A male nurse is providing a

NUR 149 QUIZ 12 bedtime snack for his patient. This

Knowing that gluconeogenesis is based on the knowledge that
helps to maintain blood glucose intermediate-acting insulins are
levels, a nurse should * effective for an approximate
Document weight changes because of
fatty acid mobilization. duration of: *
Evaluate the patient’s sensitivity to low 10-14 hours
room temperatures because of 14-18 hours
decreased adipose tissue insulation. 6-8 hours
Protect the patient from sources of 24-28 hours
infection because of decreased cellular
protein deposits.
All of the above. A nurse went to a patient’s room
to do routine vital signs monitoring
The nurse is admitting a patient and found out that the patient’s
diagnosed with type 2 diabetes bedtime snack was not eaten. This
mellitus. The nurse should expect should alert the nurse to check
the following symptoms during an and assess for: *
assessment, except: * Elevated serum bicarbonate and
Dry mouth decreased blood pH
Hypoglycemia Symptoms of hyperglycemia during the
Ketonuria peak time of NPH insulin
Frequent bruising Sugar in the urine
Signs of hypoglycemia earlier than
expected
Rotation sites for insulin injection
should be separated from one
A client is taking NPH insulin daily
another by 2.5 cm (1 inch) and
every morning. The nurse instructs
should be used only every: *
Every other day the client that the most likely time
Third day for a hypoglycemic reaction to
2-4 weeks
1-2 weeks
occur is: *
1 point

2-4 hours after administration

A clinical feature that distinguishes 16-18 hours after administration
a hypoglycemic reaction from a 6-14 hours after administration
18-24 hours after administration
ketoacidosis reaction is: *
Nausea
Weakness
Blurred vision
Diaphoresis

An external insulin pump is
prescribed for a client with DM.
The client asks the nurse about the
functioning of the pump. The nurse
bases the response on the
information that the pump: *
It is surgically attached to the pancreas
and infuses regular insulin into the
pancreas, which in turn releases the
insulin into the bloodstream.
It is timed to release programmed
doses of regular or NPH insulin into the
bloodstream at specific intervals.
It continuously infuses small amounts
of NPH insulin into the bloodstream
while regularly monitoring blood
glucose levels.
Gives a small continuous dose of
regular insulin subcutaneously, and the
client can self-administer a bolus with
an additional dosage from the pump
before each meal.
A client with a diagnosis of
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is
being treated in the ER. Which
finding would a nurse expect to
note as confirming this
diagnosis? *
Increased respiration and an increase
in pH
Decreased urine output
Elevated blood glucose level and a low
plasma bicarbonate
Comatose state
A client with DM demonstrates
acute anxiety when first admitted
for the treatment of
hyperglycemia. The most
appropriate intervention to
decrease the client’s anxiety
would be to: *
Convey empathy, trust, and respect
toward the client
Administer a sedative
Make sure the client knows all the
correct medical terms to understand
what is happening
Ignore the signs and symptoms of
anxiety so that they will soon disappear
A nurse is preparing a plan of care
for a client with diabetes mellitus
who has hyperglycemia. The
priority nursing diagnosis would
be *
Imbalanced nutrition: less than body
requirements
Disabled family coping: compromised
Deficient knowledge: disease process
and treatment
High risk for deficient fluid volume
A nurse performs a physical
assessment on a client with type 2
diabetes mellitus. Findings include
fasting blood glucose of 120mg/dl,
temperature of 101ºF, pulse of 88
bpm, respirations of 22 bpm, and a
BP of 140/84 mmHg. Which finding
would be of most concern to the
nurse? *
Blood pressure
Pulse
Temperature
Respiration
A client with type 1 diabetes
mellitus calls the nurse to report
recurrent episodes of
hypoglycemia with exercise. Which
statement by the client indicated
an inadequate understanding of
the peak action of NPH insulin and
exercise? *
“The best time for me to exercise is
every afternoon.”
“The best time for me to exercise is
right after I eat.”
“The best time for me to exercise is
after breakfast.”
“The best time for me to exercise is
after my morning snack.”
A client with diabetes mellitus
visits a health care clinic. The
client’s diabetes previously had
been well controlled with glyburide
(Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but
recently, the fasting blood glucose
has been running 180-200 mg/dl.
Which medication, if added to the
clients regimen, may have
contributed to the
hyperglycemia? *
prednisone (Deltasone)
allopurinol (Zyloprim)
phenelzine (Nardil)
atenolol (Tenormin)
Glucose is an important molecule
in a cell because this molecule is
primarily used for: *
Extraction of energy
Formation of cell membranes
Building of genetic material
Synthesis of protein
The nurse is admitting a client with
hypoglycemia. Identify the signs
and symptoms the nurse should
expect. Select all that apply. *
Palpitations
Diaphoresis
Slurred speech
Thirst
The nurse recognizes that
additional teaching is necessary
when the client who is learning
alternative site testing (AST) for
glucose monitoring says: *
“I need to rub my forearm vigorously
until warm before testing at this site.”
“Alternate site testing is unsafe if I am
experiencing a rapid change in glucose
levels.”
“I have to make sure that my current
glucose monitor can be used at an
alternate site.”
“The fingertip is preferred for glucose
monitoring if hyperglycemia is
suspected.”
The nurse knows that glucagon
may be given in the treatment of
hypoglycemia because it: *
Increases blood glucose levels
Inhibits gluconeogenesis
Stimulates the release of insulin
Provides more storage of glucose
A client with type 1 diabetes
mellitus has a fingerstick glucose
level of 258mg/dl at bedtime. An
order for sliding scale insulin 50% to 60% of daily calories
exists. The nurse should * should come from carbohydrates.
Call the physician
What should the nurse say about
Administer the insulin as ordered
Give the client 1/2 c. of orange juice the types of carbohydrates that
Encourage the intake of fluids can be eaten? *
Simple carbohydrates are absorbed
more rapidly than complex
A client with diabetes mellitus carbohydrates.
Simple sugars cause a rapid spike in
states, “I cannot eat big meals; I glucose levels and should be avoided.
prefer to snack throughout the Try to limit simple sugars to between
10% and 20% of daily calories.
day.” The nurse should carefully Simple sugars should never be
explain that: * consumed by someone with diabetes.
Large meals can contribute to a weight
problem
Small, frequent meals are better for
At the time Cherrie Ann found out
digestion
Salt and sugar restriction is the main that the symptoms of diabetes
concern
were caused by high levels of
Regulated food intake is basic to
control blood glucose, she decided to
break the habit of eating
QUIZ 13 NUR 149 carbohydrates. With this, the nurse
A nurse has a four-patient would be aware that the client
assignment in the medical step- might develop which of the
down unit. When planning care for following complications *
Glycosuria
the clients, which client would Retinopathy
have the following treatment Atherosclerosis
Acidosis
goals: fluid replacement,
vasopressin replacement, and
correction of underlying A client was brought to the
intracranial pathology? * emergency room with complaints
The client with syndrome of of slurring of speech, vomiting, dry
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
(SIADH) secretion. mucosa, and dry skin turgor. Lab
The client with diabetes mellitus. tests showing serum sodium 125
The client with diabetes insipidus.
The client with diabetic ketoacidosis. mEq/L and serum blood glucose of
350 mg/dL. Nurse Sophie will
anticipate the physician to initially
During the lecture, the clinical order which of the following
instructor tells the students that intravenous solutions? *
10% dextrose in water (D10W)
0.45% normal saline solution
0.9% normal saline solution
5% dextrose in water (D5W)
A client with a diagnosis of
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is
being treated in the ER. Which
finding would a nurse expect to
note as confirming this
diagnosis? *
Increased respiration and an increase
in pH
Decreased urine output
Comatose state
Elevated blood glucose level and a low
plasma bicarbonate
When caring for a male client with
diabetes insipidus, nurse Juliet
expects to administer: *
Furosemide (Lasix).
Regular insulin.
Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic).
10% dextrose.
Nurse Louie is developing a
teaching plan for a male client
diagnosed with diabetes insipidus.
The nurse should include
information about which hormone
lacking in clients with diabetes
insipidus? *
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
Luteinizing hormone (LH).
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
Which outcome indicates that
treatment of a male client with
diabetes insipidus has been
effective? *
The heart rate is 126 beats/minute.
Urine output measures more than 200
ml/hour.
Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day.
Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg.
A male client with primary
diabetes insipidus is ready for
discharge on desmopressin
(DDAVP). Which instruction should
nurse Lina provide? *
“Your condition isn’t chronic, so you
won’t need to wear a medical
identification bracelet.”
“You won’t need to monitor your fluid
intake and output after you start taking
desmopressin.”
“You may not be able to use
desmopressin nasally if you have nasal
discharge or blockage.”
“Administer desmopressin while the
suspension is cold.”
Vasopressin is administered to the
client with diabetes insipidus (DI)
because it: *
Increases tubular reabsorption of water.
Increases release of insulin from the
pancreas.
Decreases blood sugar.
Decreases glucose production within
the liver.
A male client is admitted for
treatment of the syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
(SIADH). Which nursing
intervention is appropriate? *
Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered.
Encouraging increased oral intake.
Administering glucose-containing I.V. Risk for injury related to decreased
fluids as ordered blood pressure
Restricting fluids.

