CARE OF MOTHER QUIZ – Labor related
A client attending the prenatal clinic for
quiz
1. Which of the following preparations is
NOT an appropriate prophylactic agent for
Ophthalmia Neonatorum?
ANS: Gentian Violet Solution
2. The nurse is aware that the age at
which the posterior fontanelle closes is
_____ months.
ANS: 2-3 months
3. Which of the following suggestions is
mostly helpful in relieving early morning
nausea when it occurs?
ANS: Eat a little soda cracker before
arising.
4. If client D attempts to bear down with
contractions during the first stage of
labor, the MOST LIKELY result is that the
cervix will manifest which of the
following ?
ANS: Become swollen
5. An evidence-based practice in
Maternal and Child health is the
integrations of ALL of the following
EXCEPT:
ANS: None of the above
(Client’s values, Best research evidences,
Clinical expertise)
6. When Ms. Y is admitted to the hospital
in early active labor, the following signs
are present : 3 cmsdilatred with
effacement of 85%; presenting part at
station minus 1, In view of this findings,
which of the following actions should the
nurse take first?
ANS: Check the client’s blood pressure
and fetal heart rate.
7.
the first time tells the nurse that her last
menstrual cycle began on January 11 the
client also states that she had a one day of
light spotting on February 7, the client is
expected day of delivery is which of the
following choices?
ANS: October 18
8. The benefits of a skin to skin contact
during delivery are all of the following
EXCEPT:
ANS: Makes the delivery staff more relax
due to less work load
9. Client H believes that she is pregnant.
Which of the following is NOT a
presumptive sign of pregnancy?
ANS: None of the above
(amenorrhea, n&v, breast changes)
10. A client in early labor is receiving
oxytocin. When observing a deceleration
in the Fetal heart tone, the nurse should
first do which of the following ?
ANS: Place her on her left side
11. Which of the following reason the
nurse explains that frequency of urination
is common during the first 3 months of
pregnancy?
ANS: Pressure on the bladder from the
enlarging uterus.
12. When the nurse accidentally bumps
the crib, Baby F throws out his arms and
legs and begin to cry. The reflex Baby F is
demonstrating is which of the following
reflex?
ANS: Moro Reflex
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13. Which of the following explanations ANS: April 20
should the nurse to explain that heartburn
19. To instill a medication properly into
is due to?
Baby F’s eyes, where in the eye should a
ANS: A backflow of stomach contents medication be placed first?
into the esophagus.
ANS: At the inner canthus
14. Ms. F uses rooming-in. The rooming-in
20. Ms. P. 20 years old, consults the clinic
method od caring for newborns has been
and states that she has no menstruation
developed on the principles that rooming-
for two months. She claims that this is her
in?
second pregnancy but her first was an
ANS: Provides opportunities for abortion. Which of the following terms
developing a positive relationship refer to Ms. P ?
between the mother and baby.
ANS: Nullipara
15. A client attending the prenatal clinic
21. If Ms. Y enjoyed all of the following
for the first time tells the nurse that her
activities, which of the following should
last menstrual cycle began on January 11
be taught to discontinue at about the
the client also states that she had a one
beginning of her seventh month of
day of light spotting on February 7, the
pregnancy?
client is expected day of delivery is which
of the following choices? ANS: Horseback riding
ANS: October 18 22. Ms. Y asks how long she will be in
labor. All of the following factors will
16. Ms. P. 20 years old, consults the clinic
influence the length of her labor EXCEPT:
and states that she has no menstruation
for two months. She claims that this is her ANS: Size of the placenta
second pregnancy but her first was an
23. Immediately following the birth of Ms.
abortion. Which of the following terms
Y’s baby , the nurse should carry out all of
refer to Ms. P ?
the following EXCEPT:
ANS: Nullipara
ANS: Removing the cord clamp
17. Client H believes that she is pregnant.
24. Approximately 10 minutes after
Which of the following is NOT a
delivery, Ms. G experience chill. Which of
presumptive sign of pregnancy?
the following actions is MOST
ANS: None of the above APPROPRIATE for the nurse to take?
18. Ms. MDY consulted her physician after ANS: Cover the client with additional
missing three menstrual periods. She was blanket
found to be pregnant.Since July 13 was
25. Which of the following measures by
the first day ofMs Y’s last menstrual
the nurse will help Ms. Y to relax during
period, her estimated date of delivery,
her pelvic examination?
according to Naegele’s rule is which of
the following? ANS: Helping her to do deep breathing

