Yakeen NEET 2023

PRACTICE TEST 01
TEST CODE - 232

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 07/08/2022 M. MARKS : 720

Topics covered
Physics : Upto Motion in 1D
Chemistry : Upto States of matter: from ideal gas equation and Liquid solutions: till Raoult Law.
Biology : (Botany) : Upto Prokaryotic Cell, Cell membrane & Cell wall
(Zoology) : Structural organization in animals: complete topic.
Note: 70% of questions will be from Current Syllabus and 30% of questions will be from previous Tests.

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each part.
5. There is only one correct response for each questions.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A
1. In the diagram shown, a particle is moving from the
point A to the point B. Length of each arrow is 1 m
and the particle is moving at a constant speed of 1
m s–1. What is the displacement of the particle?
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(4) If assertion is true but reason is false.

6. If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1

speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then average speed
is:
(1) 2m
1 v +v
(2) 3m (1) v1v2 (2) 1 2
2 2
(3) 4m
2v1v2 5v1v2
(4) None of these (3) (4)
v1 + v2 3v1 + 2v2
2. In the diagram shown, a particle is moving from the
point A to the point B. Length of each arrow is 1 m 7. Which of the following statements is wrong?
and the particle is moving at a constant speed of 1
m s–1. What is the average velocity of the particle? (1) If speed of a particle changes, its velocity must
change.
(2) If velocity of a particle doesn’t change, its
speed must remain constant
(3) If speed of a particle doesn’t change, its
velocity must remain constant
(4) If velocity of a particle changes, its speed may
(1) 1 m s–1 or may not change
(2) 0.5 m s–1
(3) 3 ms–1 8. Mark the correct statement.
(4) None of these (1) The magnitude of the velocity of a particle is
equal to its speed
3. A particle had a speed of 18 m/s at a certain time, (2) The magnitude of average velocity in an
and 2.5 s later its speed was 30 m/s in the opposite interval is equal to its average speed in that
direction. The average acceleration of the particle in interval
the duration is : (3) It is possible to have a situation in which the
(1) 19.2 m/s2 in the direction of initial velocity speed of a particle is always zero but the
(2) 19.2 m/s2 in the direction opposite to the initial average speed is not zero
velocity (4) It is possible to have a situation in which the
(3) 4.8 m/s2 in the direction of initial velocity speed of the particle is never zero but the
(4) 4.8 m/s2 in the direction opposite to the initial average speed in an interval is zero
velocity
9. A 210 meter long train is moving due North at a
4. A person travelling on a straight line moves with a speed of 25m/s. A small bird is flying due South a
uniform velocity v1 for some time and with uniform little above the train with speed 5m/s. The time
velocity v2 for the next equal time. taken by the bird to cross the train is:
The average velocity v is given by:
(1) 6 s (2) 7 s
v +v
(1) v = 1 2 (2) v = v1v2 (3) 8 s (4) 10 s
2
2 1 1 1 1 1
(3) = + (4) = + 10. A 120 m long train is moving in a straight line path
v v1 v2 v v1 v2 with speed 20 m/s. Another train moving with 30
m/s in the opposite direction and 130 m long crosses
5. Assertion: Displacement of a body may be zero the first train completely in a time:
when distance travelled by it is not zero. (1) 6 s (2) 36 s
Reason: The displacement is the longest distance (3) 38 s (4) 5 s
between initial and final position.
[2]
11. A car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of
144 km/h in 20 s. The distance covered in 20s is:
(1) 20 m (2) 400 m
(3) 1440 m (4) 2880 m (1) (2)

12. A particle moving with a uniform acceleration

travels 24 m and 64 m in the first two consecutive
intervals of 4 sec each. Its initial velocity is:
(1) 1 m/sec (2) 10 m/sec
(3) 5 m/sec (4) 2 m/sec (3) (4)

13. A particle travels 10m in first 5 sec and 10m in next

3 sec. Assuming constant acceleration what is the
distance travelled in next 2 sec? 18. A particle moves along x-axis as
(1) 8.3 m (2) 9.3 m x = t(t – 2) + (t – 2)2. Here, x is in m, t in sec. Which
(3) 10.3 m (4) None of above of the following is true?
(1) The initial velocity of particle is 4 m/sec
14. A body starts from rest and accelerates uniformly. (2) The acceleration of particle varies with time
What is the ratio of the distance travelled by the (3) The particle is at origin at t = 0 sec.
body during the 4th and 3rd second? (4) None of these
(1) 7/5 (2) 5/7
(3) 7/3 (4) 3/7 19. The displacement x of a particle moving in one
dimension under a constant acceleration is related
15. The position-time graph for two particles A and B to time t as t = x + 3. The displacement of the
are straight lines inclined at angles of 30° and 60° particle when the velocity is zero is :
with the time axis. The ratio of velocities VA : VB (1) Zero (2) 3 units
is:
(3) 3 units (4) 9 units
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1: 3
(3) 3 :1 (4) 1 : 3 20. A moves with 65 km/h while B is coming back
w.r.t. A with 80 km/h. The relative velocity of B
with respect to A is
16. Figure shows the position-time graph of a particle
moving on the X-axis. Which of these option (1) 15 km/h (2) 145 km/h
correctly describes the particle’s motion? (3) 60 km/h (4) 80 km/h

21. Assertion: The average speed of a body over a

given interval of time is equal to the average
velocity of the body in the same interval of time if a
body moves in a straight line in one direction.
Reason: Because in this case distance travelled by
(1) the particle is continuously going in positive x a body is equal to the displacement of the body.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
direction
reason is the correct explanation of the
(2) the particle is at rest assertion.
(3) the velocity increases up to a time t0, and then (2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
becomes constant is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(4) the particle moves at a constant velocity up to (3) If the assertion and reason both are false.
a time t0, and then stops (4) If assertion is true but reason is false.

