2023 Fs Physci MCQ & Memo - p1&2 - GRD 12

Physical Sciences P1 (Physics) Grade 12 © Free State Department of Education 2023
TABLE OF CONTENTS
NEWTON’S LAWS 2
VERTICAL MOTION 9
MOMENTUM AND IMPULSE 19
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER 28
DOPPLER EFFECT 35
ELECTROSTATICS 40
ELECTRIC CIRCUITS 48
ALTERNATING CURRENT AND ELECTRICAL MACHINES 59
OPTICAL PHENOMENA 66
CREDITS
The following question papers were used to compile this
book:
Department of Basic Education, National Senior
Certificate Question Papers Physical Sciences,
2008 – 2022, Pretoria
Multiple-choice questions ║ 1 ║
NEWTON’S LAWS
1. Two forces, each of magnitude 200 N, are simultaneously applied to a crate at rest on a
horizontal surface as shown in the diagram below. Ignore the effects of friction.
Work will be done by the net force on the crate because the crate will …
A be lifted off the surface. B accelerate to the left.
C accelerate to the right. D remain at rest. (2)
Sept 2008
2. The net force acting on an object is equal to the ...
A mass of the object.
B acceleration of the object.
C change in momentum of the object.
D rate of change in momentum of the object. (2)
Nov 2012
3. Which ONE of the following is an example of a contact force?
A Frictional force B Magnetic force
C Electrostatic force D Gravitational force (2)
March 2013
4. The free-body diagram below shows the relative magnitudes and directions of all the
forces acting on an object moving horizontally in an easterly direction.
normal force
N
frictional force applied force W E

⚫
S
weight
The kinetic energy of the object ...
A is zero. B increases.
C decreases. D remains constant. (2)
Nov 2013
5. The net force acting on an object is directly proportional to the ...
A mass of the object.
B acceleration of the object.
D rate of change in momentum of the object. (2)
Exemplar 2014
6. Which ONE of the following physical quantities is a measure of the inertia of a body?
A Mass B Energy
C Velocity D Acceleration (2)
Nov 2014
7. The magnitude of the gravitational force exerted by one body on another body is F.
When the distance between the centres of the two bodies is doubled, the magnitude of
the gravitational force, in terms of F, will now be …
1 1
A F B F C 2F D 4F (2)
4 2
Nov 2014
8. Which ONE of the following forces always acts perpendicular to the surface on which
a body is placed?
A Normal force B Frictional force
C Gravitational force D Tension force (2)
March 2015
9. A horizontal force F is applied to a crate, causing it to move over a rough, horizontal

surface as shown below.
The kinetic frictional force between the crate and the surface on which it is moving
depends on …
A the applied force F.
B the surface area of the crate in contact with the floor.
C how fast the crate moves on the surface.
D the upward force exerted by the surface on the crate. (2)
June 2015
10. Two isolated bodies, A and B, having masses m and 2m respectively, are placed a
distance r apart.
B
A
m 2m
r
Consider the following statements regarding the gravitational force exerted by the
bodies on each other.
(i) The force exerted by B on body A is half that exerted by A on body B.
(ii) The force exerted on the bodies is independent of the masses of the bodies.
(iii) The force exerted on body A by B is equal but opposite to that exerted on body B
by A.
(iv) The forces will always be attractive.
Which of the statements above is/are TRUE?
A (i), (ii) and (iv) only B (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
C (iii) and (iv) only D (iv) only (2)
March 2015
11. An object is placed on a bathroom scale in a lift which is stationary on the third floor of a
building. The reading on the scale will be greatest when the lift ...
A accelerates downward.
B accelerates upward.
C moves upward at constant speed.
D moves downward at constant speed. (2)
June 2015
12. Two forces, F1 and F2, are applied on a crate lying on a frictionless, horizontal
surface, as shown in the diagram below.
The magnitude of force F1 is greater than that of force F2. N
F1 F2 W E
S
The crate will …
A accelerate towards the east.
B accelerate towards the west.
C move at a constant speed towards the east.
D move at a constant speed towards the west. (2)
Nov 2015
13. A person stands on a bathroom scale that is calibrated in newton, in a stationary elevator.
The reading on the bathroom scale is W.
1
The elevator now moves with a constant upward acceleration of g, where g is the
4
gravitational acceleration. What will the reading on the bathroom scale be now?
1 3 5
A W B W C W D W (2)
4 4 4
Nov 2015
14. A net force F which acts on a body of mass m causes an acceleration a.
If the same net force F is applied to a body of mass 2m, the acceleration of the
body will be …
A ¼a B ½a C 2a D 4a (2)
March 2016
15. Two objects of masses 2m and m are arranged as shown in the diagram below.
2m m
d
Which ONE of the changes below will produce the GREATEST increase in the gravitational
force exerted by the one mass on the other?
A Double the larger mass.
B Halve the smaller mass.
C Double the distance between the masses.
D Halve the distance between the masses. (2)
March 2016
16. An object, of mass m, hangs at the end of a string from the ceiling of a lift cage.
The lift is moving upward at CONSTANT SPEED. The acceleration due to gravity is g.
m constant speed
Which ONE of the following statements regarding the tension (T) in the string is
CORRECT? The tension T …
A will be equal to mg.
B will be less than mg.
C will be greater than mg.
D cannot be determined without knowing the speed of the lift cage. (2)
June 2016
17. Two hypothetical planets, X and Y, have the same mass. The diameter of planet Y is
twice that of planet X. If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet X is g,
then the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet Y will be …
g g g
A B C D 2g (2)
16 4 2
June 2016
18. The tendency of an object to remain at rest or to continue in its uniform motion in a
straight line is known as …
A inertia. B acceleration.
C Newton's Third Law. D Newton's Second Law. (2)
Nov 2016
19. The mass of an astronaut on Earth is M. At a height equal to twice the radius of the Earth,
the mass of the astronaut will be …
1 1
A
4
M B M
9
C M D 2M (2)
Nov 2016
20. According to Newton's Second Law of Motion, the acceleration of an object is …
A independent of its mass.
B always equal to its mass.
C directly proportional to its mass.
D inversely proportional to its mass. (2)
March 2017
21. The diagram below shows three blocks, P, Q and R, suspended from a ceiling. The blocks
are identical, stationary and have the same mass but are at different heights above the
ground. The connecting strings are massless and inextensible. The tensions in the strings
attached to blocks P, Q and R are TP, TQ and TR respectively.
ceiling
TP
TQ
TR
ground
Which ONE of the following statements about the tensions is CORRECT?

A TP > TQ > TR B TP < TQ < TR
C TP = TQ = TR D TP > TQ and TQ < TR (2)
March 2017
22. A constant net force acts on a trolley. According to Newton's Second Law, the
acceleration of the trolley is … the mass of the trolley.
A equal to B independent of
C directly proportional to D inversely proportional to (2)
June 2017
23. The weight of a man on the surface of the Earth is w. Planet X has the same radius as the
Earth, but half the mass of the Earth. If the same man goes to Planet X, his weight on the
surface will be …
A ¼w B ½w C w D 2w (2)
June 2017
24. The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is greater than that on the moon.
Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?
A The weight of an object on Earth is the same as that on the moon.
B The mass of an object on Earth is the same as that on the moon.
C The mass of an object on Earth is greater than that on the moon.
D The weight of an object on Earth is less than that on the moon. (2)
Nov 2017
25. The force diagram below shows the forces acting on a box.
Which ONE of the following equations for the magnitude of the normal force (N) is
CORRECT?
A N = w + Fcosθ B N = w + Fsinθ
C N = w – Fcosθ D N = w – Fsinθ (2)
Nov 2017
26. A constant horizontal force F is applied to a box resting on a horizontal, frictionless surface.
Which ONE of the following statements regarding force F is CORRECT?
Force F will cause the box to move with …
A constant acceleration. B constant velocity.
C constant kinetic energy. D constant momentum. (2)
March 2018
27. A block rests on a table. The table stands on a concrete floor. The normal force is
represented by N, as shown in the diagram below.
Which ONE of the following forces will form an action-reaction pair with the
normal force (N)?
A Force of the block on the Earth
B Force of the block on the table
C Force of the table surface on the block
D Force of the block on the concrete floor (2)
March 2018
28. The net (resultant) force acting on an object is equal to the ... of the object in the
direction of the net force.
A change in momentum
B change in kinetic energy
C rate of change of momentum
D rate of change of kinetic energy (2)
June 2018
29. A physical quantity that is described as a measure of the resistance of a body to a
change in motion is called …
A inertia. B force. C acceleration. D weight. (2)
June 2018
30. Inertia is the tendency of an object to …
A maintain its mass.
B continue in a state of non-uniform motion.
C remain at rest or in the state of uniform motion.
D maintain its velocity when a non-zero net force is acting on it. (2)
Nov 2018
31. A person stands on a bathroom scale that is fixed to the floor of a lift, as shown in the
diagram below.
The reading on the scale is largest when the lift moves …

A upwards at a constant speed.
B downwards at a constant speed.
C upwards at a increasing speed.
D downwards at a increasing speed. (2)
Nov 2018
32. A car is moving at a constant velocity. Which ONE of the following statements
about the forces acting on the car is CORRECT?
A The net force acting on the car is zero.
B There are no forces acting on the car.
C The weight of the car is equal to the normal force acting on the car.
D There is a non-zero net force acting on the car. (2)
June 2019
33. The graph below, not drawn to scale, shows the relationship between the gravitational
force on a given mass and its distance from the centre of Earth.
The magnitude of the force on the mass at a distance R from the centre of Earth is F.
Which ONE of the following is the CORRECT representation of the magnitude of force x
shown on the graph?
1 1
A 6F B 12F C F D F (2)
6 36
June 2019
34. The gravitational acceleration on the surface of a planet of radius R is g.
The gravitational acceleration at a height of 2R above the surface of the same
planet is …
g g
A B C 4g D 9g (2)
9 4
Nov 2019
35. The gravitational acceleration on the surface of planet X with mass M and radius r is g.
The gravitational acceleration on the surface of planet Y with mass 2M and radius ½r is …
A ½g B g C 4g D 8g (2)
Nov 2020
36. The weight of an object on the surface of the Earth is w. What will be the weight of the
object on the surface of another planet of the SAME mass as that of the Earth, but
TWICE the radius of the Earth?
1 1
A w B w C 2w D 4w (2)
4 2
June 2021
37. Consider the statement below.

The perpendicular force exerted by a surface on an object in contact with the surface.
Which ONE of the following forces is defined by the statement above?
A Normal force B Resultant force
C Frictional force D Gravitational force (2)
Nov 2021
38. A bucket is at rest on a table.
Which ONE of the following is the reaction force to the weight of the bucket, as described
by Newton's Third Law?
A Force of the table on Earth
B Force of the bucket on Earth
C Force of the bucket on the table
D Force of the table on the bucket (2)
June 2022
39. Object X exerts a gravitational force F on object Y when the distance between the centres
of the objects is r. The distance r is now DOUBLED.
Which ONE of the following represents the gravitational force that X now exerts on Y?
1 1
A F B F C 2F D 4F (2)
4 2
June 2022
40. Which ONE of the following combinations consists of only SCALAR quantities?
A Velocity, speed and time
B Time, distance and speed
C Acceleration, speed and distance
D Displacement, velocity and acceleration (2)
Nov 2022
41. The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is g. Which ONE of the following represents
the acceleration due to gravity on a planet that has TWICE the mass and HALF the
radius of the earth?
1
A 2
𝑔 B 2𝑔 C 4𝑔 8𝑔 (2)
Nov 2022
VERTICAL MOTION
1. A stone is dropped from the edge of a cliff. Which ONE of the following graphs best
represents the change in kinetic energy of the stone during its fall?
A Ek B Ek
t(s) t(s)
C Ek D Ek
t(s) t(s)
(2)
Exemplar (2) 2008
2. A stone is thrown vertically upwards and returns to the thrower's hand after a while.
Which ONE of the following position-versus-time graphs best represents the motion of
the stone?
A B
Position (m)
Position (m)
Time (s) Time (s)

C D
Position (m)
Position (m)
Time (s) Time (s)

(2)
Nov 2009
3. A person dives from a high platform into a pool. At which ONE of the positions
A, B, C or D will the magnitude of his momentum be a maximum?
C
●
●D
●B
●A
A Position A B Position B
C Position C D Position D (2)
Nov (2) (2009)
4. A stone is thrown vertically upwards and returns to the thrower's hand after a while.
Which ONE of the following velocity-time graphs best represents the motion of the stone?
A B
Velocity (m∙s-1 )
Velocity (m∙s-1)
Time (s) Time (s)
C D
Velocity (m∙s-1)
Velocity (m∙s-1)
Time (s) Time (s)
(2)
March 2010
5. An object projected vertically upwards reaches its maximum height and returns to its
original point of projection. Ignoring the effects of friction, the direction of the
acceleration of the object during its motion is …
A always vertically downwards.
B first vertically upwards and then vertically downwards.
C first vertically downwards and then vertically upwards.
D always vertically upwards. (2)
Nov 2010
6. A ball is released from rest from a certain height above the floor and bounces off the floor
a number of times. The position-time graph below represents the motion of the bouncing
ball from the instant it is released from rest.
A C
●
position (m)
●
●
D
●
B
time (s)
Neglecting air resistance, which point (A, B, C or D) on the graph represents the position-
time coordinates of the maximum height reached by the ball after the SECOND bounce?
A A B B
C C D D (2)
Nov 2011
7. A ball is released from rest from a certain height above the floor and bounces off the
floor a number of times. Ignore the effects of air resistance.
Which ONE of the following velocity-time graphs best represents the motion of the ball?
A B
velocity (m∙s-1)
velocity (m∙s-1)
time (s)
time (s)
C D
velocity (m∙s-1)
velocity (m∙s-1)
time (s) time (s)
(2)
March 2012
8. A 30 kg iron sphere and a 10 kg aluminium sphere with the same diameter fall freely
from the roof of a tall building. Ignore the effects of friction. When the spheres are 5 m
above the ground, they have the same ...
A momentum. B acceleration.
C kinetic energy. D potential energy. (2)
Nov 2013
9. The velocity-time graph below represents the motion of an object.
velocity
0 time
Which ONE of the following graphs represents the corresponding acceleration-time graph
for the motion of this object?
A B
acceleration
acceleration
0 0
time time
C D
acceleration
acceleration
0
time
0
time
(2)
Nov 2012
10. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which ONE of the following physical quantities has a
non-zero value at the instant the ball changes direction?
A Acceleration B Kinetic energy
C Momentum D Velocity (2)
Exemplar 2014
11. An object is thrown vertically upwards. Which ONE of the following regarding the object's
velocity and acceleration at the highest point of its motion is CORRECT? Ignore the
effects of friction.
VELOCITY ACCELERATION
A Zero Zero
B Zero Upwards
C Maximum Zero
D Zero Downwards
(2)
Nov 2014
12. A ball is released from a height above the floor. The ball falls vertically and bounces off
the floor a number of times. Ignore the effects of friction and assume that the collision of
the ball with the floor is elastic. Take the point of release of the ball as the reference point
and downward direction as positive.
Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT representation of the position-time graph for
the motion of the ball?
A B
position
position
0 0
time time
C D
position 0
position
0 time
time
(2)
March 2015
13. A ball is thrown vertically upwards into the air. Ignore the effects of friction.
The NET FORCE acting on the ball when the ball is at its highest point is ...
A zero.
B equal to the weight of the ball.
C Iess than the weight of the ball.
D greater than the weight of the ball. (2)
June 2015
14. The statements below describe the motion of objects.
(i) A feather falls from a certain height inside a vacuum tube.
(ii) A box slides along a smooth horizontal surface at constant speed.
(iii) A steel ball falls through the air in the absence of air friction.
Which of the statements describes UNIFORMLY ACCELERATED motion CORRECTLY?
A (i) and (ii) only B (i) and (iii) only
C (ii) and (iii) only D (i), (ii) and (iii) (2)
March 2016
15. Which ONE of the graphs below correctly represents the relationship between the
kinetic energy (K) of a free-falling object and its speed (v)?
A B
K (J)
K (J)
v (m∙s-1) v (m∙s-1)
C D
K (J)
K (J)
v (m∙s-1) v (m∙s-1)
(2)
Nov 2015
16. A ball is projected vertically upwards from a height X above the ground. After some time,
the ball falls to the ground and bounces back to the same height from which it was
projected. Ignore friction and assume that there is a negligible time lapse during the
collision of the ball with the ground. Which ONE of the following is the CORRECT
position-time graph for the motion of the ball as described above?
A B
X X
Position (m)
Position (m)
0
t (s) 0
t (s)
C D
Position (m)
Position (m)
X X
0 0
t (s) t (s)
(2)
June 2016
17. An object is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. Which ONE of the following is
CORRECT regarding the direction of the acceleration of the object as it moves upwards
and then downwards? Ignore the effects of air resistance.
OBJECT MOVING UPWARDS OBJECT MOVING DOWNWARDS
A Downwards Upwards
B Upwards Downwards
C Downwards Downwards
D Upwards Upwards
(2)
Nov 2016
18. A ball is projected vertically upwards from the ground. It returns to the ground, makes
an elastic collision with the ground and then bounces to a maximum height. Ignore air
resistance. Which ONE of the following velocity-time graphs CORRECTLY describes the
motion of the ball?
A v B v
t t
C D
v v
t t
(2)
March 2017
19. An object falls freely in a vacuum near the surface of the Earth.
Which ONE of the following statements regarding the motion of the object is CORRECT?
A The velocity of the object will remain constant.
B The velocity of the object will decrease uniformly.
C The rate of change of velocity of the object will increase uniformly.
D The rate of change of velocity of the object will remain constant. (2)
June 2017
20. A stone is projected vertically upwards from the top of a building at a speed of v m∙s-1.
The position-time graph below represents the motion of the stone. Ignore the effects of
air resistance.
Which ONE of the combinations below regarding the magnitudes of the stone's velocity
and acceleration, at time t1, is CORRECT?
MAGNITUDE OF MAGNITUDE OF
VELOCITY (m∙s-1) ACCELERATION (m∙s-2)
A 0 9,8
B 0 0
C v 0
D v 9,8
(2)
Nov 2017
21. A small stone is dropped from a height y above the ground. It strikes the ground after
time t, as shown in the diagram below.
Take upwards as the positive direction and the ground as zero reference.
Ignore the effects of air resistance.
Which ONE of the following diagrams shows a correct position-time graph for the motion
of the stone?
(2)
March 2018
22. The diagram below shows a section of the path of a stone projected vertically upwards.
At which ONE of the positions indicated on the diagram will the magnitude of the
momentum of the stone be the GREATEST? Ignore air resistance.
A I B II C III D IV (2)
June 2018
23. An object is projected vertically upwards. Ignore air resistance.
As the object rises, its velocity …
A and acceleration are both directed upwards.
B and acceleration are both directed downwards.
C is directed upwards, but its acceleration is directed downwards.
D is directed downwards, but its acceleration is directed upwards. (2)
Nov 2018
24. A ball is projected vertically upwards. Ignore air resistance. Which ONE of the following
statements about the acceleration of the ball at its maximum height is CORRECT?
The acceleration is equal to …
A zero. B g and is directed downwards.
C g and is directed upwards. D g and is directed horizontally. (2)
June 2019
25. The graph below shows how one of the physical quantities associated with an object in
free fall changes with time t. The label on the y-axis is omitted.
Ignore air friction.
Which ONE of the following physical quantities can be the label on the y-axis?
A Velocity B Position C Weight D Momentum (2)
Nov 2020
26. Two balls of masses m and 2m are dropped simultaneously from the same height above
the ground. Ignore air resistance.
When the balls strike the ground, which ONE of the following physical quantities will be
the same for both balls?
A Weight B Velocity
C Momentum D Kinetic energy (2)
Nov 2021
27. A ball is dropped from a small height above the ground.
Ignore air resistance.
The following pairs show physical quantities associated with the ball while it is falling to
the ground.
In which ONE of these pairs will BOTH quantities change while the ball is falling?
A Mechanical energy and weight
B Kinetic energy and momentum
C Gravitational acceleration and kinetic energy
D Gravitational potential energy and gravitational force (2)
June 2022
28. Consider the motion of a small stone thrown vertically upwards until it reaches its maximum
height. Ignore the effects of friction. Which ONE of the following combinations of graphs
CORRECTLY shows how the momentum p and the gravitational potential energy U of the
stone change with time?
A
(2)
June 2021
29. A ball is projected vertically upwards from the ground and reaches its maximum height
after a while. Ignore the effects of air friction. How will the ACCELERATION and TOTAL
MECHANICAL ENERGY of the ball at its maximum height compare to that immediately
after it was projected?
ACCELERATION TOTAL MECHANICAL ENERGY
A Equal to Equal to
B Greater than Smaller than
C Equal to Greater than
D Smaller than Equal to (2)
Nov 2022
MOMENTUM AND IMPULSE

1. A boy, mass 2m, and a girl, mass m, are facing each other on roller skates. With their
hands, they push off against one another. The boy experiences a force F and an
acceleration a to the left.
Which ONE of the following best describes the magnitudes of the force and acceleration
experienced by the girl? Ignore the effects of friction.
FORCE ACCELERATION
1
A F 2a
2
B F 2a
1
C F a
2
1
D 2F a
2
(2)
Exemplar (2) 2008
2. A car of mass m moves along a straight line with a velocity of magnitude v. The driver
sees an obstruction and immediately applies the brakes. The car stops uniformly in
t seconds from the moment that the brakes are applied. The car does not hit the
obstruction.
m
v
Which ONE of the following represents the MAGNITUDE of the average force exerted on
the car during the braking period of t seconds?
v mv
A B mv C D mvt (2)
t t
Nov 2008
3. The sketch graph below may be used to calculate the impulse of a constant net force of
100 N that acts on an object over a period of time.
100
Fnet (N) 1
0
10 t (s)
Which ONE of the following can be used to calculate the impulse (in kg∙m∙s-1) of the
force for the time interval t = 1 s to t = 10 s?
A 100 x 1 B 100 x 10 C 100 x 9 D 10 x 9 (2)
Nov (2) 2009
4. A net force F acts on each of two isolated objects, P and Q, as shown below.
The mass of Q is three times that of P. (Ignore the effects of friction.)
Q
P F
F 3m
m
If the rate of change of momentum of object Q is x, then the rate of change of
momentum of object P is as follows:
1 1
A x B x C x D 3x (2)
9 3
March 2010
5. A ball of mass m strikes a wall perpendicularly at a speed v. Immediately after the
collision the ball moves in the opposite direction at the same speed v, as shown in the
diagram below.
wall Which ONE of the following represents the magnitude
of the change in momentum of the ball?
A 0
m v B mv
C 2mv
v D 3mv
m
(2)
Nov 2010
6. Which ONE of the following momentum versus time graphs best represents the motion
of an object that starts from rest and moves in a straight line under the influence of a
constant net force?
A p B
p
t t
C D p
p
t t
(2)
Nov 2010
7. Which ONE of the following physical quantities represents the RATE OF CHANGE
OF MOMENTUM of an object?
A Force B Kinetic energy
C Impulse D Acceleration (2)
March 2011
8. Impulse is equal to the …
A initial momentum of a body.
B final momentum of a body.
C change in momentum of a body.
D rate of change in momentum of a body. (2)
Nov 2011
9. A car of mass m collides head-on with a truck of mass 2m. If the car exerts a force of
magnitude F on the truck during the collision, the magnitude of the force that the truck
exerts on the car is …
A ½F B F C 2F D 4F (2)
March 2012
10. Net force is a measure of the …
A change in energy. B rate of change in energy.
C change in momentum. D rate of change in momentum. (2)
March 2014
11. If the momentum of an object is doubled, then its kinetic energy is ...
A halved. B doubled.
C three times greater. D four times greater. (2)
March 2014
12. Two trolleys, P and Q, of mass m and
2m respectively are at rest on Q
a frictionless horizontal surface. The P
trolleys have a compressed spring 2m
2m
between them. The spring is released mm m
and the trolleys move apart. Which ONE
of the following statements is TRUE at
this instant?
A P and Q have equal kinetic energies
B The speed of P is smaller than the speed of Q
C The sum of the final kinetic energy of P and Q is zero
D The sum of the final momentum of P and Q is zero (2)
Exemplar 2014
13. An object of mass m moving at velocity v collides head-on with an object of mass 2m
moving in the opposite direction at velocity v. Immediately after the collision the smaller
mass moves at velocity v in the opposite direction and the larger mass is brought to rest.
Refer to the diagram below.
BEFORE COLLISION AFTER COLLISION
v v
v vf = 0
m 2m m 2m
Ignore the effects of friction. Which ONE of the following is CORRECT?