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QUIZ for Care for Mother – Prenatal –
Postnatal
1. An estimate used to determine the
Expected Date of Delivery (EDD) from the
first day of the woman's Last Menstrual
Period (LMP)
ANS: Naegele’s rule
2. The progress of placental separation
inward from the edges, presenting the
maternal surface of the placenta on
expulsion.
ANS: Duncan Mechanism
3. refers to a woman who is pregnant for
the first time.
ANS: Primigravida
4. also known as the pregnancy line, is a
dark line that develops across the
abdomen of a pregnant woman.
ANS: Linea Nigra
5. It refers to the softening of the cervix.
ANS: Goodell’s sign
6. A presumptive sign of pregnancy where
there is a bluish discoloration of the
vaginal mucosa and cervix.
ANS: Chadwick's sign
7. It refers to the softening of the lower
segment of the uterus .
ANS: Hegar's sign
8. An estimate used to determine the AOG
by the relative position of the uterus in
the abdominal cavity
ANS: Bartholomew's rule
9. The maximum amount of blood loss
during the third stage of labor is Answer
250-350ml – Answer is 500ML
10. An estimate used to determine the
age of gestation in weeks by the fundic
height.
ANS: McDonald’s rule
11. refers to a woman who has never
been and is not currently pregnant
ANS: Nullipara
12. The number of cotyledons in a normal
placenta is Answer
15-20 cotyledons – answer sa LMS
Sa ppt – 15-25 cotyledons
13. is a proposed condition in which an
expectant father experiences some of the
same symptoms and behavior as his
pregnant partner
ANS: Couvade syndrome
14. This test of fetal well-being combines
a nonstress test with ultrasound.
ANS: biophysical profile
15. are indented streaks that often appear
on the abdomen, breasts, hips, buttocks,
and thighs of a pregnant woman.
ANS: Striae gravidarum
16. It refers to the relationship of the long
axis of the fetus in relation to the long axis
of the mother.
ANS: Fetal lie
17. A Leopold's maneuver that helps the
examiner to differentiate whether a fetal
presentation is either cephalic or breech
ANS: LM1
18. It is white, thick and sticky vaginal
discharge common during pregnancy as
well as other times during a woman’s
reproductive years.
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ANS: Leukorrhea
19. is an instrument that you used to
listen for FHR at 12th
ANS: Doppler
QUIZ FOR – PRENATAL
1.Prenatal testing for the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is
recommended for which of the following
clients?
ANS: All women, regardless of risk
factors.
2. Which symptom is considered a first-
trimester warning sign and should be
reported immediately by the pregnant
woman to her health care provider?
ANS: Vaginal bleeding
3. The nurse sees a woman for the first
time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The
woman has smoked throughout the
pregnancy, and fundal height
measurements now are suggestive of
growth restriction in the fetus. In addition
to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what
would be another tool useful in
confirming the diagnosis?
ANS: Doppler blood flow analysis
4. Which of the following refers to the
mucous plug that forms in the
endocervical canal?
ANS: Operculum.
5. A number of changes in the
integumentary system occur during
pregnancy. What change persists after
birth?
ANS: Striae gravidarum
6. Which of the following hormones is
essential for maintaining pregnancy?
ANS: Progesterone
7. A woman has come to the clinic for
preconception counseling because she
wants to start trying to get pregnant in 3
months. Which of the following advices to
the client is expected?
ANS: "Make sure that you include
adequate folic acid in your diet."
8. During a client's physical examination
the nurse notes that the lower uterine
segment is soft on palpation. The nurse
would document this finding as which of
the following?
ANS: Hegar’s sign
9. With regard to protein in the diet of
pregnant women, which of the following
should nurses be aware of?
ANS: Many protein-rich foods are also
good sources of calcium, iron, and B
vitamins.
10. The phenomenon of someone other
than the mother-to-be experiencing
pregnancy- like symptoms such as nausea
and weight gain applies to which of the
following?
ANS: Expectant father
11. Which of the following is TRUE for
women with hyperemesis gravidarum?
ANS: Women have vomiting severe and
persistent enough to cause weight loss,
dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance.
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12. A 22-year-old woman pregnant with a
single fetus has a preconception body
mass index (BMI) of 24. When she was
