Criminalistics Part 2

PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION TECHNIQUES (PART 2)
1. Can a person be compelled to be fingerprinted?

a. True, if the person is under a legal arrest.
b. False. If the person is forced, the one compelling him violates the person’s constitutional
rights against self- incrimination.
c. Yes, if the person is under a legal arrest.
d. No. If the person is forced, the one compelling him violates the person’s constitutional rights
against self- incrimination.
2. A bifurcation, ending ridge, converging ridge, short ridge or dot is taken as a delta if it is
located at the heart of the pattern. This statement is:
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
3. Mark Twain informally introduced dactyloscopy in the US through his book and novel, Pudd’n
Head Wilson that pointed out the:
a. Principle of Contrast
b. Principle of Individuality
c. Principle of permanency
d. Principle of infallibility
4. In fingerprint comparison done by an expert, he has to identify a required number of points of

comparison. What number of points should be identified by him?
a. not fixed
b. 10- 12 points
c. 15- 20 points
d. 10- 15 points
5. A diverging ridge consists of two ridges running side by side, while a converging ridge
consists of two or more lines forming an:
a. curve
b. right angle
c. angle
d. shoulder
6. In ridge counting, a line is drawn between the delta and the core. In counting the ridges:
a. include the core and delta
b. exclude the delta
c. exclude the core and delta
d. include the core but exclude the delta
7. Ridge tracing for whorls always starts from the extreme left delta and the:
a. type line below it
b. first ridge below it
c. recurving ridge below it
d. any ridge below it
8. A fingerprint pattern which form the most part of a loop, but which has a small whorl inside
the loop ridges, sometimes called a “composite pattern” which means that it is made up of two
patterns in one, a whorl inside a loop.
a. central pocket loop whorl
b. double loop whorl
c. plain whorl
d. accidental whorl
9. In the PC, all fingers are used but only whorl patterns are considered using the assigned
numerical values. The whorl patterns are considered:
a. non- numerical patterns
b. with numerical count
c. numerical patterns
d. arbitrary patterns
10. When the innermost sufficient contains an uneven number of rods rising as high as the
shoulders, the core is placed upon the end of the center rod whether it touches the looping ridge
or not.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
11. In recording fingerprint impressions, it involves two methods such as the plain and rolled
impression. In the second method, the inking and printing should reach:
a. below the terminal phalange of the fingers
b. below the second joint of the fingers
c. from the tip to the first joint of the fingers
d. below the middle phalange of the fingers
12. The following are the equipment in taking fingerprints, except:

a. fingerprint roller
b. operator
c. card holder
d. ink slab
13. Fingers that are excessively perspiring are wiped with alcohol before recording the prints,
while fingers that are very dry should be rubbed with the following, except:
a. oil
b. grease
c. cream
d. lotion
14. Too much ink will obliterate the ridges. Ridges that cannot be seen and counted is caused
by:
a. dark ink
b. light ink
c. insufficient ink
d. incorrect kind of ink
15. Visible prints are latent prints that can be seen by the naked eye. These do not require
developing. The proper procedure to preserve it is by:
a. photographing
b. lifting
c. developing
d. sketching
16. In the physical method of developing latent prints, if the surface is dark, the powder used is
white and when the surface is white, the powder to be applied is black. What is the principle
applied in this method?
a. Principle of contact
b. principle of adherence
c. principle of contrast
d. principle of powdering
17. The following are the factors affecting the latent prints, except:
a. sweat and body secretions
b. climate
c. emotional stability
d. emotional reflexes
18. The unknown area of friction ridge structure or the latent impression is examined. The clarity
of the impression and the variety of details are established.
a. identification of fingerprint
b. examination of fingerprint
c. analysis of fingerprint
d. verification of fingerprint
19. A short ridge at the top or summit of a recurve usually at right angles.
a. upthrust
b. staple
c. spur
d. appendage
20. In strict usage, it is the ultimate abbreviation of ridge structure, a unit bearing but one sweat
pore.
a. island
b. enclosure
c. pore
d. incipient ridge
21. The following fingers are included in the numerator of the Primary Classification. Which one
is not included?
a. finger number 2
b. finger number 5
c. finger number 8
d. finger number 10
22. In comparing a latent print and an actual print, what are to be considered are the:
a. number of points of comparison
b. completeness of the latent print
c. clarity of the impression
d. ability of the fingerprint expert to prove that a latent print is the same with the actual print
23. An arrested person can be forced to be fingerprinted when he/ she:

a. was legally arrested
b. waived his right to be fingerprinted
c. consented to be fingerprinted
d. was arrested with a warrant of arrest
24. The operator, in recording fingerprint impression should advice the subject to relax his
fingers and:
a. assist the operator
b. never aid in the operation
c.. join the operation
d. never move his hands in the operation
25. Almost every police and law enforcement agencies throughout the world accept, adopt, and
utilize fingerprint system as a means of absolute identification of a person. This concept is under
what principle?
a. Principle of Contrast
b. Principle of Individuality
c. Principle of permanency
d. Principle of reliability
26. In case of split thumbs or thumbs having two nails, the _____________is considered the
extra thumbs.
a. outer
b. inner
c. normal
d. any of the above
27. The category of latent prints that are commonly known as chance impression that needs
developing.
a. semi-visible prints
b. visible prints
c. semi-invisible prints
d. invisible prints
28. Ninhydrin is used to develop prints on absorbent materials and it is applied using the
following, except:
a. brushing
b. blowing
c. soaking
d. spraying
29. An applied science that is without bias or prejudice with a personal opinion being rendered
as conclusions.
a. fingerprint comparison
b. fingerprint verification
c. fingerprint identification
d. fingerprint analysis
30. The palm is the front part of the hand, while _________ is the back side of the hand.
a. corium
b. mortem
c. dorsal
d. dactyl
31. A ridge bridge that connects two other ridges, while a ridge that abruptly terminates is
called:
a. rod or bar
b. ridge hook
c. ridge ending
d. ridge
32. In the Primary Classification, what is finger no. 3?

a. right thumb
b. left ring finger
c. left middle finger
d. right middle finger
33. The opinion of the forensic examiner must be confirmed by another examiner.
a. analysis
b. comparison
c. evaluation
d. verification
34. If all 10 fingers and thumbs are amputated or missing at birth, the classification will be M 32
W MMM/ M 32 W MMM.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
35. The delta may BE located at a bifurcation which does not open towards the core.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
36. Where can you find the classification line in the fingerprint card?
a. upper rightmost corner
b. upper leftmost corner
c. bottom rightmost corner
d. upper rightmost corner
37. The point at which the recurving ridge of a loop type pattern definitely turns inward.
a. recurve
b. arch
c. shoulder
d. spike
38. In some areas of the volar surfaces, the friction ridges all tend to lean on the same
direction. Imbrications ridges vary among individuals and even the regions of volar areas where
they are found.
a. Friction ridge imbrications
b. type lines
c. ulnar loop
d. radial loop
39. It is an ending ridge of any length rising at a sufficient degree from the horizontal place.
a. upthrust
b. spur
c. staple
d. spike
40. The following are the means of personal identification, except:

a. tattoo
b. polygraphy
c. fingerprint
d. DNA
41. It is the scientific investigation into matters pertaining to law in the course of a crime.
a. forensic science
b. forensic
c. chemistry
d. all of the above
42. He discovered the two layers of the skin, the dermis (inner layer) and epidermis (outer layer)
and became known as Grandfather of Fingerprint.
a. Marcelo Malpighi
b. Francis Galton
c. Edward Richard Henry
d. Johannes Purkinje
43. This is the bone covered with friction skin, having all the different types of fingerprint
patterns and it is located near the tip of the finger.
a. terminal phalange
b. middle phalange
c. proximal phalange
d. any of these
44. When the deltas have been located, the ridge emanating from the lower side or point of the
extreme left delta is traced until the point nearest or opposite the extreme right delta is reached.
The number of ridges intervening between the tracing ridge and the right delta are then counted.
a. ridge tracing
b. ridge counting
c. loop tracing
d. loop counting
45. It is a metallic or glass plate where the ink is spread for purpose.
a. printer’s ink
b. capillary ink
c. ink slab
d. ink roller
46. In taking the fingerprints, the subject should be instructed to stand straight but relax facing
the slab.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
47. This states that when any two objects come into contact, there is always transference of
material from each object onto the other.
a. Locard’s Exchange Principle
b. Principle of Permanency
c. Principle of Anatomy
d. Any of the above
48. In case of split/webbed thumb, it should be rolled together and be classified based on the
following rules, except:
a. get the bigger one
b. If of the same size, Get the inner one.
c. get both of them
d. none of the above
49. It is the result of the evaluation and interpretation of the ten (10) fingerprints applying the
principle of ridge counting, ridge tracing.
a. classification formula
b. blocking
c. analysis
d. evaluation
50. These prints are made by sliding motion of the finger.

a. dirty prints
b. Smudge prints
c. fragmentary prints
d. any of the above
51. If two amputated fingers are opposite each other, both are given the classifications of whorls
With outer (O) tracings.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
52. These are also known as partial prints.

