Chapter-1: Measurement/Unit

1. The unit of work is = Joule

2. The SI unit of electrical resistance of conductor is = Ohm-metre

3. The unit of power is = Watt

4. The unit of the force is = Newton

5. Light year is the unit of = Distance

6. What is the unit of measure of the thickness of the ozone layer of the atmosphere? = Dobson

7. ‘Light Year’ is = The distance travelled by light in one year

8. A parsec, (distance unit) used to measure distance related to the stars in the sky, equals to = 3.25 light years

9. PARSEC is the unit of = Distance

10. Which unit of measurement is multiplied by 0.39 to convert it to ‘inches’? = Centimetre

11. How can the height of a person who is six feet tall, be expressed (approximately) in nanometre? = 183 ×
107 nm

12. A nanometre is equal to = 10–7 cm

13. Ampere is the unit of = Electric current

14. Megawatt is the measuring unit of power which is = Generated

15. What is the SI unit of Pressure = Dyne

17. How many watts are there in a horsepower? = 746

18. ‘Joule’ is related to energy in the same way as ‘Pascal’ is related to = Pressure

19. One micron is equal to = 1/1000 mm

20. One micron represents a length of = 10–4 cm

21. What is the unit of heat? = Celsius

24. One Picogram is equal to = 10–12 gram

25. Pascal is a unit of measuring = Pressure

26. What is the unit of atmospheric pressure? = Bar

27. 1 Kg/cm2 pressure is equivalent to = 1.0 bar

28. 1 barrel of oil is equals to which of the following? = 159 litres

29. The smallest unit of length is = Fermi metre

30. One Nanometre is equal to = 10–9 m

31. What is measured in Cusec? = Flow of water

32. ‘Dobson’ unit is used for the measurement of = Thickness of Ozone layer
 Chapter-2: Measuring devices & Scales
1. In SONAR, we use = Ultrasonic waves

2. The apparatus used to measure intensity of sound is = Audiometer

3. Which one of the following instruments is used for locating submerged objects in an ocean? = SONAR

4. SONAR is mostly used by = Navigators

5. Which of the following is measured by ‘Anemometer’? = Force of the wind

6. The velocity of wind is measured by = Anemometer

7. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? = Tacheometer – Pressure difference

8. Pyrometer is used to measure = High temperature

9. Which one of the following devices is used to measure extremely high temperature? = Pyrometer

10. Which one of the following thermometers is known as pyrometer? = Radiation thermometers

11. The thermometer which used to measure 2000ºC temperature is = Total radiation pyrometer

12. ‘Pyrheliometer’ is used for measuring = Solar radiation

13. What is measured by manometer? = Pressure of gas

14. For what an Ondometer is used? = Measuring instrument for frequency of electromagnetic waves

15. Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure? = Barometer

16. The liquid/liquids used in the simple barometer is/are = Mercury

17. The density of milk can be obtained by the use of = Lactometer

18. Which instrument is used for measuring humidity in the air? = Hygrometer

19. Hygrometer is used to measure = Humidity in atmosphere

21. The name of the equipment used for measuring blood pressure is = Sphygmomanometer

22. Which one of the following can be used to measure temperature above 1500ºC? = Pyrometer

23. The apparatus used to measure the intensity of light is known as = Luxmeter

24. Radar is used for = Determining the presence and location of objects with radio wave

25. Which of the following quantities is measured on the Richter scale? = Intensity of an Earthquake

26. Richter scale is used for measuring = Amplitude of seismic waves

27. The intensity of earthquake is measured in = Richter scale

28. For what the RH factor is used? = To detect the blood compatibility

29. Which of the following is a seismometer device? = Seismograph

30. Which one of the following devices is used to measure the intensity of earthquake? = Seismograph

31. What does a ‘seismograph’ record? = Earthquake

32. Fathometer is used to measure = Depth of sea

33. What does a ‘Cardiograph’ record? = Heart movement

34. Phonometer is used to measure what? = Testing the force of the human voice in speaking

35. The apparatus used for detecting lie is known as = Polygraph

Chapter-3: Mechanics (Mass, Force, Acceleration,

Work, Energy, Momentum, Velocity)
1. The working principle of a washing machine is = Centrifugation

2. ‘Volume’ is s scalar or vector quantity? = Scalar

3. A simple machine helps a person in doing = The same amount of work with lesser force

4. A man is standing on a sensitive balance. If he inhales deeply, the reading of the balance = Increases

5. ‘Displacement’ is s scalar or vector quantity? = Vector

6. ‘Momentum’ is s scalar or vector quantity? = Vector

7. Which physical quantity is represented by the ratio of momentum and velocity of the body? = Mass

8. Force is the product of = Mass and acceleration

9. If the number representing volume and surface area of a cube are equal, then the length of the edge of the
cube in terms of the unit of measurement will be = 6