MOMENTUM MECHANICAL ENERGY
A Conserved Conserved
B Not conserved Conserved
C Conserved Not conserved
D Not conserved Not conserved
(2)
Nov 2014
14. Two bodies undergo an INELASTIC collision in the absence of friction. Which ONE of
the following combinations of momentum and kinetic energy of the system is CORRECT?
MOMENTUM KINETIC ENERGY
A Not conserved Conserved
B Conserved Not conserved
C Not conserved Not conserved
D Conserved Conserved
(2)
March 2015
15. During a collision an inflated air bag in a car decreases the net force that would have
acted on the driver of the car. This is because the time interval over which the net force
acts on the driver … for the same momentum change.
A is zero B decreases
C increases D remains constant (2)
June 2015
16. The simplified diagram below shows a rocket that has been fired horizontally, accelerating
to the west.
N
Rocket W E
exhaust gases S
Which ONE of the statements below best explains why the rocket accelerates?
A The speed of the exhaust gases is smaller than the speed of the rocket.
B The pressure of the atmosphere at the back of the rocket is less than at the front.
C The air outside the rocket exerts a greater force on the back of the rocket than at
the front.
D The rocket pushes the exhaust gases to the east and the exhaust gases push the
rocket to the west. (2)
17. Airbags in modern cars provide more safety during an accident.
The statements below are made by a learner to explain how airbags can ensure better
safety in a collision.
(i) The time of impact increases.
(ii) The impact force decreases.
(iii) The impulse increases.
Which of the statements above are CORRECT?
A (i) only B (ii) only
C (ii) and (iii) only D (i) and (ii) only (2)
March 2016
18. Which ONE of the following statements is always TRUE for inelastic collisions in an
isolated system?
A Both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved.
B Both momentum and kinetic energy are not conserved.
C Momentum is conserved, but kinetic energy not.
D Kinetic energy is conserved, but momentum not. (2)
June 2016
19. A person drops a glass bottle onto a concrete floor from a certain height and the bottle
breaks. The person then drops a second, identical glass bottle from the same height
onto a thick, woollen carpet, but the bottle does not break.
Which ONE of the following is CORRECT for the second bottle compared to the first
bottle for the same momentum change?
AVERAGE FORCE ON TIME OF CONTACT
SECOND BOTTLE WITH CARPET
A Larger Smaller
B Smaller Smaller
C Larger Larger
D Smaller Larger
(2)
Nov 2016
20. A ball, moving horizontally, hits a wall with a speed 2v. The ball then bounces back
horizontally with a speed v, as shown in the diagram below.
Which ONE of the following combinations regarding the linear momentum and the total
kinetic energy of the ball for the collision above is CORRECT?
Assume that the ball-wall system is isolated.
LINEAR MOMENTUM TOTAL KINETIC ENERGY
A Conserved Not conserved
B Conserved Conserved
C Not conserved Not conserved
D Not conserved Conserved
(2)
June 2017
21. A trolley of mass m is moving at constant velocity v to the right on a frictionless horizontal
surface. A ball of clay, also of mass m, dropped vertically, falls onto the trolley at time t,
as shown in the diagram below.
The ball of clay sticks to the trolley. Which ONE of the velocity-time graphs below
CORRECTLY represents the velocity of the trolley before and after time t?
A B
C D
(2)
Nov 2017
22. Learners perform an experiment using identical trolleys, each of mass m. The trolleys
are arranged, as shown in the diagram below. They are initially at rest on a frictionless
surface and are connected with a compressed, massless spring.
When the spring is released it falls vertically down and the single trolley moves with
momentum p to the left. The magnitude of the momentum of the two trolleys moving to
the right will be:
1 1
A 2p B p C 2
p D 4
p (2)
March 2018
23. Two cars, P and Q, moving in a straight line, have the same momentum.
The kinetic energy of Q is greater than the kinetic energy of P.
Which ONE of the following statements regarding the cars is CORRECT?
A Q has a smaller mass than P.
B Q has the same mass as P.
C Q is moving slower than P.
D Q is moving at the same speed as P. (2)
June 2018
24. Ball P and ball Q, of the same mass, are dropped onto a concrete floor.
Both balls hit the concrete floor at the same speed, v. Ball P rebounds with the same
vertical speed, v, but ball Q rebounds with speed ½v.
Refer to the diagram below. Ignore air resistance.
Which ONE of the following statements regarding the collision of EACH ball with the
concrete floor is CORRECT?
A Kinetic energy is conserved for both balls P and Q.
B The change in momentum of ball P is greater than that of ball Q.
C The contact time with the floor is the same for both balls P and Q.
D Momentum is conserved for the collision of ball P, but not for that of ball Q. (2)
Nov 2018
25. Ball M, moving at speed v to the right, collides with a stationary ball N on a smooth
horizontal surface. Immediately after the collision, ball M comes to rest and ball N moves
to the right with speed v. Which ONE of the following statements about the collision of
the balls is CORRECT?
A Total momentum is conserved and the masses of the balls are unequal.
B Total kinetic energy is conserved and the masses of the balls are unequal
C Total momentum and total kinetic energy are conserved and the masses of the
balls are equal.
D Total momentum is conserved but total kinetic energy is not conserved and the
masses of the balls are equal. (2)
June 2019
26. Which physical quantity is equal to the rate of change of momentum?
A Mass B Impulse
C Net force D Acceleration (2)
Nov 2019
27. Two trolleys, X and Y, of masses m and 2m respectively, are held together by a
compressed spring between them. Initially they are stationary on a horizontal floor, as
shown below. Ignore the effects of friction.
The spring is now released and falls to the floor while the trolleys move apart.
The magnitude of the MOMENTUM of trolley X while it moves away is …
A zero.
B half the magnitude of the momentum of trolley Y.
C twice the magnitude of the momentum of trolley Y.
D the same as the magnitude of the momentum of trolley Y. (2)
Nov 2019
28. An object is dropped from rest and after falling a distance x, its momentum is p.
Ignore the effects of air friction. The momentum of the object, after it has fallen a
distance 2x, is …
p
A p B √2p C D 2p (2)
2
Nov 2019
29. The rate of change of momentum of an object is equal to the …

A impulse on the object.
B net force acting on the object.
C product of the object's mass and its change in velocity.
D product of the net force acting on the object and its acceleration. (2)
Nov 2020
30. A ball of mass m, falling vertically downwards, hits the floor at a speed v and bounces
vertically upwards at a speed 0,75v. Which ONE of the following combinations regarding
the change in momentum of the ball during the collision is CORRECT?
MAGNITUDE DIRECTION
A 0,25mv Upwards
B 0,25mv Downwards
C 1,75mv Upwards
D 1,75mv Downwards
(2)
Nov 2020
31. The diagram below shows a cricket player moving his hands downwards from
position 1 to 2 to 3 while catching a ball.
Which ONE of the following statements CORRECTLY explains why the cricket player
moves his hands downwards?
A The impulse on the ball is decreased.
B The change in momentum of the ball is increased.
C The change in momentum of the ball is decreased.
D The time it takes to change the momentum of the ball is increased. (2)
June 2021
32. The graph below shows how the momentum (p) of an object changes with time (t).
During which ONE of the following time intervals, measured in seconds, is the magnitude
of the net force acting on the object the greatest?
A 0 to 1 B 1 to 2 C 2 to 3 D 3 to 4 (2)
Nov 2021
33. A ball is dropped from height h and strikes the floor with momentum p.
Ignore air resistance.
The ball is NOW dropped from height 2h.
Which ONE of the following represents the momentum with which the ball NOW strikes
the floor?
A p B √2p C 2√p D 2p (2)
June 2022
34. Block X is placed on a horizontal table and is
connected to block Y by a light inextensible string
passing over a frictionless pulley, as shown. A constant
frictional force acts on block X while it moves to the
right. P, Q and R are points on the table such that the
distance from P to Q is equal to that from Q to R. When
block X reaches point Q, the string is cut and block X continues to move towards point R.
Ignore the effect of air friction. Consider the following statements:
(i) The work done by the frictional force acting on block X is greater when the block
moves from point P to point Q than when the block moves from point Q to point R.
(ii) Both the momentum and kinetic energy of block X decrease when the block moves
from point Q to point R.
(iii) The total mechanical energy of block X remains constant when the block moves from
point Q to point R.
Which of the statements above is/are CORRECT as block X moves from point Q to
point R?
C (i) and (ii) only D (ii) and (iii) only (2)
Nov 2022
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

1. An object moving at a constant velocity v has a kinetic energy E. The velocity is changed
to 2v. Which ONE of the following is the correct kinetic energy at this velocity?
A ¼E B ½E
C 2E D 4E (2)
Exemplar 2008
2. A man jumps from a window of a multiple-storey building at a certain height above a fire
fighters’ safety net.
• Stage 1: It takes 0,3 seconds to reach the net.
• Stage 2: The net stretches by 1 m on impact before the man comes to rest after
0,2 seconds.
Air resistance can be ignored.
Which ONE of the following statements regarding the mechanical energy and momentum
of the man is TRUE?
STAGE 1 STAGE 2
A Mechanical energy and momentum Mechanical energy and
remain constant. momentum remain constant
B Mechanical energy and momentum Mechanical energy and
remain constant. momentum change.
C Mechanical energy remains
Mechanical energy remains
constant and momentum
constant and momentum changes.
changes.
D Mechanical energy remains Mechanical energy and
constant and momentum changes. momentum change.
(2)
Sept 2008
3. Consider the statements below:
I Work is done on an object when a force displaces the object in the direction of
the force.
II Mechanical energy of a system is conserved when an external force does no
work on the system.
III The work done on an object by a net force is equal to the kinetic energy of the
object.
Which of the above statements is/are TRUE?
A Only I B I and II only
C II and III only D I, II and III (2)
Nov 2008
4. The engine of a car does work, W, to increase the velocity of the car from 0 to v.
The work done by the engine to increase the velocity from v to 2v, is:
A W B 2W C 3W D 4W (2)
March 2009
5. The kinetic energy of a car moving at constant velocity v is K. The velocity of the car
changes to 2v. What is the new kinetic energy of the car?
1 1
A 4
K B 2
K C 2K D 4K (2)
March 2011
6. The graph below represents a constant force F acting on an object over a displacement x.
The force and displacement are in the same direction.
force (N)
0 x displacement (m)
Which ONE of the following statements can be deduced from the graph?
A The gradient of the graph represents the work done by the force.
B The gradient of the graph represents the change in kinetic energy of the object.
C The area under the graph represents the net work done by the force.
D The area under the graph represents the power dissipated by the force. (2)
March 2011
7. An object is pulled along a straight horizontal road to the right without being lifted.
The force diagram below shows all the forces acting on the object.
N F
Which ONE of the above forces does POSITIVE WORK on the object?
A w B N C f D F (2)
Nov 2011
8. An object moves in a straight line on a ROUGH horizontal surface. If the net work done
on the object is zero, then …
A the object has zero kinetic energy.
B the object moves at constant speed.
C the object moves at constant acceleration.
D there is no frictional force acting on the object. (2)
March 2012
9. A car moves up a hill at CONSTANT speed. Which ONE of the following represents the
work done by the weight of the car as it moves up the hill?
A ΔEk B ΔEp C −ΔEk D −ΔEp (2)
Nov 2012
10. Power is defined as the rate …
A of change of velocity. B at which work is done.
C of change of momentum. D of change of displacement. (2)
March 2013
11. Which ONE of the following physical quantities is equal to the product of force and
constant velocity?
A Work B Power C Energy D Acceleration (2)
Nov 2013
12. If air resistance is negligible, the total mechanical energy of a free-falling body …
A remains constant. B becomes zero.
C increases. D decreases. (2)
March 2014
13. An applied force F accelerates an object of mass, m, on a horizontal frictionless surface
from a velocity v to a velocity 2v.
v 2v
F F
m m
Δx
The net work done on the object is equal to:
1 3
A 2
mv2 B mv2 C 2
mv2 D 2mv2 (2)
Exemplar 2014
14. Two balls, P and Q, are dropped simultaneously from the same height.
Ball P has TWICE the mass of ball Q. Ignore the effects of air friction.
Just before the balls hit the ground, the kinetic energy of ball P is x. The kinetic energy of
ball Q, in terms of x, will be …
1 1
A x B 2
x C x D 2x (2)
4
Nov 2014
15. The speed of a bicycle increases from 2 m∙s-1 to 8 m∙s-1. Its kinetic energy increases by a
factor of …
A 4. B 6. C 8. D 16. (2)
March 2015
16. An object moving horizontally at a constant velocity suddenly encounters a rough
horizontal surface. The object continues to move over this rough surface.
The net work done on the object during the motion over the rough surface is …
A zero. B positive. C negative. D constant. (2)
June 2015
17. The graph below represents the relationship between the work done on an object and
the time taken for this work to be done.
Work done (J)
Time (s)
The gradient of the graph represents the …
A power. B momentum.
C kinetic energy. D potential energy. (2)
Nov 2015
18. The work done by a constant force F applied to an object to increase the object's speed
from v to 2v is W. The work done by the same force to increase the speed of the object
from 0 to v will be ...
A ⅓W B ½W C 2W D 3W (2)
March 2016
19. When the net work done on an object is positive (greater than zero), the …
A kinetic energy of the object is zero.
B kinetic energy of the object is increasing.
C kinetic energy of the object is decreasing.
D kinetic energy of the object remains unchanged. (2)
June 2016
20. A block of mass m is released from rest from the top of a frictionless inclined plane QR,
as shown below. The total mechanical energy of the block is EQ at point Q and ER at
point R. The kinetic energy of the block at points Q and R is KQ and KR respectively.
m
Q
R
Which ONE of the statements regarding the total mechanical energy and the kinetic energy
of the block at points Q and R respectively is CORRECT?
TOTAL MECHANICAL ENERGY E KINETIC ENERGY K
A EQ > ER KQ = KR
B EQ = ER KQ < KR
C EQ = ER KQ = KR
D EQ < ER KQ > KR
(2)
Nov 2016
21. When the velocity of a moving object is doubled, the …
A net work done by the object is doubled.
B kinetic energy of the object is doubled.
C potential energy of the object is doubled.
D linear momentum of the object is doubled. (2)
March 2017
22. The net work required to stop a moving object is equal to the …
A inertia of the object.
B change in kinetic energy of the object.
D change in impulse of the object. (2)
March 2017
23. A person lifts a crate vertically upwards at constant velocity through a distance h. The
person does work x on the crate in time t. The person now lifts the same crate vertically
upwards at constant velocity through the same distance, but in time 2t. The work done
by the person on the crate will now be …
1
A x B x C 2x D 4x (2)
2
Nov 2017
24. A constant horizontal force F displaces a box by ∆x over a rough horizontal surface.
Study the diagram below.
The normal force acting on the box does NO work on the box during the motion, because
it is …
A equal to the applied force.
B perpendicular to the applied force.
C equal and opposite to the weight of the box.
D perpendicular to the displacement of the box. (2)
June 2017
25. A pendulum bob is released from point P above a horizontal surface. At the lowest
point, Q, of its swing, it collides with a stationary block situated on a frictionless horizontal
surface, as shown below. Ignore air friction.
Which ONE of the following combinations of conservation laws can be used to calculate
the speed of the bob at Q immediately before and after colliding with the block?
SPEED AT Q SPEED AFTER COLLISION
A Conservation of Conservation of linear
mechanical energy momentum
B Conservation of linear Conservation of mechanical
momentum energy
C Conservation of Conservation of mechanical
mechanical energy energy
D Conservation of linear Conservation of linear
momentum momentum
(2)
March 2018
26. The net work done on an object to increase its speed from rest to v is W.
How much net work must be done on the same object to increase its speed from v to 2v?
A W B 2W C 3W D 4W (2)
June 2018
27. If the net work done on a moving object is POSITIVE, then we can conclude that the
kinetic energy of the object …
A is zero. B has increased.
C has decreased. D has not changed. (2)
Nov 2018
28. A small stone is dropped from rest and undergoes free fall. Which ONE of the graphs
below shows the CORRECT relationship between the gravitational potential energy (U)
and speed v and the kinetic energy (K) and speed v, respectively, for the stone?
The graphs are NOT drawn to scale.
(2)
June 2019
29. A ball falls from the edge of a table. Ignore the effects of air friction. Which ONE of the
physical quantities associated with the ball during the fall remains constant?
A Weight B Momentum
C Kinetic energy D Gravitational potential energy (2)
Nov 2019
30. The base SI unit of the physical quantity 'work' is …
A kg∙m∙s-1 B kg∙m2∙s2 C kg∙m2∙s-2 D kg∙m∙s-2 (2)
Nov 2020
31. A constant net force acts on an object moving in a straight line. Which ONE of the
following quantities associated with the object will remain constant during the motion?
A Velocity B Momentum
C Acceleration D Kinetic energy (2)
June 2021
32. A boy and a girl, having DIFFERENT masses, are initially at rest at point P. They slide
down different paths of a water slide, as shown in the diagram below.
Ignore the effects of friction.
Consider the statements below regarding the boy and the girl:
I Only conservative forces act on both the boy and the girl while they are sliding
downwards.
II The boy and the girl each have the same gravitational potential energy
at point P.
III On reaching point Q, the speed of the girl is equal to that of the boy.
Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT?
A I only B I and III only
C II and III only D I, II and III (2)
June 2021
33. A ball is dropped from a height above a floor. The ball makes an elastic collision with the
floor at time to and bounces vertically upwards. Ignore air resistance.
Which ONE of the following graphs shows how the total mechanical energy (EM) of the
ball changes with time?
(2)
Nov 2021
34. A force F moves an object P from point X to point Y along two different paths, 1 and 2,
as shown below.
The work done by F in moving the object is the same for both paths. Which ONE of the
following can be used to describe force F?
A Normal force B Tension force
C Frictional force D Gravitational force (2)
June 2022
35. A car travels at CONSTANT VELOCITY along a horizontal road. A constant frictional
force acts on the car during its motion. Which ONE of the following statements about the
power dissipated by the engine of the car during the motion is CORRECT? The power …
A is zero. B increases.
C decreases. D remains constant. (2)
Nov 2022
DOPPLER EFFECT
1. The siren of a police car, travelling at a speed v, emits sound waves of frequency f.
Which ONE of the following best describes the frequency that will be observed by a
passenger in a car following right behind the police car at a speed v?
A Zero B Smaller than f
C Equal to f D Greater than f (2)
March 2009
2. A listener moves at constant velocity towards a stationary source of sound. The frequency
of sound heard by the listener is higher than the frequency of the sound emitted by the
source, because …
A the wavelength observed by the listener becomes shorter.
B the wavelength observed by the listener becomes longer.
C more wave fronts reach the listener per second.
D less wave fronts reach the listener per second. (2)
Nov (2) 2009
3. The pressure versus time graph below represents a sound wave in air emitted by a
stationary source.
pressure
time
Which ONE of the following graphs best represents the sound wave, as observed by a
stationary observer, if the source is moving towards the observer?
A B
pressure
pressure
time time
C D
pressure
pressure
time time
(2)
March 2010
4. Which ONE of the following is the main principle applied when measuring the rate of
blood flow or the heartbeat of a foetus in the womb?
A Doppler effect B Photoelectric effect
C Huygens' principle D Diffraction (2)
March 2011
5. A source of sound approaches a stationary listener in a straight line at constant velocity.
It passes the listener and moves away from him in the same straight line at the same constant
velocity. Which ONE of the following graphs best represents the change in observed frequency
against time?
A B
frequency (Hz)
frequency (Hz)
time (s) time (s)

C D
frequency (Hz)
frequency (Hz)
time (s) time (s)

(2)
Nov. 2012
6. A sound source approaches a stationary observer at constant velocity. Which ONE of
the following describes how the observed frequency and wavelength differ from that of
the sound source?
Observed wavelength Observed frequency
A Greater than Greater than
B Less than Less than
C Greater than Less than
D Less than Greater than
(2)
March 2013
7. The hooter of a vehicle travelling at constant speed towards a stationary observer,
produces sound waves of frequency 400 Hz. Ignore the effects of wind. Which ONE of
the following frequencies, in hertz, is most likely to be heard by the observer?
A 400 B 350 C 380 D 480 (2)
Nov 2013
8. An astronomer, viewing light from distant galaxies, observes a shift of spectral lines
toward the red end of the visible spectrum. This shift provides evidence that the …
A universe is expanding.
B galaxies are moving closer towards Earth.
C earth is moving towards the distant galaxies.
D temperature of earth’s atmosphere is increasing. (2)
Exemplar 2014
9. Which ONE of the following CANNOT be explained using the Doppler effect?
A Emission of electrons from a metal surface
B 'Flow meters' used in hospitals
C Red spectral lines from distant stars being shifted
D Observed frequency of light from moving bodies being higher than expected (2)
March 2015
10. The hooter of a car emits sound of constant frequency as the car moves away from a
stationary listener.
Which ONE of the following properties of the sound heard by the listener will NOT change?
A Velocity B Frequency
C Both wavelength and frequency D Both frequency and loudness (2)
June 2015
11. Light reaching the Earth from a galaxy moving away is shifted towards …
A greater velocities. B higher frequencies.
C longer wavelengths. D shorter wavelengths. (2)
March 2016
12. A police car with its siren wailing is moving away from a stationary observer at
constant speed. The siren emits a sound of constant frequency.
Which of the following characteristics associated with the sound of the siren, as
perceived by the observer, is/are CORRECT?
(i) The speed remains the same.
(ii) The frequency increases.
(iii) The wavelength increases.
(iv) The pitch decreases.
A (iii) only B (i), (iii) and (iv)
C (i) and (iii) only D (i) and (ii) only (2)
June 2016
13. The diagram below shows the positions of two stationary listeners, P and Q, relative to
a car moving at a constant velocity towards listener Q. The hooter on the car emits
sound. Listeners P and Q and the driver all hear the sound of the hooter.
Which ONE of the following CORRECTLY describes the frequency of the sound heard
by P and Q, compared to that heard by the driver?
FREQUENCY OF THE FREQUENCY OF THE
SOUND HEARD BY P SOUND HEARD BY Q
A Lower Higher
B Higher Higher
C Lower Lower
D Higher Lower
(2)
Nov 2016
14. A stationary observer is listening to the sound coming from a sound source.
The listener hears a sound of a lower pitch when compared to that produced by the
source. What can you conclude about the source from this observation?
A The source is at rest.
B The source is moving towards the listener.
C The source is moving away from the listener.
D There is an obstacle between the source and the listener. (2)
March 2017
15. A car travels at a constant velocity towards a stationary listener. The car's hooter emits
a sound of constant frequency as it approaches the listener. Which ONE of the following
statements regarding the frequency and wavelength of the sound of the hooter is
CORRECT as observed by the listener?
A Both the frequency and wavelength have decreased.
B The frequency has increased while the wavelength has decreased.
C The frequency has decreased while the wavelength has increased.
D Both the frequency and wavelength have increased. (2)
June 2017
16. The wavelengths of light emitted by a distant star appear shorter when observed from
Earth. From this we can conclude that the star is …
A moving towards Earth and the light is blue shifted.
B moving towards Earth and the light is red shifted.
C moving away from Earth and the light is red shifted.
D moving away from Earth and the light is blue shifted. (2)
Nov 2017
17. Which ONE of the statements below about the Doppler effect is CORRECT?
A The Doppler effect is only applicable to sound waves.
B The Doppler effect can be used to explain the expanding universe.
C Electrons are ejected from a metal surface by means of the Doppler effect.
D A stationary listener hears a lower pitch of the sound from a siren of an
approaching vehicle because of the Doppler effect. (2)
March 2018
18. Which ONE of the following is NOT an application of the Doppler effect?
A A light meter
B A blood flow meter
C Detecting the heartbeat of a foetus using ultrasound
D Measuring the speed of an approaching car using radar (2)
June 2018
19. The spectrum produced by a moving asteroid, as observed from Earth, indicates that the
light has shifted towards the blue end of the spectrum. Which ONE of the following
frequency combinations of the observed light and the distance between the asteroid and
Earth is CORRECT?
FREQUENCY OF DISTANCE BETWEEN
OBSERVED LIGHT ASTEROID AND EARTH
A Increased Decreases
B Increased Increases
C Decreased Decreases
D Decreased Increases
(2)
Nov 2018
20. A stationary passenger at a railway station listens to a train approaching at constant
speed. Which ONE of the following is CORRECT for the sound of the approaching train
heard by the stationary passenger?
A Lower pitch, lower frequency
B Higher pitch, lower frequency
C Higher pitch, higher frequency
D Lower pitch, higher frequency (2)
June 2019
21. A police car, with its siren on, is travelling at a constant speed TOWARDS a stationary
sound detector. The siren emits sound waves of frequency f and speed v.
Which ONE of the following combinations best describes the frequency and speed of the
detected sound waves?
FREQUENCY SPEED
A Less than f v
B Less than f Less than v
C Greater than f Less than v
D Greater than f v
(2)
Nov 2019
22. The siren of a police car, moving in front of a truck, emits sound waves of frequency f.
Both vehicles are travelling at the same constant velocity. The frequency of the sound
heard by the driver of the truck is …
A f. B zero.
C greater than f. D smaller than f. (2)
Nov 2020
23. An astronomer observes that the light spectrum of a star has been blue shifted.
How have the observed frequency of light from the star and the distance between the star
and Earth changed?
OBSERVED DISTANCE BETWEEN
FREQUENCY OF LIGHT THE STAR AND EARTH
A Increased Increased
B Increased Decreased
C Decreased Increased
D Decreased Decreased
(2)
June 2021
24. Consider the two spectrum diagrams below.
Diagram 1 represents the spectrum of an element in a laboratory on Earth.

