
(1.00 score)
1 hour 30 minutes
1 hour 15 minutes
1 hour 20 minutes
(1.00 score)

who know English.

(1.00 score)
Once
Twice
Three times
(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)

environment
(1.00 score)
English effectively
English effectively
English effectively
(1.00 score)
Autralia and UK
USA and Canada

(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
examination?
Ninety questions
(1.00 score)

structure

(1.00 score)
A1.
A2.
B1.
B2.
(1.00 score)
have?

(1.00 score)
E67. What is the time required to take Paper 3: Listening from the FCE examination?

(1.00 score)

(1.00 score)
choice questions?
Listening
Reading
Writing
(1.00 score)
Previous
First Term Exam
the correct answer.
Total score: 20.00
Open: since 23/06/2023 21:00 until 23/06/2023 22:30
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 9:20:59 PM

Four chapters
Five chapters
Three chapters

who know English.
Read the instructions and information about the texts and titles before starting
to answer.

environment


bussines activities
Specialized knowledge or vocabulary beyond that of a person who uses English

in everyday work activities
Candidate's ability to read in English and infere accurately responses to all of

Candidate's ability to understand English and provide an accurate response to

all of the questions included
Candidate's ability to scan English and obtain an accurate response to all of the
questions included
Candidate's ability to spell in English and express an accurate budget to all of

60 minutes
40 minutes
30 minutes
90 minutes
Two parts
Four parts
Three parts
E60. A good tip to solve the Reading Paper of B2 First exam is:
Start with the ones you are sure about and go back to the ones you are not sure
about later.
Choose an answer because you think it is true.
Guess, you can be lucky.
About 5 hours.
About 6 hours.
About 4 hours.
About 3 hours.
Skim and scan a text, identify the main idea, and understand vocabulary from
context.
Write grammatically correct sentences, use linking words, and review spelling
and grammar.
Concentrate on the speakers' intonation, and transfer answers to the answer

sheet.
Previous
Primer Parcial
First Term Exam
This exam contains 20 questions and it lasts 50 minutes. Read the questions and choose the correct answer.
Total score: 20.00
Open: since 23/06/2023 21:00 until 23/06/2023 22:30
Achievement
Date: 06/23/2023 9:13:30 PM

E7. What is Paper 1 in the B2 First exam?
Listening
Speaking
Open cloze
Word formation
Multiple-choice cloze
Writing
Listening
Three papers
Five papers
Four papers
E19. How many parts does the Paper 1 of C1 Advanced exam have?
Seven parts
Eight parts
Ten parts
Once
Twice
Three times
Specialized grammar or verbs beyond that of a student who uses English in everyday class activities
General writing or reading skills beyond that of a person who uses English in bussines activities
Specialized knowledge or vocabulary beyond that of a person who uses English in everyday work activities
Academic speaking or listening skills beyond that of a bussines man who uses English in everyday work
activities
E35. What is the minimum recommended time to begin studying for TOEFL test?
Eighteen weeks
Twelve weeks
Eight weeks
Eighty weeks
E49. What is the minimum length of words for the second task in the Writing section from IELTS test?
250 words
260 words
270 words
280 words
E69. What is the scale score from CAE examination?
180 - 190
170 - 180
170 - 189
180 - 199
E72. How many words are required for writing in paper 2 in CAE examination?

E84. What is the purpose of the IELTS Academic test?
To assess English proficiency for job applications
To evaluate English skills for immigration purposes
To measure English proficiency for university admission
Skim and scan a text, identify the main idea, and understand vocabulary from context.
Write grammatically correct sentences, use linking words, and review spelling and grammar.
Concentrate on the speakers' intonation, and transfer answers to the answer sheet.
Previous
8/20/23, 9:22 PM Sistema Virtual de Educación [Evaluations]
Segundo Parcial
Unit 5 Quiz TKT, Celta, Delta Available Aug 6th
This quiz contains 20 questions and lasts 30 minutes.

Total score: 20.00
Open: since 06/08/2023 21:00 until 06/08/2023 23:03
Achievement
Date: 08/06/2023 10:27:12 PM

TKT (Teaching Knowledge Test) is designed for which type of teachers?
Teachers of any subject
Teachers of English as a foreign language
Teachers of mathematics
Teachers of science
(1.00 score)
The purpose of the TKT exam is to focus on the core teaching knowledge needed by
teachers of:
Mathematics
English to speakers of other languages
History
Physical education
(1.00 score)
Which module of the TKT exam deals with "Language and background to language
learning and teaching"?
Module 1
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4
(1.00 score)
How many questions are there in the TKT exam for each module?
40 questions
60 questions
80 questions
100 questions
(1.00 score)
The TKT exam reports results in bands from 1 to 4. Which band represents limited
knowledge of the content areas tested?
Band 1
Band 2
Band 3
Band 4
(1.00 score)
What does TKT stand for?
Teaching Knowledge Test
Test of Knowledge in Teaching
Test for Language Teachers
Teaching Language Skills Test

