Pharmacology 1 - 3rd Progress Exam

1/28/22, 11:01 AM Pharmacology 1- 3rd Progress Exam Jan 28,2022
3. Which of the following beta adrenergic blocking agent with intrinsic

sympathomimetic activity? *
a. Esmolol
b. Labetalol
c. Acebutolol
d. Propranolol
4. Which of the following antihypertensive beta blocking agents with low lipid
solubility may reduce CNS toxicity, β-1 selective, can be prescribed to asthmatic
patients? *
a. Atenolol
b. Labetalol
c. Esmolol
d. Pindolol
5. Activation of SNS and RAS results from decreased chronic pressure / volume
overload and _______: *
a. Cardiac output
b. SVR
c. PVR
d. Heart rate
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSeI7Jt10Gw0qkPYziiPn48pIwOiQj12O6OjZkpzMazrAqwRrw/formResponse 2/34
6. Beta blockers short term hemodynamic effect in CHF include ______ cardiac
output and blood pressure but long term this shifts to _____ cardiac output. *
a. decreased, increased
b. increased, decreased
c. increased, increased
d. decreased,decreased
7. Drug that slows AV node, with minor vagal response ,slow onset and side
effects such as arrhythmias, gastrointestinal symptoms: *
a. Verapamil
b. Digoxin
c. Procainamide
d. Amiodarone
8. Prazosin, a centrally acting antihypertensive: *
a. is selective in blocking alpha-1 receptor
b. produces reflex tachycardia
c. is contraindicated in patients with renal insufficiency
d. decreases plasma rennin activity
9. Which of the following are classified as IB antiarrhythmics Except? *
a. lidocaine
b. phenytoin
c. flecainide
d. mexiletine
10. Potassium sparing diuretics such as spironolactone should NOT be

coadmistered with: *
a. Furosemide
b. Hydrochlorthiazide
c. Captopril
d, Verapamil
11. The shortest half life of which of the following beta blockers? *
a. Esmolol
b. Nadolol
c. Pindolol
d. Propranolol
12. Which of the following drug is both alpha and beta blocker? *
a. Propranolol
b. Labetalol
c. Esmolol
d. Metoprolol
13. Methydopa lowers blood pressure by: *
a. inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic endings
b. generating alpha methyl noradenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone
c. generating alpha methyl noradrenaline which act as false neurotransmitter in

peripheral adrenergic nerve endings
d. activating vascular dopamine receptor
14. Furosemide is to be preferred over hydrochlorthiazide when hypertension is

accompanied by *
a. asthma
b. hyperuricemia
c. diabetes
d. CHF
15. The antihypertensive has been found to improve urine flow in elderly males
with BPH: *
a. Nefidipine
b. Prazosin
c. Propranolol
d. Clonidine
16. After being counselled about lifestyle and dietary changes, the patient was
started on atorvastatin. During his treatment with atorvastatin, it is important to
routinely monitor serum concentrations of : *
a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
b. Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase
c. Platelets
d. Uric acid
17. Digoxin provides positive inotropic effects by increased intracellular

availability of what ion? *
a. Ca++
b. Na+
c. Cl-
d. K+
18. Drug that increases the heart rate in a dose dependent manner: *
a. Captopril
b. Minoxidil
c. Verapamil
d. Hydrochlorthiazide
19. The mechanism of action of Captopril treatment in patient with essential

hypertension *
a. Decreases Sodium and Potassium in the urine
b. Blocks Antiotensin II receptor
c. Decreases rennin concentration in the blood
d. Decreases Angiotensin II concentration in the blood
20. Beta blockers are used heavily in the treatment of hypertension The beta
blockers with some direct vasodilator action is: *
a. Propranolol
b.Nevibolol
c. Nadolol
d. Carvedilol
21. Which of the following drug groups that is most likely to cause first dose
postural (orthostatic) hypotension? *
a. Beta blockers
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Vasodilators
d. Alpha-blockers
22. TRUE statements concerning Vaughan-Williams’s Class III antiarrhythmic

drugs include all EXCEPT: *
a. encainide, flecainide, and propafenone are in this class
b. bretylium, amiodarone, and sotalol are in this class
c. possess diverse pharmacologic effects but share the capacity to prolong action
potential duration and refractoriness in Purkinje fibers
d. block outflow of potassium during cell repolarization
23. A very short acting antihypertensive used in hypertensive emergencies acts

by releasing nitric oxide: *
a. Atenolol
b. Hydralazine
c. Nitroprusside
d. Fenoldopam
24. Drug that is most likely to be followed by severe rebound hypertension if