Diagram 2 represents the spectrum of the same element from a distant star as observed
from Earth.
Which ONE of the following can be deduced from the spectra above?
A The star is moving towards Earth.
B The star is at rest relative to Earth.
C The star is moving away from Earth.
D Both the star and Earth are moving towards each other. (2)
Nov 2021
25. Which ONE of the following can be explained by the Doppler effect?
A A stethoscope is used to listen to a person's heartbeat.
B An echo is heard when sound waves are reflected off a cliff.
C The spectrum of light from an approaching star is shifted towards shorter
wavelengths.
D Sound intensity decreases when the sound source moves away from a stationary
listener. (2)
June 2022
26. Light emitted from a distant star contains a spectral line X of frequency f. The spectral
lines of this star when observed on Earth are red shifted. Which ONE of the following
combinations of the OBSERVED FREQUENCY of spectral line X and the MOTION OF
THE STAR is CORRECT?
OBSERVED FREQUENCY MOTION OF THE STAR
A Greater than f Away from Earth
B Greater than f Towards Earth
C Smaller than f Away from Earth
D Smaller than f Towards Earth (2)
Nov 2022
ELECTROSTATICS
1. Two identical metal spheres on insulated stands carry charges of Q and q respectively, as
indicated in the diagram. When they are at a distance r from each other, they experience
a force F.
r ½r
Q q Q q
Initial position Final position

The two charges are now moved closer to each other so that the final distance between
them is half the original distance, as illustrated. Which ONE of the following correctly
describes the new magnitude of the force that the charges experience?
1 1
A F B F C 2F D 4F (2)
4 2
Exemplar 2008
2. The centres of two identical spheres are a distance r apart. They carry charges of Q1
and Q2 respectively as shown in the diagram below. Each sphere exerts an electrostatic
force of magnitude F on the other.
r
Q1 Q2
The distance between the charges is now halved and the charge on Q1 is doubled.
The magnitude of the new force between the charges is …
A F B 2F C 4F D 8F (2)
Nov 2008
3. A negatively charged plastic comb is brought close to, but does not touch, a small
piece of paper. If the comb and the paper are now attracted to each other, the original
charge on the paper was …
A negative. B positive.
C negative or neutral. D positive or neutral. (2)
March 2009
4. The diagram below represents the electric field pattern around a negative point charge.
R, S and T are points at different distances from the negative point charge.
S●
●R ─ ●T
The magnitude of the electric field of the point charge is ...

A greatest at point R. B greatest at point S.
C greatest at point T. D the same at points R, S and T. (2)
Nov 2010
5. The sketch below shows two small metal spheres, A and B, on insulated stands carrying
charges of magnitude q and 2q respectively. The distance between the centres of the
two spheres is r.
r
A q 2q B
Sphere A exerts a force of magnitude F on sphere B. What is the magnitude of the

force that sphere B exerts on sphere A?
1
A F B F C 2F D 4F (2)
2
March 2011
6. Two identical small metal spheres on insulated stands carry equal charges and are a
distance d apart. Each sphere experiences an electrostatic force of magnitude F.
The spheres are now placed a distance 1 d apart.
2
The magnitude of the electrostatic force each sphere now experiences is …
A 1F B F C 2F D 4F (2)
2
March 2012
7. The electric field pattern between two charged spheres, A and B, is shown below.
A B
Which ONE of the following statements regarding the charge on spheres A and B is
CORRECT?
A Spheres A and B are both positively charged.
B Spheres A and B are both negatively charged.
C Sphere A is positively charged and sphere B is negatively charged.
D Sphere A is negatively charged and sphere B is positively charged. (2)
Nov 2012
9. A positively charged metal sphere X on an insulated stand is brought into contact with
an identical neutral metal sphere Y on an insulated stand. The two spheres are then
separated. Which ONE of the following describes the charge on each sphere after they
have been separated?
Sphere X Sphere Y
A Positive Neutral
B Positive Positive
C Neutral Positive
D Neutral Neutral
(2)
March 2013
10. Two small identical metal spheres, each carrying equal charges Q, are brought into
contact and then separated. The charge on each sphere will now be …
A zero. B 1Q C Q D 2Q. (2)
2
March 2014
11. Two identical metal spheres, each of mass m and separated by a distance d, exerts
gravitational forces of magnitudes F on each other. The distance between the spheres is
now HALVED. What is the magnitude of each force the spheres now exerts on each other?
A 1F B F C 2F D 4F (2)
2
Nov 2014
12. The diagram below shows the electric field pattern due to two point charges X and Y.
X Y
Which ONE of the following represents the charge on X and Y respectively?

Point charge X Point charge Y
A Negative Negative
B Positive Positive
C Positive Negative
D Negative Positive
(2)
Exemplar 2014
13. Two charges of + 2 nC and - 2 nC are located on a straight line. S and T are two points
that lie on the same straight line as shown in the diagram below.
+ 2 nC S - 2 nC T
● × ● ×
Which ONE of the following correctly represents the directions of the RESULTANT
electric fields at S and at T?
DIRECTION OF THE DIRECTION OF THE
RESULTANT ELECTRIC RESULTANT ELECTRIC
FIELD AT POINT S FIELD AT POINT T
A Right Left
B Left Left
C Right Right
D Left Right
(2)
Nov 2014
14. The magnitude of an electric field, a distance r from a point charge is E. The magnitude
of an electric field, a distance 2r from the same point charge will be …
1 1
A E B E C 2E D 4E (2)
4 2
March 2015
15. Two identical positively charged spheres, which are free to move, are placed near each
other on a frictionless surface.
Which ONE of the following CORRECTLY describes the motion of the two spheres?
A They move away from each other with increasing acceleration.
B They move away from each other with decreasing acceleration.
C They move away from each other with constant acceleration.
D They move away from each other with zero acceleration. (2)
June 2015
16. Two charged spheres of magnitudes 2Q and Q respectively are placed a distance r
apart on insulating stands. If the sphere of charge Q experiences a force F to the east,
then the sphere of charge 2Q will experience a force …
A F to the west. B F to the east.
C 2F to the west. D 2F to the east. (2)
Nov 2015
17. P, Q and R are three charged spheres. When P and Q are brought near each other, they
experience an attractive force. When Q and R are brought near each other, they experience
a repulsive force. Which ONE of the following is TRUE?
A P and R have charges with the same sign.
B P and R have charges with opposite signs.
C P, Q and R have charges with the same sign.
D P, Q and R have equal charges. (2)
March 2016
18. The magnitude of the electric field at a point P from a positive point charge q is x N∙C-1.
Which ONE of the statements below regarding this electric field is CORRECT?
A A + 1 C charge placed at P will experience a force of magnitude x N directed
away from q.
1
B The force on a + 2 C charge placed at P will have a magnitude x N directed
4
away from q.
C A + 1 C charge placed at P will experience a force of magnitude x N directed
towards q.
1
D The force on a + 2 C charge placed at P will have a magnitude x N directed
4
towards q. (2)
June 2016
19. Two charges, + Q and – Q, are placed a distance d from a negative charge – q.
The charges, + Q and – Q, are located along lines that are perpendicular to each other
as shown in the diagram below.
+Q ●
● ●– Q
–q d
Which ONE of the following arrows CORRECTLY shows the direction of the net force
acting on charge – q due to the presence of charges + Q and – Q?
(2)
Nov 2016
20. Two charged particles are placed a distance, r, apart. The electrostatic force exerted by
one charged particle on the other is FE.
Which ONE of the graphs below CORRECTLY represents the relationship between the
electrostatic force, FE, and the square of the distance, r2, between the two charges?
A B
FE
FE
r2 r2
C D
FE
FE
r2 r2
(2)
March 2017
21. Three identical positive point charges, Q1, Q2 and Q3, are initially situated on a smooth
flat table at the corners of a right-angled triangle. The diagram below shows the charges
as viewed from above.
Which ONE of the following diagrams shows the direction in which Q2 will move as a
result of the electrostatic forces exerted by Q1 and Q3 on it?
A B
C D
(2)
June 2017
22. Two identical light graphite-coated spheres, P1 and P2, are suspended using identical
thin insulated threads. P1 is charged, but P2 is neutral. The spheres are then brought
into contact with each other, as shown in diagram I. Thereafter the spheres assume the
positions, as shown in diagram II.
Which ONE of the following statements concerning the charges on the spheres
possibly explains why the spheres move apart after touching, as shown in diagram II?
SIGN OF SIGN OF MAGNITUDE OF
CHARGE ON P1 CHARGE ON P2 CHARGES ON P1 AND P2
A + + Unequal
B - - Unequal
C + - Equal
D + + Equal
(2)
Nov 2017
23. The magnitude of the electrostatic force on a charge Q1 due to another charge Q2 is F.
Both charges are now doubled without changing the distance between them.
The magnitude of the new electrostatic force on Q1 will be:
1
A F B 2F C 4F D 6F (2)
2
March 2018
24. Two small identical metal spheres, on insulated stands, carry charges -q and +3q
respectively. When the centres of the spheres are a distance d apart, the spheres
exert an electrostatic force of magnitude F on each other.
The spheres are now made to touch and are brought back to the same positions as
before. The magnitude of the electrostatic force which the spheres now exert on each other,
in terms of F, is:
4 1 1
A F B F C F D 3F (2)
3 3 2
June 2018
25. Three charged spheres X, Y and Z, supported by insulating threads of equal length,
hang from a beam, as shown in the diagram below. Sphere X is negatively charged.
Sphere X attracts sphere Y, but repels sphere Z.
Which ONE of the following conclusions is CORRECT?

A Sphere Y is positively charged and sphere Z is negatively charged.
B Sphere Y is positively charged and sphere Z is positively charged.
C Sphere Y is negatively charged and sphere Z is negatively charged.
D Sphere Y is negatively charged and sphere Z is positively charged. (2)
Nov 2018
26. Particle P has charge Q and particle R has charge 2Q. They are separated by a small
distance, r. Which ONE of the statements below about the electrostatic forces, FPR,
which P exerts on R and FRP, which R exert on P, is CORRECT?
A FPR = ½FRP B FPR = FRP C FPR = 2FRP D FPR = –FRP (2)
June 2019
27. Two identical spheres, R and S, on insulated stands, carrying charges of +q and -q
respectively, are placed a distance apart. Sphere R exerts an electrostatic force of
magnitude F on sphere S.
The two spheres are now brought into contact and returned to their original positions.
The magnitude of the electrostatic force that sphere R exerts on sphere S is now …
F
A zero B C F D 2F (2)
2
Nov 2019
28. Two identical metal spheres, P and R, on insulated stands, carry different charges.
The spheres are brought into contact and then separated again.
If the charge on sphere R AFTER the separation is q, the charge on sphere P after the
separation is …
A q. B zero.
C less than q. D greater than q. (2)
Nov 2020
29. A small negative point charge (q) is situated halfway between two identical spheres,
P and Q, carrying IDENTICAL charges, as shown below.
Sphere P exerts an electrostatic force of magnitude F on sphere Q. What is the magnitude

of the net electrostatic force experienced by the point charge?
1
A Zero B F C F D 2F (2)
2
June 2021
30. Two identical spheres, P and Q, carry charges of +q and –2q respectively.
Sphere P exerts an electrostatic force of magnitude F on sphere Q.
Which ONE of the following represents the magnitude of the electrostatic force exerted on
sphere P by sphere Q?
1
A F B F C 2F D 4F (2)
2
Nov 2021
31. The diagram below shows the field lines for the combined electric field due to two small
charged spheres P and Q.
Which ONE of the combinations below correctly shows the polarity of spheres P and Q?
SPHERE P SPHERE Q
A Negative Positive
B Negative Negative
C Positive Positive
D Positive Negative
(2)
Nov 2021
32. Two oppositely charged point charges move towards each other.
Which ONE of the following is CORRECT?
The point charges move at …
A constant velocity.
B decreasing velocity.
C constant acceleration.
D increasing acceleration. (2)
June 2022
33. A proton and an electron are a distance r apart. The magnitude of the electrostatic force
that they exert on each other is F. Which ONE of the following graphs shows the
relationship between F and r2 as the proton and the electron approach each other?
(2)
Nov 2022
ELECTRIC CIRCUITS
1. A battery with emf ε and internal resistance r is connected to a resistor R as shown in the
circuit diagram below.
R
V
A
ε
r
A second resistor of the SAME RESISTANCE is now connected in parallel with resistor R.
How will the voltmeter and ammeter readings change when the second resistor is
connected in the circuit?
VOLTMETER READING AMMETER READING
A stays the same decreases
B increases stays the same
C decreases increases
D increases increases
(2)
Exemplar (2) 2008
2. A variable resistor, an ammeter, a battery of emf 12 V and voltmeters V1 and V2 are

connected as shown in the diagram below.
R
V2
V1
A
When the switch is open, the readings on voltmeters V1 and V2 respectively are …
Reading on V1 Reading on V2
A 12 V 0V
B 12 V 12 V
C 0V 0V
D 0V 12 V
(2)
Exemplar 2008
3. In the circuit represented below, the resistance of the variable resistor is decreased.
V R
A
How would this decrease affect the readings on the voltmeter and ammeter?
Voltmeter reading Ammeter reading
A unchanged unchanged
B decreases increases
C decreases unchanged
D increases increases
(2)
Nov 2008
4. The diagram below shows two light bulbs, X and Y, connected in series to a battery
with negligible internal resistance.
X Y
If bulb X glows brighter than bulb Y, then the …

A current through bulb X is smaller than that through bulb Y.
B resistance of bulb X is smaller than that of bulb Y.
C resistance of bulb X is greater than that of bulb Y.
D current through bulb X is greater than that through bulb Y. (2)
March 2010
5. Which ONE of the following is the unit of measurement for the rate of flow of charge?
A watt B coulomb
C volt D ampere (2)
March 2011
6. The unit of measurement of THE RATE OF FLOW OF CHARGE in a conductor is …
A watt. B volt. C ampere. D coulomb. (2)
Nov 2011
7. A set of identical light bulbs are connected as shown in the circuit diagrams below.
The internal resistance of the battery is negligible.
In which ONE of these circuits will the light bulbs glow the brightest?
A B
C D
(2)
Nov 2011
8. In the circuit diagram below, the internal resistance of the battery and the resistance
of the conducting wires are negligible. The emf of the battery is E.
A 2R
V
R
S
When switch S is closed, the reading on voltmeter V, in volts, is:

1 2
A 0 B E C E D E (2)
3 3
March 2012
9. Which ONE of the circuits below can be used to measure the current in a conductor X
and the potential difference across its ends?
10.
A A B A
X V V
C D A
X A V X
V
(2)
Nov 2012
10. Consider the three circuit components represented below.
Which ONE of the options below best represents the names of the components in the
correct sequence, from left to right?
A Light bulb, resistor, cell
B Resistor, light bulb, cell
C Cell, light bulb, variable resistor
D Cell, variable resistor, light bulb (2)
March 2013
11. Which ONE of the following graphs best represents the relationship between the electrical
power and the current in a given ohmic conductor?
A P
B P
I I
C D P
P
I I
(2)
Nov 2013
12. Two resistors of equal resistance are connected in SERIES to a battery with negligible
internal resistance. The current through the battery is I.
When the two resistors are connected in PARALLEL to the same battery, the current
through the battery will be …
A 1 I. B I. C 2I. D 4I. (2)
2
March 2014
13. Consider the circuit diagram below.
R1
R2
S
R3
Which ONE of the following correctly describes the change in total resistance and total
current when switch S is closed?
Total Resistance Total current
A Decreases Decreases
B Increases Increases
C Decreases Increases
D Increases Decreases
(2)
Exemplar 2014
14. Three light bulbs, X, Y and Z with resistances R, 2R and R respectively, are connected in
a circuit as shown below. The battery has negligible internal resistance.
When switch S is closed, all the bulbs light up. The reading on ammeter A is 2,5 A.
X Y Z
●
S ●
A1 A2 A3
A
Which ONE of the following correctly describes the readings on the ammeters (in amperes)
when bulb Z burns out?
A1 A2 A3 A
A 1,25 1,25 0 2,5
B 1,6 0,8 0,1 2,5
C 0,75 0,75 0 1,5
D 1 0,5 0 1,5
(2)
Nov 2014
15. Three identical light bulbs are connected in a circuit as shown below.
The resistances of the battery and connecting wires can be ignored.
V V
1 2
S •
Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT when switch S is closed?
The reading on V1 is …
A half that on V2. B equal to that on V2.
C twice that on V2. D three times that on V2. (2)
March 2015
16. The diagram below shows a cell of emf ( ε ), and two resistors, R1 and R2, in series,
with R1 < R2. The cell has negligible internal resistance and the voltmeters have very
high resistances.

V1 V2 V21 V22
A V1 = V2 = ε B V1 > V2 C = D > (2)
R1 R2 R1 R2
June 2015
17. The four resistors P, Q, R and T in the circuit below are identical. The cell has an
emf  and negligible internal resistance. The switch is initially CLOSED.
P •
S •
•

Q R
Switch S is now OPENED. Which ONE of the following combinations of changes will
occur in P, R and T?
CURRENT IN P CURRENT IN R CURRENT IN T
A Decreases Remains the same Decreases
B Increases Remains the same Increases
C Increases Increases Increases
D Decreases Increases Decreases
(2)
Nov 2015
18. The minimum value of the resistance that can be obtained by connecting two
4 Ω resistors is ...
A 1 Ω. B 2 Ω. C 3 Ω. D 8 Ω. (2)
March 2016
19. Circuit I shows two identical lamps X and Y connected to a cell of negligible internal
resistance. Switch S is closed.
Y Y
● ●
S S
● X ● X
● ●
T
Circuit I
Circuit II
A wire T, of negligible resistance, is now connected across X as shown in Circuit II.
Which ONE of the statements below best describes how the brightness of the lamps
have changed after T had been connected?
X Y
A Does not light up Dimmer
B Brighter Dimmer
C Brighter Brighter
D Does not light up Brighter
(2)
June 2016
20. Learners investigate the relationship between current (I) and potential difference (V) at a
constant temperature for three different resistors, X, Y and Z.
They obtain the graphs shown below.
X
Y
I (A)
V (V)
The resistances of X, Y and Z are RX, RY and RZ respectively.
Which ONE of the following conclusions regarding the resistances of the resistors is
CORRECT?
A Rz > RY > Rx B RX = RY = RZ
C RX > RY > RZ D RX > RY and RY < RZ (2)
Nov 2016
21. In the circuit diagram below, the resistance of resistor R1 is TWICE the resistance of
resistor R2.
The two resistors are connected in series and identical high-resistance voltmeters are
connected across each resistor.
The readings on the voltmeters are V1 and V2 respectively.
R1 R2
V1 V2
Which ONE of the following statements concerning the voltmeter readings is CORRECT?
A V1 = 2V2 B V1 = ½V2
C V1= ¼V2 D 2V1 = V2 (2)
March 2017
22. A certain conductor obeys Ohm's law.
Which ONE of the statements below regarding the resistance of the conductor is
CORRECT? The resistance of this conductor …
A changes as the potential difference across it changes at constant temperature.
B changes as the current passing through it changes at constant temperature.
C remains unchanged, even if the potential difference across it or current in it
changes at constant temperature.
D remains unchanged, even if its temperature changes. (2)
June 2017
23. When a resistor of resistance R is connected to a battery of emf Ɛ and negligible internal
resistance, the power dissipated in the resistor is P. If the resistor is replaced with a
resistor of resistance 2R, without changing the battery, the power dissipated will be …
A ¼P B ½P C 2P D 4P (2)
Nov 2017
24. Four identical bulbs, P, Q, R and S, are connected to a cell in a circuit, as shown below.
The cell has negligible internal resistance.
Which ONE of the following statements about the brightness of bulbs P, Q, R and S
is CORRECT?
A P burns brighter than R.
B S and Q burn brighter than P and R.
C P and R burn brighter than S and Q.
D ALL the bulbs burn with the same brightness. (2)
March 2018
25. In the circuit below the battery has an emf (ε) and internal resistance r.
With switch S open, readings are registered on the ammeter and voltmeter.
Switch S is now closed. How do the readings on the ammeter and voltmeter change?
AMMETER READING VOLTMETER READING
A Increases Remains the same
B Increases Decreases
C Decreases Remains the same
D Decreases Decreases
(2)
June 2018
26. In the circuit diagrams below, the cells and resistors are identical. The cells have
negligible internal resistances.
The power dissipated in resistor X is P. The power dissipated in resistor Y is …

A ¼P. B ½P. C 2P. D 4P. (2)
Nov 2018
27. A battery of emf Ɛ and negligible internal resistance is connected in a circuit, as shown
below. The resistances of R1 and R2 are high.
Which ONE of the following combinations about the ammeter readings will be CORRECT
when switch S is open and when switch S is closed?
SWITCH OPEN SWITCH CLOSED
A Ammeter reads only the Ammeter reads only the
current in R1 current in R2
B Ammeter reads only the Ammeter reads the current in
current in R2 both R1 and R2
C Ammeter reads the current Ammeter reads the current in
in both R1 and R2 both R1 and R2
D Ammeter reads the current Ammeter reads the current in
in both R1 and R2 R2 only
(2)
June 2019
28. Which ONE of the graphs below best represents the relationship between potential
difference (V) and current (I) for an ohmic conductor?
(2)
Nov 2019
29. In the circuit below, the battery has an internal resistance r and an emf ε. A variable
resistor R is connected in the circuit and the ammeter and voltmeter register readings.
The resistance of the variable resistor R is INCREASED now. Which ONE of the following
combinations is the CORRECT representation of the change in the readings on the
ammeter and voltmeter as the resistance of R is increased?
AMMETER READING VOLTMETER READING

A Decreases Increases
B Increases Increases
C Increases Decreases
(2)
Nov 2020
30. In the circuit diagram below, all resistors are IDENTICAL. Ignore the internal resistance
of the cell and the resistance of the connecting wires.
When switch S is CLOSED, the reading on voltmeter V1 is 3 V.

What will be the reading on voltmeter V2?
A 1V B 1,5 V C 2V D 3V (2)
June 2021
31. In the circuit diagram shown below all the resistors are IDENTICAL. Ignore the internal
resistance of the cell.
Which voltmeter will have the HIGHEST reading when switch S is closed?
A V1 B V2 C V3 D V4 (2)
Nov 2021
32. Which ONE of the following phrases describes the emf of a battery?
A Energy supplied per unit time
B Charge transferred per unit time
C Current supplied per unit charge
D Maximum energy supplied per unit charge (2)
June 2022
33. The emf of a battery is Ɛ and its

internal resistance is r. The
battery is connected to three
resistors and four voltmeters, as
shown. The resistance of the
conducting wires is negligible,
while the voltmeters have very
high resistances.
Which ONE of the following

equations represents the reading
on voltmeter V1 in terms of the
readings on the other voltmeters?
A V1 = V2 + V3
1
B V1 = V2 + V3
2
C V1 = V2 + V3 + V4
D V1 = V2 + 2V3 (2)
Nov 2022
ALTERNATING CURRENT AND ELECTRICAL MACHINES

1. The simplified diagram of an electric motor is shown below.
B C
N S
A D
 
When the switch is closed, coil ABCD rotates …

A clockwise.
B anticlockwise.
C clockwise until it reaches the vertical position and then reverses its direction.
D anticlockwise until it reaches the vertical position and then reverses its direction. (2)
Nov 2010
2. Which ONE of the following changes to the design of an AC generator will increase its
maximum emf?
A Change the polarity of the magnets
B Use larger slip rings
C Use larger brushes
D Increase the number of turns on the coil (2)
March 2011
3. The cross () in the diagram below represents a conductor carrying conventional
current INTO THE PAGE in the uniform field between the two bar magnets. The
conductor is placed between the north (N) pole and south (S) pole of the magnets, as
shown. A
S N
B ⊗ D
S N
C
In which ONE of the directions A, B, C or D (all lying in the plane of the page)
will this conductor experience a force?
A A B B C C D D (2)
March 2011
4. A rectangular current-carrying coil, PQRS, is placed in a uniform magnetic field with its
plane parallel to the field as shown below. The arrows indicate the direction of the
conventional current.
axis
Q R
N S
O O
R U
T T
H P S H
The coil will ...

