BIOLOGY

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ) (Previous year CBSC question bank)

CHAPTER-LIFE PROCESSES
Q.1 Complete the following flow chart as per the given instructions.

Ans:
a – Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
b – Protein digesting enzyme pepsin
c – Mucus
d – HCl makes medium acidic for the activation of an enzyme pepsin.
e – Pepsin acts in acidic medium which breaks down proteins into peptones.
f – Mucus protects the inner lining of stomach from corroding action of HCl.
Q.2 (a) State the role played by the following in the process of digestion:
(i) Enzyme trypsin
(ii) Enzyme lipase-
(b) List two functions of finger-like projections present in the small intestine.
Answer:
(a) (i) Enzyme trypsin: This enzyme is produced by the pancreas in an inactive form
called trypsinogen. Trypsin converts the remaining proteins into peptones and the
peptones into peptides and amino acids.
(ii) Enzyme lipase: It is secreted by pancreas and small intestine. Lipase converts fats
into fatty acids and glycerol.
(b) Internally, the wall of the small intestine is provided with long finger-like
projections called villi. Two functions of villi are:
(i) The villi greatly increase the absorptive surface area of the inner lining of small
intestine.
(ii) The large surface area of small intestine helps in rapid absorption of digested food.
Q.3 (a) What is peristaltic movement?
(b) ‘Stomata remain closed in desert plants during daytime’. How do they do
photosynthesis?
(c) Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in carnivores?
Answer:
(a) The relaxation of gut muscles to move the partially digested food downwards
throughout the alimentary canal is called peristaltic movement.
(b) In desert plants, stomata open at night and take in carbon dioxide (CO2). Stomata
remain closed during daytime to prevent the loss of water by transpiration. They store
the CO2 in their cells until the sun comes out so that they can carry on with photosynthesis
during the daytime.
(c) Herbivores eat plants which is rich in cellulose. Cellulose takes longer time for
complete digestion by the enzymes present in symbiotic bacteria. Therefore, they have
longer small intestine. Carnivores, feed on flesh which is easier to digest and do not
contain cellulose also.

Q.4 Diffusion is insufficient to meet the oxygen requirement of multicellular

organisms like human. State reason.
Answer:
 Due to the higher metabolic rate and the volume of the human body is so large that
oxygen cannot diffuse into all cells of the body quickly as oxygen will have to travel
large distances to reach every cell.
 In multicellular organisms, all the cells may not be in direct contact with the
surrounding environment.
 Thus, diffusion is insufficient to meet the oxygen demand of multicellular
organisms.

Q.5 (a) In the process of respiration, state the function of alveoli.

(b) Rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that in terrestrial
organisms. Give reasons.
(c) State the function of rings of cartilage present in our throat.
Answer:
(a) Functions of alveoli are:
(i) They increase the surface area for exchange of gases.
(ii) The thin walls of alveoli facilitate rapid exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
between alveolar air and blood.
(b) Aquatic animals like fishes obtain oxygen from water present in the dissolved form
through their gills. The amount of dissolved oxygen is quite small as compared to the
amount of oxygen in the air. Therefore, to obtain required oxygen from water, aquatic
animals have to breathe much faster than the terrestrial organisms.
(c) Rings of cartilage are C in shape, stacked one on top of the other. These
cartilaginous rings prevent the trachea from collapsing and blocking the airway.

Q.6 Draw a flow chart to show the breakdown of glucose by various pathways.
Answer:
Breakdown of glucose by various pathways:

Q.7 Give reasons for the following:

(i) Lungs always contain residual volume.
(ii) Nostrils are lined with mucus.
Ans: (i) Lungs always contain residual volume so that during the breathing cycle, when
air is inhaled and exhaled, there must be sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and
for carbon dioxide to be released. It is also important as it prevents the lungs from
collapsing.
(ii) Mucus and hair present in nostrils help in the filtration of inhaled air. It traps harmful
substances and germs present in air.
Q.8 Define translocation in reference to plants.
Answer:
 The transport of soluble organic material (sucrose and amino acid) prepared
in the leaves, by the process of photosynthesis, to various parts (roots, stem,
branches, etc.) of the plant is called translocation.
 Material like Sucrose is transferred into the phloem using energy from
ATP.

Q.9 What do the following transport?

(i) Xylem
(ii) Phloem
(iii) Pulmonary vein
(iv) Vena cava
(v) Pulmonary artery
(vi) Aorta
Answer:
(i) The xylem is a specialised plant conducting tissue that transports water and
minerals from roots to all aerial parts of plants which occurs against gravitational force
with the help of ascent of sap.
(ii) Phloem transports food that is prepared in the leaves, through photosynthesis, to
various parts of plant. This process is called translocation. Phloem also transports
amino acids, hormones synthesised in the shoot tips and root tips and other
metabolites.
(iii) Pulmonary vein present in human circulatory system brings oxygenated blood
from lungs to the left atrium of heart.
(iv) Vena cava transport deoxygenated blood collected by all veins of body except
pulmonary vein and pass it to the right atrium of heart.
(v) Pulmonary artery transports deoxygenated blood from right atrium of heart to
lungs for oxygenation.
(vi) Aorta transports oxygenated blood from left atrium to systemic arteries which
further take the blood to various body parts and organs.
Q.10 Explain giving any three reasons the significance of transpiration in plants.
Answer: Significance of transpiration in plants:
(i) It helps in the absorption and upward movement of water.
(ii) Movement of dissolved minerals from root to leaves.
(iii) It helps in the temperature regulation or cooling of the plant
Q.11 List in tabular form three differences between arteries and veins.
Answer:
Differences between arteries and veins are as follows:
Arteries Veins

(i) Arteries are the blood vessels which

Veins are blood vessels which bring blood
carry blood away from the heart for
from the body back to the heart.
distribution to the body.