17. A ball is thrown vertically upward and it returns 22. Object is dropped from height 180 m from ground
back. Which of the following graph represents the then find time of flight.
velocity of the ball against time correctly? Upward (1) 4 s (2) 2 s
direction is taken as positive. (3) 3 s (4) 6 s

[3]
23. Average velocity of a car between two cities is 200 30. Object moving on square path then find
m/s if it moves with 50m/s for half of the total time displacement when it moves from A→ B → C. If
of journey then find speed of other half time. side length is l
(1) 200 m/s (2) 350 m/s
(3) 100 m/s (4) 150 m/s

24. Object is moving on circular path then find ratio of

displacement to distance when it completes half of
circular path (1) l (2) 0
 2 (3) 2l (4) 2l
(1) (2)
2 
1 31. Which of the following correct for distance?
(3) 2 (4)
2 (1) it may be -ve
25. Velocity of object V = t – 8t + 4, then time at which
2
(2) it may decrease with time
acceleration of object will be zero
(3) does not depends upon path taken
(1) 4s (2) 2s (4) always +ve
(3) 0s (4) 8s
32. Object starts his motion from rest and constant
26. Velocity of object is constant with time then acceleration and moves 80 m in 10s then find
acceleration of object must be displacement in 20 s.
(1) maximum (1) 320 m (2) 160 m
(2) variable (3) 80 m (4) 180 m
(3) zero 33. Object starts his motion from rest on constant
acceleration then ratio of displacement in 1st sec: 2nd
(4) minimum
sec : 3rd sec will be
(1) 3 : 2 : 1 (2) 5 : 3 : 1
27. Position of object x = t2 + 4t + 6 then. Find nature (3) 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 3 : 5
of acceleration.
(1) zero (2) constant
34. Which of the following graph represent uniform
(3) variable (4) can’t say motion?

28. Object is moving on straight line without change in

direction then (1) (2)
(1) |Avg. velocity| = Avg. speed
(2) Avg. velocity > Avg. speed
(3) Avg. velocity < Avg. speed
(4) Avg. velocity ≤ Avg. speed (3) (4)

29. Assertion : The slope of displacement-time graph

of a body moving with high velocity is steeper than 35. Object is dropped then find displacement in 4th sec.
the slope of displacement-time graph of a body with (1) 5 m (2) 45 m
low velocity.
(3) 65 m (4) 35 m
Reason: Slope of displacement-time graph =
Velocity of the body. SECTION - B
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the 36. Object is projected up with 50 m/s then find
reason is the correct explanation of the displacement in 6th sec of its motion
assertion. (1) 5 m
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason (2) 10 m
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. (3) 15 m
(3) If the assertion and reason both are false. (4) 20 m
(4) If assertion is true but reason is false.

[4]
37. Car is moving with speed 100 m/s then it stops after 44. A motor car moving with a uniform speed of 20
50 m due to application of break, now if same car is m/sec comes to stop on the application of brakes
moving with 50 m/s then it will stop after after travelling a distance of 10m, its acceleration is:
application of break. (Assume same retardation in (1) 20 m/sec2 (2) – 20 m/sec2
both the cases) (3) – 2 m/sec2 (4) +2 m/sec2
50
(1) m (2) 50 m
2 45. A bullet fired into a fixed target loses half of its
50 velocity after penetrating 6 cm. How much further
(3) m (4) 200 m
4 it will penetrate before coming to rest assuming that
38. Object is projected up with 40 m/s then maximum it faces constant resistance to motion?
height attain by the object is (1) 1.5 cm (2) 1.0 cm
(1) 80 m (2) 160 m (3) 3.0 cm (4) 2.0 cm
(3) 40 m (4) 125 m
46. A particle starting from rest with constant
39. Ball is dropped from height 125 m measured from acceleration travels a distance x in first 2s and a
ground then its velocity at the ground is distance y in next 2s, then
(1) 50 m/s (2) 80 m/s (1) y = x (2) y = 2x
(3) 125 m/s (4) 25 m/s (3) y = 3x (4) y = 4x

