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PMI PMP Exam Example Questions


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PMI PMP Exam Example Questions
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A customer is not satisfied with the delivered product. The PM is surprised because the agile
development team delivered the product several iterations earlier. What is one way that the PM
could have avoided this? A. Required team sign off for each of the constant changes to
requirements. B. Set aside more resources for product testing after changers are made. C. Made
sure the customer was aware of the value of demos. D. Ensured the team fully participated in
developing the project scope.

Answer: C Reason: The customer was not engaged enough


earlier in project. The iteration review is the best mechanism
for the team to demonstrate the product and for the customer
to give feedback on expectations.
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Exam prep questions for the PMP
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A customer is not satisfied with the delivered product. The PM is surprised because the agile
development team delivered the product several iterations earlier. What is one way that the
PM could have avoided this? A. Required team sign off for each of the constant changes to
requirements. B. Set aside more resources for product testing after changers are made. C.
Made sure the customer was aware of the value of demos. D. Ensured the team fully
participated in developing the project scope.
Answer: C Reason: The customer was not engaged enough earlier in project. The iteration
review is the best mechanism for the team to demonstrate the product and for the customer
to give feedback on expectations.
A product owner repeatedly complains, saying that a function developed by the development
team does not seem to align with the original design. What will help to solve the issue? A.
Ask the product owner to sit in on the next sprint review meeting to learn more abot the
development status for the product B. Ask the QA team to identify mismatches in
functionality compared to the initial design C. Ask the development team to rewrite the
function so that it matches with the project scope D. Invite the project owner to the next
sprint review to discuss their concerns
Answer: D Reason: We need to let the product owner voice their issues. Everything else is
an indirect response.
"After determining that a change is needed, a project manager takes the following steps: 1.
Issues formal change request 2. Communicates the change to all stakeholders. The PM
discovers the communications approach did not satisfy stakeholders' expectations. What
should the PM do next? A. Utilize the communications management and stakeholder
engagement plans B. Include stakeholders' expectations in the project management plan C.
Communicate frequently with the project sponsor to track shareholders' expectations D.
Review the communications management plan and release a status report"
Answer: A Reason: The communications management and stakeholder engagement plan
should be predictable, establish how communication will be managed and keep stakeholders
engaged throughout.
Consider the following budget: Total budget = $3 million Planned Cost = $630,000 Actual
Cost (AC) = $650,000 Earned Value (EV) = $540,000 Is the project ahead or behind
schedule? Over or under budget?
Answer: The project is over budget and behind schedule. Reason: CPI = EV/AC =
540,000/650,000 = .83. SPI = EV/PV = 540,000/630,000 = .86. CPI < 1 = over budget SPI <
1 = behind schedule
Consider the following information for a new project: assumptions, preliminary scope,
restrictions. After receiving this information, what should the project manager do first? A.
Determine the project goals and business case B. Choose the project team and assign them
tasks C. Select the project schedule and define critical path D. Get approval for the project
management plan
Answer: A. Determine the project goals and business case. Reason: before any other tasks
can be done, including the project charter, the PM must understand the goals and business
case of the project.
During a technical agile project, a well-liked project member is reassigned to a different
project. The team has expressed disapproval regarding the reassignment. What action can
help mitigate the team's disapproval? A. Notify the project sponsor regarding the team's
disapproval. Brainstorm a response. B. Employ leadership and emotional intelligence tools
and techniques to inspure the team to continue working. C. Add a resource with the same
skills to replace the key team member. D. Notify the change control board (CCB) and
discuss possible ways to resolve the issue.
Answer: B Reason: The PM should support the team as a servant leader and help them to
stay motivated and productive. Never go to the sponsor for a response, focus on the team,
and don't kick the can up the road.
Imagine a project with the following characteristics: deadlines are tight, global teams works
virtually, fixed budget. What should the PM do during the planning phase to avoid scope
creep and keep the team focusing on meeting requirements? A. Go through formal approval
processes for all scope changes B. Run daily stand-ups with all development teams C.
Direct the development team leads to create detailed documentation D. Ensure that
stakeholders are kept separate from dev team leads
Answer: A. Go through formal approval processes Reason: following the formal approval
process controls for unnecessary project changes is the best option for fixed budget and
virtual teams
Match the risk response with its description: 1. Team decides to install Anti-virus on all
computers 2. Team decided that due to its low impact, they will take no action 3. Team
decided to hire an outisde consultant to install the software Answers: transfer, mitigate,
accept
1 = Mitigate 2 = Accept 3 = Transfer
You have just been informed that there are potential health risks for customers from an
element of a new product line. The sponsor wants to change the materials because of this.
How should the PM handle the situation? A. Consult the Perform Integrated Change Control
Process to investigate the situation B. Quickly make the change and send a change request
C. Stop all production and begin the Perform Integrated Change Control Process D. Deny
the request because it is outside the scope
Answer: A Reason: ALWAYS investive an issue before acting. The health risks are
POTENTIAL at this stage. Also, "deny" is never in a right answer and never stop all
production for potential.
Your project is behind schedule, with only 80% complete of an expected 95%. The total
project budget is $140,000 and the actual cost of (AC) is $95,000. What is the schedule
performance index (SPI) and the cost performance index (CPI) of the project?
SPI = 0.84 CPI = 1.17 Reason: Earned Value (EV) = Actual percentage BAC = 0.8 $140,000
= $112,000 Planned Value (PV) = Plan percentage BAC = 0.95 $140,000 = $133,000 SPI =
EV/PV = 112,000/133,000 = 0.84 CPI = EV/AC = 112,000/95,000 = 1.17
A PM has put together a project team on an agile project. During initial meetings, the PM
observes that the team members are getting to know each other, feeling excited and positive
about the project, and have not been told the specific details of the project. In what phase of
development is the team?
Forming.
While reviewing the issues log, the PM notices that the tasks assigned to two team members
are quite a bit behind schedule on an agile project. What should the PM do? A. Notify the
responsible team members of the need to complete the overdue tasks quickly in order to
avoid introducing extra project risks B. Document the issue, escalate to the project sponsor,
and ask for how they would like it resolved. C. Tell the team members who are behind that
they should explain why tasks were delayed and how they will get back on schedule. D.