(ii) Arteriei walls are thick and valves are Their walls are thin and valves are present to
absent. prevent back flow of blood.

(iii) Blood passing through narrow lumen The blood passing through wide lumen of
of arteries is mostly oxygenated and has a veins is deoxygenated (except in pulmonary
considerable pressure. veins) and has low pressure.

(iv) More elastic and placed deeply. Less elastic and superficially placed.
Question 12. Give reasons:
(a) Ventricles have thicker muscular walls than atria.
(b) Transport system in plants is slow.
(c) Circulation of blood in aquatic vertebrates differs from that in terrestrial
vertebrates.
(d) During the daytime, water and minerals travel faster through xylem as
compared to the night.
(e) Veins have valves whereas arteries do not.
(f) “Blood circulation in fishes is different from the blood circulation in human
beings” statement.
Answer:
(a) Since ventricles have to pump blood into various organs with high pressure, they
have thicker walls than atria.
(b) Transport system in plants is less elaborate than in animals, as plants are less active,
so their cells do not need to be supplied with materials so quickly.
(c) The aquatic vertebrates like fish have gills to oxygenate blood. The flow of blood in a
fish is single circulation because the blood passes through the heart only once in one
complete cycle of body. The terrestrial vertebrates like birds and humans have double
circulation as the blood travels heart twice in one complete cycle of blood and they have
lungs for oxygenation of blood.
(d) It is because during daytime rate of transpiration is higher.
(e) The lumen of veins have valves, which allow the blood in them to flow in only one
direction. Thus preventing back flow of blood.
(f) Fishes have only two chambers in their heart, the blood is pumped to the gills to get
oxygenated blood and from there it passes directly to rest of the body. Thus, the blood
goes only once through the heart during one cycle of passage through the body. This type
of circulation is termed as single circulation.
In human beings, during circulation blood travels twice through the heart in one
complete cycle of the body and is called double circulation. The pathway of blood
from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart is called pulmonary circulation and the
pathway of blood from the heart to the rest of the body and back to heart is called
systemic circulation.
Q.13 (b) Trace the movement of oxygenated blood in the body.
(c) Write the function of valves present in between atria and ventricles.
(d) Write one structural difference between the composition of artery and veins.
Answer: (b) Deoxygenated blood gets oxygenated in the lungs, from there it moves to
heart and pumped to different parts of the body. Its path can be traced out as
Lungs → Pulmonary veins → Left atrium of heart → Aorta → Arteries → Body parts
(c) When blood is pumped, valves prevent back flow of blood between ventricles and
atria. They open and allow the right amount of blood to flow from one chamber to the
other.
(d) Structural difference between veins and arteries is as follows:
Veins:
Veins have thin, less elastic and less muscular walls. They have valves to prevent back
flow of blood.
Arteries:
Arteries have thick, elastic and muscular walls with no valves.
Q.14 Name one nitrogenous waste present in urine. What is the basic filtration
unit of kidney called? How is the amount of urine produced regulated?
Ans.
 Nitrogenous waste present in urine is uric acid or urea.
 The basic filtration unit of kidney is nephron.
 Urine production is regulated by:
(i) amount of excess water in the body.
(ii) amount of dissolved wastes that need to be excreted
Q.15 . (a) Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label the following
parts on it: (i) Right Renal Artery (ii) Vena cava. (iii) Urinary bladder (iv) Left
kidney
(b) List two vital functions of kidney
Ans:

Q.16 List two factors that decide the direction of diffusion of oxygen and carbon
dioxide.
Ans. Environmental conditions and requirements of the plants decide the direction of
diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Q.17 The leaves of a plant were covered with aluminium foil, how would it affect
the physiology of the plant?
Ans. i. No photosynthesis will occur so no glucose will be made. Also, no respiration will
take place as no oxygen will be taken in.
ii. No transpiration will occur so there would be no upward movement of water or
minerals from the soil as there will be no transpirational pull.
iii. Temperature regulation of the leaf surface will be affected.
Q.18 “All plants give out oxygen during the day and carbon dioxide during the
night.” Do you agree with this statement? Give reason.
Ans. During day time, as the rate of photosynthesis is more than the rate of respiration,
the net result is the evolution of oxygen. At night there is no photosynthesis, so they give
out carbon dioxide due to respiration.
Q.19 If a plant is releasing carbon dioxide and taking in oxygen during the day, does
it mean that there is no photosynthesis occurring? Justify your answer.
Ans. The release of carbon dioxide and intake of oxygen gives evidence that either
photosynthesis is not taking place or its rate is too low. Normally during day time, the
rate of photosynthesis is much more than the rate of respiration. So, carbon dioxide
produced during respiration is used up for photosynthesis hence carbon dioxide is not
released.
Q.20 Enlist the site of synthesis and storage of bile. ‘Bile juice does not have any
digestive enzyme but still plays a significant role in the process of digestion.’ Justify
the statement.
Ans. Site of synthesis: Liver
Site of storage: Gall bladder.
Bile juice does not contain any digestive enzyme, but it plays an important role in
digestion because:
1. The bile salts emulsify fat by acting on large fat globules to break them into smaller
globules. This increases the efficiency of pancreatic enzymes.
2. The food entering the small intestine is acidic. It is made alkaline by the action of
bile juice so as to facilitate the action of pancreatic enzymes.
Q.21A person suffering from liver disease is advised to avoid fatty and highly acidic
foods. Give a reason why each of the foods mentioned should be avoided by a
person suffering from liver disease.
Ans. i. Since the liver produces bile which creates an alkaline medium for effective
digestion, in absence of bile acidic foods may cause more acidity and poor digestion.
ii. Since bile is responsible for fat digestion by converting large fat globules to smaller
ones for efficient digestion, in absence of which fats will not be properly digested.