a. half prints
b. smudge prints
c. chance prints
d. fragmentary prints
53. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges enter on one side of the pattern and flow towards
the other side, with a rise in the center with not more than one of the four requisites for a loop
and with no recurving ridge, no angular formation, and no upward trust.
a. plain arch
b. tented arch
c. accidental whorl
d. loop
54. These are the factors affecting the stability of prints at the crime scene, except:
a. subject factor
b. nature of the surface
c. climatic condition
d. subject age
55. The following are the rules of developing prints in the crime scene, except:
a. do not lift without taking photographs
b. do not lift on small movable object
c. do not develop visible latent print
56. Either by applying method or soaking method, it is used on the different kinds of adhesive
materials. This method is also known as dyeing method.
a. victoria blue
b. colloidal gold
c. black powder
d. cyanoacrelate
57. These are unusual ridge structures having no well-defined patterns; the ridges are extremely
short, appear like a series of “patches” caused by a disturbance of developmental process at
early fetal life of the individuals.
a. dissociated ridges
b. incomplete ridges
c. incipient ridges
d. any of these
58. What is the most commonly used ink for taking fingerprint impression?
a. any black ink
b. black printers’ ink
c. black Victoria ink
d. black pen ink
59. Temporary disabilities of the fingers include the following, except:

a. fresh cuts or wounds or bandaged fingers
b. Occupational marks (dry skin)
c. Excessive perspiration
d. split fingers/thumbs
60. Simply means the taking of fingerprint impressions, either rolled or plain impression.
a. blocking
b. classifying
c. recording
d. interpretation
61. The steps in fingerprint classification are the following, except:

a. recording
b. interpretation
c. blocking
62. It means an attempt to locate in the file a print identical to the current print and thus
established identification.
a. recording
b. interpretation
c. blocking
d. searching
63. In case of partial amputation, place the abbreviation symbol:

a. TIP AMP
b. AMP
c. FMB
d. any of these
64. Single recurving ridge at the center of the pattern area.

a. ulnar ridge
b. looping rige
c. staple ridge
d. hook or spur
65. It is a classification placed in twenty small boxes that appear just above the fingerprint
boxes.
a. Henry- Galton Classification System
d. Vucetich Classification System
c. National Crime Information Center Classification System
d. Philippine National Police Classification System
66. In the classification line, what is in between KC and PC?
a. FC
b. SC
c. SSC
d. MC
67. The standard size of the fingerprint card is:

a. 6x6 inches
b. 6x6 cm
c. 8x 8 inches
d. 12 x 12 inches
68. A computer-based system for reading, cataloguing, searching, matching, and storing
fingerprints and related data.
a. IBIS
b. AFIS
c. NCIC
d. ten-print
69. An identification of minutiae- based data of a fingerprint image with minutiae- based from
another fingerprint image as being a mate for the finger of the same person.
a. Heat
b. hit response
c. matched
d. any of these
70. Unique identifying characteristics of fingerprints are called:

a. ridge characteristics
b. identifying characteristics
c. fingerprint minutiae
d. individual characteristics
71. It refers to a single ending ridge in the center of a recurving ridge of a loop.
a. appendage
b. bar
c. rod
d. both b & c
72. A fingerprint pattern that is a combination of two or more different types of patterns, except
in plain arch. It can be a combination of a loop and a whorl, a loop and a central pocket loop
whorl or any combination of two different loops and whorl patterns.
a. central pocket loop whorl
b. double loop whorl
c. plain whorl
d. accidental whorl
73. The term “lights-out” for AFIS ten-print fingerprint operations has been around for many
years and is generally understood to mean:
a. there was no current when the AFIS was used
b. no human intervention is involved
c. it was earth day when the matching was done
d. there was no light when the matching was done
74. In the Primary Classification, what is the value of the right ring finger if it contains a whorl
pattern?
a. 8
b. 3
c.5
d. 10
75. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are:

a. enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts
b. criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges
c. ridge endings, dots and bifurcations
d. type lines, converging ridges and recurving ridges
FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY (PART 2)
1. It refers to light already existing in an indoor or outdoor setting that is not caused by any
illumination supplied by the photographer.
a. ambient light
b. artificial light
c. lamp
d. bright sunlight
2. It refers to the total amount of light entering the camera, essentially how bright your image is.
a. range
b. ambience
c. exposure
d. film speed
3. This measures the distance from the camera to an object. In this way, you can calculate the
actual distance and adjust the focus to capture sharp pictures.
a. rangefinder
b. depth of field
c. shutter speed
d. f-stop
4. It has an ultra-wide field of view, like 12mm. The photography angle of view is usually 100-
180 degrees.
a. ultra lens
b. fish eye lens
c. prime lens
d. zoom lens
5. This is the translation of a Japanese word for blur. In photography terms, bokeh refers to the
out-of-focus areas or out-of-focus point of light in a picture’s background as well as the other
creamy blurriness in a background.
a. bokeh
b. zoom
d. filter
d. vignetting
6. The hour after sunrise or before sunset. Landscape photographers often chase this because
of the sun’s low light angle.
a. blue hour
b. happy hour
c. photo hour
d. Golden hour
7. This deals with the photographing of traffic incident or occurrence especially in a vehicular
accident.
a. crime scene photography
b. photography
c. surveillance photography
d. traffic accident photography
8. Glass discs or squares that attach to the end of your lens to change the light coming into the
camera. Different types of this changes the light in different ways.
a. bokeh
b. zoom
d. filter
d. vignetting
9. This is the mechanical device inside a camera lens that controls the aperture.
a. diaphragm
b. shutter
c. aperture
d. shutter speed
10. It is the distance at which the focus point provides a deeper depth of field. It is often used by
landscape photographers to ensure their scenes are as sharp as possible.
a. hyperfocal distance
b. focus
c. main focus
d. range
11. This is a common occurrence in photography in which the edges of an image appear less
bright and desaturated, especially on the corners.
a. bokeh
b. zoom
d. filter
d. vignetting
12. The main light source for a photograph. It could be the sun, a studio strobe, a flash, a
reflector, or something else. It’s the source that produces the pattern of light on the subject with
the most intensity.
a. main light or key light
b. ambient light
c. visible light
d. invisible light
13. The chief attribute of this camera is its ability to deliver a complete processed print almost
immediately after exposure.
a. view finder camera
b. SLR
c. polaroid
d. press type of camera
14. It is a wavelength emitted by the sun which cannot be seen, tough we can feel it in our
bodies as warmth or heat.
a. infra-red
b. ultra-violet light
c. natural light
d. man-made light
15. The speed of light measured in a vacuum is approximately________?
a. 186, 281 miles/sec.
b. 299, 792.5 km/sec
c. 299, 795.2 km/sec
d. both a and b
16. It is another form of light that we cannot see, but we know about it because it tans our skin
in summer.
a. infra-red
b. ultra-violet light
c. natural light
d. man-made light
17. It refers to the sensitivity of the film to wavelength or color.
a. speed
b. spectral sensitivity
c. granularity
d. graininess
18. One of photography guidelines in natural disaster is to search and locate cadavers. Put a
Cadaver Tag on every dead body and photograph/video it WITHOUT the tag number on it.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
19. It is the focal setting for the diaphragm controlling the size of the aperture; the higher the
number, the smaller the aperture opening.
a. f-stop
b. shutter speed
c. aperture
d. ISO
20. The first photographic process.
a. calotype process
b. daguerreotype process
c. collodion process
d. gelatin dry plate silver bromide process
21. This is an art or science which deals with the study of the principles of photography, the
preparation of photographic evidence, and its application to police work.
a. police photography
b. forensic photography
c. photography
d. any of these
22. What color of photographic paper is usually used in police photography?
a. peach
b. gray
c. white
d. cream
23. It is the bouncing back of light upon hitting an object or material.
a. reflection
b. refraction
c. transmission
d. absorption
24. The change of direction of light that passes through an object or material.
a. reflection
b. refraction
c. transmission
d. absorption
25. The lower the f-number, the more light per unit area is delivered in the focal plane.
a. true
b. partially true
c. false
d. partially false
26. It is mounted over the opening at the front of the camera body. Its function is to produce an
image on the film at the back of the camera by gathering and focusing the rays of light from the
object.
a. camera
b. shutter
c. lens
d. aperture
27. The light-gathering power of the lens is indicated by
a. f-number
b. relative aperture
c. both a and c
d. none of these
28. Lenses corrected for astigmatism are termed __________.
a. contortion
b. anastigmatic
c. correcting
29. If you have a________________, take pictures from ceiling height down of the victim and
any other evidence. This perspective often shows things missed when viewed from ground or
eye level.
a. camera boom
b. tripod
c. camera zoom
d. bipod
30. The speed of the lens is expressed in terms of its:
a. aperture
b. diaphragm
c. view finder
d. shutter
31. The combination of blue and green light will produce what color?
a. black
b. cyan
c. magenta
d. yellow
32. In a stake out surveillance photography, where the photographer cannot get close to the
subject, what kind of lens must be used?
a. normal
b. telephoto
c. wide-angle lens
d. zoom
33. The lens opening also known as the relative aperture is the indicator for light transmitting
capability of the lens. Which lens opening will admit more light to pass through its medium?
a. f/16
b. f/5.6
c. f/4
d. f/2.8
34. The light from the pinhole will form:
a. a halo effect
b. a photographic emulsion
c. an inverted image
d. an emergent ray
35. When light passes through an object, it is said to be :
a. transmitted
b. refracted
c. diffracted
d. absorbed
36. The colors made by combining the primary colors are called
a. sub-primary colors
b. secondary colors
c. tertiary colors
d. elementary colors
37. What is the equivalent of ASA 25 in DIN Rating?
a. DIN 18
b. DIN 15
c. DIN 30
d. DIN 33
38. This is considered to be the first application of photography is police work.
a. record purposes
b. personal identification
c. personal record
d. mugshot
39. This is considered to be the utmost used of photography in police work.

