ATPL MET QUES 2

1. The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized by

a) continuous downdrafts
b) frequent lightning
c) continuous updrafts
d) rain starting at surface

2. Which of the following hazards is most likely during the cumulus stage of a
thunderstorm?
a) heavy surface rain
b) severe turbulence in the updraft/downdraft zone
c) severe airframe icing
d) downbursts

3. Thunderstorms caused by _____ are most common in the summer and

by _____ in the _____
a) lapse rate air masses late spring
b) ‘air masses frontal activity summer
c) cold fronts air masses autumn
d) air masses frontal activity winter

4. If the weather radar of an aircraft flying above FL290, indicates CB cloud. All echoes
should be avoided by a minimum distance in NM of:
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20

5. The thunderstorm CB, is most likely to travel at the speed of the:

a) Wind at 500 hpa level
b) Wind at 700 hpa level
c) 2000 ft wind
d) Towards the area of low pressure

6. The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of
a) 4 km and 1-5 minutes
b) 4 km and 30-40 minutes
c) 8 km and 5-15 minutes
d) 12 km and 5-10 minutes

7. The Gust front is:

a) Characterised by frequent lightning
b) formed by the cold outflow from beneath TS
c) another name for a cold front
d) directly below a thunderstorm
8. Hazards of the mature stage of a thunderstorm cell include lightning, turbulence and
a) microburst, windshear and anvil
b) icing, drizzle and windshear
c) icing, windshear and microburst
d) windshear, hail and fog

9. Icing is hazardous to flight through or near CB clouds because of:

a) Structural damage to leading edges and windscreen.
b) Loss of control, considerable altitude changes.
c) Loss of radio communication on bands below VHF.
d) Loss of lift, jamming of controls, increase in stalling speed.

10. A gust front is

a) formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
b) normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
c) characterized by heavy lightning
d) another name for a cold front

11. To avoid CAT above CB clouds, it is recommended that you avoid their tops by at least --
----- because upcurrents of more than ------- are possible near them. Which of the
following

Completes the above statements correctly?

a) 5,000 ft 7,000 fpm
b) 5,000 ft 5,000 fpm
c) 7,000 ft 7,000 fpm
d) 7,000 ft 4,000 fpm

12. In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at

a) low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric
pressure increases by a few hectopascals
b) low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric
pressure decreases by a few hectopascals
c) low altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric
pressure decreases by a few hectopascals
d) high altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric
pressure increases by a few hectopascals

13. Freezing fog consists of:

a) frozen minute snow flakes
b) ice crystals
c) supercooled water droplets
d) frozen water droplets
14. In the middle of a hurricane the wind speed is
a) higher than 63 knots and the air is descending
b) lower than 63 knots and the air is descending
c) lower than 63 knots and the air is ascending
d) higher than 63 knots and the air is ascending

15. A microburst with its damaging winds at the surface

a) occurs only in tropical areas
b) has a diameter of 4 km
c) has a life span of more than 30 minutes
d) is always associated with thunderstorm

16. In regard to flying in the vicinity of thunderstorms, you should be aware that:
a) avoidance of lightning and hail is assured by flying in the clear air outside the
confines of a thunderstorm' cell.
b) the overhanging anvil of a thunderstorm points in the direction from which the
storm has moved.
c) the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail, destructive winds, and tornadoes
are generally associated with squall line thunderstorms.
d) avoidance of severe turbulence is assured by circumnavigating 'thunderstorms and
clearing edges of the storms by 5 miles.