A rotate clockwise. B remain stationary.
C rotate anticlockwise. D rotate clockwise and then anticlockwise. (2)
Nov 2012
5. In the sketch below, a conductor carrying conventional current, I, is placed in a magnetic
field. I
N S
Which ONE of the following best describes the direction of the magnetic force experienced
by the conductor?
A Parallel to the direction of the magnetic field
B Opposite to the direction of the magnetic field
C Into the page perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field
D Out of the page perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field (2)
Nov 2013
6. In the diagram below a conductor situated between two magnets is carrying current
out of the page. I
N II • IV S
III
The direction of the force exerted on the conductor is towards:
A I B II C III D IV (2)
Exemplar 2014
7. The coils of an AC generator make one complete rotation. The resulting graph for the
output emf is shown below.
emf (V)
●
●
t (s)
The position B on the graph is obtained when the plane of the coil is at an angle of …
to the magnetic field.
A 0º B 60º C 90º D 120º (2)
Nov 2014
8. The speed of rotation of the coils in an AC generator is increased. Which ONE of the
following combinations of frequency and output voltage for the generator will occur as a
result of the change?
FREQUENCY OUTPUT VOLTAGE
A Increases Increases
B No change Increases
C Decreases Decreases
D Increases No change
(2)
March 2015
9. A DC generator operates at 80 Hz. The number of times the output voltage reaches a
maximum in 1 second is ...
A 40. B 80. C 120. D 160. (2)
June 2015
10. A DC current passes through a rectangular wire loop OPQR placed between two pole pieces
of a magnet, as shown below.
Which TWO segments of the loop will experience an electromagnetic force when the loop is
in the position above?
A OP and PQ B QR and RO
C OP and QR D RO and OP (2)
Nov 2015
11. Graph P represents the output emf of an AC generator. Graph Q is the output emf after a
change has been made using the SAME generator.
2V
Q
Output emf (V)

V
t(s)
Which ONE of the following changes has been made to the generator to produce graph Q?
A The number of turns of the coil has been doubled.
B The surface area of the coil has been doubled.
C The speed of rotation has been doubled.
D The strength of the magnetic field has been doubled. (2)
March 2016
12. Some learners decided to build a small electrical generator in the laboratory. They then
used this generator to investigate how the magnitude of the induced emf would change
as the magnetic field strength changed.
Which ONE of the following is CORRECT regarding the variables for the investigation?
INDEPENDENT
DEPENDENT VARIABLE CONTROL VARIABLE
VARIABLE
Magnitude of Number of turns of coil
A Magnetic field strength
induced emf of generator
Number of turns of coil of Magnitude of
B Magnetic field strength
generator induced emf
Magnitude of Number of turns of coil
C Magnetic field strength
induced emf of generator
Number of turns of coil Magnitude of
D Magnetic field strength
of generator induced emf
(2)
June 2016
13. Which ONE of the following changes may lead to an increase in the emf of an AC
generator without changing its frequency?
A Decrease the resistance of the coil.
B Increase the area of the coil.
C Increase the resistance of the coil.
D Decrease the speed of rotation. (2)
Nov 2016
14. In a DC generator the current to the external circuit is delivered through the …
A coils. B battery.
C slip rings. D split rings (commutators). (2)
March 2017
15. Which ONE of the following energy conversions takes place when an AC generator
is in operation?
A Electrical to mechanical B Mechanical to electrical
C Heat to mechanical D Electrical to potential (2)
June 2017
16. The diagram below shows a current-carrying conductor lying in a uniform magnetic field
directed to the right. The current flows into the page.
Which ONE of the following arrows shows the direction of the force experienced by the
conductor due to the magnetic field?
A B
C D
(2)
Nov 2017
17. Which ONE of the energy conversions below takes place when a DC motor is
in operation?
A Kinetic to electrical B Heat to mechanical
C Mechanical to electrical D Electrical to mechanical (2)
March 2018
18. A learner lists the following as factors that affect the magnitude of the current induced
in an AC generator:
(i) The number of turns (windings) of the coil
(ii) The strength of the magnetic field
(iii) The speed of rotation of the coil
Which ONE of the combinations below is CORRECT?
A (i) and (ii) only B (i) and (iii) only
C (ii) and (iii) only D (i), (ii) and (iii) (2)
June 2018
19. Which ONE of the following actions will NOT cause an increase in the induced emf in
a coil if the coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field?
A Rotating the coil faster
B Increasing the strength of the magnetic field
C Increasing the number of turns of the coil
D Replacing the coil with a coil of lower resistance (2)
Nov 2018
20. The direction of the induced current in the coil of a generator depends on the …
A length of the coil. B speed of rotation of the coil.
C direction of the magnetic field. D strength of the magnetic field. (2)
June 2019
21. Which ONE of the following combinations regarding the energy conversions in electric
motors and electric generators is CORRECT?
ENERGY CONVERSION IN ENERGY CONVERSION
MOTORS IN GENERATORS
A Mechanical to electrical Electrical to mechanical
B Mechanical to electrical Mechanical to electrical
C Electrical to mechanical Electrical to mechanical
D Electrical to mechanical Mechanical to electrical
(2)
Nov 2019
22. An AC generator generates a current with a frequency of 50 Hz. The number of times
that the maximum (peak) current is produced in one second is …
A 25. B 50. C 75. D 100. (2)
Nov 2020
23. Consider the statements below regarding AC power and DC power:

I AC voltage can be changed during AC power transmission.
II DC power transmission requires transformers.
III AC power transmission is more energy efficient.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?
A I only B II only
C I and III only D II and III only (2)
June 2021
24. In which ONE of the following electrical machines is electrical energy converted to
mechanical energy?
A AC generator B DC generator
C AC dynamo D DC motor (2)
Nov 2021
25. The graph below represents the output voltage versus time for an AC generator.
The speed of rotation of the generator's coil is now DOUBLED.

Which ONE of the combinations below shows the CORRECT new peak output voltage
and the time for ONE rotation?
PEAK OUTPUT VOLTAGE (V) TIME FOR ONE ROTATION (S)
A 400 0,02
B 200 0,02
C 200 0,04
D 100 0,04
(2)
June 2022
26. An AC generator consists of a coil which is rotated

in a magnetic field. The emf time graph for one
complete rotation of the coil is shown on the right.
If the speed of rotation of the coil is now DOUBLED,
which ONE of the graphs below is CORRECT for t (s)
one complete rotation of the coil?
A B
t (s) t (s)
C D
t (s) t (s)
(2)
Nov 2022
OPTICAL PHENOMENA
1. The energy level diagram for an element is shown below. E0 represents the ground state.
The energy change from E0 to E1 is smaller than that for E2 to E1.
E2
E1
E0
The electron transition from E2 to E1 corresponds to a green line in the element's spectrum.
The transition E0 to E1 corresponds to ...
A absorption of green light. B emission of green light.
C emission of red light. D absorption of red light. (2)
Exemplar (2) 2008
2. A metal is illuminated with light of frequency f and the electrons emitted have a
maximum kinetic energy of Ek.
Which ONE of the following graphs best illustrates the relationship between kinetic
energy (Ek) of the emitted electrons and frequency (f) of the incident light?
(2)
Sept 2008
3. A line emission spectrum is formed when electrons in an atom, that moves from …
A higher to lower energy levels, emit energy as light.
B higher to lower energy levels, absorb light energy.
C lower to higher energy levels, emit energy as light.
D lower to higher energy levels, absorb light energy. (2)
Nov (2) 2009
4. Which ONE of the following phenomena provides the most conclusive evidence for the
wave nature of light?
A Photoelectric effect B Refraction
C Reflection D Diffraction (2)
Nov 2010
5. A neon tube lights up when a large external voltage is applied across it. Which ONE of
the following best describes the type of spectrum observed when the gas inside the tube
is viewed through a diffraction grating?
A Continuous B Absorption
C Line emission D Line absorption (2)
Nov 2010
6. When a clean metal plate is irradiated with light of sufficient energy, photoelectrons
are emitted. The INTENSITY of the light is now increased. This change will …
A increase the number of photoelectrons emitted per second.
B decrease the number of photoelectrons emitted per second.
C increase the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons.
D decrease the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons. (2)
Nov 2010
7. Which ONE of the following correctly represents the given types of electromagnetic
radiation in order of INCREASING WAVELENGTH?
A Microwaves; infrared; ultraviolet
B Infrared; ultraviolet; X-rays
C Radio waves; infrared; gamma rays
D Ultraviolet; infrared; microwaves (2)
Nov 2010
8. Which ONE of the following descriptions best explains the formation of a line emission
spectrum?
A line emission spectrum is formed when …
A white light passes through a cold gas.
B white light passes through a triangular prism.
C electrons in the ground state move to a higher energy level.
D electrons in the excited state move to a lower energy level. (2)
Nov 2011
9. Which ONE of the following electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength?
A Radio waves B Gamma rays
C Infrared rays D Ultraviolet rays (2)
Nov 2011
10. When light shines on a metal plate in a photocell, electrons are emitted.
The graph below shows the relationship between the kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectrons and the frequency of the incoming light.
D
⚫
kinetic energy (J)
A B C
0⚫ ⚫ ⚫
frequency (Hz)
Which ONE of the points (A, B, C or D) on the graph represents the threshold frequency?
A A B B C C D D (2)
March 2012
11. Overexposure to sunlight causes damage to plants and crops.
Which ONE of the following types of electromagnetic radiation is responsible for this
damage?
A Ultraviolet rays B Radio waves
C Visible light D X-rays (2)
March 2012
12. The diagram below shows light incident on the cathode of a photocell. The ammeter
registers a reading.
Incident light
Which ONE of the following correctly describes the relationship between the intensity of the
incident light and the ammeter reading?
INTENSITY AMMETER READING
B Increases Remains the same
C Increases Decreases
D Decreases Increases
(2)
Nov 2012
13. Consider the types of electromagnetic radiation below:
(i) Gamma rays
(ii) X-rays
(iii) Infrared rays
Which of the above radiations have wavelengths shorter than that of visible light?
A (i), (ii) and (iii) B (i) and (ii) only
C (i) and (iii) only D (ii) and (iii) only (2)
March 2013
14. Which ONE of the following provides evidence that light behaves as particles?
A Light can be diffracted.
B Light is refracted by a triangular prism.
C Light ejects electrons from a metal surface.
D The speed of light decreases when it travels from air to glass. (2)
March 2013
15. An atom in its ground state absorbs energy E and is excited to a higher energy state.
When the atom returns to the ground state, a photon with energy ...
A E is absorbed. B E is released.
C less than E is released. D less than E is absorbed. (2)
Nov 2013
16. In a vacuum, all electromagnetic waves have the same …
A energy. B speed.
C frequency. D wavelength. (2)
Nov 2013
17. Light spectra help to identify elements. White light is passed through a cold gas and then
through a prism as shown in the sketch below.
White light cold gas
prism screen
What type of spectrum is observed on the screen?

A Line absorption spectrum B Line emission spectrum
C Continuous absorption spectrum D Continuous emission spectrum (2)
March 2014
18. When light of a certain frequency is incident on the cathode of a photocell, the
ammeter in the circuit registers a reading.
incident light
Metal surface
e-
μA
The frequency of the incident light is now increased while keeping the intensity constant.
Which ONE of the following correctly describes the reading on the ammeter and the
reason for this reading?
Ammeter reading Reason
A Increases More photoelectrons are emitted per second
B Increases The speed of the photoelectrons increases.
C Remains the same The number of photoelectrons remains the same.
D Remains the same The speed of photoelectrons remains the same.
(2)
Exemplar 2014
19. The diagram below shows the electron transitions P, Q, R and S between different
energy levels in an atom.
E3
R
E2
S
E1
P Q
E0
Which ONE of the transitions will result in an emission of a radiation with the longest
wavelength?
A P B Q C R D S (2)
Nov 2014
20. A learner makes the observations below after conducting an experiment using a photocell
with frequencies of the incident light being above the threshold frequency (cut-off
frequency).
(i) The photocurrent increases as the intensity of the incident light increases.
(ii) The ammeter in the circuit registers a current immediately after the incident light is
radiated on the cathode.
(iii) The photocurrent increases as the frequency of the incident light increases.
Which of the observation(s) is/are CORRECT?
C (i) and (ii) only D (ii) and (iii) only (2)
Nov 2014
21. The spectrum of an element from a star shows some absorption lines. These lines are
produced because …
A atoms absorb energy when moving from an excited state to a lower energy state.
B a cold gas absorbs certain frequencies of light passing through it.
C a hot gas absorbs certain frequencies of light passing through it.
D atoms release energy when moving from an excited state to a lower energy state. (2)
March 2015
22. Light of a certain frequency is incident on a metal surface and photoelectrons are
emitted from the surface.
If the INTENSITY of the same light is increased, the ...
A kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons increases.
B kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons decreases.
C number of photoelectrons emitted per second increases.
D number of photoelectrons emitted per second decreases. (2)
June 2015
23. A line emission spectrum is formed when an excited atom moves from a ...
A higher to a lower energy level and releases energy.
B higher to a lower energy level and absorbs energy.
C lower to a higher energy level and releases energy.
D lower to a higher energy level and absorbs energy. (2)
Nov 2015
24. When light of a certain wavelength is incident on a metal surface, no electrons are
ejected. Which ONE of the following changes may result in electrons being ejected
from the metal surface?
A Increase the intensity of the light.
B Use light with a much shorter wavelength.
C Use metal with a larger work function.
D Increase the surface area of the metal. (2)
Nov 2015
25. The possible atomic transitions in an excited atom of an element are shown below.
LEVEL 4
P LEVEL 4
L LEVEL 3
LEVEL 4
Q
Energy LE LEVEL 2
LEVEL 4
R S
LEV LE
LEVEL 1: ground state
Which transition will produce the spectral line with the longest wavelength?
A P B Q C R D S (2)
March 2016
26. In an experiment on the photoelectric effect, a scientist shines red light on a metal
surface and observes that electrons are ejected from the metal surface. Later the
scientist shines blue light, with the same intensity as the red light, on the same metal
surface.
Which ONE of the statements below will be the CORRECT observation as a
result of this change?
A The number of ejected electrons per second will increase.
B The number of ejected electrons per second will decrease.
C The speed of the ejected electrons will decrease.
D The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons will increase. (2)
June 2016
27. The wavelength of a monochromatic light source P is twice that of a monochromatic
light source Q.
The energy of a photon from source P will be … of a photon from source Q.
A a quarter of the energy B half the energy
C equal to the energy D twice the energy (2)
Nov 2016
28. In an experiment on the photoelectric effect, the frequency of the incident light is high
enough to cause the removal of electrons from the surface of the metal.
The number of electrons ejected from the metal surface is proportional to the …
A kinetic energy of the electrons.
B number of incident photons.
C work function of the metal.
D frequency of the incident light. (2)
March 2017
29. The diagram below shows four energy levels of an atom. The transition of the atom from
higher energy levels to lower energy levels results in the emission of a photon.
Which ONE of the following transitions will lead to the emission of a photon with the
shortest wavelength?
A From energy level E2 to energy level E1
B From energy level E3 to energy level E0
C From energy level E3 to energy level E2
D From energy level E1 to energy level E0 (2)
June 2017
30. Light of a certain frequency is shone onto a metal M and electrons are ejected from the
surface. The same source of light is shone onto another metal N. The electrons ejected
from the surface of metal N have a much higher kinetic energy than that from metal M.
This means that …
A metal N has the same work function as metal M.
B metal N has a larger work function than metal M.
C the threshold frequency of metal N is higher than that of metal M.
D the threshold frequency of metal N is lower than that of metal M. (2)
Nov 2017
31. In an investigation on the photoelectric effect, the graph of maximum kinetic
energy (Ek(max)) versus frequency (f) was obtained for a certain metal, as shown below.
The intercepts, P and Q respectively, represent …

A Planck's constant and threshold frequency.
B work function and threshold frequency.
C threshold frequency and work function.
D threshold frequency and Planck's constant. (2)
March 2018
32. The graph below is obtained from an experiment on the photoelectric effect.
Which ONE of the following represents the gradient of the graph?

Ek(max)
A hc B h C D W0 (2)
λ
June 2018
33. A learner writes the following statements about the emission spectrum of light in a
notebook:
(i) An emission spectrum is formed when certain frequencies of electromagnetic
radiation pass through a cold gas.
(ii) The lines in the emission spectrum of an atom have the same frequency as the
corresponding lines in the atom's absorption spectrum.
(iii) An emission spectrum is formed when the atom makes transitions from a
high-energy state to a lower energy state.
Which ONE of the following combinations of the statements above is CORRECT?
C (ii) and (iii) only D (i) and (iii) only (2)
Nov 2018
34. The work function of zinc is greater than that of magnesium. Which ONE of the following
statements about the threshold frequencies of the metals is CORRECT?
A The threshold frequency of zinc is greater than that of magnesium.
B The threshold frequency of zinc is smaller than that of magnesium.
C Both zinc and magnesium have the same threshold frequency.
D The threshold frequencies of zinc and magnesium are independent of their work
functions. (2)
June 2019
35. Consider the statements below regarding the photoelectric effect.
The photoelectric effect proves that …
(i) light energy is quantised.
(ii) light has a particle nature.
(iii) light has a wave nature.
Which of the statements above is/are CORRECT?
C (i) and (ii) only D (i) and (iii) only (2)
Nov 2019
36. The sodium cathode of a photocell is irradiated with ultraviolet light as shown in the
diagram below. The ammeter registers a current.
Which ONE of the following changes will INCREASE the ammeter reading?
A Use a thinner sodium cathode.
B Increase the intensity of the ultraviolet light.
C Increase the frequency of the ultraviolet light.
D Replace the sodium cathode with a cathode of lower work function. (2)
Nov 2020
37. Some of the energy levels of an atom are represented in the diagram below.
E0 represents the ground state energy.

Which ONE of the energy transitions below represents the absorption of light of the lowest
frequency by the atom?
A E0 to E4 B E1 to E3 C E3 to E4 D E0 to E3 (2)
June 2021
38. Which ONE of the following combinations correctly links an emission spectrum and an
absorption spectrum to the energy transitions of an electron in an atom?
EMISSION SPECTRUM ABSORPTION SPECTRUM
A From low to high energy levels From high to low energy levels
B From low to high energy levels From low to high energy levels
C From high to low energy levels From high to low energy levels
D From high to low energy levels From low to high energy levels
(2)
Nov 2021
39. A photon of light of energy 2X joules is shone onto a metal surface with work function
X joules.
Which ONE of the following represents the maximum kinetic energy (in joules) of the
electron ejected from the metal by this photon?
1
A Zero B X C X D 2X (2)
2
June 2022
40. White light is passed through a cold gas and then through a prism, as shown. A line
spectrum is observed on the screen.
White light Cold gas Prism Screen

Which ONE of the following correctly describes the ENERGY TRANSITION of the
atoms of the gas and the TYPE OF LINE SPECTRUM observed on the screen?
ENERGY TRANSITION TYPE OF LINE SPECTRUM
A Higher to lower energy level Emission
B Lower to higher energy level Emission
C Higher to lower energy level Absorption
D Lower to higher energy level Absorption (2)
Nov 2022
Physical Sciences P2 (Chemistry) Gr 12 1 FS/2023
TABLE OF CONTENTS
GENERAL GUIDELINES WHEN ANSWERING MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 2

ORGANIC MOLECULES: NOMENCLATURE 4
ORGANIC MOLECULES: PHYSICAL PROPERTIES 13
ORGANIC MOLECULES: ORGANIC REACTIONS 15
REACTION RATE AND ENERGY IN CHEMICAL REACTIONS 20
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM 33
ACIDS AND BASES 46
GALVANIC CELLS AND REDOX REACTIONS 51
ELECTROLYTIC CELLS 59
CREDITS
The following question papers were used to compile this
book:
Department of Basic Education, National Senior Certificate
Physical Sciences Question Papers, 2008 – 2022, Pretoria
Multiple-choice questions © Free State Department of Education

GENERAL GUIDELINES WHEN ANSWERING MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Don't be afraid of multiple-choice questions. Here are a few tips to answer them.
1. Do not spend more than about 30 minutes on the multiple-choice questions.
2. Start by carefully reading the sub-questions (1.1, 1.2, etc.) and pay attention to the keywords.
3. Aso pay attention to words that are in capital letters or otherwise emphasised. This is always
important, even in the rest of the paper. The examiner wants you to focus on the emphasised
words.
4. Decide whether you are required to recall or use a fact, phenomenon, definition, unit or formula.
5. Use the process of elimination. Eliminate all the answers you know are incorrect, then focus on
the remaining answers. Not only does this strategy save time, it greatly increases your
likelihood of selecting the correct answer.This is particularly helpful when the answers or
options are very close to each other.
6. Never leave a multiple-choice question unanswered. If you do not know the answer, even after
trying the process of elimination, then guess!
7. Answers supplied to the questions below demonstrate how to solve multiple choice questions
that involve more than one step. A seemingly difficult chemistry multiple choice question might
be very easy to solve if you follow the steps.
EXAMPLE 1
The condensed structural formula of an organic compound is given below.
CH3
Cℓ CH2 CH CH CH3
CH2
CH3
Which ONE of the following is the correct IUPAC name of this compound?
A 1-chloro-2,3-dimethylbutane B 1-chloro-2,3-dimethylpentane
C 1-chloro-3-ethyl-2-methylbutane D 5-chloro-3,4-dimethylpentane
Solution:
• All bonds are single bonds and the compound has a chlorine substituent – thus it is a chloroalkane/
haloalkane.
• Determine the longest chain that contains the halogen. The straight chain has 4 C atoms, but when counting
3 C atoms from the halogen and then 2 C atoms down, the longest chain has 5 C atoms. Therefore the
compound is a pentane with a chloro and two methyl (1 C atom each) substituents i.e.
chlorodimethylpentane.
• Answers A and C (both butane) are eliminated. The choice is now between B and D.
• Count from the side giving the substituents (halogen and alkyl) the lowest number. No preference is given
to the halogen substituent.
• When C atoms are numbered from the C atom bonded to the chlorine, the compound is 1-chloro-2,3-
dimethylpentane and from the other side it is 5-chloro-3,4-dimethylpentane. 1,2,3 is smaller than 5,3,4.
• Answer: B
EXAMPLE 2
Consider the following hypothetical reaction that reached equilibrium in a closed container at 450 °C:
XY(s) ⇌ X(g) + Y(s) ΔH > 0
Which ONE of the following changes will NOT affect the equilibrium position?
A Increase in temperature
B Increase in the amount of Y(s)
C Decrease in pressure at constant volume
D Increase in the volume of the container

Solution:
To make predictions on the effect on the equilibrium position, Le Chatelier’s principal must be applied.
Analyse the reaction:
• ΔH > 0: The reaction is endotermic reaction and the forward reaction will be favoured by an increase in T.
T will affect the equilibrium position and thus A cannot be the answer.
• The reactant an one product are solids. Only one gas. An increase in p will favour the reverse reaction (1
mol gas to 0 mol gas) and a decrease in p will favour the forward reaction (0 mol gas to 1 mol gas). C
cannot be the answer.
• Increasing the volume of the container will decrease p which will affect the equilibrium position. Therefore
D cannot be the answer.
• Through elimination we found that the answer should be B. Adding more Y(s), a solid, at the same
temperature, will not affect the equilibrium position.
EXAMPLE 3
The following half-reactions take place in a galvanic cell:
Co3+ + e- ⇌ Co2+
Aℓ3++ 3e- ⇌ Aℓ
Which ONE of the following is the cell notation for this cell?
A Aℓ ∣ Aℓ3+ ∥ Co3+, Co2+
B Aℓ ∣ Aℓ3+ ∥ Co3+, Co2+ ∣ Pt
C Aℓ ∣ Aℓ3+ ∥ Co2+, Co3+ ∣ Pt
D Pt ∣ Co2+, Co3+ ∥ Aℓ3+ ∣ Aℓ
Solution:
• Find the two half-reactions on Table 4B (Table of Standard Reduction Potentials). Aℓ is a stronger reducing
agent than Co2+ (Table 4B – see direction of arrow indicating increasing strength of reducing agents).
Therefore Aℓ ∣ Aℓ3+ is the anode half-cell and must be written on the left in the cell notation. Therefore D is
eliminated.
• Co3+ and Co2+ are both ions and thus in solution. Therefore an inactive electrode will be needed to connect
the wire to. A is eliminated because there is no electrode in the cathode half-cell.
• To choose between B and C, you need to look at the reduction half-reaction taking place at the cathode:
Co3+ + e- → Co2+
• The ions should appear in the same sequence as in the reduction half-reaction i.e. first Co3+, then Co2+.
• Answer: B
EXAMPLE 4
Which ONE of the following solutions can be stored in an aluminium container?
(Use the Table of Standard Reduction Potentials.)
A CuSO4(aq) B ZnSO4(aq)
C NaCℓ(aq) D Pb(NO3)2(aq)
Solution:
• To be safely stored in Aℓ container, the solution must not react with the container. Aℓ must not be oxidised
to Aℓ3+ i.e. Aℓ → Aℓ3+ + 3e-.
• Find the Aℓ half-reaction in Table 4B (Table of Standard Reduction Potentials).
• The solutions to be stored contain the following ions: Cu 2+, Zn2+, Na+ and Pb2+. Find the half-reactions for
these ions in the table.
• Oxidising agents are to the left of the table. The stronger oxidising agent (left bottom) will react with the
stronger reducing agent (right top).
The sequence of the half-reactions in Table 4B is as follows:
Na+ + e- ⇌ Na
Aℓ3+ + 3e- ⇌ Aℓ
Zn2+ + 2e- ⇌ Zn
Pb2+ + 2e- ⇌ Pb
Cu2+ + 2e- ⇌ Cu
• Cu2+, Pb2+ and Zn2+ are all stronger oxidising agents than Aℓ3+ and will oxidise Aℓ to Aℓ3+. Therefore solutions
containing these three ions cannot be stored in an Aℓ container.
• Na+ is a weaker oxidising agent than Aℓ3+ and therefore will NOT oxidise Aℓ to Aℓ3+. Only NaCℓ(aq) can be
stored in an Aℓ container. Answer: C
IMPORTANT:
Always compare an oxidising agent to another oxidising agent, never to a reducing agent. Vergelyk When looking
at the table, always compare species to the left of the double arrows in the Table of Standard Reduction
Potentials with each other. Reducing agents (to the right of the double arrows) are compared to each other.

ORGANIC MOLECULES: NOMENCLATURE
1. Which of the following are structural isomers of hexane?