Work with the relevant team members to review the delayed tasks and decide on strategies
for resolution.
D
A PM overhears a conversation in the company's cafeteria. The speaker says that a possible
union action will occur in the next two weeks. The PM knows that any union action will affect
the project team, and at this stage of the project, any project delays will cause substantial
harm to both budget and schedule. Earlier, the possibility of a union action was considered
minimal. What should the PM do? A. Inform relevant stakeholders and update the risk
register with the new risk B. Disregard the possible since it may not happen C. Set up and
information session for th eproject team, letting them know of possible disciplinary sanctions
for those who participate in the union action D. Meet with union members and the union
leaders to resolve this conflict
A. Reasons: B is wrong because disregarding is always wrong. C. is wrong because
threatening people is always wrong. D is wrong because these are just RUMORS. A is best
because this is just a risk at the moment, not an issue.
Which action should a PM take to mitigate a schedule delay on a project with a 21% buffer
for cost overruns caused by the current software vendor? A. Access other software vendors
that may contribute to project deliverables B. Replace the current vendor and request a
contract from the new vendor C. Have the vendor meet to discuss legal issues D. Tolerate
the cost overrun and revise the project schedule
A. Reasons: Further assessment is needed before any action can be taken. Replacement,
legal threats, or revising the project schedule are all direct actions and we don't have enough
information.
"A PM is putting together a team that includes resources from multiple time zones. Applying
for visas has taken longer than expected. What should the PM do? A. Motivate the team to
work longer hours B. Make a change request regarding the project scope C. Postpone the
project until the visas are under control D. Suggest virtual work for the appropriate
resources"
Answer: D.
After a change request was approved, you notice that the change contradicts the original
requirements of the projects. Data specialists conducted an analysis before the change
request was approved. What should the PM do? A. Enact the change immediately B. Reject
the change request C. Thoroughly review the data analysis D. Run a feasibility study of the
new product
A. Reasons: The change has been approved and the analysis was completed. The next step
is enacting the change. Changes can and should contradict the original requirements, that's
what changes are.
Your project is behind schedule, with only 55% complete of an expected 70%. The total
project budge is $210,000, and the actual cost is $162,000. What is the scheduled
performance index and the cost performance index?
SPI = 0.79 CPI = 0.71. EV = Actual% BAC = .55 $210,000 = $115,500. PV = Plan% BAC
= .77 210,000 = $147,000. SPI = EV/PV = 115,000/147,000 = .79. CPI = EV/AC =
115,500/162,000 = .71
While working on a software development proect, a PM has to deal with two customers who
constantely submit requests for more features. The PM has already completed the scope
definition for the next version and provided it to stakeholders. What should the PM do? A. Try
to convince the PM to descrease the number of requests. B. Consult with the sponsor to talk
about project boundaries C. Focus on setting expectations for stakeholders D. Review the
scope management plan and iterate it during the scope definition process
D. The scope management plan is the tool for this type of situation. NEVER talk to sponsors,
and the other actions don't solve the problem.
Match the MBTI Terms to their meaning: Sensing, Extraversion, Thinking 1. Tend to Work out
ideas with others 2. Pay Attention to concrete facts and details 3. Enjoy finding the flaws in
an argument
1. Extraversion 2. Sensing 3. Thinking
While working on an agile project, a team member has informed the PM of potential personal
issues that could lead to him being out ofr the next six weeks. This might cause a delay in
the work. What should the PM do first in this situation? A. Ask the team member to stay B.
Meet with the other team members and inform them of this potential issue C. Inform the
project sponsor right away D. Start looking for a 6-week replacement
B. The first step will be to update the team members before taking any action. This is a
risk/threat, not an issue yet.
During a hybrid project a client requests that a new product feature be added. This feature
will add to the scope and cost. What should the PM do first in this situation to determine who
can approve his request? A. Review change log B. Review change management plan C.
Review Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) matrix D. Review the change
request document
B. Change log is just a document for tracking changes. RACI is more about team members.
Change request document is details changes, not approval.
On an agile project, a few of the customers informe the team of a feature that was missing a
critical function. This has led to the component being redone. What should the team do to
prevent this from occurring again? A. Have them prioritize the product backlog B. Have them
define the definition of done C. Invite them to the sprint planning meeting D. Inform them the
critical function was not needed
B. The key problem here is user stories, deliverables, and a lack of a definition of done. If
customers and team understand the definition of done before a build, this will be avoided.
You've been assigned to a new project but it is quickly terminated during the initiation phase
due to a lack of funds. Now you have to close the project. What is the first action you should
take? A. Inform all stakeholders that they must follow the communications management plan
B. Follow the organization's project closure guidelines C. Assess the possible impace of end
the project with a risk analysis D. End all procurement processes for the project
B. The project is terminated, this is all you can do. Formally shutting down the project is
important.
A project has the following characteristics: A new project stakeholder has been IDed. The
new stakeholder is not actively participating and needs to be further engaged. What should
PM do? A. Review and update the stakeholder engagement planB. Inform the new
stakeholder of both the project schedule and the specific assigned tasks C. Ask the
functional manager to send this new stakeholder to all relevant meetings D. Have the new
stakeholder partner with a more experienced stakeholder as a mentor
A. The stakeholder engagement plan is updated as necessary to reflect changes in the
stakeholder community. All other options are actions which are taken without assessment.
ON an agile project, the team is having issues creating a feature. It has bee over a week and
no progress has been made on the sprint. What should the project manager do in this
situation? A. Schedule a meeting with an outside consultant to help the team B. Ask the
product owner if the feature can be removed from the project C. Schedule a meeting with the
team to brainstorme a solution D. Ask the sponsor if you can add more members during the
sprint
C. Directly addressing the team and understanding the issue is key here. Facilitate the team
solving their own problems.
During an agile project, the product owner and team member are having an argument with
each other. You realized this because the team member is not happy with the order of work.
What should the PM do? A. Schedule a face to face meeting with team member and product
owner B. Remove the team member from the project due to this conflict C. Inform the
organization management of this issue D. Inform the product owner the team member is
correct
A. Face to face communication is preferred in Agile and this is the most direct, self-sufficient
solution
After reviewing the work performance data you have requested a change from the change
control board. What could have led to this change? (Choose 2) A. SPI = 1.2 B. CPI = .8 C.