stopped suddenly: *
a. Atenolol
b. Labetalol
c. Losartan
d. Clonidine
25. Drug commonly given as intravenous bolus for the purpose of converting
paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia to normal sinus rhythm? *
a. Adenosine
b. Lidocaine
c. Quinidine
d. Amiodarone
26. The common direct or reflex effect of Nitroglycerin _____ heart rate and
venous capacitance and ______ afterload and diastolic myocardial fiber tension. *
a. decreases, decreases
b. increases, increases
c. increases, decreases
d. decreases, increases
27. Which short acting vasodilator acts on opening potassium channels thus
hyperpolarizing and relaxing smooth muscle cells? *
a. Diazoxide
b. Fenoldopam
c. Nitruprusside
d. hydralazine
28. Which of the following drugs used in hypertensive emergencies, a diuretic ,

short-acting, acts on G protein coupled receptor? *
a. Diazoxide
b. Fenoldopam
c. Nitroprusside
d. Hydralazine
29. Which vasodilator act on vascular smooth muscle to block calcium influx via
L-type channels? *
a. Diazoxide
b. Diltiazem
c. Minoxidil
d. Hydralazine
30. Drugs with both nonselective beta-blocking and alpha-1 selective blocking
action: *
a. Atenolol
b. Nadolol
c. Pindolol
d. Carvedilol
31. Drug used in the treatment of angina that often decrease the heart rate and
can prevent vasospastic ( Prinzmetal) angina attacks. *
a. Diltiazem
b. Nitroglycerin
c. Propranolol
d. Nefidipine
32. Which of the following drug that is useful in angina but causes constipation.
peripheral edema and increased cardiac size. *
a. Isosorbide dinitrate
b. Nitroglycerin
c. Hydralazine
d. Verapamil
33. Propranolol and hydralazine have which of the following effects in common? *
a. Decreased cardiac force
b. Decreased mean arterial blood pressure
c. Increased SVR
d. Tachycardia
34. The most common adverse effect of nitroglycerin in moderate doses is: *
a. Apnea
b. Hypertension
c. Headache
d. Diuresis
35. Anti-angina drugs that is useful as prophylaxis: *
a. Isosorbide mononitrate
b. SL isosorbide dinitrate
c. SL nitroglycerin
d. Metoprolol
36. A patient developed acute severe heart failure with marked pulmonary
edema. Which of the following drugs would be most useful? *
a. Digoxin
b. Furosemide
c. Propranolol
d. Minoxidil
37. Drug that is associated with positive inotropic support: *
a. Dobutamine
b. Losartan
c. Neseritide
d. Enalapril
38. Drug that has been shown to prolong life in patients with chronic congestive
heart failure in spite of having negative inotropic effect on cardiac contractility: *
a. Furosemide
b. Enalapril
c. Carvedilol
d. Digoxin
39. Lidocaine as antiarrhythmic: *
a. increases contractility
b. increases Action potential duration
c. Reduces resting potential
d. Reduces abnormal automaticity
40. Common to both Mexilitine and lidocaine as antiarrhythmic *
a. Sodium channel blockers
b. beta adrenoceptor blockers
c. Potassium channel blockers
d. Calcium channel blockers
41. If the patient has a history of gout, which of the following antilipemic drugs is
most likely to exacerbate this condition? *
a. Colestipol
b. Gemfibrozil
c. Lovastatin
d. Niacin
42. If beta blocker is to be used for prophylaxis in patient with angina, what is its
mechanism of action ? *
a. Increased cardiac force
b. Decreased ventricular end diastolic volume
c. Block of exercise induced tachycardia
d. Increased afterload
43. Increased serum levels of which of the following may be associated with a
decreased risk of atherosclerosis? *
a. Cholesterol
b. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c. Triglyceride
d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
44. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in patients with migraine

headache? *
a. Amlodipine
b. Verapamil
c. Nitroglycerin
d. Metoprolol
45. Which drug produce an additive effects when used in combination of anti-
anginal drugs such as nitrates? *
a. Beta blockers and nitrates on heart rate
b. Calcium channel blockers and nitrates on heart rate
c. Calcium channel blockers and nitrates on cardiac force
d. Beta blockers and nitrates on venous tone
46. Mechanism of action of cardiac glycoside in the treatment of heart failure? *
a. Decrease calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Increase in ATP synthesis
c. Block cardiac Beta adrenoceptors
d. Increase systolic calcium levels by inhibition Na+/K+ ATPase
47. One of the manifestation of digoxin toxicity is arrhythmia . Which of the