(i) CH3 ―CH2 ―CH― CH2CH3 (ii) CH3 ―CH2 CH3
│ │ │
CH2CH3 CH2 ―CH2 ― CH2
(iii) CH3 ―CH― CH2―CH3

│
CH2 ―CH3
A (i) and (ii) only B (ii) and (iii) only

C (i), (ii) and (iii) D (i) and (iii) only (2)
Exemp 2008
2. The structural formulae for four compounds are shown below.
O H H H O H O H
H C OH H C C C H H C H H C C C H
H H H H H
These compounds can be classified in the correct sequence as …
A Carboxylic acid, alkane, ketone, aldehyde
B Carboxylic acid, ketone, aldehyde, alkane
C Aldehyde, alkane, carboxylic acid, ketone
D Carboxylic acid, alkane, aldehyde, ketone (2)
Exemp 2008
3. The condensed structural formula of an organic compound is given below.
CH3
Cℓ CH2 CH CH CH3
CH2
CH3
A 1-chloro-2,3-dimethylbutane B 1-chloro-2,3-dimethylpentane
C 1-chloro-3-ethyl-2-methylbutane D 1-chloro-2-ethyl-3-methylpentane (2)
Nov 2008
4. The condensed structural formula of an organic compound is shown below:
Br
CH CH2 CH3
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH2
Br
A 4,6-dibromooctane B 4-bromo-5-bromo-5-propylpentane
C 3,5-dibromooctane D 2-bromo-1-bromo-1-propylpentane (2)
March 2009

5. The structural formula of an ester is shown below.

H H H H O H H
H C C C C O C C C H
H H H H H H
Which ONE of the following pairs of compounds can be used to prepare the above ester?
A Propanoic acid and butan-1-ol
B Propanoic acid and butan-2-ol
C Butanoic acid and propan-1-ol
D Butanoic acid and propan-2-ol (2)
Nov 2009
6. Which ONE of the following compounds has structural isomers?
H H H H
A Cℓ C C H B Br C C H
H H H H
Cℓ Cℓ H Br
C Cℓ C C H D H C C H
Cℓ Cℓ Br H
(2)
Nov 2009
7. Which ONE of the following compounds represents a ketone?
H H H
A H C C C H B H C O C H
H O H O H
H H
C H O C C H D H C O H
H
O H H
(2)
Nov 2010
8. Consider the compound with molecular formula C4H10. How many structural isomers
does this compound have?
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
(2)
Nov 2010
9. The structural formula of an organic compound is given below.
CH3
CH3 CH CH CH2 C C CH3
CH3
The IUPAC name of this compound is ...
A 2,3-dimethylhept-5-yne. B 5,6-dimethylhept-2-yne.
C 2,3-methylhept-2-yne. D 5,6-dimethylhept-3-yne. (2)
March 2011

10. Which ONE of the following hydrocarbons has NO structural isomers?

A Butane B Pentane
C Propane D But-1-ene (2)
FS Jun 2011
11. Which ONE of the following general formulae represents alkynes?
A CnH2n+2 B CnH2n-2
C CnH2n D CnH2n-1 (2)
Nov 2011
12. Which ONE of the following homologous series does NOT contain a CARBONYL
group ( C O )?
A Aldehydes B Alcohols
C Carboxylic acids D Esters (2)
Nov 2011
13. The structures of four organic compounds are shown below.
C H3 CH3 C H2 CH OH
I CH3 CH CH C H3 II CH2
OH C H3
CH3 CH C H2 C H3
CH3 CH CH C H3
III IV C H2
OH C H3
OH
Which of the above compounds have the same IUPAC name?

A I and II only B III and IV only
C I and III only D II and IV only (2)
Nov 2011
14. Which ONE of the following compounds CANNOT be an alkene?
A C2H4 B C3H6
C C3H8 D C4H8 (2)
March 2012
15. Which ONE of the compounds represented below is an UNSATURATED hydrocarbon?
A H H O B H H
H C C C H C C C H
H H H
H H
C H H H D H H O
H C C C H H C C C O H
H H H H H
(2)
March 2012

16. Consider the two organic compounds represented by I and II, as shown below.
I II
H O H O
H C C C H C
H H
H H
Which ONE of the following correctly represents the homologous series to which each belongs?
I II
A aldehyde alcohol
B ketone alcohol
C ketone aldehyde
D aldehyde ketone
(2)
March 2012
17. Consider the organic compound represented below.
H H H
H C C C C H
H H
H C H
H
The compound is ...
A saturated and branched. B unsaturated and branched.
C saturated and straight-chained. D unsaturated and straight-chained. (2)
Nov 2012
18. A structural isomer of butane is ...
A propane. B 2-methylbutane.
C 2-methylpropane. D 2,2-dimethylpropane. (2)
Nov 2012
19. The alcohols form a homologous series. This means that alcohols have ...
A similar chemical properties.
B similar physical properties.
C the same molecular formula.
D the same structural formula. (2)
Nov 2012
20. Consider the organic compounds (I to IV) shown below.
I CH C CH2 CH3 II CH3 C C CH2 CH3
III CH3 C C CH3 IV CH3 C CH
Which of the compounds above are structural isomers?

A I and II B I and III
C I and IV D II and III (2)
March 2013

21. Which ONE of the following is the functional group of aldehydes?

A ─ COO ─ B ─ COOH
C ─ CHO D ─ OH (2)
Nov 2013
22. Which ONE of the compounds given below is an aldehyde?
A CH3CHO B CH3COCH3
C CH3COOH D CH3OH (2)
Exemp 2014
23. Consider the structural formula of an organic compound below.
H H
H C HH C H
H H
H C C C C C H
H H H
H C H
H
A 2,2,4-trimethylpent-2-ene B 2,2,4-trimethylpent-3-ene
C 2,4,4-trimethylpent-2-ene D 2,4,4-trimethylpent-3-ene (2)
Exemp 2014
24. Which ONE of the following compounds is a ketone?
A CH3COCH2CH3 B CH3COOCH2CH3
C CH3CH2CH2CHO D CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3 (2)
March 2014
25. Which ONE of the following compounds is SATURATED?
A CH3CH(CH3)CH3 B CH3CH2CHCH2
C CH3CHCHCH3 D CH3C(CH3)2CHCH2 (2)
March 2014
26. Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?
Alkenes ...
A have the general formula CnH2n+2.
B are unsaturated hydrocarbons.
C readily undergo substitution reactions.
D have one triple bond between two carbon atoms. (2)
Nov 2014
27. Which ONE of the following compounds belongs to the same homologous series as
but-2-yne?
A CH3CCH B CH2CHCH2
C CH3CHCHCH3 D CH3CH2CH2CH3 (2)
Nov 2014
28. Which ONE of the following is the EMPIRICAL FORMULA of 1,2-dichloroethane?
A CHCℓ B CH2Cℓ
C CHCℓ2 D C2H4Cℓ2 (2)
Nov 2014
29. Which ONE of the following compounds is an aldehyde?
A Pentanal B Pentan-2-ol
C Pentan-2-one D Ethyl propanoate (2)
March 2015

30. Which ONE of the following compounds is an aldehyde?

A CH3COCH3 B CH3CH2CHO
C CH3CH2COOH D CH3CH2CH2OH (2)
Nov 2015
31. Which ONE of the following pairs of compounds are FUNCTIONAL isomers?
A Methanol and methanal
B Butane and 2-methylpropane
C Propan-1-ol and propan-2-ol
D Propanoic acid and methyl ethanoate (2)
March 2016
32. A compound with the general formula CnH2n+2 is an ...
A alkane. B alkene.
C alkyne. D alcohol. (2)
Jun 2016
33. Which ONE of the following is a functional isomer of butanoic acid?
O O
A H O C CH CH3 B CH3 C O CH2 CH3
CH3
H H H O H
C H C C C C O H D H C C CH2 CH3
H H H H O
(2)
Jun 2016
34. Consider the two organic molecules I and II below.
I II
H H O H O H
H C C C H H C C C H
H H H H
Which ONE of the following represents the homologous series to which compound I and
compound II belong?
I II
A Ketones Alcohols
B Aldehydes Ketones
C Aldehydes Alcohols
D Ketones Aldehydes
(2)
Nov 2016
35. A carbonyl group is the functional group of …
A alcohols. B ketones.
C haloalkanes. D carboxylic acids. (2)
March 2017

36. Consider the structure of an organic compound below.

CH3 CH3
C C
CH3 CH3
The IUPAC name of this compound is …
A 2,3-dimethylbut-2-ene. B 2,2-dimethylbut-2-ene.
C 1,1,2-trimethylprop-1-ene. D 1,1,2,2-tetramethylethene. (2)
March 2017
37. The IUPAC name of an organic compound with molecular formula C7H14O2:
A Heptanal B Heptan-1-ol
C Heptan-2-ol D Heptanoic acid (2)
Nov 2017
38. Which ONE of the following structures is the functional group of aldehydes?
(2)
Nov 2017
39. Which ONE of the following is the general formula of alkynes?
A CnH2n B C2nH2n
C CnH2n-2 D CnH2n+2 (2)
March 2018
40. An example of a saturated organic compound is …
A ethyne. B propene.
C but-2-ene. D 2-chloropropane. (2)
Jun 2018
41. Study the structural formula of the functional group below.
The structure above is the functional group of …

A esters. B ketones.
C aldehydes. D carboxylic acids. (2)
Jun 2018
41. Which ONE of the following is the structural formula of the functional group of the
KETONES?
(2)
Nov 2018

43. Which ONE of the formulae below represents an ALKANE?

A C2H4 B C5H10
C C14H30 D C8H14 (2)
Nov 2018
44. Consider the organic compound below.
The IUPAC name of this compound is …

A 2,3-dimethyl butane. B 3,3-dimethyl butane.
C 2,2-dimethyl butane. D 1,1,1-trimethyl propane. (2)
Nov 2018
45. Which ONE of the following is a SECONDARY alcohol?
A Ethanol B Butan-1-ol
C Butan-2-ol D 2-methylbutan-1-ol (2)
Jun 2019
46. A FUNCTIONAL ISOMER of ethyl propanoate is …
A C4H9CHO. B C5H11OH.
C C4H9COOH. D CH3(CH2)3CHO. (2)
Jun 2019
47. Which ONE of the following combinations are BOTH UNSATURATED
HYDROCARBONS?
A Ethane and ethene B Ethene and ethyne
C Ethane and ethanol D Ethanoic acid and ethene (2)
Nov 2019
48. Which ONE of the following is the general formula for the alkanes?
A CnH2n B CnH2n-2
C CnH2n+2 D CnH2n+2O (2)
Nov 2020
49. The EMPIRICAL FORMULA of hexanoic acid is …
A C3H6O2 B C6H6O2
C C6H12O2 D C3H6O (2)
Nov 2020
50. Which ONE of the following is the CORRECT structural formula for
METHYL ETHANOATE?
(2)
Nov 2020

51. To which homologous series does a compound with molecular formula C6H12O2 belong?
A Ketones B Alcohols
C Aldehydes D Carboxylic acids (2)
Jun 2021
52. Which ONE of the following is an ALKANE?
A C6H8 B C6H10
C C6H12 D C6H14 (2)
Sept 2021
53. Which formula shows the way in which atoms are bonded in a molecule but does not
show all the bond lines?
A Empirical B Molecular
C Structural D Condensed structural (2)
Nov 2021
54. Consider the following compound:
Which ONE of the following is the IUPAC name of this compound?

A 2-methylpentan-3-one B 4-methylpentan-3-one
C 2,3-dimethylbutan-2-one D 2,2,4-trimethylpropan-2-one (2)
Nov 2021
55. Which ONE of the following terms describes hydrocarbons that contain only single
bonds?
A Isomers B Saturated
C Unsaturated D Homologous series (2)
Nov 2022

ORGANIC MOLECULES: PHYSICAL PROPERTIES

1. The boiling points of branched alkanes are lower than those of straight chain alkanes
containing the same number of carbon atoms because branched alkane chains have …
A larger molecular masses.
B shorter chain lengths.
C more electrons.
D smaller effective molecular surface areas. (2)
Nov 2008
2. Which ONE of the following compounds will have the highest boiling point?
A CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 B CH3CH2CH2CH2 OCH3
C CH3CH2CH2CH2 CH2OH D CH3CH2CH2CCH3
O (2)
Exemp 2008
3. Consider the structural formula and IUPAC name of each compound shown below.
H O
H H H H
H C C H
H C C C H
H H H H
propane ethanal
H H H H
H C C O H H C C F
H H H H
ethanol fluoroethane
Which ONE of these compounds has the highest vapour pressure at room temperature?
A Propane B Ethanal
C Ethanol D Fluoroethane (2)
Nov 2009
4. Which ONE of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?
A H H H H H B H H H H
H C C C C C H H C C C C H
H H H H H H H H H
C H H H D H H
H C C C H H C C H
H H H H H
(2)
FS Jun 2011

5. A scientist investigates a factor which influences the boiling points of alkanes.

He determines the boiling points of the first six straight chain alkanes. Which ONE of
the following is the independent variable in this investigation?
A Boiling point B Functional group
C Branching D Chain length (2)
March 2014
6. Which ONE of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?
A CH3CH3 B CH3CH2CH3
C CH3CH2CH2CH3 D CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 (2)
Jun 2015
7. Which ONE of the following compounds has dipole-dipole forces between its molecules?
A Ethanal B Ethane
C Ethene D Ethyne (2)
Nov 2015
8. Which ONE of the following isomers has the LOWEST boiling point?
A CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 B CH3CH2C(CH3) 2CH3
C CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2CH3 D CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3 (2)
March 2018
9. Which ONE of the following compounds has the HIGHEST vapour pressure?
A HCOOH B CH3CHO
C CH3CH2OH D CH3CH2CH3 (2)
Nov 2019
10. Which ONE of the following compounds has hydrogen bonds between molecules?
A Pentanal B Pentan-2-one
C Pentanoic acid D Methyl butanoate (2)
June 2021
11. Which ONE of the following compounds has hydrogen bonds between its molecules?
A CH3(CH2)2CH3 B CH3COCH2CH3
C CH3COOCH2CH3 D CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3 (2)
Nov 2021
12. Which ONE of the following compounds has the LOWEST melting point?
A Hexane B Ethane
C Butane D Octane (2)
June 2022
13. Which ONE of the following combinations correctly indicates the STRONGEST
intermolecular forces found in ethanoic acid and methyl propanoate respectively?
ETHANOIC ACID METHYL PROPANOATE
A Hydrogen bonds Hydrogen bonds
B Dipole-dipole forces London forces
C Hydrogen bonds London forces
D Hydrogen bonds Dipole-dipole forces
(2)
Nov 2022

ORGANIC MOLECULES: ORGANIC REACTIONS
1. A simple reaction scheme is shown below.

HBr(g) reflux with
CH3CH = CH2 X Y + HBr
NaOH(aq)
The formula for Y is …
A CH3CH2COOH B CH3CHOHCH3
C CH3CHBrCH2OH D CH3CHOHCH2Br (2)
Exemp 2008
2. Which ONE of the following reaction types can be used to prepare ethene from octane?
A Addition B Hydrogenation
C Cracking D Substitution (2)
Nov 2009
3. Consider the flow diagram below:
H2
propene compound X
Pt
The IUPAC name for compound X is:

A propyne B propan-1-ol
C propane D propan-2-ol (2)
March 2010
4. During the dehydration of butan-2-ol, represented below, compound Y forms as
one of the products.
H H H H
dehydration
H C C C C H Y
H H O H
H
Which ONE of the following is the correct condensed structural formula for compound Y?
A C H2 C H3 B
CH C H3
C H3 C H2 C H3 CH
C C H2 OH D C H3 C H2
C H3 CH
C H2 C H2
C H3
OH
(2)
March 2010
5. Which ONE of the following pairs of reactants can be used to prepare the ester
ethyl butanoate in the laboratory?
A Ethanal and butanol
B Ethanoic acid and butanol
C Ethanol and butanoic acid
D Ethanal and butanoic acid (2)
Nov 2010

6. Which ONE of the following pairs of compounds correctly represents the products formed during
the COMPLETE combustion of octane?
A CO and H2O B CO and H2
C CO2 and H2 D CO2 and H2O (2)
March 2011
7. Which ONE of the following pairs of reactants can be used to prepare the ester
ethyl methanoate in the laboratory?
A Ethane and methanoic aid
B Methanol and ethanoic acid
C Ethanol and methanoic acid
D Ethene and methanol (2)
March 2011
8. The type of compound formed when but-1-ene reacts with water in the presence of a
suitable catalyst is a/an ...
A alcohol. B alkane.
C haloalkane. D ester. (2)
March 2011
9. Consider the reaction represented below.
H H H H
C C + H H H C C H
H H H H
This reaction is an example of …
A addition. B oxidation.
C elimination. D substitution. (2)
March 2013
10. The equation below represents the reaction that takes place when an organic compound
and concentrated sodium hydroxide are strongly heated.
X represents the major organic product formed.
H H H
H C C C H + NaOH X + NaBr + H2O
H Br H
Which ONE of the following is the correct IUPAC name for compound X?
A Prop-1-ene B Prop-2-ene
C Propan-1-ol D Propan-2-ol (2)
Nov 2013
11. The reaction represented by the equation below takes place in the presence of a catalyst.
C13H28(ℓ) → C2H4(g) + C3H6(g) + C8H18(ℓ)
A Addition B Cracking
C Substitution D Polymerisation (2)
Exemp 2014
12. The following equation represents the cracking of a hydrocarbon at high temperature
and pressure:
C11H24 → 2C2H4 + Y + C4H10
Which ONE of the following is the IUPAC name of product Y?
A Prop-1-ene B Propane
C Ethene D Ethane (2)
Nov. 2014

13. When 2-chlorobutane is strongly heated in the presence of concentrated sodium hydroxide,
the major product formed is …
A but-1-ene. B but-2-ene.
C butan-1-ol. D butan-2-ol. (2)
Nov. 2014
14. Consider the reaction represented by the equation below:
CH3CHCH2 + H2 → CH3CH2CH3
A hydration. B dehydration.
C substitution. D hydrogenation. (2)
March 2015
15. Consider the structural formula of a compound below.
H H H O H
H C C C O C C H
H H H H
Which ONE of the following pairs of reactants can be used to prepare this compound
in the laboratory?
A Propanoic acid and ethanol B Propanoic acid and methanol
C Ethanoic acid and propan-1-ol D Methanoic acid and propan-1-ol (2)
March 2015
16. The addition of hydrogen to an alkene is known as ...
A hydration. B cracking.
C hydrogenation. D hydrohalogenation. (2)
Jun 2015
17. Which ONE of the following is a product formed during the hydrolysis of bromoethane?
A Water B Ethene
C Ethanol D Bromine (2)
Nov. 2015
18. In the flow diagram below P and Q represent two organic compounds.
HBr NaOH(aq)
CH2 CH2 P Q (major product)
heat
Compound Q is:
A CH2CH2 B CH3CH3
C CH3CH2Br D CH3CH2OH (2)
June 2016
19. What product will be formed when an alkene reacts with water vapour (H2O) in the
presence of an acid catalyst?
A Ester B Alkane
C Alcohol D Aldehyde (2)
Nov 2016
20. Which ONE of the following represents a SUBSTITUTION REACTION?
A CH2 = CH2 + HBr → CH3CH2Br
B CH2 = CH2 + H2O → CH3CH2OH
C CH3CH2OH → CH2 = CH2 + H2O
D CH3CH2OH + HBr → CH3CH2Br + H2O (2)
Nov 2016

21. Consider the reaction represented below.

CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 CH3CHCH2 + X
Which ONE of the following CORRECTLY gives the type of reaction that takes place
and the IUPAC name of product X?
Type of reaction Product X
A Elimination Ethane
B Elimination Ethene
C Addition Ethane
D Addition Ethene
(2)
March 2017
22. Which ONE of the following organic reactions will take place only when exposed to light?
A CH2CH2 + H2 → CH3CH3
B CH3CH3 → CH2CH2 + H2
C CH2CH2 + Cℓ2 → CH2CℓCH2Cℓ
D CH3CH3 + Cℓ2 → CH3CH2Cℓ + HCℓ (2)
Jun 2017
23. The complete combustion of ethane is represented by the balanced equation below.
2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(g)
The maximum volume of gas that can be produced by the complete combustion of
100 cm3 of ethane is:
A 200 cm3 B 400 cm3
C 500 cm3 D 600 cm3 (2)
Jun 2017
24. Which ONE of the following equations represents a cracking process?
A 5CH2 = CH2 → — (CH2CH2)5 —
B CH3(CH2)5CH = CH2 + H2 → CH3(CH2)6CH3
C CH3(CH2)6CH3 → CH3(CH2)4CH3 + CH2 = CH2
D CH3(CH2)7OH → CH3(CH2)5CH = CH2 + H2O (2)
Nov 2017
25. The type of reaction that takes place when a carboxylic acid and an alcohol react in the
presence of an acid:
A Addition B Hydrolysis
C Substitution D Esterification (2)
March 2018
26. When ethene reacts with hydrogen gas in the presence of a catalyst, the product is …
A ethane. B ethyne.
C ethanol. D ethanal. (2)
June 2018
27. Which ONE of the following will RAPIDLY decolourise bromine water?
A CH3CHCH2 B CH3CH2CH3
C CH3COOCH3 D CH3CH2COOH (2)
June 2019
28. Which functional groups are involved in the formation of esters?
A Formyl and carbonyl B Hydroxyl and carbonyl
C Hydroxyl and carboxyl D Carbonyl and carboxyl (2)
June 2021

29. Esters are formed by a reaction between two organic compounds, X and Y, each with a
different functional group. The functional groups of these compounds are:
Compound X Compound Y
A Hydroxyl group Carboxyl group
B Hydroxyl group Carbonyl group
C Hydroxide ion Carboxyl group
D Hydroxide ion Carbonyl group
(2)
Sept 2021
30. When butane is subjected to high temperatures and pressures, the following reaction
takes place:
Butane → methane + Y
Which ONE of the following represents Y?
A CHCCH3 B CH2CHCH3
C CH3CH2CH3 D CH3CHCHCH3 (2)
Sept 2021
31. When CH2 = CH2 is converted to CH3CH3, the type of reaction is …
A hydration. B hydrolysis.
C halogenation. D hydrogenation. (2)
June 2022
32. Which ONE of the following compounds in solution will change the colour of bromothymol
blue?
A CH3CH2CHO B CH3CH2COOH
C CH3CH2COCH3 D CH3CH2COOCH3 (2)
June 2022
33. A test tube contains a liquid hydrocarbon. When bromine water (Br2) is added to the
test tube, the mixture decolourises IMMEDIATELY.
Which ONE of the following combinations correctly identifies the COMPOUND and the
TYPE OF REACTION that takes place in the test tube?
COMPOUND TYPE OF REACTION

A Hexane Addition
B Hexane Substitution
C Hex-2-ene Addition
D Hex-2-ene Substitution
(2)
Nov 2022

REACTION RATE AND ENERGY IN CHEMICAL REACTIONS

1. Which ONE of the following statements about the rate of reaction is INCORRECT?
A Meat decays quicker in a warm environment than in a fridge.
B Most industrial processes are cheaper to run when a catalyst is used.
C Zinc reacts faster with excess dilute hydrochloric acid than with concentrated
hydrochloric acid that is not in excess.
D Potatoes cook faster when sliced than when cooked whole. (2)
Nov 2008
2. The graph below represents the relationship between potential energy and course of
reaction for a certain chemical reaction.
Potential energy (kJ)
5
4
3
2
1
0
Course of reaction
The activation energy for the forward reaction is …
A 1 kJ. B 2 kJ.
C 3 kJ. D 4 kJ. (2)
Nov 2010
3. One of the products formed in a chemical reaction is a gas. Which ONE of the following
graphs of volume versus time best represents the formation of this gas until the reactants
are used up?
A B
volume (cm3)
volume (cm3)
time (s) time (s)

C D
volume (cm3)
volume (cm3)
time (s) time (s)

(2)
Nov 2010

4. Consider the following potential energy diagram for a chemical reaction.

X
Potential Energy (kJ)

Reactants
Products
Course of reaction
Which ONE of the statements below is CORRECT?
A The reaction is endothermic.
B The heat of reaction (ΔH) increases when the reactants are heated.
C An increase in concentration of reactants lowers the activation energy.
D Position X on the graph represents the activated complex. (2)
FS Jun 2011
5. The Maxwell-Boltzmann energy distribution curves below show the number of particles
as a function of their kinetic energy for a reaction at four different temperatures.
The minimum kinetic energy needed for effective collisions to take place is represented
by E.
A
Number of particles
B
C
D
Kinetic energy E
Which ONE of these curves represents the reaction with the highest rate?
A A B B
C C D D (2)
Nov 2011
6. A certain chemical reaction is represented by the potential energy diagram below.
Potential energy (kJ)
Ea
E1
∆H
E2
Course of reaction
Which ONE of the following quantities will change when a catalyst is added?
A E2 B E1
C Ea D ∆H (2)
Nov 2011

7. The diagram below shows the change in potential energy for a hypothetical reaction,
represented by the following equation:
X2(g) + 3Y2(g) → 2XY3(g)
potential energy (kJ) 180 kJ
X2 + 3Y2
80 kJ
2XY3
reaction coordinate
The activation energy for the forward reaction is …
A - 80 kJ B 80 kJ
C 100 kJ D 180 kJ (2)
March 2012
8. The energy distribution diagrams for particles in a fixed mass of gas at two different
temperatures, T1 and T2, are shown below.
T1
Number of particles
T2
Kinetic energy
Which ONE of the following is the correct interpretation of the diagrams as the temperature of
the gas changes from T1 to T2?
Activation energy Number of
(EA) effective collisions
A Remains the same Increases
B Decreases Decreases
C Decreases Increases
D Remains the same Decreases
(2)
Nov 2012
9. Activation energy can best be described as the minimum energy required to …
A cause effective collisions.
B make reactant molecules collide.
C increase the kinetic energy of reactant molecules.
D change the orientation of reactant molecules. (2)
March 2013

10. The graphs below represent the molecular distribution for a reaction at different temperatures.
Number of molecules
Q
R
Kinetic energy
Which ONE of the graphs above represents the reaction at the highest temperature?
A P B Q
C R D S (2)
Nov 2013
11. The temperature of a substance is a measure of the ... of the particles.
A average potential energy B average kinetic energy
C total kinetic energy D total potential energy (2)
March 2014
12. In a chemical reaction, the difference between the potential energy of the products and
the potential energy of the reactants is equal to the …
A enthalpy of the reaction.
B rate of the reaction.
C enthalpy change of the reaction.
D total potential energy of the particles. (2)
March 2014
13. The rate of a chemical reaction can be expressed in …
A grams per mole.
B energy consumed per mole.
C volume of gas per unit time.
D moles of product formed per litre of solution. (2)
Exemp 2014
14. Which ONE of the following describes the effect of a positive catalyst on the net activation
energy and the heat of reaction (∆H) of a specific reaction?
NET ACTIVATION
∆H
ENERGY
A Increases No effect
B Decreases Increases
C No effect Decreases
D Decreases No effect
(2)
Nov. 2014