Q.22 Oxygen, mostly, is carried by a pigment in our blood whereas carbon dioxide
is transported in dissolved form in our blood.
Give TWO reasons that make the above statement correct.
Ans. i. Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen.
ii. Haemoglobin (the red pigment in RBC) has a very high affinity for oxygen.
Q.23 Given below is a table representing the characteristics of two fluids involved
in the transportation of substances in the human body.
Fluid A Fluid B
Colorless Colored
Contains less oxygen Contains more oxygen
Contains less protein Contains more protein
i. Identify fluid A and fluid B.
ii. With the help of a flow chart, describe the movement of fluid A from the
intercellular spaces to the main circulatory system.
Ans. i. Fluid A – Lymph
Fluid B – Blood
ii. Intercellular spaces → Lymphatic capillaries → Lymph vessels → Larger veins.
Q.24 How is lymph an important fluid involved in transportation? If lymphatic
vessels get blocked, how would it affect the human body? Elaborate.
Ans. The functions of lymph in transportation are:
1. Lymph carries digested and absorbed fat from the intestine back to the blood.
2. Lymph drains excess fluid from extracellular space back into the blood.
Blockage of the lymphatic system will lead to water retention and poor fat absorption in
the body.
Q. 25 What are the strategies of plants to get rid of their wastes?
Ans. Strategies of plants to get rid of their waste are:
1. They throw away oxygen and water vapor through stomata.
2. Some wastes like gums, oil, and resins may be stored in old xylem or wood in the
stem.
3. Some wastes may be stored in leaves and bark and shed off from time to time.
4. Roots can also throw some waste.
Q. 26 Two major forces help in the transport of water in a plant. Force A is the
driving force in the movement of water during the day, whereas force B helps the
movement of water in a plant during the night or during the day when humidity is
very high.
i. Identify force A and force B.
ii. Describe how each of these forces helps in the movement of water in a plant.
Ans. i. Force A – transpirational pull
Force B – Root pressure
ii. Transpiration pull: Evaporation of water molecules from the stomata of a leaf due to
transpiration creates a suction that pulls water from the xylem cells of roots.
Root pressure: Active absorption of ions by roots from the soil causes water to steadily
move into the root xylem creating a column of water that is pushed upwards.
Q.27 What is Epiglottis? What is its function?
Ans The epiglottis is a leaf-shaped flap of cartilage located behind the tongue, at the top
of the larynx, or voice box. The main function of the epiglottis is to seal off the windpipe
during eating, so that food is not accidentally inhaled.
Q.28 What are the factors that affect photosynthesis?
Factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis:
1. Carbon dioxide: Increase in CO2 concentration in air leads to an increase in rate
of photosynthesis.
2. Water: Less water in the soil reduces the rate of photosynthesis.
3. Sunlight: If the intensity of the sunlight increases, rate of photosynthesis also
increases.
4. Chlorophyll: Presence of green colored chlorophyll pigment in the chloroplast.
Q.29 What are acidity or acid reflux and Bloating?
Ans : Acidity or Acid reflux: Production of excessive HCl in the stomach. It moves up to
the Oesophagus and causes the burning effect.
Bloating: Excessive amount of solids, liquids or gas in the digestive system.
Q.30 What function is served by the gastric sphincter and anal sphincter?
Ans: Sphincters are circular muscles that act as valves, allowing particular areas of the
body to open and close.
Gastric sphincter: It regulates the opening of the esophagus into the stomach.
Anal sphincter: It is a ring of muscle that opens and shuts at the bottom of the anus and
is important for bowel function regulation. Exit of waste material in regulated by anal
sphintor.

Q.31 In case of diarrhoea name the major process which occurs in large intestine
which is no longer occurring normally?
Ans. Absorption of water

Chapter-Control and Coordination

Q.1 What are plant hormones? Give four different types of plant hormones and
state their functions briefly.
Ans: The chemical compounds released by stimulated cells for control and coordination
in plants are called plant hormones or phytohormones.
 Auxin — Controls growth
 Gibberellins — Helps growth in stem
 Cytokinin — Promotes cell division
 Abscisic acid — Inhibits growth, wilting of leaves
Q.2 In the absence of muscle cells, how do plant cells show movement?
Ans: Plant cells shows two types of movements:
(i) Tropic movements are growth movements in response to an environment
stimulus. This type of movement may occur in response to gravity
(geotropism), light (phototropism), water (hydrotropism), chemical
(chemotropism), etc.
(ii) Nastic movement are independent of the direction of stimulus. This type of
movement may occur in response to chemicals, temperature, touch etc.
This shows that plant cell can show movements in response to different stimuli
although they do not have muscle cells

Q.3 Explain giving reasons the bending of the shoot tip of a plant towards light
source coming from one side of the plant.
Ans: When growing plant shoot tip detects light a hormone called auxin is synthesised
in the shoot tip which is sensitive to light. Auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the
stem. It stimulates the growth of cells on the shady side of the plant which causes
bending of the plant to the other side. This gives the appearance that the stem of the
plant bends in the direction of light.

Q.4 Different parts of brain are associated with specific functions. Name the part
of human brain which performs the following functions: (a) Sensation of feeling
full (b) Vomiting (c) Picking up a pencil (d) Riding a bicycle
Ans: (a) Forebrain (b) Medulla/ Hind Brain (c) Cerebellum/ Hind Brain (d) Cerebellum/
Hind Brain
Q.5 A boy is in a scary situation. His body has to prepare for either fighting or
running away. State the immediate changes that take place in his body so that the
boy is able to either fight or run.
Ans. Adrenaline hormone will be secreted in the body as the squirrel is in a scary
situation. This will result in:
(i) Speeding up of heartbeat (ii) Rise in blood pressure (iii) Release of more glucose in
the blood

Q.6 Why is chemical communication better than electrical impulses as a means of

communication between cells in a multi-cellular organism?
Ans: Chemical communication is better than electrical impulses because chemical
communication is mediated through hormones which can diffuse to different regions of
the body, thereby allowing cells to communicate even without interacting with each
other. Moreover, this type of communication can be maintained at a steady rate and is
easy to regulate.