SPI = 1 D. CPI = 1.5 E. SPI = .5
B and E. SPI and CPI should always be >= 1. Anything below 1 signals an issue.
Order the communications methods from best to worst: Face to face, Phone, Email, Face to
face with whiteboard
1. Face-to-face with whiteboard 2. Face-to-face 3. Phone conversation 4. Email conversation
A PM has noticed that during meeting team members are having major difficulty
communication. This has led to shouting matches and bad language being used. Wha
should the PM do right away to resolve this? A. Communication management plan B.
Stakeholder management plan C. Team charter D. Issue log
C. Team Charter. Team charter is created by the project team with help of PM to outline team
communications. This includes acceptable and unacceptable behaviors.
Your company plans to introduce a new product to their development process. The PM has
determined that the component work packages have been defined and constraints for each
component have been selected. Which estimating technique should the PM use to acquire a
precise cost estime of the project? A. Analagous B. Three point C. Bottom-up D. Paramtetric
C. Bottom Up. Because the work packages are well defined, bottom-up will be the most
accurate prediction tool.
You are in the executing phase of a hybrid project. For several weeks during the project, one
of the team members just informed you he needs to be out on emergency for the next 2
weeks. What should the manager do first in this case? A. Update the issue log. B. Ask the
finance department for additional resources to make up for the stakeholder's absense. C.
Prepare a meeting with the sponsor to assess the situation and determine solutions. D.
Ignore the risk and accept the impact it may have on project schedule
A. Because this is a known issue, updating the issue log first and foremost is the best first
action. Other actions cannot be taken until this issue is captured in the issue log and
communicated to stakeholders. (NOTE: never go to sponsors for solutions/help)
Deliverables on the critical path are lagging behind schedule, so the critical path for an IT
project is behind schedule. With a CPI of 1.3, the PM gets the project back on schedule by
adding new resources. What happens to the project? A. Activities will be done in parallel. B.
Scope will be revised. C. Costs and risks will increase. D. Rework is likely to be necessary
C. Adding new resources is considered crashing. Crashing always increases the costs and
generally increases the risk.
An agile project has stakeholders in many countries. The PM is informed by one of the team
members that they were approached by a senior manager for project info. What should the
PM do next? A. Consult the stakeholder register. B. Consult the project management
information system (PMIS) C. Personally invite the senior manager to the next team meeting
D. Review the communications management plan
D. Communications management plans are created to ensure that correct messages are
communicated to stakeholders in the correct was as defined by the communication strategy.
After 7 months, a project has a CPI of .80 and it's trending down. What should the PM do
next in this case? A. Issue a change request for cost re-baseling. B. Issue a change request
for additional resources. C. Crash the project schedule. D. Use the management reserve
A. CPI of .80 is already over budget and trending down. The baseline is badly off the mark
and in need of correction.
The customer informs the PM on a new projec that the requirements may change. These
changes were not expected, and may seriously change potential sales numbers and project
scope. What should the PM do? A. Assess these risk response and update the risk register
B. Utilize forecasting. C. Update the risk mitigation plan and use the contingency reserve D.
Use earned value management (EVM)
A. "May change" signals a new risk. Assessing the new risks and updating the risk register is
the best first step.
During the execution phase, the PM must assign resources to build the team and handle
request for a quick turnaround time. What should the PM do next in this case? A. Create
library services B. Run workshops C. Provide training for the new team D. Run a webinar
C. The next step after selecting a team or bringing in a new team member is to train that
team/new member.
A few of the key stakeholders on a project are unhappy with the current delivery schedule.
They claim the agile method being used is not efficient enough. What should PM do first? A.
Change the agile method to predictive method B. Meet with the team to understand wht they
delivery schedule is being delayed C. Meet with the key stakeholders to understand why
they feel this way D. Inform the key stakeholders that this is the best way to deliver a product
C. Meeting with and understanding stakeholder concerns is the most important step here
before taking any actions
Match the risk response with its description: 1. Method that's used to eliminate the risk
entirely. 2. Given to a third party or vendors 3. Increase the effect of probability and/or impact
on the project. Share, Enhance, Avoid
1. Avoid 2. Share 3. Enhance
Two PMs have just realized that they are in a weak matrix organization and that the power
as PMs is quite limited. One figures out that he is really a project expediter, and the other
realizes she is really a project coordinator. How is a project expeditor different from a project
coordinator? A. The PE cannot make decisions. B. The PE can make more decisions C. The
PE reports to a higher-level manager D. The PE has some authority
A. The coordinator reports to a higher-level manager and has some authority.
A framework for keeping an organization focused on its overall strategy is: A. Organization
project management B. the PMBOK guide C. Project governance D. Portfolio management
A. OPM provides a framework and direction for how projects, programs, portfolios meets the
organization's goals.
A project manager's primary resonsibility is to deliver the product of the project within project
constraints. Actions taken and changes made to the benefit of one constraint could
negatively affect another. Which of the following describes the major constraints on a
project? A. Scope, number of resources, cost B. Scope, cost, schedule C. Scope, cost
schedule, quality, risk, resources, customer satisfaction, D. Schedule, cost, number of
changes
C
A PM Is managing his second project. It started one month after the first one did, and both
projects are still in progress. Though his first project is small, the new project seems to be
quickly growing in size. As each day passes, the PM is feeling more and more in need of
help. The PM has recenly heard there was another project last year that was similar to his
second project. What should he do? A. Contact the PM for the other project and ask for
assistance B. Obtain historical records and guidance from the PMO C. Wait to see if the
project in impact by the growth in scope D. Make sure the scope of the project is agreed to
by all stakeholders
B. This is the most direct and efficient choice. Asking PM might work, but he does not know
whether that option is viable.
Who completes and captures lessons learned? A. The PM B. the team, C. the sponsor, D.
the stakeholders?
D. This is the best option as all of the other options are critical for collecting all the lessons
learned in a project
7 The high level project schedule constraints have just been determined. What PM process
group are you in? A. initiating B. planning C. executing D. monitoring and controlling?