10. Energy conservation means = Energy can neither be created nor destroyed

11. The energy of wind is = Only kinetic

12. In wind power, which form of energy is converted into electrical energy? = Kinetic energy

13. As the train starts moving, the head of the passenger sitting inside leans backward because of = Inertia of
Rest

14. It is difficult to walk on the ice than on the road because = Ice has a lesser friction than the road

15. A man jumped at a speed of 5 metre per second from a stationary boat and the boat moved off with the
speed of 0.5 metre per second. How many times is the mass of the boat greater than that of the man? = 10
times

16. A truck, a car and a motorcycle have equal kinetic energies. If equal, stopping forces are applied and they
stop after travelling a distance of X, Y and Z respectively, then → X = Y = Z

17. A person is sitting in a car which is at rest. The reaction from the road at each of the four wheels of the car
is R. When the car runs on a straight level road, how will the reaction at either of the front wheels vary? = It
will be less than R

18. An oil tanker is partially filled with oil and moves forward on a level road with uniform acceleration. The
free surface of oil, then = assumes parabolic curve

19. What is the correct equation for finding the acceleration? = a = v u

 Chapter-4: Motion under Gravity
1. Who propounded the universal law of gravitation? = Newton

2. Astronauts in space cannot stand erect. This is because, in space = There is no gravity

3. Who among the following anticipated Newton by declaring that all things gravitate to the Earth? =
Brahmagupta

4. Who gave the theory of gravity? = Isaac Newton

5. If an apple is released from an orbiting spaceship, it will = Move along with the spaceship at the same speed

6. The Leaning Tower of Pisa does not fall because = The vertical line through the centre of gravity of the tower
falls within its base

7. If the distance between the Earth and the Sun were twice what it is now, the gravitational force exerted on
the Earth by the Sun would be = One-fourth of what it is now

8. If an object is falling from above, its weight remains = Same

9. If pieces of equal size of woods, wax and iron falling from a same height, which one will reach the surface of
the Earth first? = Reach at the same time

10. The two balls of iron and wood of same weight dropped from the same height, then = The wooden ball falls
later

11. Two balls A and B are of 10 kg and 1 kg, respectively. They are dropped simultaneously from a height of 20
m. Which of the following is correct? = Both A and B will reach the ground at the same time

12. The weight of human body is = Maximum at the poles

13. A ball is dropped from the top of a high building with a constant acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. What will be its
velocity after 3 s? = 29.4 m/s

14. If the radius of the Earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the value of ‘g’ on
the Earth’s surface would = Increase by 2%

15. The acceleration due to gravity of a destructive Earthquake will be = >980 cm/s2

16. The mass of a body on the Earth is 100 kg (acceleration due to gravity, ge = 10 m/s2). If acceleration due to
gravity on the Moon is (ge = 106 m/s2), then the mass of the body on the Moon is = 100 kg

17. Weightlessness is = Zero gravity

18. The Earth travels in its orbit at a speed of approx. 4,400 km per hour. Why do we not feel this high speed?
= Our relative speed with respect to the Earth along the Earth’s orbit is zero

19. If the gravitational force of the Earth suddenly disappears, which are of the following will be the correct
consequence? = The weight of an object will become zero but the mass will remain the same

20. An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of Earth
= Provides the necessary acceleration for its motion

21. A Geosynchronous satellite continuously active in its orbit due to centrifugal force which is obtained by =
The gravitational force on the satellite by the Earth

22. Satellite is kept moving in its orbit around the Earth; it is due to = Centripetal force

23. The known forces, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force, and strong nuclear force. Order is =
Strong nuclear force > electromagnetism > weak nuclear force > gravity
24. If a person sitting in a lift, then when will he feel that his weight gets increased? = When the elevator going
upward expeditiously

25. A batsman hits a cricket ball which then rolls on a level ground. After covering a short distance, the ball
comes to rest. The ball slows to a stop because = There is a force on the ball opposing the motion

26. The period of a pendulum = Depends on its length

27. Why do pendulum checks usually lose time in summer? = The length of the pendulum increases, increasing
the period of unit oscillation

28. A girl is swinging on a swing in sitting position. When the girl stands up, the period of the swing will = Be
shorter

29. A pendulum clock can run faster in = Winter

30. Earth’s escape velocity is = 11.2 km/s

31. What will happen if an object is thrown into space with the speed of 8 km/s? = It will return to Earth

32. There is no atmosphere on the Moon because = The escape velocity of gas molecules on it is less than the
rms velocity here

Chapter-5: Physical properties of Materials

1. The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to = Surface tension

2. The most important property of nanomaterial is = Friction

3. Spherical form of raindrop is due to = Surface tension

4. The rain drops are spherical because = The water has surface tension

5. Oil spreads on water surface because = Surface tension of oil is less than water

6. Kerosene oil floats on water because = Its density is less than the density of water

7. Pressure inside a soap bubble is = More than atmospheric pressure

8. If two bubbles of soap of different diameter come in contact with a tube, then what will happen? = The
smaller bubble will become smaller and bigger will become bigger