Q.7 Name the hormones by the following endocrine glands and specify one
function of each: (a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary (c) Pancreas
Ans:
(a) Thyroxine regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism/ controls metabolism
for balance of body growth.
(b) Growth hormone regulates growth and development of body
(c) Insulin, regulates/decreases blood sugar level.

Q.8 (a) Name one gustatory receptor and one olfactory receptor present in
human beings.
(b) Write a and b in the given flow chart of neuron through which information
travels and as an electrical impulse. Dendrite → a → b→ End point of Neuron
Ans: (a) Gustatory receptor - Tongue
Olfactory receptor- Nose
(b) (i) Cell body/cyton (ii) Axon

Q.9 Read the functions of the following plant hormones and name them:
a. Promote cell enlargement and cell differentiation and promote fruit growth.
b. Promote cell enlargement and cell differentiation in the presence of auxins and
help in breaking the dormancy in seeds and buds.
c. Promote cell division, promote the opening of stomata and also fruit growth, help
in breaking the dormancy of seeds and buds, and delay the aging in leaves.
d. Promote the dormancy in seeds and buds, promote the closing of stomata and
falling of leaves.
Ans. a. Auxins
b. Gibberellins
c. Cytokinin
d. Abscisic acid

Q.10 Why is the flow of signals in a synapse from the axonal end of one neuron to
the dendritic end of another neuron but not the reverse?
Ans. When an electrical signal reaches the axonal end of a neuron, it releases a chemical
substance. This chemical diffuses towards the dendrite end of the next neuron where it
generates an electrical impulse or signal. Hence, the electrical signal is converted into a
chemical signal at the axonal end. Since these chemicals are absent at the dendrite end of
the neuron, the electrical signal cannot be converted into a chemical signal.
Q.11 How are the brain and spinal cord protected in the human body?
Ans. The brain is covered with a cranium and the spinal cord is protected by the vertical
column or backbone. These bony covers protect both from external injuries. Both the
brain and spinal cord are covered with three membranes called meninges. The space
between meninges is filled with a fluid called cerebrospinal fluid which protects them
from mechanical shock.
Q.12 Pertaining to the endocrine system, what will you interpret if-
i. You observe swollen necks in people living in the hills
ii. Over-secretion of growth hormone takes place during childhood
iii. Facial hair develops in boys aged 13.
Ans. i. Less intake of iodine in the diet.
ii. Will lead to gigantism.
iii. Timely secretion of testosterone.

Q.13 Define reflex arc. Draw a flow chart showing the sequence of events which
occur during sneezing
Ans. Reflex arc is defined as the pathway or route taken by nerve impulses in a reflex
action. Sequences of events that occur during sneezing can be depicted as:
Q.14 A cheetah, on seeing a prey moves towards him at a very high speed. What
causes the movement of his muscles? How does the chemistry of cellular
components of muscles change during this event? (2020)
Answer:
The cheetah senses its prey by photoreceptors and the information is sent to the central
nervous system. The response is then carried by neurons. Along with nervous system, the
hormonal system also plays a role. Adrenaline hormone produced by the adrenal glands
triggers the flight or fight action. On seeing a prey, these hormones are released into the
cheetahs blood stream. It speeds up heartbeat, breathing increases blood flow into leg
muscles and causes liver to put more stored glucose into cheetahs blood. All these actions
of adrenline hormone produces a lot of energy which helps cheetah to run fast.

Q.15 Name the target organ of adrenaline hormone.

Ans: The target organs for adrenaline hormone include the heart, lungs, eyes, and liver.
Q.16 How do muscles move?
Ans: The nerve fibres at the end of a neuron are attached to muscles. This area is called
neuro-muscular junction. When nerve impulses are conducted to this area, the special
proteins present in the muscle cells change their shape and arrangement in the cell in
response to nervous electrical impulses. New arrangement of these proteins give the
muscle cells a shorter form thus bringing about movement of muscles.

Q.17 What are the functions of Mid brain?

Ans: The midbrain consists of the centre for visual and auditory reflexes. It is involved
in the processing of visual and auditory information. It regulates eye movement and pupil
dilation. It is involved in regulating muscle movement and motor control.
Q.18 How do plants change their shape?
Ans: Plants change their shape by changing the amount of water in them, resulting in
swelling or shrinking of the plant cells. Plant cells can change their shape with the help of
the cytoskeleton present in the cytoplasm in the stress conditions. They can also change
the shape by changing the amount of water in and out of the cell by the process of
endosmosis and exosmosis.
Q.19 What is the feedback mechanism of hormone regulation? Take the example
of insulin to explain this phenomenon.
Ans
 The hormone feedback mechanism is defined as the mechanism that is used to
maintain the hormone balance in the blood / body. The timing and amount of
hormone released are regulated by feedback mechanisms.
 Positive feedback stimulates and enhances the secretion and/or production of the
hormone. On the other hand, the negative feedback prevents and inhibits the
hormone from being secreted.
 For example, if the sugar levels in the blood rise, they are detected by the cells of
the pancreas which respond by producing more insulin. As the blood sugar level
falls, insulin secretion is reduced.

CHAPTER-HOW DO ORGANISM REPRODUCE?

Q.1 (a) How is the process of binary fission different in Amoeba and
Leishmania?
(b) Explain two advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual
reproduction
Ans. (a) Amoeba reproduces through simple binary fission. Leishmania reproduces
asexually through binary fission that occurs along a definite orientation related to the
whip-like structure at one end of the cell.
(b) Advantages of sexual reproduction:
(i) Leads to stability of population of species.
(ii) Results in variations useful for the survival of species over time.

