RRB ALP/Technician Stage-II

Engineering Drawing
&
Basic Science
Chapter wise
Study Material & Previous Years Questions
Chief Editor
A. K. Mahajan
Compiled By
Er. Brijesh Maurya, Er. Ravi Prakash Vishwakarma [MNNIT],
Er. Shiv Sunder Singh [MNNIT]
Edited By
Er. Shubham Vishwakarma, Er. Siddharth Mishra
Computer Graphics
Balkrishna Tripathi, Charan Singh, Ashish Giri
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 INDEX
ALP Technician Online Exam Pattern and Syllabus (Stage-2) ---------------- 3-4
1. ENGINEERING DRAWING ------------------------------------------------------------------- 5-172

Drawing Instruments & Accessories ----------------------------------------------------------------------------- 5-37

Symbolic Representation ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 38-76
Lines------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 77-94
Geometric Figures ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 95-131
Projection and View -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 132-172
2. Occupational Safety and Health ------------------------------------------------------------------ 173-192
3. Basic Electricity ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 193-273
4. General Physics ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 274-397
Unit and Measurements --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 274-291
Mass, Weight and Density ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 292-320
Speed and Velocity --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 321-345
Work, Power and Energy-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 346-362
Heat and Temperature ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 363-389
Levers and Simple Machines ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 390-397
5. IT Literacy: Computer ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 398-442
6. Environment Education ----------------------------------------------------------------------------- 443-560
Environment : An Introduction ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 443-446
Biosphere and Biome ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 447-449
Ecology and Ecosystem --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 450-455
Functions and transmission of substances in ecosystems ----------------------------------------------- 456-464
Environmental Pollution -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 465-477
Biodiversity and its conservation ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- 478-484
Various national and international organizations and Conferences
related to Environment Protection --------------------------------------------------------------------------- 485-493
Water Conservations ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 494-496
Green house gases and their effects ------------------------------------------------------------------------- 497-502
Climate Change and its related organizations and conferences---------------------------------------- 503-508
International Efforts for ozone depletion and Control --------------------------------------------------- 509-513
Forest, Wildlife and its Conservations---------------------------------------------------------------------- 514-521
Sancturay and Biosphere Reserve --------------------------------------------------------------------------- 522-533
Energy Resources ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 534-541
Miscellaneous --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 542-560
2
 RRB ALP/Technician Online Exam Syllabus
Second Stage (CBT)
Short listing of Candidates for the Second Stage CBT exam shall be based on the normalized
marks obtained by them in the First Stage CBT Exam.
Total number of candidates to be shortlisted for second stage shall be 15 times the community
wise total vacancy of ALP and Technician Posts notified against the RRB as per their merit in
First Stage CBT. However, Railways reserve the right to increase/decrease this limit in total or
for any specific trade (s) as required to ensure availability of acequate candidates for all the
notified posts.
Total Duration: 2 hours and 30 minutes (for Part A and Part B together)
The Second Stage CBT shall have two parts viz Part A and Part B as detailed below-

PART A
Duration: 90 Min. No. of Questions: 100
Minimum percentage of marks for eligibuility in various categories: UR-40%, OBC-30%,
SC-30%, ST-25%. These percentages of marks for eligibility may be relaxed by 2% for
PWD candidates in case of shortage of PWD candidates against vacancies reserved for
them.
The marks scored in Part A alone shall be used for short listing of candidates for further
stages of recruitment process subject to the condition that the candidate is securing qualifying
mark in Part B.
(A) Mathematics
Number system, BODMAS, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportion,
Percentages, Mensuration, Time and Work; Time and Distance, Simple and Compound
Interest, Profit and Loss, Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics,
Square Root, Age Calculations, Calendar & Clock, Pipes & Cistern etc.
(B) General Intelligence and Reasoning
Analogies, Alphabetical and Number Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical
operations, Relationships, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagram, Data Interpretation and
Sufficiency, Conclusions and Decision Making, Similarities and Differences, Analytical
reasoning, Classification, Directions, Statement– Arguments and Assumptions etc.
(C) Basic Science and Engineering
The board topics that are covered under this shall be Engineering Drawing (Projections,
Views, Drawing Instruments, Lines, Geometric figures, Symbolic Representation), Units,
Measurements, Mass Weight and Density, Work Power and Energy, Speed and Velocity,

3
 Heat and Temperature, Basic Electricity, Levers and Simple Machines, Occupational
Safety and Health, Environment Education, IT Literacy etc.
General awareness on current affairs in Science & Technology, Sports, Culture, Personalities,
Economics, Politics and other subjects of importance.

PART B
Duration: 60 Min. No. of Questions: 75
Qualifying Marks: 35% (This is applicable to all candidates and no relaxation is permissible)
This part is qualifying in nature and shall have questions from the trade syllabus prescribed by
Director General of Employment & Training (DGET). Candidates with ITI/Trade
Apprenticeship qualification will be required to appear in the section having questions from the
relevant trade. Candidates holding Degree, Diploma and HSC (10+2) having eligibility for the
posts of ALP have to select relevant trade from the list of trades listed against their engineering
discipline/HSC (10+2). The trade syllabus can be obtained from the DGET website. The
relevant trades for various engineering discipline/HSC (10+2) for appearing in the qualifying test
is as below:

Sl. Engineering Discipline Relevant trade for PART B Qualifying Test to

No. (Diploma/Degree) be selected from
1. Electrical Engineering and Electrician/Instrument
combination of various streams of Mechanic/Wiremen/Winder
Electrical Engineering (Armature)/Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
Mechanic
2. Electronics Engineering and Electronics Mechanic/Mechanic Radio &TV
combination of various streams of
Electronics Engineering
3. Mechanical Engineering and Fitter/Mechanic Motor Vehicle/Tractor Mechanic/
combination of various Mechanic Diesel/Turner/Machinist/Refrigeration
Engineering and Air Conditioning Mechanic/Heat Engine/
Millwright Maintenance Mechanic
4. Automobile Engineering and Mechanic Motor Vehicle /Tractor Mechanic/
combination of various streams of Machanic Diesel/Heat Engine/Refrigeration and
Automobile Engineering Air Conditioning Mechanic
5. HSC (10+2) with Physics and Electrician/Electronics Mechanic/Wireman
Maths

4
 1.
Drawing Instruments & Accessories
♦ Basics of Engineering Drawing Drawing Instruments and Accessories
Language of an engineer by which he/she can It is used to prepare drawing easily and accurately.
represents his/her imagination on paper with proper Mainly the following instruments are used in
dimensioning and accuracy. engineering drawing-
It is the graphical representation of an object
containing all necessary information like actual 1. Drawing Board 2. T-Square
shape, size etc. required for the manufacturing of an 3. Mini-Drafter (MD) 4. Protractor
engineering component.
5. Pencil 6. Set square
7. Scale 8. French curve
9. Drawing Sheet 10. Eraser (Rubber)
11. Divider 12. Compass
13. Drawing board pins, 14. Clinograph
Clips or Cello tapes
Classification of Engg. Drawing
1. Geometrical • Art of representation of geometrical
Engg. objects on paper e.g. rectangle, cube, 15. Drawing Templates 16. Pencil cutter and
Drawing cylinder, sphere etc. sand paper
• It is two types– 17. Duster 18. Roll-N-Draw
i. Plain G.D.–Art of representation of
2D objects on paper. 19. Drawing Instruments
Ex. square, hexagon, rectangle etc. Box
ii. Solid G.D.–Art of representation of
3D objects on paper.
1. Drawing Board
Ex. sphere, cone, cylinder, pyramid
etc.
2. Mechanical • Art of the representation of
Engg. mechanical engg. parts or machine
Drawing parts and machine tool parts on
paper.
e.g. drawing of tool parts, IC engine
parts, automobile parts etc.
( Also called Machine drawing)
3. Civil Engg. • Art of the representation of civil
Drawing engg. objects on paper.
e.g. drawing of buildings, road, bridges
etc. (or structure) It is rectangular in shape and made of strips of
4. Electrical • Art of the representation of well-seasoned soft wood.
Engg. electrical engg. parts on paper.
Drawing One of the edges of the board is used as working
e.g. drawing of circuits', motors,
generators, transformers etc. edge, on which the T-square is made to slide.
It is used to provide support to the drawing sheets
5. Electronics • Art of the representation of
Engg. electronics engg. objects on paper. or papers.
Drawing e.g. drawing of electronic circuit, T.V. Top working surface of the board should be
circuits, computers etc. smooth in order to prepare quality drawings.
2D ⇒ Two-Dimensional, 3D ⇒ Three-Dimensional Drawing boards are made in various sizes.
Hence, Engineering drawing is also known as the
universal language of engineers or engineer's Its selection depends upon the size of the drawing
language. sheet to be used.
Engineering Drawing 5 YCT
 Sizes of drawing board– It can also be used as a base for drawing the
According to IS : 1944-1989, drawing board is various angles with the help of set squares.
represented by 'D'. The stock (or head) is placed adjoining the working
According to IS : 46-1988, drawing board is edge of the board and is made to slides on it as and
represented by 'B'. when required.
Standard size of drawing board according to IS :
Length of the blade is selected so as to suit the size
1944 -1989
of the drawing board.
To be
Size (in mm) : Length of blade-
used
(Length ×
Designation with Name Designation Length of blade (in mm)
Width ×
sheet
Thickness) T0 1500
size
D0 A0 1500×1000×25 Antiquarian T1 1000
D1 A1 1000×700×25 Double T2 700
Elephant
T3 500
D2 A2 700×500×15 Imperial
T-square is not used to draw inclined lines.
D3 A3 500×350×15 Half Imperial
D4 A4 350×250×15 Quarter
Imperial
Mostly imperial size (D2) drawing board is used in
engineering drawing.
2. T- Sqaure
It is made of hard-quality wood such as teak or
mahogany etc.
Consists of two parts → (1) Stock (2) Blade
Stock and blade joined together at right angle (90o)
by means of screw and pins.
Used for → Drawing horizontal and parallel lines.

3. Mini-Drafter or Drafting Machine

The advantages of T-square, set-square, scale and
the protractor are combined in mini-drafter.
Mini-drafter can be used to draw horizontal,
vertical and inclined parallel lines on the sheet
with saving of time.

Engineering Drawing 6 YCT

 5. Pencils
These are the primary tools in engg. drawing used
by engineers to communicate their ideas through
test or drawing.

The blades may be set at any desired angle with the

help of the protractor markings.
This instrument is now commonly used by the
college students and draughtsmen.
4. Protractors
They are made of wood, transparent celluloid or
plastic materials.
They are circular (Circle master), semi-circular or
flat in shape.
Used to measure angles and to draw angles with
L.C. = 1o.

Lead of pencil is made of graphite or kaolin or

clay.
The grade of a pencil lead is usually shown by
alphabets and letters marked at one of its end.
Grades of pencil-
Various grades of pencils available today are as
follows–

Grade Uses
Hard grade (9H, 8H, Used to draw light and fine
7H, 6H, 5H, 4H) lines
Medium grade Used for lettering and
(3H, 2H, H, HB, B) dimensioning
Soft grade Used to draw thick and
(2B, 3B, 4B, 5B, 6B, shiny lines
7B)
Important Points–
The diameter of semi-circular protractor is • HB denotes ⇒ Medium, soft• Grade H ⇒ Harder
generally 100 mm and its circumferential edge is than F, HB etc.
graduated to 10 division. (Angle ⇒ 00 to 1800) • Grade B ⇒ Soft than HB
Circular protractor is called as circle master. Generally in Engg. drawing mostly HB, H, 2H, and
(Angle ⇒ 00 to 3600) 4H pencils are used.

Engineering Drawing 7 YCT

 H and HB pencils are used in free hand drawings
and lettering works.
2H & 3H Pencils ⇒ Used for drawing dimension
lines, centre lines and projection lines.
H⇒Used for drawing dimension, hatching,
lettering, circle curves.
Lead of hard pencil has small diameter where as
lead of soft pencil has comparatively greater
diameter.
Neat clean, and precision drawing depends on
pencils.
Generally 18 grades of pencils are used in Engg.
drawing.
The lead of pencils may be sharpened to two
different forms–i. Conical point ii. Chisel edge
Conical point ⇒ Used in sketch work and for
lettering.
For making conical end, the pencil should be
rotated between the thumb and fingers, while
rubbing the lead.
Chisel edge ⇒ Used for drawing long thin lines of
uniform thickness.
This edge is prepared by rubbing the lead on a sand
paper block.
Remember–
Pencil lead is made of the composition of graphite
and clay content.
9H → Very hard grade pencil (Clay content↑)
7B → Very soft grade pencil (Graphite content↑)
When clay content ↑ ⇒ Pencil lead becomes light
and hardness ↑
When Graphite content ↑ ⇒ Pencil lead becomes
dark and softness ↑
Pencils are made by various companies. e.g. Vinus
Short hand, Kutubminar, Artiste, Kohinoor,
Nataraj, Apsara etc.
Now a days mechanical pencils or clutch pencils
are mostly used.
Engineering Drawing
6. Set-Square
Triangular in shape & are made of celluloid or
plastic materials.
Used for drawing all straight lines except the
horizontal lines which are usually drawn with the
T-square.
Vertical lines can be drawn with the T-square and
the set-square.
They are – (i) 30o - 60o - 90o set square
(ii) 45o - 45o - 90o set square
Length of 300–600–900 set square ⇒ 250 mm
Length of 450–450–900 set square ⇒ 200 mm
The two set squares are used simultaneously along
with the T-square will produce lines making angles
of 150, 750, 1050 etc. ( Multiple of 150)
7. Ruler or Scale
Made of wood, steel, celluloid or plastic.
Edges of the scale are marked with division of
centimeters which are sub-divided into millimeters.
Rustless steel scales are more durable.
Scales may be flat or of triangular cross section.
15 cm long and 2 cm wide or 30 cm long and 3 cm
wide flat scales are in common use.
Both the longer edges of the scales are marked
with divisions of centimeters, which are sub-
divided into millimeters.
Scales are used to transfer the true or relative
dimensions of an object to the drawing.
8 YCT
 8. French Curve The surface of sheet must be smooth.
Used to draw curve which cannot be drawn with Size of drawing sheet is represented by ratio of
compass or for irregular curves. length and width of the sheet.
Where, x → Length of sheet
x : y = 1: 2
y → Width of sheet
Standard size of the drawing sheet according to
IS : 10811 : 1983

Made of wood, plastic or celluloid.

They are made in various shapes.
A continuous smooth curve required through a set
of points that do not lie on a straight line or on a
circle can be drawn with the help of French curves.
9. Drawing Sheet

Drawing sheet is a white paper on which an object

is drawn which is available in various sizes.
The successive sheet sizes are obtained in the same
ratio by halving the length dimension such that its
area
is half of area of previous sheet.

Designation Trimmed size Untrimmed

(in mm) size (in mm)
A0 841×1189 880×1230
A1 594×841 625×880
A2 420×594 450×625
A3 297×420 330×450
A4 210×297 240×330
A5 148×210 165×240
A2 size drawing sheet is mostly used by engineering
drawing students.
Area of A0 drawing sheet is 1 m2.
10. Rubber or Eraser
Made of rubber
Used to erase extra or wrong pencil work.

Standard sizes of trimmed drawing sheets are

commended by IS 10711 : 2001
Required property of drawing sheets–
It should be of good quality.
It should be white in cooler with uniform thickness
with must resist the easy torn of paper.
It should be of good quality and soft.
It should not damage the paper while erasing.
Soft India rubber is the most suitable kind of
eraser for pencil drawings.

Engineering Drawing 9 YCT

 11. Divider
Used to divide straight or curved lines into desired
number of equal parts.
It looks like a compass, but the difference is
the two legs of divider are provided with needles.
It is also used to check the measurements.
12. Compass
Used for drawing circles and arcs of circles of
required diameter.
It is generally made of steel and consists two legs–
1. One leg contains needle at the bottom
2. Other leg contains a ring in which a pencil is
placed.
The needle tip is placed at the respected point and
pencil tip is adjusted to the height at least 1 mm
just above the tip of the needle.
Engineering Drawing
13. Drawing clips or drawing pins
They are used to fix the drawing sheet firmly in
position to the drawing board.
Care should be taken while removing the clips or
tapes otherwise the sheet may tore.
14. Clinograph-
It is adjustable set-square
Made of wood or plastic
Used to draw parallel lines to the inclined lines.
It contains one adjustable wing or strip which
can be adjusted to required angle.
15. Drawing templates-
These are made of plastic or wooden boards,
which contains spaces of several shapes or
letters.
Non-dimensional shapes or variety font letters
are drawn by these which makes drawing easier
and perfect.
10 YCT
 The rubber crumbs formed after the use of the
rubber should be swept away by the duster (not by
hand).

18. Roll-N-Draw-
It is used to draw vertical lines, parallel lines,
16. Pencil Cutter and Sand Paper charts, horizontal lines, 3-D drawings, Engg.
drawings, angles, circles, graphs, musical lines and
Pencil cutters or sharpeners are generally made of many other technical drawings.
plastic or Aluminium in which a cutter blade is fitted It is a multipurpose or universal drawing
by a screw. instrument that lets us measure in cm.
These are used for removing the cover of pencil lead
and sharpening the lead of pencil fastly.
For drawing work mostly table pencil cutters are used.
To make the sharp lead and chisel edge lead of pencil,
zero no. or double zero no. and paper blocks are used.
Sand paper block consists of a wooden block about
150 mm × 50 mm × 12 mm thick with a piece of sand
paper pasted or nailed on about half of its length.

19. Drawing instrument box-

• The drawing instrument box contains following

instruments they are–
(i) Lengthening bar
(ii) Small bow compass
(iii) Large size divider
(iv) Small bow divider
(v) Small bow ink-pen
(vi) Inking pen
(vii) Crockle pen
(viii) Lead case
(ix) A small screw driver

The sand paper, should be replaced by another, when

it becomes dirty or worn out.
This block should always be kept within easy reach
for sharpening the pencil lead every few minutes.
17. Duster
It should preferably be of towel cloth of convenient
size.
Before starting work, all the instruments and
materials should be thoroughly cleaned with the
duster.
Engineering Drawing 11 YCT
 Some important points–
Large size compass ⇒ For drawing more than
150 mm radius of circle
Lenghthening bar ⇒ For drawing more than 150
mm radius of circle
Small size compass ⇒ For drawing 25 to 50 mm
diameter of circle
Large size divider ⇒150 mm long
Small size divider ⇒ 95 mm long
Small size ink-bar compass ⇒ 95 mm long
Small size pencil bar compass ⇒ 95 mm long
Inking pen ⇒ Used for drawing straight lines and
non circular arcs in ink.
For drawing large circles and circular arcs, inking (i) Enlarging scale • Used for drawing small or
attachment should be fitted in place of the pencil leg
in the compass.
Scales
The proportion by which we either reduce or
increase the actual size of the object on drawing is
called scale.
The scales can be expressed in the following ways–
Engineering • The relation between the
scale
dimension on the drawing and
the actual dimension of the
object is mentioned numerically
in the style as 10 mm = 5 m etc.
• It is not possible or convenient
to draw drawings of an object to
its actual size.
• For instance, drawings of very
big objects like buildings,
machines etc. cannot be
prepared in full size on the
drawing sheet.
• Drawings of very small objects
like precision instruments e.g.
watch parts, electronic devices
parts, insects, micro processors
etc. also cannot be prepared in
full size because they would be
too small to draw and to read.
• Hence the different types of
Engg. scales are used so that
object can be accommodated on
drawing sheet and can
comfortably be drawn and read.
Engineering Drawing
Representative fraction
The ratio of the length of the drawing to the actual
length of the object represented is called the
Representative Fraction.
Length of drawing
R.F. =
Actuallength of object
Classification of Engineering Scale
Scales are classified in different ways so that object
can be accommodated on drawing sheet and can
comfortably be drawn and read. They are follows–
(A) According to the size–
very small object in
enlarged size.
Ex.– Resisters, screws,
bacteria's, insects, small
electrical parts etc.
• R.F. > 1
(ii) Full scale • Used for drawing that
parts which are drawn
easily on the sheet with
their actual size.
Ex.– Spanner, pen, nut-bolt
etc.
• R.F. = 1
(iii) Reducing scale • Used for drawing huge
objects in reduced size.
Ex.– Buildings, bridges,
boilers, ships, aeroplanes
etc.
• R.F. < 1
(i) Representative Fraction (R.F.)
Length of object in drawing
= (In terms of length)
Actual length of object
Area of object in drawing
R.F. = 2
Actual area of object
(In terms of area)
Volume of object in drawing
R.F. = 3
Actual volume of object
(In terms of volume)
R.F. is unitless.
(ii) Length of scale = R.F. × Max. length to be measured
12 YCT
(B) According to type
i. Plain scale

• It can measure two consecutive division or unit.

Ex. m – dcm, dcm – cm, yard – feet
• It is divided into two subdivision, Ex. 30 m – 60dcm.
ii. Diagonal scale

• It can measure three consecutive division or units.

Ex. m – dcm – cm, yard – feet – inch.
• It is divided into three subdivision
Ex. 257km (or 200 km-500hm-700dam).
iii. Vernier scale

• These scales, like diagonal scale, are used to read to a very small unit with great
accuracy.
• It consists in two parts–
Primary scale
Vernier scale
• In forward V.S., n divisions on V.S. is equal to (n–1) division on M.S.
• In backward V.S., n divisions on V.S. is equal to (n + 1) division on M.S.

Engineering Drawing 13 YCT

 iv. Comparative scale

• It is a plain scale having same R.F. but calibrated to read diff. units.
Ex. km – mile, km – minute etc.
v. Scale of chords

• It is used to measure or draw angles in absence of protractor.

♦ Conversion factors-
Length conversion factors–
10 mm = 1 cm
10 cm = 1 dm (decimeter)
10 dm = 1 m
10 m = 1 dam (decameter)
10 dam = 1 hm (hectometer)
10 hm = 1 km
2.54 cm = 1 inch
12 inch = 1 foot
3 feet = 1 yard
220 yard = 1 furlong
8 furlong = 1 mile Borders • It is the space left all around and in
1 mile = 1.61 km and between the trimmed edges of the
1 Nautical mile = 1.85 km Frames drawing sheets and the frame.
♦ Scales on Drawings- • More space is kept on the left-hand
side for the purpose of filing or
When an unusual scale is used, it is constructed on binding if necessary.
the drawing sheet. Left side ⇒ 20 mm to 30 mm (for
To construct a scale, the following information is A0 and A1) and 10 mm (for A2, A3
required– and A4) and other 3
1. The RF of the scale
sides, ⇒ 5 mm
2. The units which is must represent, e.g. mm and cm
• Frame shows the clear space
or feet and inches etc.
available for the drawing purpose.
3. The maximum length which it must show.
Filling • Margin is provided in the drawing
♦ Layout of drawing sheets– margin sheet by drawing margin lines.
It is defined by choosing suitable scale, providing • It is provided for taking performance
proper margins, along title block, parts list, etc. on the for the purpose of filling the drawing
drawing sheet. sheets.
Engineering Drawing 14 YCT
 Title Block • The position of this block should be Nine folds are allowed to A0 sized drawing sheet
within the drawing space such that
the portion of the title block when they are filed.
containing the identification or General suggestions for drawing on sheet:-
information of the drawing is
situated in the bottom right hand
corner of the drawing space. (i) Cleaning the Instrument:- Clean all the
• It contains the details of drawing, instruments and materials and place them on a
here we include the names of the neat piece of paper by the side of the board.
persons who have designed and (ii) Pinning the paper to the drawing board : -
drawn.
Place the drawing sheet at about a suitable
Grid • The provision of grid reference
references distance from the edges of drawing board and
system is recommended for all sizes
in order to permit easy location on fix firmly by using of pins or cello tapes etc.
the drawing of details, additions, (iii) Draw Border Lines:- When only one drawing or
modification etc. figure is to be drawn on a sheet, it should be
• The number of divisions should be
drawn on centre of the working space.
divisible by two and be chosen in
relation to the complexity of the For more than one figure, the space should be
drawing. divided into suitable block and each figure should
• It is also called a zone system as the be drawn in the centre of its respective block.
grids divide the sheets into zones.
• The grid reference systems along the Remember-
width are referred by alphabets A,B,
C, D………
• The grid reference systems along the
length are referred by numerals 1,2,
3,4………
Revisions • For locating a portion of the
of drawing drawing for the purpose of revision
etc., the sides of the three larger
sizes of the drawing sheets viz. A0,
A1 and A2 are divided into a number
of equal zones.
• A revision panel is drawn either
attached to the title block above it or (a) Margins or border lines–
in the top right-hand corner of the Left side ⇒ 20 mm
sheet.
• The revisions are recorded in it Other three side ⇒ 5 mm
giving the revision number, date, (b) Title block
zone etc. and also the initials of the Location ⇒ Right side & lower most
approving authority.
Size = 185 mm × 65 mm
Folding • Folding marks are made in the
marks drawing sheet.
Information's used in title block–
• They are helpful in folding of prints
in proper and easy manner. 1. Name of institute
2. Scale
3. Projection symbol
4. Title of drawing
5. Name of designer and date
6. Name of invigilator and date
7. Name of standard & date
8. Name of approver & date of approving
9. Drawing no.