17. Vertical visibility is measured or estimated when the:

a) Sky is obscured
b) Sky is overcast
c) Sky is clear
d) Cloud base is less than 5,000 feet

18. Runway Visual Range (RVR) is

a) usually better than meteorological visibility
b) reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000m
c) reported in TAF and METAR
d) measured with ceilometers alongside the runway

19. Fog is defined as obscurity of the lowest layer of the atmosphere with:
a) visibility less than 1000 metres.
b) visibility less than 1000 yards.
c) visibility less than 1100 metres.
d) visibility less than 1100 yards.
20. RVR is defined as being?
a) The maximum distance an observer or the runway can see marker boards by day
and runway lights by night.
b) The distance it would be possible to see an observer 15ft above the runway when
standing in the direction of take off or landing.
c) The maximum distance in metres a pilot 15 ft above the touchdown zone can see
marker boards by day and runway lights by night in the direction of take off
d) The maximum distance a pilot 15 ft above the runway threshold can see marker
boards by day or runway lights by night, when looking in the direction of take-off
or landing

21. The proportion of a SCWD which freezes instantly on impact on an aircraft depends on
temperature. Which combination is correct?
a) 15% at minus 40 deg C.
b) 50% at minus 16 deg C.
c) 25% at minus 20 deg C.
d) 10% at minus 20 deg C.

22. In large CU at a temperature of -200C, the amount of each cloud droplet that will on
impact with the aircraft will be:
a) all of the droplet
b) ½ of the droplet
c) ¼ of the droplet
d) 20% of the droplet

23. If high humidity or visible moisture is present, in what temperature range would you
expect to encounter the most severe structural icing?
a) 00C to -100C.
b) -100C to -150C.
c) -150C to -250C.
d) -200C to -300C.

24. After a 2 hr 30 mins flight at FL350, still with full wing tanks, you do a rapid descent in
the clear (humid air with inversion prevailing) to your destination airport. What type of
icing would you expect to see on your aircraft wings?
a) no icing
b) mixed clear/rime
c) hoar frost
d) rime

25. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft when:

a) the aircraft suddenly enters a cloud at below freezing temperature
b) the aircraft in sub zero clear air suddenly enters a colder region
c) the aircraft in sub zero clear air suddenly enters a warmer moist region
d) the aircraft suddenly enters a cloud which is at a higher temperature than
the surrounding air.
26. You will expect least amount of icing in which of these clouds?
a) NS
b) SC
c) CS
d) AS

27. You are at 12,000 ft (FL 120) with an outside air temperature of -40C. Where would you
find the freezing level?
a) FL110
b) FL100
c) FL090
d) FL140

28. Considering the illustration below; what change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the
next hour?

29. An advancing warm front that has moist and stable air is characterized, in part, by:
a) a wall of turbulent clouds known as a "squall line."
b) stratiform clouds and smooth air.
c) thunderstorms embedded in the cloud Masses.
d) tornadic activity and extensive elec¬trical discharges.

30. Regarding the characteristics and weather associated with a warm front, which of the
following is a true statement?
a) The presence of thunderstorms in a warm front is usually easy to detect, since
they are not embedded in cloud masses.
b) The frontal zone may have zero ceilings and zero visibilities over a wide area.
c) Colder air is overtaking and replacing warmer air and this usually produces wide
bands of precipitation ahead of the warm front surface position.
d) Squall lines sometimes-develop-300 miles ahead of warm fronts.
31. The front labelled "Z" is a:
a) Cold front occlusion
b) Warm front
c) Cold front
d) Warm front occlusion

32. If a cold front moves at 30 knots, you could expect the warm front to be moving at:
a) 30 knots
b) 20 knots
c) 40 knots
d) 50 knots

33. The characteristic of a cold air mass is:

a) Precipitation (drizzle)
b) Extensive fog
c) Strong and smooth winds
d) Showers and gusty winds
34. In the warm sector of a frontal system at FL100, the cloud is normally:
a) ST/SC
b) NS
c) CB
d) Nil

35. In which main direction does a polar front depression move?

a) Along the front towards the east
b) Along the front towards the west
c) Across the front towards the north
d) Across the front towards the south

36. How do air masses move at a warm front?

a) Cold air overrides a warm air mass
b) Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
c) Warm air overrides a cold air mass
d) Warm air undercuts a cold air mass

37. Examining the pictures above, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross-
section to be expected?
a) Track B-D
b) Track B-C
c) Track A-D
d) Track A-E

38. When a Line Squall is overhead a station in West Africa, there is a:

a) sudden rise of temperature and pressure falls
b) sudden rise of pressure and temperature
c) both temperature and pressure falls
d) sharp drop in temperature in temperature and pressure rises (jumps)
39. The mean wind component eastbound at high altitude (FL300) across West Africa in the
period June to September is:
a) -45 kt.
b) +45 kt.
c) +15 kt.
d) -15 kt.