QUIZ 15NUR 149

Which of these signs suggests that
a male client with the syndrome of MS2
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone The staff nurse of the hospital
(SIADH) secretion is experiencing assess the vital signs of the
complications? * patient who has an increased
Weight loss intra-cranial pressure. The nurse
Polyuria
Tetanic contractions who assess the vital signs of the
Neck vein distention patient is expected to have what
kind of condition: SELECT ALL
Which of the following conditions is THAT APPLY *
hypertension is one of the signs and
caused by excessive secretion of symptoms to the patient that has
vasopressin? * increased intra-cranial pressure
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic bradycardia and tachypnea is one of
hormone (SIADH) the situation that will experienced by
Thyrotoxic crisis your increased intra-cranial pressure
Diabetes insipidus patient
Primary adrenocortical insufficiency only bradycardia is the only situation
that will happen to the patient that has
increased intra-cranial pressure
increased intra-cranial situation patient
Which of the following will probably experience tachycardia as
manifestations expected to a well as tachypnea

patient with SIADH? Select all that

apply * The staff nurse forgot to assess
Hypotension
Large volumes of urine the respiratory pattern of the
Weight gain patient who has an increase intra-
Hypertension
Small amounts of urine cranial pressure, it is already
Weight loss expected that the respiration of
The appropriate nursing diagnosis the patient who has an increase
for a patient with SIADH is * intra-cranial pressure is: *
the patient’s respiration is less than to
Fluid volume deficit related to
12cpm.
excessive fluid loss
the patient will complain of difficulty of
Impaired skin integrity related to
breathing
dehydration
there is an existence of a barrel chest
Fluid volume excess related to fluid
upon the respiration of the patient
retention
none of the choices
The patient who has an increased
intracranial pressure is associated
with a cerebral edema, as a nurse
on that specific station is precisely
correct that the appropriate
intervention to the patient is: *
administer diuretics to the patient
increase fluid intake to the patient
high fiber diet is necessary to the
patient.
elevate the head of bed of the patient
What medication that will be given
to the patient who has an
increased intra-cranial pressure
that is associated with cerebral
edema basing on the choices of
the previous number: *
anti hypertensive
anti diuretics
diuretics
none of the choices
The patient who complains of
being thirsty into the staff nurse,
the staff nurses is aware of the
patient’s condition which is
increased intra-cranial pressure
that is associated with cerebral
edema. As a nurse, which
statement that will be likely to tell
to the patient: *
it has no limit in drinking water
You can drink a lot of fluid in order for
the fluid to excrete as fast as it is.
please talk to the physician if you can
drink a lot of fluid or limit your fluid
intake
you need to limit the fluid intake.
The nurse will anticipate that the
patient will undergo limitation of
the fluid intake. You are
knowledgeable that the volume of
fluid that will be given in to the
patient is: *
the volume of fluid that will be given
into the patient is 1200L/day
the volume of the fluid that the patient
should consume is 1200mm/day
it is 1200ml/day of fluid will be given
into the patient
it should be 1200ml/week of fluid that
the patient will be consume
A patient has a history of seizure,
but unfortunately the episodes of
his/her seizure is already
continuous episodes. The medical
diagnosis of the physician into the
staff nurse is: *
there is already a status asthamaticus
basing on the situation of the patient.
there is already a status epilepticus on
the situation of the patient.
none of the choices
the patient’s condition is already a
form of terminal brain cancer
The paramedics who assess the
staff nurses on the scenario asks
the bystanders on their
intervention into the patient, and
one of them respond to the
paramedics that they put a spoon
into the mouth of the patient.
Which of the following response