40. In which graph acceleration of object is non-zero 47. Which graph is practically possible:
and uniform.

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4) None of these

41. Object is moving with velocity V = 2x then 48. A ball is projected upwards. Its acceleration at the
acceleration of object at x = 2m. highest point is
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2 (1) zero
(3) 8 m/s2 (4) 1 m/s2 (2) directed upwards
(3) directed downwards
42. A particle starts from rest with constant acceleration
(4) such as cannot be predicted
a and it is then decelerated with a constant value b
till it is brought to rest. If the total time taken
49. Which of the following statement is not true?
between these two rest positions is t. What is the
maximum speed acquired by the particle? (1) If displacement covered of a particle is zero,
then distance covered may or may not be zero
a+b t
(1) t (2) ( a − b ) (2) If the distance covered is zero then the
2 2 displacement must be zero
 ab  a+b (3) The numerical value of ratio of displacement
(3)  t (4)  t
a+b  ab  to distance is equal to or less than one
(4) The numerical value of the ratio of velocity to
43. A particle starts from rest. speed is always less than one
Its acceleration (a) versus
time (t) is as shown in the 50. The displacement of a moving particle is given by,
figure. The maximum speed x = at3 + bt2 + ct + d. The acceleration of particle at
of the particle will be: t = 3 s would be
(1) 110 m/s (2) 55 m/s (1) 2(a + 9b) (2) 2(9a + b)
(3) 550 m/s (4) 660 m/s (3) 9(a + b) (4) 3(2a + b)

[5]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 59. At 298 K, the vapour pressure of pure liquid A
(molecular weight = 40) is 100 torr, while that of
51. The vapour pressure of two liquids A and B are 135
pure liquid B is 40 torr, (molecular weight = 80).
and 171 torr respectively. The total vapour pressure
The vapour pressure at 298 K of a solution
of solution obtained by mixing 6 moles of A and 3
containing 20 g of each A and B, is:
moles of B would be:
(1) 147 torr (2) 95 torr (1) 59.8 torr (2) 80 torr
(3) 174 torr (4) 153 torr (3) 48 torr (4) 68 torr

52. In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a

60. A solution is prepared by adding 4 moles of
solute, there is:
substance A to 300 g of water. Calculate molality
(1) 100 ml of solvent of the solution.
(2) 1000 g of solvent (1) 0.1333 m (2) 1.333 m
(3) 500 g of solvent (3) 0.0133 m (4) 13.33 m
(4) 500 ml of solvent
61. Two liquids A and B have vapour pressure in the
53. The boiling point of C6H6, CH3OH, C6H5NH2 and
C6H5NO2 are 80°C, 65°C, 184°C and 212°C ratio PAo : PBo = 3:1 at a certain temperature.
respectively. Which will show lowest vapour Assume A and B form an ideal solution and the
pressure at room temperature? ratio of mole fractions of A to B in the vapour phase
(1) C6H6 (2) CH3OH is 3 : 4. The mole fraction of B in the solution at the
(3) C6H5NH2 (4) C6H5NO2 same temperature is:
(1) 1/5 (2) 2/3
54. Which of the following does not change with (3) 4/5 (4) 1/4
change in temperature?
(1) Volume percentage 62. What is the concentration of sugar (C12H22O11) in
(2) Normality mol L–1 if its 20 g are dissolved in enough water to
make a final volume up to 2 L?
(3) Molarity
(1) 0.029 mol L–1 (2) 0.058 mol L–1
(4) Mole fraction –1
(3) 0.055 mol L (4) 0.011 mol L–1
55. Calculate the lowering of vapour pressure due to
the solute (glucose) in a 3 M aqueous solution at 63. Nitric acid is diluted with water. The resultant
100°C. solution formed is:
(1) 18.5 torr (2) 37 torr (1) An ideal solution
(3) 13.21 torr (4) 74 torr (2) A non-ideal solution with +ve deviation from
Raoult’s law
(3) A non-ideal solution with –ve deviation from
56. Calculate the weight of non-volatile solute having
Raoult’s law
molecular weight 40, which should be dissolved in
57 g of octane (C8H18) to reduce its vapour pressure (4) A saturated solution
to 60%.
(1) 47.2 g (2) 5 g 64. Total vapour pressure of a mixture of 1 mol of
(3) 106.2 g (4) 13.33 g A ( PAo = 150 torr) and 2 moles of B ( PBo = 300 torr)
is 240 torr. In this case:
57. Which of the following is an example of a solid (1) There is a positive deviation from Raoult's law
solution? (2) There is a negative deviation from Raoult's
(1) O2 in N2 (2) Cu in Au law
(3) C6H12O6 in H2O (4) NaCl in H2O (3) There is no deviation from Raoult's law
(4) Cannot be decided
58. 1 M, 2.5 litre NaOH solution is mixed with another
0.5 M, 3 litre NaOH solution. Then find out the 65. Percentage of weight by volume of 0.6 M AgNO3
molarity of resultant solution. (aq) is:
(1) 0.73 M (2) 0.50 M (Molar mass of AgNO3 = 170 g/mol)
(3) 0.80 M (4) 1.0 M (1) 8.6 % (2) 5.1 %
(3) 17 % (4) 10.2 %
[6]
 N 73. The mole fraction of solute in one molal aqueous
66. 20 ml of 1 N HCl, 10 ml of H2SO4 and 30 ml
2 solution is:
N (1) 0.018 (2) 0.009
of HNO3 are mixed together and volume made (3) 0.027 (4) 0.036
3
to 1000 ml. Find out the normality of the resulting
solution. 74. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of
7 7 vapour pressure for a solution is equal to:
(1) N (2) N
200 100 (1) χ solvent (2) χ solute
7 7 (3) nsolute (4) nsolvent
(3) N (4) N
18 9
75. Statement I: 10 ml of a liquid A is mixed with 20
67. The vapour pressure of a mixture of 2 moles of ml of liquid B, total volume of the solution is 30
volatile component A ( PAo = 100 mm Hg) and ml.
3 moles of volatile component B ( PBo = 80 mm Hg) Statement II: Liquid A and liquid B will form an
is 90 mm Hg. For such a case: ideal solution.
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(1) there is positive deviation from Raoults' law
(2) Statement II is true but statement I is false
(2) boiling point has been lowered
(3) Statement I and statement II is both are false
(3) force of attraction between A and B is smaller
(4) Statement I and II both are true and statement
than that between A and A or between B and
B II is the correct explanation of statement II
(4) all are correct
76. The vapour pressure of a given liquid will increase
if:
68. The azeotropic mixture of water (B.P.= 100°C) and
(1) Surface area of liquid is increased
HCl (B.P.= 86°C) boils at about 120°C. During
fractional distillation of this mixture, it is possible (2) Temperature is increased
to obtain: (3) Volume of the vapour phase is decreased
(1) pure HCl (4) Volume of liquid in the container is increased
(2) pure H2O
(3) neither H2O nor HCl 77. The number of molecules of HCl present in 50 ml
of 0.02 M HCl solution is:
(4) pure H2O as well as pure HCl
(1) 6.022 × 1026 (2) 6.022 × 1018
22
(3) 6.022 × 10 (4) 6.022 × 1020
69. A sample of toothpaste weighing 500 g, on analysis
was found to contain 0.2 g of fluorine. The
concentration of fluorine is: 78. As the temperature rises, viscosity of liquids:
(1) 4 ×102 ppm (2) 4 ×101 ppm (1) Decreases
3
(3) 4 ×10 ppm (4) 2 ×102 ppm (2) Increases
(3) Remains the same
(4) Depends on nature of the liquid
70. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 ml
of its solution. The concentration of the solution is:
(1) 0.001 M (2) 0.02 M 79. The standard boiling point of a liquid is slightly:
(3) 0.01 M (4) 0.1 M (1) higher than the normal boiling point
(2) lower than the normal boiling point
71. A solution is prepared by adding 2 g of a substance (3) same as the normal boiling point
A to 18 g of water. Calculate the mass percent of (4) None of these
the solute.
(1) 20 % (2) 10 %
(3) 30 % (4) 15 % 80. If the pressure of a gas increases up to nine times
keeping temperature constant, then its RMS
velocity will become:
72. A solution of acetone in ethanol shows:
(1) shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law (1) 3 times (2) 9 times
(2) shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law 1
(3) times (4) Remains the same
(3) obeys Raoult’s law 3
(4) behaves like an ideal solution
[7]
81. Boyle’s temperature,TB is equal to: 88. If two liquids A ( PAo = 100 torr) and B ( PBo = 200
a 2a torr) are completely immiscible with each other, are
(1) (2)
bR bR present in a closed vessel. The total vapour pressure
a a of the system will be:
(3) (4) (1) 300 torr
2bR b
(2) greater than 200 torr
82. Surface tension of which of the following liquid is (3) between 100 to 200 torr
maximum? (4) less than 100 torr
(1) Ethanol (2) Benzene
(3) Methanol (4) Water 89. The volume of water added to 500 ml, 0.5 M NaOH
so that its strength becomes 10 mg NaOH per ml,
is:
83. Statement I: Helium shows positive deviation (1) 750 ml (2) 1000 ml
from ideal behaviour.
(3) 250 ml (4) 500 ml
Statement II: Helium is an inert gas.
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false 90. Benzene and toluene form an ideal solution at room
temperature. Which of the following is not true for
(2) Statement II is true but statement I is false this process?
(3) Statement I and statement II is both are false (1) Hmix = 0 (2) Vmix = 0
(4) Statement I and statement II is both are true (3) Gmix < 0 (4) Smix = 0