(1.00 score)
How many tasks and questions are in TKT Module 1 (Part 1) - Describing language
and language skills?
Three tasks, 15 questions
Four tasks, 25 questions
Six tasks, 40 questions
Four parts, 80 questions

(1.00 score)
The TKT: CLIL module tests knowledge related to teaching subjects through the
medium of a non-native language. What does CLIL stand for?
Center for Language Instruction and Learning
Content and Language Integrated Learning
Comprehensive Language Instruction and Learning
Cooperative Learning and Integrated Language

(1.00 score)
In Module 3 of TKT, what are the topics covered regarding classroom management?
Vocabulary and grammar
Language skills and sub-skills
Learning and development in young learners
Strategies for keeping students organized and focused

(1.00 score)
How many tasks and questions are there in TKT Module 1 (Part 2) - Background to
language learning?
One task, 10 questions
Two tasks, 20 questions
Three tasks, 15 questions
Four tasks, 25 questions

(1.00 score)
What does "CELTA" stand for?
Certificate of English Language Testing Assessment
Certificate of English Language Teaching to Adults
Course of English Learning and Teaching Assessments
Course of English Linguistics and Teaching Applications

(1.00 score)
Who is the CELTA exam primarily designed for?
Experienced teachers with significant teaching experience
People with little or no previous teaching experience
Non-native speakers only
Employers seeking new teachers

(1.00 score)
What type of qualification does CELTA lead to?
Diploma
Certificate
Degree
License
(1.00 score)
Which of the following is NOT a component of the CELTA course?
Input
Teaching practice (six assessed hours)
Group discussions
Observation of experienced teachers

(1.00 score)
What is the primary mode of assessment for CELTA participants?

Written examinations
Group projects
Continuous assessment throughout the course
Final presentation
(1.00 score)
What does "DELTA" stand for?
Degree in English Language Teaching Assessment
Diploma in Teaching English to Adults
Diploma in Teaching English to speakers of other languages
Degree in English Language Testing Applications

(1.00 score)
DELTA is primarily granted to professionals who have the following:
Little teaching experience
No teaching experience
Ample experience in teaching
Experience in a different field

(1.00 score)
How many modules does DELTA consist of?
One module
Two modules
Three modules
Four modules
(1.00 score)
Which DELTA module is assessed through a written examination?
Module 1
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4
(1.00 score)
What does DELTA Module 3 assess?
Classroom management skills
Understanding language and methodology
Professional development and ELT specialism or English Language Teaching

Management
Lesson planning and resource development

(1.00 score)
Previous Next

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19/2/23, 15:51 Sistema Virtual de Educación [Evaluaciones]

Contenidos > Unidad > Evaluación

You will 50 minutes to solve the following 20 multiple choice questions.

Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:32:09

PE2. What is the university which developed TKT exam?

The University of Philadelphia

The University of Cambridge ESOL.

The University of Oxford.

PE8. How is the TKT exam done?

Four main modules and two specialized modules.

Three main modules and four specialized modules.

Two main modules and five specialized modules.

Three main modules and two specialized modules.

The highest Band.

The lowest Band.

The intermediate Band.

The high intermediate Band.

PE15. What is the third module of the TKT exam?

Managing the teaching and learning process.

Managing speaking and listening process.

Managing reading and writing process.

Managing assesment and evaluation process.

PE21. How many modules does DELTA exam consist of?

PE28. What are the ways for taking DELTA course?

DELTA can be taken as a face-to-face, online, blended or distance course.

DELTA can be taken as a face-to-face, onsite, blended or distance course.

DELTA can be taken as a face-to-face, online or distance course.

DELTA can be taken as a face-to-face, blended or distance course.

PE31. What is the age required for taking CELTA course?

It consists of a single paper containing 80 questions in two parts.

It consists of a single paper containing 90 questions in three parts.

It consists of a single paper containing 100 questions in four parts.

It consists of a single paper containing 120 questions in five parts.

the role of error

PE50. What is the second modele from the DELTA course:

Developing professional practice.

Improving listening skills.

Contrasting L1 and L2.

Improving productive skills in English

PE51. GRE and GMAT are exams aimed at:

professionals who want to study in the United States.

professionals who want to study in the United Kingdom

professionals who want to study in Argentina.

PE54. The required test for Master Business Schools is:

PE84. The computer based CPA examination consists of:

Two basic question formats.

Three basic question formats.

Four basic question formats.

PE87. What is the minimum passing score in CPA test?

PE90. Written communication tasks of CPA count for:

50% of the total score

35% ot the total score

15% of the total score

Ten multiple-choice questions as well as eight task-based simulations that use

Contenidos > Unidad > Evaluación

You will 50 minutes to solve the following 20 multiple choice questions.

Fecha: 19-feb-2023 15:15:19

PE4. What is the meaning of the acronym DELTA exam?

Distinction in Learning English to Listeners of Other Languages.

Dialogues in Approching English as International Language.

Diagnostic Evaluation of English as Native Language.

Diploma in Teaching English to Speakers of Other Languages.

PE5. Who is DELTA exam for?