Q.2 Write differences between binary fission and multiple fission in a tabular
form as observed in the cells of the organisms.
Ans.
Binary Fission Multiple Fission
i. One cell divides into many daughter
i. One cell splits into two equal halves.
cells simultaneously.
ii. Each nuclear division is followed by a cytoplasmic ii. Nuclear division occurs several times,
division. It can be irregular, longitudinal, or they move toward the periphery
transverse. followed by cytoplasmic division.
iii. Generally occurs in unfavorable
iii. Generally seen during favorable conditions.
conditions or in parasitic forms.
Examples: many bacteria and protozoa like Amoeba,
Example Plasmodium (malarial
Paramecium, and Leishmania.
parasite).

iv.
iv.

Q.3 Name an organism which reproduces by spore formation. List three

conditions favourable for spores to germinate and grow.
Answer:
 Rhizopus reproduce by the method of spore formation.
 The three conditions favourable for spores to germinate and grow are moisture,
suitable temperature and food (nutrition).
Q.4 What is vegetative propagation? List two advantages and two disadvantages
of vegetative propagation.
Ans. The method of producing new plants from vegetative parts like roots, stems, and
leaves is called vegetative propagation.
The advantages of vegetative propagation are:
1. The plants bear flowers and fruits earlier than those propagated sexually.
2. Plants have lost the capacity to form seeds hence they are propagated
vegetatively.
Disadvantages of vegetative propagation are:
1. Such plants are genetically similar to parent plants and are vulnerable to
infections and diseases.
2. They do not have variations, therefore, do not adapt well to changing
environments, and the plant species do not evolve.
Q.5 Reproduction is essentially a phenomenon that is not for the survival of an
individual but for the continuation of a species. Justify.
Ans.
 Organisms need energy for survival which they obtain from life processes such
as nutrition and respiration.
 Reproduction does not provide energy. It needs a lot of energy.
 Genetic material is transferred from one generation to the next as a result of
reproduction through DNA copying.
 DNA copying takes place with high constancy and considerable variations, which
is advantageous to the species for stability in the changing environment.
Q.6 Variation in DNA is beneficial for the survival of species over time. Explain.
Ans. Variation means certain changes which occur in sexually reproducing organisms
because of errors in DNA copying.
Advantages of variation in DNA:
1. Variation allows diversity in organisms.
2. In case of drastic alteration of niches, a population with variation is most likely to
have some surviving members to ensure the continuity of species.
Q.7 Describe the process of seed formation in a flowering plant.
Ans. Process of seed formation in a flowering plant:
1. The pollen from the stamen is transferred to the stigma.
2. The male germ cell and the female germ cells combine to form the zygote.
3. The zygote undergoes rapid division to form the embryo inside the ovule.
4. The ovule develops a seed coat and turns into a seed.
Q. 8 State the post-fertilization changes that lead to fruit formation in plants.
Ans.
 After fertilization, the zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the
ovule.
 The ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed.
 The ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit.
 The petals, sepals, stamens, style, and stigma may shrivel and fall off.
Q.9 Given below are certain situations. Analyze and describe its possible impact
on a person:
a) Testes of a male boy are not able to descend into the scrotum during his
embryonic development.
b) Vas deferens of a man is plugged.
c) Prostate and seminal vesicles are not functional.
d) Egg is not fertilized in a human female.
e) Placenta does not attach to the uterus optimally.
Ans. a) Sperm formation will be adversely affected because it requires a lower
temperature than the body temperature.
b) Vas deferens is a passage for the transfer of sperms, so sperms will not be transferred
further.
c) When prostate and seminal vesicles are not functional, they will not add secretions
for nourishment and medium for the transport of sperms.
d) When an egg is not fertilized in a human female, it lives for about one day. Then, the
thickened lining of the uterus breaks leading to the discharge of blood and mucus along
with the unfertilised egg. This is called menstruation.
e) Nutrition and oxygen will not be provided to the growing embryo affecting its
growth, which could have serious implications as well.
Q. 10 What would be the ratio of chromosome number between an egg and its
zygote? How is the sperm genetically different from the egg?
Ans. The ratio is 1:2. Sperms contain either X or Y chromosomes whereas an egg will
always have an X chromosome.

Q.11 State the role of the placenta in the development of embryo.

Answer: Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother.
2) It is formed at around 12 weeks of pregnancy and becomes an important structure
for nourishment of the embryo. ’
3) The placenta is a disc that is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the
embryo’s side of the tissue.
4) On the mother’s side are blood spaces, '
5) This provides a large surface area for diffusion of glucose, oxygen and other nutrients
from the mother of the embryo.

Q.12 Name the parts A, B and C shown in the following diagram and state one
function of each.

Answer:
In the given figure, part A is anther, part B is style and part C is ovule.

 Anther (A) is a part of male reproductive organ of flower called stamen. Large
number of pollen grains are formed inside anther.
 Style (B) and ovule (C) are parts of female reproductive organ of flower called
carpel / pistil.
  Style is a long conducting tube which gives the passage to pollen tube carrying
male gametes so that it reaches ovary which contains one or more ovules.
 Ovules contain female gamete or egg. On fertilisation ovary converts into fruit
and ovules give rise to seeds.

Q.13 (a) List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny
formed by sexual reproduction.

(i) Name the part marked A in the diagram.

(ii) How does A reaches part B?
(iii) State the importance of the part C.
(iv) What happens to the part marked D after fertilisation is over?
Answer:
(a) Variations arise in sexually reproducing organisms on account of the following:
(i) Genetic variations occur of because DNA copying mechanism is not absolutely
accurate.
(ii) Creation of new combinations of genetic variations because variations from two
individuals combine during fusion of gametes.
(b) (i) A is pollen grain.
(ii) Part B is stigma. It is the part of pistil (female reproductive organ) that receives
pollen grains. Pollen grains reach stigma through various agencies like wind, water,
insect, etc.
(iii) Pollen tube (C) carries male gametes to the ovule present in ovary. Male gametes
fuse with egg and secondary nucleus to give rise to zygote and endosperm.
(iv) Female gamete (D) fuses with male gamete and converts to embryo after
fertilisation.