84. The postulates of kinetic molecular theory of gases 91. The number of moles of Na2SO4 to be dissolved in
include all those that follow, except: 12 moles of water to lower its vapour pressure by
10 mm Hg at a temperature at which vapour
(1) No forces exist between the gas molecules
pressure of pure water is 50 mm Hg, is:
(2) Gas molecules are in random motion
(1) 1.0 mole (2) 3.0 moles
(3) Gas molecules are repelled by the walls of (3) 1.5 moles (4) 2.0 moles
container
(4) Gas molecules are point masses
92. Statement I: A solution containing 1 gram
equivalent of solute per litre is known as 1 N
85. The critical temperature of a gas is related to van solution.
der Waal’s constant as: Statement II: Normality = Molarity × n-factor
8a 27bR (1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(1) TC = (2) TC =
27bR 8a (2) Statement II is true but statement I is false
a (3) Statement I and statement II is both are false
(3) TC = (4) TC = 3b
27b 2 (4) Statement I and statement II both are true

SECTION - B
86. Statement I: Sum of mole fraction of all the
components in a mixture is 1.
Statement II: Mole fraction is a temperature
dependent mode of concentration.
(1) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect
(2) Statement I and statement II both are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
87. Two liquid A and B have PAo and PBo in the ratio
of 1 : 3 and the ratio of number of moles of A and
B in liquid phase are 1 : 3 then mole fraction of 'A'
in vapour phase in equilibrium with the solution is
equal to:
(1) 0.5 (2) 1.0
(3) 0.1 (4) 0.2
93. Among the following, select the pair that does not
form an ideal solution:
(1) CCl4 and SiCl4 (2) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br
(3) CHCl3 and CCl4 (4) Benzene and toluene
94. Helium atom is two times heavier than hydrogen
molecule. At 25oC, the kinetic energy of helium
atom is:
(1) Half than hydrogen
(2) Double than hydrogen
(3) Same as hydrogen
(4) Four times than hydrogen
95. Real gases show same behaviour as that of an ideal
gas at:
(1) High temperature and high pressure
(2) Low temperature and high pressure
(3) High temperature and low pressure
(4) Low temperature and low pressure