40. What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro
(23°S) at FL 350 in July?
a) A subtropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream.
b) A polar front jet stream followed by a subtropical jet stream and later, a second
polar front jet stream.
c) A polar front jet stream followed by one or two subtropical jet streams.
d) One subtropical jet stream.

41. In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from Bombay (19°N
73°E) to Bangkok (13°N 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect?
a) Light winds diagonal to the route.
b) Tailwinds.
c) Headwinds.
d) Strong northerly winds.

42. Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly direction. There is,
however, an important easterly jet stream. When and where is it likely to be encountered?
a) In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean.
b) In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the
Mediterranean to southern Spain.
c) Throughout the year to the south of the Azores high.
d) In summer from south east Asia extending over southern India to central Africa.

43. What is the mean direction of winds at high level (FL300 and FL400) over West Africa
coast in December?
a) Northerly
b) South-westerly
c) Easterly
d) Westerly

44. Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the:
a) NE monsoon in July and SW in January
b) SW monsoon in July and SE in January
c) SE monsoon in July and SW in January
d) SW monsoon in July and NE in January
45. Please refer to Appendix B (attached)
The arrow labeled ‘T’ represents the mean track of tropical revolving storms which occur
mainly from:
a) June to October and are called hurricanes
b) June to October and are called cyclones
c) December to April and are called hurricanes
d) June to October and are called tornadoes

46. What weather conditions are most likely to affect an approach to Dakar during July?
a) Generally clear skies - No trade winds
b) Dry and clear skies due to the influence of the Azores high pressure system
c) Wet and thundery due to the proximity of the intertropical convergence zone
(ITCZ)
d) Reduced visibility due to the rising sand of the harmattan

. What type of weather can usually be encountered in a polar maritime air mass over
Central Europe in the daytime during summer?
a) Drizzle and low stratus
b) Sky clear
c) Showers and good visibility
d) Continuous rain and poor visibility
47. Clear ice is dangerous because it
a) is translucent and only forms at the leading edges
b) is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
c) is not translucent and forms at the leading edges
d) spreads out and contains many air particles

48. According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft in flight?

49. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?

a) It promotes extensive vertical movement of air.
b) It prevents vertical windshear.
c) It promotes vertical windshear.
d) It results in good visual conditions.

50. What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane in the Caribbean area?
a) West in the earlier stages later south east
b) West in the earlier stages later north east
c) East
d) West deep into the US.

51. At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands of
Japan?
a) May to July
b) July to November
c) September to January
d) January to May

52. On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?
a) N coast
b) NE coast
c) SE coast
d) West coast
53. For the question below refer to Annex 1
What name is given to the jet stream lying over West Africa - Lagos –Accra (arrowed
unlabelled)?
a) Easterly jet stream
b) Polar front jet stream
c) Artic jet stream
d) Sub-tropical jet stream
Annex 1

54. What are the images of satellites provided by weather service used for?
a). To locate precipitation zones
b). To locate fronts in areas with few observers stations
c). To measure wind current on the ground
d). To help provide 14- day forecasts

55. On a satellite photograph in the visual spectrum the white areas show -----, and on the
infrared photograph the white areas show ------
a) land sea
b) the most reflective surface the coldest surface
c) thick cloud thin cloud
d) the coldest surface the hottest surface

56. Which of the following weather reports could be in accordance with regulations,
abbreviated to “CAVOK”?
(MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000FT, LSGG 12000FT, LFSB 6000FT)

a) LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA=
b) LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT010 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG=
c) LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG=
d) LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000=
57. For your flight from Zurich to Rome you consult, amongst other information, the
following SIGMET: SIGMET VALID121420/121820 MOD TO SEV CAT OBS AND
FCST S OF ALPS BTN FL 260 AND FL 380 / STNR / INTSF =
a) You disregard this SIGMET, because it does not affect your flight
b) You select a flight level below FL 260 due to turbulence
c) You delay your departure until 18.20 LT to avoid the icing conditions between FL
260 and FL 380
d) You select a flight level between FL 260 and FL 380 due to turbulence

58. The following weather report EDDM 241201Z 2413/2422 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004
BECMG 2415/2417 00000KT FG VV002 2420/2422 004 FG =
a) 24 hour TAF.
b) SPECI
c) METAR.
d) 9 hour TAF.