Engineering Drawing 15 YCT

 Drawing Tools and Equipment Asked in
RRB, ALP & Technician
Previous Year Questions
1. The ratio of the shorter side of an A4 sheet to • Followings are the various terms and their respective
the longer side of an A3 sheet is _______ . /A4 abbreviations in engineering drawings.
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1: 2 AC Across Corners
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 2 AF Across Flats
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II AR As Required
Ans. (d) : The ratio of the shorter side of A4 sheet to ASA American Standard Association
longer side of an A3 sheet is 1 : 2.
5. In an engineering drawing, the letter LH
1. The shorter side of an A4 sheet (S4) = 210mm
stands for which of the following?
and, the longer side of an A3 sheet (L3) = 420mm
(a) Left Hand (b) Limit of Height
Then,
(c) Level Hide (d) Low Heat
The ratio of shorter size of A4 sheet to the
longer size of A3 sheet is - RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
S 4 210 1 Ans : (a) In engineering drawing, the various terms and
= = their respective abbreviations are followings-
L 3 420 2
LH Left-Hand
S4:L3 = 1:2
LMC Least material condition
2. Which of the following is the approximate ratio MFD Manufactured
of length to width of any standard Engineering OD Outer diameter
drawing sheet ? OPP Opposite
(a) 1: 2 (b) 3 : 3 6. 594 mm × 841 mm are the dimensions of _____
(c) 1: 3 (d) 2 : 3 size paper.
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I (a) A3 (b) A1
(c) A0 (d) A2
Ans. (a) : The approximate ratio of length to width of
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
any standard drawing sheet is 1: 2
Ans. (b) : 594 mm × 841 mm are the dimensions of A1
For eg. Width of A0 sheet = 841 mm
sheet size.
length = 841 × 2 mm = 1189 mm • The other sheet sizes are given below-
Width 1 A0 = 1189 × 841 mm
=
Length 2 A3 = 420 × 297 mm
3. If the width of a standard engineering drawing A4 = 297 × 210 mm
sheet is 841 mm, then its length will be ___mm. A5 = 210 × 148 mm
(a) 1189 (b) 1216 7. The area of A0 size sheet is _____.
(c) 1000 (d) 1250 (a) 1cm2 (b) 1000cm2
2
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III (c) 10000cm (d) 100cm2
Ans : (a) If the width of a standard engineering RRB ALP & Tech 23.01.2019 Shift-II
drawing sheet is 841 mm, then its length will be 1189 Ans : (c) The area of A0 size sheet is 10000 cm2.
mm. • The area of A0 size sheet = 84.1 cm ×118.9 cm
• It is the size of A0 sheet size being 841×1189 mm = 9999.49 cm2
• A0 is the largest sheet size. = 10000 cm2
4. What is the full form of the abbreviation AC in 8. The feature provided on the drawing sheet to
an engineering drawing? show the detail, modification and position of
(a) Aerial Cut (b) Across Corners the drawing on the drawing sheet of all sizes is
(c) Attached Circle (d) Air Conditioning called-
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
Ans : (b) The full form of the abbreviation AC in an (a) Metric reference (b) Grid reference
engineering drawing is across corners. (c) Title block (d) Frame
Engineering Drawing 16 YCT
Ans : (b) The feature provided on the drawing sheet to
show the details, modifications and position of drawing
on the drawing sheet of all sizes is called grid reference.
Grid reference system: The provision of the grid
reference system (joining is recommended for all sizes)
in order to permit easy location on the drawing of
details, addition, modifications etc.
9. For binding and filing a drawing sheet, the
area left on the left side of the sheet is given by
which line ?
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical
Er., 01.12.2002
(a) Margin line (b) Border line
(c) Frame (d) Orientation sign
Ans : (b) The area left on the left side of a drawing
sheet for binding and filing is given by the border line.
• Border lines are very thick continuous lines used to
show the boundary of the drawing or to separate
different objects drawn on same sheet.
10. The print of the margin line in the drawing
sheet is of __________
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section Eng.
23.03.2003
(a) Raw size (b) Accurate size
(c) Both (d) None of these
Ans : (b) The print of the margin line in the drawing
sheet is of accurate size.
• The drawing of center marks on all the four sides of
the drawing sheet is called 'Origin line'.
11. Which one of the following represents the
reducing R.F scale in this?
(NCVT-2012, Carpenter, Plumber,
Welder, Sheet Metal)
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 20
(c) 50 : 1 (d) 8 : 6
Ans : (b)
R.F.– 1:20 is a reducing scale or reduction scale.
R.F.– 50:1, 8:6 → Enlarging scale
R.F.= 1 : 1 → Full scale.
12. What type of paper is generally used for
technical drawings ?
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical
DRG & Design 11.06.2006
(a) Cartridge paper (b) Tracing paper
(c) Both of the above (d) None of these
Ans : (c) Technical drawings are generally drawn on
the following types of paper.
1. Cartridge Paper: This is the best quality paper for
pencil drawings. Its weight is usually 90 GSM. It is
made from esparto grass.
2. Tracing Paper: Natural tracing paper is a high
quality tracing material that can be purchases in 25
meter rolls. Generally its weight ranges from 38 GSM
to 63 GSM and its often used for tracing technical
drawings.
Symbolic Representation 17
• These are usually measured on the basis of their
weight, which are known as grams per square meter
(GSM).
13. What are the importance and benefits of free
hand drawing ?
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer
(Civil) 29.06.2008
(a) It is very quick to design and explains the
size
(b) The practice of free hand drawing gives to
anyone an excellent idea about measurements
(c) It is very useful in generating ideas
(d) All of the above
Ans : (d) The following are the importance and benefits
of free hand drawings-
1. It gives very quick explaination about, the design
and shape of the devices.
2. It is very useful in generating ideas.
3. The practice of free hand drawing gives to anyone an
excellent idea about measurements.
14. What are the medium adopted by the engineer/
draftsman to convey his ideas to the artisans ?
RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section Eng
(Mechanical) 04.01.2009
(a) Orally
(b) By writing
(c) In the form of sign or indication or figure/
(d) All of the above
Ans : (d) Engineer/ draughtsman adopts oral form,
written form, sign, or indication or figure form to
convey his idea to artisans.
15. In an engineering drawing, a list of item gives
which of the following informations?
RRB Bangalore Section Engineer (Civil)
01.02.2009
(a) Company name, drawing title, scale and
angle of projection
(b) Item, description, quantity and substance
(c) Distinctive signs, abbreviations, and units of
measurements
(d) None of the above
Ans : (b) In an engineering drawing, a list of item gives
Item, description, quantity and substance.
16. What do you understand by B.I.S.?
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Electrical) ,
15.03.2009
(a) Bureau of Indian standards
(b) Bureau of Indian system
(c) Bureau of Indian instrument
(d) None of these
Ans : (a) The full form of B.I.S. is Bureau of Indian
standards.
• BIS is the national standard body of India.
• It is a code of practice for general engineering
drawing.
17. ................................. shown in the title block ? 21. Qualitative drawing sheet is used on which of
RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012 the following should be kept in the mind ?
(a) Name of the company RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil),
(b) Title of the drawing 26.02.2012
(c) Scale of drawing (a) Neat & clean drawing
(d) All of the above (b) The nature of the ink of pencil
Ans : (d) Name of the company, title of drawing, scale (c) Both a and b
of drawing, type of projection and number of drawing (d) None of these
are shown in the title block. Ans : (c) Some thing should be kept in mind before
using a quality drawing sheet.
for ex.- neat & clean drawing and the nature of ink of
the pencil should be good.
22. The ratio between two adjacent side of a
drawing sheet is
ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.),
21-02-2015
(a) 1: 2 (b) 1: 3
(c) 1:0.5 (d) 1:1
18. An engineering drawing gives different types of Ans : (a) The ratio between two adjacent side of a
information. What is the most important drawing sheet is 1 : 2
information it gives ?
DMRC Electronics Engineering, 21.09.2014
(a) Length (b) Width
(c) Height (d) Shape Width 1
=
Ans : (d) • The most important information if the Height 2
shape of the object which is given by the engineering
drawing.
• It helps to make more numbers of same object with 23. Area of an A0 size drawing sheet is as closed to.
another object. ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.),
19. In what form does engineering drawings 21-02-2015
originate as an activity ? (a) 0.25 m2 (b) 0.5 m2
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section (c) 0.75 m2 (d) 1.0 m2
Eng. 23.03.2003 Ans : (d) Area of an A size drawing sheet is as close as
0
(a) Records (b) Type 1.0 m2.
(c) Product (d) None of these
24. Clinometers are used for
Ans : (a) Engineering drawing is prevalent everywhere,
hence this drawing is called universal language. ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.),
21-02-2015
• Engineering drawings originate as 'record' as an
activity. (a) Temperature measurement
(b) Linear measurement
20. In Engineering drawing ideas can be expressed
in which form ? (c) Angular measurement
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/ (d) Flatness measurement
DRG & Design 11.06.2006 Ans : (c) Clinometers: This is a measuring instrument
(a) Oral (b) Written in which angles are measured with the help of a spirit
(c) Symbolic (d) All of these level. In addition to measuring angles. Clinometers are
Ans : (a) Expression of ideas in engineering drawing used to measure angular surfaces, large cutting tools
can be taken in the following form- and milling cutter insert relief angles.
(i) Oral (ii) Written (iii) Symbolic Other angle measuring instrument-
• According to Mechanical point of view, engineering 1. Vernier bevel protector 2. Spirit level
drawing is divided into following parts - 3. Sine bar 4. Angle pre-measuring
1. Geometrical drawing 5. Divider head.
2. Mechanical or Machine drawing Flatness Measurement:
3. Electrical drawing 1. Surface plate 2. Spirit level
4. Civil drawing 3. Auto clinometer 4. Dial indicator
5. Electronics drawing 5. Optical divider

Symbolic Representation 18
Temperature measurement: 27. What is the dimension of B2 drawing board ?
1. Resistance thermometers RRB RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-II, 30.01.2011
2. Semi conductor thermometers RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.),
3. Thermostats 26.02.2012
4. Thermo Couples (a) 1500×1000×25 mm (b) 700×500×15 mm
5. Bi-metallic thermometers (c) 1000×700×25 mm (d) 500×350×15 mm
6. Radiation pyrometer Ans : (b) The dimension of B2 drawing board is
700×500×15 mm. B2 size drawing board is called
7. Optical pyrometer
imperial size drawing board.
25. Which one is not the size of a standard 28. What is the limitation of coloured drawing
trimmed drawing sheet? sheet?
ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.), RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section
25-09-2016 Eng. 23.03.2003
(a) 841 × 1189 (b) 420 × 596 (a) It hinders the emergence of lines
(c) 210 × 297 (d) 297 × 420 (b) It does not allow the sheet to fold
Ans : (b) The above are the standard sizes of drawing (c) Not available in suitable sizes
sheets. So 420×596 is not a standard size of drawing (d) None of the above
sheet. Ans : (a) There are some limitations of the coloured
• Standard size and measurement of BIS based drawing sheet.
drawing sheet- • Mostly white drawing sheet is used in engineering
drawing colored drawing sheet are rarely used.
Designation Size in mm
• It hinders the emergence of lines, so its used rarely.
A0 841 × 1189
29. What is the dimension of A2 drawing sheet ?
A1 594 × 841 RRB Jammu Section Eng. (Mech, Elec/
A2 420 × 594 Elect./Telecom), 2013
A3 297 × 420 (a) 420 × 594 mm (b) 594 × 841 mm
(c) 210 × 297 mm (d) 297 × 420 mm
A4 210 × 297
Ans : (a) The dimension of A2 drawing sheet
A5 148 ×210 (trimming) is 420 × 594 mm.
A6 105×148 • Without trimming the dimension of A2 is 420 ×
• Mostly A2 drawing sheet is used by engineering 625 mm.
drawing students. Standard sizes of drawing sheets
26. Clinograph is used for Specified Size (After Size (without
ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.), size Trimming trimming
25-09-2016
(a) measuring and setting the angles A0 841 × 1189 mm 880 × 1230 mm
(b) ink work on drawings A1 594 × 841 mm 625 × 880 mm
(c) drawing horizontal lines A2 420 × 594 mm 450 × 625 mm
(d) drawing parallel lines at inclination A3 297 × 420 mm 330 × 450 mm
Ans : (d) Clinograph is an adjustable set-square and is A 210 × 297 mm 240 × 330 mm
4
used to drawn parallel lines at any angle.
A5 148 × 210 mm 165 × 240 mm
• The two sides of Clinograph are fixed at 90° and the
third side can be adjusted at any desired angle. 30. What is the ratio of the length and width of the
drawing sheet ?
• It is adjustable set square made of wood or plastic. It
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/
contains one adjustable wing or strip which can be
DRG & Design 11.06.2006
adjusted to required angle.
DRDO Turner 2016
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:3
(c) 1: 2 (d) 3:4
Ans : (c) The ratio of the length and width of the
drawing sheet is 1: 2 .
Ex.: 841 : 1189 = 1 : 2
Clinograph 594 : 841 = 1 : 2

Symbolic Representation 19
31. Match the various instruments used in drawing • They are generally made of wood, plastic or
correctly. celluloids.
A Large (i) To ink the lines • They are made in various shapes.
compass • They are used to draw curve which cannot be drawn
B Large (ii) For holding pencil with compass or for irregular curves.
divider lead 35. Parallel lines can be drawn with the help of–
C Ruling pen (iii) To draw a big RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006
circle (a) T-square/ (b) Mini drafter
D Lead case (iv) To divide the line (c) Pair of set-square (d) All of these
RRB Thiruvananthpuram Section Eng Ans : (d) Parallel lines can be drawn with the help of T-
(Mechanical) 04.01.2009 square, mini drafter and pair of set-squares.
(a) A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(iv) • The set squares are used for draw all straight lines
(b) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(ii) except the horizontal lines which are usually drawn
(c) A-(ii); B-(iii); C-(iv); D-(i) with T-square.
(d) A-(iv); B-(i); C-(ii); D-(iii) • The set-squares can also be used for drawing parallel
Ans : (b) and perpendicular lines to any given line.
SN. Instrument Uses 36. What do you understand by scale 1 : 2 ?
1. Large Compass To draw a big circle and RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P.Way), 20.02.2000
marking (a) Full size (b) Enlarging size
2. Large divider To divide the line (c) Reducing size (d) None of these
3. Ruling pen To ink the line Ans : (c) 1 : 2 is a reducing size scale because its
4. Lead case For holding Pencil lead representative fraction is less than one.
32. Name of the device which is used for marking • When a drawing of a very large object is to be made,
and dividing small distances. then this type of scale is used.
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG • In this, a drawing is made of a smaller size than the
& Design 11.06.2006 actual size of the object.
(a) Small compass (b) Large compass Ex.: Drawing of building, roads etc.
(c) Protractor (d) Inking pen 37. Which scale will you use for drawing watch
Ans : (a) A small compass is used for marking and parts ?
dividing small distances. RRB Kolkata Apprentice Supervisors, 14.10.2001
• Protractor is used to measure angles. (a) Full size scale (b) Enlarging size scale
• Large compass is used to draw large circles and also (c) Reducing size scale (d) All of these
used for marking. Ans : (b) Enlarging size scale is used for drawing
33. For drawing the component of a wrist watch, watch parts because the size of watch parts is very
the scale used is– small.
RRB Bhubaneswar App. Electrical, 19.08.2001 • Therefore, to display it, we will make a drawing of
(a) Full size scale (b) Enlarged scale slightly larger size than the actual size of the parts.
(c) Reduced scale (d) None of these 38. Which objects can be drawn using 1 : 1 scale ?
Ans : (b) For drawing the component of a wrist watch RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent,
enlarged scale is used. 21.11.2004
• The components of wrist watch are very small. For (a) Objects of larger size
giving complete information about the element, you (b) Objects of medium size
have to print it on paper in large form. (c) Object of smaller size
So, the major or enlarge scale is used for this. (d) both 'a' and 'b'/
• For this R.F is kept greater than one. Ans : (b) Drawing of objects of medium size is made
34. To draw smooth curves of any nature, the from scale 1 : 1.
drafting instrument used is a/an– • The drawings of objects of medium size are made
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III, equal to their actual sizes.
20.11.2005 39. Where is the Title block made on the drawing
(a) Template (b) Eraser shield sheet ?
(c) French curve (d) Mini drafter DMRC Station Controller, 09.09.2007
Ans : (c) To draw smooth curves of any nature, the (a) Lower left corner (b) Upper left corner
drafting instrument used is a French curve. (c) Upper right corner (d) Lower right corner
Symbolic Representation 20
Ans : (d) The title block is normally located in the be 2 P.
lower right corner of the drawing sheet. • The area of 2A0 size sheet is 2m2, because area of 'A0'
• Name of the institute, drawing number, name of the size sheet is '1m2'. So area of 2A0 = 2×1 = 2m2
maker of the drawing; type of projection, title of the
drawing etc. are presented on the title block of size 185
mm × 65 mm.

Designation Trimmed size

A0 841 × 1189
A1 594 × 841
40. Which size of drawing board you work on ? A2 420 × 594
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent, 21.11.2004 A3 297 × 420
(a) Bo (b) B1 A4 210 × 297
(c) B2 (d) B4 A5 148 × 210
Ans : (c) Drawing boards are available in different • Area of A0 drawing sheet is1m2
sizes, but in engineering drawing only B2 imperial size 44. According to SP 46 : 2003, what types of marks
is mostly used. are given on drawing sheet to protect the prints
41. In free hand drawing............. is used- of all sizes of drawing sheets ?
RRB Kolkata Diesel/Electrical Ass., RRB Allahabad Junior Engineer-II
06.02.2005 (a) Orientation mark (b) Folding mark
(a) Mini drafter (b) Scale (c) Margin Mark (d) Border Mark
(c) Protractor (d) None of these Ans : (b) According to SP 46 : 2003, folding marks are
Ans : (d) Free hand drawing is that drawing in which given on drawing sheets to protect the prints of all sizes
the parts and lengths of an object are examined by eye of the drawing sheets.
and all the lines are drawn without the help of any 45. Trimmed size of a drawing sheet is given by
drawing instrument. Only pencil, eraser and paper are which line ?
used. RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/
42. Which of the following statement is false: DRG & Design, 11.06.2006
(a) For 'A' size sheets, mentioning about the (a) Border (b) Border line
length and width of the sheet is a normal (c) Margin line (d) Frame
thing.
Ans : (c) Trimmed size of a drawing sheet is given by
(b) Mentioning GSM value for 'A' size sheets is a
margin line.
normal thing
• A border line drawn around the inside edge of the
(c) For 'A' size sheets, it is common to refer to
paper.
the area of the sheet.
(d) All of the above 46. Name the following scale on the principles of
similar triangles-
Ans : (d) All statements are incorrect. RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical
a. Often A0, A1, A2, A3 etc. are mentioned. Er., 01.12.2002
b. GSM tells about the quality of the paper. It has (a) Extended Scale (b) Plain Scale
nothing to do 'A' size sheet. (c) Reduced Scale (d) Diagonal Scale
c. it is often referred to A0, A1, A2, A3 etc. Ans : (d) The diagonal scale is based on the principles
43. Which of the following statement is correct ? of similar triangles.
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III, • In the diagonal scale, three ranges of distance are
20.11.2005 displayed simultaneously.
(a) The length of A4 size sheet is the width of A3 47. Drawing boards are come in many sizes.
size sheet. Choose the size of the designated drawing
(b) If the length of 'A1' size sheet is P, then its board D0-
width will be 2 P RRB Kolkata Technical-III, 20.08.2006
(c) The area of 2A0 size sheet is 2m2 (a) 1000×700×25 mm. (b) 500×300×15 mm.
(d) All of these (c) 700×500×15 mm. (d) 1500×1000×25 mm.
Ans : (d) The length of A4 size sheet is equal to the Ans : (d) The size of the D0 drawing board is equal to
width of an 'A3' size sheet. 1500×1000×25 mm.
• If the length of 'A1' size sheet is P, then its width will • D0 is the largest size of the board.

Symbolic Representation 21
 Ans : (d) A4 trimmed sheet size is 210×297 mm.
Designation Trimmed size (in mm)
A0 841 × 1189
A1 594 × 841
A2 420 × 594
A3 297 × 420
A4 210 × 297
51. In drawing, what is the name of multipurpose
drawing machine?
48. French curve is used for draw the-
RRB Bangalore Technical (Eng.), 22.04.2007
(COAL India Fitter 2013)
(a) Try scraper (b) Compass
RRB Bangalore Section Eng. (Civil), 01.02.2009
(c) Drafting machine (d) Instrument box
(a) Curved radius (b) Irregular curves
Ans : (c) Drafting machine is a multipurpose drawing
(c) Ellipse (d) Curved path machine.
Ans : (b) To draw smooth curves of any size Drafting machine: It is sometimes called pantograph.
• French curves are mostly use to draw irregular It come in different sizes and patterns called
curve. "Pantograph type"
• They are made of wood, plastic or celluloid. • This machine has a mechanism which keeps the two
• They are made in various shapes. blades always parallel to their respective original
• It is used to draw curve which cannot be drawn with position whenever they may be moved on the board.
compass or for irregular curves.

52. Which drawing sheet has a surface area of one

49. According to Indian standard institute type of square meter ?
engineering scales are - RRB Secunderabad Technical (Eng.), 20.05.2007
RRB Chennai Technical (Eng.), 15.04.2007 (a) A0 (b) A2
(a) Full scale (b) Small Scale (c) A3 (d) A4
(c) Large scale (d) All of these Ans : (a)
Ans : (d) According to Indian standards institute A0 drawing sheet area = 841×1189 mm2
engineering scales are three types- = 999949×10–6 m2
1. Full scale, 2. Large scale 3. Small scale. = 0.999949 m2 ≈1 m2
• When a large size object is drawn on paper in small • So, the surface area of the drawing sheet 'A0' is 1m2.
scale, then it is called small scale, when the parts of
small object are drawn in enlarged sizes on paper, 53. What type of scale is the scale 2 : 1 ?
then it is called large scale. DMRC Secunderabad Section Eng. (Civil),
• If it is drawn on paper equal to the measurement of 29.06.2008
the object, then it is called full-scale. (a) Full scale (b) Reducing scale
50. According to I.S. specification six different (c) Enlarge scale (d) None of these
types of trimmed drawing pages are available. Ans : (c) 2:1 scale is an enlarging scale because its
What is the measurement of A4 sheet ? representative factor is >1.
(NCVT -2013 Fitter, Turner, machinist) Representative factor = Length of the object in the drawing
(a) 330 mm. × 450 mm Actual length of object
(b) 297 mm. × 420 mm. For full scale - R.F. = 1:1
(c) 240 mm. × 330 mm. For reducing scale - R.F= 1:2, 1:5, 1:20, 1:50 etc.
(d) 210 mm.× 297 mm. For enlarging scale- R.F. = 2:1, 5:1, 20:1, 50:1, 10:1 etc.
Symbolic Representation 22
54. 2H pencil is used................
RRB Patna Technical Eng., 27.07.2008
(a) To draw dark lines
(b) To draw thick lines
(c) To draw less visible lines
(d) None of these
Ans : (c) 2H pencil is used to draw less visible lines.
This pencil comes under medium grade pencil.
Lines Used of Pencil
Initial work and construction H,HB
lines
Outlines, dotted lines, section 2H
plane lines, dimension lines
arrow heads
Centre lines, section lines 2H or 3H or 4 H
55. The drawing board is made up of the several
parts. One part among them is the batten. The
purpose of the batten is-
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Electrical),
15.03.2009
(a) to fasten the strips (b) stop warping
(c) To support the strips (d) Both 'b' and 'c'
Ans : (d) Two battens are fixed at the bottom of the
drawing board. The purpose of this batten is to prevent
warping of the drawing board and to support the strips.
56. Which part of T square is used to draw
horizontal parallel lines on drawing sheet ?
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Electrical),
15.03.2009
(a) Blade (b) working edge
(c) Stock (d) Scale
Ans : (b) Working edge of T square is used to draw
horizontal parallel lines on drawing sheet.
• Horizontal parallel lines are drawn by sliding the
stock to the desired position.
• T-square is designated by blade length.
• It is composed by a long strip called blade, which is
screwed rigidity at right angle to a shorter piece head
or stock.
57. Figure given below shows a_____.
Ans. (a) : Figure given above shows a large compass.
Large size compass– This compass is used for drawing
large circles and arcs of circles.
58. Sketch book is used for................
RRB Chennai Section Eng., 12.02.2012
(a) Tracing (b) Rough drawing
(c) Graph (d) All of these
Ans : (a) Sketch book is used by artists for tracing,
drawing or painting as a part of their creative process.
59. What is the width of the border of the drawing
sheet of size A0 and A1.........
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Civil), 26.02.2012
(a) 10 mm (b) 25 mm
(c) 30 mm (d) 20 mm
Ans : (d) The width of the border of the drawing sheet
of size A0 and A1 is 20 mm on the left side and 5 mm
on the other three sides.
60. Which of the following set does not occur in the
set square ?
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Mech.),
26.02.2012
(a) 150, 760, 900 (b) 450, 450, 900
(c) 300, 600, 900 (d) None of these
Ans : (a) The set square is generally made of celluloid
or plastic. It is triangular and transparent.
• Mainly two types of set squares are used.
• In one set square 30° - 60° - 90° angles are made and
in the another set square 45° - 45° - 90° are made.
• No set square has an angle of 15° - 76° - 90°
61. The center marking on all four sides of the
drawing sheet is called ?
UPSSSC Tracer (Tech.) 2015
(a) Margin (b) Grid reference
(c) Orientation mark (d) Object reference
Ans : (c) The center marking on all four sides of the
drawing sheet is called "Orientation mark".
62. On which of the following paper the drawing
made is called blue print ?
SAIL Bokaro Steel Plant 2016
(a) Tracing paper (b) Sand paper
(c) Ammonia paper (d) None of these
Ans : (c) A drawing made on ammonia paper is called a
'blue print' because by placing tracing paper over the
already made drawing, that drawing is copied by ink pen.
63. What type of pencil lead is shown in figure.
Vizag Steel Fitter 2015

(a) Conical lead (b) Chisel lead

(c) Drafting lead (d) Fine lead
(a) Large compass (b) Bow compass Ans : (a) The conical lead type pencil is shown in the
(c) Large divider (d) Drop compass figure.
RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-III , 30.01.2011 • It is used in sketch work and for lettering.
Symbolic Representation 23
64. Soft grade pencil is used for which of the inclined parallel lines on the sheet with saving time.
following ? • Set-square is used for drawing all straight lines except
(Vizag Steel Fitter-2015) the horizontal lines which are usually drawn with the
(a) To draw thin lines T-square.
(b) To draw thick lines • T square is used to draw horizontal lines.
(c) To draw section lines
68. Mini drafter fulfills for all the purposes except
(d) To draw structural lines
which of following devices, instead of-
Ans : (b) Soft grade pencils are used for make thick
HAL Fitter 2015
lines.
(a) Ruler (b) Set square
• 2B, 3B, 4B, 5B, 6B, 7B pencils are soft grade pencil.
(c) Protractor (d) Compass
• They are used to draw thick and dark lines.
Ans : (d) Mini-Drafter can be used for multiple
functions in drawing. Like- drawing horizontal lines,
inclined lines at any angles, parallel lines, perpendicular
lines etc.
• T-square, set square, and protractor works as can be
65. What are the main components in the tip of a done by a mini drafter except the compass.
pencil ? • Compass is not a part of mini drafter.
Vizag Steel Fitter 2015
(a) Graphite and clay (b) Lead and graphite 69. At which angle the two arms of the mini
(c) Clay and lead (d) None of these drafter are be joined ?
Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. Fitter 2013
Ans : (a) Graphite and clay are used as the main
components in the tip of the pencil. (a) At 45o (b) At 90o
o
• The lead of the pencil is made of graphite or kaolin (c) At 90 (d) At 90o
or clay. Ans : (b) The two arms of the mini drafter are joined at
o
• The grade of a pencil lead is usually shown by 90 on a round protractor.
alphabets and letters marked at one of its end. 70. Which of the following figure shows a french
curve?
MES Fitter Tradesman 2015

• 9H → Very hard grade pencil (clay content ↑)

• 9B → Very soft grade pencil (Graphite content ↑)
• When clay content ↑ = Pencil lead becomes light and
hardness ↑)
• When graphite content ↑ = Pencil lead becomes dark
and softness ↑)
66. Which of the following is the softest grade of
pencil ? Ans : (c) French curves are used for drawing irregular
NTPC Fitter 2014 curves.
(a) 2B (b) 1B • A continuous smooth curves required through a set
(c) HB (d) H of points that do not lie on a straight line or on a
Ans : (a) Soft grade pencils are used to draw thick and circle can be drawn with the help of French curves.
dot lines.
• Eg. 2B, 3B, 4B, 5B, 6B and 7B.
• 2B is the softest grade of pencil in the given options.
67. With the help of which of the following
instruments parallel lines can be drawn?
BHEL Hyderabad Fitter 2014
(a) Mini drafter (b) T-square
(c) Pair of set square (d) All of these 71. Protractor is used to measure..............
Ans : (d) Parallel lines can be drawn with the help of (Engineering Drawing 2015)
mini drafter, T-square and pair of set-square. (a) Angle in degree (b) Angle in radian
• Mini drafter is used to draw horizontal, vertical and (c) Angle in minute (d) Linear measurement
Symbolic Representation 24
Ans : (a) Protractor is used to measure the angle in Ans. (c) : The given figure is the designation of A0
degree. Sheet because its size is 841 mm × 1189 mm.
• It is semi circular in shape and is made of a flat Designation Trimmed size
celluloid sheet. A0 841 × 1189
• Its circumferential edge is graduated to 1° divisions. A1 594 × 841
A2 420 × 594
A3 297 × 420
A4 210 × 297
A5 148 × 210
2
Area of A0 drawing sheet is1m
75. Figure given below shows one way of
representing a series sheets. What is the length
72. With the help of set square and T-square we of this sheet?
can draw all other straight lines
except................
(IOF Fitter 2015)
(a) Curved lines (b) Horizontal lines
(c) Oblique lines (d) None of these
Ans : (a) With the help of set square and T-square we
(a) 841 mm (b) 1189 mm
can draw all other straight lines rather than curved lines.
(c) 1000 mm (d) 500 mm
• Set square are also used to draw perpendicular lines,
Ans. (a) : The length of this sheet is 841 mm.
angles and complete shapes such as square, rectangle
and triangles.
• T-square is used to draw horizontal and parallel lines.
73. The drawing board is made of different parts,
one of them is batten. The purpose of the
batten is-
(IOF Fitter 2015)
(a) Applying bandages
(b) Protect against impurity
(c) To prevent the strips from distortion
(d) Setting on table
Ans : (c) The purpose of the batten is to protect and A0(1189×841)
support the strips from deforming. 76. Indian standard specified _____ number of A
series of drawing papers/sheets.
• The drawing board is required to provide a flat (a) 4 (b) 5
surface. It is fitted at the back by two battens to (c) 3 (d) 6
prevent warping.
Ans. (b) : Indian standard specifies 5 number of A
• The surface must be smooth and soft, So that a pencil
series of drawing paper/sheets.
can easily draw lines. • Surface area of A0 size is one square meter.
• It should be free from bumps or holes. • Successive drawing sheet sizes (from A0 to A5) are
74. Figure shows one of a series drawing sheets. obtained by halving along the length (or) doubling
What is the designation of this sheet? along the width.
77. The SP 46 : 2003 does not specify the_____
sheet(s)
(a) A4 (b) A5
(c) A0 (d) b and c both
Ans. (d) : The SP 46 - 2003 does not specify the A5
and A0 sheets.
(a) A1 (b) A4 Drawing sheet is a white paper on which an object is
(c) A0 (d) A2 drawn which is available in various sizes.