9. The size of the Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (R.S.P.M.) in air is = less than 5mm (micron)

12. With the rise of temperature, the viscosity of liquid = Decreases

13. Kerosene rises in the wick of the stove is due to = Surface tension

14. In a capillary tube a fluid rises more as compared to water, it is due to = Surface tension of fluid is more
than that of water

15. When an air bubble at the bottom of lake rises to the top, it will = Increased in size

16. While travelling by plane, the ink of the pen starts to come out = Due to decrease in air pressure

17. In automobile hydraulic brakes work on = Pascal’s Law

18. A sudden fall in barometer reading indicates that the weather will be = Stormy weather

19. Which of the following is the byproduct derived from the refining process of petroleum? = Asphalt
20. The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. Why? = The
density of water is maximum at 4ºC

21. In cold weather, aquatic animals survive even when water at the top layer of the lake freezes into ice
because = Water has the highest density at 4ºC so underneath the top layer of ice there is a layer of water

22. Fish can survive in a frozen lake Because = Water near the bottom does not freeze

23. Increasing the amount of a substance does not change its = Density

24. If an unsaturated sugar solution is prepared by mixing 100 grams of sugar with half litre of water, which of
the following physical quantities will not change? = Volume

25. The density of water will reach its maximum value at the temperature of = 4ºC

28. Why does an iron nail float on mercury while it sinks in water? = Iron has greater density than water and
lesser than mercury

29. A needle sinks in water whereas a ship made of iron floats on it because = Specific gravity of the needle is
greater than that of water displaced by it

30. An iron needle floats on the surface of water due to = Surface tension

31. While lifting a bucket of water from a well, we feel that the bucket = Becomes heavier above the surface of
water

32. 200 gm of water is filled in a weightless balloon. Its weight in water will be = Zero

33. The separation of cream from milk by churning is due to = Centrifugal force

34. The clouds float in the atmosphere because of their low = Density

35. Which of the following elements was first produced artificially? = Technetium

36. While floating in a sea what part of an iceberg is above the surface of the sea? = 1/9

37. An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. What happens to the water level when the ice melts? It =
Remains the same

38. A body floats at 4ºC water. If temperature reaches 100ºC, then = The body will sink

39. Why it is easier to swim in the sea than in a river? = The sea water is salty

40. When a ship enters a sea from a river, what happens? = It rises a little

41. Static science is associated with = Situation of rest

43. Mobiles and Automobiles have brought about a revolution in the social life of Indians, especially in the
rural, in terms of = Mobility of the people, and Connectivity of the people

Chapter-6: Light
1. The wavelength extension of visible light is = Between 390-780 nm

2. Human eye is most sensitive to visible light of the wavelength = 5500 Å

4. The visible range of solar radiation is = 400-700 nm

5. The nature of radiation of light is = Like both of wave and particle

6. Light appears to travel in a straight line because = The wavelength of light is very small

7. Which wave has greater velocity? = Light

8. The speed of light in vacuum is nearly = 3 × 108 m/s

9. Velocity of light is maximum in = Vacuum

10. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through = Glass

11. The time taken to reach the Sunlight up to the surface of Earth is approximately = 8.5 minutes

12. When light waves pass from air to glass the variable affected are = Wavelength and velocity

13. When light passes from one medium to another medium, which one of the following does not change? =
Frequency

14. Which one of the following energy conversions takes place in carrying out the process of photosynthesis? =
Light to chemical energy

15. The gas used in discharge tubes for optical decoration and advertising is = Neon

16. The formation of glittering colours in thin foam of soap is the result of which of the following
phenomenon? = Total reflection and interference

17. Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from = Diamond to glass

18. A cut diamond shines brilliantly due to = Total internal reflection

19. Optical fibre works on the principle of = Total internal reflection

20. Which one of the following phenomena is used in optical fibres? = Total internal reflection

21. In fibre optics communication, the signal travels in the form of = Light wave

22. ‘Endoscope’ used by the doctors for examining the inside of patient’s stomach, works on the principle of =
Total internal reflection of light

24. The reason of mirage is = Total internal reflection of light

25. Mirage formation is an example of = Total internal reflection

26. The diamond appears lustrous because of = Total internal reflection

27. What is the reason behind the extraordinary shining of the diamond cuts in a proper way? = Because it has
a higher refractive index

28. A cut diamond shines brilliantly due to = Total internal reflection

29. The technique to integrate and mark the image of a three-dimensional object is = Holography

30. Which of the following is used to take 3-dimensional pictures? = Holography

31. The generating images on a screen by focusing an electronic beam on phosphorus coated screen is called =
Roster Scan

32. ‘Raman effect’ deals with the light rays passing through = All transparent medium