a. record purposes
b. personal identification
c. personal record
d. mugshot
40. It deals with photographing hidden objects or things.
a. x-ray photography
b. police photography
c. x-ray
d. infra-red photography
41. If you make the hole through which the light passes into the camera (the aperture) smaller;
you must keep the shutter open for a longer time to compensate. Is this true?
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
42. This is commonly designed in laboratory photographing using some magnification such as
photomacrography and photomicrography.
a. medium view
b. close-up view
c. general view
d. extreme close- up view
43. He is an American who is considered the advocate of police/forensic photography. He is

also known as the Father of Police/Forensic Photography.
a. Edward Burke
b. Edward Henry
c. William Herschel
d. Alphonse Bertillon
44. It is the process of taking photograph of a far object with the aid of a long focus and
telephoto lens.
a. telephotography
b. hyper photography
d. any of these
45. This is the zone between the foreground and background that appears in sharpest focus for
a particular lens, distance, and aperture.
a. depth of field
b. angle of view
c. focus
d. focal length
46. A question of __________is usually proved by proving the origin of the evidence and its
relation to the case and this is usually supplemented by photograph of the evidence giving
reference as to where it came from.
a. admissibility
b. relevancy
c. legality
d. none of these
47. This is a lens with a fixed focal length. These lenses cannot zoom.
a. ultra lens
b. fish eye lens
c. prime lens
d. zoom lens
48. Isaac Newton in 1666 proved that the ____________which men see as is actually a mixture
of all colors of the spectrum.
a. white light
b. black light
c. ambient light
d. visible light
49. An invisible light with the wavelength between .01 to 30 millimicrons. It was incidentally
discovered by Conrad Welhelm Roentgen. This type of light works in the principle of shadow
photography.
a. infrared
b. x-ray
c. UV light
d. visible light
50. It refers to the type of radiation having a wavelength of 400 to 700 millimicrons designed for
ordinary photographing purposes.
a. infrared
b. x-ray
c. UV light
d. visible light
51. This is considered as the photographic rays with the longest wavelength ranging from 700 to
1000 millimicrons. It is designed to take photograph of over-written documents, obliterated
writing, and charred documents or for black out photography. It is sometimes referred to as heat
rays.
a. infrared
b. x-ray
c. UV light
d. visible light
52. It is that sensitized material that will record the visible image in the final development and
become the photograph.
a. photo paper
b. film
c. sensitized materials
d. memory
53. This paper weight is designed for high flexibility and when paper thickness is not of
consideration. Intended for purposes, which involves folding.
a. light weight
b. single weight
c. double weight
d. heavy weight
54. The color of photographic paper preferred for pictorial effect, portraits, landscape or when
warmth effect is desired.
a. peach
b. gray
c. white
d. cream
55. In the term camera obscura, obscura means _______________.
a. hole
b. pinhole
c. camera
d. dark chamber
56. It is the process of the shutter opening, closing and resetting to where it is ready.
a. shutter speed
b. aperture opening
c. diaphragm speed
d. shutter cycle
57. This phenomenon is responsible for the partial illumination of object parts not directly in the
path of the light.
a. detraction
b. retraction
c. diffraction
d. defragmentation
58. What is the approximate wavelength of the primary color red?

a. 700 mu
b. 450 mu
c. 550 mu
d. 590 mu
59. The light that has a wavelength that is either too short or too long to excite the retina of the
human eye
a. main light or key light
b. ambient light
c. visible light
d. invisible light
60. What changes the size of the aperture of the lens and regulates the amount of light reaching
the film?
a. diaphragm
b. shutter
c. lens
d. film
61. This refers to a negative or print lacking detail and contrast.
a. underexposure
b. washed out
c. overexposure
d. aberration
62. The process of changing the distance between the centers of the lens to the focal plane. It is
the technique of adjusting the focal length to get the sharp image of the object or scene to be
photographed.
a. infinity
b. lens change
c. focusing
d. shotting
63. It is important to have the lens at the right distance from the film otherwise the image of an
object point will be seen as a circle which is:
A. clear in appearance
b. blurred in appearance
c. dark photo
d. any of these
64. Photographic papers are made in several grades of contrast and surface texture. What is
the paper made by Kodak that offers six degrees of contrast and glossy surface?
a. glossy paper
b. manila paper
c. velox paper
d. bond paper
65. It is a device that allows light to pass for a determined period of time, for the purpose of
exposing photographic film or a light-sensitive electronic sensor to light to capture a permanent
image of a scene.
a. diaphragm
b. shutter
c. aperture
d. shutter speed
66. A type of photopaper according to emulsion which is used for projection and also best suited
in police photography.
a. silver bromide paper
b. chloride paper
c. chlorobromide paper
d. photo paper
67. A type of film according to use, which is usually represented by prefix or suffix “pan” or
ortho”.
a. colored film
b. filtered film
c. any film
d. black and white film
68. As prober, how can you preserve perishable evidence like injuries, contusions, hematoma
and the like?
a. photography
b. recording
c. sketching
d. NOTA
69. In photography probe, when murder occurred showing disarray of cabinets, photography is
essential to show the defense of the:
a. suspect
b. witness
c. first responder
d. victim
70. It is an exhibit shown in court for scrutiny by litigants and others.
a. police photography
b. forensic photography
c. photography
d. any of these
71. In robbery with force upon things, which of the following should closely be photographed?
a. weapons used
b. things stolen
c. entrance and exit
d. cadavers wound
72. Photographs taken at the crimes scene and which will be used for court presentation are
called: a. surveillance photographs
b. photography
c. pictures
d. forensic photographs
73. This has two lenses, one for viewing and focusing on the subject and for taking lens. In this
type of camera, the image to be photographed is seen as flat surface as the image is reflected
by the mirror behind the viewing lens.
a. view finder type
b. view or press type camera
c. special cameras
d. TLR
74. It deals with the photograph of individual without his knowledge, such is the same in
clandestine photography.
a. crime scene photography
b. photography
d. traffic accident photography
75. Medium view or mid-range photographs are taken in a manner which portrays the scene
from approximately _____________of distance from the subject matter.
a. five feet or less
b. ten feet
c. ten to twenty feet
d. ten feet or more

FORENSIC BALLISTICS (PART 2)
1. This treats of the motion of projectiles after leaving the muzzle of the gun barrel.
a. forensic ballistics
b. ballistics
c. interior ballistics
d. exterior ballistics
2. This is a device for storing cartridges in a repeating firearm for loading into the chamber.
a. barrel
b. magazine
c. trigger guard
d. butt
3. What is propelled from the barrel and out of the gun by powder gasses?
a. gun
b. projectiles
c. cartridge
d. ammunition
4. Instances when the size of the entrance wound is bigger than the caliber of the firearm used, except:
a. contact fire
b. acute angular approach of the bullet
c. deformity of the bullet
d. fragmentation of the bullet before hitting the subject
5. It is the science of mechanics that deals with the flight, behavior and effects of projectiles especially
bullet, gravity bombs, rockets or the like.
b. ballistics
6. The unburned or partially burned powder grains embedded in the skin surrounding the point of entry
in gunshot wound produce:
a. tattooing
b. stippling
c. peppering
d. all of the above
7. Which of the following is the characteristic of a gunshot wound of exit?
a. contusion collar
b. tattooing or smudging
c. wound larger than the bullet
d. edges of the wound are inverted
8. A dead person was found with a contact gunshot wound in the right temple and the fatal gun tightly
gripped by the right hand. Such condition is called:
a. rigor mortis
b. post-mortem rigidity
c. cadaveric spasm
d. death stiffening
9. This consists of unburned, burning and partially burned powder together with graphite
which came out from the muzzle. It is responsible for the tattooing around the gunshot
wound of entrance.
a. smoke
b. powder grains
c. powder burns
d. flame
10. In a common police parlance, a bullet may be called ______.
a. projectile
b. tingga
c. slug
d. bala
11. Firing pin mark can be found in a “Fired Shell”.
a. true
b. false
c. partially true
d. partially false
12. The number of lands and grooves inside the bore of a fired firearm are always_________.
a. different
b. the same
c. opposite
d. none of these
13. This is a part of the firearm which causes firing mechanism.
a. hammer
b. trigger
c. barrel
d. ejector
14. It refers to the circular groove near the base of the case or shell designed for the automatic
withdrawal of the case after each firing.
a. ejector groove
b. extractor groove
c. land groove
d. none of these
15. The first priming mixture is composed of Potassium Chlorate, Charcoal, and _________.
a. Ground Glass
b. Fulminate of Mercury
c. Barium Nitrate
d. Sulphur
16. Firearm which may be fired only by a single hand.
a. rifle
b. pistol
c. shotgun
d. all of these
17. The term cartridge is derived from the word “charta”, the Latin word for ____.
a. plastic
b. metal
c. cartoon
d. paper
18. It is the hole in the web or the bottom of the primer pocket through which the primer “flash”
provides ignition to the gunpowder.
a. flash hole
b. vent
c. cannelures
d. a or b
19. It is equal to the height of the side of a land.
a. depth of grooves
b. twist
c. rifling
d. land
20. The gun powder is otherwise known as_____________.
a. powder charge
b. propellant
c. pulbura
d. a & b
21. It is the result of the critical study of the specimens submitted, conducted by the Firearm
Examiner, usually with the use of Bullet Comparison Microscope.
a. ballistics report
b. firearm report
c. criminalistics report
d. report
22. These are used in cases such in sending signals and enabling to see enemies in the dark.
a. zip guns
b. paradox guns
c. multi-barreled guns
d. flare guns
23. The rifling inside the gun barrel may twist _________.
a. to the right only
b. to the left only
c. to the right & left
d. all of these
24. It is a tabular metallic or non-metallic container which holds together the bullet,
gunpowder and primer.
a. bullet
b. cartridge case
c. shell
d. b or c
25. The portion of the primer against which the priming mixture is crushed by a blow from the firing pin.
a. disc
b. anvil
c. primer cup
d. flash hole
26. Most center-fire rifle cartridge cases are of_______.
a. bottleneck type
b. straight cases
c. long neck
d. short neck
27. The bottom of the case which holds the primer and the shell head.
a. extracting groove
b. base
c. crimp
d. mouth
28. This (also called as propellant or power charge) is the mixture of chemicals of various compositions
designed to propel the projectile by means of its expensive force of gas when burned.
a. priming mixture
b. gunpowder
c. black powder
d. smokeless powder
29. It is an instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by means of the expansive force of gases
coming from the burning gunpowder.
a. bullet
b. firearm
c. small arms
d. grenade
30. The firearm leaves its “fingerprints” or “thumb mark” on every cartridge case which it fires.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
31. This is the part of cartridge which when ignited is converted to high pressure and propels the
bullet or shot through the barrel and on the target.
a. primer
b. gunpowder
c. cartridge case
d. ammo
32. This is the study of the projectiles behavior when it leaves the barrel and the pressure behind
the projectile is equalized.
a. shot ballistics
b. wound ballistics
c. ballistic fingerprinting
d . transition/intermediate ballistic
33. This refers to the diameter of the barrel on a shotgun in terms of the number of lead balls the size of
the bore it would take to weigh one pound
a. fouling
b. patch
c. gauge
d. blowby
34. What is meant by the Greek word ballo or ballien?