Symbolic Representation 25
 80. The number of A2 size sheet that can be
trimmed from one A0 size sheet is:
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8
Ans. (b) : A0, A1, A2 .......... sheet nomenclature are
practical examples of ratio.
• From the above figure–
We can get 2 A1 sheets from one A0 sheet, likewise,
We can get 2 A2 sheet from one A1 sheet.
Therefore, from A0 sheet we can get 4 A2 sheets.
81. Why always a ratio of 1 : 2 is kept between
the sides of A series sheets?
(a) For ease of printing
(b) For weight reduction
(c) For microfilming
(d) For ease of handling
Ans. (c) : For microfilming always a ratio of 1: 2 is
kept between the sides of a series sheets.
• The area of the successive sizes are in the ratio of 1:2.
78. The smallest size drawing sheet as per ISO-A 82. The area of A1 size sheet is_____.
series has a designation of_____. 1
(a) A0 (b) A3 (a) 0.5 m (b) m 2
2
(c) A2 (d) A4 2
1
Ans. (d) : The smallest size drawing sheet as per ISO- (c) 2m2 (d)   m 2
A series has a designation of A4. 2
• The preferred sizes of the trimmed sheets as selected Ans. (b) : The dimension of A1 size sheet drawing
from the main ISO-A series are given in table– paper = 594 mm × 841 mm.
Designation Trimmed size (in mm) Area of A1 sheet = 594 × 841
= 0.49954
A0 841 × 1189
A1 594 × 841 ≃ 0.5 m2
A2 420 × 594 • Area of A0 size drawing paper is 1 m2 & area of sheet
A2 size sheet is 0.25 m2.
A3 297 × 420
83. The ISO size of A4 sheet is 210 × 297 mm. The
A4 210 × 297
size of A4×3 sheet will be = ?
79. If width (shorter side) of A1 drawing paper is (a) 297 × 630 mm (b) 630 × 891 mm
594 mm, what is the longer side if A2 paper? (c) 210 × 891 mm (d) Not defined
(a) 297 mm (b) 594 mm
Ans. (a) : Special elongated series increasing its
(c) 841 mm (d) 210 mm
widths, double, triple etc. are designated as follows
Ans. (b) : According to question, A3 × 3, A3 × 4 .............
width (shorter side) of A1 drawing paper is 594 mm. The ISO size of A4 sheet is 210 × 297 mm.
and we know, The size of A4 × 3 sheet will be–
Size of drawing sheet A1 = 594 × 841 297 × (3 × 210) = 297 × 630 mm.
The ISO size of A4 sheet is 210 × 297 mm, the size of
A4 × 3 sheet 297 × (3 × 210) = 297 × 630 mm
Special elongated series–
Designation Size
A3 × 3 420 × 891
A3 × 4 420 × 1189
A4 × 3 297 × 630
So, from the above graphic representation longer side of A4 × 4 297 × 841
A2 paper is 594 mm. A4 × 5 297 × 1051

Symbolic Representation 26
84. Do we have the designations such as ½ A0, 1/3
A1 etc?
(a) No (b) Yes
(c) Sometimes (d) None of these
Ans. (a) : No, we have not such designations such as
1/2 A0, A/3 A1.
• The drawing sheets are designated by symbols such
as A0, A1 A2, A3 and A5.
• The drawing which cannot be accommodated in
above sheets, elongated series are used.
• Elongated series are designated by symbols A1 × 3; 87. The title block should not contain_____.
A2 × 4 etc. (a) Details of MTO
85. Figure given below shows a simple drawing (b) Signature of the head of organisation
sheet and a, b, c on short sides are for_____ (c) Detail of reference no. of other related
drawings
(d) All of (a), (b) and (c)
Ans. (d) : The title block should not contain all of
above mentioned option.

(a) Folding (b) Grid reference 88. The following is not included in title block of
(c) Orientation (d) Direction drawing sheet_____.
Ans. (b) : Give drawing sheet A, B, C on short sides (a) Sheet no. (b) Scale
shows a grid reference system. (c) Method of projection (d) Size of sheet
Grid reference system (zones system)– Ans. (d) : Size of sheet is not included in title block of
• The grid reference system is drawn on the sheet to drawing sheet.
permit easy location on the drawing such as detains, The title block should contain–
alterations or additions. 1. Name of firm
• The rectangle of grid along the length should be 2. Title of the drawing
referred by numerals 1, 2, 3 etc. & along the width 3. Scale
by the capital letters A, B, C, D etc. 4. Symbol for the method of projection
86. A title block contains all of the following 5. Drawing number
information except_____. 6. Initials with dates of persons who have designed,
(a) Name and address of the company drawn, checked, standard & approved.
(b) Parts list 7. No. of sheet.
(c) Drawing sheet size letter designation
89. A0 size sheets are mostly used in_____
(d) Drawing number
engineering
Ans. (b) : A title block contain all of the following (a) Chemical (b) Civil
information– (c) Mechanical (d) All of (a), (b) and (c)
• Name and address of the company.
Ans. (d) : The standard for drawing sheet size is the A
• Drawing sheet size series.
• Drawing number
• The basic size in this series is the A0 size (1189 mm ×
• Scale 841 mm).
Title block– • Surface area of are mostly used in engineering (Civil,
• The position of this block should be within the mechanical, chemical).
drawing space such that the portion of the title block
containing the identification or information of the 90. Border lines on a drawing sheet are provided
drawing is situated in the bottom right hand corner for purpose of_____.
of the drawing space. (a) Elegance
• It contains the details of drawing, here we include (b) Defining working space
the name of the persons who have designed and (c) Printing
drawn. (d) All of these (a), (b) and (c)
Symbolic Representation 27
Ans. (b) : Border lines– 96.
The place on the drawing sheet where all the
• A clear working space on the drawing sheet is revision number with date are recorded is
obtained by drawing border lines. _____ of the sheet.
• In general, more space is kept on the left side for (a) Left hand corner (b) Right hand corner
filing or binding when necessary. (c) Title block (d) Any where
91. Zoning areas on the drawing sheet are Ans. (c) : Title block of the sheet is the place on the
drawing sheet where all the revision number with date
(a) Squares (b) Rectangles
are recorded.
(c) Rhombus (d) Either of these
• A revision panel is drawn either attached to the title
Ans. (b) : Zoning areas on the drawing sheet are block above it or in the top right-hand corner of the
rectangles. sheet.
• The zone along the length l are designated by • The revisions are recorded in it giving the revision
numerals, while along the width w are designated number, date, zone etc. and also the initials of the
by letters. approving authority.
92. Drawings made on tracing papers of A3 sheet 97. When a drawing is made in the portrait
should be rolled. position, in A4 sheet, the title block is generally
(a) True (b) False for
(c) Sometimes (d) None of these 65 ×_____width.
Ans. (b) : Drawing made on the tracing papers of A3 (a) Full (b) Half
sheet should be rolled– It is a false statement. (c) One fourth (d) None of these
• A3 → No. of folds 1. Ans. (a) : When a drawing is made in the portrait
position, in A4 sheet, the title block is generally of 65 ×
93. Drawings drawn on A3 sheets should have
full width (185) mm.
_____fold (3)
(a) 1 (b) 2 98. The quality of a drawing paper is expressed
in_____.
(c) 3 (d) NIL
(a) Density (gsm) (b) Kg per run
Ans. (a) : Drawings drawn on A3 sheets should have (c) Whiteness of paper (d) Either (a) or (b)
fold 1.
Ans. (d) : The quality of a drawing paper is expressed
• Folding marks are made in the drawing sheets. in–
• They are helpful in folding of print in proper and easy
• Density (gsm)
manner.
• Kg per run
• Whiteness of paper.
99. The thickness of the drawing board generally
varies form _____ mm.
(a) 15 to 25 (b) 25 to 40
(c) 40 to 50 (d) 5 to 10
Ans. (a) : The thickness of the drawing board
generally various from 15-25 mm.
Size of drawing board–
Designation Length × width × thickness
94. _____size drawings are generally not folded B0 1500 × 1000 × 25
(a) A3 (b) A4 B1 1000 × 700 × 25
(c) A0 (d) A1 B2 700 × 500 × 15
Ans. (b) : A4 size drawings are generally not folded. B3 500 × 350 × 15
• Dimensions for folding for various sizes of drawing 100. Battens are provided on the drawing board for
sheets by the two method are– _____of the board.
1. Method-I (a) Strengthening
2. Method-II (b) Preventing bending
95. When complete drawing runs into several (c) Ease of handling
sheets, all the used sheets of _____ size. (d) All of (a), (b) and (c)
(a) Different (b) Same Ans. (d) : Batten are provided on the drawing board
(c) A4 (d) A1 for–
Ans. (b) : When complete drawing runs into several (a) Strengthening
sheets, all the used sheet of same size. (b) Prevent bending

Symbolic Representation 28
(c) Ease of handling. 105. The maximum accuracy of a plain scale is
• Drawing boards are used to provides support to the considered to be
drawing sheets or papers. (a) 1 mm (b) 2 mm
(c) 0.5 mm (d) 0.01 mm
Ans. (c) : The maximum accuracy of a plain scale is
considered to be 0.5 mm.
106. Plain scales used for engineering drawing work
are made of_____.
(a) Steel (b) Plastic
(c) Wood (d) All of these
Ans. (d) : For engineering drawing work plain scales
made of wood, steel, celluloid plastic (or) card board.
Drawing Board (Bottom) • Stainless steel scales are more durable.
101. The angle between the stock and working edge 107. Scales may be flat or _____ cross section.
of T-square should be_____90°.
(a) Square (b) Triangular
(a) Exactly
(c) Any section (d) None of these
(b) Approximately
(c) More than Ans. (b) : Scales may be flat (or) triangular cross-
section.
(d) None of these
108. Plain scales are available in _____ length.
Ans. (a) : The angle between the stock and working
edge of T-square should be exactly 90o. (a) 15, 30 cm (b) 15, 20 cm
• Joined together at right angles to each other by (c) 20, 30 cm (d) 25, 40 cm
means of screw & pin. Ans. (a) : Plain scales are available in 15, 30 cm length.
109. The scale shown in Fig is_____.

(a) Triangular scale

102. T-square slides on the drawing sheet parallel to (b) Isometric scale
the _____ of the board. (c) Linear reducing scale
(a) Width (b) Length
(d) (a) and (c)
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of these
Ans. (a) : The scale shown in fig. is triangular scale.
Ans. (b) : T-square slides on the drawing sheet parallel
to the length of the board. • Scale may be flat or of triangular cross-section.
• It is used for drawing horizontal parallel lines. • Made of wood, steel, celluloid or plastic.
• It can also be used as a base for drawing the various • Edges of the scale are marked with division of
angles with the help of set square. centimeters which are sub-divided into millimeters.
• Rustless steel scales are more durable.
103. Tee-square (or T-square) can be used for
drawing only _____ lines. • 15 cm long and 2 cm wide or 30 cm long and 3 cm
(a) Vertical (b) Horizontal wide flat scales are in common use.
(c) Inclined (d) Curves • Both the longer edges of the scales are marked with
Ans. (b) : T-square alone can be used for drawing divisions of centimeters, which are sub-divided into
horizontal lines. millimeters.
• Horizontal parallel lines are drawn by sliding the • Scales are used to transfer the true or relative
stock to the desired position. dimensions of an object to the drawing.
104. The plastic or steel metric scale used in the 110. To measure or draw any angle _____ is used.
construction of engineering drawings has a (a) Set-square (b) T-square
minimum division of _____ mm. (c) Protractor (d) Compass
(a) 1 (b) 2 Ans. (c) : The protractor is used to draw or measure
(c) 0.5 (d) 10 such angles as cannot be drawn with the set-squares.
Ans. (a) : The plastic (or) steel metric scale used in the • The angle can be set or measured from both sides
construction of engineering drawing has a minimum aligning the reference line and point 'O' with the
division of 1 mm. corner point of the angle.

Symbolic Representation 29
111. Any angle can approximately be divided into 114. The set square are usually made of_____.
any number of equal parts with the help (a) Plastic
of_____. (b) Transparent celluloid
(a) Divider (b) Compass (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Protractor (d) Diagonal scale (d) Polished wood
Ans. (c) : Any angle can approximately be divided into Ans. (c) : A set square are usually made of wood,
any number of equal parts with the help of protractor. transparent celluloid, tin or plastic.
• They are graduated in degree measurable with a least • Those made of transparent celluloid (or) plastic are
count of upto 0.50. commonly used as they retain their shape and
112. Protractor can be used to draw any angle accuracy for a longer time.
upto_____. 115. Two set squares are known as 45°/45° and
(a) 90° (b) 180° 60°/30°
(c) 270° (d) 360° (a) True (b) False
Ans. (d) : Protractor can be used to draw any angle upto (c) Sometimes (d) None of these
360o. Ans. (a) : They are two types of set square–
• A circle can be divided into any number of equal 1. Thirty-sixty (30-60o)
parts by means of the protractor. 2. Forty five degree (45o)
• The diameter of semi-circular protractor is generally
100 mm and its circumferential edge is graduated to
10 division. (Angle ⇒ 00 to 1800).
• Circular protractor is called as circle master. (Angle
⇒ 00 to 3600)
116. Figure shows a type of set square. This is
known as _____ set square.
(a) Rotable (b) Fixed
(c) Adjustable (d) All of these

113. For engineering drawing the number of set

square used is_____.
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Ans. (b) : For engineering drawing the number of set Ans. (c) : Figure shows a adjustable set square.
square used is 2. • Adjustable set squares allow a range of angles to be
• Two forms of set-squares are in general use. drawn accurately.
• They are used to draw parallel inclined and • They can be adjusted to a variety of angles which
perpendicular lines, often in conjunction with T means only one set-square is required.
square. 117. With the combination of T and set-squares, the
• The two set squares are used simultaneously along following angle cannot be drawn, _____.
with the T-square will produce lines making angles (a) 15° (b) 25°
of 150, 750, 1050 etc. ( Multiple of 150). (c) 45° (d) 105°
Symbolic Representation 30
Ans. (b) : The two set square used simultaneously along 120. Which one of the following compasses is used to
with the T-square will produce line making angles of draw SMALL size circles?
15o, 75o, 105o etc. (a) Beam (b) Large
118. Linking pen is used for _____ in ink on (c) Bow (d) Drop
drawing curves Ans. (d) : Drop spring bow pencil and pen are designed
(a) Writing (b) Drawing Curves for drawing multiple identical small circles.
(c) Drawing straight lines (d) Drawing sphere Example– Rivet holes, drilled/reamed holes.
Ans. (c) : Linking pen is used for drawing straight lines 121. Radius curves is useful for drawing _________
and non-circular arc in ink. fillet radii.
• It consist of a pair of steel nibs fitted to a holder (a) Internal (b) External
made of metal or ivory.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
119. Which of the following purpose is not served by
a divider? Ans. (b) : Radius curves in useful for drawing external
(a) Divide lines or curves into a number of equal fillet radii.
parts 122. Total number of grades of pencils available in
(b) Transfer measurements from one part of the the market is_______.
drawing to another part (a) 9 (b) 6
(c) Make full size, reduced size of enlarged size (c) 15 (d) 18
drawing Ans. (d) : Total number of pencils available in the
(d) Set off a series of equal distances on the drawing market is 18.
Ans. (c) : The following purpose is not served by a
divider make full size, reduced size of enlarged size
drawing.
Purpose of dividers are–
1. To divide curved or straight lines into desired
number of equal parts. • Generally in engineering drawing mostly HB, H, 2H
2. To transfer dimensions from one part of the drawing and 4H pencils are used.
to another part. 123. Apart from H and B grades, two other grades
3. To set-off given distances from the scale to the of pencils are________.
drawing. (a) 1H, 1B (b) 2H, 2B
(c) HB, F (d) FB, HB
Ans. (c) : Apart from H and B grades two other
grades of pencils are HB & F.
HB –– Medium soft
F –– Grade H ⇒ Harden than F, HB etc.
Grade B ⇒ Soft than HB.
120. A compass can be used to draw:
Grade Uses
(a) Circles (b) Arcs
Hard Grade Uses to draw light and
(c) Irregular curves (d) (a) and (b)
(9H, 8H, 7H, 6H, 5H, 4H) fine lines
Ans. (d) : A compass can be used to draw circles & arcs
Medium Grade Used for lettering and
of circles.
3H, 2H, H, HB, B dimensioning
• It consists of two legs hinged together at its upper end.
124. 6 B grade pencil is the softest pencil.
• It is generally made of steel and consists two legs–
(a) True (b) False
1. One leg contains needle at the bottom
(c) Partially true (d) None of these
2. Other leg contains a ring in which a pencil is
placed. Ans. (a) : 6B grade pencil is the softest pencil.
• The needle tip is placed at the respected point and 9H ⇒ Very hard grade pencil
pencil tip is adjusted to the height at least 1 mm just 7B ⇒ Very soft grade pencil.
above the tip of the needle. Grade Uses
Hard Grade Uses to draw light and
(9H, 8H, 7H, 6H, 5H, 4H) fine lines
Medium Grade Used for lettering and
3H, 2H, H, HB, B dimensioning
Soft Grade Used to draw thick and
2B, 3B, 4B, 5B, 6B, 7B shiny lines
Symbolic Representation 31
125. Centre lines, section lines are drawn using • 9H has the hardest graphite lead.
_____ pencil. • The letter "H" is used to indicate the hardness of a
(a) H (b) 2 H pencil's mark.
(c) 3 H or 4 H (d) H B • The highest the number to the "H" harder the pencil
Ans. (c) : Centre lines, section lines are drawn using lead.
3H or 4H pencil
131. The pencil shown in Fig. (a) is sharpened
Lines Pencil as_____.
Initial work and construction lines H
Outlines, dotted lines, section plane lines, 2H
dimension line arrowheads
Centre line, section lines 2H or
3H or
4H (a) Conical pound (b) elliptical edge
126. Which set of lead grades has a grade out of (c) Chisel edge (d) Round
sequence? Ans. (c) : The pencil shown in fig. is sharpened as
(a) H, HB, B, 3B (b) 7B, H, F, 3H chisel edge.
(c) 6B, B, H, 4H (d) 9H, HB, B, 2B Chisel edge– Used for drawing long thin lines of
Ans. (b) : 7B, H, F, 3H set of lead grades has a grade uniform thickness.
out of sequence. • This edge is prepared by rubbing the lead on a sand
paper block.

127. Which of the following is softest pencil?

(a) 2B (b) 1B
(c) HB (d) H 132. The item shown in Fig. is known as_____.
Ans. (a) : From the following softest pencil is 2B,
among 2B, 1B, HB, H.
• The increase in hardness is shown by the value of
the figure put in front of the letter H.
• Similarly, the grade becomes softer according to the
figure placed in front of the letter B.
128. Medium grade pencil is _____ grade.
(a) 1B (b) HB
(c) H (d) None of the above (a) Sand paper block (b) Erase
Ans. (b) : Medium grade pencil is HB grade. (c) Rubber (d) Erasing shield
HB– Soft grade pencils where considerable erasing is Ans. (a) : The item shown in figure is a sand paper
required to be done. block.
129. Which of the following is ;the lightest pencil? • Sand paper block consists of a wooden block about
(a) 2 B (b) 1 B 150 mm × 50 mm × 12 mm thick with a piece of
(c) HB (d) H sand paper pasted (or) nailed on about half of its
Ans. (d) : Beginning of a drawing H or 2H pencil using length.
it very lightly.
133. The eraser generally used for engineering
• H is the lightest pencil among 2B, 1B, HB and H.
drawing is _____ pencil rubber.
• A 9H pencil is the hardest and lightest pencil.
(a) Soft black (b) Soft white
130. Which one of the following pencils has the
hardest lead. (c) Hard white (d) Hard green
(a) HB (b) H Ans. (b) : The eraser generally used for engineering
(c) B (d) F drawing is soft white pencil rubber.
Ans. (b) : Among the following pencils H pencil has • It should be such as not to spoil the surface of the
the hardest lead. paper.

Symbolic Representation 32
134. The mini drafter shown in Fig. eliminates the (a) Cello tape (b) Clips
need of. (c) Gum (d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d) : To fix the drawing sheet on the drawing
board, present practice is to use cello tape and clips.
• They are used to fix the drawing sheet firmly in
position to the drawing board.
• Care should be taken while removing the clips or
tapes otherwise the sheet may tore.

(a) Scale and set squares (b) T-square

(c) protractor (d) All of these
Ans. (d) : The mini-drafter shown in the figure 139. BIS specifies D-series of drawing boards and T-
eliminates the need of following– series of T-squares. The drawing board and T-
(a) Scale & set-squares squares are specified in _____ sizes
(b) T-square respectively.
(c) Protractor. (a) 5, 5 (b) 4, 4
135. A drafting machine serves the functions (c) 5, 4 (d) 4, 5
of_____. Ans. (c) : The sizes of drawing board recommended
(a) Protractor (b) Scale by the bureau of Indian standard (IS : 1444 - 1989)
(c) Tee and set squares (d) All of these are–
Ans. (d) : A drafting machine serves the functions of Sl. No. Designation Size (mm)
protractor, scale and Tee & set squares all of these. 1. D0 1500 × 1000 × 25
• The uses and advantage of the T-square, set squares 2. D1 1000 × 700 × 25
scale and protractor are combined in the drafting
machine. 3. D2 700 × 500 × 15
136. The drawing instrument shown in Fig below 4. D3 500 × 350 × 15
is_____. The standard 'T' square are designated as follows with–
Sl. No. Designation Blade length
1. T0 1500
2. T1 1000
3. T2 700
4. T3 500
140. Figure below shows a set of drawing board. T-
(a) Mini drafter (b) Drafting machine square. The total number of ebony edges (s) is :
(c) Roll-n-draw (d) None of these
Ans. (c) : The drawing instrument shown in figure is a
roll-n-draw.
• It consists of graduated roller, scale of 16 diameter
and protractor.
• It is ideal for drawing vertical lines, horizontal lines,
angles and circle.
137. During operation of drafter, the two arms of
the drafter remain at_____.
(a) 45° (b) 90° (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 180° (d) Any angle (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans. (b) : During operation of drafter, the two arms of Ans. (b) : For a given set of drawing board T-square
the drafter remain at 90o. has 2 ebony edges.
• Two blades of transparent celluloid accurately set at • T-square is used to draw vertical, inclined or
right angles to each-other. mutually parallel lines.
138. To fix the drawing sheet on the drawing board, • The head also has an ebony edge which slides
present practice is to use_____. against the working edge of the board.