following contribute to the arrhythmogenic effect of digoxin? *
a. Increased intracellular calcium
b. Decreased sympathetic discharge
c. Increased parasympathetic discharge
d. Increased extracellular potassium.
48. Which the following drugs which increases absorption of Vitamin B12 from
intestine?: *
a) Hydroxocobalamin
b) Folic acid
c) Ascorbic acid
d) Erythropoetin
49. Pernicious anemia is developed due to deficiency of: *
a) Folic acid
b) Vitamin B 12
c) Iron
d) Vitamin B3
50. True statement about streptokinase: *
a) Is administered by IV infusion
b) Reduces the mortality rate of acute myocardial infarction if administered within 4

hours of the onset of chest pain
c) Is contraindicated in patients taking regular NSAIDs anti-inflammatory drug therapy
d) Should not be given to patients over the age of 60 years
51. Which of the following drugs is used prophylactically in pregnant women to

prevent neural tube defects in the fetus? *
a) Folic acid
b) Cyanocobalamin
c) Iron
d) Vitamin B6
52. An ECG of patients with MI showed premature ventricular beats . His

arrhythmia should be treated with: *
a. Adenosine
b. Quinidine
c. Lidocaine
d. Verapamil
53. A class III antiarrhythmic that blocks Potassium channel and markedly prolong
Action potential: *
a. Amiodarone
b. Verapamil
c. Diltiazem
d. Procainamide
54. The antiarrhythmic that has the longest half life of all: *
a. Adenosine
b. Verapamil
c. Mexilitine
d. Amiodarone
55. Which of the following would be the drug of choice for treatment of
hypertensive emergencies? *
a. Clonidine
b. Diazoxide
c. Reserpine
d. Guanethidine
56. Reflex tachycardia, headache and postural hypotension are the adverse
effects that limit the use of the following antihypertensives agents: *
a. Prazosin
b. Methyldopa
c. Hydralazine
d. Guanethidine
57. Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering: *
a) Ascorbic acid
b) Calcium gluconate
c) Phosphates
d) Antacids
58. Which of the following factor(s) is/are required for the absorption of dietary
vitamin B12? *
a)Gastric acid
b) Gastric intrinsic factor
c) Transcobalamin
d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
59. Recombinant human erythropoietin is specifically indicated for: *
a) Megaloblastic anemia
b) Haemolytic anaemia
c) Anaemia in patients with thalassemia
d) Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients
60. The following nutritional deficiencies that can cause anemia include all
except: *
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin B12
c) Folic acid
d) Iron
61. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs that restores sinus rhythm, slow
AV node, nonselective beta blocker, inward potassium block, dose related
torsade de pointes? *
a. Diltiazem
b. Metoprolol
c. Amiodarone
d. Sotalol
62. The adverse effects with the antihypertensive agents thiocyanate and
cyanide intoxication, hypotension, and convulsion is most likely caused : *
a. Hydralazine
b. Methyldopa
c. Nitruprusside
d. Terazosin
63. Thiazide diuretics may produce an increase blood levels of glucose and
_______. *
a. BUN
b. Urea
c. Potassium
d. Uric acid
64. Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels? *
a. Trimethadione
b. Fenofibrate
c. Flucytosine
d. Coumadin
65. Losartan as antihypertensive is a: *
a. Selective AT1 receptor antagonist
b. Selective AT2 receptor antagonist
c. Nonselective AT1 and AT 2 receptor antagonist
d. AT1 receptor partial agonist
66. A patient with severe hypercholesterolemia is to be treated with a

combination of niacin and atorvastatin. With this drug combination, it is
important that the patient be monitored closely for signs of : *
a. Agranulocytosis
b. Thyrotoxicosis
c. Lactic acidosis
d. Myopathy
67. Loss of taste sensation and cough can be a side effects of the following
antihypertensive agent. *
a. Verapamil
b. Captopril
c. Prazosin
d.Clonidine
68. Correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: *
a. Antihypertensive drug combination should always be preferred over single drugs
b. Combination of antihypertensives with similar pattern of hemodynamic action are

superior to those with dissimilar pattern
c. Only those antihypertensive which act on different regulatory system in maintaining