a. bullet
b. ballistics
c. to throw
d. any of these
35. It is the method of viewing fired bullet and shell in the bullet comparison microscope where the
specimens are compared side by side.
a. Juxtaposition
b. intermarriage
c. equal position
d. any of these
36. What is the factor that affects the bullet drops to the ground?
a. density
b. lightness
c. gravity
d. pressure
37. It refers to the helical lines cut in the interior bore of the gun barrel.
a. caliber
b. lands
c. rifling
d. radius
38. By holding the nose of the bullet pointing far from your eyes, the direction of rifling impressions run
from you determines the direction of twist.
a. towards
b. near
c. going
d. away
39. The following are the basis for conclusive positive identification of firearm evidences, EXCEPT:
a. consistent
b. significant
c. parallel
d. prominent
40. This is due to the passage of bullet at the spiral landings and grooving of the barrel.
a. forward movement
b. spinning movement
c. tumbling movement
d. wabbling movement
41. Most firearms have some type of designed to minimize the potential for accidental discharge.
a. barrel
b. hammer
c. safety
d. cylinder
42. At the crime scene, is it proper to note down where the empty shells, bullets and/ or firearms were
found and make a diagram to illustrate the same to show their relative distances from the body of the
victim?
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
43. It the primary fracture resembles the spokes of a wheel radiating outward from the point of impact.
a. concentric crack
b. radial crack
c. bullet hole
d. glass fragments
44. It is the chemical wear and tear of the inside of the gun barrel due to rust formation or chemical
reaction by the products of combustion after firing.
a. rusting
B. corrosion
C. erosion
D. lead building
45. In a given cartridge, where to find the name of manufacturer?
a. place of recovery
b. head stamp
c. class characteristics
d. cross matching
46. The firearm examiner's job usually involves the inspection of submitted firearms functionality to
determine if __________is possible.
a. trace evidence
b. remote firing
c. hammer discharge
d. accidental discharge
47. Under RA 10591, there class of firearm refer to self-loading pistols, rifles and carbines,
submachine guns, assault rifles and light machine guns not exceeding caliber 7.62MM which have fully
automatic mode.
a. class a light weapon
b. class d weapons
c. class b light weapon
d. low powered
48. It is a branch of ballistics which study shotgun ammunition including its characteristics spread and
trailing.
a. shot ballistics
b. forensic ballistics
c. wound ballistics
d. either of these
49. It is an energy generated at the muzzle point, whenever the cartridge explodes from a firearm.
a. aerodynamic drag
b. striking energy
c. muzzle blast
d. muzzle energy
50. This procedure is to obtain standard bullet and shell that will compare to the evidence.
a. test firing
b. physical examination
c. chemical examination
d. microscopic examination
51. The diameter of the rim is equal with the diameter of the body of the cartridge case.
a. rimmed type
b. rimless type
c. semi- rimmed
d. rebated type
52. Conclusions reached in a bullet comparison will NOT include the following.
a. inconclusive identification
b. positive identification
c. personal identification
d. negative identification
53. If class characteristics between an ammunition component and a firearm are in agreement the next
step in the examination process would be to look for:
a. safety defects
b. individual characteristics
c. microscopic residues
d. radial fractures
54. What is the portion of the gun that holds the cartridge ready for firing?
a. barrel
b. bore
c. frame
d. chamber
55. In a given bullet, what are the details to be determined by firearm examiner?
a. caliber
b. type of primer and gunpowder used
c. position of the victim and the suspect
d. all of these
56. This is defined as the science of motion of projectiles.
b. ballistics
57. What is meant by MAC rule?
a. mutilate-alter-contaminate
b. mutilate-add-concentrate
c. mutate-alter-contaminate
d. mutate-add-concentrate
58. What is the reason why the markings cannot be placed on the base of a cartridge case?
a. to preserve the rifling marks
b. to preserve the value of evidence
c. to preserve the firing pin marks
d. to obtain class characteristics
59. What is the importance of trajectory in investigation of a shooting incidence?
a. to identify the caliber of firearm used
b. to identify the position of firer and victim
c. to locate the shooter
d. to determine the fatal gun
60. Interior ballistics involves the following reactions, EXCEPT:
a. pressure developed
b. recoil of the gun
c. ignition of the priming mixture
d. muzzle blast
61. In particular one will find guns having the three or four barrels are mounted in one receiver. Some may
have a combination of several different gauges of shotguns, or a combination of shotgun barrels and rifle
barrel.
a. zip guns
b. paradox guns
c. multi-barreled guns
d. flare guns
62. Three test bullets are used during firearm examination. The following are their uses, except:
a. for comparison or preliminary examination;
b. for confirmation
c. for keeping
d. for conclusion
63. ________________is the most important consideration in dealing with GSR evidence.
a. time factor
b. the gun used
c. the apparel of the shooter
d. conclusion
64. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to:
a. increase the speed of the bullet
b. decrease the amount of recoil
c. prevent the bullet from turning over and end in the air
d. increase the damage to the object hit by the bullet
65. Of the following, the best method to use in firing a handgun is to keep:
a. both eyes closed
b. both eyes open
c. only the left eye open
d. only the dominant eye open
66. The marks left of a bullet by a gun barrel are different from those left by any other gun barrel. This
fact is most useful in directly identifying:
a. direction from which a shot was fired
b. person who fired a particular gun
c. gun from which a bullet was fired
d. bullet which caused a fatal wound
67. When a shot is fired on an automatic pistol by a criminal:
a. the empty shell remains within the chamber
b. the shell in most cases will be found at the crime scene
c. the shell is rarely found at the crime scene
d. the shell is usually disposed by the shooter

68. The smallest size of shot used in a shotgun.
a. pellet shot
b. buck shot
c. bird shot
d. dust shot
69. What do cannelures on bullets contribute?
a. makes the bullet faster
b. holds the bullet firmly in the cartridge
c. increases the mobility of the bullet
d. makes the effect of the bullet stronger
70. What term is used for the phenomenon of background push?
a. Firepower
b. muzzle power
c. recoil
71. The approximate time for the ignition inside the gun to take place:
a. 3 seconds
b. 2 seconds
c. 1 minute
d. 0.0002 sec.
72. The indentation in the primer of a tentative cartridge case or in the rim of a rim face cartridge case
cause when it is struck by the firing pin is:
a. firing pin impression
b. skid marks
c. flash holes
d. vents
73. When an empty shell is found at the scene of the crime, the presumption is an automatic pistol or
automatic weapon was used, and when no empty shell is found at the scene of the crime, the
presumptions is a revolver was used.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
74. The word___________ is a generic term used when referring to any metallic or non-metallic ball that
is propelled from firearm. It may also be referred to as bullet, slug, shot, or missile.
a. projectile
b. bullet
c. firearm
d. propellant
75. Under RA 10591, Type 2 license allows a citizen to own and possess a maximum of how many guns?
a. three
b. one
c. five
d. eight
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION (PART 2)
1. Defined as a visible effect of bodily movement which is an almost unconscious

expression of fixed muscular muscles.
a. speed of writing
b. handwriting
c. natural writing
d. writing habits
2. Mere blank forms of official documents, the spaces of which are not filled up, are considered
as documents.
a. true
b. false
c. yes
d. no
3. The requirements to become a questioned document examiner are the following,

except:
a. a period of training
b. a period of experience
c. must be a police officer
d. all of the above
4. The removal of writings, typewriting or printing, maybe chemical eradication and or by an

abrasive erasure is called:
a. insertion
b. erasure
c. obliteration
d. interlineation
5. The addition of writing and other material between lines or paragraphs or the addition of
whole page to a document.
a. insertion
b. interlineation
c. obliteration
d. both b and c
6. The following are the general classifications of Question Document, except:
a. documents with questioned signatures
b. questioned documents alleged to have been containing fraudulent alterations
c. documents having been proven their origin
d. questioned documents on issues of their age or date
7. What is used in the detection of counterfeited bills but can actually be used to detect security
features of qualified documents?
a. ultra violet light
b. oblique light examination
c. transmitted light
d. infra-red light
8. The following are the methods of examining indented writing. which is not included?
a. physical methods maybe used by passing a strong beam of nearly parallel light almost
horizontally over the surface of the paper
b. fuming the document maybe of values in some cases
c. powders of various kinds maybe used without changing the document
d. placing the paper over the fire of a candle to detect writings using urine
9. The following are the processes in caring, handling and preservation of documents,
except:
a. take disputed papers to document examiner`s laboratory at the first opportunity.
b. if storage is necessary, keep in dry place away from excessive heat strong light.
c. maintain in consequential document, unfolded and in transparent plastic envelope or

evidence preserver.
10. In caring and handling disputed documents and documentary evidence, it is advisable to be
kept unfolded and in a separate, proper size envelope or folder.
a. true
b. false
c. yes
d. no
11. It refers to the numeral found at the four corners of the front and back of the note.
a. value panel
b. micro printing
c. serial numbers
d. vignette
12. Also called standards, are legally admissible authentic samples of handwriting used for
comparison with questioned writing. they are used by the document examiner to enable her to
form an opinion concerning the authenticity of handwriting in dispute.
a. writings
b. documents
c. exemplars
d. questioned document
13. It is the deterioration in writing caused by excessive consumption of alcohol.
a. intoxicated writing
b. receipt writing
c. careless writing
d. illiterate writing
14. In taking request handwriting standards in all types of questioned-document problems,

permit the subject to see any writing on the questioned document. This statement is:
a. true
b. false
c. yes
d. no
15. This is known as the distance between the letters.