seen in the clinic at 14 weeks of gestation,
she had gained 1.8 kg (4 lb) since
conception. How would the nurse
interpret this?
ANS: The woman's weight gain is
appropriate for this stage of pregnancy.
13. Which blood pressure (BP) finding
during the second trimester indicates a
risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension?
ANS: Baseline BP 100/70, current BP
130/85
14. A 40-year-old woman is 10 weeks
pregnant. Which diagnostic tool would be
appropriate to suggest to her at this time?
ANS: Transvaginal ultrasound
15. Which of the following describes a
woman who has completed one
pregnancy with a fetus (or fetuses)
reaching the stage of fetal viability ?
ANS: primipara
QUIZ FOR CARE OF MOTHER
Antepartum
1. A 16-year-old, G1 P0000, is being seen
at her 10-week gestation visit. She tells
the nurse that she felt the baby move that
morning. Which of the following
responses by the nurse is appropriate?
Ans: "Would you please describe what
you felt for me?"
2. A client asks the nurse what was meant
when the physician told her she had a
positive Chadwick sign. Which of the
following information about the finding
would be appropriate for the nurse to
convey at this time?
ANS: "It is a bluish coloration of your
cervix."
3. A client enters the prenatal clinic. She
states that she believes she is pregnant.
Which of the following hormone
elevations will indicate a high probability
that the client is pregnant?
ANS: Chorionic gonadotropin.
4. A client is in the 10th week of her
pregnancy. Which of the following
symptoms would the nurse expect the
client to exhibit?
ANS: Urinary Frequency
5. A client makes the following statement
after fi nding out that her pregnancy test
is positive, "This is not a good time. I am in
college and the baby will be due during
final exams!" Which of the following
responses by the nurse would be most
appropriate at this time?
ANS: "It sounds like you're feeling a little
overwhelmed right now."
– 6. A first-time mother at 18 weeks of
gestation is in for her regularly scheduled
prenatal visit. The client tells the nurse
that she is afraid that she is going into
premature labor because she is beginning
to have regular contractions. Which of the
following correctly describes what
Braxton Hicks is ?
ANS: Braxton Hicks sign is a painless type
of contraction.
7. A gravida, G1 P0000, is having her first
prenatal physical examination. Which of
the following assessments should the
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nurse inform the client that she will have
that day?
1. Pap smear.
2. Mammogram.
3. Glucose tolerance test.
4. Biophysical profi le.
5. Complete blood count.
Ans: 1 and 5
8. A multigravid client is 22 weeks
pregnant. Which of the following
symptoms would the nurse expect the
client to exhibit?
ANS: Leg cramping.
9. A nurse is advising a pregnant woman
about the danger signs of pregnancy. The
nurse should teach the mother that she
should notify the physician immediately if
she experiences which of the following
signs/symptoms?
1. Convulsions.
2. Double vision.
3. Epigastric pain.
4. Persistent vomiting.
5. Polyuria.
ANS: 1, 2, 3, & 4
10. A woman states that she frequently
awakens with "painful leg cramps" during
the night. Which of the following
assessments should the nurse make?
ANS: Woman's exercise schedule
11. Because nausea and vomiting are such
common complaints of pregnant women,
the nurse provides anticipatory guidance
to a 6 week gestation client by telling her
to do which of the following?
ANS: Avoid eating greasy foods.
12. During a preconception counseling
session, the nurse encourages a couple to
prepare a birth plan. Which of the
following is the most important goal for
this action?
ANS: Promote communication between
the couple and healthcare professionals.
13. The nurse is caring for a pregnant
client who is a vegan. Which of the
following foods should the nurse suggest
the client consume as substitutes for
restricted foods?
ANS: Tofu, legumes, broccoli.
14. The nurse midwife tells a client that
the baby is growing and that ballottement
was evident during the vaginal
examination. How should the nurse
explain what the nurse midwife means by
ballottement?
ANS: The nurse midwife felt the baby
rebound after being pushed.
15. When analyzing the need for health
teaching of a prenatal multigravida, the
nurse should ask which of the following
questions?
ANS: "Do you ever drink alcohol?"
16. Which of the following vital sign
changes should the nurse highlight for a
pregnant woman's obstetrician?
ANS: Prepregnancy blood pressure (BP)
100/60 and third trimester BP 140/90.
6