Symbolic Representation 33
 EXAM POINTS
These longer side of A0 drawing sheet is– A title block contains all of the following
1189 mm information except– Parts list
The width of A4 size paper/sheet is– 210 mm The essential item(s) in a title block is/are–
The ISO designation of sheet of size 594 mm × 841 Revision no., Date of revision and Previous
mm is– A1 revisions with dates
Indian standard specifies_____number of A series of The title block should not contain–
drawing papers/sheets– 5 Details of MTO, Signature of the head of
The smallest size drawing sheet as per ISO-A series organisation and Detail of reference no. of other
has a designation of– A3 related drawings
The area of trimmed A0 size sheet is_____sq. The title block is placed in the right hand–
metre– 1 Bottom corner
The area of A0 × 2 size (i.e. 2 A0) sheet is– 2 m2 The following is not included in title block of
If width (shorter side) of A1 drawing paper is 594 drawing sheet– Size of sheet
mm, the longer side if A2 paper is– 594 mm Engineering drawings are generally made in
The width (or shorter side) of A4 sheet is 210 mm, landscape position for the ease is–
its longer side can be determined by multiplying 210 Reading the drawing
with– 2 Types of papers / sheets are used for engineering
A1 papers can be cut from A0 size paper– 2 drawings– 5
The number of A2 size sheet that can be cut from “Paramtrace” is–
one A0 size sheet is– 4 Polyester tracing film that film that does shrunk
A4 size sheets are available in one A0 size sheet– or expand for drawing required for longer time.
16 The size of 2 A0 sheet is– 1189 mm × 1682 mm
The ratio of short side to long side (or width to A0 size sheets are mostly used in–
Chemical, Civil and Mechanical engineering
length) of A size series of sheets is– 1: 2
Border lines on a drawing sheet are provided for
What is the ratio of height and width of a portrait purpose of– Defining working space
drawing sheet is to be microfilmd– 2 :1 As per Indian Standard SP 46 : 2003 a border
of_____ mm width is recommended for A0 and A1
Why always a ratio of 1 : 2 is kept between the drawing sheets/paper– 20
sides of A series sheets– For microfilming As per SP 46 : 2003 the recommended border width
A1 size sheet sometimes also known as “imperial for A2, A3 and A4 size sheets is– 10 mm
size” sheet. The size of half imperial size sheet is– When several prints are to be kept in the form of a
420 × 594 mm book, the border on the _____side of the drawing
1 2 sheet should be more– Left
The area of A1 size sheet is– m Copies of printed A3 drawings are to be kept in a
2
cabinet. The width of the border lines should be–
The available size of grid papers in the market is
10 mm
limited to– A4 and A3
Centering marks provided on a standard drawing
The ISO A3 sheet has a measure of 297 × 420 mm. sheet– 4
The size A3 × 3 will be– Zoning or grid reference system on a drawing sheet
420 × (3 × 297 = i.e 891 mm) is provided for easy location to–
The ISO size of A4 sheet is 210 × 297 mm. The size Indentify the subsequent modification(s)
of A4×3 sheet will be– 297 × 630 mm Zone B3 is nearer to _____of the sheet–
The ISO size of A4 sheet is 210 × 297 mm. The size Left top corner
of A4 × 5 sheet is– Zoning areas on the drawing sheet are– Rectangles
297 × (210 × 5 ≈ 1051 mm) The revision on a drawing is indicated by
A4 × 2 sheet is actually– A3 sheet making_____around the revised portion of the
A0 × 2 sheet size is– 1189 × 1682 mm drawing– Bubble
A typical layout of drawing sheet does not contain– A drawing has several fold. The size of one fold
Identification mark containing the title block is– 297 × 210 mm
Centering marks are provided in A0 sheet is– 4 The folded sheet in the given Fig. _____has only
Orientation mark(s) are provided in A0 sheet– 1 one fold. It is_____sheet– A3
The standard size of title block is– 185 × 65 mm When a revision ‘0’ is further revised for some
The title block used on working drawings should not modification, the mark is put _____of the
includes– Line type drawing sheet– At the location of modification
Symbolic Representation 34
 When Rev 1, of a drawing is issued subsequently in The maximum accuracy of a plain scale is
Rev 2, the previous mark of revision 1 i.e. and considered to be– 0.5 mm
bubble are– Deleted Plain scales used for engineering drawing work are
Revised number of the drawing is indicated in the made of– steel, plastic and wood
title block by Rev. No such as 2, 3, 4 etc and– Scales may be flat or_____cross section–
Date issue of revised drawing Triangular
Information in a title block are– Specific Plain scales are available in– 15, 30 cm length
Which ever method is adopted for folding the 15 cm. plain scale is 2 cm wide while 30 cm. scale
drawing sheet, _____should always be visible on the is– 3 cm. wide
folded drawing– Title block Plain scales are generally– 1 mm thick
Drawings are generally not folded– A4 size More than 1 mm thick scales are generally_____on
When a complete drawing runs into 3 sheets, the their marked edge for ease of taking measurement–
sheets no. are marked as– 1 of 3, 2 of 3, 3 of 3 Beveled
When complete drawing runs into several sheets, all The Marking on the scale is done with–
the used sheets of– Same size Black colour
The place on the drawing sheet where all the A protractor is usually graduated in_____degree
revision number with date are recorded is_____of divisions– 1
the sheet– Title block The protractor can be used to make–
Whenever one particular drawing is revised (out of Complementary and Supplementary angles
total number of drawings), the title block is to be To measure or draw any angle– Protractor is used
updated– Only of the revised drawing Any angle can approximately be divided into any
When a drawing is made in the portrait position, in number of equal parts with the help of– Protractor
A4 sheet, the title block is generally for 65 A protractor should not be used to make lines–
×_____width– full Horizontal, Vertical and Inclined
Whenever an engineering drawing is issued to third From the protractor we can measure angles only
party, the purpose of the issuance of drawing is– into– Degrees
Always indicated A protractor is an angle measuring instrument which
The drawing board has _____ebony edge (s)– 2 is readable from– 2 sides
The drawing board is generally made of _____strips Protractor used in engineering drawings are
of soft wood– 4 to 6 generally made from–
The thickness of the drawing board generally varies Transparent celluloid, tin and wood
form 15 to 25 mm Protractor can be used to draw any angle upto–
BIS standard (IS 1444 : 1989) specifies _____ sizes 360°
of drawing boards– 5 For engineering drawing the number of set square
As per (IS 1444 : 1989), the width of any drawing used is– 2
board should not exceed– 1220 mm The set square are usually made of–
The part of the drawing board on which the Plastic, Transparent celluloid
stock/head of the T-square slides– Ebony edge The angle which we cannot made using a single set
square is– 75°
Battens are provided on the drawing board for
_____of the board– With the use of a single set square, we can make–
Adjacent angles, Supplementary angles and
Strengthening, Preventing bending and Ease of
Complementary angles
handling
With the use of a single set square, we can
As per IS 1360 : 1989 T3 is to used for– A3 sheet
make_____angle to any existing acute angle–
Of the two parts of Tee-square (or T- square), one is Complementary, Supplementary angle
the stock and the other is– Blade With the use of a single set-square we can make
Two parts of a Tee-square are– Stock and blade angle of– Less than 75° and More than 75°
The angle between the stock and working edge of T- 60°/30° set square has a _____length than a 45°/45°
square should be– Exactly 90° set square– Longer
T-square slides on the drawing sheet parallel to 60°/30°, 45°/45° set squares are used for drawing–
the_____of the board– Length Vertical and Inclined lines
Tee-square (or T-square) can be used for drawing 60°/30°, 45°/45° set squares should not be used for
only– Horizontal lines drawing– Horizontal lines
Tee-square is designated by– Blade length Using a 60°/30° set square we can draw angles of–
The plastic or steel metric scale used in the 90, 60 and 150 degrees
construction of engineering drawings has a Using a 45°/45° set square, we cannot draws angles
minimum division of– 1 mm of such as– 60°
Symbolic Representation 35
 45°/45° and 60°/30° set squares used simultaneously _____is used for setting-off short equal distances–
with a T-square can produce angles of–15°, 75° and Bow divider
105° The range of dividers can be– Extended
60°/30°, 45°/45° set squares can be used to make Circles of very small radii are drawn by using a–
complementary angle of any stated angle– Bow compass
Only for 15°, 30°, 45°, 60°, 75° The main ingredients of lead pencil are–
For drawing vertical lines on a drawing sheet using Graphite and clay
drawing board and T-square, additional item needed Softer grades of pencil have– Less clay
is– Any one 60°/30° or 45°/45° set square Total number of grades of pencils available in the
Angles in multiple of 15° are normally constructed market is– 18
by the combined use of_____and_____and T- Apart from H and B grades, two other grades of
square– 30°/60° and 45°/45° set square pencils are– HB, F
Set-squares are not used for drawing– 3H grade pencil is _____ than 2 H grade pencil–
Curved lines Harder
An adjustable set square can be used to draw any 2B grade pencil is_____soft and_____blackness
angle between– 0° to 90° pencil than 3B grade pencil– Less, less
Clinographs are used to– Draw parallel lines This grade of pencils are used for drawing light
With the combination of T and set-squares, the construction work– 2H, 3H
following angle cannot be drawn– 25° Which grade of pencil are used for dotted lines,
To draw large size circles_____is attached with centre line, hidden details, dimensions– 2H
compass– Lengthening bar Drawing pencils are grade according to increase in
Drop spring bow pencil is used for drawing– relative– Hardness
Multiple identical small circles Initial work and construction lines are drawn using–
Bow instruments have adjusting– Nut, Wheel H pencil
Compasses is used to draw very large circles by– Centre lines, section lines are drawn using–
Beam 3 H or 4 H pencil
Linking pen is used for_____in ink on drawing Pencils can be sharpened to–
curves– Drawing straight lines Chisel point and cone point
Which of the following purpose is not served by a The wooden pencils for drawing work are available
divider– in standard length and of_____section of the wood–
Make full size, reduced size of enlarged size Hexagonal
drawing It is generally not used in engineering drawing– 3 B
A compass can be used to draw– Circles and Arcs This set of lead grades has a grade out of sequence–
Which one of the following compasses is used to 7B, H, F, 3H
draw SMALL size circles– Drop Medium grade pencil is– HB grade
French curves are not used for drawing– It is the lightest pencil– H
Circles, Straight lines This pencils has the hardest lead– H
French curves are used for drawing– Instead of Keeping so many grades of pencils, it is
Part of a circle sufficient to keep the_____grades of pencils–
To draw smooth curves of any size, the drafting H, HB, 2H
instrument is– French Curve For Construction line work, the pencils generally
It is used for drawing curves which cannot be drawn used are of– 2 H and 3 H grade
by compass– French curves Lead is not integral part of– Mechanical pencil
French curves are generally made of– Usual pencils require frequent re-sharpening and
greater skill to lines. The type of pencil does not
Plastic material
require re-sharpening– Mechanical
In bigger size set-squares, for ease of handing, some
This type of pencil usually give uniform thickness
irregular shapes are cut in the body of set squares.
for a longer time– Mechanical
These irregular shapes are known as–
The lead available in normal pencils is
French curves of_____thickness than for the lead used with
To draw a smooth curve of any nature, draughting mechanical pencils– Higher
instruments used is– French curve For drawing thin lines of uniform unknown the
French curves are used to draw– pencil should be sharpened in the form of–
Where the radius of curvature varies Chisel edge
French curves are normally available in sets of– Pencil of grade sharpened in the form of_____is
6, 12, 16 used for sketching and lettering– Conical
Radius curves is useful for drawing_____fillet radii– Leads used in clutch pencil are available in–
External Black colour
Symbolic Representation 36
 Pencil of_____grade sharpened in the form If a 2 mm long edge of an object is shown by a line
of_____are used for sketching and lettering– 1 cm long, the R.F.– 5
Soft, conical Available M1 to M8 cardboard scale have–
For drawing the lines of uniform thickness the pencil Reducing scales
should be sharpened in the form of– The cardboard scales to M8 are– Reducing scales
Chisel edge M8 cardboard scale is the available highest reducing
The hexagonal wooden section of lead pencils is scale and it has reducing scale(s) of–
provided to– 1 : 2000 and 1 : 1000
Prevent rolling down of pencils from drawing Scale selected for drawing a component is 1 : 5, the
board type of scale to compare the given ratio is–
A drawing instrument set usually contains all of the
Enlarged
following except– Extra leads
The available lead diameter for mechanical pencils To show a small detail of a component, _____scale
is– 0.3, 0.5, 0.7 and 0.9 is used– Enlarging
The eraser generally used for engineering drawing The enlarged scale is used for showing details of–
is_____pencil rubber– Soft white Small objects
Erasing shield is used for– Erasing mistakes The R. F. in the case of enlarged scale is– >1
To rub a portion of straight line, or curved line, use If 100 m of length is drawn as 10 cm. on a drawing
is made of eraser with– Erasing shield sheet the R.F. of the scale– <1
To make nearly accurate drawings, which of the If a scale is stated as X : 1, where X is a whole
following is not– Pen used number and (greater than 1), then it indicates–
The functions of erasing shield and soft rubber are– Enlarging scale
Complementary RF on a drawing indicates–
A drafting machine serves the functions of– Length of a in the drawing/Actual length of the
Protractor, Scale and Tee and set squares line on the object
A drafting machine is sometimes called– The scales generally used in engineering drawing
Pantagraph are– Plain scale and Diagonal scale
The scales available of mini drafter or drafting
The length of the scale to be drawn is–
machine are beveled on both sides, graduated to–
1 : 1, 1 : 2 Maximum length required to be measured × RF
The artificial light on the drawing board should be When the drawing is drawn of the same size as that
diffused from– Top of the object, the scale used is– Full size
In lead pencils, the lead becomes softer as the When measurements are required in three units, this
numeral figure_____ along with H letter on the scale is used– Diagonal
pencil– Decreases The scale of chords is used to set out or measure–
During operation of drafter, the two arms of the Angles
drafter remain at– 90° A scale of chords is used to measure– Angles
To fix the drawing sheet on the drawing board, Circular vernier scale is used to measure– Angles
present practice is to use– Cello tape, Clips Circular vernier scale is usually used by–
Cello tapes used for fixing the drawing paper on to
Surveyors
the board are generally of_____mm width– 10
In a vernier scale least count is– 1 msd – 1vsd
It is not essential thing for free hand sketches–
French curves The vernier scale has– 2 scales
A cotton duster is required for– In isometric is– Linear scale
Cleanliness of drawing sheet during making a An area of 144 sq. cm on a map represents an area
drawing 1
of 36 sq. km. The RF is–
For same quality of line work, during rainy season– 50000
A slightly harder pencil is to be used When drawing a component of 100 mm × 40 mm on
BIS specifies D-series of drawing boards and T- a reduced scale of 1 : 2, the dimension on the
series of T-squares. The drawing board and T- drawing of this component are shown as–
squares are specified in _____ sizes respectively–
50 mm and 20 mm
5, 4
A diagonal scale is used to show–units of
The ratio of the length in the drawing to its
corresponding length of an object, when both the measurement– 3
lengths are in same unit is called– RF 1 metre is represented by 10 mm on a drawing. The
When a 10 mm long line of a drawing represents 1 1
R.F.–
1 100
metre length of the object, the R.F.–
100 Isometric scale is– Reducing scale

Symbolic Representation 37
 2. Symbolic Representation
Symbolic Representation of Conventions
Various types of fasteners, sections, joints etc. used
in Engg. drawing are represented or shown by
symbols.
By this drawings are made easily and fastly. 2. Zinc, Tin, White metal
etc.
♦ Representation of conventions 3. Brass, Bronze, Gun metal
etc.
Engg. Drawings are completely based on convention.
By the using of this convention, we can make
drawing of any objects easily and can understand the Cast iron, Aluminium and
drawing in a very low time consuming. its alloys etc.
As per ISO 696 : 1972, Convention of various parts 4.
or objects, materials etc. are recommended –
Plastic, Rubber, Packing
A. Conventional Representation of Materials material, Marble, slate,
B. Conventional Representation of Breaks Porcelain, Stone,
C. Conventional Representation of Rivets and Bolts 5. Asbestos, Fibre, Felt,
D. Conventional Representation of Welding Synthetic resin products,
Paper, Press-phan, Cork
E. Conventional Representation of Roughness of Linoleum, Leather, Waz
surface insulating and filling
F. Conventional Representation of Machine materials etc.
Elements, Parts and Operation 6. Wood, Plywood etc.
G. Symbolic Representation of Fasteners
H. Conventional Representation of Pipe Fitting and
Valve Joints 7. Earth, Rubble etc.
I. Conventional Representation of Various Beams,
Pipes and Rods
J. Symbols of Electronics and Electrical Elements Brick-work, Masonary,
Concrete, Fire bricks etc.
A. Conventional Representation of Materials 8.
The conventions for materials are used to represent
various materials in section which saves time, labor
and makes drawing simple. Water, Oil, Petrol,
9. Kerosene etc.
S. Material Conventions
No.

1. Steel
10. Glass

Or
B. Conventional Representation of Breaks

S.No. Object Convention

1. Rectangular Section

2.

Round Section

3. Pipe

Engineering Drawing 38 YCT

 4. Tubing

5.
Wood Rectangular Section

6. Rolled Section

7. Channel Section

C. Conventional Representation of Rivets and Bolts

Description Pictorial Method of Drawing in
Representation View Section

Rivet General

Rivet, Countersunk on Back Side

Rivet, Countersunk on Front Side

Rivet, Counter Sunk Back And Front

Side

Bolt, General

Bolt, to Distinguish from the Rivet

Bolt , Place of Nut Indicated (nut)

Bolt , Head Countersunk on Back Side

Bolt, Head Countersunk on Front Side

Bolt to Fit on site

Engineering Drawing 39
(D.I) Conventional Representation of Welding

Types of Welded Symbol Symbolic Representation

Welds Joint Weld on the Weld on the Weld on the Sectional
Arrow size Other Side Both Sides Representation
Single and
Doubles

Single and
Double
Square
fillet

Single-V
Butt

Double-V
Butt

Single-U
Butt

Doubles-U
Butt

Single
Bevel Butt

Engineering Drawing 40
 Double
Bevel Butt

Single-J
Butt

Double-J
Butt

D.II Conventional Representation of Welding and Symbols

Types of Welds Welded Joint Symbol Symbolic Representation Sectional
Representation

Bead Edge or Seal

Plug or Slot

Sealing Run

Backing Strip

Spot

Seam

E. Conventional Representation of Roughness of surface

(S.No.) (Convention) Objects

1. Surface, which is finished by drill

2. Surface, which is finished by grinding

3. Surface, which is finished by Machine

4. Finish of surface up to n+ roughness number

Engineering Drawing 41
 5. Metric thread, which has 20mm diameter and 1.5 mm
pitch
Threaded surface
6.

7. 6 holes of diameter of 8mm

8. Tolerance of hole (H) has 5 grade
9. Maximum and minimum limitations of tolerances
10. Counter bore operations
Symbols used for indication of surface roughness
Basic symbol

Symbol of surface where machining or material

removal required

Symbol of surface where machining or material

removals are not required

Milled surface

F. Conventional Representation of Machine Elements, Parts and Operation

S.No. Subject Object Convention

Straight Knurling
1.

Diamond Knurling
2.

Square on Shaft
3.

Holes on circular pitch

4.

Holes on a Linear
5. Pitch

Symbolic Representation 42 YCT

 6. Bearing

External Screw
7.
Thread

Internal Screw Thread

8.

Compression Springs
9.

Tension Spring
10.

Leaf Spring
11.

Splined Shafts
12.

13. Repeated Parts

Radial Ribs
14.

Square End and Flat

15.

Slotted Head Screw

16.

Ratchet and Pinion

17.

Symbolic Representation 43 YCT

 Chain Wheel
18.

Serrated Shaft
19.

20. Spur Gear

21. Spur/Helical Gears

Worm and Worm

22. Wheel

S.N. Subject Convention

Name
View Section

Helical Tension Spring

1.

Helical Torsion Spring

2.

3. Compression Spring
with Square Section

Symbolic Representation 44 YCT

G. Symbolic Representation of Fasteners
S.N. Types of fasteners Exact drawing Simplified drawing Symbol

1. Nut

2. Stud bolt

3. Hex head bolt

4. Cheese head screw

Countersunk head
5.
screw

H. Conventional Representation of Pipe Fitting and Valve Joints

Pipe Fittings Symbols 11. Tee Outlet Up

1. Cross 12. Gate Valve

13. Globe Valve

2. Tee

14. Angle Valve

3. Sleeve

4. Lateral joint 15. Safety Valve

Pipe Fittings Valve Symbol

5. Expansion joint
1. Diaphram Valve

2. Ball Valve
6. 450 Elbow

3. Solenoid Valve
7. 900Elbow

4. Float Valve
8. Elbow Down

5. Butterfly Valve
9. Elbow Up

6. Regulating Globe Valve

10. Tee outlet Down

Symbolic Representation 45 YCT

 14. Y-Type Strainer
7. Plug Valve

8. Control Valve 15. Jacketed Lines

9. Float Valve
16. Hose lines
10. Flexible Hose

11. Steam Trap

17. Oriffice
12. Insulation
18. Concentric Reducer
13. Sight Glass

Isometric symbol Orthographic symbol

Sr. Description Screwed flanged Screwed Flanged
No.
1. Joint /
Coupling

2. Reducer

90º elbow

3. (i) Turned up

(ii) Turned
down

Tee

(i) Turned up

(ii) Turned
down

5. Cross

Symbolic Representation 46 YCT

H. Conventional Representation of various Beams, Pipes and Rods
I.

S.No. Material Conventions Sectional side views

1. I-beam or rolled section

2. Channel section

3. Tee-section

4. Unequal angular section

5. Equal angular section

6. Cross-beam section

7. Rectangular section

8. Round rod section

9. Round pipe section

10. Rectangular
pipe section

J. Symbols of Electronics and Electrical Elements

A . C. A.C. Single Phase A.C. Three Phase D. C.

Symbolic Representation 47 YCT

 AC/DC Negative Positive

Neutral Line Earth Line Shielded Line

Earth

Crosse Wire Joints of Wires Cell Battery

Single Pole Switch Push Button Switch Two-way Switch D.P.D.T. Switch

Symbolic Representation 48 YCT

 x

Ammeter
Overhead Line

Watt Meter

Symbolic Representation 49 YCT

 x

Transformer
Battery Eliminator
Main Transformer Auto Transformer Transformer

Push-pull hhhhhhhhhhhh Output Push-pull I.F. Transformer

Input Push-pull
Transformer h Transformer
Transformer

R.F.
Transformer Crystal Pick-up Dynamic Pick-up
Rectifier diode

Symbolic Representation 50 YCT

 Crystal Dynamic Microphone Carbon Microphone
Capacitor Microphone
Microphone

Series Resonance Parallel Resonance Headphone

Circuit Stereo Headphones
Circuit

Loud Speaker Dial Lamp Indicator Diode Valve Triode Valve

Tetrode Valve Pentode Valve Beam Power Thyraton Valve

Cold Cathode Mercury Vapour Pentagrid Triode Hexode

Diode Valve Valve Converter Valve Converter Valve

Diode
LED Varactor Diode Tunnel Diode

Neon Rectifier Tube Neon Glow Lamp Photo Tube T.V. Camera

Symbolic Representation 51 YCT

 Picture Tube Colour Picture Tube L.D.R Thermistor

Varistor
Varistor V.D.R Transmitting
Antenna

Magnetic Head Variometer

Photo Diode Zener Diode

SCR Bilateral Switch Triac Diac

N-P-N Transistor P-N-P Transistor U.J.T Tetrode Transistor

F.E.T. MOSFET P-Channel

F.E.T. P-Channel MOSFET N-Channel
N-Channel

Key NOT Gate OR Gate AND Gate

Symbolic Representation 52 YCT

 NAND Gate Ex-OR Gate Ex-NOR Gate Flip-Flop

Operational
I.C. Memory Element Bridge Rectifier Amplifier

Differential
Amplifier

Symbolic Representation of Lamps

S.No. Title Symbols S.No. Title Symbols

1. Lamp or outlet for lamp 2. Group of three 40 W lamps

3. Lamp mounted on a wall or light 4. Lamp mounted on ceiling

bracket
5. Counterweight lamp fixture 6. Chain lamp fixture

7. Red lamp fixture 8. Lamp fixture with built-in

switch
9. Lamp fed from variable voltage 10. Emergency lamp
supply
11. Panic lamp 12. Bulk-head lamp

13. Water tight light fitting 14. Battern lamp-holder (Mounted

on the wall)
15. Projector 16. Sport light

17. Flood light 18. Fluorescent lamp

Symbolic Representation 53 YCT

 Previous Year Questions
1. The notation φ7 means ________ .
(a) depth of wall 7 units
(b) diameter 7 units
(c) Length of side 7 units
(d) radius 7 units
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans. (b) : The notation φ7 means that the diameter of
hole or bolt or nut is 7 unit.
2. The abbreviation SR marked on an engineering
drawing stands for:
(a) Sectional Recess (b) Spherical Radius
(c) Surface Relief (d) Screw Runner
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans. (b) : The abbreviation SR marked on an
engineering drawing stand for spherical radius.
3. The notation 2 × φ6 means _______.
(a) Scale the circle of diameter 6 units by a
factor of 2
(b) 2 circles of radius 6 units
(c) Scale the circle of radius 6 units by a factor
of 2
(d) 2 circles of diameter 6 units
RRB ALP & Tech 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (d) The notation of 2 × φ6 means 2 circles of
diameter 6 units.
4. The key shown in the figure below is :
Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2014
5. Which of the following is trapezoidal thread?
ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.),
25-09-2016
(a) Acme (b) Square
(c) Buttress (d) All of the above
Ans : (a) Trapezoidal thread and Acme thread both are
the same size but the angle of acme thread is 29° and
the angle of trapozoidal thread is 30°
6. Which type of thread is often used in
engineering applications ?
Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2013
(a) Coarse pitch - close fit
(b) Coarse pitch medium pitch
(c) Fine pitch - close fit
(d) Fine pitch - medium pitch
Ans : (b) Coarse pitch and medium pitch thread is often
used in engineering applications.
• Acme thread, trapezoidal threads are coarse pitch
thread.
• Square thread, knuckle thread are medium pitch
threads.
7. The keys shown in the figure. Which one is
most suitable for the tapered part of the shaft
in the key way ?

(a) Lewis key (b) Kennedy key

(c) Berth key (d) Pin key
Ans : (c) The key shown in the figure below is 'berth Ans : (a) The semicircular disc or woodruff key is most
key' 1. commonly used for jointing in the tapered part of the
1. shaft 2. surrounding hub. 3. key. shaft, in the keyway, as it is self adjusting.
The name of the keys shown in figure–
(a) Semicircular disc key or woodruff key
(b) Zib head key.
(c) Round bar sunk key.
(d) Rectangular sunk key.
8. The figure shows some circles used in
assemblies.
Match their name and work with the circle-

Symbolic Representation 54 YCT

 Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2012
1. Re-enforced E ring type
2. Crescent type
3. High strength type
4. E Ring type
5. High strength against radial enlargement.
(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C, 5-D (a) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D (b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-E
(b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D, 5-A (c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-E (d) 1-A, 2-G, 3-B, 4-E
(c) 1-A, 2-D, 3-D, 4-C, 5-B Ans : (a) In the thread shown in the figure-
(d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B, 5-D
B → Thread angle
Ans : (d) 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D
C → Crest
1. Re-enforced E ring type- (Fig D)
D → Pitch
2. Crescent type- (Fig A)
E → Flank
3. High strength type- (Fig. C)
4. E Ring type- (Fig B) 12. A thread is referred to in the following
5. High strength against radial enlargement- (Fig. D) manner, M20 × 1.5 - 5H represents the number
20 is-
9. The key shown in the figure is a 'self aligned
(a) Pitch (b) Pitch diameter
key have-'
(c) Large diameter (d) Tolerance
Ans : (c)
M · Isometric thread.
20 = Large diameter in mm.
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002 1.5 = Pitch in mm.
(a) Gib head key (b) Feather key 5H = Tolerance class symbol is inside because H is
(c) Saddle key (d) Woodruff key capital letter in tolerance symbol.
Ans : (d) The key shown in the figure is 'wood ruff key' 13. The bottom surface connecting the flanks of the
or 'semicircular disc key'. It is self aligned key in the thread is ...............
taper shaft. (a) Root (b) Crest
10. The most suitable and used device for driving (c) Pitch (d) Lead
the pulley shown in the figure on the shaft is-
Ans. (a) : The bottom surface connecting the flanks of
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er.,
the thread is called root.
01.12.2002
Crest: The top surface joining the flanks of a thread is
called crest.
Pitch: It is the distance between corresponding points
on adjacent thread.
Lead: The axial distance it moves in one rotation of the
(a) Gib head 'key' (b) Feather 'key' thread is called its lead.
(c) Cotter (d) Circlips 14. The top surface connecting the flanks of the
Ans : (b) To run and move the pulley shown in the thread is ................
figure on the shaft feather key is used. RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/
• Feather key is used where reciprocating motion is DRG & Design 11.06.2006
required in the shaft and hub. (a) Root (b) Crest
(c) Pitch (d) Lead
Ans. (b) : The top surface connecting the flanks of the
thread is called crest.