Q.14 What are sexually transmitted diseases? List two examples each of diseases
caused due to
(i) bacterial infection and (ii) viral infection. Which device or devices may be used
to prevent the spread of such diseases?
Answer:
The diseases that are spread by sexual contact with an infected person are called
sexually transmitted disease (STDs).
(i) Bacterial infection causes gonorrhoea, syphilis.
(ii) Viral infection causes AIDS, genital herpes. STDs can be prevented by using male and
female condoms.
Q.15 Based on the given diagram answer the questions given below:

(a) Label the parts A, B, C and D.

(b) Name the hormone secreted by testis and mention its role.
(c) State the functions of B and C in the process of reproduction.
Answer:
(a) A – Ureter
B – Seminal vesicle
C – Urethra
D – Vas deferens
(b) Testes produce the male sex hormone testosterone. Hormone Testosterone brings
about the development of secondary sexual characteristics during puberty in boys like
growth of facial hair, deepening of the voice, build up of muscle mass and also regulates
formation of sperms.
(c) Seminal vesicles (B) release its contents into the ejaculatory duct during ejaculation.
Urethra (C) carries sperms from the vas deferens through the penis.

Q.16 Give the function of the prostate gland and seminal vesicle.
Ans. Prostate gland and the seminal vesicles add their secretions so that the sperms are
now in a fluid which makes their transport easier and this fluid also provides nutrition.
Q.17 (a) Identify the given diagram. Name the parts 1 to 5.

(b) What is contraception? List three advantages of adopting contraceptive

measures.
Answer:
(a) The given diagram is the sectional view of human female reproductive system.
The labelled parts are:
1. Funnel of fallopian tube or oviduct
2. Ovary
3. Uterus or womb
4. Cervix
5. Vagina
(b) Contraception is the avoidance of pregnancy. There are several methods of
contraception such as:
 Barrier methods (condoms, diaphragm, etc.)
 Chemical methods (oral pills, spermicide creams and jellies)
 Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices (IUCDs) ( CuT,)
Surgical methods (vasectomy, tubectomy) Three advantages of adopting contraceptive
methods are:
 They prevent frequent or unwanted pregnancies.
 They prevent the transfer of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
 They help to regulate population growth.

Q.18 Suggest any two reasons why child marriages are a hazard to the
reproductive health of women.
Ans. Child marriages are a hazard to women's reproductive health because:
1. Females will not have reached full sexual maturity at the time of marriage.
2. There are possibilities of pregnancy in the teenage years that may cause adverse
effects on the female’s body.
 Chapter-Heredity
Q.1 Differentiate between acquired and inherited characters.

Q.2 (a) Why is the F1 progeny always of tall plants when a tall plant is crossed with
a short pea plant?
(b) How is F2 progeny obtained by self-pollination of F1 progeny different from
F1 progeny? Give reason for this observation.
(c) State a conclusion that can be drawn on the basis of this observation.
Answer:
(a) When a tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short tea plant (tt), only tall plants are
obtained in F1 progeny. It is because out of two contrasting traits only one appears in
the progeny of first generation. This means that the trait which appears in F1 generation
is dominant and the trait which does not express is recessive. The character TT for tall
plant is dominant, so all the plants are tall.
(b) On selfing F1 progeny

In F2 generation we obtained both tall and dwarf plants. Appearance of suppressed

recessive trait in individuals of F2 generation in Mendelian cross indicates that
characters of recessive traits are not lost. When the F1 generation plants were allowed
to self-fertilise both the parental trait were expressed in definite proportion in
F2 generation.
(c) Above observation shows that only one dominant allele is expressed. This is called
law of dominance. In a heterozygous individual, two dissimilar alleles remain together
and do not get mixed up. At the time of gamete formation, they separate so that each
gamete receives only one allele is always pure.