that will be appropriate from the
paramedics into the bystanders. *
did you assess the airway pattern or
even the breathing pattern of the
patient
thank you, at least you help the
patient.
are you out of your mind, you can kill
the patient.
did you assess the level of the
consciousness before you put
something into the mouth of the staff
nurse
A client with a subdural hematoma
becomes restless and confused,
with dilation of the ipsilateral
pupil. The physician orders
mannitol for which of the following
reasons? *
To reduce intraocular pressure.
To prevent acute tubular necrosis.
To promote osmotic diuresis to
decrease ICP.
To draw water into the vascular system
to increase blood pressure.
A client with subdural hematoma
was given mannitol to decrease
intracranial pressure (ICP). Which
of the following results would best
show the mannitol was effective? *
Systolic blood pressure remains at 150
mm Hg.
Urine output increases.
BUN and creatinine levels return to
normal.
Pupils are 8 mm and nonreactive.
Which of the following values is
considered normal for ICP? *
120/80 mm Hg
25 mm Hg
0 to 15 mm Hg
35 to 45 mm Hg
Which of the following signs and
symptoms of increased ICP after
head trauma would appear first? *
Bradycardia
Large amounts of very dilute urine
Restlessness and confusion
Widened pulse pressure
The nurse is assessing the motor
function of an unconscious client.
The nurse would plan to use which
of the following to test the client’s
peripheral response to pain? *
Pressure on the orbital rim
Sternal rub
Squeezing the sternocleidomastoid
muscle
Nail bed pressure
After the episodes of the seizure,
the patient is still unconscious, the
paramedics is correct if they
perform the priority intervention to
the staff nurse: *
gather and collect the valuable things
of the patient and kept in secret
assess the vital signs of the patient
assess if there is an airway obstruction
to the patient.
assess the rise and fall of the chest of
the patient
After assessing the patient with a
seizure, the paramedics is again
correct to implement an

intervention to the patient which
is: *
elevate the head of the patient
assess the vital signs of the patient
position the patient into a recovery
position
wake up the patient as fast as it is
QUIZ 16 NUR 149
A client who recently had a
cerebrovascular accident/stroke
requires a cane to ambulate. When
teaching about cane use, the rationale
for holding a cane on the uninvolved
side is to: *
maintain stride length
distribute weight away from the involved side
prevent edema
prevent leaning
The nurse is formulating a teaching
plan for a client who has just
experienced a transient ischemic attack
(TIA). Which fact should the nurse
include in the teaching plan? *
Most clients have residual effects after having a
TIA.
TIA symptoms may last 24 to 48 hours.
The most common symptom of TIA is the
inability to speak.
TIA may be a warning that the client may have
cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
On the evening before discharge from
the hospital, a client has a hypertensive
crisis and a brain attack (CVA). Initially
the nurse should place the client in a: *
Supine position
High Fowler's position
Side-lying position
Slight Trendelenburg position
The husband of a client with aphasia as
a result of a brain attack (CVA) asks
whether his wife's speech will ever
return. The nurse should respond: *
"This will probably be the extent of her speech
from now on."
"You will have to ask your physician".
"It is hard to say how much improvement will
occur."
"It should return to normal in two or three
months."
When assisting the family to help an
aphasic member regain as much
speech function as possible, the nurse
should instruct them to: *
Give positive reinforcement for correct
communication
Encourage the client to speak while being patient
with all attempts.
Tell the client to use the correct words when
speaking
Speak louder than usual during visits.
A client is admitted to the hospital with
weakness in the right extremities and a
slight speech problem. Vital signs are
normal. During the first 24 hours, the
nurse should give priority to: *
Evaluating the client's motor status.
Checking the client's temperature.
Obtaining a urine specimen from the client.
Monitoring the client's blood pressure.
A client having a brain attack (CVA) is
brought to the Emergency Room. The
vital signs are P-78, R-16, and BP-
120/80. The change in this client's vital
signs that would indicate increasing
intracranial pressure (ICP) requiring
notification of the physician, would be: *
P-50 R- 22 BP- 140/60
P-56 R- 20 BP-130/110
P-120 R-16 BP 80/60
P-60 R-18 BP- 126/96
Initially after a brain attack (CVA), a
client's pupils are equal and reactive to
light. Later the nurse assesses that the
right pupil is reacting more slowly than
the left and the systolic B.P. is
beginning to rise. The nurse recognizes
that these adaptations are suggestive
of: *
Spinal shock
Hypovolemic shock
Increasing intracranial pressure
Transtentorial herniation
To prevent a client, who has had a brain
attack (CVA) accident two days ago,
from developing plantar flexion the
nurse should: *
Maintain the feet at right angles to the legs.
Elevate the knee gatch to a 45-degree angle.
Place a pillow under the thighs.
Encourage active range of motion of all joints.
A female client manifests right-sided
hemianopia as a result of a brain attack
(CVA). The nurse should: *
Provide tactile stimulation to the client's affected
extremities.
Instruct the client to scan her surrounding.
Teach a client to look at the position of her left
extremities.
Correct the client's misuse of equipment.
The wife of a client who has had a brain
attack (CVA) tells the home health
nurse that her husband cries easily and
without provocation. She asks why he is
so emotionally labile. The nurse should
explain that: *
This is the way of getting attention, and the
behavior should be ignored.
Her husband can remember only depressing
events from the past.
Her husband feels guilty about the demands he is
making on his family.
This behavior is common response over which he
has very little control.
When assisting the family to help an
aphasic member regain as much
speech function as possible, the nurse
should instruct them to: *
Speak louder than usual during visits
Encourage the client to speak while being patient
with all attempts.
Tell the client to use the correct words when
speaking.
Give positive reinforcement for correct
communication.
The nurse in the neurologic clinic
assesses for damage to the
glossophayngeal (9th cranial) and
vagus (10th cranial) nerve by testing
the client's ability to: *
Smell
Shrug
Smile
Swallow
When assessing trigeminal nerve (5th)
function, the nurse should evaluate: *
Ocular muscle movement
Corneal sensation
Smiling and frowning Strict adherence to a bowel retraining
Shrugging of the shoulders program.
Preventing unnecessary pressure on
the lower limb.
A client has a history of progressive
carotid and and cerebral
atherosclerosis and Transient Ischemic A male client is admitted with a
attacks (TIA). The nurse understands cervical spine injury sustained
that TIA's are: * during a diving accident. When
Ischemic attacks that result in progressive planning this client’s care, the
neurologic deterioration.
Temporary episodes of neurologic dysfunction. nurse should assign the highest
Transient attacks caused by multiple small priority to which nursing
emboli.
Periods of alternating exacerbations and diagnosis? *
remissions. Disturbed sensory perception (tactile)
Impaired physical mobility
Ineffective breathing pattern
Self-care deficit: Dressing/groomin
QUIZ 17 NUR 149
The nurse is caring for a client who
suffered a spinal cord injury 48 A female client who was trapped
hours ago. The nurse monitors for inside a car for hours after a head-
GI complications by assessing on collision is rushed to the
for: * emergency department with
multiple injuries. During the
Hematest positive nasogastric tube
drainage. neurologic examination, the client
A history of diarrhea. responds to painful stimuli with
Hyperactive bowel sounds.
A flattened abdomen. decerebrate posturing. This finding
indicates damage to which part of
the brain? *
A client with a spinal cord injury is Medulla
prone to experiencing autonomic Diencephalon
Midbrain
dysreflexia. The nurse would avoid Cortex
which of the following measures to
minimize the risk of recurrence? *
Limiting bladder catheterization to A female client is admitted in a
once every 12 hours. disoriented and restless state after
Keeping the linen wrinkle-free under
the client. sustaining a concussion during a
car accident. Which nursing
diagnosis takes highest priority for
this client’s plan of care? *
Self-care deficit: Dressing/grooming
Disturbed sensory perception (visual)
Impaired verbal communication
Risk for injury
following nursing interventions
should be done first? *
Assess full ROM to determine extent of
injuries.
Immobilize the client’s head and neck.
Call for an immediate chest x-ray.
Open the airway with the head-tilt-chin-
lift maneuver.

