CHEMISTRY MODEL EXAMINATION FOR GRADE 12

Instruction: There are 80 multiple choice questions. Carefully select the best answer and blacken
only the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
Use the following constants if necessary.
Plank’s constant, h = 6.626 x 10-34J.s
Speed of light, C = 3x108m/s
Avogadro’s number, = 6.02 x 1023 mol-1
Gas constant, R = 0.082 𝑎𝑡𝑚.𝐿 = 8.314 𝐽
𝑚𝑜𝑙.𝐾
𝑚𝑜𝑙.𝐾

Organized by Lencha Abeya (MSc in Chemistry)

 Kf for H2O = 1.860C/m, Kb for H2O = 0.5120C/m
1atm.L=101J
Kw = 1.0 x 10-14 (mol/L)2 at 250C
Element H Li Be B C N O F Na Mg Al Si P
Atomic 1 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 11 12 13 14 15
number
Atomic 1 7 8 11 12 14 16 19 23 24 27 28 31
mass

S Cl K Ca Cr Mn Ni Cu Zn Br Ag I Xe
16 17 19 20 24 25 28 29 30 35 47 53 54

32 35.5 39 40 52 55 59 63.5 65 80 108 127 131

1. The correctly reported difference of 17.6732 and 7.19 will have a significant figures equal to
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
2. Which of the following is an example of extensive physical property?
A. Density B. melting point C. thickness D. color
3. The number of oxygen atoms in 0.5mol of deca hydrate sodium carbonate (Na2CO3.10H2O) is
A. 3.91 x 1024 C. 6.02 x 1023
B. 3.01 x 1023 D. 3.01 x 1024
4. Which of the following is incorrect about measurements?
A. Precision and accuracy are used to express uncertainties in measurements
B. Random error makes a measurement less precise in a variable directions
C. The person doing the measurement is one of the causes for uncertainty
D. The surface area of a coin can be determined by exact number
5. All of the following are measuring equipment in the laboratory. EXCEPT
A. Pipettes B. burettes C. iron stands D. balance
6. In a hydrogen atom the energy of an electron can be determined by the quantum number/s
A. n B. n, l C. n, l, ml D. n, l, ml, ms
7. According to Bohr’s atomic model
A. Electron in an atom of hydrogen can have only certain allowable energy levels
B. Electron has particle as well as wave character
C. Atomic spectrum of an element should contain only five lines
D. It was successful in accounting for the spectral lines of multi-electrons atoms
8. Which of the following cannot be used to define the electron configuration of an atom or ion?
A. Aufbau principle C. Hund’s rule
B. Heisenberg’s principle D. Pauli’s exclusion principle
9. The wave length of which series lie towards the ultraviolet?
A. Balmer B. Lyman C. Paschen D. Brackett

10. The threshold frequency of a metal is 1 x 1014s-1. The ratio of the maximum kinetic energies of the
 photoelectrons when the metal is irradiated with a radiation of frequencies 1.5 x 1014s-1and
2.0 x 1014 s-1 respectively would be
A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 1 C. 2 : 3 D. 3 : 2
11. Given periodic properties:
I. Ionization energy II. Atomic size III. Metallic character
Which of the following generally increase down a give group in the modern periodic
table?
A. I only B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II, III
12. Which of the following is true about isotopes of an element?
A. They have different valence electron configuration
B. They have same mass number
C. They have different neutron number
D. They have same atomic number
13. Thermodynamics, quantum chemistry, kinetics and electrochemistry are sub-branches of
A. Physical chemistry C. Inorganic chemistry
B. Organic chemistry D. Analytical chemistry
14. Which of the following is NOT true according to modern atomic theory?
A. Matter is composed of atoms.
B. Atoms of an element are unique and differ from other atoms of other elements in the number
of protons in the atom.
C. Chemical compounds are formed when atoms combine in whole-number ratios.
D. Atoms of the same element are indivisible and indestructible.
15. Which of the following electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelength?
A. Ultraviolet B. Infrared C. X-ray D. Microwave
16. Which of the following ion/atom has the highest number of unpaired electrons?
A. Mn B. Cr3+ C. Cu D. Fe2+