[8]
96. The density of vapours of a substance of molar 98. Ideal gas equation for one mole of an ideal gas:
mass 18 g/mol at 1 atm pressure and 500 K is 0.36 (1) PV = nRT (2) PV = RT
kg/m3, the value of compressibility factor Z for the nRT nRT
vapours will be: (3) P = (4) V =
V P
(1) 0.82
(2) 1.45 99. The total kinetic energy of the molecules in 8 g of
(3) 1.22 CH4 at 27oC in joules is:
(4) 0.69 (1) 935.3 J (2) 700 J
(3) 3741.3 J (4) 1870.65 J
97. In van der Waal’s equation, the constant ‘b’ is the
measure of: 100. The values of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for the
(1) Intermolecular collisions per unit volume gases O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are 1.36, 1.39, 4.17 and
(2) Intermolecular repulsions 2.253 L2 atm mol–2 respectively. The gas which can
most easily be liquified is:
(3) Intermolecular attractions
(1) N2 (2) O2
(4) Volume occupied by the molecules
(3) CH4 (4) NH3

[9]
 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION-A 112. Structure in prokaryotic cell similar to
101. Structure similar in Amoeba (eukaryotic cell) and mitochondria of eukaryotic cell:
bacteria: (1) Ribosome1 (2) Mesosome
(1) Cell wall (2) Nucleoid (3) Chromatophore (4) Nucleoid
(3) Mitochondria (4) Cell membrane
113. Which is not correct for nucleoid?
102. Penicillin act on cell wall by: (1) Extrachromosomal
(1) Preventing cross linking between peptide (2) Circular
(2) Break NAG and NAM (3) Double stranded
(3) Digest cell wall (4) Genomic DNA
(4) Digest cell envelope
114. Which is not feature of plasmid?
103. Structure responsible for motility in bacteria cell:
(1) Extrachromosomal
(1) Pilli (2) Fimbriae
(2) Circular
(3) Flagella (4) All
(3) Essential gene present
104. Surface structure in bacteria is: (4) Extra gene present
(1) Pilli (2) Fimbriae
(3) Flagella (4) All 115. Chromatophore structure present in:
(1) All bacteria (2) Mycoplasma
105. Cell membrane of bacteria is made up of: (3) E. coli (4) Cyanobacteria
(1) Protein only (2) Lipid
(3) Phospholipid (4) DNA 116. Structure present in all bacteria:
(1) Plasmid (2) Mesosomes
106. Hydrophilic part of membrane is provided by: (3) Cell membrane (4) Flagella
(1) Glycerol (2) Phosphate
(3) Fatty acid (4) All 117. Which is correctly matched?
(1) R-plasmid – Resistance against antibiotic
107. Which of the bacterial cell is non-motile?
(2) F-plasmid – Induce tumor
(1) Nostoc (2) Anabaena
(3) Flagella – Attachment
(3) Mycoplasma (4) All
(4) Mesosome – Photosynthesis
108. Which is not feature of Gram-negative bacteria?
(1) Porins present (2) Pilli present 118. 70S ribosome present in cytoplasm of:
(3) Loose stain (4) Retain stain (1) Amoeba (2) E. coli
(3) Yeast (4) Muscle cell
109. Gram negative and Gram-positive bacteria is
divided on the basis of: 119. Which is not present in bacteria?
(1) Thickness of cell membrane (1) Plasmid (2) 80S ribosome
(2) Thickness of glycocalyx (3) Flagella (4) Nucleoid
(3) Thickness of cell envelop
(4) None of the above 120. Naked DNA present in:
(1) Muscle cell (2) Mycoplasma
110. Which is correct? (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Yeast
(1) All bacteria are motile
(2) All bacteria are non-motile
121. Chromatophores take part in
(3) Flagella of bacteria is made up of tubulin
(1) Growth (2) Movement
(4) Pilli is tubular
(3) Respiration (4) Photosynthesis
111. Which is not role of mesosomes?
(1) Respiration 122. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand
(2) Photosynthesis of mRNA is known:
(3) Secretion (1) Polysome (2) Polymer
(4) Cell wall formation (3) Polypeptide (4) Okazaki fragment

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123. Shape of mesosomes are: 132. A specialised Structure develop from cell
(1) Tubular (2) Vesicles membrane of prokaryotes cell is:
(3) Lamellae (4) All of the above (1) Flagella (2) Mesosome
(3) Cillia (4) Vacuoles
124. The size of Pleuropneumonia - like Organism
(PPLO) is
(1) 1 - 2μm (2) 10 - 20μm 133. Which one of the following does not differ in
(3) 0.1μm (4) 0.02μm E. coli and Chlamydomonas?
(1) Cell membrane
125. Which among the following is not a prokaryote? (2) Ribosomes
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Mycobacterium (3) Chromosomal Organisation
(3) Nostoc (4) Oscillatoria (4) Cell wall