Q.3 A homozygous dominant guinea pig with black fur is crossed with a
homozygous guinea pig with white fur. The F1 generation is crossed with itself.
What percentage of F2 generation is expected to show a white fur coat?
a. 25 %
b. 50 %
c. 75 %
d. 100 %
Ans. Option (a)
[BB x bb = Bb (F1)
Bb x Bb = BB, Bb, Bb, bb (F2)
Gametes B b
B BB Bb
b Bb bb
∴ Percentage of white fur (bb) in F2 = 1/4 x 100 = 25%]
Q.4 Why did Mendel choose a pea plant for his experiments?
Ans. Mendel chose a pea plant for his experiments because:
1. It is easy to grow.
2. It is naturally self-pollinating and so is very easy to raise pure-breeding
individuals.
3. It has a short life span as it is an annual crop and so it was possible to follow
several generations.
4. It is easy to cross-pollinate.
5. It has deeply contrasting characters.
6. The flowers are bisexual.
Q.5 What are monohybrid and dihybrid cross?
Ans. Monohybrid cross: The cross between two pea plants with one pair of contrasting
characters is called a monohybrid cross.
Example: Cross between a tall and a dwarf plant.
Dihybrid Cross: The cross between two plants having two pairs of contrasting
characters is called a dihybrid cross.
Example: Cross between a round and green seed plant with a wrinkled and yellow seed
plant.
Q.6 How do Mendel’s experiments show that the
1. Traits may be dominant or recessive,
2. Traits are inherited independently?
Ans.
i. Mendel conducted a monohybrid cross with pea plants, and he observed that one of the
contrasting characters disappears in the F1 generation. This character reappears in the
F2 generation (obtained by selfing F1) in just 25% of the progeny.
Mendel concluded that the character which expresses itself in F1 is the dominant
character while the other one which is not able to express, though present in F1
individuals, is recessive. This recessive character is able to express only in its pure form
i.e., in 25% of F2 individuals.
ii. Mendel carried out dihybrid crosses by crossing two pea plants differing in contrasting
traits of two characters. For example, he crossed a pea plant having yellow color and
round seed characters with another pea plant bearing green color and wrinkled seed
characters. In the F2 generation, he obtained pea plants with two parental and two
recombinant phenotypes as yellow round and green wrinkled (parental) and yellow
wrinkled and green round (recombinant). This indicated that traits separated from their
original parental combinations and got inherited independently.
Q. 7 State Mendel’s laws of inheritance.
Ans. Mendel’s Law of Inheritance.
1. Law of Dominance: Out of a pair of contrasting characters present together, only
one is able to express itself while the other remains suppressed. The one that
expresses is the dominant character and the one unexpressed is recessive.
2. Law of Segregation: The two members of a pair of factors separate during the
formation of gametes.
3. Law of Independent Assortment: When there are two pairs of contrasting
characters, the distribution of the members of one pair into the gametes is
independent of the distribution of the other pair.
Q.8 Mention the function of cellular DNA. Talking tallness as a characteristic of a
plant, explain how proteins control the characteristic.
Ans.
 Cellular DNA is the information source for making proteins in the cell. A section of
DNA that provides information for one protein is called the gene for that protein.
 Let us take the example of tallness as a characteristic. We know that plants have
hormones that can trigger growth.
 Plant height can thus depend on the amount of a particular plant hormone. The
amount of the plant hormone made will depend on the efficiency of the process
for making it.
 Consider now an enzyme that is important for this process. If this enzyme works
efficiently, a lot of hormones will be made, and the plant will be tall. If the gene for
that enzyme has an alteration that makes the enzyme less efficient, the amount of
hormone will be less, and the plant will be short. Thus, genes control
characteristics or traits.
Q.9 Mustard was growing in two fields – A and B. While Field A produced brown-
colored seeds, field B produced yellow-colored seeds.
It was observed that in field A, the offspring showed only the parental trait for
consecutive generations, whereas in field B, the majority of the offspring showed a
variation in the progeny.
What are the probable reasons for these?
Ans. In field A, the reason for the parental trait in consecutive generations of offspring is
self-pollination.
In field B, variation is seen to occur because of the recombination of genes as cross-
pollination is taking place.
Q.10 Two pea plants – one with round yellow seeds (RRYY) and another with
wrinkled green (rryy) seeds produce F1 progeny that has round, yellow (RrYy)
seeds.
When F1 plants are self-pollinated, which new combination of characters is
expected in F2 progeny? How many seeds with these new combinations of
characters will be produced when a total of 160 seeds are produced in the F2
generation? Explain with reason.
Ans. New combinations would be Round green and Wrinkled yellow.
The phenotype ratio will be 9:3:3:1
Round green = 3/9+3+3+1 x 160 = 3/16 x 160 = 30 seeds
Wrinkled yellow = 3/9+3+3+1 x 160 = 3/16 x 160 = 30 seeds
New combinations are produced because of the independent inheritance of seed shape
and seed color traits.

Q.11 In humans, there is a 50% probability of the birth of a boy and a 50%
probability that a girl will be born. Justify the statement based on the mechanism
of sex determination in human beings.
Or,
What is the probability of a girl or a boy being born in a family? Justify your answer.
Ans.
 In human beings, the genes inherited from our parents decide whether we will
be boys or girls. Women have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes (XX). But, men
have a mismatched pair (XY).
 All children will inherit an X chromosome from their mother regardless of
whether they are boys or girls. Thus, the sex of the children will be determined
by what they inherit from their father. A child who inherits an X chromosome
from her father will be a girl, and one who inherits a Y chromosome from him
will be a boy.
Parents: Male (XY) x Female (XX)
Gametes: X, Y (from male) and X, X (from female)
Gametes X Y

X XX (Female) XY (Male)

X XX (Female) XY (Male)
 Chapter-Our Environment

Q.1 In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much
energy was available to the producers?
Plants → Deer → Lion
Answer:
As per 10% law of flow of energy in an ecosystem only 10% of energy is received by the
next trophic level. Hence, in the given food chain : If 100 .J of energy is available to lion,
the plants or producers have 10,000 J of energy available to them.

Q.2 The following organisms form a food chain. Which of these will have the highest
concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals? Name the phenomenon associated
with it. Insects, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog
Answer: Among the following organisms of the food chain, hawk being top consumer is
present at topmost trophic level, hence will have the highest concentration of non-
biodegradable chemicals due to a phenomenon known as biomagnification.

Q.3 Why should biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes be discarded in two
separate dustbins?
Answer:
 Biodegradable wastes are decomposed naturally by the action of microbes which
degrade them to their simple constituents enabling their nutrients to recycle
among the biotic and abiotic components of ecosystem.
 However, non-biodegradable wastes cannot be disposed off naturally since they
cannot be decomposed by microbes. Such wastes are either recycled, incinerated
or put in landfills, etc.
 As the disposal methods of the two types of waste is different, it is advisable to
discard the two types of waste in two separate dustbins.

Q.4 (a) How is ozone formed at the higher level of atmosphere?

(b) Which class of chemical is linked to the decrease in the amount of ozone in the
upper atmosphere of the Earth?