11. Match the characteristics of the thread shown

in the figure below with their correct name-
1. Crest 2. Flank
3. Thread angle 4. pitch
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section Eng.
23.03.2003
Symbolic Representation 55 YCT
15. Nut bolt used in binder are made of which 19. The surface between the root and crest is called
metal ? ............
RRB Bangalore Section Engineer (Civil) 01.02.2009 RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil), 26.02.2012
(a) Mild steel (b) High carbon steel (a) lead (b) Pitch
(c) Cast steel (d) Cast iron (c) diameter (d) Flank
Ans. (a) : Nut bolt used in binder are made of mild Ans. (d) : The surface between the root and crest is
steel. called flank.
16. Name the upper part of thread-
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Electrical), 15.03.2009
(a) Root (b) Pitch
(c) Crest (d) Flank
Ans. (c) : The upper part of the thread is called crest.
• Pitch of a thread is the distance measured parallel to
• Crest of the thread is the top most surface joining the the axis from a point on a thread to the corresponding
two sides. points on adjacent thread forms in the same axial plane
and on the same side of the axis.
20. The distance between the crest and the root of
a thread measured normal to the axis is...........
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.),
26.02.2012
(a) Pitch diameter (b) diameter of root
(c) depth of thread (d) Effective diameter
Ans. (c) : The distance between the crest and the root of
a thread measured normal to the axis is called depth of
• Root of the thread is the bottom of the groove thread.
between the two flanks. • Pitch diameter is a theoretical diameter between the
17. The thread angle is ................. major and minor diameter of screw threads.
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Electrical), 15.03.2009
(a) Distance between lead and pitch
(b) Distance between two threads
(c) Angle between two flanks
(d) Distance between root and crest
Ans. (c) : The thread angle is the angle between two
flanks.
18. The maximum diameter of screw thread is
................. 21. The adjacent distance between the root and
RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012 crest is called..............
(a) Minor diameter (b) Major diameter RRB Jammu Section Eng. (Mech, Elec/Elect./
Telecom), 2013
(c) Imaginary diameter (d) Effective diameter
(a) Lead (b) Pitch
Ans. (b) : The maximum diameter of screw thread is (c) Depth of thread (d) Effective diameter
called Major diameter.
Ans. (a) : The adjacent distance between the root and
• The minimum diameter of a screw thread is called
crest is called lead.
Minor diameter.
• The axial distance it moves in one revolution of the
screw is called lead.
• Screw with single start thread have the same pitch
and lead.
22. The difference between the large diameter and
small diameter of thread is called...........
RRB Bhubaneswar App. Electrical, 19.08.2001
(a) Lead (b) Crest diameter
(c) Depth of thread (d) Pitch size
Ans. (c) : The difference between the large diameter
and the small diameter of thread is called depth of
thread.

Symbolic Representation 56 YCT

• Large diameter: It is also called outer diameter or BA thread °
47.5
nominal diameter in case of outer thread. Square thread °
0
• The size of a screw is indicated by its major diameter
Acme thread °
or nominal diameter. 29
• Small diameter: It is minimum diameter of the Buttress thread °
45
thread, It is also called root diameter.
26. In B.S.W. thread, the value of pitch............
23. In single start thread lead is........... RRB Kolkata Apprentice Supervisors, 14.10.2001
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III,
1
20.11.2005 (a) (b) Thread per inch
(a) Same as pitch (b) Twice of the pitch thread per inch
(c) Half of the pitch (d) Triple the pitch 1 2
(c) (d)
Ans. (a) : In single start thread lead is same as pitch. 2 × thread per inch thread per inch
• A screw with a double start thread has twice the lead
Ans. (a) : The pitch of a screw is the axial distance
pitch.
from a point an its thread to the corresponding point on
• Screws with triple start threads have three times the
its adjacent thread.
lead pitch.
1
24. The thread starting from three places is Pitch =
called............. Number of thread per unit length of screw
RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006 27. The depth of thread in B.S.W. thread is......
(a) Single start (b) Double start RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent, 21.11.2004
(c) Triple start (d) Even Start (a) 0.6 P (b) 0.27 P
Ans. (c) : The thread starting from three places is called (c) 0.64 P (d) 2.3 P
triple start. Ans. (c) : The depth of thread in B.S.W. thread is 0.64
• The thread starting from one places is called single P.
start.
• The thread starting from two places is called double
start.

Thread angle = 550

Effective depth (h) = 0.64P
Overall depth (H) = 0.96P
Radius (r) = 0.1373P
where, P - Pitch
28. The angle of BA thread is............
DMRC Station Controller, 09.09.2007
(a) 55.50 (b) 2950
0
(c) 49 (d) 47.50
Ans. (d) : The angle of BA (British association) thread
10
is 47.50 or 47 .
2

Where, L = Lead, P = Pitch

25. The angle of B.S.W. thread is........
RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P. Way), 20.02.2000
(a) 700 (b) 470
0
(c) 80 (d) 550
Ans. (d) : The angle of B.S.W. thread is 55°
Type of thread/ Thread angle • This thread is used for any instrument or other
BSW thread °
55 precision work.
Symbolic Representation 57 YCT
29. Which is the proper way of hatching a flat 34. The symbol of the bearing is ?
surface. DMRC Station Controller, 09.09.2007
RRB RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-II, 30.01.2011

(a) (b) (a) (b)

(c) (d)

Ans. (d) : Overlapping lines are thin lines. The outline (c) (d)
is drawn at an angle of 45° and at a distance of 1.5.
• These lines represents a section of a flat part or a Ans. (b) : The convention of bearing is shown in option
section of a metal. 'b'.
• The figure given in option(d) is the most appropriate
way to plot the line. • Represents the convention of chain wheel.
30. The symbol of overall machining ?
RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P.Way), 20.02.2000
• Represents the convention of external
(a) (b)
thread.
(c) (d) 35. What is the convention of straight knurling ?
RRB RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-II , 30.01.2011
Ans. (a) : The symbol of overall machining is option 'a'
• Option 'b' is the symbol of 'turn machining'. (a) (b)
• Option 'c' is the symbol of 'grind machining'.
• Option 'd' is the symbol of 'drilling machining'.
• ⇒ This symbol is used when surface (c) (d)
machining is not to be done.
Ans. (c) : The convention of straight knurling is shown
31. What is the symbol of turn machining ? in-
RRB Kolkata Apprentice Supervisors, 14.10.2001

(a) (b)

(c) (d) • The convention of diamond knurling is shown in -

Ans. (b) : The symbol of turn machining is .
is used for grinding machining.
is used for overall machining.
is used for drilling machining.
36. What is the convention of diamond knurling ?
32. What is the symbol of grinding machining
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent, 21.11.2004

(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans. (c) : The symbol of grinding machining is . (c) (d)
33. What is the symbol of drill machining ?
Ans. (d) : The convention of diamond knurling is
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent, 21.11.2004
shown in option 'd'
• The circular rod section is represented by the
(a) (b)
convention
.
(c) (d) • The circular pipe section is represented by the
Ans. (d) : The symbol of drill machining is . convention .

Symbolic Representation 58 YCT

37. Which part of the figure is representing the Ans. (d) : The convention of the liquid is shown in
blinding hole ? option 'd',
RRB Kolkata Diesel/Electrical Ass., 06.02.2005 • The convention of steel is .
(a) 1 (b) 2
41. What is the convention of wood ?
(c) 4 (d) 5
RRB Chennai Technical (Eng.), 15.04.2007

(a) (b)

Ans : (b) The desired characteristics are shown in the

(c) (d)
figure -
1– Drilled hole
Ans. (b) : The convention of wood is shown in option
2– Blind hole 'b'.
3– Counter sunk hole
42. What is the convention of packing ?
4– Counter bore RRB Bangalore Technical (Eng.), 22.04.2007
5– Spot Face.
38. The drawing of the part is shown in the figure. (a) (b)
what does the machine symbol 'a1' indicate-
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III,
(c) (d)
20.11.2005
Ans. (c) : The convention of packing is shown in option
'C'
• Rubber, plastic, fiber, leather, cork, wax; insulating
and filling material etc. are denoted by this
(a) Roughness value after coating. convention symbol.
(b) Roughness value before coating. 43. What is the convention of ratchet and pinion ?
(c) Machining process RRB Secunderabad Technical (Eng.), 20.05.2007
(d) None of the above.
Ans : (b) The roughness value before chromium coating
is 'a1' and other coating the outer surface its roughness (a) (b)
value is 'a2'.
39. What is the convention of representing the
glass? (c) (d)
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/
Ans. (a) : The convention of ratchet and pinion is
DRG & Design, 11.06.2006
shown in option 'a'.
(a) (b) 44. What is the symbol used to indicates when
"material removal is required"-
DMRC Secunderabad Section Eng. (Civil), 29.06.2008

(c) (d)
(a) (b)

Ans. (a): The convention of glass is shown in option 'a'. (c) (d)
• Option 'b' - wood or plywood. Ans. (a) :
Option 'C' - Plastic, rubber, fibre, stone etc.
Symbol Purpose
Option 'd' - Water, oil, petrol.
A surface where material removal is
40. What is the convention of liquid ? required by machining
RRB Kolkata Technical-III, 20.08.2006
The surface to be finished by turning

(a) (b) A surface that is finished by a drill.

A surface that is finished by grinding

(c) (d) The surface where the material does not

need to be removed

Symbolic Representation 59 YCT

45. What does "A" in the figure represent in the (a) b (b) a
machine drawing ? (c) f (d) e
RRB Patna Technical Eng., 27.07.2008 Ans. (c) : In the figure 'f' stands for the surface
'roughness value' Ra (micrometer) except all others
represent the (R4, R3).
50. Identify the symbol, which is used to denote
(a) production method (layer or treatment) surface roughness in any manufacturing
(b) Sample length method ?
(c) Roughness value (sign) (NCVT 2012, Fitter, Turnner)
(d) None of the above
Ans : (c) In the figure 'A' marks the micrometer
"roughness value in the machine drawing.
46. What does "B" in the figure represents in the
(a) (b)
machine drawing ?
RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section Eng.
(Mechanical), 04.01.2009 (c) (d)

Ans. (a) : The Basic sign of surface roughness is

(a) Production method (layer or treatment) • That surface where no need of removal of material
(b) Sample length
(c) Roughness value (sign) whose basic sign is
(d) None of the above 51. Which of the following symbol represents the
Ans. (a) : In figure 'B' represents the production rail section ?
method in machine drawing. (a) (b)
47. What does "C" in the figure represents in
machine drawing ? (c) (d) None of these
RRB Bangalore Section Eng. (Civil), 01.02.2009
Ans : (a) is the symbol of rail section.
52. Which material is indicated in the given
figure?
(a) Production method (layer or treatment) RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er.,
(b) Sample length 01.12.2002
(c) Roughness value (sign)
(d) None of above
Ans. (b) : In figure "C" represents the "sample length"
or waviness height in machine drawing. (a) Porcelain (b) Fiber
48. What does "D" in the figure represents in (c) Glass (d) Concrete
machine drawing ?
Ans : (c) The symbol of glass is shown in the given
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Electrical), 15.03.2009
figure which is used as a structural material in
electrical engineering, such as vacuum tubes, electron
tubes, X-ray tubes etc.
(a) Production method 53. By which of the following symbol, the analog
(b) Sample length meter has been displayed ?
(c) Machining allowance (a) (b)
(d) All of the above
Ans. (c) : In figure "D" represents the machining (c) (d)
allowance.
Ans. (c) : is the symbol of analog meter.
49. Identify the alphabet which represents the
• Analog meter is an instrument which is used to
roughness value R4 ?
measure electrical quantities such as voltage, current,
(NCVT Meerš cewšue, efheâšj-2012)
resistance, frequency and signal power.
54. Identify the conventional representation of the
substance.
RRB Chennai Section Eng., 12.02.2012
Symbolic Representation 60 YCT
 Ans. (a) : Sign represents magnetic core.

Microphone

(a) Lead (b) Glass Rectifier

(c) Steel (d) Wood
Ans. (c) : Recieving Point
1 Cast iron, steel, aluminium 57. What does the following convention
and copper alloy etc. represents?
2 Packing and insulating RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Mech.), 26.02.2012
material
3 Concrete

(a) T-section
55. Match the list-I to the list-II (b) I-Beam Section
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Civil), 26.02.2012
(c) Channel section
List-I (Material) List-II (Convention) (d) Rectangular section
Ans. (c) :

A. Petrol
A. T-Section

B. Wood
B. I-Beam Section

C. Lead C. Channel Section

58. The conventional representation of serrated

D. Concrete shaft is-
UPSSSC Tracer (Tech.) 2015
(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(b) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(c) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(d) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) (a) (b)
Ans. (d) :

A. Petrol

B. Wood (c) (d)

Ans. : The conventional representation of serrated shaft
is shown in option (b)
C. Lead (a) Radial ribs (b) Serrated shaft
(c) Splined shaft (d) Chain wheel
D. Concrete 59. Which material is shown in the figure ?
DRDO Motor Mechanic 2016
56. Which of the following sign represents
magnetic core ?
RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-III, 30.01.2011
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Symbolic Representation 61 YCT
 (a) Cast Iron (b) Glass 62. Which sign of Pipe fitting given to the below
(c) Wood (d) Concrete figure ?
Ans. (a) : The material shown in the figure is of cast MES Fitter Tradesman 2015
iron.
SN. Material Convention
1 Cast Iron, steel,
Aluminium and its alloy
etc. (a) Cross (b) Elbow
2 Lead, Zinc, White metal (c) Union (d) Reducer
etc. Ans. (a) : The pipe fitting given in the figure is cross
3 Glass fitting.
Pipe Fitting Symbol
4 Wood
Elbow —
Union —
5 Concrete
Reducer —
63. SP 46:2003, which sign of pipe fitting given to
6 Water, Petrol, Kerosine the below figure ?
etc. Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2016
60. The weld symbol represent
ISRO-(VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.), 25-09-2016
(a) Double V Butt weld (b) Spot weld
(c) Fillet weld (d) Double U butt (a) Elbow 90° (b) Elbow 45°
Ans : (b) The weld symbol represents spot weld (c) Cross (d) Cap
Symbol Extensions Ans. (a) :
Spot weld Type of Pipe fitting Symbol
°
Seam weld Elbow 90 (For flange)
Fillet weld
Elbow 45° (For screw)
Cross (For flange)
V weld
Cab (For screw)
Upset weld 64. According to SP 46:2003, which sign of pipe
fitting given in the below figure ?
Indian Ordnance Factory (Itarsi) Fitter 08.05.2016
61. Name of the sign given to the figure ?
Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. Fitter 2013
(a) Gate Valve (b) Check Valve
(c) Ball Valve (d) Globe Valve
Ans. (a) : A Gate valve is represented in the given
figure.
(a) Single Bevel Butt weld Pipe Fitting Valve Symbols
(b) Single V Butt weld Gate Valve
(c) Single J Butt weld
Angle Valve
(d) Square Butt weld
Ans. (a) : Given figure represents single bevel butt
weld. Ball Valve
Type of Welding joint Symbol
Globe Valve
Double Butt Weld
Solenoid Valve
Double Bevel Butt Weld
Square Butt Weld Regulating Globe Valve

Symbolic Representation 62 YCT

65. According to SP 46:2003, what is the sign of Ans : (a)
screw join Elbow 45°.
Type of Joint Symbol
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2015
Screw Joint
Flange Joint
(a) (b) Reducer
69. Identify the symbol for fillet weld from the
symbol given in the figure below-
HAL Electrician 2015
(c) (d) Vizag Steel Electrician 2015
Ans. (b) :
Type of pipe fitting Symbol

Screw joint of Elbow 45°

Ans : (b)
Flanged Joint of Elbow 45° Type of Welding joint Symbol
Backing Run
Bell & Spigot of Elbow 45° Plug Weld
Fillet Weld
Welding of Elbow 45° Spot Weld
70. Which type of welding represents in the given
66. When two plates are joined by rivets by placing figure ?
them on top of each other is called- RRB JE Ahmedabad, 14.12.2014
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2014
(a) Lap joint (b) Butt joint
(c) Bump joint (d) Corner joint (a) Single Bevel butt (b) Square butt
Ans. (a) : When two plates are joined by rivets by (c) Fillet (d) Banking strip
placing then on top of each other, it is called a lap joint. Ans : (a)
• The part on which the plates are mounted on each
Type of Welding joint Symbol
other is riveted.
Single Bevel Butt

Fillet
Square butt
67. When two plate are placed on top of each ether
in a straight line and covered with a cover
plate, is called- Banking strip
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2013 71. Which type of welding given below in the figure?
(a) Lap Joint (b) Butt Joint RRB Bangalore (Tech.) 22.04.2007
(c) T-Joint (d) Corner Joint
Ans. (b) : When two plates are placed on top of each
other in a straight line and covered with a cover plate,
then that type of riveting is called butt joint. (a) Seam (b) Plug
(c) Projected (d) Strip
Ans : (d) The given figure represents strip welding.
72. Which type of welding represents in given
figure ?
68. Name of the fitting given below in the figure ? DRDO 2015
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2012

(a) Flange Joint (b) Screw Joint (a) Single Bevel Butt (b) Square Butt
(c) Welded joint (d) Brazed Joint (c) Fillet (d) Backing strip
Symbolic Representation 63 YCT
 Ans : (b) The given figure represents square butt 75. Which of the following figure represents drilled
weld. hole in workshop ?
Mazagon DOCK Ltd. Electrician 2013
Type of Weld Joint Symbol RRB Allahabad Junior Engineer-II
Single Bevel Butt
(a) (b)
Square Butt
(c) (d)
Fillet
Ans. (b) : The figure represents the drilled hole in
Backing strip workshop given in option (b).
73. Which type of welding represents in given SN Holes & Rivets Symbols
figure ?
1 Drilled in the workshop
IOF 2014
2 Drilled on site

(a) Seam (b) Plug 3 Fitted in workshop

(c) Projected (d) Backing strip
Ans : (a) 4 Fitted on site
Seam weld
76. Which of the following figure represents,
square butt weld ?
Backing Strip ESIC Electrician 2015
Plug weld
(a) (b)
Fillet Weld
(c) (d)
74. Match the List-I to the list-II Ans. : (b)
MES Electrician Tradesman 2015
S. Material Conventional
List-I (Representation List-II No. representation
of cross section) (Convention)
1. Fillet weld
2. Square butt weld

3. Single V butt weld

4. Single U butt weld

77. Name of the symbol represents by 'X'.

(a) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(ii), D-(iii), E-(i) THDC Electrician 2015
(b) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(i), D-(ii), E-(iii)
(c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(v)
(d) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(iv)
Ans. (b) :
List-I (Representation List-II (a) Bolt Head (b) Nut
of cross section) (Convention) (c) Screw (d) Rivet
Ans. (b) : Nut is represented by 'X' sign.
78. Name of the symbol shown in the figure -
Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2016

(a) Bold (b) Rivet

(c) Nut (d) Screw
Ans. (b) : Rivet is represented in the given figure.
Symbolic Representation 64 YCT
79. According to SP 46:2003, the suitable symbol Ans : (b)
of spot weld is-
Instrument Symbol
Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2015
Crystal Microphone
(a) (b)

(c) (d) Capacitor Microphone

Ans. (c) :
Type of Welding Symbol Dynamic Microphone
Backing Run
Plug Weld Carbon Microphone
Spot Weld
83. Identity the symbol of two way switch used in
Seam Weld electrical installation of wiring-
RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012
80. According to SP 46:2003, which of the
following figure shows the symbol of edge
weld?
Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2014
(a) (b) Ans : (b) Two way switch used in electrical
installation of wiring. It is used to control a lamp by
two or more switches from different-different places.
(c) (d)
84. Identify the 16A socket outlet symbol used in
Ans. (a) : electrical installation of wiring-
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er.,
Type of Joint Symbol 01.12.2002
Edge Weld

Backing Strip Weld

Single J-Butt weld
Ans : (b) 16A socket used in electrical installation of
81. According to SP 46:2003, The sign of a
wiring.
combined double Bevel Butt weld ?
• It is used in table lamp, press iron, T.V. etc to get
Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2013 electricity.
(a) (b) • Sockets are generally controlled by switches.
85. Identify the name of this sign in the electrical
(c) (d) symbolic diagram ?
DRDO 2015
Ans. (b) :
Type of welding Joint Symbol
Double Butt Weld (a) Red light joint
(b) Chain light joint
Double Bevel Butt Weld (c) Light joint where there is a switch
Double J-Butt Weld (d) Variable voltage supply connected to the
lamp
Stud Weld Ans : (c) The symbol shown in the given figure is a
Lamp fixture with built-in-switch.
82. Which of the following is a symbol for carbon
microphone ? Title Symbol
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Electrical), 1. Panic Lamp
15.03.2009
2. Emergency Lamp

3. Lamp mounted on ceiling

4. Lamp fixture with built in
switch

Symbolic Representation 65 YCT

86. Identify the name of the symbol used in circuit 90.
diagram ?
RRB Thiruvananthpuram Section Eng
(Mechanical) 04.01.2009
(a) Bell (b) Beeper
(c) Ceiling Rose (d) Circuit
Ans : (b) A Buzzer or beeper is an audio signaling
device which may be of mechanical, electro-
mechanical or piezoelectric type.
• Typical uses of the buzzer include alarm devices,
timers and confirmation of user input such as owner
or keystrokes.
87. What does the icon represents which given
below ?
(a) AC Generator (b) D.C. Generator
(c) A.C. Moter (d) D.C. Motor
Ans : (a) This icon represents AC Generator.
• A.C. Generator is a electrical machine, which
converts the mechanical energy into electrical
energy.
• A.C. generators works on the principle of Faraday's
law of electromagnetic induction.
• It also obeys Fleming's Right hand Rule.
88. The symbol shown in the given figure
represents-
(a) Fuse
(b) Alternating symbol for fuse
(c) Alternating symbol for fuse, where supply
indicated by thick line
(d) Alternating symbol for fuse, where the load
is indicated by a thick line
Ans : (b) The symbol shown in the figure represents
the alternating symbol for fuse.
89. Identify the given figure, which is used in
electric installation-
(a) Socket Outlet
(b) Switch Outlet
(c) Switch & Socket outlet
(d) Switch socket & Outlet
Ans : (a) The symbol displayed in the given figure, is
a socket outlet.
• Socket outlet means a device with protected current
carrying contacts intended to be mounted in a fixed
wiring of the installation to enable the connection.
Symbolic Representation
Identify the symbol of circuit breaker used in
wiring circuit diagrams-
Ans : (c) A circuit breaker used in wiring diagram is an
electrical switch that operates in the direction of a fault,
separating the faulty part frame the healthy part and
save from damaging other equipment.
91. Identity the symbol for continuous change in
the electrical circuit diagram ?
RRB JE Ahmedabad, 14.12.2014
Ans : (d) Symbol displayed in the given figure shows
a continuous changes in the electrical circuit.
• Electric current is a continuous flow of electric
charges.
• Current is measured as the amount of charge that
flows post a given point in a certain amount of time.
92. Identify the symbol of direct and alternating
electric current-
Jaipur Metro Rail, 02.07.2014
Ans : (c) is the symbol of direct and
alternating electric current.
• Electric current flows in two ways as an alternating
current (AC) or direct current (DC).
• The main difference between AC and DC lies in the
direction in which the electrons flow.
93. Identify the symbol of direct electric current
generator ?
RRB Chennai Technical (Eng.), 15.04.2007
Ans : (c) DC generator converts mechanical energy
into electrical energy of direct current.
• is the symbol of direct electric current
generator.
A.C. Motor
D.C. Motor
66 YCT
 Alternator 97. Identify the name of the symbol shown in
electrical circuit diagram ?
RRB JE Ahmedabad, 14.12.2014

Generator

(a) Dynamic coil device with rectifier

3 Phase Slip
Ring Motor (b) Instrument within which the rectifier can be
measured
(c) Separated series and shunt resistance
(d) Dynamic Iron machines
3 Phase Squirrel
Case motor Ans : (a) A rectifier is an electrical device that
converts alternating current (AC), which periodically
reverses direction, to direct current (DC), which flows
94. Identify the symbol of headphone (simple in in only one direction.
electrical and electronic circuit ? 98. Identify the name of this symbol in the
RRB Bangalore (Tech.) 22.04.2007 electrical circuit diagram ?
RRB Thiruvananthpuram Section Eng
(Mechanical) 04.01.2009

Ans : (b) is the symbol of headphone in an

electrical and electronic circuit.
95. Identify the name of this symbol-
DRDO 2015
99. Identify the name of this symbol in the
(a) Dynamic coil device
(b) Dynamic iron machines
(c) Electrodynamics shunt device
(d) Dynamic coil device with rectifier
Ans : (b) The given figure represents moving iron
appliance, this appliance works on both A.C. and D.C.
supplies.
• Moving- iron instruments are generally used to
measure alternating voltages and currents.
96. Identify the name of this symbol in electrical Ans : (c) The name of the symbol is pulse interval in
and electronic circuit diagram-
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
(a) Moving Iron instrument
(b) Brush over commutator
(c) Brush over commutator
(d) Dynamic coil instrument
Ans : (c) In electrical circuit, this symbol represents
the brush over the slip ring.
• Slip ring is used in commutator type Machines.
electrical and electronics circuit diagram-
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
(a) Dynamic coil instrument
(b) Moving iron instrument
(c) Pulse interval
(d) Moving coil instrument with rectifier
the electrical and electronics circuit diagram.
100. Name the symbol shown in the figure below-
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er.,
01.12.2002

(a) Galvanometer
(b) Thermometer (a) Variable capacitor
(c) Analog meter (b) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Analog Multimeter (c) Fixed resistor
Ans : (a) is the symbol of galvanometer. (d) Variable resistor
• Galvanometer measures low current. Ans : (b) Electrolytic capacitors are high value
• This device is used on electrical circuits to know capacitors, which are used for starting purpose for
and measure the intensity and direction of electrical short time duty.
current. • These capacitors have polarity markings.

Symbolic Representation 67 YCT

101. Which of the following is the symbol of an Earth Line
analog meter ?
Sheilded Line

Earth
Ans : (c) The symbol an analog meter is .
• Analog meters are less precise than digital meters.
102. By which of the following symbol the magnetic
core is represented ?
106. Identify the graphical symbol of bulk head
lamp?