An 18-year-old client is admitted

with a closed head injury sustained
A client with a C6 spinal injury
in a MVA. His intracranial pressure
would most likely have which of
(ICP) shows an upward trend.
the following symptoms? *
Which intervention should the
Hemiparesis
nurse perform first? * Paraplegia
Administer 100 mg of pentobarbital IV Tetraplegia
as ordered. Aphasia
Reposition the client to avoid neck
flexion.
Increase the ventilator’s respiratory
rate to 20 breaths/minute. A 30-year-old was admitted to the
Administer 1 g Mannitol IV as ordered. progressive care unit with a C5
A client with head trauma fracture from a motorcycle
develops a urine output of 300 accident. Which of the following
ml/hr, dry skin, and dry mucous assessments would take priority? *
membranes. Which of the Pulse ox readings
The client’s feelings about the injury
following nursing interventions is Neurological deficit
the most appropriate to perform Bladder distension
initially *
Anticipate treatment for renal failure.
Evaluate urine specific gravity. While in the ER, a client with C8
Provide emollients to the skin to
tetraplegia develops a blood
prevent breakdown.
Slow down the IV fluids and notify the pressure of 80/40, pulse 48, and
physician. RR of 18. The nurse suspects
which of the following
conditions? *
A client comes into the ER after
Hemorrhagic shock
hitting his head in an MVA. He’s Pulmonary embolism
alert and oriented. Which of the Autonomic dysreflexia
Neurogenic shock
A 22-year-old client with
quadriplegia is apprehensive and
flushed, with a blood pressure of
210/100 and a heart rate of 50
bpm. Which of the following
nursing interventions should be
done first? *
Give one SL nitroglycerin tablet.
Place the client flat in bed.
Raise the head of the bed immediately
to 90 degree
Assess patency of the indwelling
urinary catheter.
A client with a cervical spine injury
has Gardner-Wells tongs inserted
for which of the following
reasons? *
To hold bony fragments of the skull
together.
To hasten wound healing.
To immobilize the cervical spine.
To prevent autonomic dysreflexia.
Which of the following
interventions describes an
appropriate bladder program for a
client in rehabilitation for spinal
cord injury? *
Perform Crede’s maneuver to the lower
abdomen before the client voids.
Perform a straight catheterization
every 8 hours while awake.
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to
straight drainage.
Schedule intermittent catheterization
every 2 to 4 hours.
A 23-year-old client has been hit
on the head with a baseball bat.
The nurse notes clear fluid
draining from his ears and nose.
Which of the following nursing
interventions should be done
first? *
Suction the nose to maintain airway
patency.
Check the fluid for dextrose with a
dipstick.
Position the client flat in bed.
Insert nasal and ear packing with
sterile gauze
A client with a T1 spinal cord injury
arrives at the emergency
department with a BP of 82/40,
pulse 34, dry skin, and flaccid
paralysis of the lower extremities.
Which of the following conditions
would most likely be suspected? *
Sepsis
Neurogenic shock
Hypervolemia
Autonomic dysreflexia
A 40-year-old paraplegic must
perform intermittent
catheterization of the bladder.
Which of the following instructions
should be given? *
“Clean the meatus from back to front.”
“Clean the meatus with soap and
water.”
“Measure the quantity of urine.”
“Gently rotate the catheter
removal.”
An 18-year-old client was hit in the
head with a baseball during
practice. When discharging him to
the care of his mother, the nurse
gives which of the following
instructions? *
“Wake him every hour and assess his
orientation to person, time, and place.”
“Watch him for a keyhole pupil the next
24 hours.”
“Expect profuse vomiting for 24 hours
after the injury.”
“Notify the physician immediately if he
has a headache.
The nurse is discussing the
purpose of an
electroencephalogram (EEG) with
the family of a client with massive
cerebral hemorrhage and loss of
during
injury is suspected. How should
the first-responder open the
client’s airway for rescue
breathing? *
By performing the head-tilt, chin-lift
maneuver
By inserting a nasopharyngeal airway.
By performing a jaw thrust maneuver.
By inserting an oropharyngeal airway.
QUIZ 18 NUR 149
The nurse is evaluating the status
of a client who had a craniotomy 3
days ago. The nurse would suspect
the client is developing meningitis
as a complication of surgery if the
client exhibits: *
Absence of nuchal rigidity.
A positive Brudzinski’s sign.
A Glascow Coma Scale score of 15
negative Kernig’s sign.

consciousness. It would be most

accurate for the nurse to tell
During the acute stage of
family members that the test
meningitis, a 3-year-old child is
measures which of the following
restless and irritable. Which of the
conditions? *
following would be most
Sites of brain injury.
Extent of intracranial bleeding. appropriate to institute? *
Activity of the brain. Keeping extraneous noise to a
Percent of functional brain tissue. minimum.
Limiting conversation with the child.
Allowing the child to play in the
bathtub.
A 20-year-old client who fell Performing treatments quickly.
approximately 30’ is unresponsive
and breathless. A cervical spine
Which of the following would lead A nurse is planning care for a child
the nurse to suspect that a child with acute bacterial meningitis.
with meningitis has developed Based on the mode of transmission
disseminated intravascular of this infection, which of the
coagulation? * following would be included in the
Dyspnea on exertion plan of care? *
Cyanosis
Maintain respiratory isolation
Hemorrhagic skin rash
precautions for at least 24 hours after
Edema
the initiation of antibiotics.
Maintain neutropenic precautions.
No precautions are required as long as
antibiotics have been started.
When interviewing the parents of a Maintain enteric precautions.
2-year-old child, a history of which
of the following illnesses would
lead the nurse to suspect Which of the following assessment
pneumococcal meningitis? * data indicated nuchal rigidity? *
Middle ear infection Negative Brudzinski’s sign
Septic arthritis Negative Kernig’s sign
Fractured clavicle Positive homan’s sign
Bladder infection Positive Kernig’s sign