BP should be combined
d. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensive are combined
69. Which of the following iron supplements contains the highest percentage of
elemental iron and relatively low cost? *
a) Ferrous gluconate
b) Ferrous sulfate
c) Ferrous fumarate
d) Sodium ferric gluconate
70. A patient with significant past medical history of alcoholism has suffered
megaloblastic anemia. Which of the following would be the best treatment
option for this patient? *
a) Oral ascorbic acid
b) Oral Vitamin B12
c) Oral Vitamin B3
d) Oral Folic acid
71. All of the following drugs are used for iron deficiency anemia except: *
a) Ferrous sulfate
b) Folic acid
c) Ferrous gluconate
d) Ferrous fumarate
72. Which of the following drug is used for parenteral iron therapy? *
a) Ferrous sulfate
b) Iron dextran
c) Ferrous lactate
d)Ferrous
Ferrous fumarate
73. Which of the following drugs stimulate proliferation and maturation of

erythroid progenitors to increase RBC production used in aplastic anemia ? *
a) Fercoven
b) Hydroxocobalamin
c) Epoetin alfa
d) Folic acid
74. Which of the following drug is a recombinant form of granulocyte colony-

stimulating factor used to stimulate neutrophil Production *
a) Filgrastim
b) Methotrexate
c) Erythropoetin
d) Doxorubicin
75. What direct antithrombin inhibitors that can be given as parenteral

antigogulation help prevent the formation of blood clots useful in patient *
a) Abxicimab
b) Vitamin K
c) Plasminogen
d) Lepirudin
76. A patient was diagnosed with acute DVT and requires treatment with an
anticoagulant. The drug of choice is: *
a) Heparin
b) Rivaroxaban
c) Enoxaparin
d) Argatroban
77. The primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: *
a) Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion
b) Facilitation of antithrombin III to inhibit factor Xa and thrombin
c) Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI
d) Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa
78. Low molecular weight heparins (LMWH) have the following advantages over
unfractionated heparin (UFH) EXCEPT: *
a) Less frequent dosing
b) Lower incidence of hemorrhagic complications
c) Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis
d) Laboratory monitoring of response is not needed
79. What value of International normalized ratio (INR) will you require by adjusting
dose of the anticoagulant for an adequate therapeutic effect in treating a patient
of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) with warfarin? *
a) 1.0-1.5
b) 1.5 - 2.0
c) 2.0 - 3.0
d) 3.5 - 4.0
80. Which of the following drugs activates the thrombopoietic factors to

enhance production of platelets in the peripheral blood? *
a) Oprelvekin
b) Hydroxocobalamin
c) Filgrastim
d) Epoetin alfa
81. All of the following physiologic reactions are involved in the control of
bleeding except: *
a) Platelet adhesion reaction
b) Platelet release reaction
c) Activation of the antifibrinolytic system
d) Triggering of the coagulation process
82. Which of the following substances is synthesized within vessel walls and
inhibits thrombogenesis? *
a) Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)
b) Prostacyclin (PGI2)
c) Prostaglandin ((PGE)
d) None of the above
83. All of the following groups of drugs are for thrombosis treatment EXCEPT: *
a) Anticoagulant drugs
b) Antifibrinolytic drugs
c) Fibrinolytic drugs
d) Antiplatelet drugs
84. Which of the following drugs belonging to anticoagulants of direct action?: *
a) Aspirin
b) Heparin
c) Warfarin
d) Clopidogrel
85. Which of the following drugs has low-molecular weight? *
a) Warfarin
b) Enoxaparin
c) Rivaroxaban
d) Unfractionated Heparin
86. Which of the following drugs antagonizes the effect of heparin?: *
a) Aspirin
b) Dicumarol
c) Dalteparin
d) Protamine sulfate
87. Which of the following drug used as an oral anticoagulant that act by blocking
the reactivation of vitamin K epoxide? *
a) Heparin
b) Daltreparin
c) Warfarin
d) Enoxaparin
88. All of the following drugs are indirect acting anticoagulants EXCEPT: *
a) Clopidogrel
b) Warfarin
c) Dalteparin
d) Ticlopidine
89. Which of the following drugs belongs to coumadin derivatives which is a

competitive vitamin K antagonist? *
a) Heparin
b) Enoxaparin
c) Dalteparin
d) Warfarin
90. Which of the following antiplatelet agents that irreversibly block the
adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor in platelets ?: *
a) Aspirin
b) Alteplase (tPA)
c) Abciximab
d) Clopidogrel
91. Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

receptors by blocking the binding of fibrinogen and von Willebbrand factor ? *
a) Aspirin
b) Clopidogrel
c) Ticlopidine
d) Abciximab
92. Which of the following anticoagulant drugs that selectively inhibit only factor
Xa by binding to antithrombin III ? *
a) Argatroban
b) Fondaparinux
c) Bivalrudin
d) Lepirudin
93. Fibrinolytic drugs activate endogenous plasminogen to plasmin are used for
the following conditions EXCEPT: *
a) Central deep venous thrombosis
b) Multiple pulmonary emboli
c) Heart failure
d) Acute myocardial infarction
94. The following drugs are used to control bleeding include all EXCEPT: *
a) Tranexamic acid
b) Ticlopidine
c) Protamine sulfate
d) Vitamin K
95. The elevated INR indicates excessive anticoagulation with high risk of
haemorrhage when given with warfarin. What is the drug of choice to counteract
the effect of warfarin? *
a) Factor VIII
b) Aminocaproic acid
c) Protamine sulphate
d) Vitamin K1
96. Which of the following irreversibly block the synthesis of thromboxane in