QUIZ - INTRAPARTUM
1. A client in labor is talkative and happy.
How many centimeters dilated would a
maternity nurse suspect that the client is
at this time?
ANS: 2 cm
2. A client in labor, G2 P1001, was
admitted 1 hour ago at 2 cm dilated and
50% effaced. She was talkative and
excited at that time. During the past 10
minutes she has become serious, closing
her eyes and breathing rapidly with each
contraction. Which of the following is an
accurate nursing assessment of the
situation?
ANS: The client is exhibiting an expected
behavior for labor.
3. A client is in the third stage of labor.
Which of the following assessments
should the nurse make/observe for?
ANS: Uterus rising in the abdomen and
feeling globular.
4. A nurse concludes that a woman is in
the latent phase of labor. Which of the
following signs/symptoms would lead a
nurse to that conclusion?
ANS: The woman talks and laughs during
contractions.
5. A nurse is caring for a laboring woman
who is in transition. Which of the
following signs/symptoms would indicate
that the woman is progressing into the
second stage of labor?
1. Bulging perineum.
2. Increased bloody show.
3. Spontaneous rupture of the
membranes.
4. Uncontrollable urge to push.
5. Inability to breathe through
contractions.
ANS: 1, 2, 4
6. A nurse is coaching a woman who is in
the second stage of labor. Which of the
following should the nurse encourage the
woman to do?
ANS: Take a slow cleansing breath before
bearing down.
7. A nurse is educating a pregnant woman
regarding the moves a fetus makes during
the birthing process. Please place the
following cardinal movements of labor in
the order the nurse should inform the
client that the fetus will make:
1. Descent.
2. Expulsion.
3. Extension.
4. External rotation.
5. Internal rotation.
ANS: 1, 5, 3, 4, 2
8. A primigravida is pushing with
contractions. The nurse notes that the
woman's perineum is beginning to bulge
and that there is an increase in bloody
show. Which of the following actions by
the nurse is appropriate at this time?
ANS: Continue to provide encouragement
during each contraction.
9. A woman had a baby by normal
spontaneous delivery 10 minutes ago. The
nurse notes that a gush of blood was just
expelled from the vagina and the umbilical
cord lengthened. What should the nurse
conclude?
7