Ans : (a) The symbol shown in option 'a' of a

magnetic core.
• A magnetic core is a piece of magnetic material Ans : (c) The symbol of bulk head lamp is shown in
used to confine and guide the magnetic field in option 'C'
devices such as electromagnets, transformers, • Fuse should always be connected to A.C.
electric motors etc.
• In the circuit, the phase wire is installed.
103. Which of the following symbol represents the
fuse used in the circuit ? 107. φ indicates_____.
(a) Diameter (b) Radius
(c) Not a circle (d) None
Ans. (a) : φ indicates diameter.
Name of shape or Identification symbols
special feature
Radius of circle R
Ans : (c) A fuse is a protective component of a
circuit, Which breaks the circuit when a current Radius of sphere SR
exceeds a specified amount, thus protecting other Diameter φ
valuable components in the circuit from damage due Spherical diameter Sφ
to excessive current. Square ≡ or Sq
104. Which of the following symbol represents a
Pitch of cycle diameter PCD
cell?
Equi-spaced EQSP
(a) (b) Counter sunk CSK
(c) (d) None of these Counter bore CBR
Ans : (b) The symbol shown in option (b) is of a cell. A Metric thread M
group of cells is called a battery, hence the symbol 108. In electrical engineering φ is used to denote:
shown in option (a) is of a battery.
(a) Wire diameter (b) Phase
105. Different types of lines are used to transmit (c) Ac or Dc (d) None
electricity from one place to another. Identify
the symbol of earth line from the following - Ans. (b) : In electrical engineering φ is used to denote
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er., phase.
01.12.2002 Electric element Symbol
Phase φ
Direct current (DC)
Alternate current (AC)
Wires joint
Ans : (d) The symbol of earth line is shown in the
option (d).
Natural Line Capacitor
Magnetic core

Symbolic Representation 68 YCT

109. ‘CRS’ on a drawing means Concentricity
(a) Circumference (b) Centers
(c) Curves (d) Central lines Position
Ans. (b) : CRS on a drawing means centres.
Important symbol–
CRS – Centre Profile of surface
CSK – Counter sink
PCD – Pitch circle diameter Parallelism
NTS – Not to scale
CBR – Counter bore. Perpendicular
110. Identify the symbol of “position” in the 113. Hatching patterns can be used as a means to
geometrical tolerances. broadly indicate the material of the object/part.
(a) (i) (b) (ii) Identify the material for which the hatching
(c) (iii) (d) (iv) lines shown in Fig.
Ans. (a) :
Symbol Characteristics
Cylindricity

Straightness (a) Metal

(b) porcelain, stoneware
Flatness
(c) Packing and insulating material
Position (d) Stacked lamination
Ans. (b) :
Concentricity Material Conventions
Metal
111. Identify the symbol of “cylindricity” in the
geometrical tolerances.
(a) (iv) (b) (ii) Porcelain stoneware
(c) (i) (d) (iii)
Ans. (a) : Packing and insulating material
Symbol Characteristics
Flatness 114. Identify the material to which the hatching
Circularity lines/shade lines are shown in Fig.

Cylindricity

Angularity (a) Wood (b) Plywood

(c) Glass (d) Stacked lamination
Ans. (d) :
Profile of a line
Material Conventions
Profile of surface Stocked lamination

112. Identify the symbol for roundness in the

geometrical tolerances.
(a) (iii) (b) (i) Plywood
(c) (ii) (d) (iv)
Ans. (a) :
Symbol Characteristics
Roundness Glass

Symmetry Water
Flatness

Symbolic Representation 69 YCT

115. Part marked as A in Fig. shows_____. Ans. (b) : The conventional representation shown in fig.
shows hexagonal headed bolt.

(a) Cylindrical section (b) Rolled section Hexagonal bolts are a type of threaded bolt,
(c) Square section (d) Triangular section characterized by their six-sided hexagonal shaped head.
Ans. (c) : Part marked as A in figure shows square 118. The weld symbol shown below is for _____
section. weld
Object Convention
Square

Round section

Pipe
(a) Do not weld (b) Weld all around
(c) Weld when required (d) Weld at rule
Wood rectangular Ans. (b) :
section
Object Convention
116. The symbol shown in the Fig. represents_____. Weld all round

Seam weld

(a) Centre
(b) External screw thread Plug weld
(c) Hidden part
(d) None 119. For _____ weld, we use symbol.
Ans. (b) : The symbol shown in the fig. represent (a) Fillet (b) Double butt
external screw thread. (c) Double V butt (d) Single V Butt
Object Convention Ans. (c) :
External screw
Object Convention
thread
Fillet

Internal screw Square butt

thread joint
Single V butt
Compression joint
spring Double V-butt
117. The conventional representation shown in Fig. joint
Shows _____. Single U-butt
joint
Double U-butt
joint
Single bevel
(a) Hexagonal headed bolt and nut butt
(b) Hexagonal headed bolt Double bevel
(c) Hexagonal bolt and nut separately butt
(d) All of these
Symbolic Representation 70 YCT
120. The symbol used for fillet in welding is: (a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans. (b) :
Object Convention
Cone point group
screw
Ans. (b) :
Object Convention
Fillet weld
Flat point
Sealing run
Cone point
Bead
Stud Oval point

Single V-butt
weld Cup point
Plug weld

121. Which is the slotted nut? 123. The symbol represents_____.

(a) Tee (b) Elbow
(c) Reducer (d) None of these
Ans. (a) :
(a) (b)
Object Convention
Tee

Elbow 90o

(c) (d) Elbow 45o

Ans. (a) : Slotted nut has slots cut into one end of the
nut.
Reducer

124. What is the name of the item represented by a

symbol shown below?

• Slotted nuts are used in applications where vibration (a) Cell (b) Earth
or motion might undo the locknut.
(c) Battery (d) Single pole switch
• Both a castle nut and slotted nut look similar, and
can often be used interchangeably because they are Ans. (c) :
almost identical dimensions. Element Symbol
122. Which is the cone point group screw in Fig.? Cell
Battery
Socket outlet

Circuit breaker

Symbolic Representation 71 YCT

 Fuge Ans. (b) :
Symbol Indicates
∞
Circumference
Analog meter Cylindricity

Electrolytic capacitor Circularity

Single pole switch Position
125. What is the name of item represented as per
BIS symbol given below. Concentricity

Angularity
129. Pipe threads have an angle of
(a) 29° (b) 30°
(a) LDR (b) LED
(c) 45° (d) 55°
(c) Photo diode (d) Tunnel diode
Ans. (d) :
Ans. (b) :
Thread Angle
Element Symbol
Knuckle thread 30o
LED
Acme thread 29o
Pipe thread 55o
Buttress thread 45o
Semi-conductor diode
Trapezoidal thread 30o
Magnetic core BSP thread 55o
LDR BSW thread 55o
130. Figure shows_____key.

126. The symbol is used to indicates–

(a) Angle (b) Taper
(c) Dimension (d) Arrow
Ans. (b) : (a) Gib head (b) Dove tail
(c) Woodruff (d) None of these
The symbol is used to indicates taper.
Ans. (b) : Figure shown dovetail key.
127. The symbol abbreviation for centre line is
(a)
(b) CL
(c) ∈
(d) All of (a), (b) and (c)
Ans. (d) : The symbol abbreviation for centre line is •
Dovetail keys have a been completely forgotten,
, CL, ∈ . even through they have been used extensively in
Europe as well in Japan.
Name of shape or special Identification
feature symbol • Dovetail key can be specially emphasized by the
use of different woods of material.
Radius of circle R
131. ] represents _____ section.
Radius of sphere SR
(a) C (b) I
Diameter φ (c) H (d) Beam
Spherical diameter Sφ Ans. (a) :
Square Sq Material Convention
128. The symbol ∞ is used to indicate C section
(a) circle (b) Circumference
(c) Roundness (d) None
Symbolic Representation 72 YCT
 Channel section Ans. (b) :
Current source

Tee section Galvanometer

Ohmmeter
132. The connecting electrical wires in Fig. (a) is
indicated by _____ in Fig. (b). 135. Name the item used in electronic circuit
(a) (i), (ii) (b) (ii), (iii) diagram, whose symbol is shown below.
(c) (i), (iii) (d) Straight lines
Ans. (d) :
Electrical wire Symbol
Cross wire
(a) Earth point
Joints of wire (b) Chasis earth connection
(c) Position of fault connection
Straight line (d) Frame connection
Natural line Ans. (a) :
Earth line Earth point
Shielded line
133. Symbol of tunnel diode is Earth

136. Symbol of overhead cable is:

Ans. (b) :
Photo diode

Diode
Ans. (b) :
LED Convention Electric equipment
Overhead cable
Varactor diode
Lightening arrestor
Tunnel diode

Fan regulator
Rectifier diode

Zenar diode Lamp

134. Symbol of current source: 137. What is the name of the electrical item shown
below?
----------
(a)
(a) Earth line (b) Neutral line
(c) Dead wire (d) Under ground cable
Ans. (b) :
(b) Electric Element Symbol
Earth line
Neutral line
(c) 3 phase line

(d) None of the above

Symbolic Representation 73 YCT
 Shielded line 140. What is the name of electrical symbol shown
Negative – below?
Positive +
Cross wire

Joints of wire

Earth connection (a) Link (b) Lamp

(c) Relay (d) Buzzer
138. What is the name of switch shown in symbolic Ans. (b) :
from in Fig.? Electrical Element Symbol
Lamp or outlet for lamp

Lamp mounted on a wall

or light bracket
Red lamp fixture

Panic lamp
(a) Two way switch (b) Push button switch
(c) Single pole switch (d) Single pole Buzzer
Ans. (a) :
Element Symbol Counter weight lamp
Two-way switch fixture

Push button switch Food light

DPDT switch Relay

Single pole switch

139. What is the name of symbol below in electrical?
141. What is the meaning the symbol shown below?

(a) DC (b) AC
(c) AC/DC (d) Single phase
(a) Ceiling fan (b) Exhaust fan
Ans. (b) :
(c) Buzzer (d) Fuse
Element Symbol
Ans. (a) :
A.C.
Element Symbol
A.C./D.C.
Fuse
D.C.
A.C. three phase
Link
A.C. single phase Fan regulator
D.C. motor
Buzzer
A.C. generator

A.C. motor
Ceiling fan

Symbolic Representation 74 YCT

 Exhaust fan British standard fine Used in automobile
thread (BSF) industries
British standard pipe Used in pipe and pipe
Bracket fan thread (BSP) fitting.
British associate thread Used in small screw of
(BA) electrical appliances watch
Fan of roof
screws.
142. 55° thread angle is for _____ thread(s).
(a) BSW 143. The abbreviations and symbols are used on
(b) BSF technical drawings to_____.
(c) Pipe (a) Save space
(d) All of (a), (b) and (c) (b) Save time
Ans. (d) : 55o thread angle is for BSW, BSP pipe (c) Retain uniformity and clarity
thread. (d) All (a), (b) and (c)
Thread Application Ans. (d) : The abbreviations and symbols are used on
British standard with Used for general purpose technical drawings to save space, save time, retain
worth thread (BSW) fastening thread uniformity and clarity.

EXAM POINTS
The term SWG is used to indicate– Conventional representation show in Fig. is for–
Thickness of metallic sheets
M20 indicates–
Metric thread of 20 mm outside diameter
φ indicates– Diameter
DIM is used to denote– Dimension
A sphere of 50 mm diameter is mentioned as–
S φ 50
In electrical engineering φ is used to denote– C. I. iron etc.
Phase Identify the material to which the hatching
TPI is an abbreviation for– Treads per inch lines/shade lines are shown in Fig–
The numerical value of radius of a circle should be
preceded by– R
‘CRS’ on a drawing means– Centers
For a square the symbol used is–
(preceding a dimension)
Conventional representation shown in Fig. is used
Stacked lamination
Part marked as A in Fig. shows–

for–
Wood
The convention in Fig. is used represent water, oil,
petrol etc– Square section
Which is a Hook bolt in fig–

What is the name of material conventionally

represented in the Fig.– What is the name of illustration for welded joints in
Fig–

Lead and zinc Single V-butt weld

Symbolic Representation 75 YCT
 The welding symbol given below. indicates– The name of the electrical item represented by a
symbol below is–
Cell
Square butt weld The name of the item represented by a symbol
The welding symbol shown below indicates– shown below is–

Seam weld Battery

The weld symbol shown below is for– The name of the BIS symbol given below is–

DC motor
Weld all around The name of the electrical item shown below is–
---------- Neutral line
For_____weld, we use symbol–
The name of symbol below in electrical is–
Double V butt
Shown below is–

AC
The name of electrical symbol shown below–
Lap joint
Pipe joints are generally– Butt welded
Bigger sizes flanges (usually 50 mm and above) in
pipe joint are usually– Butt welded
Lamp
The self-aligned key shown below in is a– The name of electrical symbol shown below is–

Woodruff key
The most suitable and usual device for driving the AC motor
pulley shown in figure is a– The meaning to the symbol shown in Fig. is–

Fault
Feather key The meaning the symbol shown below is–
Name the element of external thred marked ‘X’ in
Fig–

Ceiling fan
What is the name of the item shown in symbol
below–
Pitch

The symbol represents– Tee

Pipe fittings include– Elbow and Reducer

The symbol frequently used in piping diagrams Liner variable capacitor
indicates– Bottom level of pipe
The symbol in in piping diagrams indicates The symbol represents____ point–
the use of– Eccentric reducer Position of fault connection
Symbolic Representation 76 YCT
 3. Lines
Lines Ex:- Long dash/ gap/ dot
The locus point made by a moving point on a plane Designation of Line
is called line. As per SP 46:2003, designation of a general type
Line elements ⇒ Dot, dash etc. line is done on the basis of following –
Various types of lines are used in general Engg. (1) Type of line
drawing. (2) IS no. reference
In Engg. graphics the details of various objects are (3) No. of general type line
drawn by different type of lines. (4) Width of line
Type of lines according to thickness (5) Colour of line
Thick line ⇒ t ≈ 1 mm Types of lines–
Medium line ⇒ t ≈ 0.5 mm
Thin line ⇒ t ≈ 0.3 mm (a) Straight lines(a) Straight li
Locus, made by a moving point in a specific
Line segment direction is called straight line.
The group of two or more than two of various line
segments which make a discontinuous line is called
line segment.
Types of straight lines
(i) Horizontal line • Line, parallel to horizontal planes

(ii) Vertical line • Line, perpendicular to horizontal planes

(iii) Oblique Line • Line, which is inclined to horizontal or vertical planes, at any angle

(b) Curved line Perpendicular lines ⇒ When two lines intersect to

When a point moves in different direction, the locus each other at right angle (or 90o angle).
of its movement is called curved line.

Parallel lines ⇒ When distance between any two

lines constant throughout.
Perpendicular lines
Important points–
The thickness of line and its width remains constant
throughout the whole line.

Engineering Drawing 77 YCT

 The general line widths adopted are- ⇒ Ratio between thin & thick lines
0.13, 0.18, 0.25, 0.35, 0.5, 0.7, 1.0, 1.4, and 2.0 (in mm) on drawing should not be less then 1 : 2.
w 1
Remember ⇒ BIS recommends two line widths on i.e. thin >
w thick 2
drawing.
Different types of lines used in dimensioning
(1) (2)

Out line

(3) Out lines (5) • Lines drawn to represent visible edges and surface boundaries of
(4) objects.
(6) • Also known as object lines or principal lines.
(7) • Represented by continuous thick lines.
(8) Dimension lines (10) • Continuous thin lines, used for giving dimensions of drawing.
(11) • It is terminated at its outer end with an arrow head touching the
(9)
outline, extension line or centre line.
(12) Extension or projection (14) • Continuous thin lines, used for dimensioning an object.
lines (15) • Extended by about 3 mm beyond the dimension lines.
(13)
(16) Construction lines (18) • Thin continuous lines used for construction of objects.
(17)
(19) Section lines or Hatching (21) • Thin continuous lines, used for showing the section evidently.
lines (22) • They are uniformly spaced thin lines (1 to 2 mm spaced) and
(20) inclined at 45° to the main outline of the section.
(23) Leader or pointer lines (25) • Continuous thin lines and are drawn to connect a note with the
specific feature in the drawing.
(24)
(26) • The leader lines generally drawn at angles not less than 30°
(usually 30°, 45°, 60°).
(27) Short break lines (29) • Continuous, thin and wavy free hand lines drawn to show the break
of an object for a short length.
(28)
(30) • Also used to show irregular boundaries

Engineering Drawing 78 YCT

 (31) Long Break Lines (34) • Thin ruled lines provided with short zig-zags at suitable intervals.
(35) • Drawn to show long breaks
(32)
(33) (in mm)
(36) Hidden or Dotted lines (38) • Closely and evenly spaced dashes lines of equal lengths.

(37) (39) • They are medium thick and are used to show the invisible or hidden
parts of the object on the drawing.
(40) Centre lines (42) • These are thin, long, chain lines composed of alternatively long and
short dashes spaced at an approx. 1 mm distance.
(41)
(43) • Used to indicate the axis of cylindrical, conical and spherical
objects and also show the centers of circles and arcs.
(44) • Also shows locus lines, extreme positions of movable parts and
pitch circles etc.
(45) Cutting-plane lines (48) • These are long, thin chain line with thick ends.
(46) (49) • Used to show the location of cutting plane.
(47)
(50) Chain thick lines (52) • Used to indicate special treatment on the surface
(51)
(53) Chain thick double-dashed (55) • Used to show outlines of adjacent parts, alternative and extreme
lines positions of movable parts, centroidal lines and parts situated in
front of the cutting plane.
(54)

(Representation of lines According to Standard)

S.No. Object Convention

1. Object line or Outline

2. Hidden Line

3. Centre Line or Locus Line

4. Constructiona, Projection and Sectional Lines

5. Dimension and Extension Line

6. Short Break Line

7. Long Break Line

8. Cutting Plane Line

9. Ditto Line

10. Tlegraph Elephone and Chain Line

Engineering Drawing 79 YCT

 Previous Year Questions
1. A/an _______ circle is a circular centre line on 5. In an engineering drawing, which letters
a drawing containing the centre of holes about written on the dimension indicates that it is an
a common centre. extra information and NOT really required?/
(a) concentric (b) bolt (a) NR (b) PER
(c) axis (d) peripheral (c) REF (d) EXT
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II RRB ALP & Tech 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans. (b) : A/an bolt circle is a circular centre line on a Ans : (c) In an engineering drawing, REF letters
drawing containing the centre of holes about a common written on the dimension indicates that it is an extra
centre. information and NOT really required.
• In this number of screw holes for bolt are evenly 6. An arrowhead at the end of a dimension line is
distributed with their centers along an imaginary circle approximately––––– long and 1 mm wide.
with a given diameter. (a) 1.5mm (b) 5mm
(c) 3mm (d) 1mm
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (c) An arrowhead at the end of a dimension line is
approximately 3 mm long and 1 mm wide.

• Dimension line is used for showing the dimension of

an object.
2. If the unit has one or more moving parts, the • A dimension line are thin, continuous and straight.
extreme positions of the moving parts are
indicated in : 7.
(a) Continuous thin line
(b) Continuous thick line
(c) Long dashed double dotted narrow line
(d) Continuous wavy line
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans. (c) : If the unit has one or more moving parts, the
extreme positions of the moving parts are indicated in
long dashed double dotted narrow line.
3. ......... are those dimensions that should not
necessarily appear on the drawing.
(a) Object dimensions
(b) Auxiliary dimensions
(c) Non-functional dimensions
(d) Functional dimensions
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans. (b) : Auxiliary dimensions are those dimensions
that should not necessarily appear on the drawing. They
are only used for given the objective of information.
• These dimensions which are used for production
purpose but which do not directly affect the function of
product are called non-functional dimension.
4. Which of the following describes the theoretical
fixed plane, axis or point space that G.D. and T
are also refers to dimensional support?
(a) Section (b) Datum
(c) Frame (d) Flange
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (b) Datum lines describes the theoretical fixed
plane, axis or point space that G.D. and T or also refers
to dimensional support.
It give a reference from which measurements are
calculated.
Engineering Drawing
Which of the following statements are
technically incorrect
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
(a) When two or more lines of different types are
identical the visual outline is a complete
circle of the other type of line
(b) A dashed thin line is drawn to display
invisible details rather than the center line
(c) Enlarged scale is used for details
(d) Standard abbreviations, symbols or units are
specifies in lowercase.
Ans. (c) Enlarged scale is not using for details. It is
used in drawing to draw the bigger dimension in
comparison to the actual dimension of the object.
• Whereas a dashed thin line is drawn to display
invisible details rather than the center line.
8. A perpendicular line on a reference line is
called
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er.,
01.12.2002
(a) Transverse line (b) Horizontal line
(c) Parallel line (d) Vertical line
Ans : (d) A perpendicular line on a reference line is
called vertical line.
• Horizontal line which is parallel to the horizontal
imaginary level.
• A straight line that is neither horizontal nor vertical, it
is called an inclined or oblique.
9. The parallel line drawn to the upper surface of
still water is called/
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice
Section Eng. 23.03.2003
(a) Vertical line (b) Horizontal line
(c) Oblique line (d) Parallel line
80 YCT
Ans : (b) The parallel line drawn to the upper surface of • It is terminated at its outer end with an arrow head
still water is called horizontal line. touching the outline extension line or center line.
• The path of a point which keeps changing its _____________
direction is called a curved line. Thin
• A line which can extends to both sides to infinity and 14. The hatching lines are inclined at which angle?
has no curves is called a straight line. RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Electrical) ,
10. According to SP 46 : 2003, the minimum 15.03.2009
distance kept between two lines (a) 300 (b) 450
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG & (c) 600 (d) 750
Design 11.06.2006
(a) 0.7 mm (b) 0.5 mm Ans : (b) Hatching line–To display the cut part of the
(c) 0.9 mm (d) 0.1 mm object 0.3 or 0.4 mm in that part draw thin continuous
lines inclined at 45º.
Ans : (a) SP 46 : 2003 publications made by bureau of
Indian Standard includes standard technique for line • Parallel is made by keeping same distance between
conventions in detail. these lines.
• According to SP 46 : 2003, the minimum distance kept • These lines are drawn with H or 2H pencil.
between two lines is 0.7 mm. 15. Which type of line is used for reduced space in
11. Which line is used to represent hidden lines? a long section drawing?
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil) RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012
29.06.2008 (a) Dimension line (b) Dotted line
(a) Dotted line (b) Center line (c) Short break line (d) Long break line
(c) Object line (d) Hatching line Ans : (d) Long break line are used for reduced space in
Ans : (a) Dotted line is used to represent the hidden a long section drawing.
lines. • These lines are thin ruled lines provided with short
Hidden lines are evenly and closely spaced dashed zig-zags at suitable intervals.
lines of equal length. • It is drawn to show long breaks.
• They are medium thick and are used to show the
invisible or hidden parts of the object on the drawing.
16. The other name of continuous thick line is–
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil), 26.02.2012
(a) Dimension line (b) Object line
(c) Center line (d) Projection line
Ans : (b) The continuous thick line are also called
principle line or object line.
12. This line is used for to give details of an • These lines are near about 1 mm thick and continuous.
object- • These lines are used for showing boundary lines and
RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section Eng (Mechanical) external shape of an object.
04.01.2009
• It is made with HB pencil.
(a) Leader line
(b) Dimension line
(c) Extension line
(d) Any one of the above
Ans : (a) Leader lines are continuous thin lines which
drawn to connect a note with the specific feature in the 17. Thin chain lines with thick ends are used for-
drawing. (NCVT Fitter 2012)
• The leader line generally drawn at angles not less than (a) Cutting plane (b) Parallel line
30º (usually 30º, 45º, 60º). (c) Enclosing line (d) Hatching line
13. According to SP 46 : 2003, the layout line to be Ans : (a) Thin chain lines with thick ends are used for
drawn in the drawing is- cutting plane.
RRB Bangalore Section Engineer (Civil) • A cutting plane has both thick and thin lines.
01.02.2009 • The location of a cutting plane line is shown this line.
(a) Continuous thick line (b) Dotted thin line
(c) Continuous thin line (d) Dotted thick line
Ans : (c) Continuous thin line is used for dimension
line.
Engineering Drawing 81 YCT
18. Which of the following lines are drawn with 22. In drawing, what is the ratio of medium thick
free hand? and thin lines ?
(a) Center line (b) Break line (a) 5 : 3 (b) 5 : 2
(c) Projection line (d) Extension line (c) 4 : 3 (d) 3 : 2
Ans : (b) Break lines are drawn with free hand. Ans : (a) In drawing, the ratio of medium thick and thin
• Through these lines, broken parts or large objects are times is 5 : 3.
shown in the drawing in less space. 23. How is the centre line shown-
• Thin ruled lines provided with short zig-zag at RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012
suitable intervals. (a) Continuous line
(b) Long double dotted narrow line
(c) Long dotted narrow line
(d) Dotted narrow line
Ans : (c) The centre line is shown as a long dotted
19. Which of the following lines are used as the narrow line. It shown the axis of all solids and the path
center line. of any point.
(a) (b) 24. What will the thickness of the thin line
(c) (d) prescribed by BIS A1/Ao paper?
Ans : (a) These lines are thin and are drawn by one big RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006
and one small line segments respectively. (a) 0.25 mm (b) 0.35 mm
• The length of each large line segment is 10 mm to 35 (c) 0.5 mm (d) 0.45 mm
mm and the length of the smaller line segment is 3 Ans : (a) As per BIS, the thin line thickness for A1/Ao
mm. paper is kept 0.25 mm.
• The distance between small and big line segment is Paper Size Millimeters
1.5 mm. Ao 841 × 1189 mm
• Through these lines, the axis of all solids and the path
A1 594 × 841 mm
of any point are displayed.
A2 420 × 594 mm
A3 297 × 420 mm
•
A4 210 × 297 mm
20. What should be the minimum distance between A5 148 × 210 mm
hatching lines ? A6 105 × 148 mm
(a) 0.6 mm (b) 0.7 mm
25. What is the ratio of length and height of arrow
(c) 0.8 mm (d) 0.9 mm
mark ?
Ans : (b) The minimum distance between the hatching RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
lines is near about 0.7 mm. (a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1
• They are uniformly spaced thin lines (1 to 2 mm (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
spaced) and inclined at 45° to the main outline of the
Ans : (b) Arrow head should be made carefully at the
section.
ends of the dimension line.
• Thin continuous lines, used for showing the section
• The ratio of the length and height of the arrow is kept
evidently.
a 3 : 1.