A. This is defined in the project charter during initiating phase
8 The WBS and WBS dictionary have been completed, and the project team has begun
working on identifying risks. The sponsor contacts the PM requesting that the responsibility
assignment matrix be issued. The project has a $100,000 budget and is taking plact in 3
countries with 14 human resources. There is little risk expected, and the PM has managed
many project simiar to this one. What is the next thing to d? A. Understand the experience of
this sponsor on similar projects B. Create an activity list C. Make sure the project scope is
defined D. Complete risk management and issue the responsibility assignment matrix
B. This is all about understanding order of operations. Activity list comes next after WBS and
WBS Dictionary.
11 Why does the agile approach plan the work continuously throughout the plan? A. Agile
methods break down the work into small chucks so the team can comlete one iteration at a
time. B. An agile product owner can't know what they really need until they see a prototype
in action C. Agile teams are asked to prioritize tasks that deliver value, rather than spending
their time planing D. Agile projects are subject to uncertainty and high rates of change that
make upfront planning inefficient
D. inherent uncertainty and the welcoming of change necessitates frequent planning and
iterative work
18 Which statement about process groups is accurate? A. Both process groups and domains
recommend the best practices that should be followed on all projects. B. Since the process
groups lack a definitive framewokr, they allow for more flexibility in the development
approach C. Compared to the process groups, the tasks involved in the domains are more
open to interpretation and the PM's judgement D. The process groups and domains provide
a different view of the project depending on the development approach being used
C.
22 During which process group does the team measure and analzye the work being done on
the project? A. Initiating B. Executing. C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Closing
C. Honestly not sure how I missed this question
1 You are planning comms on a new service development project. Your stakeholder list is
large but not complicated. Not all stakeholders will understand the need for developing an
actual comms plan, and you already have good relationships with most stakeholders on the
project. What is one of the major driving forces for comms on a project? A. Optimization B.
Integrity C. Integration D. Differentiation
C. the PM is an integrator at the heart of it
3 Your well-planned project is likely to encounter a number of change requests and approved
changes during life cycle. In the change management plan, you have outlined the processes
that you and others will use to understand the impacts of changes. Getting stakeholder
accpetance of the decisions related to change on this project is critical, as a failed project
could impact shareholder value and the earning projections for the organization. Your
attention is best focused on which of the following regarding changes on your project? A.
Making changes B. Tracking and recording changes C. Informing the sponsor of changes D.
Preventing unnecessary changes
D. PMs should be proactive. This is the only proactive choice to prevent unnecessary
change
4 The customer on a project tells the PM they have run out of money to pay for the project.
What should the PM do first. A. Shift more of the work to later in the schedule to allow time
for the customer to get the funds B. Close project or phase C. Stop work D. Release part of
the project team
B. Project closure is an important part of any process and there are no other good choices
6 A work authorization system can be used to A. manage who does each activity B. manage
when and in what sequence work is done C. manage when each activity is done D. manage
who does each activity and when it is done
B. A describes the responsibility assignment matrix. C describes the project schedule.
13 Which of the following best describes a project management plan? A. a printout from
project management software B. A bar chart C. Scope, risk, resource, and other
management plans D. the project scope
C. The project management plan includes all management plans for the project.
15 You have taken over a project during project planning and have discovered that six
individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the folowing should most concern you?
A. who will be a member of the CCB B. Spending more time on configuration management
C. Getting a single project sponsor D. determining the reporting structure
B. Six sponsors is fine, managing them and communications requirements may be more
complex
16 To manage risk for an agile project, which of the following would you be least likely to
need? Risk burndown chart B. Risk-adjusted bakclog C. Risk management plan D. Risk-
based spike
C. The other choices here are all great ways of managing risk in agile.
17 The PM is owrking to clearly describe the level of involvement expected from everyone
on the project in order to prevent rework, conflict, and coordination problems. Which of the
following best describes the PMs efforts? A. Develop project management plan and plan
quality management B. Manage stakeholder engagement and direct and manage project
work C. Validate scope and control quality D. identify risks and develop project team
A. Notice that this describes something in the planning stage. This sounds like project
planning
24 Which of the following represents striaght-line depreciation? A. 100, 100, 100 B. 100,
120, 140 C. 100, 120, 160 D. 160, 140, 120
A.Straight line deprecitaion uses the same amount each time period
25 For an agile project, changes are an important part of the process, allowing the product
owner to maximing value delivery. As the manager of an agile project, how should you
approach managing changes. A. Changes should be addressed as low as possible on the
cost of change curve B. To avoid delays and cost overruns, only changes that add
measurable value should be approved C. Agile tools and methods should be used to reduce
the number of changes needed and their disruptive impact D. There is no different in the
basis for managing changes on agile projects compared to predictive
A. Low on the change curve means change is welcomed for present and future work, but
increment rework or other "fixes" are never a good sign.
26 The client demands changes to the product specification that will add only two weeks to
the critical path. Which of the following is the best thing for the PM to do? A. Compress the
schedule to recover the two weeks B. Cut scope to recover the two weeks C. Consult with
the sponsor about options D. Advise the client of the impact of the change
C. this is part of the mindset. Evaluation and information gathering before acting
32 You are managing an agile project with a high level of requirements uncertainty. What is
the best way to manage changes throughout the project to ensure the project goals are met?
A. Ask the dev team to create a change management plan before work begins B. Delegate
authority to the team and the product owner to manage changes as they arise C. Prepare a
comprehensive change management plan and manage the plan D. Ask the product owner to
refer all substantive changes to the change management team
B. This is part of the agile methodolgy for change management and empowering the team
33 When should the lessons learned register be updated? A. At the end of each project
phase B. Throughout the project C. Weekly D. At the end of the project
B. Lessons learned register is a "living document" that requires frequent updates
3 The WBS can be best though of an effective aid for _______ communications. A. team B.
project manager C. customer D. stakeholder
D. WBS encompasses all choices, which are accurate and referred to collectively as
stakeholders
8 The program was planned years ago, before there was a massive introduction of new tech.
While planning the next project in this program, the PM has expanded the scope
management plan because as a proect becomes more complex, the level of uncertainty in
the scope: A. remains the same B. decreases C. decreases then increases D. increases
D. Added complexity = added uncertainty
10 To manage a project effectively, work should be broken down into small pieces. Which of
the following does NOT describe how far to decompose the work? A. until it has a
meaningful conclusion B. until it cannot be logically subdivided further C. until it can be done
by one person D. until it can be reasonably estimated
C. Work packages in the WBS can be completed by more than one person. The other
answers are correct
19 Which of the following is an output of the collect requirements process? A. requirements
tracibility matrix B. project scope statement C. WBS D. change requests
A.