a. line space
b. interlineations
c. insertions
d. letter space
16. A character printing above or below its proper position has the quality of :
a. horizontal malalignment
b. vertical malalignment
c. twisted letters
d. off- its-feet
17. The German word that means “complete” or “whole”. it needs nothing added or taken away
to make it “look right”.
a. whole
b. full
c. gestalt
d. volkswagen
18. It is the movement of the baseline, it may slant-up, down or straight across the page.
a. line direction
b. slant
c. alignment
d. pen hold
19. Authenticity of private documents is no longer necessary to be proven when:
a. the document is 30 years old
b. the document is more than 30 years old
c. the document is less than 30 years old
d. all of the above
20. It is an important element in handwriting which embraces all the factors which are related to
the motion of the writing instrument skill, speed freedom, hesitation, rhythm, emphasis, tremors
and the like.
a. shaking
b. microtremors
c. movement
d. emphasis
21. It is the place where the writer grasps the barrel of the pen and the angle at which he holds
it.
a. line direction
b. slant
c. alignment
d. pen hold
22. Is an irregularity in strokes characterized by shaky or wavering stroke which is

perfectly apparent even without magnification?
a. genuine tremor
b. tremor of illiteracy
c. tremor
d. tremor of fraud
23. This is also known as writer’s proficiency or the degree, ability to write with proficiency.
a. pen position
b. skill
c. simplification
d. impulse
24. This is the result of the pen touching down on the paper and moving across the page, until it
is raised from the paper.
a. pen position
b. skill
c. simplification
d. writing impulse
25. Circumstances under which the writing was prepared and the factors in influencing the
writer’s ability to write at the time of execution. it includes the writer’s position (sitting, standing,
abed, etc.), the paper support and backing, and the writing instrument.
a. writing condition
b. covering stroke
c. natural handwriting
d. disguised handwriting
26. The thumb, the first and second and slightly the third fingers are in actual motion. This is the
technique most usually employed by children
a. hand movement
b. forearm movement
c. whole arm movement
d. finger movement
27. This is a signature for the mail carrier, delivery boy or the autograph collector.
a. formal
b. informal
c. careless scribble
d. simple
28. One in which the facts appearing therein are not true, and are contested either in
whole or in part with respect to its authenticity, identity, or origin. It may be a deed,
contract, will, election ballots, marriage contract, checks, visas, application form,
certificates, etc.
a. document
b. holographic will
c. notarial will
29. A will entirely written in the handwriting of the testator.
a. document
b. holographic will
c. notarial will
30. Those standards which are obtained from files of document executed in the persons
day to day business, official, social or personal activities.
a. procured
b. requested
c. collected
d. a and c
31. Any writing executed normally without any attempt to control or alter its identifying
habits and its usual quality of execution.
a. writing condition
b. movement
c. natural handwriting
d. disguised handwriting
32. A curve formed inside the top curve of loop, as in small letters “h”, ‘m”, “n”, “p”.
a. buckle knot
b. arch
c. descender
d. foot
33. This is concerned with the examination of forged, altered or suspected papers to see if
they are genuine or if they have been changed.
a. documents falsification
b. estafa
c. forgery
d. questioned documents examination
34. Maybe actually on a ruled paper, it might be imaginary alignment of writing. Is the ruled or
imaginary line upon which the writing rest.
a. buckle knot
b. baseline
c. descender
d. foot
35. The term applied to the irregular thickening of ink which is found when writing slows down or
stop while the pen take a stock of the position.
a. hesitation
b. foot
c. hiatus
d. hook
36. It is a minute curve or an ankle which often occurs at the end of the terminal strokes. It is
also sometimes occur at the beginning of an initial stroke. The terminal curves of the letters “a”,
“d”, “n”, “m’, “p”, “u”
a. knob
b. foot
c. loop
d. hook
37. The extra deposit of ink in the initial and terminal stroke due to the slow withdrawal of the
pen from the paper. (usually applicable to fountain pen)
a. knob
b. stem
c. speed
d. hook
38. This is the analysis of handwriting by comparisons and measurement.

a. cacography
b. calligraphy
c. cacophony
d. graphometry
39. In legal language, the Document Examiner’s conclusion is called:

a. conclusion
b. closing remark
c. opinion
d. ending
40. Whether the movement has been rapid or slow and whether the space has been steady or
variable is a part of:
a. length
b. pressure
c. speed
d. lean
41. Characterized by a succession of awkward, independent, poorly directed and disconnected

motions.
a. lack of rhythm
b. tracing
c. anachronism
d. indention
42. Any fraudulent signature which was executed by actually following the outline of a genuine
signature with a writing instrument.
a. traced forgery
b. fraud forgery
c. copied forgery
d. scribbled forgery
43. A name or a mark that a person puts at the end of a document to attest that he is its author
or that he ratifies its contents.
a. initials
b. closing remark
c. name
d. signature
44. An alignment defect in which the character prints to the right or left of its proper position.
c. twisted letters
d. off- its-feet
45. A technique of forging a signature in which forger work first with special pencil and
afterwards covers the pencil strokes with ink.
a. direct tracing
b. indirect technique
c. informal tracing
d. tracing
46. A kind of erasure by using ink eradicator or blending agent.
a. chemical erasure
b. electronic erasure
c. mechanical erasure
d. none of the foregoing

47. Questioned documents are also called known handwriting samples.
a. true
b. false
c. yes
d. no
48. The forger does not try to copy a model but writes with something resembling we ordinarily
call a signature. For this he uses a false name and makes a rapid stroke, disturbing his usual
writing by adopting a camouflage called disguise.
a. formal
b. informal
c. careless scribble
d. simple forgery
49. A sheet of interlaced fibers usually cellulose fibers from plants, but sometimes from cloth
rags or other fibrous materials. That is formed by pulping the fibers and causing to felt, or mat,
to form a solid surface.
a. pen
b. fiber
c. paper
d. ink
50. In connection with typewriting identification, it includes letters, symbols, numerals, or point
of punctuation.
a. defects
b. horizontal mal-alignment
c. character
d. clogged typeface
51. It is a hollow, horny part of large feather usually from goose and was used for writing on
parchment.
a. ball pen
b. fountain pen
c. graphite pencil
d. quill pens
52. A machine that can reproduce printed characters on papers or that can produce printed
letters and figures on paper.
a. pen
b. pencil
c. typewriter
d. reed pen
53. The illumination of this is so controlled that it gazes or strikes the surface of the document
from one side at a very low angle. This is used for decipherment of faded handwriting,
determination of outline in traced forgery, embossed impression, etc.
d. infra-red light
54. It is a minute curve on an ankle which often occurs at the end of the terminal strokes.
a. hump
b. hook
c. hiatus
d. foot
55. In relation to criminal jurisprudence under the best evidence rule: any physical embodiment
of information of ideas; e.g. a letter, a contract, a receipt, a book of account, a blue print, or an
x- ray plate.
a. questioned document
b. writing
c. document
d. any of these
56. Each letter and character is designed to print a certain fixed angle to the baseline. However,
due to wear and damage to the type bars and the type block, some lean to the right or left of
their correct slant.
c. twisted letters
d. off- its-feet
57. In a requested standard, dictate the material to be written at a speed which will produce the
subject’s natural handwriting.
a. True
b. False
c. yes
d. no
58. The following are indications of common disguises, except:
a. abnormally large
b. abnormally small writing
c. alteration of slant
d. rhythm
59. It involves the writing of a name as a signature by someone other than the person himself,
without his permission, often with some degree of imitation.
a. evidential signature
b. guided signature
c. fraudulent signature
d. model signature
60. The exposure of a document to ____________is useful when it consists of several

pages and substitution is being suspected. The color and intensity of fluorescence reaction
is very apparent in case of substituted page. Mechanical and chemical erasures will
certainly change the reflectivity and fluorescence of the area affected.
d. infra-red light
61. It means that the source or authorship of the compared questioned and standard specimens
is
different.
a. identification
b. non-identification
c. obliteration
d. opinion
62. A natural light used for currency examination, particularly to confirm the presence of
watermark.
a. shadowgraph
b. sun
c. ultra-violet lamp
d. infra-red lamp
63. These fibers are scattered on the surface of the paper (front/back) at random & can readily
pick
off by means on any pointed instrument. The colors of these fibers are red and blue.
a. metallic thread
b. colored fibers/security
c. lacework design
d. none of these
64. Do not allow anyone except qualified specialist to make chemical or other tests; do not
treat or dust for latent finger prints before consulting a document examiner. This statement is:
a. true
b. false
c. yes
d. no
65. It is the elimination of extra or superfluous strokes from the copybook model.
a. pen position
b. skill
c. simplification
d. impulse
66. It is a narrow security thread vertically located like “stitches” at the face of the note with a
clear text of the numerical value in repeated sequence.
a. embedded security thread
b. windowed security thread
c. iridescent band
d. vignette
67. A will signed by the testator acknowledge before a notary public, with three
witnesses.
a. document
b. holographic will
c. notarial will
68. These are pieces of metal stamped by government authority for use as money or collectively
referring to metal currency.

a. note
b. bill
c. coin
d. peso
69. It is widely claimed that invention of paper is generally attributed to a____________.
a. Chinese
b. Americans
c. Filipino
d. African
70. Handwriting samples made at the request and under the supervision of lawyers, the police,
document examiners and investigators for the purpose of comparing with questioned writing.
a. collected standards
b. procured standards
c. requested standards
d. standards
71. An oblong curve such as found on the small letters “f”, “g”, “l” and letters stroke “f” has two. It
may be blind or open.
a. speed
b. shank
c. loop
d. staff
72. To identify whether simple forgery was committed, which of the following should be
retrieved?
a. standard signature from the forger
b. standard of the genuine signature
c. standard of the person who made the forgery

d. identity of the forger
73. This is the relationship between the pen point and the paper.
a. pen position
b. skill
c. simplification
d. impulse
74. The upright long downward stroke that is the trunk or stalk, normally seen in capital letters.
a. trunk
b. stem
c. graph
d. diacritics
75. Which of the following are examples of questioned documents?
a. historical writings
b. receipts
c. counterfeited bills
d. all of the above