ANS: The woman is about to deliver the
placenta.
10. A woman who is in active labor is told by
her obstetrician, "Your baby is in the flexed
attitude." When she asks the nurse what that
means, what should the nurse say?
ANS: The baby's chin is resting on its chest.
11. During delivery, the nurse notes that the
baby's head has just been delivered. The
nurse concludes that the baby has just gone
through which of the following cardinal
moves of labor?
ANS: Extension
12. On examination of a full-term primipara, a
labor nurse notes: active labor, right
occipitoanterior (ROA), 7 cm dilated, and +3
station. Which of the following should the
nurse report to the physician?
ANS: Descent is progressing well.
13. One hour ago, a multipara was examined
with the following results: 8 cm, 50%
effaced, and +1 station. She is now pushing
with contractions and the fetal head is seen at
the vaginal introitus. The nurse concludes that
the client is now:
ANS: 10 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and +5
station.
14. The labor and delivery nurse performs
Leopold maneuvers. A soft round mass is felt
in the fundal region. A flat object is noted on
the left and small objects are noted on the
right of the uterus. A hard round mass is
noted above the symphysis. Which of the
following positions is consistent with these
findings?
ANS: Left occipital anterior (LOA).
15. The major distinction between true labor
and false labor is that when true labor is
present, the client will demonstrate which of
the following?
ANS: Progressive dilatation of the cervix with
effacement.
16. The nurse checks client's blood pressure
between contractions, which of the following
is primarily is rationale?
ANS: The blood pressure normally increases
during contraction.
17. The nurse is assessing a client who states,
"I think I'm in labor." Which of the following fi
ndings would positively confirm the client's
belief?
ANS: Her cervix has dilated from 2 to 4 cm.
18. The nurse is performing a vaginal
examination on a client in labor. The client is
found to be 5 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and
station –2. Which of the following has the
nurse palpated?
ANS: thin cervix
19. The nurse sees the fetal head through the
vaginal introitus when a woman pushes. The
nurse, interpreting this finding, tells the client,
"You are pushing very well." In addition, the
nurse could also state which of the following?
ANS: "The baby is almost crowning."
20. The physician orders that client Z have
only fluids during labor. Which of the
following is the primary reason explains why?
ANS: The digestive process is normally slower
during labor.
21. When during the latent phase of labor
should the nurse assess the fetal heart
pattern of a low-risk woman, G1 P0000?
1. After vaginal examinations.
2. Before administration of analgesics.
3. Periodically at the end of a contraction.
4. Every ten minutes.
5. Before ambulating.
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ANS: 1, 2, 3, 5