23 A highway renewal project you are manageing appears to have some missing scope.
Your understanding of the scope was that the higheway was to be resurfaced. Now, one of
the construction foremen has coe to ask why he finds no mention of repainting the lines on
the repaved road. He also wants to know if there are any guard rail replacement work
packages in the pojrect. you have seen some of the resurfaced road that is completed, with
the new lines painted on them. Which of the following is most likely to have caused the
misinterpretation of the project scope statement? A. Imprecise language B. Poor pattern
structure, and chronological order C. Variations in size of work packages or detail of work D.
too much detail
A. Project scope statements must be exact, precise, and accurate
27 Being prepared to do a complete job of developing and finalizing the scope baseline
requires that you have done a thorough and timely job of Iding and analyzing stakeholder,
and of collecting requirements. The development of the scope baseline can best be
described as involving A. the functional managers B. the project team C. all the stakeholders
D. the business analyst
B. The project team is responsible for developing the scope baseline after getting input from
key stakeholders.
28 CPI is 1.13 and benfit/cost ratio is 1.2 The project scope was created by the team and
stakeholder. Requirements have been changing throughout the project. No matter what the
PM has tried to accomplish in managing the project, which of the following is she most likely
to face in the future? A. having to cut costs on the project and increase benefits B. making
sure the customer has approved the project scope C. not being able to measure completion
of the product or the project D. having to add resources to the project
C. Customers may approve product scope, but they do not approve project scope. The other
options make no sense
4 A heuristic is best described as a: A. control board B. scheduling method C. Planning tool
D. generally accepted rule
D
6 A PM new to the compnay has 10 years of PM experience. She is given a medium sized
project and is asked to plan so it is finished as quickly as possible because the copany has a
large list of projects to complete in the coming year. She will be given another project to
manage as soon as she has this one baselined. She needs to report on the longest time the
project will take. Which of the following is the best project management tool to determine
this? A. WBS B. Network diagram C. Bar chart D. Project Charter
B. Network diagrams like critical path methods are best here
7 Which of the following is correct? A. the critical path helps prove how long the project will
take B. there can only be one critical path C. the network diagram will change every time the
end date changes D. a project can never have a negative float
A.
10 Which of the following best describes the relationship between standard deviation and
risk? A. There is no relationship B. Reporting to team members C. Reporting to management
D. Risk Analysis
D. Standard deviation tells you the amount of uncertainty or risk involved in the estiate for
the activity
18 Your new agile project is faced with a challenging deadline and an anxious customer. He
hears the team has spent "two whole days" doing t-shirt sizing of the product features, and
yet they still haven't produced a viable schedule model! He calls you into his office to explain
how this is justified, given the limited time available. What do you say? A. Agile devs don't
plan when the work will be finished B. Agile teams need to develop quick, coarse-grained
estimates to do jut enough planning to get the work started C. The agile approach means
doing as little planning as possible so the team can focus on delivering value D. The is still
too much uncertainty about the product features to develop a schedule model yet
B.
20 You are a PM on a $5 million dev project. While working with your project team to develop
a network diagram, you notice a series of activites that can be worked in parallel but must
finish in a specific sequence. What type of activity sequencing method is required for these
activites? A. Precedence diagramming method B. Arrow diagramming method C. Critical
path method D. Operational diagramming method
A. This is a finish-to-finish scenario, which is why precedence diagramming is most
appropriate
25 A PM has received activity duration estimates from his team. Which of the following does
he need in order to complete the Develop Schedule process. A. Earned Value analysis B.
Schedule change control system C. Trend analysis D. Reserves
D. All other items are parts of Control Schedule and occur after the develop schedule
process.
29 On the two-year agile project you are managing, the team's velocity for the first eight
sprints is 43, 24, 47, 35, 24, 34, 30, and 32. Should you be worried about the results. A. No;
this looks fairly typical B. No; velocity is used to track effort, not evaluate performance C.
Yes; velocity has been unusually low past four sprints D. Yes; the team needs to stabilize
their velocity
A. The variability in the first few sprints settles down. Greater variance in beginning sprints is
normal as long as it levels out.
31 The WBS, estimates for each work package, and the network diagram are completed.
The next thing for the PM to do is: A. Sequence the activities B. Validate that they have the
correct scope C. Create a prelimiary schedule and get the team's approval D. Complete risk
management
C
35 In managing your first agile project, you are trying to decide how to best keep the sponsor
and other key stakeholders updated about the team's progress. You want to use one or more
of the agile tools that your team is already maintaining for their own use, rather than asking
the team to create any additional status reports or projet documentation. Which agile tool(s)
should you use for this purpose? A. The project roadmap and story maps B. The task board
with WIP limits C. The velocity burndown matrix D. The cumulative flow diagram
D. There is no such thing as a velocity burndown and the other two metrics don't track
progress over time
3 If earned value (EV) = 350, actual cost (AC) = 400, and planned value (PV) = 325, what is
the cost variance? A. 350 B. -75 C. 400 D. -50
D. CV = EV = AC. Therefore 350 - 400 = -50
5 You've recently been assigned to manage a marketing project to brand a sustainable
development program. Even though you are just starting your effots, the sponsors are
concerened about the likelihood of reaching planned milestones during the project. They are
wondering how you will go about estimating. A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques B. Is
used most frequently during project executing C. Uses top-down estimating techniques D.
Calculates estimates using actual detailed historial costs
C. Analagous estimating is common here and it is a top-down estimating techniques.
6 Managemtn has asked you to update the projected cost of running your agile team through
the end of the project based on the latest project data. What information will you need from
the team to update this estimate? A. Resource management plan B. Release plan C.