15. Which ONE of the following graphs shows the relationship between activation energy (Ea )
of a reaction and temperature?
A B
Ea Ea
0 0
Temperature Temperature
C D
Ea Ea
0 0
Temperature Temperature
(2)
Exemp 2014
16. Consider the reaction represented by the balanced equation below:
A2(g) + B2(g) → 2AB(g)
The activation energy for the forward reaction is 180 kJ and that for the reverse reaction
is 200 kJ. The heat of reaction (∆H) is ...
A + 20 kJ. B - 20 kJ.
C + 380 kJ. D - 380 kJ. (2)
March 2015
17. When a catalyst is used in a chemical reaction, it increases the …
A rate of the reaction. B amount of products obtained.
C concentration of the products. D concentration of the reactants. (2)
Jun 2015
2SO3(g) → 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ∆H = 198 kJ∙mol-1
Which ONE of the following is TRUE for this reaction?
When 2 moles of SO2(g) are formed ...
A 198 kJ of energy are absorbed. B 198 kJ of energy are released.
C 396 kJ of energy are absorbed. D 396 kJ of energy are released. (2)
Jun 2015
19. The rate of a chemical reaction is most correctly defined as the ...
A time taken for a reaction to occur.
B speed at which a reaction takes place.
C change in the amount of reactants or products.
D change in the concentration of reactants or products per unit time. (2)
Nov 2015

20. The energy changes represented by P, Q and R on the potential energy graph below
take place during a reversible chemical reaction.
Potential energy
R
(kJ∙mol-1)
P
Course of reaction
Which ONE of the following changes will decrease both P and R, but leave Q unchanged?
A A decrease in volume B The addition of a catalyst
C A decrease in temperature D A decrease in concentration (2)
Nov 2015
21. The equation below represents the decomposition of calcium carbonate.
CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Which ONE of the following factors will increase the initial rate of decomposition of
calcium carbonate?
A Pressure B Temperature
C Concentration D Mass of CaCO3(s) (2)
March 2016
22. The activation energy for a certain reaction is 50 kJ∙mol-1. Energy is absorbed when
this reaction takes place. Which ONE of the following is CORRECT for the REVERSE
reaction?
ACTIVATION ENERGY (EA) HEAT OF REACTION (ΔH)
A EA > 50 kJ∙mol-1 ΔH > 0
B EA > 50 kJ∙mol-1 ΔH < 0
C EA < 50 kJ∙mol-1 ΔH < 0
D EA < 50 kJ∙mol-1 ΔH > 0
(2)
March 2016
23. Graph Q (the solid line) below was obtained for the reaction of 100 cm3 of a
0,1 mol∙dm-3 HCℓ solution with excess magnesium powder. Which graph (A, B, C or D)
most probably represents the reaction of 100 cm3 of a 0,1 mol∙dm-3 CH3COOH solution with
excess magnesium powder?
A
produced (cm3)
Volume H2 gas
B
Q
C D
Time (s) (2)

Jun 2016

24. Consider the following potential energy diagram for a chemical reaction:
120
100
Potential energy
(kJ∙mol-1)
8
0
6
0
4
0
2
0
0
Course of reaction
Which ONE of the following shows the values of the total energy change and the activation
energy for this reaction?
Energy change (kJ∙mol-1) Activation energy (kJ∙mol-1)
A 80 40
B 60 100
C 40 80
D – 40 80
(2)
Jun 2016
25. Equal amounts of magnesium (Mg) powder react respectively with equal volumes
and equal concentrations of HCℓ(aq) and H2SO4(aq), as shown below.
100 cm3 100 cm3

1 mol∙dm-3 HCℓ(aq) 1 mol∙dm-3 H2SO4(aq)
Mg(s) Mg(s)
Test tube X Test tube Y

The magnesium is in EXCESS.
Consider the following statements regarding these two reactions:
I: The initial rate of the reaction in test tube X equals the initial rate of the reaction
in test tube Y.
II: After completion of the reactions, the mass of magnesium that remains in
test tube X will be greater than that in test tube Y.
III: The amount of hydrogen gas formed in X is equal to the amount of hydrogen gas
formed in Y.
Which of the above statements is/are TRUE?
A I only B II only
C III only D I and III only (2)
Nov 2016

26. A potential energy diagram can be used to show the activation energy (EA) and the
heat of reaction (ΔH) of a reaction.
Which ONE of the following combinations of values of EA and ΔH CANNOT be obtained
for any reaction?
EA (kJ·mol-1) ∆H (kJ·mol-1)
A 50 -100
B 50 +100
C 100 +50
D 100 -50
(2)
March 2017
27. The energy change during a chemical reaction is known as …
A bond energy. B heat of reaction.
C activation energy. D activated complex. (2)
Jun 2017
C change the orientation of reactant molecules.
D increase the kinetic energy of reactant molecules. (2)
Nov 2018
29. The graph below represents the change in concentration of a reactant against time
for a chemical reaction.
Concentration
Time
In which ONE of the following graphs does the dotted line show the effect of a catalyst on this
reactant?
A B
Concentration
Concentration
Time Time
C D
Concentration
Concentration
Time Time
(2)
March 2017
30. The potential energy diagram for a chemical reaction is shown below.
Consider the following statements regarding the graph above:

I: X represents the potential energy of the products formed during the reverse r
reaction.
II: The graph could be a representation of the change in potential energy for the
2-
following reaction: CaCO3(s) ⇌ Ca2+(aq) + CO3 (aq) ΔH > 0
III: The graph could be a representation of the change in potential energy for the
combustion of methane.
Which of the statements above are TRUE?
A I and II only B II and III only
C I and III only D I, II and III (2)
Nov 2017
31. Which ONE of the reaction rate versus time graphs below best represents the reaction
between magnesium and EXCESS dilute hydrochloric acid?
(2)
March 2018
32. Study the following hypothetical reaction:
2P(g) + 3Q(g) → 4R(g) + 2Z(g)
The rate of the reaction in terms of the number of moles of substance P used up, is
1 x 10-3 mol∙dm-3∙s-1. What is the rate (in mol∙dm-3∙s-1) at which product R is formed?
A 1 x 10-3 B 4(1 x 10-3)
1 × 10-3
C D 2(1 x 10-3) (2)
2
June 2018

33. The potential energy graph for a hypothetical chemical reaction is shown below.
What type of reaction is taking place and what are the correct methods to calculate ΔH and Ea?
TYPE OF REACTION ΔH Ea
A Exothermic b−a c−b
B Endothermic b−a c−a
C Endothermic a−b a−c
D Exothermic a−b b−c
(2)
Jun 2018
C change the orientation of reactant molecules.
D increase the kinetic energy of reactant molecules. (2)
Nov 2018
35. Consider the balanced equation for a chemical reaction below.
2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g)
The activation energy of the forward and reverse reactions are 156 kJ·mol-1 and
175 kJ·mol-1 respectively. The heat of reaction, in kJ·mol-1, for this reaction is …
A –19. B +19.
C +331. D –331. (2)
Jun 2019
36. Which ONE of the following sets of values for activation energy (Ea) and heat
of reaction (ΔH) is possible for a reaction?
ACTIVATION ENERGY HEAT OF REACTION
(Ea) (kJ∙mol-1) (ΔH) (kJ∙mol-1)
A 100 +100
B 50 +100
C 50 +50
D 100 -50
(2)
Nov 2019

37. Zinc (Zn) granules react as follows with EXCESS hydrochloric acid solution, HCℓ(aq):
Zn(s) + HCℓ(aq) → ZnCℓ2(aq) + H2(g)
Which ONE of the following combinations of volume and concentration of HCℓ(aq) will
result in the highest INITIAL reaction rate for the same mass of zinc granules used?
(Assume that the zinc granules are completely covered by the acid in all cases.)
VOLUME HCℓ(aq) CONCENTRATION HCℓ(aq)
(cm3) (mol∙dm-3)
A 50 0,5
B 100 1,0
C 200 0,1
D 200 0,5
(2)
Nov 2020
38. The role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction is to increase the …
A yield. B activation energy.
C heat of reaction. D rate of the reaction. (2)
Nov 2020
39. Consider the potential energy graph for the reaction shown below.
The activation energy for the FORWARD reaction in terms of P, Q and R is:
A Q B R−P
C Q−R D Q−P (2)
Jun 2021
40. 2 g piece of magnesium reacts with EXCESS hydrochloric acid according to the following
balanced equation:
Mg(s) + 2HCℓ(aq) → MgCℓ2(aq) + H2(g)
Which ONE of the following changes will INCREASE the YIELD of H2(g)?
A Crush the piece of magnesium.
B Use a 3 g piece of magnesium.
C Use a greater volume of the acid.
D Use a higher concentration of the acid. (2)
Nov 2021

41. A hydrochloric acid solution, HCℓ(aq), of concentration 1 mol·dm-3 is added to EXCESS

POWDERED magnesium at 25 °C.
Curve I below represents the volume of hydrogen gas produced during the reaction.
Curve II was obtained at different conditions using the SAME VOLUME of hydrochloric acid
solution.
Which ONE of the following represents the conditions used to obtain curve II?
STATE OF CONCENTRATION TEMPERATURE
DIVISION OF Mg ACID (mol∙dm-3) (°C)
A Ribbon 0,5 25
B Ribbon 2 25
C Powder 1 20
D Powder 1 30
(2)
Sept 2021
42. Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE for an EXOTHERMIC reaction?
A More energy is absorbed than released.
B More energy is released than absorbed.
C Heat of reaction (ΔH) is positive.
D Energy of the products is greater than the energy of the reactants. (2)
Sept 2021
43. The Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curve P represents the number of molecules
against kinetic energy for a certain reaction.
Curve Q is obtained after a change was made to one reaction condition.
Which ONE of the following changes resulted in curve Q?

A Addition of a catalyst
B Increase in temperature
C Increase in activation energy
D Increase in the concentration of the reactants (2)
Nov 2021

44. Two DIFFERENT samples of IMPURE CaCO3 of EQUAL masses react with 0,1 mol∙dm-3 H2SO4.
Assume that the impurities do not react. The graph below shows the volume of CO 2(g) produced for each
reaction.
When compared to reaction 2, which ONE of the following statements BEST explains the
curve obtained for reaction 1?
A The temperature is higher in reaction 1.
B The surface area is greater in reaction 2.
C The amount of impurities is greater in reaction 2.
D The amount of impurities is greater in reaction 1. (2)
June 2022
45. The equation below represents a hypothetical reaction.
A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) ΔH = - 50 kJ·mol-1
The activation energy for the REVERSE reaction is 110 kJ·mol-1.
Which ONE of the following is the activation energy (in kJ·mol-1) for the FORWARD
reaction?
A 50 B 60
C 110 D 160 (2)
June 2022
46. Which ONE of the following statements is the CORRECT definition for the rate
of a reaction?
A The time taken for the reaction to take place
B The speed at which the reaction takes place
C The rate of change in concentration of the products or reactants
D The rate of change in concentration of the products or reactants per unit time (2)
Nov 2022
47. Consider the balanced equation for the reaction between magnesium powder and
EXCESS dilute hydrochloric acid, HCℓ(aq):
Mg(s) + 2HCℓ(aq) → MgCℓ2(aq) + H2(g)
Which ONE of the following will NOT increase the rate of this reaction?
A Increasing the volume of HCℓ(aq)
B Increasing the temperature of HCℓ(aq)
C Increasing the concentration of HCℓ(aq)
D Adding more magnesium powder (2)
Nov 2022

CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
1. In which ONE of the following equilibrium reactions is the yield of products favoured by
increasing the pressure of the reaction mixture?
A 2NO(g) + Cℓ2(g) ⇌ 2NOCℓ(g)
B CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g)
C 2SO3(g) ⇌ 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
D PCℓ5(g) ⇌ PCℓ3(g) + Cℓ2(g) (2)
Exemp 2008
2. The following reaction is in equilibrium in a closed container:
PCℓ5(g) ⇌ PCℓ3(g) + Cℓ2(g) ΔH < 0
Which ONE of the following statements regarding the equilibrium is TRUE?
A Addition of a catalyst favours the forward reaction.
B Increasing the temperature has no effect on the yield of products.
C An increase in the concentration of PCℓ5(g) causes an increase in the concentration
of the products.
D Increasing the temperature causes the value of the equilibrium constant to increase. (2)
Exemp 2008
3. N2O4(g) is placed in an evacuated, sealed container.
The following reaction takes place in the container at constant temperature:
N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)
The concentration of the product is measured over time. Which ONE of the following graphs
correctly illustrates the relationship between the nitrogen dioxide (NO2) concentration and time?
A B
[NO2]
[NO2]
Time (s) Time (s)

C D
[NO2]
[NO2]
Time (s) Time (s)

(2)
March 2009
4. When the equilibrium constant of a reversible reaction has a value much greater
than 1 (Kc > 1), it indicates that …
A a higher concentration of products than reactants will be formed.
B a lower concentration of products than reactants will be formed.
C the reaction will reach equilibrium quickly.
D the reaction will take a long time to reach equilibrium. (2)
Nov 2009

5. The following hypothetical reaction is at equilibrium at 300 K:

A2(g) + B(g) ⇌ A(g) + AB(g)
The diagram below shows the molecules involved in this chemical equilibrium at 300 K.
The white circles represent atoms of A and the black circles represent atoms of B.
The temperature is increased to 500 K. The diagram below represents the same equilibrium
mixture at 500 K.

A The forward reaction is exothermic.
B The concentration of AB is lower at a lower temperature.
C The forward reaction is endothermic.
D The concentration of B is higher at a lower temperature. (2)
March 2009
6. Diagrams P, Q and R represent different reaction mixtures of the following hypothetical
reaction that is at equilibrium in a closed container at a certain temperature.
X(g) + Y2(g) ⇌ XY(g) + Y(g) H > 0
KEY X: Y:
Diagram P Diagram Q Diagram R
If at equilibrium Kc = 2, which diagram(s) correctly represent(s) the mixture at equilibrium?

A P only B Q only
C R only D P, R and Q (2)
Nov 2009

7. Consider the following hypothetical reaction that reached equilibrium in a closed

container at 450 °C:
XY(s) ⇌ X(g) + Y(s) ΔH > 0
Which ONE of the following changes will NOT affect the equilibrium position?
B Increase in the amount of Y(s)
C Decrease in pressure at constant volume
D Increase in the volume of the container (2)
March 2010
8. The reaction represented by the equation below reaches equilibrium.
Co(H2O) 26+ (aq) + 4Cℓ − (aq) ⇌ CoCℓ 24− (aq) + 6H2O(ℓ) ∆H > 0
pink blue
Which ONE of the following changes to the reaction mixture will change its colour from
blue to pink?
A Add a catalyst.
B Place the reaction mixture in a container with hot water.
C Add a few drops of concentrated hydrochloric acid to the reaction mixture.
D Add water to the reaction mixture. (2)
Nov 2010
9. A chemical reaction reaches equilibrium. Which ONE of the following statements regarding
this equilibrium is TRUE?
A The concentrations of the individual reactants and products are constant.
B The concentrations of the individual reactants and products are equal.
C The concentrations of the individual reactants are zero.
D The concentrations of the individual products increase until the reaction stops. (2)
March 2011
10. The equation below represents a chemical reaction at equilibrium in a closed container.
H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) ΔH < 0
Which ONE of the following changes will increase the yield of HI(g) in the above reaction?
A Increase the temperature
B Decrease the temperature
C Increase the pressure by decreasing the volume
D Decrease the pressure by increasing the volume (2)
March 2011
11. The balanced equation below represents a reaction at equilibrium in a closed
container:
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) ΔH < 0
Which ONE of the following conditions of temperature and pressure will BOTH favour the
forward reaction?
TEMPERATURE PRESSURE
A Low High
B High High
C High Low
D Low Low
(2)
FS Jun 2011

12. The reaction represented by the equation below reaches equilibrium.
2CrO 24− (aq) + 2H+(aq) ⇌ Cr2O 72− (aq) + H2O(ℓ)

yellow orange
Which ONE of the following changes to the reaction mixture will change its colour
from yellow to orange?
A Add a catalyst.
B Add water to the reaction mixture.
C Add a few drops of sodium hydroxide solution to the reaction mixture.
D Add a few drops of concentrated hydrochloric acid to the reaction mixture. (2)
Nov 2011
13. The following hypothetical reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed container at a certain
temperature:
X2(g) + Y2(g) ⇌ 2XY(g) ∆H < 0
Which ONE of the following changes will increase the AMOUNT of XY(g)?
A Decrease in temperature
C Increase in pressure
D Decrease in pressure (2)
March 2012
14. Consider the chemical reaction represented by the equation below.
CaCO3(s) + 2HCℓ(aq) → CaCℓ2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(ℓ)
Which ONE of the following changes will increase the rate of production of CO2(g)?
A Increase in pressure
B Increase in mass of CaCO3
C Increase in volume of HCℓ(aq)
D Increase in concentration of HCℓ(aq) (2)
March 2012
15. The expression for the equilibrium constant (KC) of a hypothetical reaction is given as follows:
[D]2 [C]
KC =
[ A ]3
Which ONE of the following equations for a reaction at equilibrium matches the above
expression?
A 3A(s) ⇌ C(g) + 2D(g)
B 3A(ℓ) ⇌ C(aq) + 2D(aq)
C 3A(aq) + B(s) ⇌ C(g) + D2(g)
D 3A(aq) + B(s) ⇌ C(aq) + 2D(aq) (2)
Nov 2012
16. The reaction represented by the balanced equation below reaches equilibrium in a closed
container.
2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g) ΔH < 0
Which ONE of the following changes will INCREASE the yield of N2O4(g)?
A Add a catalyst.
B Remove NO2 gas from the container.
C Increase the temperature of the system.
D Decrease the temperature of the system. (2)
Nov 2012

17. Which ONE of the following CORRECTLY describes the effect of an INCREASE IN
TEMPERATURE on a reaction at equilibrium?
Reaction favoured Reaction rate

A Exothermic Increases
B Exothermic Decreases
C Endothermic Increases
D Endothermic Decreases
(2)
March 2013
18. Each of the reactions represented below is at equilibrium in a closed container. In which
ONE of these reactions will an INCREASE IN PRESSURE (by decreasing the volume)
favour the formation of products?
A N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)
B PCℓ5(g) ⇌ PCℓ3(g) + Cℓ2(g)
C N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
D NO2(g) + CO(g) ⇌ NO(g) + CO2(g) (2)
March 2013
19. The reaction represented below reaches equilibrium in a closed container.
CuO(s) + H2(g) ⇌ Cu(s) + H2O(g) ∆H < 0
Which ONE of the following changes will increase the yield of products?
A Increase temperature.
B Decrease temperature.
C Increase pressure by decreasing the volume.
D Decrease pressure by increasing the volume. (2)
Nov 2013
20. The graph below represents the decomposition of N2O4(g) in a closed container
according to the following equation:
N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)
Concentration (mol∙dm-3)
[N2O4]
[NO2]
t1 Time (s)
Which ONE of the following correctly describes the situation at t1?
A The N2O4 gas is used up.
B The NO2 gas is used up.
C The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction.
D The concentrations of the reactant and the product are equal. (2)
Nov 2013

21. The graph below shows a change made to a chemical equilibrium in a closed container
at time t1. The equation for the reaction is:
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) ΔH < 0
H2(g)
Concentration
NH3(g)
N2(g)
t0 t1
Time
Which ONE of the following is the change made at time t1?
A Addition of a catalyst
C Increase in the concentration of N2(g)
D Increase in pressure by decreasing the volume (2)
March 2014
22. Initially, a certain amount of ICℓ(g) is sealed in an empty flask at a certain temperature.
The reaction that takes place is:
2ICℓ(g) ⇌ I2(g) + Cℓ2(g)
Which of the following statements describe(s) the change(s) occurring as the system proceeds
towards equilibrium?
(I) The rate of the backward reaction increases.
(II) Concentration of ICℓ(g) increases.
(III) Concentration of Cℓ2(g) increases.
A (I) only B (II) only
C (I) and (III) only D (II) and (III) only (2)
Exemp 2014
23. A hypothetical reaction reaches equilibrium at 10 °C in a closed container according
to the following balanced equation:
A(g) + B(g) ⇌ AB(g) ∆H < 0
The temperature is now increased to 25 °C. Which ONE of the following is correct as the
reaction approaches a new equilibrium?
REACTION RATE YIELD OF PRODUCTS

A Increases Remains the same
C Increases Increases
(2)
Nov. 2014

24. The following reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed container at a certain temperature:
2O3(g) ⇌ 3O2(g)
The pressure is now decreased by increasing the volume of the container at constant
temperature.
Which ONE of the following is correct as the reaction approaches a new equilibrium?
NUMBER OF NUMBER OF CONCENTRATION
MOLES OF O3(g) MOLES OF O2(g) OF O2(g)
A Increases Decreases Decreases
B Decreases Increases Increases
C Decreases Increases Decreases
D Increases Decreases Increases
(2)
Nov.2014
25. Consider the equilibrium constants for the same reaction at two different temperatures
below.
298 K: Kc = 0,03
318 K: Kc = 0,005
YIELD OF PRODUCTS AS THE
HEAT OF REACTION
TEMPERATURE INCREASES
A ∆H > 0 Increases
B ∆H < 0 Decreases
C ∆H > 0 Decreases
D ∆H < 0 Remains the same
(2)
March 2015
26. The reaction of an acid-base indicator, represented as HIn(aq), with H2O(ℓ) reaches
equilibrium according to the following balanced equation:
HIn(aq) + H2O(ℓ) ⇌ H3O+(aq) + In-(aq) ∆H > 0
yellow purple
At equilibrium the colour of the solution is purple. Which ONE of the following will change
the colour of the solution from purple to yellow?
A Add NaOH(aq) B Add HCℓ(aq)
C Add water D Increase the temperature (2)
March 2015
27. The equilibrium constant, Kc, for the reaction A(g) ⇌ B(g) is 1 x 10-4.
Which ONE of the following statements is always CORRECT for this reaction?
The mixture at equilibrium consists of ...
A equal amounts of A(g) and B(g). B very little of A(g).
C mostly A(g). D mostly B(g). (2)
June 2015

28. The reaction represented by the balanced equation below reaches equilibrium in a closed
container.
Cℓ2(g) + H2O(ℓ) ⇌ Cℓ─(aq) + CℓO─(aq) + 2H+(aq)
Which ONE of the following reagents will favour the forward reaction when added?
A Hydrogen B Sodium chloride
C Hydrogen chloride D Sodium hydroxide (2)
Nov 2015
29. The balanced equations for three reactions at equilibrium in a closed container are given below.
(i) C2H4(g) + H2(g) ⇌ C2H6(g)
(ii) Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) ⇌ 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g)
(iii) SO3(g) + NO(g) ⇌ NO2(g) + SO2(g)
In which reaction(s) will the equilibrium position shift when the volume of the reaction vessel is
decreased at constant temperature?
A (i) only B (i) and (ii) only
C (i) and (iii) only D (i), (ii) and (iii) (2)
March 2016
30. Chromate ions and dichromate ions are in equilibrium with each other in an aqueous solution
according to the following balanced equation:
2CrO24− (aq) + 2H+(aq) ⇌ Cr2 O72− (aq) + H2O(ℓ)
yellow orange
Which ONE of the following reagents should be added to change the colour of the solution
to yellow?
A HNO3 B HCℓ
C NaOH D CH3COOH (2)
Jun 2016
31. A catalyst is added to a reaction mixture at equilibrium. Which ONE of the following
statements about the effect of the catalyst is FALSE?
A The rate of the forward reaction increases.
B The rate of the reverse reaction increases.
C The equilibrium position shifts to the right.
D The equilibrium position remains unchanged. (2)
Nov 2016
32. Initially, 2 mol CO(g) and 2 mol H2(g) are sealed in a container. The reaction reaches
equilibrium according to the following balanced equation:
CO(g) + 2H2(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g)
At equilibrium the amount of CH3OH(g) in the mixture will be …
A 1 mol. B 2 mol.
C less than 1 mol. D greater than 1 mol. (2)
March 2017
33. The reaction below reaches equilibrium in a closed container.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + energy
Consider the following statements regarding the equilibrium above:
I: When one N2 molecule combines with three H2 molecules, two NH3 molecules
decompose at the same time.
II: An iron oxide catalyst increases the amount of ammonia produced in this reaction.
III: When the temperature increases, the equilibrium constant (Kc) for this reaction will
increase.
Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT?
A I only B I and II only
C I and III only D I, II and III (2)
June 2017

34. The reaction between hydrogen gas and iodine gas reaches equilibrium in a closed
container according to the following balanced equation:
H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
Which ONE of the graphs below shows the relationship between the amount of HI(g) at
equilibrium and the pressure in the container at constant temperature?
A B
Amount of HI (mol)
Amount of HI (mol)
Pressure (kPa) Pressure (kPa)

C D
Amount of HI (mol)
Amount of HI (mol)
Pressure (kPa) Pressure (kPa)