A lumbar puncture is performed on Meningitis occurs as an extension

a child suspected of having of a variety of bacterial infections
bacterial meningitis. CSF is due to which of the following
obtained for analysis. A nurse conditions? *
reviews the results of the CSF Congenital anatomic abnormality of the
analysis and determines which of meninges.
Lack of acquired resistance to the
the following results would verify various etiologic organisms.
the diagnosis? * Occlusion or narrowing of the CSF
pathway.
Cloudy CSF, decreased protein, and Natural affinity of the CNS to certain
decreased glucose. pathogens
Clear CSF, decreased pressure, and
elevated protein.
Clear CSF, elevated protein, and
decreased glucose. Which of the following pathologic
Cloudy CSF, elevated protein, and
decreased glucose. processes is often associated with
aseptic meningitis? *
Childhood diseases of viral causation
A physician diagnoses a client with
such as mumps.
Ischemic infarction of cerebral tissue. myasthenia gravis, prescribing
Cerebral ventricular irritation from a pyridostigmine (Mestinon), 60 mg
traumatic brain injury.
Brain abscesses caused by a variety of P.O. every 3 hours. Before
pyogenic organisms. administering this
anticholinesterase agent, the
nurse reviews the client’s history.
A female client is admitted to the
Which preexisting condition would
hospital with a diagnosis of
contraindicate the use of
Guillain-Barre syndrome. The nurse
pyridostigmine? *
inquires during the nursing
Intestinal obstruction
admission interview if the client Spinal cord injury
has a history of: * Ulcerative colitis
Blood dyscrasia
Seizures or trauma to the brain.
Meningitis during the last five (5
years).
Back injury or trauma to the spinal While reviewing a client’s chart,
cord.
Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection the nurse notices that the female
during the previous month. client has myasthenia gravis.
Which of the following statements
about neuromuscular blocking
A female client with Guillain-Barre agents is true for a client with this
syndrome has ascending paralysis condition? *
and is intubated and receiving
Pancuronium shouldn’t be used;
mechanical ventilation. Which of succinylcholine may be used in a lower
the following strategies would the dosage.
Succinylcholine shouldn’t be used;
nurse incorporate in the plan of pancuronium may be used in a lower
care to help the client cope with dosage.
The client may be less sensitive to the
this illness? * effects of a neuromuscular blocking
Providing information, giving positive agent.
feedback and encouraging relaxation. Pancuronium and succinylcholine both
Providing positive feedback and require cautious administration.
encouraging active range of motion.
Giving the client full control over care
decisions and restricting visitors.
Providing intravenously administered The nurse is assessing a 37-year-
sedatives, reducing distractions and old client diagnosed with multiple
limiting visitors.
sclerosis. Which of the following
symptoms would the nurse expect
to find? *
Flaccid muscles
Absent deep tendon reflexes
Tremors at rest
Vision changes
The nurse is teaching a female
client with multiple sclerosis. When
teaching the client how to reduce
fatigue, the nurse should tell the
client to: *
Take a hot bath.
Rest in an air-conditioned room.
Increase the dose of muscle relaxants.
Avoid naps during the day.
A female client with Guillain-Barré
syndrome has paralysis affecting
the respiratory muscles and
requires mechanical ventilation.
When the client asks the nurse
about the paralysis, how should
the nurse respond? *
“It must be hard to accept the
permanency of your paralysis.”
“You’ll have to accept the fact that
you’re permanently paralyzed.
However, you won’t have any sensory
loss.”
“You may have difficulty believing this,
but the paralysis caused by this
disease is temporary.”
“You’ll first regain use of your legs and
then your arms
The nurse is teaching the female
client with myasthenia gravis
about the prevention of
myasthenic and cholinergic crisis.
The nurse tells the client that this
is most effectively done by: *
Doing all chores early in the day while
less fatigued.
. Eating large, well-balanced meals.
Taking medications on time to maintain
therapeutic blood levels
Doing muscle-strengthening exercises.
A 23-year-old patient with a recent
history of encephalitis is admitted
to the medical unit with new onset
generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
Which nursing activities included
in the patient’s care will be best to
delegate to an LPN/LVN whom you
are supervising? *
Administer phenytoin (Dilantin) 200 mg
PO daily.
Document the onset time, nature of
seizure activity, and postictal behaviors
for all seizures.
Teach the patient about the need for
good oral hygiene.
Develop a discharge plan, including
physician visits and referral to the
Epilepsy Foundation
A female client with a suspected
brain tumor is scheduled for
computed tomography (CT). What
should the nurse do when
preparing the client for this test? *
Determine whether the client is allergic
to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish.
Administer a sedative as ordered.
Immobilize the neck before the client is
moved onto a stretcher.
Place a cap on the client’s head.
 Unknown, but possibly includes long-
term tissue malnutrition and cellular
hypoxia
Which of the following are Unknown, but possibly includes
considered as initial symptoms of ischemia, viral infection, or an
autoimmune problem
HSV-1 Encephalitis< Select all that
applies: * The nurse has given the male
seizure client with Bell’s palsy instructions
fever on preserving muscle tone in the
headache
confusion face and preventing denervation.
behavioral changes The nurse determines that the
client needs additional information
if the client states that he or she
will *
Quiz 19 NUR 149 Exposure to cold and drafts
Tic douloureux is characterized by Massage the face with a gentle upward
motion
paroxysms of pain and burning Perform facial exercises
sensations. It is a disorder of which Wrinkle the forehead, blow out the
cheeks, and whistle
cranial nerve? *
Third Which nursing diagnosis takes
Eighth highest priority for a client with
Fifth
Seventh Parkinson’s crisis? *
Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body
Which of the following drugs is requirements
used for trigeminal neuralgia? * Impaired urinary elimination
Ineffective airway clearance
Carbamazepine (Tegretol) Risk for injury
Riluzole (Rilutek)
Levodopa (Larodopa) When evaluating the extent of
Ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin
Parkinson’s disease, a nurse
A male client with Bell’s Palsy asks observes for which of the following
the nurse what has caused this conditions? *
problem. The nurse’s response is Increased dopamine levels
based on an understanding that Bulging eyeballs
Diminished distal sensations
the cause is: *
Muscle rigidity
Primary genetic in origin, triggered by
exposure to meningitis A female client with amyotrophic
Primarily genetic in origin, triggered by lateral sclerosis (ALS) tells the
exposure to neurotoxins
nurse, “Sometimes I feel so
 Hyperextension of the neck
frustrated. I can’t do anything
A recent increase in appetite and
without help!” This comment best weight gain
supports which nursing
While assessing a client with