Burndown graph D. Product backlog
C. Burndown tracks team velocity over time and it is the best option for giving an estimate
12 A rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate is made during which project management
process group? A. Planning B. Closing C. Executing D. Initiating
D. This estimate has a wide range and is done during project initiating.
14 Project setup costs are an example of: A. Variable costs B. fixed costs C. overhead costs
D. opportunity costs
B. Setup costs do not change and are therefore fixed costs
15 The quality efforts on the project have gone through some changes during the first four
months of project work. Two processes in particular have undergone extensive change. The
customer is happy with the work to date, but has heard that the competition is working on a
similar product. The team has been asked to analyze and create options for the customer.
Value analysis is performed to get: A. MOre value from the cost analysis B. Management to
buy into the project C. The team to buy into the project D. A less costly way of doing the
same work
D. Value analysis seeks to decrease cost while maintaing same scope
17 Which is estimating method tends to be most costly for creating a project cost estimate?
A. Bottom-up B. Analagous C. Parametric D. 50/50
A. Bottom-up estimating requires greater effort due to the information required
19 The team's velocity for the first eight two-week sprints of your 46-week hybrid project are
30, 60, 57, 44, 33, 48, 41, and 49. Should you be concerned about how these results will
impact the cost of the project? What should you do about this? A. Yes, there is too much
variation for reliable cost projections. B. Possibly. Compare velocite rates to the team's
original estimates C. No. Team velociaty has no impact on the cost of a project. D. Probably.
But before taking action, convene a meeting and ask the team members what is happening
B. Velocity does impact project cost as it determine project duration/schedule. However, we
don't have enough information to determine whether these particular velocities are an issue.
We don't have the team's estimated velocity to compare against.
20 Which of the following are all items included in the cost management plan. A. The level of
accuracy needed for estimates, rules for measuring cost performance, and specs for how
duration estimate should e stated B. Specs for how estimates should be stated, rules for
measuring cost performance, and the level of accuracy needed for estimates, C. Rules for
measuring team performance, the level of accuracy needed for estimates, and specs for how
estimates should be stated, D. Specs for how estimates should be state, the level of risk
needed for estimates, and rules for measuring cost performance
B.
21 Your project has a medium amount of risk and is not very well defined. The sponsor
hands you a project charter and asks you to confirm that the project can be completed with
the project cost budget. What is the best method to handle this? A. Develop an estimate in
the form of a range of possible results B. Ask the team members to help estimate the cost
based on the project charter C. Based on the info you have, calculate a parametric estiate D.
Provide an analogous estimate based on past history
A. With such limited info, an estimation giving in a range makes the most sense here
24 Your cost forecast shows you will have a cost overrun at the end of the project. Which of
the following should you do? A. Eliminate risks in estimates and re-estimate B. Meet with the
sponsor to find out what work can be sooner C. Cut quality D. Decrease scope
A.
28 Monitoring cost expended to date in order to detect variances from the plan occures
during A. The creation of the cost change control system B. Recommending corrective
actions C. Updating the cost baseline D. Project performance reviews
D
14 As the PM, what can you do to support your agile team's efforts to improve quality? A.
Investigate and try to quickly resolve any impediments mentions in the team's daily stand-up
B. Carefully follow their progress and assign improvement initiatives at the iteration
retrospectives C. Monitor their work to esnure that the development cycle time doesn't fall
too rapidly D. Leave the team along as much as possible to allow them to build their
problem-solving skills
A. For agile teams, removing impediments is all-important
16 There are several executing activies underway on your project. You are beginning to get
concerned about the accuracy of the progress reporting your team members are doing. How
could you verify whether there is a problem? A. Perform quality audit B. Create risk
quantification reports C. Perform regression analysis D. Perform Monte Carlo analysis
A. Quality audits help assess whether the processes are being carried out properly
20 You are in the middle of a major facility construction project. The structural steel is
already in palce, and the heating conduits are being put into place when a senior manager
informs you that he is worried the project will not meet the quality standards. What should
you do in this situation? A. Assure sr. management that during hte Plan Quality Management
process, it was determined that the project would meet the quality standards B. Analogously
estimate future results C. Involve the quality team D. Check the results from the last quality
management plan
C. Getting the quality team involved is the most proactive and productive choice
12 All the following results from quality audits except: A. Determination of whether project
activities comply with organizational policies B. Improved processes to increase productivity
C. Creation of quality metrics D. Confirmation of the implementation of approved change
requests
C. Quality metrics should not change after the Plan Quality Management process
13 A control chart shows seven data points in a row on one side of the mean. What should
the PM do? A. Perform a design of experiments. B. Adjust the chart to reflect the new mean
C. Find an assignable cause D. Nothing
C. The rule of seven has occurred and you must find the assignable cause
19 Over the past few iterations, you've noticed that your agile team's cycle time has been
gradually inching upward. At first, it seemed like a normal variation, but you have now
decided that this is a solid trend and would like to address it in the team's next retrospective.
What should you say? A. Let's brainstorm to get to the bottom of this and understand why it
is happening B. We'll be doing a root-cause analysis to ID the source of the problem before
the next iteration. C. Let's ID what we have been doing more efficiently and build on this D.
Our cycle time is finally going up! Congratulate the team
A. Higher cycle time is always a problem. A root-cause analysis is a good idea, but that is up
to the team to decide. Bringing this to them for a dicussion/brainstorm is the best choice.
22 You're asked to select tools and techniques to supplement existing quality control
activites. Which of the following would not be appropriate for this purpose? A. Performance
reviews B. Statistical Sampling C. Pareto Diagrams D. Focus groups
D. Focus groups are for collecting requirments not controlling quality
24 A PM has just taken over the project from another PM during project executing. The
previous PM created a budget, determind communications requirements, and went on to
complete the work packages task. What should the new PM do next? A. Coordinate
completion of work packages B. Identify quality standards C. Begin the Identify Risks
process D. Validate scope
B. Order of operations
32 Work on a project is ongoing when the PM overhears two workers arguing over what a
set of instructions means. The PM investigates and learns that the instructions for the
construction of the concrete footings currently being porued were poorly translated between
the different languages being use on the project. Which of the following is the best thigns for
the PM's to do first. A. Get the instructions re-translated B. Look for quality impacts of poor
translation C. Bring the issue to the team D. Inform the sponsor
B. All good answers, but this is what you should do first
4 The sponsor's role on a project can be best described as: A. Helping to plan activites B.
Helping to prevent unnecessary changes to project objectives C. Identifying unnecessary
project constraints D. Helping to develop the project management plan
B. The sponsor has a small hand in those other roles, but their main role is to issue the
project charter and help to prevent unnecessary changes to those stated project objectives.