Ans: (a) When high energy ultraviolet radiations react with oxygen present in
stratosphere (the higher level of atmosphere) it splits into its constituent atoms. Since
these atoms produced are very reactive they read with molecular oxygen (O2) to form
ozone (O3).
(b) The decrease in the amount of ozone in the atmosphere has been linked to synthetic
chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are used as coolants and in fire
extinguishers, etc.
Q.5 “The number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited.” Give reason to justify
this statement.
Answer:
 The number of trophic levels in a food chain are limited because at each trophic
level only 10% of energy is utilised for the maintenance of organism which occur
at that trophic level and the remaining large portion is lost as heat.
 As a result organisms at each trophic level pass on lesser energy to the next trophic
level, than they receive. The longer the food chain, the lesser is the energy
available to the final member of food chain.
 Food chains generally consist of three or four trophic levels because beyond that
the energy available to the next organism will be too small and insufficient to
sustain the life of that organism.

Q.6 What will happen if we kill all organisms at one trophic level?
Ans: Removal of the organisms of any trophic level will always adversely affect the
ecosystem, e.g., the removal of lions and tigers (top carnivores) will cause a rapid increase
in the deer population, which leads to rapid consumption of vegetation resulting in
scarcity of vegetation and population crash of deer.

Q.7 State with reason any two possible consequences of the elimination of
decomposers from the earth.
Answer:
The consequences of elimination of decomposers are:
(i) There would be no recycling of nutrients and therefore, raw materials to produce food
will not be available to producers. Hence, the food chains will get affected.
(ii) The dead bodies of plants and animals will go on accumulating in the absence of
decomposition thereby polluting the environment.

Q.8 What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have
with regard to obtaining oxygen for respiration?
Ans: The aquatic organisms use oxygen dissolved in water while terrestrial organisms
obtained it from the atmosphere, where the amount of oxygen is much higher.

Q.9 In a certain study constructed on occurrence of DDT along food chain in an

ecosystem the concentration of DDT in grass was found to be 0.5 ppm in sheep it
was 2 ppm and in man it was 10ppm. why was the concentration of DDT maximum
in case of man?
Ans: DDT is non-biodegradable. It accumulates at each topic level. As man is positioned
at the highest tropic level, there is maximum accumulation of DDT in man. This
phenomenon is called biological magnification.
Q.10 Define a food web. state it significance for ecosystem.
Ans: A system of food chain which are interconnected between various organisms is
called a food web. The significance of food web is in the maintenance of ecological
balance based upon interdependence of different organism.
Q.11 What is meant by the garbage management? (ii) suggest four methods to
manage the garbage?
Ans: (i) Proper disposal of the waste in such a manner that it does not cause any
damage to the environment is called garbage management.
(ii) Method to manage the garbage:
(a) As biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes are to be treated differently, should
be collected differently.
(b) Non-biodegradable waste should be sent for recycling.
(c) Hazardous waste like surgical waste and electronic parts should not be thrown in
the open ground.
(d) Disposal should be carry out at specific centres only.
12. Distinguish between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances. list
two effects of each of them on the environment.
Ans: Biodegradable substances: Substances which ca be broken down by
microorganisms like bacteria and fungi are called biodegradable substances. For
example, paper, vegetable and fruit peels, human excreta.
Non-biodegradable substances: Substances that cannot be broken down by
microorganisms into simpler and harmless substances are called non-biodegradable
substances. For example, polythene bags, Aluminium cans, DDT, etc.
Effects of biodegradable substances: (i) They produce foul smell causing air pollution.
If thrown in water, it will cause water pollution.
(ii) They serve as breeding ground for files and mosquitoes which are carriers of
diseases like cholera, typhoid and malaria.
Effects of non-biodegradable substances: (i) Non- biodegradable pesticides and
fertilisers run off with rain water to water bodies cause water pollution and affect the
soil making it acidic or alkaline.
(ii) Some of the non-biodegradable pesticides enter the food chain and affect badly
humans and other organisms.
Q.13 The ozone layer is formed high up in the atmosphere by the action of
ultraviolet radiation on oxygen gas. The damage of the ozone layer leads to
variation in rainfall, ecological disturbances and other effects in global food supply.
United Nations Environment programme (UNEP) has signed an agreement to limit
this damage in 1986.
i. Where is ozone layer found in the atmosphere?
ii. How is ozone layer formed in the atmosphere?
iii. How can you contribute in saving the ozone layer?
Ans :
i. The ozone layer is found in the stratosphere.
ii. The ultraviolet radiation coming from the sun splits oxygen gas into free
oxygen atoms.
2 O2 UV radiation O + O
These very reactive oxygen atoms react with oxygen molecules to form ozone
molecules.
O2 + O →O3
iii. Use of synthetic chemicals such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) used as
refrigerants and in fire extinguishers, methane (CH4) and oxides of nitrogen
(N2O) should be minimised for saving the ozone layer. By organising an
awareness camp, we can make people aware about the ill effects of
destruction of ozone layer.
Q.14 Consider the following food chain:
Grass---Mice----Snakes-------Peacocks
If in this chain, 100 J of energy is available at the producer level, then
calculate the energy transferred to the peacocks as food. State the law
used in this calculation.
10% 10% 10%
Ans: Grass---------------Mice---------Snakes-------Peacocks
100J 10J 1J 0.1 J
Q.15 Why does every food chain start with a producer?
Ans : A food chain starts with a producer (green plants and certain bacteria)
because only they can make organic compounds like sugar and starch from
inorganic substances using the energy from the Sun in the presence of
chlorophyll.
Q.16 We do not clean ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned
regularly. Why?
Ans:
 Ponds or lakes being natural ecosystems are self-sufficient and do not
need to be maintained regularly.
 On the other hand, aquarium being an artificial ecosystem needs to be
cleaned and maintained regularly as it contains mainly fishes as living
organisms, as compared to natural ecosystems where presence of other
organisms maintains a balance.
 Also, because the producers and decomposers are absent in aquarium the
fish waste or excretory products, i.e., ammonia may turn into toxic
compounds and accumulate to dangerous levels causing the fishes to die.
 Hence, the artificial ecosystems like aquarium needs to be cleaned
regularly.