LIE DETECTION TECHNIQUES (PART 2)
1. Are short vertical lines placed normally about one-eight of an inch below a descending stroke
of the cardio tracing at exactly the beginning and the end of a stimulus (asking a question)
insertion.
a. positive sign
b. negative sign
c. hiatus mark
d. stimulus mark
2. This is a question deals with the matter under investigation. It is designed to generate
reactions from deceptive subject.
a. symptomatic question
b. irrelevant question
c. sacrifice relevant question
d. relevant question
3. It is a water-based ink intended for polygraph instruments.
a. printer’s ink
b. capillary ink
c. writer’s ink
d. graphing ink
4. In polygraph examination, the examiner must wait for before asking the first question in
order to record the normal pattern of the subject.
a. one minute
b. 30 seconds
c. five to 10 minutes
d. 15 to 20 seconds
5. What shall be done every after the taking of each chart? The examiner shows the recorded
result to the subject with a brief explanation as to the significance of the recorded reactions.
a. interview
b. interrogation
c. chart marking
d. chart probing
6. Generally used at the beginning of polygraph technique to establish a ‘norm’ for examinee,
or throughout the examination as needed to reestablish norm pattern.
a. relevant questions
d. secondary relevant question
7. To the polygraph examiner, ___________generally means the type of cardio, pneumo and
galvo tracings produced by the subject’s body on a moving chart prior to the insertions of
relevant question or stimulus.
a. abnormal
b. norm
c. specific
d. response
8. The following are the cardiograph tracings Which may be considered indicative of deception,
except:
a. increase or decrease in blood pressure
b. double saddle response
c. increase or decrease in pulse rate
d. increase or decrease in amplitude
9. An unusually fast heart rate, accompanied by a large amplitude which uniformly rises and
falls, normally is in conjunction with a labored respiratory tracing, known as:
a. vagus roll
b. detection
c. fear
d. cardiac arrest
10. Post-test interview involves taking of the subject’s consent to undergo polygraph
examination.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
11. The following are the effects of Stimulant Drugs on the Cardiograph Tracings:
a. increase in blood pressure
b. increase in pulse rate
c. increase in amplitude

12. It is a comparison question in which the examinee is instructed by the examiner to answer
the questions untruthfully.
a. guilty knowledge question
b. evidence-connecting question
c. directed lie comparison question
d. comparison question
13. It is the popular but misleading name of the polygraph.
a. polygraph machine
b. polygraphy
c. lie detector
d. physiological detector
14. Under the general rules in formulating test questions in polygraph examination, the questions
formed must be simple and direct. They must involve legal terminologies.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
15. This is the hormonal stimulator of the sympathetic nervous system. It acts to constrict
peripheral blood flow, raise blood pressure, increase cardiac activity, promote metabolic
activity through the release of glucose, and inhibit digestive processes. It is called Adrenaline
in British.
a. steady
b. hormones
c. Homeostasis
d. epinephrine
16. It is an emotional response to scientific danger that appears to beyond a person defensive
power.
a. stimuli
b. emotion
c. fear
d. anger
17. A ____________indicating that the subject answers the stimulus with “no”.
a. X
b. I
c. positive sign
d. negative sign
18. It is an act of discovery existence, pressure or fact of something hidden or obscure/unknown.
a. detection
b. searching
c. investigation
polygraph examination
19. This is a process that encompasses all activities that take place between a polygraph
examiner and an examinee during a specific series of interactions.
a. polygraph examination
b. polygraphy
c. lie detection
d. post-test
20. No polygraph test can be effectively employed on a unwilling subject. The charts derived
there from would be indicative more of bodily movements, silence and anger rather than an
objective basis for an opinion of lying; hence, voluntary consent is essential.
a. true
b. false
c. yes
d. no
21. It consists of finger electrode plate with retainer bonds and connecting flog.
a. pneumograph
b. galvanograph
c. cardiograph
d. sphymograph
22. Reactive methods used to detect those efforts an examinee has engaged in while trying to
defeat the PDD examination.
a. positive countermeasures
b. negative counter measures
c. counter-counter measures
d. anti-countermeasures
23. A test question in which the examinee is asked about a particular piece of physical
evidence that would incriminate the guilty person. It could be items left at the crime scene by
the perpetrator or stolen property.
c. comparison question
d. directed lie question
24. This is a lie made by persons who cannot distinguish right from wrong. It must be said those
persons are mentally sick, or of low mental caliber.
a. white lie
b. black lie
c. pathological lie
d. detection
25. The drug used as truth serum in lie detection is:
a. paracetamol
b. potassium chloride
c. hyoscine hydrobromide
d. chloride
26. A deviation in polygraph tracing attributable to a physiological phenomenon occurring as

a compensatory action after a response or an artifact.
a. recovery
b. accuracy
c. reliability
d. interrater reliability
27. A test of personality and mental function in which the subject is required to respond to each
of a series of words with the first word that comes to mind or with a word of a specified class of
words
a. hypnosis
b. word association test
c. psychological stress evaluator
d. claim verification test
28. The pre-test interview involves informing the subject of his Constitutional Rights ONLY IF the
examiner is a law enforcement officer.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
29. These are markings which are placed only if the examinee does something which will
cause the physiological tracings to distort. These markings are usually placed below the
affected tracing.
a. chart markings
b. primary markings
c. secondary markings
d. artifact
30. It is the incorrect decision by the polygraph examiner that deception was practiced by the
examinee.
a. deception indicated
b. no deception indicated
c. false negative
d. false positive
31. What is a test that measures electrical activity in the brain using small, metal discs attached
to the scalp and is being proposed to be used for lie detection?
a. electroencephalogram
32. A polygraph instrument that directly records the responses of the subject on a piece of chart.
a. modern polygraph
b. clinical polygraph
c. analog polygraph
d. computerized polygraph
33. This is designed to absorb the response generated by the introduction of relevant question in
the series.
a. symptomatic question

34. This phase is the actual conduct of the test administered by a polygraph examiner.
a. pre-test
b. in-test
c. post-test
d. diagnostic
35. As a whole, this refers to all questions that appear on the polygram between test
commencement and test termination.
a. neutralization
b. question string
c. relevant questions
d. irrelevant questions
36. It refers to the response given by the subject which considered a deviation from the
normal tracing or norms of the subject.
a. electrodermal response
b. specific response
c. normal response
d. abnormal response
37. The polygraph examination room should at least be _________soundproof.
a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 90%
38. Change in the polygraph tracings caused by artifact stimulus.
a. response
b. specific
c. distortion
d. norm
39. The test used by the insurance company for them to know if there’s fraud or manipulation.
a. electroencephalogram
40. A lie that is told when it is clear to those concerned that it is untruthful.
a. specific lie
b. white lie
c. bold-face lie
d. altruistic lie
41. A test where the subject is instructed not to give any verbal answer, the subject will only
answer in his mind.
a. searching peak of question test
b. guilt complex test
c. silent answer test
d. relevant/ irrelevant test

42. A ___________which indicates that the subject answers the question with “yes”.
a. X
b. I
c. positive sign
d. negative sign
43. A phase in the polygraph exam which determines the subject’s physical, mental and
psychological suitability to undergo the test.
a. pre-test interview
b. in-test interview
c. post-test interview
d. diagnostic exam
44. Lies aimed at amusing the listener and any intent to deceive is transient or teasing.
a. specific lie
b. white lie
c. bold-face lie
d. humorous lie
45. These are markings which indicate the beginning and end of examination as well as the
questions and answers of the subject. These are usually placed at the bottom or top of the
polygraph chart.
a. chart markings
b. primary markings
c. secondary markings
d. artifact
46. An effort to mask emotional response by adapting a "poker face”. Psychoanalysts and other
professionals may display relatively little response in their efforts to appear nonjudgmental of
the patient's or client's statements.
a. distortion
b. promotion
c. neutralization
d. rationalization
47. It is a question that has no connection with the matter under investigation and deals with
known facts that the subject cannot be denied.
a. relevant questions
48. During the pre-test interview, the following are true, except:
a. the subject, if female, may be pregnant and may undergo the test
b. the subject should not be physically or emotionally abused
c. the subject should not be suffering high blood or hypertension
49. They are those who continually lies as their habit. They feel discomfort of being truthful
because lying makes them feel right.
a. promotion liars
b. altruistic liars
c. compulsive liars
d. tournament liars
50. This symbol indicates the start of the test. The examiner informs the subject that the test is
about to begin.
a. X
b. I
c. positive sign
d. negative sign
51. Those who love to lie and are excited by the challenge of not being detected. For them an
interview is a contest that they want to win; they realize that they will probably be convicted but
will not give anyone the satisfaction of hearing them confess.
a. promotion liars
b. panic liars
c. compulsive liars
d. tournament liars
52. A type of Peak of Tension Test which is used to determine details of a crime that are not
known to officials, such as the location of an unrecovered body, but would be known to a
participant in the crime.
a. searching peak of question test
b. guilt complex test
c. silent answer test
d. relevant/ irrelevant test