6 The most common cuases of confilct on a project are schedules, project priorities, and A.
Personalities B. Resources C. Cost D. Management
B. The top four sources of conflict on projects are schedules, project priorities, resources,
and technical opinions
12 During project planning in a matrix organization, the PM determins that additional human
resources are needed. From whom would she request those resources? A. PMO manager
B. Functional manager C. Team D. project sponsor
B. In a matrix organization, the PM and Functional PM share power
19 Major changes have been suggested that would lead to a project overhaul. The PM also
learns that a large work package was not completed. Of the following, who is the best
person for the PM to address these issues with? A. Team B. Sr. Management C. Customer
D. Sponsor
D. It is the sponsor's role to prevent unnecessary changes to stated project objectives
21 Which of these interpersonal skills would be most important for the manager of a change-
driven project who wants to be an effective servant leader? A. The ability to resolve
interpersonal conflicts B. The ability to understand and influence the emotions of other
people C. The ability to balance the differing needs of diverse shareholders D. The ability to
make rational decisions based on data
B. Understanding and influencing the emotions of others ia a key component of emotional
intelligence
23 Project performance appraisals are different from team performance assessment in that
project performance appraisals focus on: A. how an individual team member performed B.
An evaluation of the project team's effectiveness C. a team building effort D. Reducing the
turnover rate
A. Team performance assessments evalute the team's effectiveness as a whole. Project
performance appraisals deal with how each team member is performing
4 Formal written corresponsdence with customers are required when: a. Defects are
detected B. The customer requests additional work not covered under contract C. the project
has a schedule slippage D. the project has cost overruns
B. Contract issues almost always require formal written communications
8 You are a PM with four key stakeholders. How many communication channels do you
have?
10
11 A PM has a project team consisting of people in 4 countries. The project is very important
to the company, and the PM is concerned about its success. The length of the project
schedule is acceptable. What type of communication should he use? A. Informal verbal B.
Formal written C. Formal verbal D. Informal written
B. Due to distance and cultural differences, formal written is the clearest and best option
12 You want to quickly review where a project halfway done now stands. Which of the
following would be most helpful in finding such information? A. Work status B. Progress C.
Forecase D. Communications
B. The key word here is "quickly". A progress report gives a snapshot of where the project
stands.
20 The requirement of many stakeholders were not approved for inclusion in your project,
and you had time getting formal approval. The stakeholders argued and help up the project
while they held interminable meetings about their requirements. They project was finally
approved and began work six months ago. All of the following would be good preventive
actions to implement except: A. Keep a file of what requirements were not included in the
project B. Make sure the change control process is not used as a vehicle to add the
requirements back into the project C. Maintain an issue log D. Hold meetings with the
stakeholders to go over the work that will not be added to the project
D. These would be useless meetings. The other options are proactive and productive.
3 Your CFO has asked you to determine as quickly as possible whether a high-profile, high-
uncertainty project is viable. What would be the best approach for doing this? A. Ask the
team to perform thorough proof-of-concept tests before starting development B. Do a risk-
based spike to determine if the Kansas testing facility is tornado-proof C. Have the team
begin planning and development and see if they reach any problems D. Do an exploratory
spike to research potential quality control issues
A. This is an example of agile "fast failing" to determine project viability as quickly as
possible.
5 If a risk has a 90% chance of occurring and consequences of $10,000, what does $9,000
represent? A. Risk value B. Present Value C. Expected monetary Value D. Contengency
budget
C
6 Most of the project risks will be IDed during which risk management process? A. Perform
quantitative risk analysis and identify risks B. Identify risks and monitor risks C. Perform
qualitative risk analysis and monitor risks D. Identify risks and perform qualitative risk
analysis
B. The others are not JUST about identifying risks
11 All of the following are common results of risk management except: A. Contract terms and
conditions are created B. The project management plan is changed C. the communications
management plan is changed D. The project charter is changed
D. The project charter is not commonly changed, and definitely not commonly changed due
to risk management
15 Workarounds are determined during which risk management process? A. Identify Risks
B. Perform quantitative risk analysis C. Plan Risk Responses D. Monitor Risks
D. Workarounds involve determining handling risks that were not included in the risk register.
This means they are generally IDed and handled during monitor risks
14 Outputs of the Plan Risk Responses process include: A. Residual risks, fallback plans,
contingency reserves B. Risk triggers, contracts, and a risk list C. Seconday risks, process
updates, risk owners D. Contingency plans, project management plan updates, sensitivity
analysis
A. Risk list, process updates, and sensitivity analysis are not outputs of the Plan Risk
Responses process
16 During which risk management process is a determination made to transfer a risk? A.
Identify Risks B. Implement Risk Responses C. Plan Risk Responses D. Monitor Risks
C. transference is a risk response strategy. Risk response strategies are determined in the
Plan Risk Responses process
17 A PM has just finished the risk response plan for $387,000 engineering project. Which of
the following should he probably do next? A. Determine the overall risk rating for the project
B. Being to analyze the risks that show up in the project drawings C. Add work packages to
the WBS D. Hold a project risk review
C. Since this is occurring during project planning, it is an iteration of project management
plan and can be added to the WBS
20 A PM has assembled the project team. They had IDed 56 risks, determined what would
trigger the risked, rated them on a risk rating matrix, tested assumption, and assessed the
quality of the data being used. The team is moving on with the risk management process.
What did they forget? A. Conduct a simulation B. Perofrm risk mitigation C. Detmerine
overall risk ranking for project D. Involve other shareholders
D. Everything is fine but this process requires the input of other shareholders
21 During project planning, your team cannot come up with an effective way to mitigate or
insure against a risk. It cannot be outsourced nor deleted. What would be the best solution?