33. For reproducing sound, a CD (Compact Disc) audio player uses a = Laser beam

34. When a CD (Compact disc used in audio and video systems) is seen in Sunlight, rainbow-like colours is seen.
This can be explained based on the phenomenon of = Reflection and diffraction

35. Television signals can’t be received beyond a certain distance because = The surface of the Earth is curved
36. The technique used to transmit auto signals in television broadcasts is = Pulse Code Modulation

37. The image formed on Retina is = Smaller than object but inverted

38. Which type of image of an object is formed by eye lens of the retina? = Inverted and Real

39. The principal reason why it is better to have two eyes than one is that = It enhances distance and depth
perception in us

40. Direct viewing of Sun during total solar eclipse causes irreversible damage to eyes. The retinal burn is
caused by which one of the following components of the Sun rays? = Ultra-violet light

41. The colour of the star is an indication of its = Temperature

42. Diffusion of light in the atmosphere takes place due to = Dust particles

43. For the myopic eye, the defect is cured by = Concave lens

44. The colour of light is determined by its = Wavelength

45. Which one of the colours has the longest wavelength? = Red

46. In the visible spectrum, the colour having the shortest wavelength is = Violet

47. Which one among the following has the highest energy? = Blue light

48. The Sun is visible to us a few minutes before the actual sunrise because of = Refraction of light

49. The Sun and the Moon appear elliptical near the horizon because of = Refraction

50. Photosynthesis using the invisible part of the Sunlight is done by some = Bacteria

51. Red light is used in traffic signals because = It has the longest wavelength

52. The Sky appears blue due to = Blue colour is scattered most

53. Sky is blue because = Short waves are scattered more than long waves by atmosphere

54. Red light signal is used as a danger signal because = Red light is scattered least

55. Blue colour of the sky is due to = Scattering of light

56. The Sun appears red during Sunset because of = Scattering of light

57. The red colour of the Sun at Sunset and Sunrise is due to = Scattering of light

58. An astronaut sees the colour of the sky as = Black

59. When we see the sky from a plane in high altitude, then it seems = Black

60. Sea seems blue due to = Reflection of sky and scattering of light by the drops of water

61. The concept of expanding universe is based on = Doppler effect

62. Suppose a Rocketship is proceeding from the Earth at a speed of 2/10th the velocity of light. A light in the
Rocketship appears blue to the passengers on the ship. What colour would it appear to an observer on the
Earth? = Yellow

63. In driving a car which type of mirror would you like to use for observing traffic at your back? = Convex
mirror

64. For shaving, one uses = Concave mirror

65. To avoid Sunlight, which of the following colour combination for an umbrella is most appropriate? = Top
white and bottom black
66. The image formed by astronomical telescope is = Virtual and magnified

67. The number of images of an object placed between two parallel mirrors is = Infinite

68. When a mirror is rotated by an angle q, the reflected ray will rotate by = 2q

69. Light is made of seven colours. What is the method of separating the colours? = The colours can be
separated by a prism

70. The correct order of colours in a rainbow is = Blue, green, yellow

71. Which one of the following colours is seen in the middle of a Rainbow? = Green

72. The terminal colour bands of the rainbow are = Violet and Red

73. In which direction the rainbow is seen at 12 noon? = It cannot be seen

74. An air bubble in water will act like a = Concave lens

75. An air bubble inside water behaves as a = Divergent lens

76. The minimum height of a plane mirror to see the full-size image of a person is equal to = Half the height of
the person

77. The radius of curvature of the plane mirror is = Infinity

78. The minimum height of mirror required to see whole stand-up image of a man of height 1.50 metre shall
be = 0.75 metre

79. To remove the defect of long sightedness one uses = Convex lens

80. Which one of the following statements is not true for a person suffering from hypermetropia? = A concave
lens is used to correct this defect

81. Which of the following lens is used to minimize Myopia? = Concave lens

82. When a person enters into a dark room from the strong light area, he is not able to see clearly for some
time. Later he gradually begins to see things. This is because = Eyes become familiar with darkness in course of
time

83. Reading glasses are made from which type of lenses? = Convex

84. The focusing in the eye is done by = Change in the convexity of the lens

86. The mirror, which is used in searchlights, is = Concave mirror

87. The least distance (in cm) of distinct vision in = 25

88. For normal eyes what is the minimum distance for clear vision? = 25 cm

89. When beams of red, blue and green lights fall on the same spot, the colour of the light becomes = White

90. The change of focal length of an eye Lense is caused by action of the = Iris

91. If the lens power of glass is +2 dioptre, its focal length will be = 50 cm

92. Power of Sunglass is = 0 dioptre

93. The power of a lens is measured in = Dioptre

94. Which one of the following combinations of aperture and shutter speed of a camera will allow the
maximum exposure? = f-22, 1/60

95. Retina of the eye is comparable to which of the following parts of a traditional camera? = Film
96. In human eye, image of object forms at = Retina