(2)
Nov 2016
35. Which ONE of the descriptions below is TRUE for a chemical reaction in equilibrium?
CONCENTRATIONS OF FORWARD AND REVERSE
REACTANTS AND PRODUCTS REACTION RATES
A Remain constant Equal
B Remain constant Not equal
C Equal Equal
D Not equal Not equal
(2)
June 2017
36. A certain chemical reaction reaches equilibrium at 25 °C.
The equilibrium constant, Kc, for the reaction at this temperature is 1,0 x 10-4.
Which ONE of the following statements regarding this reaction at equilibrium is CORRECT?
A The concentration of the products is equal to that of the reactants.
B The concentration of the products is higher than that of the reactants.
C The concentration of the products is lower than that of the reactants.
D The rate of the forward reaction is lower than the rate of the reverse reaction. (2)
Nov 2017
37. Which ONE of the following will NOT affect the equilibrium position of reversible
chemical reactions?
A Temperature B Catalyst
C Pressure D Concentration (2)
March 2018

38. Consider the following chemical reaction at equilibrium in a closed container:

2HgO(s) ⇌ 2Hg(ℓ) + O2(g)
More HgO(s) is now added to the container at constant temperature. How will the
number (in moles) of O2(g) and the value of Kc be affected at equilibrium?
NUMBER OF MOLES OF O2 Kc
B Increases Remains the same
C Remains the same Remains the same
D Remains the same Increases
(2)
Nov 2017
39. Study the following reaction at equilibrium at a certain temperature.
2SO3(g) ⇌ O2(g) + 2SO2(g) ΔH > 0
Which ONE of the following factors will change the Kc value?
A Adding more SO2(g).
B Adding a catalyst.
C Increasing the temperature.
C Increasing the pressure by decreasing the volume. (2)
June 2018
40. Initially, a certain amount of P(g) was placed in an empty container. The hypothetical
reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed container according to the following balanced
equation:
P(g) ⇌ 2Q(g) ΔH < 0
At time t, the temperature is increased.
Which graph below best illustrates the resulting changes in the rates of the forward and
reverse reactions after the temperature is increased?
(2)
Nov 2018

41. Which statement is CORRECT for a system in DYNAMIC EQUILIBRIUM?

A All reactants are used up.
B The forward reaction is equal to the reverse reaction.
C All substances in the reaction are of equal concentration.
D The concentration of the reactants and products remain constant. (2)
Nov 2018
42. The reaction given below reaches equilibrium in a closed container. The Kc value is 0,04 at a
certain temperature.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) ΔH < 0
Which ONE of the following factors will change the Kc value to 0,4?
A Increase in pressure B Decrease in pressure
C Increase in temperature D Decrease in temperature (2)
June 2019
43. Which ONE of the following statements best describes a state of dynamic
equilibrium?
A The limiting reagent has been used up.
B The forward and reverse reactions have stopped.
C The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal.
D The concentration of products equals the concentration of reactants. (2)
June 2019
44. Consider the following balanced equation for a system at equilibrium:
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)
How will the addition of a catalyst to the equilibrium mixture affect the YIELD and
REACTION RATE?
YIELD REACTION RATE
B Remains the same Remains the same
C Remains the same Increases
D Decreases Increases
(2)
Nov 2019
45. A hypothetical reaction reaches equilibrium at a certain temperature in a closed
container according to the following balanced equation:
A(g) + 2B(g) ⇌ 3C(s) ΔH < 0
Which ONE of the following changes to the equilibrium conditions will result in an
INCREASE in the equilibrium constant, Kc?
B Decrease in temperature
C Increase in pressure at constant temperature
D Decrease in pressure at constant temperature (2)
Nov 2019
46. Consider the equilibrium represented by the balanced equation below:
2CrO2- + 2-
4 (aq) + 2H (aq) ⇌ Cr2 O7 (aq) + H2O(ℓ) ΔH < 0
Which ONE of the following changes to the equilibrium will favour the forward reaction?
TEMPERATURE pH
A Decrease Increase
B Decrease Decrease
C Increase Increase
D Increase Decrease
(2)
Nov 2020
47. The equation below represents a reaction at equilibrium.

2- 2-
2CrO4 (aq) + 2H+(aq) ⇌ Cr2 O7 (aq) + H2O(ℓ)
yellow orange
Which ONE of the following will change the colour of the mixture from yellow to orange?
A Addition of sodium hydroxide pellets
B Addition of concentrated hydrochloric acid
C Increase in pressure at constant temperature
D Decrease in pressure at constant temperature (2)
Jun 2021
48. A reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed container according to the following
balanced equation:
3H2(g) + N2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) ΔH < 0
Which ONE of the following changes will INCREASE the value of the equilibrium constant?
A Removing NH3(g)
B Heating the container
C Cooling the container
D Increasing the volume of the container (2)
Jun 2021
49. In which ONE of the following reactions at equilibrium will the YIELD of the product
increase when the VOLUME of the container is increased at constant temperature?
A N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)
B H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
C N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
D 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) (2)
Sept 2021
50. The expression for the equilibrium constant (Kc) of a hypothetical reaction is given
as follows:
[X]3
Kc =
[Y]2 [Z]
Which ONE of the following equations for a reaction at equilibrium matches the above
expression?
A Z(g) + 2Y(g) ⇌ 3X(s)
B Z(aq) + 2Y(aq) ⇌ 3X(ℓ)
C Z(g) + Y2(g) ⇌ 3X(aq) + Q(s)
D Z(aq) + 2Y(aq) ⇌ 3X(aq) + Q(s) (2)
Nov 2021
51. A reaction reaches equilibrium at 25 °C in a flask according to the following balanced
equation:
Co(H2O) 26+ (aq) + 4Cℓ − (aq) ⇌ CoCℓ 24− (aq) + 6H2O(ℓ) ∆H > 0
pink blue
Which ONE of the following will change the colour of the mixture from pink toblue?
A Adding water B Cooling the flask
C Adding NaOH(aq) D Adding NH4Cℓ(aq) (2)
June 2022

52. Two identical sealed gas jars, R and S, initially contain gases as shown below.
Equilibrium is reached in both gas jars at 500 °C according to the following balanced equation:
H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE at equilibrium?
A S will contain 1 mole of I2(g).
B R will contain a larger amount of I2(g) than S.
C R and S will contain the same amount of HI(g).
D S will contain a larger amount of HI(g) than R. (2)
Nov 2022

ACIDS AND BASES
1. Consider the ionisation reaction below:
H3PO4(aq) + HCO 3− (aq) ⇌ H2PO −4 (aq) + H2CO3(aq) Ka >> 1
The strongest base in the above reaction is:

A H2PO −4 B HCO 3−
C H3PO4 D H2CO3 (2)
Exemp 2014
2. Which ONE of the following represents the products formed during the hydrolysis of
ammonium chloride?
A NH3(aq) and H3O+(aq) B NH+4 (aq) and Cℓ−(aq)
C HCℓ(aq) and OH−(aq) D Cℓ−(aq) and H3O+(aq) (2)
Nov.2014
3. Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT description for a 0,1 mol∙dm-3 hydrochloric
acid solution?
A Dilute strong acid B Dilute weak acid
C Concentrated weak acid D Concentrated strong acid (2)
March 2015
4. Which ONE of the following weak acids, each of concentration 0,1 mol∙dm-3, has
the lowest H3O+(aq) concentration?
ACID Ka VALUE
A H2SO3(aq) 1,2 x 10-2
B H2CO3(aq) 4,2 x 10-7
C (COOH)2(aq) 5,6 x 10-2
D H2S(aq) 1,0 x 10-7
(2)
Jun 2015
5. Consider the reaction represented by the banced equation below.
-
H3PO4(aq) + H2O(ℓ) ⇌ H3O+(aq) + H2 PO4(aq)
Which ONE of the following is a conjugate acid-base pair?
A H3O+(aq) and H2O(ℓ) B H3PO4(aq) and H2O(ℓ)
C H3PO4(aq) and H3O+(aq) D H3O+(aq) and H2 PO-4(aq) (2)
Nov 2015
6. Which ONE of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in a
neutralisation reaction?
A CH3CHO B CH3COOH
C CH3COCH3 D CH3CH2OH (2)
March 2016
7. Consider the reactant Y in the following reaction:
Y + H2O ⇌ H3O+ + H2 PO-4
The formula of Y is:
A PO3-
4 B H2 PO-4
C HPO2-
4 D H3PO4 (2)
March 2016
8. Which ONE of the following is a product in ALL neutralisation reactions?
A H+ B H2O
C OH− D NaCℓ (2)
Jun 2016

9. Which ONE of the following pairs is NOT a conjugate acid-base pair?

A H3O+ and OH− B NH+4 and NH3
C H2 PO-4 and HPO2-
4 D H2CO3 and HCO-3 (2)
Nov 2016
10. A solution has a pH = 1. This solution …
A contains no OH─ ions.
B neutralises a hydrochloric acid solution of pH = 1.
C contains a higher concentration of H3O+ ions than OH− ions.
D contains a higher concentration of OH− ions than H3O+ ions. (2)
March 2017
11. Which ONE of the following pairs represents the conjugate acid and the conjugate base
of HPO2-
4?
CONJUGATE ACID CONJUGATE BASE

3- -
A PO4 H2 PO4
B H2 PO-4 PO3-
4
C H2 PO-4 H3PO4
D H2 PO-4 PO3-
4
(2)
Jun 2017
12. Which ONE of the following solutions, each of concentration 0,1 mol∙dm-3, has the
highest pH?
A HNO3(aq) B NH4Cℓ(aq)
C Na2CO3(aq) D CH3COOH(aq) (2)
Nov 2017
13. The following equilibrium exists in pure water at 25 °C.
2H2O(ℓ) ⇌ H3O+(aq) + OH−(aq) ΔH > 0
-14
At this temperature, the pH = 7 and Kw = 1 x 10 .
The temperature of the water is now increased to 90 °C.
Which ONE of the following is TRUE at the new temperature?
A pH = 7 B [H3O+] = [OH−]
C [H3O+][OH−] = 10-14 D [H3O+] = 10-7 mol·dm-3 (2)
March 2018
14. A hydrochloric acid solution is titrated against an ammonia solution.
The balanced equation for the reaction is:
HCℓ(aq) + NH4OH(aq) → NH4Cℓ(aq) + H2O(ℓ)
Which ONE of the following gives the pH of the solution at the end point and the reason
for this pH?
pH REASON
+
A 3 H3O (aq) is formed during the ionisation of HCℓ(aq).
B 5 H3O+(aq) is formed during hydrolysis of NH+4 (aq).
C 7 Neutralisation takes place at the end point.
D 9 OH−(aq) is formed during hydrolysis of NH+4 (aq).
(2)
March 2018
15. Which ONE of the following represents the products formed during the hydrolysis
of NH+4 (aq)?
A NH3(aq) + H2O(ℓ) B NH3(aq) + H3O+(aq)
C NH3(aq) + OH−(aq) D NH3(aq) + OH−(aq) + H2O(ℓ) (2)
June 2018

16. Reactions I and II below have equilibrium constants (Kc) greater than 1.
-
I: H3X + HCO3 ⇌ H2X− + H2CO3 Kc > 1
II: H3O+ + H2X− ⇌ H2O + H3X Kc > 1
Based on the reactions above, the ACIDS in order of INCREASING STRENGTH (weakest
to strongest) are …
A H3X, H2X−, H3O+ B H2CO3, H3X, H2O
C H3X, H2CO3, H3O+ D H3X, H3O+, H2CO3 (2)
Nov 2018
17. During a titration to determine the concentration of an acid using a standard base, a
learner pipettes the base into a conical flask. She then uses a small amount of water to
rinse the inside of the flask so that all the base is part of the solution in the flask.
How will the extra water added to the flask affect the results of this titration?
The concentration of the acid …
A cannot be determined. B will be lower than expected.
C will be higher than expected. D will be the same as expected. (2)
Jun 2019
18. A hydrochloric acid solution, HCℓ(aq), and an acetic acid solution, CH3COOH(aq),
of EQUAL CONCENTRATIONS are compared.
How do the H3O+(aq) concentration of HCℓ(aq) and the pH of HCℓ(aq) compare to that of
CH3COOH(aq)?
[H3O+] of HCℓ(aq) pH of HCℓ(aq)
A Higher than Higher than
B Higher than Lower than
C Equal to Equal to
D Higher than Equal to
(2)
Nov 2019
19. The conjugate base of HPO2-
4 is …
A OH− B PO3-
4
C H2 PO-4 D H3PO4 (2)
Nov 2020
20. Sulphuric acid ionises in water according to the following equations:
H2SO4(ℓ) + H2O(ℓ) ⇌ H3O+(aq) + HSO-4 (aq)
- 2-
HSO4 (aq) + H2O(ℓ) ⇌ H3O+(aq) + SO4 (aq)
Consider the following statements regarding the ionisation above:
I: H2O(ℓ) acts as a base in both reactions.
-
II: HSO4 (aq) acts as an ampholyte.
III: SO2-
4 (aq) is the conjugate base of H2SO4.
A I only B I and II
C I and III D I, II and III (2)
Jun 2021
21. Consider the equation below.
H3PO4(aq) + H2O(ℓ) ⇌ H3O+(aq) + H2 PO-4(aq)
Which ONE of the following is a conjugate acid-base pair?
A H3O+(aq) and H2O(ℓ) B H3PO4(aq) and H2O(ℓ)
-
C H3PO4(aq) and H3O+(aq) D H3O+(aq) and H2 PO4(aq) (2)
Sept 2021

-
22. Which ONE of the following is the conjugate base of H2 PO4 ?
3- 2-
A PO4 B HPO4
C H3PO4 D H4 PO+4 (2)
Nov 2021
23. Two dilute acids of equal concentrations are added to separate test tubes as shown below.
Consider the following statements regarding these acids:

I: The pH of each is less than 7.
II: Both will react at the same rate with 5 g of magnesium powder.
III: Both will neutralise the same number of moles of NaOH(aq).
A I only B I, II and III
B I and III only D II and III only (2)
Nov 2021
24. Dilute nitric acid is added to distilled water at 25 °C.
How will this affect the hydronium ion concentration [H3O+] and the ionisation constant (Kw)
of water at 25 °C?
[H3O+] Kw
C Increases Remains the same
D Remains the same Remains the same
(2)
June 2022
25. Consider the ionisation reactions I and II.
I H2 PO-4 + H2O(ℓ) ⇌ H3O+(aq) + X
II X + H2O(ℓ) ⇌ H3O+(aq) + Y
Which ONE of the following combinations represents the formulae of X and Y respectively?
X Y
A HPO2-
4 PO3-
4
2-
B HPO4 H3PO4
C H3PO4 PO3-
4
D HPO2-
4
H2 PO-4
(2)
June 2022
26. Which ONE of the following salts, when dissolved in water, will NOT change the pH of
the water?
A Na2CO3 B (COO)2Na2
C NH4Cℓ D NaCℓ (2)
Nov 2022

27. A dilute acid is titrated against a potassium hydroxide solution, KOH(aq). At the equivalence
point the pH is 7. Which ONE of the following combinations correctly identifies the acid and
the MOST SUITABLE indicator for this titration?
X Y
A (COOH)2(aq) Phenolphthalein
B (COOH)2(aq) Bromothymol blue
C HCℓ(aq) Phenolphthalein
D HCℓ(aq) Bromothymol blue
(2)
Nov 2022

GALVANIC CELLS AND REDOX REACTIONS
1. Which ONE of the following containers can be used to store an iron(II) sulphate solution?
A Al B Mg
C Ni D Zn (2)
Exemplar 2008
2. Which statement is CORRECT for a Zn-Cu galvanic cell that operates under standard
conditions?
A The concentration of the Zn2+ ions in the zinc half-cell gradually decreases.
B The concentration of the Cu2+ ions in the copper half-cell gradually increases.
C Negative ions migrate from the zinc half-cell to the copper half-cell.
D The intensity of the colour of the electrolyte in the copper half-cell gradually
decreases. (2)
Exemp 2008
3. Which one of the following solutions can be stored in an aluminium container?
(Use the Table of Standard Reduction Potentials.)
A CuSO4(aq) B ZnSO4(aq)
C NaCℓ(aq) D Pb(NO3)2(aq) (2)
Exemp 2008
4. The most common filling for tooth cavities is 'dental amalgam' – a solid solution of
tin and silver in mercury. If you bite on a piece of aluminium foil that is in contact
with a dental filling in your mouth, you may feel a painful sensation because …
A the aluminium foil is hard.
B a temporary galvanic cell has been set up whilst the aluminium and fill are in contact.
C electrons are being transferred to the aluminium.
D a temporary electrolytic cell has been set up whilst the aluminium and fill are in
contact. (2)
March 2009
5. The reactions below occur in two different electrochemical cells X and Y.
Cell X: CuCℓ2(aq) → Cu(s) + Cℓ2(g)
Cell Y: Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)
Which ONE of the following correctly describes the substance that forms at the CATHODE of
each of these cells?
Cell X Cell Y
A Cℓ2(g) Cu(s)
B Cu(s) Cu(s)
C Cℓ2(g) ZnSO4(aq)
D Cu(s) ZnSO4(aq)
(2)
Nov 2009
6. Which ONE of the following statements regarding the anode of a standard galvanic cell in
operation is correct?
A The anode accepts electrons.
B The mass of the anode decreases.
C The concentration of the electrolyte in the half-cell containing the anode initially
decreases.
D The anode is the positive terminal of the cell. (2)
Nov 2010

7. Consider the reaction represented by the following equation:

2Ag+(aq) + Cu(s) → 2Ag + Cu2+(aq)
Which ONE of the following represents the oxidising agent in the above reaction?
A Ag+ B Ag
C Cu D Cu2+ (2)
Nov 2010
8. When the net (overall) cell reaction in a galvanic (voltaic) cell reaches equilibrium,
the emf of the cell is equal to ...
A +2,00 V. B +1,00 V.
C 0,00 V. D -1,00 V. (2)
March 2011
9. Four statements regarding a galvanic cell are given below.
Which ONE of these statements is TRUE?
A The anode is positive and oxidation takes place.
B The cathode is negative and reduction takes place.
C The cell reaction is endothermic.
D The cell reaction is exothermic. (2)
FS Jun 2011
10. Which ONE of the following containers can be used to store a zinc(II) sulphate solution?
A Ca B Ni
C Mn D Mg (2)
FS Jun 2011
11. When a metallic atom becomes an ion, it …
A loses electrons and is oxidised.
B loses electrons and is reduced.
C gains electrons and is oxidised.
D gains electrons and is reduced. (2)
Nov 2011
12. Consider the two half-reactions below that occur in a battery.
Zn(s) + 2OH-(aq) → ZnO(s) + H2O(ℓ) + 2e-
Ag2O(s) + H2O(ℓ) +2e- → 2Ag(s) +2OH-(aq)
A Ag(s) is reduced.
B Zn(s) is the anode.
C Ag2O(s) is the negative electrode.
D Electrons are transferred from Ag(s) to Zn(s). (2)
Nov 2011
13. The oxidation number of copper (Cu) in the compound CuSO4 is ...
A -2 B -4
C +2 D +4 (2)
Nov 2011
14. The gain of electrons by a substance in a chemical reaction is known as …
A oxidation. B reduction.
C electrolysis. D oxidation and reduction. (2)
March 2012
15. Which ONE of the following statements regarding a copper-silver galvanic cell
is TRUE?
A Silver is formed at the anode. B Copper is formed at the anode.
C Silver is formed at the cathode. D Copper is formed at the cathode. (2)
March 2012

16. In a redox reaction, an oxidising agent is ...

A reduced because it loses electrons.
B reduced because it gains electrons.
C oxidised because it loses electrons.
D oxidised because it gains electrons. (2)
Nov 2012
17. In a galvanic (voltaic) cell, electrons move from the ...
A anode to the cathode through the salt bridge.
B cathode to the anode through the salt bridge.
C anode to the cathode in the external circuit.
D cathode to the anode in the external circuit. (2)
Nov 2012
18. When a galvanic (voltaic) cell delivers current, the salt bridge …
A allows electrons to move in the cell.
B ensures electrical neutrality in the cell.
C prevents the two solutions from mixing.
D allows electrons to travel from the cathode to the anode. (2)
March 2013
19. Which ONE of the following metals is the strongest reducing agent?
A Ag B Zn
C Cu D Aℓ (2)
March 2013
20. Which ONE of the following is the strongest oxidising agent?
A F2(g) B F-(aq)
C Li(s) D Li+(aq) (2)
Nov 2013
21. Which ONE of the following statements about a galvanic cell in operation is CORRECT?
A ∆H for the cell reaction is positive.
B The overall cell reaction is non-spontaneous.
C The emf is negative.
D ∆H for the cell reaction is negative. (2)
Nov 2013
22. The function of the salt bridge in a galvanic cell in operation is to ...
A allow anions to travel to the cathode.
B maintain electrical neutrality in the half-cells.
C allow electrons to flow through it.
D provide ions to react at the anode and cathode. (2)
Nov 2013
23. Which ONE of the following CANNOT act as a reducing agent?
A Mg B Br −
C Fe2+ D MnO-4 (2)
Exemp 2014
24. Consider the galvanic cell represented below.
Mg(s) | Mg2+(aq) || H+(aq) | H2(g) | Pt
Which ONE of the following half-reactions takes place at the cathode?
A H2(g) → 2H+(aq) + 2e- B Mg2+(aq) + 2e- → Mg(s)
C Mg(s) → Mg2+(aq) + 2e- D 2H+(aq) + 2e- → H2(g) (2)
March 2014
25. Consider an electrochemical cell based on the following reaction:
Sn4+(aq) + Sn(s) → 2Sn2+(aq)
Which ONE of the following statements regarding this cell is CORRECT?
A Sn is the anode of the cell. B Sn is the cathode of the cell.
C Sn4+(aq) is the reducing agent. D Sn is the oxidising agent. (2)
March 2014


Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)
In the above reaction, Cu(s) is the ...
A oxidising agent and is reduced. B oxidising agent and is oxidised.
C reducing agent and is reduced. D reducing agent and is oxidised. (2)
Nov. 2014
27. Which ONE of the following metals will NOT react spontaneously with sulphuric acid?
A Zn B Mg
C Cu D Fe (2)
March 2015
28. A galvanic cell consists of the following half-cells:
Pt(s) |Cℓ2(g) |Cℓ─(aq) AND Cu2+(aq) |Cu(s)
Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE while the cell is functioning?
A Cu(s) is oxidised. B Cℓ─(aq) is reduced.
C Cℓ2(g) acts as reducing agent. D Cu(s) acts as oxidising agent. (2)
June 2015
29. The following half-reactions take place in a galvanic cell:
Co3+ + e- ⇌ Co2+
Aℓ3+ + 3e- ⇌ Aℓ
Which ONE of the following is the cell notation for this cell?
A Aℓ ∣ Aℓ3+ ∥ Co3+, Co2+ B Aℓ ∣ Aℓ3+ ∥ Co3+, Co2+ ∣ Pt
C Aℓ ∣ Aℓ3+ ∥ Co2+, Co3+ ∣ Pt D Pt ∣ Co2+ , Co3+ ∥ Aℓ3+ ∣ Aℓ (2)
Nov 2015
30. Chlorine gas (Cℓ2) is bubbled through a potassium iodide solution (KI).
The reducing agent in this reaction is:
A Potassium ions B Chlorine gas
C Iodide ions D Chloride ions (2)
Nov 2015
31. Consider the cell notation of the galvanic cell below.
Zn│Zn2+║Cu2+│Cu
Which ONE of the following statements regarding this cell is TRUE?
A Copper is formed at the cathode. B Copper is formed at the anode.
C Zinc is formed at the anode. D Zinc is formed at the cathode. (2)
March 2016
32. Which ONE of the following is a NON-SPONTANEOUS redox reaction?
Refer to the Table of Standard Reduction Potentials (Table 4A or 4B).
A Zn(s) + 2HCℓ(aq) → ZnCℓ2(aq) + H2(g)
B Cu(s) + FeCℓ2(aq) → CuCℓ2(aq) + Fe(s)
C 2AgNO3(aq) + Cu(s) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
D 2Aℓ(s) + 3Ni(NO3)2(aq) → 2Aℓ(NO3)3(aq) + 3Ni(s) (2)
June 2016
33. In a chemical reaction an oxidising agent will …
A lose protons. B gain protons.
C lose electrons. D gain electrons. (2)
Nov 2016
34. Which ONE of the equations below represents the half-reaction occurring at the
CATHODE of an electrochemical cell that is used to electroplate an object?
A Ag → Ag+ + e- B Cr3+ + 3e- → Cr
C Cr3+ + e- → Cr2+ D Cu2+ + e- → Cu+ (2)
Nov 2016

35. In the electrochemical cell below the letters X and Y represent two metal electrodes.
V
Electrode X Electrode Y
When the cell is functioning, ELECTRODE X GAINS MASS.