126. Which of the following components provides

sticky character to the bacterial cell? 134. Which of the following statements about inclusion
(1) Cell wall bodies is incorrect?
(2) Nuclear membrane (1) These are involved in ingestion of food
(3) Plasma membrane particles.
(4) Glycocalyx (2) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
(3) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.
127. A structure that is traversing the middle lamella and (4) They are not bound by any membrane.
connecting the cytoplasm of neighboring cells is
called
(1) Primary wall junction 135. Inclusion bodies of blue-green, purple and green
(2) Plasmodesmata photosynthetic bacteria are
(3) Desmosomes (1) Gas vacuoles
(4) Secondary wall (2) Centrioles
(3) Microtubules
128. Select the wrong statement (4) Contractile vacuoles
(1) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.
SECTION – B
(2) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism
(3) Bacterial cell wall is made up of Attempt Any 10 Questions
peptidoglycan. 136. Endomembrane system not involves
(4) Pilli and fimbriae are mainly involved in (1) Peroxisome (2) ER
motility of bacterial cells (3) Golgi Body (4) Lysosome

129. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to

137. Endomembrane system includes
rocks and / or host tissues are:
(1) Fimbriae (2) Mesosomes (1) Membrane bound
(3) Holdfast (4) Rhizoids (2) Coordinated
(3) Non-coordinated
130. Which of the following structures is not found in a (4) Both (1) and (2)
prokaryotic cell?
(1) Ribosome
138. Algae cell wall not have:
(2) Mesosome
(1) Galactan (2) Mannans
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Nuclear envelope (3) Cellulose (4) Hemicellulose

131. The motile bacteria are able to move by: 139. Plant cell wall is made up of:
(1) Pili (1) Cellulose, Hemicellulose and CaCO3
(2) Fimbriae
(2) Hemicellulose, and CaCO3
(3) Flagella
(3) Cellulose, Hemicellulose protein and pectin
(4) Cilia
(4) All of the above
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140. Cellulose not present in cell wall of 145. Structure which is not part of cell envelop
(1) Algae (1) Glycocalyx (2) Cell membrane
(2) Parenchyma (3) Cell wall (4) Flagella
(3) Agaricus
146. Outermost structure of cell envelop is
(4) Bryophytes (1) Cell wall (2) Capsule
(3) Cell membrane (4) Mesosomes
141. Lignin is present in:
(1) Primary cell wall 147. Cell wall of bacteria is made up of
(2) Cell membrane (1) Peptidoglycan (2) Cellulose
(3) SCW (3) Chitin (4) All
(4) Middle Lamellae
148. Cell wall present in
142. Middle lamella is made up of: (1) Plant cell (2) Fungi cell
(1) Calcium pectate (2) Lignin (3) Bacteria cell (4) All
(3) Pectin (4) Chitin
149. Cell wall absent in
143. Plant cell without cell wall: (1) Lactobacillus (2) Mycoplasma
(1) Protoplasm (2) Cytoplasm (3) Nostoc (4) E.coli
(3) Protoplast (4) Nucleus
150. Which of the following is not role of cell wall
144. Structure is not present in bacteria (1) Provide shape
(1) Glycocalyx (2) Fimbriae (2) Prevent bursting
(3) Pilli (4) Cillia (3) Structural support
(4) Have channels

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 SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A
151. Mast cells are associated with 158. Muscle tissue cells are contractile, which means
(1) exocrine glands they
(2) endocrine glands (1) are responsible for the production and
(3) areolar connective tissue secretion of enzymes.
(4) neural tissue` (2) are specialized in contraction and relaxation.
(3) help in the movement of involuntary organs
152. Compound squamous epithelium is found in only.
(1) stomach (2) intestine (4) all of the above
(3) trachea (4) pharynx
159. In all connective tissues, except which of the
following, the cells secrete fibres of collagen or
153. General function of gland is to elastin protein?
(1) protect the body. (1) Bone
(2) control the function of epithelial tissues. (2) Cartilage
(3) produce and secrete specialized compounds (3) Areolar connective tissue
to control and maintain different body (4) Fluid connective tissue
functions.
(4) help to maintain blood pressure and nerve 160. The supportive skeletal structures in the human
external ears and in the nose tip are examples of
actions.
(1) ligament
(2) areolar tissue
154. Which of the following type of cell junction is not
(3) bone
found in animal tissues?
(4) cartilage
(1) Adhering junction
(2) Tight junction 161. The fibres of which of the following muscles are
(3) Gap junction fusiform and do not show striations
(4) Plasmodesmata (1) Skeletal muscles (2) Cardiac muscles
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Smooth muscles
155. The only type of cell seen in a tendon is
162. Neuroglia are
(1) Muscle fibres
(1) excitable cells of neural tissue.
(2) Reticular cells
(2) supporting and non-excitable cells of neural
(3) Collagenous cells tissue.
(4) Fibroblasts (3) two to three times in volume of neural tissue.
(4) protective and excitable cells of neural tissue.
156. The chondrocytes of connective tissue are
(1) fibre secreting cells 163. Which one of the following pairs of structures
(2) bone forming cells distinguishe a nerve cell from other types of cell?
(1) Vacuoles and Fibres
(3) cartilage cells
(2) Flagellum and Medullary sheath
(4) bone eating cells
(3) Nucleus and Mitochondria
(4) Cell body and Dendrites
157. The shape of a person’s ear is mainly due to
(1) dense regular connective tissue 164. During an injury, nasal septum gets damaged.
(2) dense irregular connective tissue Which connective tissue is involved in this?
(3) elastic cartilage (1) Tendons (2) Ligaments
(4) fibrocartilage (3) Bone (4) Cartilage