platelets and provides a 24-48 hour effect at very low dose? *
a) Clopidogrel
b) Ticlopidine
c) Aspirin
d) Warfarin
97. Heparin given at low doses can prolong: *
a) Bleeding time
b) Activated partial thromboplastin time
c) Prothrombin time
d) Both (a) and (b)
98. Deficiency of Vitamin K can prolong: *
a) Bleeding time
b) Coagulation time
c) Activated partial thromboplastin time
d) Prothrombin time
99. Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of
warfarin therapy: *
a) Factor VII
b) Factor IX
c) Factor X
d) Prothrombin
100. Which of the following drugs reduces the effect of oral anticoagulants? *
a) Erythromycin
b) Phenytoin
c) Aspirin
d) Cimetidine
Back Submit Clear form
Never submit passwords through Google Forms.
This content is neither created nor endorsed by Google. Report Abuse - Terms of Service - Privacy Policy
Forms

Pharmacology 1 - 3rd Progress Exam

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Pharmacology 1 - 3rd Progress Exam

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1/28/22, 11:01 AM Pharmacology 1- 3rd Progress Exam Jan 28,2022

3. Which of the following beta adrenergic blocking agent with intrinsic

8. Prazosin, a centrally acting antihypertensive: *

a. is selective in blocking alpha-1 receptor

b. produces reflex tachycardia

c. is contraindicated in patients with renal insufficiency

d. decreases plasma rennin activity

9. Which of the following are classified as IB antiarrhythmics Except? *

10. Potassium sparing diuretics such as spironolactone should NOT be

13. Methydopa lowers blood pressure by: *

a. inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic endings

b. generating alpha methyl noradenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone

c. generating alpha methyl noradrenaline which act as false neurotransmitter in

d. activating vascular dopamine receptor

14. Furosemide is to be preferred over hydrochlorthiazide when hypertension is

a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

b. Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase

17. Digoxin provides positive inotropic effects by increased intracellular

19. The mechanism of action of Captopril treatment in patient with essential

a. Decreases Sodium and Potassium in the urine

b. Blocks Antiotensin II receptor

c. Decreases rennin concentration in the blood

d. Decreases Angiotensin II concentration in the blood

22. TRUE statements concerning Vaughan-Williams’s Class III antiarrhythmic

a. encainide, flecainide, and propafenone are in this class

b. bretylium, amiodarone, and sotalol are in this class

d. block outflow of potassium during cell repolarization

23. A very short acting antihypertensive used in hypertensive emergencies acts

24. Drug that is most likely to be followed by severe rebound hypertension if

28. Which of the following drugs used in hypertensive emergencies, a diuretic ,

a. Decreased cardiac force

b. Decreased mean arterial blood pressure

35. Anti-angina drugs that is useful as prophylaxis: *

37. Drug that is associated with positive inotropic support: *

39. Lidocaine as antiarrhythmic: *

b. increases Action potential duration

c. Reduces resting potential

d. Reduces abnormal automaticity

40. Common to both Mexilitine and lidocaine as antiarrhythmic *

a. Sodium channel blockers

b. beta adrenoceptor blockers

c. Potassium channel blockers

d. Calcium channel blockers

a. Increased cardiac force

b. Decreased ventricular end diastolic volume

c. Block of exercise induced tachycardia

b. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)

d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)

44. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in patients with migraine

a. Beta blockers and nitrates on heart rate

b. Calcium channel blockers and nitrates on heart rate

c. Calcium channel blockers and nitrates on cardiac force

d. Beta blockers and nitrates on venous tone

46. Mechanism of action of cardiac glycoside in the treatment of heart failure? *

a. Decrease calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum

b. Increase in ATP synthesis

c. Block cardiac Beta adrenoceptors

d. Increase systolic calcium levels by inhibition Na+/K+ ATPase

47. One of the manifestation of digoxin toxicity is arrhythmia . Which of the

a. Increased intracellular calcium

b. Decreased sympathetic discharge

c. Increased parasympathetic discharge

d. Increased extracellular potassium.