17. An oil drop experiment was used to determine

 A. Electron C. Charge of an electron
B. Proton D. mass of an electron
18. Which of the following ionic compound has the largest lattice energy?
A. MgF2 B. CaF2 C. NaF D. KF
+ -
19. When the species F2, F2 and F2 are arranged in increasing order of stability, we will have:
A. F2-, F2+, F2 C. F2+, F2-, F2
B. F2-, F2, F2+ D. F2+, F2, F2-
20. All of the following species have resonating structure. EXCEPT
A. SO2 B. NO-2 C. C6H6 D.BH3
21. Atoms take part in bond formation to
A. Attain a stable electronic configuration C. Increase their charge density
B. Increase their energy D. Neutralize their charge
22. Which of the following chemical bonds is formed between elements with greatest electro
negativity difference?
A. Covalent bond C. Polar covalent bond
B. Ionic bond D. coordinate covalent bond
23. Which of the following contains both covalent and ionic?
A. NH3 B. HCl C. SrSO4 D. KCl
24. Which of the following has the least dipole moment?
A. HCl B. NH3 C. H2O D. BF3
25. Which of the following has the smallest bond angle?
A. OF2 B. NF3 C. CF4 D. BeF2
26. Which of the following species is diamagnetic?
A. O2 B. CN- C. CO D. NO
27. How many sigma and pi (π) bonds are present in toluene (C6H5CH3)?
A. 3π and 8 sigma bonds C. 3 π and 10 sigma bonds
B. 3 π and 15 sigma bonds D. 6 π and 3 sigma bonds
28. Which of the following molecules would you expect to be non-planar?
A. BH3 B. CH3+ C. CH3- D. XeF4
-
29. The hybridization of aluminum in AlCl4 is
A. sp B. sp2 C. sp3 D. sp3d
30. Which of the following is NOT intermolecular force?
A. hydrogen bond C. ion-dipole force
B. dipole-dipole force D. coordinate covalent bond
31. In the reaction of nitrogen (II) oxide with hydrogen at 100 K.
2NO(g) + 2H2(g) → N2(g) + 2H2O(g).The rate of disappearance of NO is 5.0 x 10-5 mol. L-1.s-
,what is the rate of formation of N 2 in mol. L-1.s-?
A. 2.5 x 10-5 C. 1.0 x 10-4
B. 1.5 x 10-5 D. 5.0 x 10-5

32. All of the following increase the rate of the reaction. EXCEPT
 A. Raising the temperature C. Using inhibitors

B. Increasing the concentration of solution D. Increasing the pressure of gases

33. The decomposition of N2O into N2 and O in the presence of gaseous argon follows second order
kinetics with rate constant, k: k = (5.0x10 11 L. mol-1.s-1) e -29000K/T What is the activation energy?
(R= 8.314 J/mol.K)
A. -241 B. 241 C. -580 D. 580
34. The reaction 2NO (g) + Cl2(g) 2NOCl2(g) was studied at -10 C and the following data
0

were obtained.
Experiment [NO]0 [Cl2]0 Initial rate in M/s
1 0.010 0.020 0.18
2 0.010 0.040 0.35
3 0.020 0.040 1.45
The overall order of the reaction is

A. 3 B. 2 C. 2.5 D. 1.5

35. Given the energy diagram below, which letter represents heat of the reaction?

b
Energy

c
d
a

Reaction progress

A. a B. b C. c D. d
36. Consider the following reaction mechanism
N2O5 → NO2 + NO3..........................................................fast
N2O5 → NO + NO2 + O2................................slow
NO3 + NO → 2NO2..................................................................fast, the intermediate/s is/are
A. NO B. NO3 C. NO2 and O2 D. NO and NO3
37. For a zero order reaction, A → B, half-life, t ½, is proportional to
A. [A] B. [A]0 C. [A]-1 D. [A]½
38. The rate of which of the following reactions is independent on the concentration of reactant?
A. zero order reaction C. first order reaction
B. second order reaction D. third order reaction