97. The colour of an opaque object is due to the colour it = Reflects

98. Colour in a colour television is produced by a combination of three basic colours, they are = Red, green and
blue

99. The minimum distance of clear vision for a normal healthy eye of human being is supposed to be = 25 cm

100. Which is not a primary colour? = Black

101. Three colours are the primary colours. These are = Blue, Green and Red

102. The number of colours contained in the Sunlight is = 7

106. Due to which of these phenomena is mirage formed? = Terrestrial heating, and Refraction of light

Chapter-7: Thermodynamics
1. The heat required in calories to convert one gram of ice at 0ºC to steam at 100ºC is approximately = 720

2. At what temperature are the reading of a Centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometer the same? = – 40º

3. Steam at 100ºC causes more severe burns than the water at the same temperature, because = Steam
provides more heat

4. The hand burns more by steam comparatively to boiling water, because = The steam has latent heat

5. At what point the Fahrenheit temperature is double of Centigrade temperature? = 160ºC

6. The body temperature of a healthy man is = 37º Celsius

7. The normal temperature of human body on the Kelvin scale is = 310

8. The normal temperature of human body is 98.4ºF. It’s equivalent temperature (in ºC) is = 36.89

9. Let the average temperatures in Centigrade (C) and Fahrenheit (F) be C and F. The relation between C and F
is given by → C = (5/9)(F-32)

10. In cold countries, alcohol is preferred to mercury as a thermometric liquid because = Alcohol has a lower
freezing point

11. Which one of the following is used as an antifreeze for the automobile engines? = Ethylene glycol

12. What is absolute zero temperature? = Theoretically the lowest possible temperature

13. Expansion during heating = Decreases the density of the material

14. Transfer of heat by convection can take place in = Gases and liquids

15. When ice melts, then = Volume decreases

16. What is the use of thermostat? = To maintain the temperature

17. Thermostat is related to = Temperature

18. Thermostat is a device which = Automatically regulates the temperature of a system

19. Thermostat ...... is a mean of Keeping Stable = Temperature

20. What is the function of the thermostat of a refrigerator? = To maintain constant temperature
21. The safest temperature for keeping food fresh in a refrigerator is = 4ºC

22. When soggy biscuits are kept inside the fridge for some time, they become crisp because = Humidity inside
the fridge is low and extra moisture is absorbed

23. When a glass rod is placed in steam, its length increases but its width = Increases

26. In winter you touch a log of wood and a rod of iron, you will feed rod of iron is colder because = In
comparison to wood, iron is good conductor of heat

27. If the temperature of air increases, how would it affect its ability to assume water vapour? = Increase

28. In the night wind blows fast, dew is not formed because = Rate of evaporation is fast

29. Air-conditioner and Air-cooler both maintains? = Humidity

30. What does an air conditioner installed in a room control? = Humidity and temperature only

31. The cooling by a desert cooler is based on = Evaporative cooling

32. Cooling is done by = Release of compressed gas

33. In which of the following conditions wet clothes will dry earliest? = 20% RH, 60ºC temperature

34. Which one of the following changes occurs when salt is added into the water? = Boiling point is increased
and freezing point is decreased

35. On adding common salt to water, the boiling point and freezing point of water will = Increase and decrease
respectively

36. To keep drinks at the same temperature for quite some time, the walls of thermos bottle are coated with =
Silver Layer

37. It is more comfortable to wear white cloth in summer because = They reflect all the heat falling on them

38. The most important function of perspiration is to = Regulate body temperature

39. Lightning can even burn a tree because it contains tremendous amount of = Electric energy

40. A fan produces feeling of comfort during hot weather, because = our perspiration evaporates rapidly

41. In an Earthen pitcher, the water remains cold due to the process of = Evaporation

43. In the season of summer, we experience a humid heat when weather = Humid weather

44. Xeric condition refers to = low humidity

45. The atmosphere exerts enormous pressure on us. But we do not feel it because = Our blood exerts a
pressure slightly more than that of the atmosphere

46. Food gets cooked faster in a pressure cooker because = Water starts boiling at a higher temperature due to
high pressure

47. Pressure cooker cooks food in lesser time because = Temperature of boiling water increases due to high
pressure

48. Maximum temperature inside pressure cooker depends on = Area of hole on the top and weight kept on it

49. When water is heated from 0ºC to 10ºC. It’s volume = First decreases and then increases

50. What changes will the volume of water show if the temperature is lowered from 9ºC to 3ºC? = The volume
will first decrease and then increase
51. When a bottle is filled with water and it is freezing the bottle breaks down, because = Water expands upon
freezing

52. A glass bottle containing water tightly corked breaks when it is kept in freeze, because = The volume of
water increases on freezing

53. When a piece of ice floating in a glass of water melts, the level of water will = Remain same

54. Cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds = Reflect back the heat given
off by Earth

55. The cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights because = The clouds prevent radiation of heat from the
ground and the air