• This type of arrow head is also called closed and

tilled arrowhead.
21. The width of the dimension of the line 26. The length of the top of the arrow head is-
expressed by which letter ? RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice
(a) S (b) d Section Eng. 23.03.2003
(c) b (d) None of these (a) Same as thickness
Ans : (c) The width of the dimension of the line (b) Twice of the thickness
expressed with 'b' letter. Height of the dimension is (c) Thrice of the thickness
denoted with 'h' letter. (d) Four times of the thickness
Engineering Drawing 82 YCT
Ans : (c) The length of the top of the arrow head is kept 29. ISI has divided different types of lines into
thrice of the thickness. groups based on their measurements. The
• The ratio of their thickness and length should be 1:3. following is the measurement of 'B' type line?
• The top should always be filled with pencil. RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section Eng (Mechanical)
04.01.2009
• It is also known as closed & filled arrowhead. (a) 0.1 mm (b) 0.3 mm
(c) 0.2 mm (d) 1 mm
Ans : (c) ISI has divided different types of lines into
27. Which lines are thin lines ? groups based on their measurements. The measurement
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG & of 'B' type line of line group is 0.2 mm.
Design 11.06.2006 30. In which of the various groups prescribed by
(a) Leader line (b) Extension line ISI is not placed in any of the groups for line
(c) Dimension line (d) All of the above 'G'?
Ans : (d) Leader line, Extension line & dimension lines RRB Bangalore Section Engineer (Civil) 01.02.2009
all of these are type of lines are thin lines. (a) 1.8 mm (b) 0.3 mm
• Leader Line: It is a continuous thin line which is (c) 0.5 mm (d) 0.8 mm
used for showing details and information about the Ans : (d) 0.8 mm line for 'G' is not placed in any
drawing. various group prescribed by ISI.
• Extension Line: It is also a continuous thin line • 'B' type line dimension is 0.2.
which is extends by about 2 to 3 mm beyond the 31. Match correctly according the thickness of the
dimension. lines -
• Dimension line: It is continuous thin line, drawn RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer
parallel to edge or surface, whose measurement (Electrical), 15.03.2009
should be shown.
A. Dimension line (i) 0.9 mm
• It is terminated by arrow head, touching the outlines,
extension line or centre line. B. Centre line (ii) 0.5 mm
C. Cutting line (iii) 0.3 mm
D. Object line
Code:
(a) A-(iii) : B-(iii) : C-(ii) D-(i)
(b) A-(iii) : B-(i) : C-(ii) D-(i)
(c) A-(i) : B-(ii) : C-(ii) D-(iii)
28. Find the correct match for the lines prescribed by (d) A-(ii) : B-(iii) : C-(iii) D-(i)
the Indian standard institute (ISI)-
Ans : (a) A-(iii) : B-(iii) : C-(ii) D-(i)
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil) 29.06.2008
A. Continuous (i) As long barrier line Dimension line
&thick lines Centre line
B. Broken thick (ii) To outline of the Cutting line
lines object Object line
C. Chained thin (iii) To invisible outer Hidden line
lines line 32. Which of the following statement is correct
D. Continuous & (iv) As centre lines with respect to the thickness of the line.
thin lines RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012
Code: (a) Thick line is 3 times as compared to thin line.
(a) A-(i) : B-(iii) : C-(ii) D-(iv) (b) The middle line is 3 times as compared to
(b) A-(ii) : B-(iii) : C-(iv) D-(i) thin line. w
(c) A-(ii) : B-(iv) : C-(iii) D-(i) (c) Thick line is 4 times as compared to thin line
(d) A-(i) : B-(ii) : C-(iv) D-(iii) (d) None of the above
Ans : (b) A-(ii) : B-(iii) : C-(iv) D-(i) Ans : (a) In terms of thickness of lines, thick line is 3
Lines Representation times as compared to thin line, this statement is correct.
Continuous thick line To outline of the object • Types of line according to the thickness -
Broken thick lines To invisible outer line Thick line ⇒ t ≈ 1 mm
Chained thin lines As centre line Medium line ⇒ t ≈ 0.5 mm
Continuous & thin lines As long barrier line Thin line ⇒ t ≈ 0.3 mm

Engineering Drawing 83 YCT

33. A person standing on a horizontal plane draws 36. Name the line 'X' given below-
a line from the horizontal plane ?
RRB Bangalore Technical (Eng.), 22.04.2007
(a) Perpendicular line (b) Straight line
(c) Parallel line (d) Curved line
Ans : (a) A person standing on horizontal plane makes
a perpendicular line with the horizontal plane.
• If a person is lying on a horizontal plane, then this RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG &
person forms a line parallel to the horizontal plane. Design 11.06.2006
34. Continuous thin straight line with zigzag is (a) Short segment line (b) Broken thin line
used for (c) Chained thin line (d) None of these
ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.), Ans : (b) The 'X' line given in the figure is of the
broken thin line-
25-09-2016
37. Name of the line represented by 'X' in the
(a) Projection line (b) Leader line
figure.
(c) Long break line (d) Cutting plane
Ans : (c) Continuous thin straight line with zigzag is
used for long break line.
Sr Object Convention
N DMRC Junior Engineer (Electronics), 03.08.2014
o (a) Extension line
1 Object line Thick (b) Dimension line
(c) Dimension line termination
2 Hidden line Medium (d) Leader line
Ans : (b) The line represented by 'X' is 'dimension line'.
• Continuous thin lines, used for giving dimensions of
3 Centre line Thin
drawing.
• It is terminated at its outer end with an arrow head
4 Construction Thin touching the outline, extension line or centre line.
& section line 38. In which of the following option represent
5 Short break Thin wrong leader line ?
line DMRC Civil Engineering, 07.09.2014
6 Long break Thin
line

7 Cutting plane
line
8 Dimension Thin
line Ans : (d) Leader line is used while dimensioning.
35. When two or more lines do not meet at any It is mostly used for the dimension of radius and
point they are called - diameter.
RRB Chennai Technical (Eng.), 15.04.2007 • It is a continuous thin line, connecting a dimensional
value or a note with the corresponding features on the
(a) Odd line (b) Parallel line
drawing.
(c) Horizontal line (d) Vertical line
• One end of the leader terminates either in an
Ans : (b) When two or more line do not intersect at any arrowhead or a dot.
point then they are called parallel line. 39. In these following option which lines is a
• The diagonal lines can be of any type, straight or continuous thin zig-zag line ?
curved. DMRC Electronics Engineering, 21.09.2014

Engineering Drawing 84 YCT

Ans : (d) Long segmented lines or zig-zag lines are thin 43. These lines, which are closed by arrow marks
10.3 mm) and drawn with a scale to makes zig-zags on both the ends, are called-
from the middle in the free hand. RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.),
• These lines are broken long in the drawing used to 26.02.2012
display long part. (a) Construction line (b) Dimension line
40. Identify the line 'X' in the figure given below- (c) Invisible line (d) Object line
Ans : (b) Those lines, which are closed by arrow marks
on both the ends, are called dimension line.
• It is terminate at its outer end with an arrow head
touching the outlines, extension line or centre line.
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
(a) Centre line (b) Invisible line
(c) Construction line (d) Object line
44. Which type of line shown in the below figure.
Ans : (b) The line 'X' in the given figure represents the
invisible line.
• Hidden or dotted lines represent medium thickness
(0.5 mm) and equally spaced line segments of short RRB Thiruvananthpuram Section Eng
0.3 mm and long 1 mm. (Mechanical) 04.01.2009
• These lines are used to represent the invisible edges (a) Horizontal line (b) Inclined line
of the object. (c) Parallel line (d) Perpendicular line
41. Many lines are used in engineering drawings, Ans : (c) The line given in the figure are straight
Identify the line, which is used as an invisible parallel and curved parallel lines respectively.
line ? • If two lines make an angle of 90° with each other,
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er., then they are called perpendicular lines.
01.12.2002 • The distance between any two lines are constant
throughout in parallel lines.
45. Some lines used in drawing meet at a point and
some lines never meet at any point, the lines
which do not meet at any point are called-
Ans : (a) Hidden lines are medium thick and are used to
show the invisible or hidden parts of the object on the RRB Bangalore Section Engineer (Civil)
drawing. 01.02.2009
• They are closely and evenly spaced dashed lines of (a) Parallel lines (b) Cutting lines
equal length. (c) Perpendicular lines (d) Construction line
42. Identify the line 'X' in the figure given below. Ans : (a) If two or more lines used in drawing are not
meet at a point, then those lines are called non-parallel
or intersecting lines.
• It two or more line never meet at any point, so they
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section Eng. are called parallel lines.
23.03.2003
46. Which type of lines are shown in the given
(a) Construction line (b) Center line
figure below ?
(c) Invisible line (d) Dimension line
Ans : (b) The given line 'X' represents the centre line
of a circle.
Sn. Lines Use

RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Electrical) ,

1. To draw boundaries 15.03.2009
2. To draw invisible line of the (a) Curved line (b) Parallel line
object (c) Perpendicular line (d) Straight line
Ans : (c) perpendicular lines are shown in the given
3. Axis of all solid and locus of above figure.
any point • When two lines are intersect to each other at right
4. To represent reprehensive angle (or 90°) then these lines are called
details in a drawing perpendicular lines.

Engineering Drawing 85 YCT

(i) Perpendicular Line– Ans : (d) Extension line is drawn by continuous thin
line.
Continuous To represent
thin line extension line
Chained To show the
thin line centre line
(ii) Parallel Line– Chained To denote the
thick line Indication of line
that provide a
47. The distance between two points in which special
direction keeps on changing continuously is requirement
called- Continuous To show object
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section thick line line
Eng. 23.03.2003 Short break To shorten on
(a) Oblique (b) Curved line object.
(c) Horizontal (d) Straight Long break To represent long
Ans : (b) The distance between two points in which line parts in less space
direction keeps on changing continuously are called 51. What is the ratio between thick and medium
curved line. thick lines in drawing ?
• When a point moves in different direction, the locus (a) 5:2 (b) 4:5
of its movement is called curved line. (c) 6:3 (d) 4:3
48. Continuous thick lines are also called by name- Ans : (c) The thick line in the drawing is about twice
(a) Dimension line (b) Object line the length of the medium line.
(c) Extension line (d) Projection line • Hence the ratio of thick and medium line is 6:3.
Ans : (b) Continuous thick lines are also called object • Thick line is show object outline.
line or principal line. • Medium thick line is used as construction line.
• These lines are drawn to represent visible edges and 52. The thin chain line with thick ends are used to
surfaces boundaries of objects. represent what?
• The thickness of these lines are near about 0.2 mm. (a) Cutting Plane line
(b) Centroidal lines
(c) Lines of Symmetry
(d) Outlines of adjacent parts
• Normally HB pencils are used to draw these lines. Ans : (a) Thin chain line with thick ends are used to
show the location of cutting plane lines.
•
49. What is the ratio of thick and thin lines in • This is a heavy long- short - short - long kind of line.
drawing.
(a) 3:2 (b) 4:3
(c) 5:4 (d) 6:2 53. Which line is used to represent the centre line?
Ans : (d) The thickness of the thick line is three times
than thin line and the medium line is twice as thick as
the thin one.
• Hence the ratio of thick & thin lines is 6:2.

Ans : (b) The line used to represent the centre line is

shown in option (b).
50. Which of the following is used for drawing Signs of line from which a special
extension lines ? need is represent
Used as centre line or line of
symmetry
Used as invisible line
Partial or blocked as the boundary
of the scene and the passage

Engineering Drawing 86 YCT

54. Which line is used to show hidden edges- 58. The point at which the line intersects the
(a) Centre line (b) Object line vertical plane is known as–
(c) Dashed line (d) Cutting Plane line DRDO Mechanic Diesel 2016
Ans : (c) Dashed line is used to show hidden edges. (a) horizontal trace
• They are medium thick and are used to show the (b) vertical trace
invisible or hidden parts of the object on the drawing. (c) profile trace
• They are closely and evenly spaced dashed lines of (d) auxiliary trace
equal lengths. Ans : (b) The point at which the line intersects the
vertical plane is known as vertical trace.
Hidden or dashed line Note: The plane to which the line is parallel, does not
55. A construction line of infinite length can be get the luminous sign.
ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.), 59. If both the view (Top view and front view) of a
25-09-2016 line are found on the same line, then that line
(a) trimmed from one end only will be on-
(b) trimmed from both ends RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG
(c) cannot be trimmed at all & Design 11.06.2006
(d) can be trimmed with construction line only (a) On H.P
Ans. (b) A construction line of infinite length can be (b) On V.P
trimmed from both ends. (c) on the line of intersection of both H.P. and
• A construction line is a special type of infinite line V.P.
that is typically used when quick drafting techniques (d) None of these
are required, for example, to make projections of
front and side views. Ans : (c) If both the views of a line are found on the
same line, then that line will be on the line of
56. If the apparent and the true inclinations of a
intersection of both H.P. and V.P.
line with HP are equal, the line is–
DRDO Turner 2016 • This line H.P. and V.P. will be parallel to both.
(a) parallel to vertical plane 60. Trace of inclined line is obtained from H.P.-
(b) parallel to horizontal plane RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil)
(c) inclined to both reference planes 29.06.2008
(d) parallel to profile plane (a) H.T (b) V.T
Ans : (a) If the apparent and the true inclinations of a (c) T.L (d) V.P
line with HP are equal, the line is parallel to vertical Ans : (a) On extending the line H.P., the point at
plane. which intersects the line, that point line is called
Horizontal trace (H.T.) and on extending the line V.P.,
the point at which intersects the line V.P. (Vertical
trace).
• The plane from which the line in inclined, the
luminous sign is obtained.
• The trace of the inclined line H.P. intersects will
get H.T.
61. If a line is perpendicular to H.P. then which of
57. For a line situated in the first quadrant, which
of the following statements is not correct? its view is found a point-
DRDO Motor Mechanic 2016 SAIL Durgapur Steel Plant 05.09.2014
(a) HT and VT may lie above xy (a) Top view (b) Front view
(b) HT and VT may lie below xy (c) Side view (d) None of these
(c) HT may lie above xy and VT below xy Ans : (a) If any line is perpendicular to H.P., So a point
(d) HT may lie below xy and VT above xy is found on its top view. Whereas a line is found on its
Ans : (c) In first quadrant VP is located above the front view.
reference line X-Y and H.P. located below the reference
line.
• In this situation the H.T. & VT of the line can be
obtained above or below to the reference line X-Y.
• V.T. can never be obtained below X-Y line and H.T.
can be obtained above X-Y line.
Engineering Drawing 87 YCT
62. If a line is perpendicular to the V.P., then in Ans : (a) If a line is found equal to its actual length in
which view it is perpendicular to XY- front view, then this line is parallel to V.P. while it may
SAIL Bokaro Steel Plant 2016 be vertical or inclined from H.P.
(a) Front view (b) Side view 66. If a line is parallel to H.P., so its top view is-
(c) Top view (d) None of these COAL India Fitter 2013
Ans : (c) If a line is perpendicular to the V.P. So in its (a) A point (b) A straight line
top view, we found a line which is also perpendicular to
(c) A curve (d) None of these
XY.
• And a point is found in its front view. Ans : (b) If a line is parallel to H.P., so in its top view a
line is found which is parallel to H.P.
• If this line is vertical to V.P. so a point is found on its
V.P. in front view.

67.If a line is inclined to H.P. & parallel to V.P., so

its top view about X-Y line is -
63. One line which is parallel to V.P. and inclined CRPF Constable Tradesman 2016
at any angle from H.P. (a) Inclined (b) Vertical
Then what is found in its front view ? (c) Parallel (d) None of these
Vizag Steel Fitter 2015 Ans : (c) If a line is inclined to H.P. & parallel to V.P.
(a) A point (b) A line then a straight line will be obtained in its top view,
(c) Both (d) None of these which will be slightly smaller than its actual length, It is
Ans : (b) If one line is parallel to V.P. and inclined at parallel to XY.
any angle from H.P. then we found a line on its front • This is called Plan (top view).
view.

68. If both the front and top views of a line are

perpendicular to the reference line, the true
inclination of line with HP and VP may be
64. No line can ever be of both the reference
respectively–
planes-
HAL Fitter 2015
NTPC Fitter 2014 0 0
(a) 30 and 60 (b) 20 and 700
0
(a) Parallel (b) Perpendicular
(c) Both 450 (d) Any of these
(c) Inclined (d) None of these
Ans : (d) It both the front and top views of a line are
Ans : (b) No line can ever be perpendicular to both the
perpendicular to the reference line, the true inclination
reference plane when the line is parallel to the
of line with HP and VP may be respectively at any
horizontal plane then it is perpendicular to the vertical
plane and when the line is parallel to the vertical plane angle, may be 30° and 60° or 20° and 70° or both at
then it is perpendicular to the horizontal plane. 45°.
• It can be parallel with both at once, but this line is 69. If a line is situated on VP then which view is
never perpendicular to both the vertical plane and the found on XY ?
horizontal plane simultaneously. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. Fitter 2013
65. In the front view of a line, the actual length of (a) Front view
the line will be visible only when the line is in (b) Top view
the vertical plane- (c) Side view
BHEL Hyderabad Fitter 2014 (d) Top view and front view both
(a) Parallel (b) Vertical Ans : (b) If a line is situated on V.P. then top view is
(c) Inclined (d) In all condition found on XY.
Engineering Drawing 88 YCT
 73. The line AB shown in the diagram is-
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2015

(a) Straight line (b) Arc

(c) Chord (d) Tangent line
Ans : (d) The line AB shown in the figure is a tangent
line.
70. A line is kept perpendicular to V.P., so is top • A straight line touching the circumference of a
view is- circle at only one point is called a tangent.
MES Fitter Tradesman 2015 • The straight line joining the centre of the circle to
(a) A line (b) A point the point of contact is perpendicular to the tangent.
(c) A rectangle (d) None of these
74. Which of the following represents the correct
Ans : (a) If any line is kept perpendicular to V.P. So a process of dimension line ?
line of equal length is found on its top view which is
RRB Jammu Section Eng. (Mech,
also perpendicular to XY.
Elec/Elect./Telecom), 2013
• In front view, a point is found.

Ans : (c) In drawing all the parts of each object are

shown with full dimensions information only by
planning. It shows the correct process of dimension line.

71. If a line is inclined to both the planes then in • It is terminated at its outer end with an arrow head
which projection will the actual length of the touching the outline, extension line or centre line.
line will found ? 75. A line passing through a point which keeps on
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2016 changing its direction is-
(a) Top view (b) Front view IOF 2014
(c) Both of these (d) None of these (a) Straight (b) Curved line
Ans : (d) If a line is inclined from both the planes, then (c) Oblique line (d) Parallel line
an inclined line will be obtained in both view i.e. top Ans : (b) If a line passing through a point has changing
and front view, which will be of less in length than the its direction, it is called a curved line.
actual length of the line.
• The tilt of these projections will appear higher than
the actual tilt. • When distance between any two lines constant
throughout, then it is called parallel line.
72. If a line is located at H.P., then which of its
view is on XY-
Indian Ordnance Factory (Itarsi) Fitter
08.05. 2016
(a) Top view (b) Front view
(c) Side view (d) All of these 76. Those lines, In which the distance between lines
remains same and they do not cross each other
Ans : (b) If a line is located at H.P., so its front view is
when extended further, are called -
found on XY.
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil)
29.06.2008
(a) Parallel lines (b) Horizontal lines
(c) Vertical lines (d) Oblique lines
Ans : (a) Two such lines which never intersect each
other while moving at the same distance are called
parallel lines.
• Parallel lines can be straight or curved of any type.

Engineering Drawing 89 YCT

 79. To indentify the 'X' line in the figure?
HAL Electrician 2015

• When two lines intersect to each other at right

angles (or 90° angle)

(a) Dashed line (b) Hatching line

(c) Centre line (d) Short break line
Ans : (d) Line X indicates short break line.
77. Name the 'x' line shown in the figure ? • This line is used to represent the section of a part.
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2014 • Using this line saves space and time in drawing.
• This lines are continuous thin and wavy.
• They are drawn freehand and are used to show a
short break or irregular boundaries.
80. The 'x' line represents in the figure ?
MES Electrician Tradesman 2015

(a) Thread line (b) Dimension line

(c) Extension line (d) Hatching line
Ans : (c) The extension line is shown by 'X' in given
figure.
• Extension lines are used to represent dimensions. (a) Centre line (b) Locus line
• In engineering drawing, these lines are used while (c) Hatching line (d) Dashed line
representing the measurement of each part of the Ans : (d) The line 'x' is represented the dash line.
drawings after making them. • This line is used to show invisible lines.
• It should not cut the dimension line. It extended by 81. Identify the 'X' line in the figure ?
about 3 mm beyond the dimension lines. Vizag Steel Electrician 2015
78. Name the 'X' line shown in the figure ?
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2013

(a) Leader line (b) Out line (a) Centre line (b) Lines of Symmetry
(c) Extension line (d) Hatching line (c) Either a & b (d) Both a & b
Ans : (b) The outline is shown by 'X' in the given Ans : (b) 'x' represents the line of symmetry this line is
figure. similar to the centre line.
• Outline is the main thing in drawing of any object. • A line of symmetry is a line that cuts a shape exactly
in half.
• These lines are drawn to represent visible edges and
• This means that if you were to fold the shape along
surface boundaries of objects.
the line, both halves would match exactly.
• They are also called object line or principle lines.
82. Which line is used to show the hidden line?
Mazagon DOCK Ltd. Electrician 2013
(a) Dotted line (b) Cutting plane line
(c) Centre line (d) Hatching line

Engineering Drawing 90 YCT

Ans : (a) Dotted line or dash line is used to show the Ans : (b) If the top view of a line is found a point then
hidden line. this line is perpendicular to H.P. & Parallel to the V.P.

83. A line is inclined to HP and parallel to VP.

Then the true length of a line is represented in
ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.),
25-09-2016
(a) Plan (b) Elevation
(c) Left side view (d) Right side view
Ans : (b) If a line is inclined to HP and parallel to V.P.
Then the true length of a line is to V.P. Then the true
length of a line is represented in elevation.
87. If a line is parallel to H.P. and inclined to VP,
then which view of it is parallel to XY line -
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section Eng.
23.03.2003
(a) Side view (b) Top view
(c) Front view (d) None of these
Ans : (c) If any line is parallel to H.P. and inclined to
VP, then its front view will be a parallel to XY line.
• In top view an inclined line will be obtained

84. If the vertical trace (V.T.) of a plane is a line

88. What is the name of the lines of two circles
parallel to the XY line, then that plane will
drawn on the same center ?
If____ to the horizontal plane.
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil),
Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG &
26.02.2012
Design 11.06.2006
(a) Parallel line (b) Vertical line
(a) Inclined (b) Perpendicular
(c) Perpendicular line (d) Diagonal line
(c) Parallel (d) None of these
Ans : (a) If a two circles are drawn on the same center
Ans : (c) If the vertical trace (V.T.) of a plane is a line but different two radius so their circumference line are
parallel to the XY line, then that plane will be parallel to parallel to each other.
the horizontal and perpendicular to the vertical plane.
• The distance between the circumferences of both
85. If a point is found on the top view of a line, circles are same at every point.
then that line will be from the horizontal plane-
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil) 29.06.2008
(a) Inclined (b) Parallel
(c) Perpendicular (d) None of these
Ans : (c) If a point is found on top view of a line then
that line will perpendicular from the horizontal plane. 89. What kind of line is made by a person who is
In any quadrant, there can be the following conditions standing on the ground, from the ground ?
for the line to be in the principle plans. RRB Bangalore Section Engineer (Civil)
(i) Parallel to both the reference plant. 01.02.2009
(ii) Perpendicular to one reference plant and parallel to (a) Parallel line (b) Vertical line
the other. (c) Inclined line (d) None of these
(iii) Perpendicular to one reference plane and inclined to Ans : (b) A person standing on the ground is at 90° to
the other. the horizontal. So it forms a perpendicular line' from the
86. If top view of a line is a point, its front view is– ground.
RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section Eng 90. The imaginary line which is joining the center
(Mechanical) 04.01.2009 of the base to the apex point, is called ?
(a) perpendicular to xy and of apparent length RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section
(b) perpendicular to xy and of true length Eng. 23.03.2003
(c) parallel to xy and of true length (a) Parallel line (b) Perpendicular line
(d) parallel to xy and of apparent length (c) Horizontal line (d) Axis line
Engineering Drawing 91 YCT
Ans : (d) On moving forward the center of its base in Dotted line– Closely and evenly spaced dashes lines of
the list column, if all the corners of the list column meet equal lengths.
on it, then that point is called Apex point and this center • They are medium thick and are used to show the
line is called the 'axis line' of that list column. invisible or hidden parts of the object on the drawing.
91. Choose the incorrect statement from the Centre lines– These are thin, long, chain lines
following - composed of alternatively long and short dashes spaced
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG & at an approx 1 mm distance.
Design 11.06.2006 96. Leader lines should be _____lines.
(a) The cutting plane can be a vertical plane (a) Thin (b) Medium
(b) The cutting plane will always be a horizontal (c) Very thin (d) None of these
plane Ans. (a) :
(c) The cutting plane can be both horizontal and Leader line should be thin line.
vertical Leader lines Continuous thin lines and are
(d) The cutting plane may be inclined to the drawn to connect a note with the
vertical specific feature in the drawing.
Ans : (b) The cutting plane line is shown as a series of The leader lines generally drawn
thin and thick times at the edges. at angles not less than 30o usually
• Cutting plane could be horizontal, vertical or inclined 30o, 45o, 60o.
at an angle as required. 97. Construction lines are generally _____ mm
92. SP 46 : 2003 prescribes _____types of line work thick.
for engineering drawing. (a) 0.2 (b) 1
(a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.5
(c) 8 (d) 6 Ans. (c) : Construction lines are generally 0.1 mm.
Ans. (b) : SP 46 : 2003 prescribes 10 types of line work • Thin continuous lines used for construction of
for engineering drawing. object.
93. According to SP 46 : 2003, the lines can be • They are continuous thin light lines.
divided into two groups of line thicknesses. 98. Line in Fig. is line used to indicate.
these are : _____mm.
(a) 0.2, 0.1 (b) 0.3, 0.2
(c) 0.4. 0.2 (d) 1, 0.1
Ans. (a) : According to SP 46 : 2003, the lines can be (a) Short break line (b) Long break line
divided into two groups of line thickness these are 0.2, 0.1. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
94. 0.2, mm thick lines are used for_____. Ans. (b) : Line is fig is line used to indicate long
(a) Dotted lines (b) Outlines break line.
(c) Cutting planes (d) All of these Long break line Thin ruled lines provided with
Ans. (d) : 0.2 mm thick lines are used for dotted lines, short zig-zags at suitable
outlines, cutting planes. intervals.
Out lines:- • Drawn to show long breaks.
Lines drawn to represent visible edges and surface Short break line Continuous, thin and wavy free
boundaries of objects thin hand lines draw to show the
Also known as object lines or principal lines. break of an object for a short
Represented by continuous thick lines length.
Cutting Plane lines:- • Also used to show irregular
These are long, thin chain line with thick ends. boundaries.
Use to show the location of cutting plane. 99. The following line is used for dimension line:
Dotted line:- (a) Continuous thick (b) Chain thin line
Closely and evenly spaced dashed lines of equal (c) Continuous thin (d) Shaft zig-zag thin
lengths. Ans. (c) : Continuous thin line is used for dimension
They are medium thick and are used to show the line.
invisible or hidden parts of the object on the drawing.
• It is terminated at its outer end with an arrow head
95. 0.1 mm thick lines used for_____.
touching the outline extension line or centre line.
(a) Centerlines (b) Dotted lines
(c) Dimension lines (d) (a) and (b) 100. What is the name of the line indicated by A-A
Ans. (d) : 0.1 mm thick lines used for centerlines, (or X-X) in sectional view in the drawings.
dotted lines. (a) Centre line (b) Hidden line
Type of lines according to thickness– (c) Construction line (d) Cutting plane line
Thick line ⇒ t ≈ 1 mm Ans. (d) : Cutting plane line is the name of the line
Medium line ⇒ t ≈ 0.5 indicated by A-A or X-X in sectional view in the
Thin line ⇒ t ≈ 0.3 mm drawing.