53. These are expressions made by the body to try to hide the truth. This is a non-verbal clue
of deception.
a. symbols
b. emblems
c. expressions
d. micro-expressions
54. This is a freewheeling string of stainless beads with a hook which fastens the
pneumographic tube unto subject’s chest or stomach.
a. pneumo 1
b. pneumo 2
c. beaded chain
d. rubber tube
55. This refers to any person who undergoes polygraph examination.
a. subject
b. rabbit
c. polygraph examiner
d. examiner
56. This is the pneumatic connection for upper (thoracic) pneumograph.
a. pneumo 1
b. pneumo 2
c. pneumo 3
d. pneumo 4
57. Finger electrodes are the special types of sensitive metal plate to be attached to the
subject’s end joints of________________ for the recording of the electrical charges (ohms) from
the brain through the skin.
a. little fingers of both hands
b. index fingers of both hands
c. ring finger of left hand
d. both index and ring fingers
58. A type of reliability in polygraph examination which denotes agreement among different
examiners.
a. intra-rater agreement
b. accuracy
c. reliability
d. interrater reliability
59. Which of the following is used to indicate the amount of air pressure inflated to the system.
Usually about 60 mm of mercury for male subject?
a. blood pressure cuff
b. sphygmamonometer
c. rubber convoluted tube
d. any of these
60. Interrogation is conducted when the reactions show sign of deception and being
uncooperative to open an information.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false
61. In ________________the federal ruling introduced the concept of general acceptance and
stated that polygraph testing did not meet that criterion. Polygraph test results were ruled
inadmissible.
a. PP. vs Medina
b. PP vs. Erinia
c. Frye vs. United States
d. Caracatch vs. Canada
62. This deals with the physical acts that support the primary issue.
a. primary relevant question
63. These attempt to defeat the polygraph examination by self-induction of physiological

responses to particular questions like manipulated respiration and self-inflicted pain.
a. countermeasures
b. counterinsurgency
d. cognitive countermeasures
d. specific point countermeasures
64. If available facilities permit, there should be an “observation room” adjoining the
examination room, in the wall of which there is inserted a________________, a panel of glass
chemically treated so as to permit someone from outside the examination room to see into the
lighted examination room without being seen.
a. concealed microphone
b. well ventilation
c. one-way mirror
d. two-way mirror
65. This is a question which is the same in nature with that of the relevant question but broad
in scope. This is also designed to generate reactions from truthful subject.
c. comparison question
d. directed lie question
66. Designed to detect changes in the cardiovascular activity of the subject.
a. cardiosphymograph
b. pneumograph
c. galvanograph
d. keymograph
67. A polygraph instrument capable of monitoring, recording, storing, analyzing respiratory,

electrodermal and cardiovascular activity.
a. modern polygraph
b. clinical polygraph
c. analog polygraph
d. computerized polygraph
68. The characteristics of irrelevant question are the following, except:
a. It has no connection to the matter under investigation.
b. It usually gives threat to the subject.
c. Neither innocent nor guilty suspects have reason to lie.
d. Usually about the suspect’s background.
69. Proactive measures used by examiners to block the countermeasure efforts of examinees.
a. positive countermeasures
b. negative counter measures
c. counter-counter measures
d. anti-countermeasures
70. Which among the following is not included in recording the psycho-physiological
response of the subject?
a. use of water therapy
b. psychological stress evaluator
c. word association test
d. polygraph machine
71. Which among the following is not a required qualification for a polygraph examiner?
a. criminology graduate
b. honesty
c. technical know how

d. integrity and morals
72. The tripod foundation of polygraphy are the following, except:
a. psychological leg premise
b. physiological leg premise
c. mechanical leg premise
d. medical leg premise
73. A test usually administered as part of the standard test to draw a better conclusion.
a. relevant question
b. supplementary
c. control
d. irrelevant
74. It refers to the composite records of pneumograph, galvanograph, and
cardiosphygmograph tracings recorded from series of question.
a. polygrams
b. chart
c. subject
d. a & b
75. This signifies that the polygraph test recordings are stable and interpretable and the
evaluation criteria used by the examiner led him to conclude that the examinee was truthful to
the relevant issue.
a. deception indicated
b. no deception indicated
c. inconclusive
d. false positive
FORENSIC CHEMISTRY AND TOXIXOLOGY (PART 2)
1. If a person habitually drinks alcoholic beverages there develops a certain degree of

adaptation by the body, thereby increasing the body threshold to it. Later, greater quantity and
percentage will be tolerated and will lead to the diminution of its effects.
a. addiction
b. habituation
c. tolerance
d. punch drunkenness
2. The following are the chemical examinations for semen, except:
a. Florence Test
b. Barberio’s Test
c. Kastle-Meyer Test
d. Acid-phosphatase Test
3. _________________is probably the most widely accepted way to determine the

concentration of alcohol in the body. It is a direct method of estimation although the subject may
refuse blood extraction for such analysis.
a. analysis of the breath
b. analysis of urine
c. analysis of the blood
d. analysis of the stool
4. If analysis of the gastric contents disclosed presence of possible toxic substance, it is

possible that the said poison could have been introduced post-mortem to conceal the real cause
of death.
a. true
b. false
c. yes
d. no
5. The incorporation of liquids or gases into the body. It is also the process by which liquid
hazardous materials are soaked up by sand, sawdust, or other material to limit the spread of
contamination.
a. agglutination
b. absorption
c. laceration
d. corrosion
6. There is flushing of the face, with exaggerated mood, but a person is able to control his
behavior. He shows no signs of mental impairment, incoordination of movement and difficulty of
speech.
a. Slight Inebriation
b. Moderate Inebriation
c. Drunk
d. Very Drunk, "Dead drunk"
7. These are mixtures of chemicals that burn very rapidly, but sub sonically meaning that they
“deflagrate.” They consist typically of fuel and an oxidizer. The black powder used in fireworks is
one example of this.
a. high explosives
b. low explosives
c. bomb
d. urea nitrate
8. This reagent produces a blue flaky precipitate in the presence of cocaine. The test is not
reliable as many other drugs and diluents respond in the same manner.
a. Marquis Test
b. Dillie Koppanyi Test
c. Cobalt Thiocyanate Test
d. Duquenois- Levine Test
9. The clumping together of living cells as a result of a reaction between the cells and an
appropriate immune serum is called:
a. agglutination
b. absorption
c. laceration
d. corrosion
10. Instrument used to measure out or weight different types of dry chemicals. The
measurement for weighing the substance is designated as grams.
a. weighing scale
b. analytical balance
c. scale
d. ruler
11. Blood that is directed back toward its source of energy. It is often associated with gunshot
wounds of entrance.
a. front spatter
b. blood typing
c. cyanosis
d. back spatter
12. The rarest blood type among the ABO blood group.
a. A
b. O
c. AB
d. AB negative
13. The following are the factors to be considered in the interpretation of the Paraffin Test result.
Which is not included?
a. time of reaction
b. number of pink specks
c. location of specks
14. A basic science concerned with the structure and behavior of atoms (elements); the
composition and properties of compounds; the reactions that occur between substances and the
resultant energy exchange; and the laws that unite these phenomena into a comprehensive
system.
a. forensic chemistry
b. science
c. chemistry
d. forensic science
15. This is a reactive substance that contains a great amount of potential energy that can
produce an explosion if released suddenly, usually accompanied by the production
of light, heat, sound, and pressure.
a. gun
b. gunpowder
c. explosive
d. any of these
16. Bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membrane due to deficient oxygenation of the
blood; usually evident when reduced hemoglobin exceeds 5%. It is present in many heart and
respiratory conditions.
a. front spatter
b. blood typing
c. cyanosis
d. back spatter
17. It is a colorless, transparent gas, sweetish taste and emitting an odor similar to a rotten egg.
The gas is soluble in water to form carbonic acid and it burns in the air with a pale blue flame.
a. Carbon Monoxide
b. Carbon Dioxide
c. Hydrogen Sulfide
d. Hydrogen Cyanide
18. A standard for determining the reliability of scientific expert testimony in court currently
adopted by many jurisdictions. Five factors are utilized to assess the scientific theory or
technique testing of theory, use of standard and controls, peer review, error rate, and
acceptability in the relevant scientific community.
a. Miranda doctrine
b. Frye Test
c. Daubert Test
d. Medina vs PP
19. A common class of microscopic evidence. They are classified as animal, vegetable, mineral,
or natural, manufactured, or synthetic.
a. fibers
b. hair
c. dirt
d. skin
20. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol in the human body, except
one:
a. Saliva Test
b. Harger Breath Test
c. Fecal Test
d. Blood Test
21. A ________________________ is less sensitive than a primary explosive and requires