56. Fruit stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because = Rate of respiration is decreased

57. A hydrogen inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the Earth. As the balloon rises to an
altitude up in the atmosphere, it will = Increase in size

59. Opening the door of refrigerator kept in the room = You are warm the room a little

60. If a gas is compressed to half of its original volume at 27ºC, to what temperature should it be heated to
make it occupy its original, volume? = 327ºC

Chapter-8: Wave motion

1. Which of the following atmospheric layers is responsible for the deflection of radio waves? = Ionosphere

2. Which waves cannot be transmitted through vacuum? = Sound

3. Long radio waves are reflected by which of the following layer of Earth’s surface? = Ionosphere

4. Wireless communication is reflected to the Earth’s surface by the = Ionosphere

5. Cosmic rays = are charged particles

6. Which one of the following statements is not true about cosmic rays? = They are electromagnetic waves

7. What is the distance between two successive crests or successive troughs called? = Wavelength

8. Which one of the following is used for determining the structure of crystal? = X-rays

9. Which of the following is a mechanical wave? = Sound waves

10. A radar which detects the presence of an enemy aircraft uses = Radio waves

11. When there is depletion of ozone in the stratosphere, the wavelength of radiation striking the Earth’s
surface will be = 10–7 m

12. Which one of the following types of waves are used in a Night Vision apparatus? = Infra-red waves

13. Waves used for telecommunication are = Microwave

14. FM broadcasting service uses the range of frequency bands between = 88-108 MHz

15. Following rays are used in the diagnosis of intestinal diseases = X-rays

16. CT scan is done by using = X-Rays

 Chapter-9: Sound
1. In which medium the speed of sound is maximum at a temperature of around 20ºC? = Iron

2. Sound waves = can travel both in solid and gaseous medium

3. The velocity of sound is maximum in = Metal

4. If Va, Vw and Vs respectively are the speed of sound in air, water and steel, then = Va < Vw < Vs

5. Sound waves travel fastest in = Solids

6. In which of the following option sound may not be across travel? = Vacuum

7. Sound waves do not travel in = Vacuum

8. The walls of the ball, built for music concerts should = Absorb sound

9. To hear a clear echo, the minimum distance between the reflecting surface and the observer should be =
16.5 metre

10. How much should minimum distance be between the source of sound and reflecting surface, so that an
echo can be heard clearly? = 17 metres

11. The velocity of sound in air is Approximately = 330 m/s

12. Two astronauts cannot hear each other on the Moon’s surface, because = No atmosphere on the Moon

13. An astronaut cannot hear his companion at the surface of the Moon because = There is no medium for
sound propagation

14. What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project? = To detect
gravitational waves

15. Ultrasonics are sound waves of frequency = Greater than 20,000 Hz

16. A biotechnique in which ultrasonic sound is used = Sonography

17. Bats can fly during dark nights and prey. This is because = They produce ultrasonic waves and are guided by
them

18. Which one of the following is the effect of the flight of supersonic jet? = Depletion in ozone layer

19. Decibel is used to measure = Sound in atmosphere

20. Decibel unit is used to measure = Sound intensity

21. What is the decibel level of sound produced by two persons in conversation? = About 30 decibel

22. A noise level of 100 decibel would correspond to = Noise from a machine shop

23. As per the WHO, the safe noise level for a city is = 45 dB

24. The tolerable limit of noise for human being is around = 85 decibel

25. Sound above what level (in decibel) is considered hazardous noise pollution? = 80 dB

26. The optimum sound level for human beings is = 60 dB

27. A worker was working on the rail track. A boy at a distance holds his ear near the rail track. This boy was
able to hear sound of the blow of workman twice. It is because of = The speed of sound is greater in steel than
in air
28. When the same note is played on a sitar and a flute, the sound produced can be distinguished from each
other because of the difference in = quality only

29. Which of the following has the longest wavelength? = Radio waves

30. Which one of the following does a TV remote control unit use to operate a TV set? = Radio waves

31. Which type of electromagnetic radiation is used in the remote control of a television? = Infra-red

32. The Doppler’s effect is applicable for = Light waves, and Sound waves

33. When T.V. is switched on = Audio and video both start simultaneously

34. In television broadcast, the picture signals are transmitted by = Amplitude modulation

35. The technique used to transmit audio signals in television broadcast is = Frequency modulation

36. A radio station broadcast at 30 metre band. The frequency of the carrier wave transmitted by this station is
= 10 MHz

37. The order of speed of sound in different mediums are = Solid > Liquid > Gas

38. Sound travels in rocks in the form of = longitudinal elastic waves only

39. Ultrasonic waves can = Destroy insects; Clean clothes by removing dust; treat diseases; Control automatic
doors.

Chapter-10: Electric current

1. Five bulbs each of 100-watt capacity in a tunnel are illuminated continuously for twenty hours. The
consumption of electricity will be = 10 units