A. Accept the risk B. Continue to look for ways to mitigate the risk C. Look for ways to avoid
the risk D. Look for ways to transfer the risk
A. There are simply no other choices
26 What trend are you hoping to see on the top line of your tea's risk burndown chart? A.
Reliable and consistent upward trend B. Steady, cumulative downward trend C. Rapid
downward trned as quickly as possible D. Steady state with only minor variation upward or
downward
C. This isn't like a normal burndown chart. We want a risk burndown chart to go down as
quickly as possible
29 CPI is .6 and SPI is .71 on a long-term project. The team has received little support for
proper planning and they are inexperienced. Which of the following is the best thing to do?
A. Update risk identification and analysis B. Spend more time improving the cost estimates
C. Remove as many work packages as possible D. Reogranize the responsibiliy assignment
matrix
A. This project is so far from the baseline that an updated risk analysis must be performed
31 During executing, the most experienced team member has accepted a new position, and
gives his two weeks notice. This is a major problem not in the risk register. What should you
do first? A. Create a workaround B. Reevalute the identify risks process C. Look for any
unexpected effects of the problem D. tell management
A. Workarounds are for previously unidentified risks
32 Which of the following is th eprimary responsibility of a risk owner? A. Identify new risks
and create workarounds B. Respond to risk triggers and implement the planned risk
responses C. Report to the PM that a risk has occurred and note the consequences D.
Quantitatively analyse risks
B. A risk owner may be involved in developing risk responses and responsible for monitoring
triggers and managing the implementation of the planned risk response
34 Monte Carlo analysis is used to: A. Get an indication of the risk involved in the project B.
Estimate activity length C. Simulate possible quality issues D. Prove to management that
extra staff is needed
A
36 A PM is creating a risk response plan. However, every time a risk response is suggested,
another risk is identified that is caused by the response. What is the best thing for the PM to
do? A. Get more people involved in the identify risks process since risks have been missed
B. Make sure the project work is understood C. Spend more time making sure that risk
responses are clearly identified D. Document new risks and continue the plan risk responses
plan
D. This is about secondary risks and is an important part of completing the plan risk
responses process
3 What statement would you use in an agile contract to define acceptance criteria? A. "The
completed deliverables must be fit for business purpose" B. "The delivery date may vary as
long as all the required scope is completed" C. "The completed deliverables much match the
original specification" D. "The quality of the completed deliverables must pass UI testing"
A. Agile requirements evolve over time but they must deliver value and fit the business
purpose.
7 A routine audit of a cost-reimbursable contract determines that overcharges are being
made. If the contract does not specify corrective action, the buyer should A. Continue to
make payments B. Halt payments until the problem is corrected C. Void the contract and
start legal action to recover payments D. Change the contract to require more frequent
audits
A. Considering these options, all are too drastic besides continuing to make payments while
working with the vendor to resolve the issue.
9 A seller is working on a cost-reimbursable contract when the buyer decides he would like
to expand the scope of service and change to a fixed-price contract. All of the following are
the seller's options except A. Completing the original work on a cost-reimbursable basis then
negotiating a fixed price for additional work B. Completing the original work and rejecting the
additional work C. Negotiating a fixed-price contract that includes all the work D. Starting
over with a new cotract
D. Negotiations are fine, but the seller cannot unilaterally decide to start over with a new
contract
11 Which of the following is the best thing for a PM to do in the Conduct Procurements
process? A. Evaluate risks B. Select a contract type C. Perform market research D. Answer
sellers' questions about the procurement documents
D. The other tasks are done before the Condut Procurements process
14 You are considering a fixed-price (FP) contract because the requirements are not well-
defined. The fee or profit in this type of contract is: A. unknown B. part of the negotiation
involved in paying every invoice C. applied as a line item to every invoice D. Determined at
the end of the project
A. There is not enough information to determine this, as it would only be known to the seller.
24 A PM is in the middle of creating a request for proposal (RFP). What part of the
procurement process is he in? A. Conduct procurements B. Plan Procurment Management
C. Administer Procurements D. Make-or-buy analysis?
B. Bid documents are created during the Plan Procurement Management process
32 You have just started work on a procurement when management decides to terminate the
contract. What should you do? A. Go back to the Plan Procurement Management process B
Go back to the Conduct Procurements process C. Complete the Control Procurements
process D. Stop working, and consider the procurement finished
C. The procurement still needs to be closed out
33 The team is considering the perspective sellers who have submitted proposals. One team
member supports a certain seller while another wants a separate seller. The PM should
remind the team that the best thing to focus on in order to make a selection is the : A.
Procurement documents B. Procurement audits C. Source selection criteria D. Procurement
management plan
C. Source selection criteria is the primary tool for evaluating potential sellers
2 You have been tentatively assigned to a project that has not yet received final approval.
Several stakeholder who will likely be involved or impacted by the project have been Ided.
Stakeholder can be IDed during which project management process groups A. all 5 B.
Initiating and planning C. Planning, monitoring and controlling D. Monitoring and controlling,
closing
A. It is common for stakeholders to be missed during initiating phase and they may be
discovered at any time during the project lifecycle
11 You've managed to get the key stakeholders for your upcoming agile project together for
a visioning session to reach an agreement on what the project needs to accomplish. The
participants might not have another chance to meet in person. How will you recommend they
spend this time? A. Write an elevator statement B. Develop personas for the key user groups
C. Explain their requirements and needs D. Decide who will make the key decisions for the
project
A. An elevator statement is a short description of the project's goals, benefits, key attributes.
15 the key obvject of stakeholder management is: A. Communication B. Coordination C.
Satisfation D. Relationships
C. Satisfaction is the key outcome of communication, coordination, and development of
relationships and should be at the heart of stakeholder management.
20 In an effort to ID stakeholders, you're lookin over the org. structure of your client's
company. As you ID stakeholders on the org chart, you request meetings with each
stakeholder. You'll document the information you learn in the stakeholder register. This
register can be used and input to which of the following processes? A. Plan Risk Managemnt
and Collect Requirements B. Perform Integrated Change Control and Plan Communications
Management B. Plan Quality Management and Manage Quality D. Identify Risks and
Develop Project Charter
A. Stakeholder register is an input to Collect Requirements, Plan Quality Management, Plan
Communications management, Plan Risk Management, and Identify Risks
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