39. A typical pathway for a chemical reaction that includes several simple steps is
A. elementary reaction C. activated complex
 B. reaction mechanism D. reaction mechanism
40. Which of the following statements is TRUE about reaction equilibrium?
A. No more reactants are transformed in to products.
B. There are equal amount of reactants and products.
C. The rate constant for the forward reaction equal to the reverse reaction.
D. The rate for the forward reaction equals that of the reverse reaction
41. Given the equations:

I. N2(g) + 3H2(g)↔ 2NH3(g), Kc = 3.6 × 108

II. N2O4(g)↔ 2NO2(g), Kc = 5 × 10–3

III. CO2(g) ↔ 2CO(g) + O2(g), Kc = 4.45 × 10–24

The tendency of the reactions in increasing order to proceed towards completion is

A. I < II < III C. III < II < I

B. II < I < III D. II < III < I

42. The Kc expression for the reaction, 2FeSO4(s) ↔ Fe2O3(s) + SO3(g)+ SO2(g) is
[FeSO4]2
A. [SO3][SO2] C.
[Fe2O3][SO3][SO2]

B. [Fe2O3][SO3][SO2] 1
[FeSO4]2 D.
[SO3] [SO2]
43. An important reaction in the commercial production of hydrogen is:

CO(g) + H2O(g) ↔ H2(g) + CO2(g) + heat. Which of the following conditions favors formation of
hydrogen gas?

A. Lowering pressure C. increasing temperature

B. Removing CO(g) D. adding H2O(g)

44. The degree of freedom and phases at the triple point of water respectively are

A. 1, 3 B. 0, 3 C. 0, 1 D. 1, 2

45. A sample of S8(g) is placed in an otherwise empty rigid container at 1325 K at an initial pressure of
1.00 atm, where it decomposes to S2(g) by the reaction: S8(g) ↔ 4S2(g). At equilibrium, the partial
pressure of S8 is 0.25 atm. What is the value of Kp for this reaction at 1325 K?

A. 81 B. 243 C. 324 D. 75

46. The ratio of Kc to Kp for the reaction: N2O4(g) ↔ 2NO2(g) is

A. 1 B. RT C. (RT)-1 D. 2

47. Which of the following is the best description of the reaction between C3H7OH and HCOOH?
A. esterification B. hydrolysis C. oxidation D. elimination

48. Which of these organic compounds bubbles when magnesium is added?

A. CH3CHO B. HCOOH C. CH3COCH3 D. HCHO

49. Which of the following compounds would react with the product of its own oxidation product to
form a sweet smelling liquid?

A. propanal B. propanone C. propan-1-ol D. propan-2-ol

50. The IUPAC name of the following organic compound is

A. Isopentyl acetate C. Ethyl isopentanoate

B. Isopentyl ethanoate D. Ethyl isovalerate
51. What happens when an ester is treated with lithium aluminum hydride, LiAlH4?

A. One unit of alcohol and one unit of acid are formed

B. Two units of alcohol are formed

C. Two units of carboxylic acid are formed

D. No reaction occurs

52. Which of the following organic compounds has ketone functional group?

A. CH3COOH C. CH3OOCH

B. CH3CH2CHO D. CH3COCH3

53. Which of the following carboxylic acid is the most soluble in water?

A. CH3COOH C. HOOCCOOH

B. CH3CH2COOH D. HOOCCH2COOH

54. Which of the following is NOT true about fats and oils? They are

A. salts of fatty acids C. triglycerides

B. triacylglycerols D. triesters

55. Oxidation of ethyl benzene with potassium permanganate yields

A. benzoic acid C. phenyl ethanoic acid

B. dibenzoic acid D. methyl benzoic acid

56. Dental amalgam is an example of

A. solid-solid solution C. solid- liquid solution

B. liquid-solid solution D. liquid-liquid solution

57. Which of the following solute-solvent attraction force is responsible for the solubility of bromine in
tetrachloro methane?