2. The value of 1 kilowatt hour is = 3.6 × 106 J

3. A 100-watt electric bulb is used for 10 hours. What will be the cost of electricity consumed, if the
consumption cost is $5 per unit? = $5

4. If a bulb of 100 watt burns for 10 hours, the expenditure of electricity will be = 1 unit

5. An electric bulb of 100 watt is used for 4 hours. The unit of electric energy used is = 0.4

6. How many units of electricity will be consumed if you use a 60-watt electric bulb for 5 hours every day for 30
days? = 9

7. An electric bulb is connected to 220 V generator. The current is 0.5A. The power of the bulb is = 110 W

8. Of the two bulbs in a house, one glows brighter than the other. In this context = The dim bulb has larger
resistance

9. A dynamo which is said to generate electricity actually acts as a = Converter of energy

10. Dynamo is a machine which is used for = Conversion of mechanical energy to electrical energy

11. Turbines and Dynamos are used to convert which energy to electrical energy? = Mechanical energy

12. When electrical energy is converted into motion = There is no heat loss

13. A device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is = Electric motor

14. A device which converts chemical energy into electrical energy is called = Battery
15. Electric motors operating at low voltages tend to burn out because = They draw more current which is
inversely proportional to the voltage

16. Which of the following metals is used as filament in lighting bulbs? = Tungsten

17. The temperature of the filament of lighted electric bulb is generally = 2000ºC to 2500ºC

18. In a three-pin electrical plug longest pin should be connected to = Ground terminal

19. In electric apparatus ‘Earth’ is used = For safety

20. The electric current does not flow between two properly connected charged bodies if they are having =
Same potential

21. Which element is the best conductor of electricity? = Silver

22. A fuse is used in main electric supply as a safety device. Which one of the following statements about the
fuse is correct? = It must have a low melting point

23. Principle of fuse is = Heating effect of electricity = Heating effect of electricity

24. A fuse wire is characterized by = High resistance and low melting point

25. Fuse wire used for safety of household have = Low melting point, and High resistance

26. The filament of a halogen lamp is an alloy of = Tungsten and sodium

27. Domestic electrical wiring is basically a = Parallel connection

28. A wire with black insulation during electric supply is = Neutral wire

29. What is the order of magnitude of electric resistance of the human body (dry)? = 106 Ω

30. Which gas is filled in normal tube lights? = Mercury vapour with argon

31. Full form of C.F.L. is = Compact Fluorescent Lamp

32. What gases are filled in fluorescent tube? = Mercury and neon

33. In comparison to an electric bulb, a fluorescent tube is preferred because = There is no effect of voltage
fluctuation on it

34. How does the white light produce in the tube? = To heat up the filament

35. Which is the gas inside an electric bulb? = Argon, and Nitrogen

36. Fluorescent tubes are fitted with a choke. The choke coil = Steps up the line voltage

37. A mobile phone charger is = A step-down transformer

38. If potential difference and current flowing through a wire is increased twice each, then electric power =
Will increase four times

39. Two wires have their lengths, diameters and resistivities all in the ratio of 1:2. If the resistance of the
thinner wire is 10 Ω, the resistance of the thicker wire is = 10 ohm

40. Small drops of the same size are charged to V volts each. If n such drops coalesce to form a single large
drop, its potential will be = n2/3V

41. Transformer is used for = To step up or step-down AC voltages

42. Alternate current is not preferable = To charge storage battery

43. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called = Rectifier
44. Alternating current is converted to direct current = By Rectifier

45. Which of the following option represents the consumption of power in ascending order? = Fan, television,
electronic press, electronic kettle

46. The Earth’s magnetic field is due to = Currents circulating inside the core

Chapter-11: Conductivity
1. The highest temperature attained by a super conductor is = 133 K

2. The newly discovered high temperature super conductors are = Ceramic oxides

3. The characteristic of super conductor is = Zero permeability

4. At which temperature superconductivity can be of tremendous economic interest saving billions of rupees?
= At room temperature

5. The conductivity of a semiconductor at zero-degree Kelvin is = Zero

6. The resistance of a semi-conductor on heating = Decreases

7. Electric conduction in a semiconductor takes place due to = Both electrons and holes

8. At absolute zero temperature, the electric resistance in semiconductor is = Infinite

9. Which one of the following metals is used as semi-conductor in transistors? = Germanium

10. The most used material for making transistors is = Silicon

11. Which one of the following is an important component of a transistor? = Germanium

13. The Government of India has totally banned the export of Burnt coal (Jhama) because it contains
recoverable amount of a metal/ element which is used in transistors. Which one of the following is that
element? = Germanium

Chapter-12: Nuclear Physics

1. One of these particles is claimed to have invented which rebut the Einstein’s theory of relativity = Micro-
wave Photon