substantially more energy to be initiated.
a. primary explosive
b. secondary explosive
c. tertiary explosive
d. explosive
22. This is a property possessed by various substances that glow when exposed to light of a
short wavelength. The phenomenon in which some substances absorb light and re-emit part of
it as light of a longer wavelength.
a. light
b. infrared
c. fluorescence
d. brightness
23. Which of these is a fluid used to restore tampered serial numbers on metals?
a. etching fluid
b. printer’s ink
c. capillary ink
d. kerosene
24. A physical state of matter that has low density and viscosity, can expand and contract
greatly in response to changes in temperature and pressure, and readily and uniformly
distributes itself throughout any container.
a. solid
b. matter
c. gas
d. any of these
25. A method of choice for the detection of occult (usually not noticeable to the naked eye)
blood at a crime scene that was cleaned up or escaped detection for extended periods of time.
a. barbero’s test
b. benzidine test
c. moulage
d. luminol test
26. What kind of toxicological analysis is routinely carried out for fire deaths.
a. Drug test
b. Body organ fluids
c. Carbon monoxide and alcohol
d. DNA fingerprinting
27. A class of fibers of vegetable (e.g., cotton, flax, ramie), animal origin (e.g., silk, wool, and
specially fur), or mineral origin (e.g., asbestos).
a. artificial
b. synthetic
c. natural fibers
d. any of these
28. The act of detecting scent, generally by respiration, transmitting impulses from the mucous
membranes in the upper part of the nose via the olfactory nerve to the forebrain, where the
information is translated into perceived odor.
a. gustation
b. visual
c. auditory
d. olfaction
29. This is a chemical reaction in which oxygen combines with another substance.
a. toxic
b. explosion
c. oxidation
d. combustion
30. The value of an aqueous solution is a number describing its acidity or alkalinity. A number
used to represent the acidity or alkalinity of an aqueous solution.
a. pH
b. centimeters
c. f-stop
d. grams
31. An individual who, through their examination of evidence, characterizes and identifies blood
and body fluids.
a. Chemist
b. biologist
d. criminalist
d. serologist
32. A test for marijuana in which positive result is shown by purple color in the chloroform layer.
a. Marquis Test
c. Van Urk Test
33. Persons with blood alcohol below ____ are not considered intoxicated.
a. 10%
b. 0.05%
c. 0.15%
d. 100%
34. This is the ability of one material to dissolve in or blend uniformly with another.
a. absorption
b. corrosion
c. solubility
d. none of these
35. The theory attributed to Edmond Locard regarding the transfer of trace evidence between
two objects.
a. Theory of evolution
b. Grounded theory
c. Transfer theory
d. saponification
36. The internal resistance to flow exhibited by a fluid.
a. absorption
b. viscosity
c. solubility
d. dosage
37. This is the original chemical test for the detection of the spatial distribution of nitrites in
gunpowder residue.
a. Barberio’s test
b. Leuchomalachite test
c. Luminol test
d. Walker test
38. The measured amount of a chemical that is administered at one time, or that an organism
is exposed to in a defined period of time.
a. dosage
b. weight
c. grams
d. amount
39. The study of the occurrence and distribution of disease among people.
a. disorder
b. bacteriology
c. epidemiology
d. biology
40. It is the gas blown out of the lungs during respiration, product of complete combustion of
carbon containing compounds, and the end result of fermentation and decomposition of organic
matters.
a. carbon monoxide
b. carbon dioxide
c. hydrogen sulfide
d. hydrogen cyanide
41. This portion of criminal investigation is beyond the scope of a physician's duty. The expert
analyst or a toxicologist is much more in the position to perform the work.
a. filing of the case
b. chemical analysis
c. legal analysis
d. any of these
42. This reagent turns blue-purple in the presence of LSD. However, owing to the extremely
small quantities of LSD in illicit preparations, this test is difficult to conduct under field
conditions.
a. Marquis Test
c. Van Urk Test
43. The specimen that is preferably used in the determination of abused drugs in the body is:
a. Blood
b. Spermatozoa
c. Saliva
d. Urine
44. The use of scientific evidence to estimate the likelihood of adverse effects on the health of
individuals or populations from exposure to hazardous materials and conditions.
a. management
b. risk management
c. risk assessment
d. disorder
45. Highly irritant substance that causes local distraction of tissues and characterized by
nausea, vomiting and great local distress.
a. irritant poisons
b. tetanic poisons
c. corrosive poisons
d. antidote
46. These are also called blasting agents. They are so insensitive to shock that they cannot be
reliably detonated.
a. primary explosive
b. secondary explosive
c. tertiary explosive
d. explosive
47. It refers to a substance which relieves or reduces fever.
a. serum
b. laxative
c. antipyretic
d. emetic
48. Condition resulting from insufficient intake of oxygen: symptoms include breathing difficulty,
impairment of senses, and, in extreme, convulsions, unconsciousness and death.
a. death
b. cardiac arrest
c. asphyxia
d. cyanosis
49. Post-mortem examination of the organs and body tissue to determine cause of death or
pathological condition.
a. post-mortem examination
b. autopsy
c. opening
d. examination
50. This develops a few minutes after the initial dose of alcoholic drink has been absorbed and
has reached the central nervous system. It is characterized by a feeling of wellbeing and slight
excitation. The actions, speech and emotion are less strained. Self-confidence develops, as well
as blunting of self-criticism, self-consciousness and self-control.
a. stage of narcosis or coma
b. stage of excitement
c. stage of incoordination or confusion
51. This is one of the byproducts of complete combustion of the gunpowder and other elements
with the propellant. It is light, almost black, and lack sufficient force to penetrate the skin. It is
merely deposited on the target and readily wiped off.
a. tattooing
b. powder burns
c. smoke
d. blood
52. Poisonous fluid secreted by animals such as snakes and scorpions and typically injected
into prey or aggressors by biting or stinging.
a. Tetanus
b. venom
c. toxin
d. poison
53. This is a substance intended to kill plants.
a. fertilizer
b. poison
c. insecticide
d. herbicide
54. The following are the microchemical tests for blood, except:
a. Teichmann Hemin Reaction/Teichman Test/Haemin Crystal Test
b. Haemochromogen Crystal Test Or Takayama Test
c. Acetone-Haemin Test
55. This is the act of drawing in of air, vapor or gas and any suspended particulates into the
lung.
a. exhalation
b. perspiration
c. inhalation
d. oxygen
56. This is a substance that causes evacuation of the intestinal contents.
a. serum
b. laxative
c. antipyretic
d. emetic
57. A substance that is chemically harmful to the cells of the kidney.
a. infection
b. antidote
c. nephrotoxic
d. venom
58. This is the ability to withstand the effect of various factors including potentially toxic
substances.
a. strength
b. perseverance
c. resistance
d. super powers
59. Watery proteinaceous portion of the blood that remains after clotting.
a. plasma
b. serum
c. saliva
d. semen
60. Action of a drug other than that desired for beneficial pharmacological effect.
a. lethal dose
b. toxification
c. side-effect
d. addiction
61. This is the metabolic conversion of a potentially toxic substance to a product that is more
toxic.
a. toxification
b. detoxification
c. saponification
d. palor mortis
62. For cocaine abusers, this is the feeling as if grains of sand are lying under the skin or small
insects (cocaine bugs) are creeping on the skin.
a. insect syndrome
b. hallucination
c. agglutination
d. magnan’s symptom
63. An immunologically distinct, genetically determined class of human erythrocyte antigens,

identified as A, B, AB, and O.
a. blood group
b. blood
c. saliva
d. urine
64. This refers to dizziness; an illusion of movement as if the external world were revolving
around an individual or as if the individual were revolving in space.
a. vomiting
b. vertigo
c. dipsomania
d. hemorrhage
65. There is prompt and marked disturbance of function or death within a short period of time. It
is due either by taking a strong poison in excessive single dose or several doses at short
interval.
a. Acute poisoning
b. Sub-acute poisoning
c. Chronic poisoning
d. Suicidal poisoning
66. This term refers to a Bullet that is not lodged in a place where it was previously located. A
bullet which strikes the neck may enter the air passage, and it may be coughed out or
swallowed and recovered in the stomach or intestine.
a. bullet migration
b. tandem bullet
c. hydrostatic force
d. absorption
67. This is an irresistible desire for alcoholic drinks at periodic intervals.
a. vomiting
b. vertigo
c. dipsomania
d. hemorrhage
68. What is the conversion of corpse body fat into a curdlike foul-smelling product called
adipocere?
a. toxification
b. detoxification
c. saponification
d. palor mortis
69. Determines whether blood is a human or non-human origin, and if non-human, the specific
animal family from which it originated.
a. benzidine test
b. precipitin test
c. confirmatory test
d. preliminary test
70. This is not a condition of drunkenness. It may be observed among professional boxers who
may have developed a peculiar physical and mental condition on account of repeated trauma on
the head. The individual begins to have lack of concentration. He may change the subject-
matter of a conversation abruptly and may ask the same question for several times.
a. addiction
b. habituation
c. tolerance
d. punch drunkenness
71. A type of error that occurs when a test or analysis produces a positive result or incorrect
result when it should not have.
a. false negative
b. false positive
c. negative
d. inconclusive
72. A hallucinogenic drug, also considered a club drug, that is abused among juveniles and
young adults taking part in parties or ‘raves’. It is used as an animal anaesthetic, and the only
illicit source of the drug is through theft, mostly from veterinary clinics.
a. MDMA
b. cannabis
c. LSD
d. ketamine
73. A high explosive used commercially and in the military. The chemical name for the
compound is cyclotrimethylenetrinitramine, and it is also known as ‘cyclonite’ and ‘hexogen’.
a. dynamite
b. Molotov cocktail
c. RDX
d. grenade
74. It is a confirmation test used to detect blood spots. Based on the research results this test
can still be used to identify dried blood spots on clothing aged 20 years, and able to detect
positively the presence of blood with the formation of pink/ salmon- colored crystals.
a. Takayama test
b. Teichmann’s test
c. Barberio’s test
d. guaiacum test
75. Which of the following is the chemical responsible for the color of the hair?
a. hemoglobin
b. arsenic
c. melanin
d. oxygen

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Criminalistics Part 2

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PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION TECHNIQUES (PART 2)

1. Can a person be compelled to be fingerprinted?

4. In fingerprint comparison done by an expert, he has to identify a required number of points of

12. The following are the equipment in taking fingerprints, except:

23. An arrested person can be forced to be fingerprinted when he/ she:

32. In the Primary Classification, what is finger no. 3?

40. The following are the means of personal identification, except:

50. These prints are made by sliding motion of the finger.

52. These are also known as partial prints.

59. Temporary disabilities of the fingers include the following, except:

61. The steps in fingerprint classification are the following, except:

63. In case of partial amputation, place the abbreviation symbol:

64. Single recurving ridge at the center of the pattern area.

67. The standard size of the fingerprint card is:

70. Unique identifying characteristics of fingerprints are called:

75. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are:

b. fish eye lens

a. crime scene photography

d. traffic accident photography

a. main light or key light

a. view finder camera

d. press type of camera

15. The speed of light measured in a vacuum is approximately________?

a. 186, 281 miles/sec.

b. 299, 792.5 km/sec

c. 299, 795.2 km/sec

20. The first photographic process.

d. gelatin dry plate silver bromide process

22. What color of photographic paper is usually used in police photography?

23. It is the bouncing back of light upon hitting an object or material.

27. The light-gathering power of the lens is indicated by

d. none of the above

30. The speed of the lens is expressed in terms of its:

34. The light from the pinhole will form:

35. When light passes through an object, it is said to be :

37. What is the equivalent of ASA 25 in DIN Rating?

38. This is considered to be the first application of photography is police work.

39. This is considered to be the utmost used of photography in police work.

40. It deals with photographing hidden objects or things.

d. extreme close- up view

43. He is an American who is considered the advocate of police/forensic photography. He is

b. fish eye lens

55. In the term camera obscura, obscura means _______________.

58. What is the approximate wavelength of the primary color red?

a. main light or key light

61. This refers to a negative or print lacking detail and contrast.

a. silver bromide paper

d. black and white film

70. It is an exhibit shown in court for scrutiny by litigants and others.

c. entrance and exit

a. view finder type

b. view or press type camera

a. crime scene photography

d. traffic accident photography

a. five feet or less

c. ten to twenty feet

d. ten feet or more

b. acute angular approach of the bullet

c. deformity of the bullet

d. fragmentation of the bullet before hitting the subject

d. all of the above

7. Which of the following is the characteristic of a gunshot wound of exit?

c. wound larger than the bullet

d. edges of the wound are inverted