A. hydrogen bond C. dipole-dipole force

B. ion-dipole force D. London force

58. The heat of solution of silver nitrate is positive. At which of the following temperature, AgNO 3 is
the least soluble?

A. 50C B. 100C C. 200C D. 250C

59. The molality of 10% by mass aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide, NaOH is

A. 4.0m B. 2.8m C. 1.8m D. 3.0m

60. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapor pressure of a solution of non-volatile
solute is

A. equal to mole fraction of solute

B. equal to mole fraction of solvent

C. directly proportional to mole fraction of solute

D. directly proportional to mole fraction of solute and solvent

61. The freezing point of 1m aqueous solution of NaCl is expected to be close to

A. -0.50C B. -1.00C C. 1.00C D. 0.50C

62. How many milliliters of 18.0M H2SO4 would be required to react with 100ml of 2.5M Al(OH)3?

3H2SO4(aq) + 2Al(OH)3(s) → Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 6H2O(l)

A. 35ml B. 42ml C. 53ml D. 21ml

63. Which aqueous solution has the highest boiling point? 0.50m of

A. KCl B. CaCl2 C. Al2(SO4)3 D. CH3CH2OH

64. A solution which has a capacity to dissolve more solute at a given condition is

A. saturated B. unsaturated C. supersaturated D. concentrated

65. Which of the following compounds has the least vapor pressure?

A. H2O(l) B. C6H6(l) C. CH3OH(l) D. C2H5OH(l)

66. Which of the following substances are NOT readily miscible within each other?

A. C6H6 and H2O C. C2H5OH and CH3OH

B. C7H8 and CCl4 D. I2 and C6H14

67. During dilution

A. volume of the solution is unchanged C. amount of the solute is unchanged

B. concentration of the solution is unchanged D. amount of the solvent is unchanged

68. Bronsted-Lowery base is

A. proton donor C. electron pair donor

B. proton acceptor D. electron pair acceptor

69. Which of the following are conjugate-acid base pairs?

A. H2SO4 and SO 42- C. H2PO4- and HPO42-

B. CO2 and HCO3- D. NH4+ and NH2-

70. What is the concentration of hydroxide ion in a solution in which [H3O+] = 100[OH-]?

A. 1.0 x 10-12 C. 1.0 x 10-6

B. 1.0 x 10-16 D. 1.0 x 10-8

71. Give weak acids and their pKa values at 250C.

Acid pKa
HCOOH 3.77
HCN 9.31
HOCl 7.52
HF 3.17
The strongest acid is

A. HCOOH B. HCN C. HOCl D. HF

72. You are given a weak base B and its PH is found to be 10.0. You then added to the solution a small
amount of a salt containing the conjugate acid BH+. Which of the following statement will be true?

A. PH and POH increase C. PH and POH decrease

B. PH decreases and POH increases D. PH increases and POH decreases

73. Which of the following combinations does NOT form a buffer solution?

A. N2H4/N2H5Cl C. NH3/HCl in 2:1 mole ratio

B. HCOOH/HCOOK D. HF/KOH in 1:2 mole ratio

74. Which of the following gives PH > 7 when dissolved in water?

A. Na2S B. KNO3 C. CuSO4 D. NH4NO3

75. The POH of 0.10M a weak base, BOH is 3.0. What is the value of the ionization constant of the
base?

A. 1.0 x 10-7 B. 1.0 x 10-3 C. 1.0 x 10-5 D. 1.0 x 10-2

76. For which of the following titration, PH = pKa at the half neutralization?

A. strong acid-strong base titration C. strong acid-weak base titration

B. weak acid-strong base titration D. weak acid-weak base titration

77. Which of the following is NOT amphiprotic species?

A. HC2O4- B. HSO3- C. HS- D. SO42-

78. The total energy contained within a system is

A. heat B. internal energy C. free energy D. work

79. What is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 100g of water from 200C to 700C?

(Specific heat capacity of water=4.2J.g-1.K-1)

A. 21.0KJ B. 42.0KJ C. 2.10KJ D. 4.20KJ