2. Cyclotrons are used to accelerate = Protons

3. Who discovered Synthesis of transuranic elements? = Enrico Fermi

4. The breaking apart of the nucleus of an atom is called? = fusion

5. Which one of the following can be used to confirm whether drinking water contains a gamma emitting
isotope or not? = Scintillation counter

6. Among the following radiations, which has the highest energy? = X-ray

7. The energy of Sun is released due to = Nuclear fusion

8. The stars receive their energy from which of the following? = Nuclear fusion
9. Which one of the following is the source of renewable energy in stars? = Hydrogen changes into helium
helpful in burning and generate energy

10. Source of energy from the Sun is = Nuclear fusion

11. What is the source of electrical energy in an artificial satellite? = Solar cells

12. Which one of the following elements is used in solar cells? = Silicon

13. Photovoltaic cells are = Solar cells

14. Photovoltaic cell is related to = Solar Energy

15. Which statement is not associated with nuclear fission? = Energy generation in stars

16. What is Nuclear Reactor? = Molecular furnace

17. The difference between nuclear reactor and atom bomb is that = The chain reaction in nuclear reactor is
controlled

18. In the modern day’s nuclear medicine plays a vital role in Medical Science, it is exactly = They are radio
isotopes

19. The important nuclear fuel available in India in abundance is = Thorium

20. Radioactive element which has been found to have large reserves in India is = Thorium

21. India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this
experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India? = It can build fusion reactors for power
generation

22. Which of the following element is not included as a nuclear fuel? = Cadmium

23. Identify the mineral not associated with atomic power = Chromium

24. Which of the following is not a fuel element? = Helium

25. Which one of the following cannot be used as a nuclear fuel? = Calcium

26. Which is not used as atomic fuel? = Lead

27. Which of the following is used in the preparation of nuclear bombs? = Uranium

28. The principle of atomic bomb is based on = Nuclear fission

29. The working principle of atom bomb is nuclear fission of uranium and the working principle of hydrogen
bomb is = Nuclear fusion of deuterium

30. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of = Uncontrolled fusion reaction

31. Hydrogen bomb was developed by = Edward Teller

32. Enriched Uranium is = Natural uranium in which radioactive U235 isotope is increased artificially

33. The ultimate product of radioactive disintegration of uranium is = Lead

34. A radioactive substance has a half-life of four months. Three-fourth of the substance would decay in = 8
months

35. The half-life of a radioactive element is 5 years, then the fraction of the radioactive substance that remains
after 20 years is = 1/16

36. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 10 days; it means there will be = Decay of 3/4 part of substance in
20 days
37. Which one of the following is not radioactive? = Zirconium

38. Which Uranium isotope is used in nuclear power plants to produce electricity? = U-235

39. Which metal can be used for producing electricity? = Uranium

40. Radioactive substance emits = Alpha rays, Beta rays, and Gamma rays

41. What happens if the control rods are not used in a nuclear reactor? = Chain process would go out of
bounds

42. Which one of the following is India’s first nuclear plant? = Tarapur

43. India’s first atomic power station is = Tarapur Atomic Power Station

44. Who is present director of ‘BARC’? = R.K. Sinha

45. What are the links between Dhruva, Purnima and Cirus? = They are Indian research reactors

46. Which fuel is used by nuclear reactors in India? = U-238

47. Kalpakkam is famous = Due to nuclear power plant

48. The Indira Gandhi Atomic Research Centre is in = Tamil Nadu

50. Heavy water is manufactured in India at = Trombay

52. Which one of the following atomic plants of India is located in the IV Seismic Zone? = Narora

53. The atomic power plant which became active recently is located at = Kaiga

54. Russia has agreed recently to construct how many units of nuclear reactors at Kundankulam in Tamil
Nadu? = 6

55. The fuel used in Fast Breeder Test Reactor at Kalpakkam is = Plutonium

56. Which one of the following is used as the coolant in the ‘Fast Breeder Test Reactor’ at Kalpakkam? =
Molten sodium

57. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to = Slow down the speed of neutrons

58. Which one of the following is used as a moderator in the nuclear reactor? = Graphite

59. Graphite is used in the nuclear reactor as = Moderator

60. Which one of the following is used as moderator in a nuclear reactor? = Heavy Water

61. Fast breeder reactor is a nuclear reactor which produces electricity = By fusion process

62. A breeder reactor is that which = Produces more fissionable material than it burns

63. Which of the following nuclear power plants has the highest total installed capacity? = Tarapur

64. The official code name of Pokhran nuclear test 1974, was = Smiling Buddha

65. The Pokhran II test was conducted on = May 11th, 1998

66. In May 1998 India had conducted 5 nuclear tests at Pokhran. In which state does Pokhran lie? = Rajasthan

67. The Nuclear doctrine of India contains = No first use; Unilateral moratorium; Minimum Credible deterrence