59. TAF DNMM 160355Z 1606/1712 35000KT 1000 HZ NSC BECMG

1608/1610 05008KT 1500 FM161700 28005KT 2000 HZ NSC

In the TAF Murtalla Muhammed airport, Lagos, what visibility is expected when landing
at 1700 UTC on the 16th of the month?
a) 1000 m
b) 2 000 m
c) 1500 m
d) 10 km or more

60. The SIGMET below is for:

DNKK SIGMET 4 VALID 191420/191820 DNKN-

DNKK KANO FIR EMBD TS OBS S WI N0834 E00507-N0553 E00641-N0630
E00712 -N0437 E00560 –N0551 E00570 –N0723 E00431 –N0834 E00507 TOP FL360
MOV W 08KT WKN=

a) an embedded thunderstorm whose top is at FL360 and is weakening

b) a severe turbulence for surface to FL360 and is getting worse
c) a broken thunderstorm with base at FL360 gradually dissipating
d) a tropical system with winds in excess of 8 kt

61. Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action
of a runway?
a) HZ
b) +FZRA
c) MIFG
d) FG
62. The TAF weather messages are:
a) Landing forecast of the “trend” type.
b) Special weather observations.
c) Hourly or Semi-hourly weather observations.
d) Airports forecasts

63. What is the lowest possible cloud base forecast for 2300Z?
EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000
SHRA OVC015 PROB40 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618
26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK.

a) 1500 ft
b) 5000 ft
c) 3000 ft
d) 500 ft

64. What does the code R24R/P1500 mean?

a) RVR RWY 24 right above 1500 metres
b) RVR RWY 24 right below 1500 metres
c) RVR RWY 24 right 1500 metres
d) Snow clearance in progress on RWY 24 right, useable runway length 1500
metres.

65. How would the term “vertical visibility is missing or not measured” be indicated on a
METAR?
a) VV999
b) VV000
c) VV///
d) Vomits

66. Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?

a) Strong inversion
b) Snow and ice on the runway
c) Thick fog
d) Heavy dust storm

67. On the upper wind and temperature chart:

a) the height is constant all over the chart.
b) the temperature is constant all over the chart.
c) the wind increases frm south to north
d) the pressure is constant all over the chart.
68. Which kind of meteorological messages are normally transmitted in an ATIS?
a) MET REPORT/SPECIAL
b) METAR/SPECI
c) TAF/SPECI
d) AIRMET/GAMET
69. (For this question use annex 050-2504A)
What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the significant
weather chart?
a) FL 150
b) FL 360
c) FL 220
d) FL 340
70. (For this question use annex 050-2550A)
Flight Munich to London. What Is the direction and maximum speed of the jet stream
affecting the route between Munich and London ?
a) 0600 /120 km/h
b) 060° /120 kt
c) 230° /120 m/sec
d) 220° /120 kt
71. (For this question use annex 050-2558A)
What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva ?
a) -280C
b) -240C
c) -200C
d) -160C
72. (For this question use annex 050-4386A)
If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, where will your cruising altitude be?
a) Constantly in the stratosphere
b) Constantly In the troposhere
c) First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere
d) In the stratosphere for part of time
73. (For this question use annex 050-2547A)
What is the average temperature at FL 160 between Oslo and Paris ?
a) -250C
b) -190C
c) -230C
d) -150C
74. (For this question use annex 050-4375A)
Select from the map the average temperature for the route Hamburg -Zurich at FL260.
a) -510C
b) -550C
c) -630C
d) -470C
75. (For this question use annex 050-2513A)
At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over Frankfurt?
a) FL 240
b) FL 330
c) FL 300
d) FL 350