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165. About how many times does the nymph of the
Periplaneta americana undergo moulting before
becoming an adult?
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 17 (4) 13
166. Male cockroach can be identified from the female
by the presence of
(1) long antennae
(2) wingless body
(3) elongated abdomen
(4) anal styles
167. In cockroach, the testes are present in
(1) 3, 4, 5 abdominal segments
(2) 4, 5, 6 abdominal segments
(3) 5, 6, 7 abdominal segments
(4) 6, 7, 8 abdominal segments
168. The mouth parts of cockroach are
(1) cutting and biting type.
(2) piercing and sucking type
(3) sucking and rasping type
(4) sucking and siphoning type
169. Gizzard (proventriculus) in cockroach lies
between
(1) oesophagus and stomach
(2) crop and mesenteron
(3) mesenteron and ileum
(4) oesophagus and crop
170. Which statement regarding anal cerci and anal
style in cockroach is correct?
(1) Anal cerci are absent but anal styles are
present in male
(2) Anal cerci are absent and anal styles are
present in female.
(3) Anal styles are absent and anal cerci are
present in male.
(4) Anal styles are absent and anal cerci are
present in female.
171. Select the correct statement regarding Periplaneta
americana
(1) There are 16 very long malpighian tubules
present at the junctions of midgut and
hindgut.
(2) Grinding of food is carried out only by the
mouth parts.
(3) Nervous system is located ventrally and
consists of segmentally arranged ganglia
joined by a pair of longitudinal connectives.
(4) Females bear a pair of short thread like anal
styles.
172. Which of the following statement is incorrect
regarding cuboidal epithelium?
(1) It is an epithelial tissue.
(2) It is composed of a single layer of cube-like
cells.
(3) They are found in the walls of blood vessels
and air sacs of lungs.
(4) Secretion and absorption are the main
functions of these tissue.
173. Which of the following statement(s) regarding cell
junctions is/are correct ?
(1) Tight junctions help to stop substances from
leaking across a tissue.
(2) Adhering junctions perform cementing to
keep neighbouring cells together.
(3) Gap junctions facilitate the cells to
communicate with each other by connecting
the cytoplasm of adjoining cells, for rapid
transfer of ions, small molecules and
sometimes big molecules.
(4) All of the above
174. Which of the following type of tissue is being
described by the given statements?
(i) They are named because of their special
function of linking and supporting other
tissues/organs of thebody.
(ii) They include cartilage, bone, adipose and
blood.
(iii) They provide strength, elasticity and
flexibility to the tissue.
(iv) They also secrete modified polysaccharides,
which accumulate between cells and fibres
and act as matrix.
(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscle tissue (4) Neural tissue
175. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
about nervous system of cockroach?
(i) It consists of a series of fused segmentally
arranged ganglia joined by paired
longitudinal connectives on the ventral side.
(ii) There are six ganglia lie in the thorax, and
three in the abdomen.
(iii) The sense organs are antennae, eyes,
maxillarypulps, labial pulps and anal cerci
etc.
(iv) Each eye consists of about 5000 hexagonal
ommatidia.
(1) Both (i) and (iii)
(2) Only (ii)
(3) Both (i) and (iv)
(4) All of these
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176. Read the following statements. (1) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(i) It is a contractile tissue present only in the (2) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
heart. (3) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(ii) Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of (4) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
these cells and make them stick together.
(iii) Communication juntions at some fusion 179. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
points allow the cells to contract as a unit, i.e., correct option.
when one cell receives a signal to contract, its Column-I Column II
neighbours are also stimulated to contract. A. Periplaneta I. Hepatic
Which of the following type of tissue is being americana caecae
described by the above statements ? B. A ring of 6-8 II. Phylum
(1) Skeletal muscle (2) Cardiac muscle blind II. arthropoda
(3) Smooth muscle (4) Cartilage tubules
C. Vascular system III. Spiracles
177. Match the types of connective tissue given in D. 10 pairs of small IV Malpighian
column-I with their examples given column-II and holes tubules
choose the correct option. E. Excretion V Open type
Column-I Columns II
(Types of connective) (Examples) (1) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
A. Loose connective I. Tendons and (2) A – II; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – IV
tissue ligaments (3) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV
B. Dense regular II. Skin (4) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I
tissue
C. Dense irregular III. Cartilage, bones, 180. Find the incorrectly matched pair.
tissue blood (1) Unicellular glandular cells - Goblet cell
D. Specialized IV. Fibroblasts, (2) Saliva - Exocrine secretion
connective tissue macrophages and (3) Fusiform fibres - Smooth muscle
mast cells
(4) Cartilage - Areolar tissue
(1) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
(2) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II 181. Identify figures-I and II.
(3) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(4) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III