diagnosis? *
Parkinson's disease, the nurse
Powerlessness
identifies bradykinesia when the
Anxiety
Ineffective denial client exhibits: *
Risk for disuse syndrome
A lack of spontaneous movement
An intention tremor
Which of the following clinical
Paralysis of the limbs
manifestations suggest ALS? * Muscle flaccidity
Fatigue, progressive muscle weakness,
Physiologically, what happens to
cramps, fasciculations (twitching), and
incoordination the brain as Alzheimer's disease
Tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia
progresses? *
(abnormally slow movements), and
postural instability Many cells die
Involuntary contraction of the facial Brain stem atrophies
muscles causing sudden closing of the Tissue swells
eye or twitching of the mouth Fluid collects
Paralysis of the facial muscles,
increased lacrimation (tearing), and The average time from the onset
painful sensations in the face, behind
the ear, and in the eye of symptoms to death for
Alzheimer's disease is how long? *
The nurse identifies that a client
2 years
exhibits the characteristic gait 20 years
associated with Parkinson's 4 years
8 years
disease, When recording on the
client's chart, the nurse should If you care for a relative with
describe this gait as: * Alzheimer's disease, which of
Spastic these measures will help stabilize
Ataxic the patient mentally? *
Shuffling
Scissoring Establish a regular routine
Move to a small apartment
While performing for the history Repaint or buy new furniture.
Correct "bad" behavior gently.
and physical examination of a
client with Parkinson's disease, the Which of the these is the strongest
nurse should assess the client risk factor for developing the
for: * Alzheimer's disease? *
Frequent bouts of diarrhea Heredity
A low-pitched, monotonous voice Age
Exposure to toxins
None of the above
QUIZ 20 NUR 149
. The nurse is developing a
teaching plan for the client with
glaucoma. Which of the following
instructions would the nurse
include in the plan of care? *
Decrease the amount of salt in the diet
Avoid overuse of the eyes
Decrease fluid intake to control the
intraocular pressure
Eye medications will need to be
administered lifelong.
The most common manifestation
in dry eye syndrome is: *
Scratchy or foreign body sensation
Burning sensation
Difficulty moving the lids
Excessive mucus secretions
The client is being discharged from
the ambulatory care unit following
cataract removal. The nurse
provides instructions regarding
home care. Which of the following,
if stated by the client, indicates an
understanding of the
instructions? *
“I will sleep on the side that I was
operated on.”
“I will not lift anything if it weighs more
that 10 pounds.”
“I will take Aspirin if I have any
discomfort.”
“I will wear my eye shield at night and
my glasses during the day.”
A client who has had a retinal
detachment has a scleral buckling
procedure to attempt to reattach
the retina. Before the client is
discharged home, the nurse
should: *
Reassure the client that the glasses
worn before surgery can still be worn.
Instruct the client to wear dark glasses
after the patch is removed.
Tell the client that usual activities can
be resumed within two weeks.
Explain to the client that reading will
help strengthen the eye muscles.
A client asks for an explanation
about Glaucoma. the nurse
explains that with glaucoma there
is: *
A curvature of the cornea that becomes
unequal.
An increase in the pressure within the
eyeball.
A separation of the neural retina from
the pigmented retina.
An opacity of the crystalline lens or its
capsule.
When obtaining the health history
from a male client with retinal
detachment, the nurse expects the
client to report: *
Headaches, nausea, and redness of the
eyes.
Frequent episodes of double vision
Light flashes and floaters in front of the
eye.
A recent driving accident while
changing lanes.
After an automobile accident, a
client complains of seeing frequent
flashes of light. The nurse should
suspect: *
Acute glaucoma
Conjunctivitis
A detached retina
Cataract
After cataract surgery, a client is
taught how to self-administer
eyedrops before discharge. The
nurse approves the technique
when the client: *
Holds the dropper tip above the eye.
Places the drops on the cornea of the
eye.
Squeezes the eye shut after instilling
the eyedrops.
Raises the upper eyelid with gentle
traction.
When obtaining the nursing history
from a client who has open-angle
(chronic) glaucoma, a complaint
that the nurse should expect is: *
Flashes of light
Seeing floating specks
Intolerance to light
Loss of peripheral vision
The client with glaucoma asks the
nurse is complete vision will
return. The most appropriate
response is: *
“Although some vision as been lost and
cannot be restored, further loss may be
prevented by adhering to the treatment
plan.
“Your vision will return as soon as the
medications begin to work.”
“Your vision loss is temporary and will
return in about 3-4 weeks.”
“Your vision will never return to
normal.”
After pneumatic retinopexy, the
patient must be placed in: *
Recumbent position
Side-lying position
Trendelenburg position
Prone position
The clinic nurse is preparing to test
the visual acuity of a client using a
Snellen chart. Which of the
following identifies the accurate
procedure for this visual acuity
test? *
Both eyes are assessed together,
followed by the assessment of the right
and then the left eye.
The right eye is tested followed by the
left eye, and then both eyes are tested.
The client is asked to stand at a
distance of 40ft from the chart and to
read the line than can be read 200 ft
away by an individual with unimpaired
vision.
The client is asked to stand at a
distance of 40ft. from the chart and is
asked to read the largest line on the
chart.
The nurse is performing an
assessment in a client with a
suspected diagnosis of cataract.
The chief clinical manifestation
that the nurse would expect to
note in the early stages of cataract
formation is *
Diplopia
Floating spots
Eye pain
Blurred vision
A male client has just had a
cataract operation without a lens
implant. In discharge teaching, the
 Close a perforation
nurse will instruct the client’s wife
Accomplish all of the above
to: * Reestablish middle ear function
Feed him soft foods for several days to
prevent facial movement
Have her husband remain in bed for 3
days A myringotomy, the most common
Allow him to walk upstairs only with procedure for acute otitis media, is
assistance.
Keep the eye dressing on for one week performed primarily to: *
Drain purulent fluid
Acute bacterial conjunctivitis is Identify the infecting organism
characterized by: * Relieve tympanic membrane pressure
Accomplish all of the above
Severe pain
Painless blurry vision
Elevated intraocular pressure
A mucopurulent ocular discharge The nurse is performing a voice
test to assess hearing. Which of
the following describes the
Quiz 21 NUR 149 accurate procedure for performing
The most common fungus this test? *
associated with external ear Whisper a statement with the
examiners back facing the client
infection is: * Whisper a statement while the client
Pseudomonas blocks both ears
Staphylococcus albus Stand 4 feet away from the client to
Staphylococcus aureus ensure that the client can hear at this
Aspergillus distance.
Whisper a statement and ask the client
to repeat it.