22. Which of the following pictures depicts a

fetus in the frank breech position?

ANS:

23. Which of the following pictures

depicts a fetus in the LSA position?
ANS:

24. Which of the following pictures

depicts a fetus in the ROP position?
ANS:

25. While performing Leopold maneuvers

on a woman in labor, the nurse palpates a
hard round mass in the fundal area, a flat
surface on the left side, small objects on
the right side, and a soft round mass just
above the symphysis. Which of the
following is a reasonable conclusion by
the nurse?
ANS: The fetal lie is vertical.

9

ANOTHER TEST SA PHARMACOLOGY
1. As part of patient Onyx maintenance
for his heart condition, doctor Pasia
ordered Ramipril 2.5 mg once daily. The
only available stock is 10 mg per tablet.
How many tablets should patient Onyx be
instructed to take each day?
ANS: 1/4 tablet
2. The order is Ampicillin 0.4mg/kg.
Patient weighs 38.5 pounds. The bottle
reads Ampicillin 10mg/ml. How many
milliliters should the nurse administer?
ANS: 0.7 ml
3. A nurse is preparing to administer
dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 500 mL IV to
infuse over 4 hr.
The nurse should set the IV infusion pump
to deliver how many mL/hr?
ANS: 125 ml/hour
4. A nurse is preparing to administer
phenytoin (Dilantin) 0.2 g PO every 8 hr.
The amount available is phenytoin 100
mg/capsule. How many capsules should
the nurse administer per dose?
ANS: 2 capsules
5. A nurse on a medical unit is admitting a
client and completing a preassessment
before administration of medications.
Which of the following data should NOT
be included in the preassessment?
ANS: Daily fluid intake
7. A client is receiving 250 mL normal
saline IV over 4 hours, using tubing with a
drip factor of 10 drops/mL. How many
drops per minute should be delivered?
ANS: 10 gtts/min
8. A nurse is providing instructions to a
client who is receiving warfarin sodium
(Coumadin). Which statement made by
the client indicates the need for further
instruction?
ANS: "I will take Ecotrin (Enteric coated
aspirin) for my headaches".
9. The doctor orders Ibuprofen 500mg for
your patient. The available stock is 250 mg
tablets. How many tablets will you
administer?
ANS: 2 tablets
10. Which of the following is part of a
complete medication history?
ANS: Use of OTC drugs
10
11. A nurse is orienting a newly hired
nurse and discussing how to take a
telephone prescription. Which of the
following statements by the newly hired
nurse indicates understanding of the
discussion?
ANS: “Another nurse should listen to the
phone call.”
12. A nurse is preparing to administer
haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg PO every 12 hr.
The amount available is haloperidol 1
mg/tablet. How many tablets should the
nurse administer?
ANS: 2 tablets
13. A nurse is preparing a client’s
medications. Which of the following is
NOT a legal responsibility of the nurse?
ANS: Formulating a medical diagnosis
14. Prescribed medications are prepared
and administered during which phase of
the nursing process?
ANS: Implementation
15. A physician orders 1 unit of packed
red blood cells to infuse over 4 hours. The
unit of blood contains 250 ml. The drop
factor is 10 drops per 1 ml. A nurse
prepares to set the flow rate at how many
drips per minute?
ANS: 10 gtts/min
16. Administer heparin 5,000 units I.V.
push. Available is heparin 10,000
units/mL. How many mL will you need to
administer to achieve a 5,000 unit dose?
ANS: 0.5 ml
17. A nurse is preparing to administer
furosemide (Lasix) 80 mg PO daily. The
amount available is furosemide oral
solution 40 mg/5 mL. How many mL
should the nurse administer?
ANS: 10 ml
18. Patient Cutiepie weighs 200 lbs. and
Doctor Pogiboy orders to infuse 250 mg
Dobutamine in 500 ml PNSS at 10
mcg/kg/min. How many milligrams of
Dobutamine will be infused per hour?
ANS: 54.5 mg/hour
19. Dr. Pedro orders your patient to
receive 125 ml of D5W an hour for the
next 8 hours. nursing unit uses tubing
with a drop factor of 10 drops/ml. Which
of the following drip rate per minute
should your IV therapy be set?
ANS: 21 ml
20. Amoxicillin 625 mg PO is ordered for
patient Babykong. It is supplied as a liquid
preparation containing 250 mg in 5 ml.
How much would nurse Danes
administer?
ANS: 12.5 ml
21. A nurse is preparing to administer
cefixime (Suprax) 8 mg/kg/day PO divided
in equal doses every 12 hr to a toddler
who weighs 22 lb. The amount available is
cefixime suspension 100 mg/5 mL. How
many mL should the nurse administer per
dose?
11
ANS: 2 ml

22. A nurse is reviewing a client’s health

record and notes a new prescription by
the provider for lisinopril
(Zestril) 10 mg PO every day. The nurse
should recognize this as which of the
following types of prescription?
ANS: Routine Prescription
23. A nurse is preparing to administer
erythromycin estolate 0.25 g PO every 6
hr. The amount available is erythromycin
estolate oral suspension 250 mg/mL. How
many mL should the nurse administer per
dose?
ANS: 1 ml

24. Which of the following is the most

common method of calculating doses for
pediatric patients?
ANS: Base on weight
25. Which of the following terms
describes the units of measure by which
the nurse gauges the effectiveness of drug
therapy?
ANS: Expected outcomes

12
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