178. Match the terms given in column-I with their

feature given in column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Columns II
(Terms) (Features)
A. Exocrine gland I. They help to stop
substances from
leaking across a Figure I Figure II
tissue
(1) Dense regular Dense irregular ,
B. Endocrine gland II. Hormones are connective tissue
secreted directly connective tissue
into the fluid
(2) Loose irregular Loose regular,
bathing the gland
connective connective tissue
C. Tight junctions III. They perform
cementing to keep tissue,
neighbouring cells
together. (3) Adipose tissue, Specialized
connective tissue
D. Adhering IV. Secretes mucus,
junctions saliva, earwax, oil,
(4) Connective Areolar tissue
milk, digestive tissue proper
enzymes and other
cell products
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182. The intercellular material of the given figure is (3) A- Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Malpighian tubules,
solid and resists compression. Identify the figure D-Hepatic caecae
and the label marked as A & B.
(4) A- Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Malpighian tubules,
D-Hepatic caecae

184. The following figures A, B and C are types of

muscle tissue. Identify A, B and C.

Fig. A B

(1) Cartilage Collagen Chondrocyte

(1) A – Smooth muscle, B – Cardiac muscle,
(2) Cartilage Collagen Chondroclast
C – Skeletal muscle
(3) Bone Microtubule Chondroclast (2) A – Skeletal muscle, B – Smooth muscle,
C – Cardiac muscle
(4) Bone Collagen Osteoblast
(3) A – Cardiac muscle, B – Smooth muscle,
fibres
C – Skeletal muscle
(4) A – Smooth muscle, B –Skeletal muscle ,
183. The given figure shows the digestive system of C – Cardiac muscle
cockroach with few structures marked as A, B, C
and D.
185. Refer the given figure and identify the correct
characteristic feature.

(i) It is a type of loose connective tissue.

(ii) It contains fibroblast, macrophages, collagen
fibres and mast cells.
(iii) The cells of this tissue are specialized to store
fats.
(iv) The wall of internal organs such as the blood
vessels, stomach and intestine contains this
type of tissue.
(1) (i) & (ii)
Identify structures A to D. (2) (i) & (iii)
(1) A-Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Hepatic caecae, D- (3) (ii) & (iii)
Malpighian tubules (4) (iii) & (iv)
(2) A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Hepatic caecae, D-
Malpighian tubules

[16]
 SECTION - B
186. A student was given a sample of two tissues. He
observes the tissues under the microscope and
draws their figures (1 and 2) as shown below.
190. What will happen if ligaments are cut or broken?
(1) No movements at joints.
(2) Bones will become fixed.
(3) Bones will become unfixed.
(4) Bone will move freely at joints.

191. In cockroach head can move in all directions due

to
(1) absence of neck.
(2) fusion of all 6 segments of head.
Identify the tissues (1 and 2). (3) flexible neck.
(4) head is small and light weight.
(1) 1: Columnar cells bearing cilia;
2: Unicellular glandular epithelium
192. Lack of blood supply and presence of the
(2) 1: Cuboidal cells bearing cilia; noncellular basement membrane are the
2: Multicellular glandular epithelium characteristics of the
(3) 1: Compound cells bearing cilia; (1) muscular tissue
2: Unicellular glandular epithelium (2) fluid connective tissue
(4) 1: Columnar cells bearing cilia; (3) epithelial tissue
2: Multicellular glandular epithelium (4) nervous tissue
193. The secretions of endocrine glands are released
187. Refer the given figure of female reproductive directly
system of cockroach and identify the correct labels (1) into the skin surface
(marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4) which are collectively (2) into the blood stream
called genital pouch. (3) into a gland duct
(4) into the brain tissue

194. Which of the following vertebrate tissues would be

an excellent source of collagen?
(1) Liver (2) Nerve
(3) Muscle (4) Tendon

195. Which of the following is involved in the

production of new blood cells?
(1) Adipose cell
(1) 1 & 2 (2) 1 & 3 (2) Bone marrow
(3) 2 & 4 (4) 3 & 4 (3) Liver
(4) Matrix
188. The blood of cockroach contains no respiratory
pigment. 196. The major functions of loose connective tissue
It means that include
(1) cockroach does not respire. (1) occupying spaces between organs and
(2) respiration is anaerobic. supporting epithelia.
(3) oxygen goes directly into tissues by diffusion. (2) supporting and surrounding blood vessels
(4) oxygen goes directly into tissues by and
intracellular capillary system.
nerves
(3) cushioning organs, storing lipids and
189. If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still be facilitating diffusion.
alive for as long as one week. Their is because of
(4) All of the above
(1) the body which is covered with hard chitinous
exoskeleton.
197. Nervous tissue cells that play several supporting
(2) head which holds a bit of nervous system.
roles but do not transmit impulses are called
(3) head which is of no use.
(1) glial cells (2) dendrites
(4) food capturing appratus which is found
elsewhere. (3) nerve cells (4) neurons
[17]
198. In which one of the following preparations, cell 200. What are the three basic components of connective
junctions come across most frequently? tissues?
(1) Ligament (1) Ground substance, cells and basement
(2) Tendon membrane
(3) Cartilage (2) Cartilage, intercellular matrix and serum
(4) Ciliated epithelium (3) Cells, protein fibers and ground substance
(4) Collagen, elastin and reticular fibers
199. Non-ciliated simple columnar epithelium often
contains _______, which increase the surface area
for secretion and absorption.
(1) flagella (2) collagen fibres
(3) microvilli (4) all of these

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