A nurse would question an order to

irrigate the ear canal in which of During a hearing assessment, the
the following circumstances? * nurse notes that the sound
Hearing loss lateralizes to the clients left ear
Otitis externa
Ear pain
with the Weber test. The nurse
Perforated tympanic membrane analyzes this result as: *
The presence of nystagmus
A sensorineural or conductive loss
A conductive hearing loss in the right
Tympanoplasty is surgically ear
performed to: * A normal finding
Prevent recurrent infection
 “Shampoo your hair every day for ten
The nurse has notes that the
(10) days to help prevent ear
physician has a diagnosis of infection.”
presbycusis on the client’s chart.
The nurse plans care knowing the
condition is: * Postoperative nursing assessment
Nystagmus that occurs with aging for a patient who has had a
A conductive hearing loss that occurs mastoidectomy should include
with aging.
Tinnitus that occurs with aging observing for: *
A sensorineural hearing loss that Facial paralysis
occurs with aging Olfactory paralysis
Optic paralysis
Oculomotor paralysis

The nurse is caring for a client that

is hearing impaired. Which of the
A client who is complaining of
following approaches will facilitate
tinnitus is describing a symptom
communication? *
that is *
Speak in a normal tone
Speak directly into the impaired ear Prodromal
Speak frequently Subjective
Speak loudly Functional
Objective

A male client with a conductive

A client is diagnosed with a
hearing disorder caused by
disorder involving the inner ear.
ankylosis of the stapes in the oval
Which of the following is the most
window undergoes a
common client complaint
stapedectomy to remove the
associated with a disorder in this
stapes and replace the impaired
part of the ear? *
bone with a prosthesis. After the
stapedectomy, the nurse should Hearing loss
Pruritus
provide which client instruction? * Burning of the ear
Tinnitus
“Try to ambulate independently after
about 24 hours.”
“Don’t fly in an airplane, climb to high
altitudes, make sudden movements, or
expose yourself to loud sounds for 30 Canalith repositioning is performed
days. to patients with benign paroxysmal
“Lie in bed with your head elevated,
and refrain from blowing your nose for positional vertigo to: *
24 hours.”
Treat vertigo
Relieve nausea and vomiting
Suppress vestibular function
Enhance disequilibrium
The nurse is reviewing the
physician’s orders for a client with
Meniere’s disease. Which diet will
most likely be prescribed? *
Low-carbohydrate diet
. Low-cholesterol diet
Low-fat diet
Low-sodium diet
A client with Meniere’s disease is
experiencing severe vertigo. Which
instruction would the nurse give to
the client to assist in controlling
the vertigo? *
Lie still and watch the television
Avoid sudden head movements
Increase fluid intake to 3000 ml a day
Increase sodium in the diet
Which of the following medications
relieves motion sickness
symptoms? *
Antihistamines
Corticosteroids
Antibiotics
Diuretics
The nurse has conducted
discharge teaching for a client who
had a fenestration procedure for
the treatment of otosclerosis.
Which of the following, if stated by
the client, would indicate that
teaching was effective? *
“I can resume my tennis lessons
starting next week.”
“I will take stool softeners as
prescribed by my doctor.”
. “I should drink liquids through a straw
for the next 2-3 weeks.”
“It’s ok to take a shower and wash my
hair.”
During a hearing assessment, the
nurse notes that the sound
lateralizes to the clients left ear
with the Weber test. The nurse
analyzes this result as: *
The presence of nystagmus
A sensorineural or conductive loss
A conductive hearing loss in the right
ear
A normal finding
A female client is admitted to the
facility for investigation of balance
and coordination problems,
including possible Ménière’s
disease. When assessing this
client, the nurse expects to note: *
Vertigo, pain, and hearing impairment.
Vertigo, blurred vision, and fever.
Vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss.
Vertigo, vomiting, and nystagmus
An ear infection usually begins
with a cold? *
False
True
 The most common symptoms of
osteomalacia are: *
Muscle weakness and spasm
Quiz SAS 22 NUR Softened and compressed vertebrae
Bone fractures and kyphosis

149 Bone pain and tenderness

A 20-year-old client developed

osteomyelitis 2 weeks after a Which of the following dietary
fishhook was removed from his management is recommended to
foot. Which of the following patient with osteomalacia
rationales best explains the associated with diet? *
expected long-term antibiotic
Restrict calcium and vitamin D intake
therapy needed? * Increase calcium and vitamin D intake
Adequate calcium and low protein
Bone has poor circulation. intake
Fishhook injuries are highly Adequate protein and moderate
contaminated. vitamin intake
Tissue trauma requires antibiotics.
Feet are normally more difficult to
treat.
The nurse knows that a 60-year-
old female client’s susceptibility to
Which of the following diagnostic osteoporosis is most likely related
tests confirms Paget’s disease? * to: *
Bone biopsy Lack of exercise
Serum alkaline phosphate Hormonal disturbances
X-ray Genetic predisposition
Bone scan Lack of calcium

Which of the following medications Alendronate (Fosamax) is given to

used in Paget’s disease which a client with osteoporosis. The
facilitates remodeling of abnormal nurse advises the client to? *
bone? *
Take the medication during lunch.
Dexamethasone Take the medication 2 hours before
Atropine sulfate bedtime.
Calcitonin Take the medication in the morning
Plicamycin with meals.
Take the medication with a glass of
water after rising in the morning.
A client with gout is encouraged to A client with osteoarthritis has a
increase fluid intake. Which of the prescription for Celebrex
following statements best explains (celecoxib). Which instruction
why increased fluids are should be included in the
encouraged for gout? * discharge teaching? *
Fluids provide a cushion for weakened Report chest pain.
bones. Take the medication with milk.
Fluids increase calcium absorption. Remain upright after taking for 30
Fluids promote the excretion of uric minutes.
acid. Allow 6 weeks for optimal effects.
Fluids decrease inflammation.

A client who has an above-the-

knee amputation is to use crutches
until the prosthesis is properly
fitted. When teaching the client
about using the crutches, the
nurse instructs the client to
support her weight primarily on
which of the following body
areas? *
Elbows
Hands
Axillae
Upper arms
Nursing interventions to treat a
musculoskeletal injury may include
cold or heat therapy. Cold therapy
decreases pain by which of the
following actions? *
Causes local vasoconstriction and
prevents edema or muscle spasm
Promotes analgesia and circulation
Promotes circulation and reduces
muscle spasms
Numbs the nerves and dilates the
vessels
Pathophysiologic changes seen
with osteoarthritis include: *
. Joint cartilage degeneration.
The formation of bony spurs at the
edges of the joint surfaces.
Narrowing of the joint space.
All of the choices are correct
A client has been prescribed a diet
that limits purine-rich foods. Which
of the following foods would the
nurse teach him to avoid eating: *
Milk, ice cream, and yogurt
Anchovies, sardines, kidneys,
sweetbreads, and lentils
Bananas and dried fruits
Wine, cheese, preserved fruits, meats,
and vegetables
Osteomyelitis most commonly
results from which of the following
mechanisms? *
Trauma
Surgery
IV drug use
.Immune suppression
Management for a patient with
sprain includes RICE? Which of the
following is the correct meaning of
RICE? *
Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation
Rinse, Immobilize, Cast, and Elevation
Rise, Ice, Compression, and Elevation
Rest, Immobilize, Compression, and
Elevation
Mr. Miller has been diagnosed with
bone cancer. You know this type of
cancer is classified as *
carcinoma.
lymphoma.
sarcoma.
melanoma.
For a client diagnosed with Ewing’s
sarcoma, which test is most useful
in determining the extent of
metastasis? *
Computerized tomography (CT) scan
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Bone scan
Positron emission tomography (PET
The physician suggests a certain
procedure to confirm if the patient
has a certain of arthritis that has
the same signs and symptoms to
the patient. What findings of the
diagnostic procedure that confirms
that the patient has a certain kind
of arthritis: *
elevation of the erythrocytes
sedimentation rate
elevation of the cholesterol level
elevation liver enzymes
elevation of white blood cells.
The nurse is correct if he/she
anticipates that the medication will
be given to the patient for
inflammation of the joint cavity
aside from pain medication is: *
Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Analgesics
Anti-depressant
Imunno-Suppressant
An elderly patient who complaint
of joint pain and also has a
presence of a bony growth in the
distal interphalangeal ends of the
finger. Based on the situation of
the patient, you are correct that
the patient is experiencing of what
kind of disease condition: *
osteoporosis is possible that the
patient has.
the patient is possible of having
rheumatoid disease.
osteoarthritis is the closest condition
that the possibility that the patient
experience.
the patient is probable of experiencing
gout arthritis
 8 to 10 lb
5 to 7 / 10 lb
1 to 2 lb
Quiz SAS 23 MS2 1 to 5 lb