Which ONE of the following is the CORRECT cell notation for this cell?
A Y(s) | Y2+(aq) || X+(aq) | X(s) B X(s) | X+(aq) || Y2+(aq) | Y(s)
C X+(aq) | X(s) || Y(s) | Y2+(aq) D Y2+(aq) | Y(s) || X(s) | X+(aq) (2)
June 2016
36. The following equation represents the reaction taking place in an electrochemical cell:
Ni(s) + Pb2+(aq) → Ni2+(aq) + Pb(s)
The flow of electrons through the external circuit of this cell is from …
A Pb at the anode to Ni at the cathode.
B Pb at the cathode to Ni at the anode.
C Ni at the cathode to Pb at the anode.
D Ni at the anode to Pb at the cathode. (2)
March 2017
37. Which ONE of the half-cells below will result in the HIGHEST emf when it is used as
a cathode, together with a zinc half-cell as anode, in a standard galvanic cell?
A Cu2+(aq) | Cu(s) B Fe2+(aq) | Fe(s)
C Ag+(aq) | Ag(s) D Sn2+(aq) | Sn(s) (2)
Jun 2017
38. The cell notation for a galvanic cell is as follows:
Ni(s) | Ni2+(1 mol∙dm-3) || Pb2+(1 mol∙dm-3) | Pb(s)
Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT for this cell?
A Ni is oxidised. B Pb(s) is reduced.
C Ni2+(aq) is the oxidising agent. D Pb2+(aq) is the reducing agent. (2)
Nov 2017
39. A decrease in the oxidation number of an atom during a chemical reaction is
known as …
A redox. B oxidation.
C reduction. D electrolysis. (2)
March 2018
40. The two half-reactions below are used to construct a galvanic cell.
X+(aq) + e- ⇌ X(s) Eθreduction = + 0,15 V
Y2+(aq) + 2e- ⇌ Y(s) Eθreduction = - 0,15 V
Which ONE of the statements below is CORRECT when the cell is in operation?
A X+(aq) is reduced.
B Y(s) is reduced.
C X(s) | X+(aq) is the negative electrode.
D Electrons flow from X(s) to Y(s) in the external circuit. (2)
March 2018

41. Potassium nitrate is used as an electrolyte in the salt bridge of a copper-zinc cell.
Which ONE of the following CORRECTLY shows the direction of migration of potassium
and nitrate ions in the cell?
POTASSIUM IONS TO THE: NITRATE IONS TO THE:
A Anode Cathode
B Negative electrode Positive electrode
C Zinc electrode Copper electrode
D Copper electrode Zinc electrode
(2)
Jun 2018
42. Consider the cell notation for a galvanic cell below.
Ni(s) | Ni2+(aq) || H+(aq) | H2(g) | Pt(s)
Which ONE of the following half-reactions takes place at the ANODE of this cell?
A 2H+(aq) + 2e- → H2(g) B H2(g) → 2H+(aq) + 2e-
C Ni2+(aq) + 2e- → Ni(s) D Ni(s) → Ni2+(aq) + 2e- (2)
Nov 2018
43. The standard reduction potentials for two substances used to set up a galvanic cell are
as follows:
Sn2+ + 2e– ⇌ Sn Eθreduction = – 0,14 V
Cu2+ + 2e– ⇌ Cu Eθreduction = 0,34 V
Which ONE of the following combinations gives the substances formed at each electrode
when the cell is functioning?
Cathode Anode
A Cu2+ Sn
B Sn Cu2+
C Sn2+ Cu
D Cu Sn2+
(2)
June 2019
44. Two hypothetical half-reactions and their respective reduction potentials are shown
below:
B+(aq) + e- ⇌ B(s) Eθreduction = -1,5 V
A2+(aq) + 2e- ⇌ A(s) Eθreduction = 2,5 V
A galvanic cell is set up using the above substances.
Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT for this galvanic cell?
A B(s) is the reducing agent.
B A(s) is the oxidising agent.
C The mass of B(s) will increase.
D The mass of A(s) will decrease. (2)
Nov 2019
45. Which ONE of the following reactions will proceed spontaneously under standard
conditions?
A Ni2+(aq) + H2(g) → Ni(s) + 2H+(aq)
B Br2(ℓ) + 2Cℓ−(aq) → 2Br−(aq) + Cℓ2(g)
C 2Fe3+(aq) + 2I−(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(s)
D 2Cu+(aq) + Pb2+(aq) → 2Cu2+(aq) + Pb(s) (2)
Nov 2020

46. Which ONE of the following reactions, when used in a voltaic cell, will give a positive
reading on the voltmeter?
A Mg2+(aq) + Zn(s) → Mg(s) + Zn2+(aq)
B Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)
C Co2+(aq) + Sn2+(aq) → Co(s) + Sn4+(aq)
D 3Ni2+(aq) + 2Fe(s) → 3Ni(s) + 2Fe3+(aq) (2)
June 2021
47. Consider the balanced equation for the reaction below:
2Cr2+(aq) + Sn4+(aq) → 2Cr3+(aq) + Sn2+(aq)
The OXIDISING AGENT is:
A Cr2+(aq) B Cr3+(aq)
C Sn2+(aq) D Sn4+(aq) (2)
Sept 2021
48. An electrochemical cell is set up at standard conditions. The cell notation for the
cell is given below.
Mg(s) | Mg2+(aq) || Pb2+(aq) | Pb(s)
The cell is now connected in a circuit. Which ONE of the graphs below BEST represents
the concentrations of the electrolytes after a long time?
(2)
Sept 2021

49. The diagram below represents a voltaic cell.
Which ONE of the following correctly describes the movement of ions in the cell?
TYPE OF IONS DIRECTION OF MOVEMENT
A Cℓ−(aq) Y to X
B SO2-
4 (aq)
X to Y
C Cu2+(aq) Y to X
D K+(aq) Y to X
(2)
Nov 2021
50. An electrochemical cell was set up using a Hg(ℓ)|Hg2+(aq) half-cell and another half-cell
under standard conditions. Which ONE of the following half-cells, when connected to
the Hg(ℓ)|Hg2+(aq) half-cell, will result in the HIGHEST cell potential?
A Aℓ(s)|Aℓ3+(aq) B Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq)
C Co(s)|Co2+(aq) D Pt(s)|H2(g)|H+(aq) (2)
June 2022
51. Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE for an oxidising agent?
A It gains electrons.
B It causes another species in the reaction to be reduced.
C Its oxidation number does not change during a chemical reaction.
D Its oxidation number increases during a chemical reaction. (2)
Nov 2022
52. Which ONE of the following metals will reduce Cd2+(aq) to Cd(s), but will NOT reduce
Mn2+(aq) to Mn(s)?
A Zn B Ag
C Ni D Mg (2)
Nov 2022

ELECTROLYTIC CELLS
1. Which ONE of the following half-reactions occurs at the cathode during the electrolysis of an
aqueous CuCℓ2 solution?
A Cℓ2 + 2e- → 2Cℓ─ B Cu+ + e- → Cu
C 2Cℓ─ → Cℓ2 + 2e- D Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu (2)
Exemp 2008
2. The diagram below represents a cell that may be used for refining copper.
The impure copper contains silver metal and zinc metal.
impure copper
CuSO4(aq)
sludge
Which ONE of the following half-reactions will take place at electrode X?
A Ag+ + e- → Ag B Cu → Cu2+ + 2e-
C Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu D Zn2+ + 2e- → Zn (2)
Nov 2009
3. The following characteristics may be used to describe an electrochemical cell
(electrolytic or galvanic):
I The chemical reaction is self-sustaining.
II The reaction requires energy from an electrical source.
III The anode is the positive electrode of the cell.
Which of these characteristics are specific to an electrolytic cell?
A Only I B Only II
C I and III D II and III (2)
March 2010
4. The net (overall) cell reaction taking place in a certain cell is represented as follows:
2H2O(ℓ) + electrical energy → 2H2(g) + O2(g)
Which ONE of the following statements best describes this cell?
The cell is a/an …
A electrolytic cell in which an exothermic reaction occurs.
B electrolytic cell in which an endothermic reaction occurs.
C galvanic (voltaic) cell in which an exothermic reaction occurs.
D galvanic (voltaic) cell in which an endothermic reaction occurs. (2)
March 2011

5. Copper is purified through electrolysis as represented in the simplified diagram below.
Cu Cu
Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT for this process?

A Cu is oxidised at the negative electrode.
B Cu is reduced at the positive electrode.
C Cu2+ ions are reduced at the positive electrode.
D Cu2+ ions are reduced at the negative electrode. (2)
March 2011
6. Which ONE of the following half-reactions occurs at the cathode during the electrolysis
of an aqueous CuCℓ2 solution?
A Cℓ2 + 2e- → 2Cℓ− B 2Cℓ− → Cℓ2 + 2e-
C Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu D Cu → Cu2+ + 2e- (2)
FS Jun 2011
7. Which ONE of the following substances can be used as an electrolyte?
A Mercury
B Molten copper
C Sugar dissolved in distilled water
D Table salt dissolved in distilled water (2)
March 2012
8. Which ONE of the following half-reactions occurs at the CATHODE during the
electrolysis of a solution of CuCℓ2?
A Cu → Cu2+ + 2e- B 2Cℓ− → Cℓ2 + 2e-
C Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu D Cℓ2 + 2e- → 2Cℓ− (2)
March 2013
9. The major product formed at the ANODE during electrolysis of a concentrated
sodium chloride solution is ...
A hydrogen. B oxygen.
C chlorine. D hydroxide ions. (2)
Nov 2013
10. A sample of silver contains impurities of gold. During purification by electrolysis, the
impure silver is made into an electrode.
Which ONE of the following is the best choice of anode and cathode for this process?
Cathode Anode
A Pure gold Impure silver
B Impure silver Pure gold
C Pure silver Impure silver
D Impure silver Pure silver
(2)
Exemp 2014
11. Which ONE of the following statements regarding an electrolytic cell is CORRECT?
A An electric current causes a chemical change to occur.
B Reduction occurs at the anode.
C A spontaneous chemical reaction produces an electric current.
D Electrons flow to the electrode where oxidation occurs. (2)
March 2014

12. Which ONE of the following is formed at the cathode during the electrolysis of a
concentrated sodium chloride solution?
A Chlorine B Hydrogen
C Sodium chloride D Oxygen (2)
March 2014
13. An electrochemical cell is used to electroplate an iron spoon with nickel. Which ONE
of the following half-reactions takes place at the positive electrode of this cell?
A Fe2+(aq) + 2e− → Fe(s) B Fe(s) → Fe2+(aq) + 2e−
C Ni2+(aq) + 2e− → Ni(s) D Ni(s) → Ni2+(aq) + 2e− (2)
Nov. 2014
14. A learner wants to electroplate a copper ring with nickel. He uses the experimental set-up
shown in the simplified diagram below.
Power
source
Nickel rod
Ring
Electrolyte

ANODE CATHODE ELECTROLYTE
A Copper ring Nickel rod CuSO4
B Nickel rod Copper ring CuSO4
C Copper ring Nickel rod NiSO4
D Nickel rod Copper ring NiSO4
(2)
March 2015
15. The simplified diagram below shows a cell that can be used to purify copper.
Electrode X Electrode Y
Copper(II) solution
The purification failed. Which ONE of the following is the most likely reason for the failure?
A A DC source is used.
B Electrode X is the anode.
C Electrode Y is the impure copper.
D Electrode Y is a carbon rod. (2)
Jun 2015

16. In each of the electrolytic cells below, copper(II) sulphate is used as the electrolyte.
The electrodes are either carbon (C) or copper (Cu).
(i) (ii) (iii)
Cu Cu C Cu Cu C
In which cell(s) will the concentration of the electrolyte remain constant during electrolysis?
A (i) only B (i) and (ii) only
C (i) and (iii) only D (ii) and (iii) only (2)
March 2016
17. Consider the following balanced equation of a chemical reaction:
2NaCℓ + 2H2O → Cℓ2 + H2 + 2NaOH
Which ONE of the following statements about the reaction is correct?
The reaction takes place in a/an …
A galvanic cell and absorbs energy.
B galvanic cell and releases energy.
C electrolytic cell and absorbs energy.
D electrolytic cell and releases energy. (2)
March 2017
18. Which ONE of the following combinations CORRECTLY shows the products formed
during the electrolysis of a CONCENTRATED sodium chloride solution?
CATHODE ANODE
A Hydrogen Sodium
B Hydrogen Chlorine
C Chlorine Sodium
D Chlorine Hydrogen
(2)
Nov 2017
19. Which ONE of the following shows the electrode where the electrons are gained in an
electrolytic cell and the chemical change that occurs at this electrode?
ELECTRODE WHERE
CHEMICAL CHANGE
ELECTRONS ARE GAINED
A Anode Oxidation
B Anode Reduction
C Cathode Oxidation
D Cathode Reduction
(2)
Jun 2018
20. Which ONE of the following is applicable to an ELECTROLYTIC CELL?
A Reduction takes place at the anode.
B Oxidation takes place at the cathode.
C It uses alternating current.
D A battery is used for the cell to function. (2)
Nov 2018

21. Which ONE of the following half-reactions takes place at the POSITIVE ELECTRODE
of an electrochemical cell used to electroplate an iron rod with silver?
A Ag+ + e– → Ag B Fe2+ + 2e– → Fe
C Ag → Ag+ + e– D Fe → Fe2+ + 2e– (2)
Jun 2019
22. In an electrolytic cell …
A the anode is the positive electrode.
B oxidation takes place at the cathode.
C electrons flow from the cathode to the anode.
D the mass of the anode increases. (2)
Nov 2019
23. Die vereenvoudigde diagram hieronder verteenwoordig 'n elektrochemiese sel wat vir
die SUIWERING van koper gebruik word.
Watter EEN van die grafieke hieronder verteenwoordig die MASSAVERANDERING van
elektrodes P en Q tydens die suiweringsproses?
(2)
Nov 2020
24. Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT for an ELECTROLYTIC CELL?
A The anode is the positive electrode.
B The cathode is the positive electrode.
C Oxidation takes place at the cathode.
D Reduction takes place at the anode. (2)
Jun 2021

25. The electrolytic cell illustrated below is used to electroplate a nickel rod with copper.
X Y
Which ONE of the following correctly shows the formula of the electrolyte and the
letter that represents the nickel rod?
ELECTROLYTE NICKEL ROD

A NiSO4(aq) X
B CuSO4(aq) X
C NiSO4(aq) Y
D CuSO4(aq) Y
(2)
Sept 2021
26. The diagram below represents a cell that is used for the refining of copper.
Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

A X is made of platinum.
B The mass of X increases.
C X is the electrode where oxidation takes place.
D X is connected to the positive terminal of the power supply. (2)
Nov 2021
27. The following reaction takes place in an electrochemical cell:
CuCℓ2(aq) → Cu(s) + Cℓ2(g)
Which ONE of the following is CORRECT for this cell?
A It is a galvanic cell.
B A power source is needed.
C The reaction is spontaneous.
D Copper acts as the oxidising agent. (2)
June 2022

PHYSICAL SCIENCES FISIESE WETENSKAPPE
Multiple-choice questions Meervoudigekeuse-vrae
per topic per onderwerp
Paper 1 & 2 Vraestel 1 & 2
Grade 12 Graad 12
2022
Answers / Antwoorde
TABLE OF CONTENTS / INHOUDSOPGAWE

Newton's laws / Newton se wette ................................................................. 1
Vertical motion / Vertikale beweging ............................................................ 1
Momentum & impulse / Momentum & impuls .............................................. 1
Work, energy & power / Arbeid, energie & drywing ..................................... 1
Doppler ................................................................................................................. 2
Electrostatics / Elektrostatika ........................................................................ 2
Electric circuits / Elektriese stroombane ...................................................... 2
Electrodynamics / Elektrodinamika ................................................................ 2
Optical phenomena / Optiese verskynsels ..................................................... 3
Organic chemistry / Organiese chemie .......................................................... 3
Nomenclature / Nomenklatuur ......................................................................... 3
Physical properties / Fisiese eienskappe .......................................................... 3
Reactions / Reaksies ........................................................................................... 3
Rate of reaction / Reaksietempo .................................................................... 4
Chemical equilibrium / Chemiese ewewig ..................................................... 4
Acids & bases / Sure & basisse ......................................................................... 4
Galvanic cells & redox reactions / Galvaniese selle & redoksreaksies ...... 5
Electrolytic cells & redox reactions / Elektrolitiese selle &
redoksreaksies .................................................................................................... 5
Physical Sciences (P1 & P2) Grade 12 Fisiese Wetenskappe (V1 & V2) Graad 12
Newton's laws / Newton se wette
Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer

Nommer Antwoord Nommer Antwoord Nommer Antwoord Nommer Antwoord
1 B 11 B 21 C 31 C
2 D 12 B 22 D 32 A
3 A 13 D 23 B 33 D
4 C 14 B 24 B 34 C
5 B 15 D 25 D 35 D
6 A 16 A 26 A 36 A
7 A 17 B 27 B 37 A
8 A 18 A 28 C 38 B
9 D 19 C 29 A 39 A
10 C 20 D 30 C
Vertical motion / Vertikale beweging

1 A 8 B 15 C 22 D
2 C 9 C 16 D 23 B
3 A 10 A 17 C 24 B
4 B 11 D 18 A 25 C
5 A 12 D 19 D 26 B
6 D 13 B 20 A 27 B
7 C 14 B 21 C 28 D
Momentum & impulse / Momentum & impuls

1 B 10 A 19 D 28 B
2 C 11 D 20 C 29 B
3 C 12 D 21 C 30 C
4 C 13 C 22 B 31 D
5 C 14 B 23 A 32 D
6 D 15 C 24 B 33 B
7 A 16 D 25 C
8 C 17 D 26 A
9 B 18 C 27 D
Work, energy & power / Arbeid, energie & drywing

1 D 10 B 19 B 27 B
2 D 11 B 20 B 28 C
3 B 12 A 21 D 29 A
4 C 13 C 22 B 30 C
5 D 14 B 23 B 31 C
6 C 15 D 24 D (Afr) 32 B
7 D 16 C E (Eng) 33 B
8 B 17 A 25 A 34 D
9 D 18 A 26 C
Answers: Multiple-choice questions Antwoorde: Meervoudigekeuse-vrae

©FSDoE 2022 ⧫ 1 ⧫
Doppler

1 C 8 A 15 B 22 A
2 C 9 A 16 A 23 B
3 A 10 A 17 B 24 C
4 A 11 C 18 A 25 C
5 A 12 C 19 A
6 D 13 A 20 C
7 D 14 C 21 D
Electrostatics / Elektrostatika

1 D 9 B 17 B 25 A
2 D 10 C 18 A 26 D
3 D 11 D 19 C 27 A
4 C 12 C 20 B 28 A
5 B 13 A 21 C 29 A
6 D 14 A 22 D 30 B
7 D 15 B 23 C 31 D
NO QUESTION
8 GEEN VRAAG
16 A 24 B 32 D
Electric circuits / Elektriese stroombane

1 C 9 A 17 D 25 B
2 B 10 D 18 B 26 D
3 B 11 A 19 D 27 D
4 C 12 C 20 A 28 B
5 D 13 C 21 A 29 A
6 C 14 D 22 C 30 C
7 A 15 C 23 B 31 A
8 A 16 C 24 C 32 D
Electrodynamics / Elektrodinamika

1 B 8 A 15 B 22 D
2 D 9 D 16 C 23 C
3 C 10 C 17 D 24 D
4 C 11 C 18 D 25 A
5 D 12 C 19 D
6 A 13 B 20 C
7 A 14 D 21 D

©FSDoE 2022 ⧫ 2 ⧫
Optical phenomena / Optiese verskynsels

1 D 11 A 21 B 31 B
2 D 12 A 22 C 32 A
3 A 13 B 23 A 33 C
4 A 14 C 24 B 34 A
5 C 15 B 25 A 35 C
6 A 16 B 26 D 36 B
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 C
8 D 18 C 28 B 38 D
9 B 19 C 29 C 39 C
10 C 20 C 30 D
Organic chemistry / Organiese chemie
Nomenclature / Nomenklatuur
1 B 15 B 29 A 43 C
2 D 16 C 30 B 44 C
3 B 17 B 31 D 45 C
4 C 18 C 32 A 46 C
5 A 19 A 33 B 47 B
6 D 20 B 34 B 48 C
7 A 21 C 35 B 49 D
8 B 22 A 36 A 50 C
9 B 23 C 37 D 51 D
10 C 24 A 38 B 52 D
11 B 25 A 39 C 53 D
12 B 26 B 40 D 54 A
13 C 27 A 41 B
14 C 28 B 42 C
Physical properties / Fisiese eienskappe

1 B 4 A 7 A 10 C
2 C 5 D 8 B 11 D
3 A 6 D 9 D
Reactions / Reaksies
1 B 9 A 17 C 25 D
2 C 10 A 18 D 26 A
3 C 11 B 19 C 27 A
4 B 12 A 20 D 28 C
5 C 13 B 21 A 29 A
6 D 14 D 22 D 30 B
7 C 15 C 23 C
8 A 16 C 24 C

©FSDoE 2022 ⧫ 3 ⧫
Rate of reaction / Reaksietempo

1 C 12 C 23 C 34 A
2 B 13 C 24 C 35 A
3 B 14 D 25 B 36 D
4 D 15 C 26 B 37 B
5 D 16 B 27 B 38 D
6 C 17 A 28 A 39 D
7 C 18 C 29 A 40 B
8 A 19 D 30 A 41 D
9 A 20 B 31 C 42 B
10 D 21 B 32 D 43 D
11 B 22 C 33 B
Chemical equilibrium / Chemiese ewewig

1 A 14 D 27 C 40 B
2 C 15 D 28 D 41 D
3 C 16 D 29 A 42 D
4 A 17 C 30 C 43 C
5 A 18 C 31 C 44 C
6 B 19 B 32 C 45 B
7 B 20 C 33 A 46 B
8 D 21 C 34 A 47 B
9 A 22 C 35 A 48 C
10 B 23 B 36 C 49 A
11 A 24 C 37 B 50 D
12 D 25 B 38 C
13 A 26 B 39 C
Acids & bases / Sure & basisse

1 B 7 D 13 B 19 B
2 A 8 B 14 B 20 B
3 A 9 A 15 B 21 A
4 D 10 C 16 B 22 B
5 A 11 B 17 D 23 C
6 B 12 C 18 B

©FSDoE 2022 ⧫ 4 ⧫
Galvanic cells & redox reactions / Galvaniese selle & redoksreaksies

1 C 14 B 27 C 40 A
2 D 15 C 28 A 41 D
3 C 16 B 29 B 42 D
4 B 17 C 30 C 43 D
5 B 18 B 31 A 44 A
6 B 19 D 32 B 45 C
7 A 20 A 33 D 46 B
8 C 21 D 34 B 47 D
9 D 22 B 35 A 48 C
10 B 23 D 36 D 49 A
11 A 24 D 37 C
12 B 25 D 38 A
13 C 26 D 39 C
Electrolytic cells & redox reactions / Elektrolitiese selle & redoksreaksies

1 D 8 D 15 C 22 A
2 C 9 C 16 C 23 A
3 D 10 C 17 C 24 A
4 B 11 A 18 B 25 D
5 D 12 B 19 D 26 B
6 C 13 D 20 D
7 D 14 D 21 C
OOOoOoOOO

©FSDoE 2022 ⧫ 5 ⧫

2023 Fs Physci MCQ & Memo - p1&2 - GRD 12

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

2023 Fs Physci MCQ & Memo - p1&2 - GRD 12

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Physical Sciences P1 (Physics) Grade 12 © Free State Department of Education 2023

frictional force applied force W E

9. A horizontal force F is applied to a crate, causing it to move over a rough, horizontal

Which ONE of the following statements about the tensions is CORRECT?

The reading on the scale is largest when the lift moves …

37. Consider the statement below.

Time (s) Time (s)

Time (s) Time (s)

Time (s) Time (s)

Time (s) Time (s)

time (s) time (s)

9. The velocity-time graph below represents the motion of an object.

MOMENTUM AND IMPULSE

Ignore the effects of friction. Which ONE of the following is CORRECT?

29. The rate of change of momentum of an object is equal to the …

WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

time (s) time (s)

time (s) time (s)

Diagram 1 represents the spectrum of an element in a laboratory on Earth.

Initial position Final position

The magnitude of the electric field of the point charge is ...

Sphere A exerts a force of magnitude F on sphere B. What is the magnitude of the

Which ONE of the following represents the charge on X and Y respectively?

Which ONE of the following conclusions is CORRECT?

Sphere P exerts an electrostatic force of magnitude F on sphere Q. What is the magnitude

2. A variable resistor, an ammeter, a battery of emf 12 V and voltmeters V1 and V2 are

If bulb X glows brighter than bulb Y, then the …

When switch S is closed, the reading on voltmeter V, in volts, is:

13. Consider the circuit diagram below.

Which ONE of the following is CORRECT?

The power dissipated in resistor X is P. The power dissipated in resistor Y is …

AMMETER READING VOLTMETER READING

When switch S is CLOSED, the reading on voltmeter V1 is 3 V.

33. The emf of a battery is Ɛ and its

Which ONE of the following

ALTERNATING CURRENT AND ELECTRICAL MACHINES

When the switch is closed, coil ABCD rotates …

The coil will ...

Output emf (V)

23. Consider the statements below regarding AC power and DC power:

The speed of rotation of the generator's coil is now DOUBLED.

26. An AC generator consists of a coil which is rotated

White light cold gas

What type of spectrum is observed on the screen?

The intercepts, P and Q respectively, represent …

Which ONE of the following represents the gradient of the graph?

E0 represents the ground state energy.

White light Cold gas Prism Screen

GENERAL GUIDELINES WHEN ANSWERING MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 2

Multiple-choice questions © Free State Department of Education

GENERAL GUIDELINES WHEN ANSWERING MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Multiple-choice questions © Free State Department of Education

Multiple-choice questions © Free State Department of Education

ORGANIC MOLECULES: NOMENCLATURE

1. Which of the following are structural isomers of hexane?

(iii) CH3 ―CH― CH2―CH3

A (i) and (ii) only B (ii) and (iii) only

CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH2

Multiple-choice questions © Free State Department of Education

5. The structural formula of an ester is shown below.

Multiple-choice questions © Free State Department of Education

10. Which ONE of the following hydrocarbons has NO structural isomers?