A client is admitted to the

emergency department with a foot
A client is put in traction before
fracture. Which of the following
surgery. Which of the following
reasons explains why the foot is
reasons for the traction is
placed in a brace? *
correct? *
To allow for movement
To act as a splint Helps the client become active
To encourage direct contact Aids in turning the client
To prevent infection Prevents skin breakdown
Prevents trauma and overcomes
muscle spasms

A client describes a foul odor from

his cast. Which of the following
responses or interventions would
be the most appropriate? *
Teach him proper cast care, including
hygiene measures.
Assess further because this may be a
sign of neurovascular compromise.
Assess further because this may be a
sign of infection.
This is normal, especially when a cast
is in place for a few weeks.
Which of the following nursing
interventions is appropriate for a
client in traction? *
Add and remove weights as the client
wants.
Give range of motion to all joints,
including those immediately proximal
and distal to the fracture, every shift.
Assess the pin sites every shift and as
needed.
Make sure the knots in the rope catch
on the pulley.

To reduce the roughness of a cast,

which of the following measures After a hip replacement, which of
should be used? * the following activity level is
Elevate the limb. usually ordered? *
Break off the rough area. No weight bearing
Petal the edges. Bed rest
Distribute pressure evenly. No restrictions
Limited weight bearing

Which of the following weight is

commonly applied to an extremity Which of the following discharge
for Buck’s traction in and adult? * instructions should be given to a
client after surgery for repair of a
hip fracture? *
“Don’t flex the hip more than 30
degrees, don’t cross your legs, get help
putting on your shoes.”
“Don’t flex the hip more than 120
degrees, don’t cross your legs, get help
putting on your shoes.”
“Don’t flex the hip more than 90
degrees, don’t cross your legs, get help
putting on your shoes.”
“Don’t flex the hip more than 60
degrees, don’t cross your legs, get help
putting on your shoes.”
Which of the following symptoms
are considered signs of a
fracture? *
Tingling, coolness, loss of pulses
Coolness, redness, new site of pain
Loss of sensation, redness, coolness
Redness, warmth, pain at the site of
injury
Which of the following serious
complications can occur with long
bone fractures? *
Fat emboli
Serous emboli
Bone emboli
Platelet emboli
In the orthopedic ward, the elderly
patient fell down. The staff nurses
assist the patient as fast as they
can and the resident on duty
prescribed to let the patient
undergo into the magnetic
resonance imaging. The result of
the diagnostic procedure reveals
that the patient has a bone
fracture already. Which of the
following best describes about
fracture: *
it has something to do with break of
the continuity of the bone.
it involves the excessive accumulation
of the urate crystals.
it has something to do with systemic
viral infection.
it happens mainly of lack of vitamin D.
The fracture of the patient is
classified into general fracture.
Which of the following fracture
belongs to the general
classification of the fracture: *
simple bone fracture
complicate bone fracture
complete bone fracture
all of the choices
A bone fracture that has a
splintering on one side of the
bone: *
greenstick bone fracture
spiral bone fracture
cyclical bone fracture
impacted bone fracture
The elderly patient will have a
traction on the neck portion. Which
of the traction that is applicable on
the neck portion: *
cervical neck traction.
balanced suspension skin traction
russel skin traction
pelvic skin traction
Another traction that will apply to
the elderly patient is buck skin
traction. Which of the following
choices below that best describes
about bucks skin traction: *
it pulls down the pelvic, hips and even
the lower extremities of the patient.
it pulls down the lower extremities in
an angle of 45 degrees using the
weight
it pulls down the neck portion of the
patient.
it pulls down the lower extremities with
in a straight motion using the weight.
After the application of the skin
traction to the patient, the patient
will still undergo closed reduction
into other side of the arm of the
elderly patient it is because of the
dislocation of the joint. All of the
following choices are not the best
descriptions about closed
reduction except one: *
it is done by putting a cast into the
affected fractured bone.
it is done by putting plates and pins
into the affected fractured bone.
it is done a manual surgical
intervention by the surgeon that
doesn’t need to open the affected part
by the surgeon.
it is done by opening the affected part
of the bone and surgical procedure will
be performed by the surgeon.
The patient is transferred in to the
orthopedic ward, right after the
different treatment, but there is a
fracture that is not detected by the
resident on duty. The resident on
duty talks to the elderly patient to
undergo another procedure which
is the application of cast into the
affected fractured bone. The
patient’s cast is still wet for more
than a certain duration. The nurse
is correct if his/her intervention
towards the patient is: *
let the cast of the patient remain wet
until it dries.
use an hairdryer and set it into a mild
temperature to expose the affected
arm with cast to the patient.
use an air conditioner to let the
patient’s arm with cast dry as fast as it
is
let the patient’s affected arm with cast
expose into the electric fan until it
dries.
What will be the best rationale in
setting the hair-dryer into mild
temperature in drying the wetness
inside the cast of the patient: *
it prevent the situation of skin itchiness
it prevent skin dryness.
it prevent skin burns
all of the choices.
The staff nurse should be aware of
the signs and symptoms of
continuous pain on where the cast
is applied it is because of the
possible condition which is *
apartment syndrome
compartment syndrome
compartment sign and symptoms
dumping syndrome

A kind of a bone fracture that exist

into the distal ends of the fibula: *
dupuytren’s fracture
colles fracture
dpott’s fracture
oblique bone fracture