Engineering Drawing 92 YCT

 104. Section lines are usually drawn at_____.
(a) 15°, 25°, 35° (b) 35°, 45°, 55°
(c) 45°, 60°, 30° (d) 60°, 80°, 75°
Ans. (b) : Section lines are usually drawn at 35o, 45o,
55o.
• They are uniformly spaced thin lines 1 to 2 mm
• These are long, thin chain line with thick end.
spaced and inclined at 45o to the main outline of the
101. Centre line is drawn as_____. section.
(i) Continuous narrow line
(ii) Dashed narrow line
(iii) Long dashed chain line 105. A long feature in the Fig. shown below is shown
(iv) Long dashed double dotted line as broken by using _____ lines
(a) (ii) (b) (iv)
(c) (iv) (d) (i)
Ans. (c) : Centre line is drawn as long dashed chain
line.
• Centre line is thin represented
• These are thin long, chain lines composed of
alternatively long and short dashes spaced at an
approx 1 mm distance. (a) Long break
102. Which line type is thin and light? (b) Short break
(a) Visible lines (b) Centre line (c) Thin continuous irregular
(c) Projection lines (d) All of the above (d) Geometrical curves
Ans. (c) : Projection lines type is thin and light. Ans. (c) : A long feature in the fig. shown below is
• Thin continuous line drawn in extension of a shown as broken by using thin continuous irregular.
outline. B/S had recommended that a gap of about 1
mm should be kept between the extension line and
on outline.
• It extends by about 2 to 3 m beyond the dimension.
103. Visible lines are shown by_____.
(a) Dashed line
(b) Centre lines 106. Which type of line is a part of a dimension
(c) Continuous thick lines (a) Break (b) Phantom
(d) None of these (c) Extension (d) Cutting plans
Ans. (c) : Visible lines are shown by continuous thick Ans. (c) : Extension type of line is a part of a
line. dimension.
Lines Description General
application see
figure and other
relevant figure
Continuous A1 visible outline
thick A2 visible edge
Continuous B1 imaginary lines • It is a thin continuous line
thin of intersection • Extended by about 3 mm beyond the dimension
B2 dimension lines line.
B3 Projection line 107. In the Fig. below the hatching lines are inclined
or extension line to each other. This indicates that
B4 leader line
B5 hatching
B6 Outline of
revolved section in (a) Two parts are adjacent to each other
place (b) Hatching line are wrongly shown
B7 short centre lines (c) One part is sectioned and other is not
B8 thread line sectioned
B9 diagonal line. (d) None of these
Engineering Drawing 93 YCT
Ans. (a) : In the fig. below the hatching lines are (c) 1 – (ii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (iii), 4 – (i)
inclined to each other. This indicates that two parts are (d) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
adjacent to each other. Ans. (b) : Representation of line according to
standard–
Object Convection
Long breaks line
108. Match the following: Interrupted view
Object Convection Section through thin walled metals
Long breaks line Centre line, line of symmetry
Interrupted view Short break line
Section through thin walled metals
Hidden line
Centre line, line of symmetry
Cutting plane line
(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
Dimension and extension line
(b) 1 – (i), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iv)
EXAM POINTS
SP 46 : 2003 prescribes _____ Types of line work Section lines are usually drawn at– 35°, 45°, 55°
for engineering drawing– 10 As per SP 46 : 2003 a line specified as thick should
According to SP 46 : 2003, the lines can be divided be drawn_____times thicker than a thin line– 2.5
into two groups of line thicknesses. these are– 0.2, This publications made by Bureau of Indian
0.1 mm Standards includes standard technique for line
0.2, mm thick lines are used for– conventions in detail– SP 46 : 2003
Dotted lines, Outlines and Cutting planes The type of line is a part of a dimension–
0.1 mm thick lines used for– Extension
Centerlines and Dotted lines The standard for lettering on technical drawing to be
Leader lines should be– Thin lines followed in India is– IS : 9609-2001
Construction lines are generally– 0.1 mm thick The International practice for lettering on technical
Section lines, dimension lines and extension lines drawings is to use_____lettering and numerals–
are generally– 0.1 mm thick English
A hidden line is always shown by– Dotted line Standard abbreviations, symbols or units are
Section lines or hatching lines are generally drawn at indicated in– Lower case letters
an angle degrees to the main outline of the section– Single-stroke lettering means that the_____of the
45 line of the letter should be such as is obtained in one
The line in the centre of the rectangle is known as– stroke of the pencil– Thickness
Centre line, Line of symmetry and Dividing line Single stroke letters are of– 2 types
A cutting plane has both_____and_____lines– Lettering style A is designated as– h/14
Thick, thin Lettering style B is desginated as– h/10
The following line is used for dimension line– The inclined single-stroke letters lean to the right,
Continuous thin the slope being_____with the horizontal– 75°
The name of the line indicated by A-A (or X-X) in The size of letter is described by its– Height
sectional view in the drawings is– Lettering is usually done in– Capital letters
Cutting plane line Lower-case letter are usually used in–
Thin visible (continuous) line is used to represent a– Architectural drawings
Leader line and Dimension line All notes on a technical drawing should be placed
The type of line is thin and light– in– Horizontal position
Construction lines Notes and dimension should not be less than–
Sectional portion of a solid is represented by– 2.5 mm thick
Hatching lines Spacing between lines of notes not be less
The line type is thin and light– Projection lines than_____of the letter height– 1.5
The type of line has precedence over all other types The written information in the drawing is referred to
of lines– A visible line as– Lettering
Visible lines are shown by– Continuous thick lines In normal condensred and extended lettering the
A line drawn with a long section, short dash and another height of letter is– Same
long section is a– Central axis of a cylinder Lettering is generally done in– Gothic letters
Chain thin lines-thick at ends with change of Writing of titles, notes etc. on a drawing is called–
directions are used for– Cutting planes Lettering
Engineering Drawing 94 YCT
4. (Geometric Figures)
Geometric Constructions and Curves Types of geometric shapes-
It deals with plane figure such as lines, angles, (1) 2D (2-Dimensional) Rectangle, Triangle,
triangles, quadrilaterals, polygons, circles etc. Circle, etc.
Geometric shapes are shapes made out of points (2) 3D (3-Dimensional) Solid object
(e.g.- sphere, cone,
and lines including the triangle, square, and circle.
cylinder, etc.)
Angles
• When two lines intersect to each other, then inclination between them is called an angle.

Types of angles
Right Angle • When two straight lines intersect to each other
perpendicularly.
(or inclination between them = 90o)
or OA ⊥ OB
Acute Angle • If angle between two intersecting lines is less than 90o, the
angle is called acute angle. (∠AOB = θ < 90o)

Obtuse angle • When angle between two intersecting lines is greater than
90o but less than 180o, called obtuse angle.
∠ AOB = θ & 90 o < θ <180 o

Straight angle • Angle of 180o, is called straight angle.

∠ AOB = 180 o
Reflex Angle • Angle, which is greater than 180o but less than 360o is
called reflex angle.
i.e. ∠ AOB = θ 180 o < θ < 360 o

Adjacent Angle • Angles made of both sides of a line, are called adjacent
angles.
Where, α and β are adjacent angles for OC line.

Complementary • When the sum of adjacent angles is 90o, they are

Angle complementary angles for each others.
i.e. α + β = 90 o

Supplementary • When the sum of adjacent angles is 180o, they are

Angles supplementary angles for each others.
i.e. α + β = 180 o

Engineering Drawing 95 YCT

 Triangle
• Close shape made by three straight lines on a plane is called, triangle.
Sum of all three angles of triangle = 180o
i.e. α + β + γ = 180o

Perimeter = a + b + c

1
Area = × base × height
2

Types of triangle-
A. According to their arms -
Scalene Triangle • When, arms are in different size.
i.e. a ≠ b ≠ c
or angles α ≠ β ≠ γ

Isosceles Triangle • When two arms are equal and third is different in
size.
i.e. a = b ≠ c
or angles, α = β ≠ γ

Equilateral Triangle • When, all arms are in same size.

i.e. a = b = c
or angles, α = β = γ

B. According to their angles –

Right Angled Triangle • When, any one angle of them is equal to 90o.
∠ CAB = 90 o

Acute Angled Triangle • Triangle which has each angle less than 90o
among all.
i.e. α < 90o, β < 90o, γ < 90o

Obtuse Angled Triangle • When one angle among all three angles of
triangle is greater than 90o.
∠CAB > 90o
i.e.
or α > 90o

Engineering Drawing 96 YCT

 Quadrilaterals
• A polygon with 4 sides is called a quadrilateral.
Different type of quadrilaterals with their properties are-
Quadrilateral types Properties Figure
Square
• All sides equal
• Opposite sides parallel
• All angles equal (= 90°)

Rectangular • Opposite sides equal

• Opposite sides parallel
• All angles equal (= 90°)

Rhombus • All sides equal

• Opposite sides parallel
• Opposite angles equal (≠ 90°)

Rhomboid/ • Opposite sides equal

Parallelogram • Opposite sides parallel
• Opposite angles equal
(≠ 90°)

Trapezium • Only two sides parallel

Isoceles Trapezium • Only two sides parallel

• Base angle equal

Polygon Regular Hexagon 6 sides 720o

• Plane figure bounded by a finite chain of straight Regular Heptagon 7 sides 900o
line segments closing in a loop. Regular Octagon 8 sides 1080o
These segments are called its edges or sides, and Regular Nonagon 9 sides 1260o
the points where two edges meet are the verticals. Regular Decagon 10 sides 1440o
When all the sides and angles of a polygon are
equal, it is known as a regular polygon, otherwise Properties of regular polygon-
irregular
polygon. All sides are equal
Regular polygons include – All angles are equal
Regular polygons No. of Summation of Each exterior angle = 360°/n
n−2
Each interior angle = 180° × 
sides interior angles
Equilateral 3 sides 180o 
 n 
Triangle
Sum of exterior angles = 360°
Square 4 sides 360o
Regular Pentagon 5 sides 540o Sum of interior angle = 180° × (n − 2)

Engineering Drawing 97 YCT


• It is a closed two-dimensional figure in which the set Chord
of all the points in the plane is equidistant from a given
point called Centre.
It has rotational symmetry around the centre for every
angle.
Components of Circle
Centre
• The fixed point from which all the
points of circle are equidistant, this
fixed point is called centre of the
circle.
Or
• The point where the two
perpendicular bisectors intersect is
the centre of the circle.
Radius
• The distance from the centre of
the circle to the any point on it′s
circumference is called the radius.
Diameter
• The line, passing through the centre
of a circle having two extremes on
the circumference of a circle is
called diameter.
Circum-
ference
• It is defined as the linear distance
around the centre of a circle.
Arc
• It is defined as the part or segment
of the circumference of a circle.
Engineering Drawing
Circle
• It is a line passing from one point to
the another on the circumference of
circle.
• Diameter is the largest size chord of
a circle.
Secant
O
X Y
Secant
• A straight line that intersects a circle
in two points is called a secant line.
Sector
• It is a part of a circle made of the arc
of the circle along with its two radii.
Segment
• It is defined as a region bounded
by a chord and a corresponding
arc lying between the chord’s
endpoints.
Tangent
• A line, that touches the circle at
exactly one point, never entering
the circle’s interior, is called a
tangent line to a circle.
Semicircle
• It is formed when a line passes
through the center and touches the
two ends of the circle.
• It is formed when a line passes
through the center and touches the
two ends of the circle.
98 YCT
 Conic sections
• Curves, which are obtained when a double cone is
intersected by a plane at different angles relative to
the axis of the double cone called conic sections.
Mainly are three types of conic sections–
1. Ellipse 2. Parabola 3. Hyperbola
(Circle, rectangular parabola etc. are special case of
conic section.)[[[[[[
Conic sections are the intersection of a plane and
a cone.
By changing the angle and location of
intersection, we can produce a circle, ellipse,
parabola or hyperbola.
It may be defined as the locus of a point moving in
a plane in such a way that the ratio of its distances
from a fixed point and fixed straight line is always
constant.
PS
i.e. = e = constant
PM
The fixed point is called the focus and the fixed line,
the directrix.
The line passing through the focus and
perpendicular to the directrix is called the axis.
The point at which the conic cuts its axis is called
the vertex.
Engineering Drawing 99
Ellipse • Obtained by the intersection of a
cutting plane, inclined to the axis of
the cone and cutting all the
generators.
• Angle of inclination of the cutting
plane with the axis of the cone > the
angle of generator with the axis.
(β < α and section plane passes through
all the generators)
Parabola • Obtained by the intersection of a
cutting plane, inclined to the axis of
the cone and parallel to one of the
generators.
(β = α and section plane must be
parallel to one of the end generators)
Hyperbola • Obtained by the intersection of a
cutting plane, inclined to the axis of
the cone at an angle < The
inclination angle of the generator
with the axis.
(β > α and section plane will cut the
double cone)
Circle • Obtained by the intersection of a
cutting plane, parallel to the base of
the cone.
Projection of Solids
• A solid has three dimension (i.e.-length breadth
and thickness)
Solids may be divided into two main groups-
(a) Polyhedra
(b) Solids of revolution
(a). Polyhedra-
The solid which is bounded by plane surfaces,
known as faces is called polyhedra e.g.
Tetrahedron, Cube, Prism,
Pyramid Octahedron, Dodecahedron, Icosahedraon etc.
It is further divided into three -
(i) Regular polyhedra
(ii) Prism
(iii) Pyramid
I. Regular Polyhedra
• When all the faces are similar, equal and regular,
and all the angles formed between the faces are
equal to each other is called a regular polyhedra.
There are five types of regular polyhedra-
YCT

II. Prism
• The polyhedral having two equal and similar and
bases, parallel to each other and joined by
rectangular or parallelogram faces is called a prism.
A prism is said to be a right regular prism when
its axis is perpendicular to the bases and all its
side faces are equal rectangles.
III. Pyramid
• The polyhedral having a plane figure at its base and
number of triangular faces meeting at a point is
called a pyramid.
The point at which the triangular faces meet is
called an apex or vertex.
When the axis of the regular pyramid is
perpendicular to the base then it is called a right
regular pyramid.
(b) Solids of revolution
• The solids formed by the revolution of the plane
figures are known as solids of revolution.
Cylinder
• The solid generated by the
revolution of a rectangle about one
of its sides which remains fixed is
called a cylinder.
• The fixed line about which the
rectangle revolves, is called the axis
and the circle described by the
opposite revolving side is called the
base.
Engineering Drawing 100
Sphere
• The solid generated by the
revolution of a semicircle about its
diameter which remains fixed is
called a sphere.
• The fixed line about which the
semicircle revolves, is called the
axis and a point within it from
which all points on the surface are
at equal distance is called centre of
the sphere.
Cone
• The solid generated by the
revolution of a right angled triangle
about one of its perpendicular sides
which remains fixed is called a cone.
• The fixed line about which the
triangle revolves, is called the axis
and the circle described by the
other side is called the base.
Important Terminology-
Frustum
of square
pyramid
• When a pyramid is cut by a cutting
plane parallel to its base, the
remaining portion obtained after the
removal of top portion, is called
frustum.
Frustum
of cone
• When a cone is cut by a cutting
plane parallel to its base, the
remaining portion obtained after the
removal of top portion, is called
frustum of cone.
YCT
 Truncated Oblique
solid

• When a solid is cut by a cutting plane

which is not parallel to its base, the • Solid whose axis is inclined to its
remaining portion obtained after the base is called oblique solid.
removal of top portion, is called
truncated.

Previous Year Questions

1. A regular dodecahedron has twelve identical (a) collar (b) chuck
___ faces. (c) contour (d) chamfer
(a) Pentagonal (b) Quadrilateral RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
(c) Hexagonal (d) Triangular
Ans : (d) A small angled surface formed between two
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
surface is called a chamfer.
Ans. (a) : A regular dodecahedron has twelve identical
• Chamfer is described as a type of bevel on occasion.
pentagonal faces.
• It frequently results from the instersection of adjacent
right angled faces at a 45º angle.
• In machining, woodwork, furniture, concrete
formwork and mirrors, and to make the assembly of
2. What is a quadrilateral with equal sides and various mechanical engineering designs easier,
none of its angles at right angles called? chamfers are widely employed.
(a) Rectangle (b) Rhombus 5. Reflection of point (–2, –6) on the Y-axis is:
(c) Square (d) Parallelogram (a) (2, –6) (b) (2, 6)
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III (c) (–6,–2) (d) (–2, 6)
Ans : (b) A quadrilateral with equal sides and none of RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
its angles at right angles called rhombus. Ans : (a) When a point is reflected in the y-axis, the y-
coordinate remains the same while the x-coordinate
changes.
• Hence, reflection of point (–2, –6) on the y-axis will
be (2, –6)

•All sides of the rhombus are equal.

• The opposite sides of a rhombus are parallel.
•Opposite angles of a rhombus are equal.
• In a rhombus diagonal bisects each other at right
angles.
• The sum of two adjacent angles is equal to 180°. 6. _____Curve is a compound curve consists of two
3. A/an......... angle is the between two intersecting curves that are joined at a point of tangency and
planes. are located on the same side of a common
(a) offset (b) spleen tangent.
(c) dihedral (d) polar (a) dupont (b) bevel
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I (c) bullnose (d) ogee
Ans : (c) A dihedral angle is the between two RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
intersecting planes or half-planes. Ans. (d) : Ogee Curve is a compound curve consists of
two curves that are joined at a point of tangency and are
located on the same side of a common tangent.
7. The line touching the circumference at right
angles to the radius is called.....
4. A small angled surface formed between two RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er.,
surfaces is called a ________. 01.12.2002
Engineering Drawing 101 YCT
 (a) Radius 11. How many faces in a square prism-
(b) Diameter RRB Bangalore Section Engineer (Civil) 01.02.2009
(c) Tangent line (a) 4 (b) 5
(d) None of the above (c) 6 (d) 7
Ans : (c) The line touching the circumference at angles Ans : (c) Square prism have 6 faces. It two faces are
to the radius is called tangent line. square and four faces are rectangular.
8. All inclined surface of Pyramid are ..... • Opposite sides of this prism are parallel to each
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section Eng. other.
23.03.2003 • If square prism has been cut by a plane, parallel to
(a) Triangular (b) Rectangular its base, now the remaining portion of the prism
(c) Square (d) Circular have 8 plane surfaces.
Ans : (a) All inclined surface of Pyramid are triangular.
• Pyramid is a three dimensional shape a pyramid has a
polygonal base and flat triangular faces, which joint at a
common point is called the apex.

12. How many faces in a regular pentagonal prism-

RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer
(Electrical) , 15.03.2009
9. All vertical face of prism always have- (a) 5 (b) 6
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (c) 7 (d) 8
(Civil) 29.06.2008
Ans : (c) Regular pentagonal have 7 faces. Its two faces
(a) Square (b) Rectangular
(base and head) and five faces are rectangular in
(c) Triangular (d) Circular
regular pentagonal.
Ans : (b) All vertical face of prism always have
rectangular.

13. How many faces in a hexagonal prism-

RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 8
Ans : (d) Hexagonal face have 8 faces.
• Two faces (base and head) and 6 faces are
10. How many faces in a triangular prism- rectangular in hexagonal prism.
RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section Eng (Mechanical)
04.01.2009
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
Ans : (c) Triangular prism have 5 surfaces.
Two faces are triangular and three faces are rectangular 14. Some solids are surrounded by a single curved
in triangular prism. surface. What kind of surface is obtained by
unrolling them?
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil), 26.02.2012
(a) Solid (b) Plane
(c) both a and b (d) None of these
Ans : (b) If a solid are surrounding by a single curved
surface, it is unrolled and open then plane surface is
obtained.
• When the cylinder and the surface of cone is opened,
then a plane surface is obtained.

Engineering Drawing 102 YCT

15. Which types of solid is perpendicular on the Pyramid
basis of axis ?
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.),
26.02.2012 Tetrahedron
(a) Right solid (b) Oblique solid
(c) Regular solid (d) Any of these
Ans : (a) Right solid is Perpendicular on the basis of 20. The faces of the prisms are of this shape-
axis. RRB Kolkata Apprentice Supervisors, 14.10.2001
16. Which of the following solid has the same (a) Square (b) Rectangle
geometrical figure on the basis of axis? (c) Both a and b (d) None of these
RRB Bhubaneswar App. Electrical , 19.08.2001 Ans : (c) Prism is a three dimensional solid object in
(a) Right solid (b) Oblique solid which the two ends are identical. It is the combination
(c) Regular solid (d) Any of these of the flat faces, identical bases and equal cross-
Ans : (c) Regular Solid has the same geometrical figure sections.
on the basis of axis. • The faces of the prism are parallelograms or
17. What is a solid surrounded by more than three rectangle without the bases.
planes or flat surfaces called?
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III,
20.11.2005
(a) Polyhedra (b) Solid of revolution
(c) Both 'a' and 'b' (d) Any of these
Ans : (a) Solid polyhedra bounded by more than three 21. How are prisms and pyramids named?
plane surfaces. The plane surfaces that makes up RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent, 21.11.2004
polyhedra are called faces. (a) According to the size of the base
• The plane where the ends of a face meet are called (b) According to the basis of the face
edges. (c) Both 'a' and 'b'
18. In this solid there are four equilateral triangle (d) None
shaped faces are–
Ans : (a) Prisms and pyramids are named according to
RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006
the shape of the base.
(a) Hexahedron (b) Octohedron
(c) Prism (d) Tetrahedron • If the base of a prism or pyramid is triangular then
that prism or pyramid is called triangular prism or
Ans : (d) Tetrahedron is a polyhedron composed of four triangular pyramid.
triangular bases, six straight edges, and four vertex
Thus, prism and pyramids are of square, rectangular,
corner.
triangular and hexagonal types.
• Tetrahedron is also known as a triangular Pyramid.
22. If a cylinder and a cone of the same height and
diameter are placed on their respective bases
on the ground, then their projections obtained
in the horizontal plane will be–
19. Some solid are given in the figure, choose the RRB RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-II , 30.01.2011
hexahedron in these- (a) Similar shape (b) Dissimilar shape
RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P.Way), 20.02.2000 (c) Any one of 'a' and 'b' (d) None of these

Ans : (a) A cylinder and a cone of the same height

diameter located on their respective bases on the
ground, if this shape is a circle then their projections
obtained in the horizontal plane will be of the similar
shape.
23. What term is usually applied to this foldout of
(d) None of these a truncated prism?
Ans : (b) RRB JE Ranchi Yellow Paper 04.01.2015
Hexahedron

Prism

Engineering Drawing 103 YCT

 (a) Prismation (b) development 27. Opposite sides are equal and parallel and
(c) auxiliary (d) displacement opposite angles are equal but diagonals are not
Ans : (b) Development term is usually applied to the equal but bisect each other name it correctly.
given fold out of a truncated prism. RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil)
29.06.2008
24. The regular polyhedral solid having minimum
(a) Square (b) Rectangular
number of faces is–
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent, 21.11.2004 (c) Trapezoid (d) Parallelogram
(a) Cube (b) Square pyramid Ans : (d) Parallelogram is a quadrilateral with two pairs
(c) Triangular prism (d) Tetrahedron of parallel sides.
Ans : (d) The regular polyhedral solid having minimum • The opposite sides of a Parallelogram are equal in
number of faces is tetrahedron because it has only four length and the opposites angles are equal in
faces. measurement.
Geometric Solid Number of faces 28. The part of circumference of a circle is called -
Cube 6 RRB Allahabad Junior Engineer-II
Square Pyramid 5 [Mechanical, DSL (C&W)], 08.01.2006
Triangular Prism 5 (a) Arc (b) Circle segment
Tetrahedron 4 (c) Centre (d) Perimeter
25. In which shape does the lateral surface of a Ans : (a)
hexagonal prism it occurs. • The part or segment of the circumference of a circle is
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.), called arc.
⌢
26.02.2012 • In the figure, AXB and AYB arc are while
(a) Square (b) Rectangular AXBA are segments, and O is the centre of the circle.
(c) Triangular (d) Circular
Ans : (b) Hexagonal prism have 6 lateral faces whose
shape is rectangular.
29. How many degree in a circle?
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG &
Design, 11.06.2006
(a) 1800 (b) 2100
0
(c) 360 (d) 2600
• The top and bottom (at the base) of this prism have Ans : (c) A circle have 360°
a hexagonal shape. Name of shape Sum of the internal angle
26. Which solid figure is formed by triangular Triangle 180°
surface made up of eight sides equal. Quadrilateral 360°
RRB Bangalore Section Engineer (Civil) Pentagon 540°
01.02.2009 Hexagon 720°
(a) Rectangular (b) Cube 30. All object are surrounded by a geometrical
(c) Octahedron (d) Parallelogram surface. These surface can be classified in the
Ans : (c) different ways. Which solid is surrounded by
Multiface or Description smooth surface.
plane solids with RRB Chennai Section Eng., 12.02.2012
faces (a) Cylinder (b) Cone
1. Tetrahedron (c) Pyramid (d) Round
Ans : (c) Pyramid is a three dimensional figure.
It has a flat polygon base. All the other trangular faces
2. Hexahedron are called lateral faces.
31. What is the shape called whose vertex faces are
equal in length?
RRB Chennai Technical (Eng.), 15.04.2007
3. Octahedron
(a) Right angle solid shape
(b) Oblique solid shape
(c) Normal solid shape
4. Dodechadron (d) None of the above
Ans : (a) The shape whose vertex faces are equal in
lengh is called a right angle solid shape.
Engineering Drawing 104 YCT
32. A Eight-sided polygon is called– Ans : (c) After cutting any cone or pyramid parallel to
RRB Secunderabad Technical (Eng.), 20.05.2007 its base and removing its upper part, the remaining
(a) Octagon (b) Decagon lower part is called frustum.
(c) Hexagon (d) Heptagon 37. The sum of interior angle and exterior angle of
Ans : (a) A Eight-sided polygon is called octagon. The a polygon is-
value of its interior angle is 1080º. RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Mech.), 26.02.2012
Decagon- 10 sides (a) 900 (b) 1800
0
Hexagon- 6 sides (c) 270 (d) 3600
Heptagon- 7 sides. Ans : (b) The sum of interior and exterior angles of any
33. The faces of the pyramid are of this shape- polygon is 180°
RRB Bangalore Section Eng. (Civil), 01.02.2009 For example, the interior angle of a pentagon is 108°
(a) Rectangle (b) Square and 5 the exterior angle is 72°.
(c) Parallelogram (d) Isosceles triangle Interior angle + exterior angle = 108° + 72°
Ans : (d) The faces of the pyramid are of the shape of = 180°
an isosceles triangle. The imaginary line joining the 38. Identify the pentagonal pyramid in the given
centre of the base of the pyramid to the vertex is called drawing –
the axis.

34. The value of the interior angle of a twelve sided

regular is-
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Electrical),
15.03.2009
(a) 144° (b) 140° DRDO Turner 2016
(c) 150 (d) 142.27° Ans : (c)
Ans : (c) n = 12 Triangular pyramid
2n − 4
Interior angle == × 90
n
2 × 12 − 4
= × 90 Square Pyramid
12
24 − 4
= × 90
12
20 Pentagonal Pyramid
= × 90
12
= 150°
35. IF the points of at the corner of this regular
polygon meet the center, then an equilateral Hexagonal Pyramid
triangle is formed?
RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-III , 30.01.2011
(a) Pentagon (b) Hexagon
39. The sum of the exterior angles of a regular
(c) Octagon (d) Heptagon polygon is
Ans : (b) If we join the points of the corners of the DRDO Mechanic Diesel 2016
hexagonal regular polygon to the centre, then an
(a) 180° (b) 270°
equilateral triangle is formed.
(c) 360° (d) 300°
36. What is the remaining lower part called when a
cone or pyramid is cut parallel to its base and Ans : (c) The sum of exterior angles of a regular
the upper part is removed? polygon is 360°
RRB Chennai Section Eng., 12.02.2012 360°
Each exterior angle of a regular polygon =
(a) Prism (b) Cuboid n
(c) Frustum (d) Pyramid where n = number of sides of a polygon.
Engineering Drawing 105 YCT
40. Polygons are known by the number of sides. Ans : (c) Square prism have 6 faces.
Which of the following flat figure is heptagon? • In which 4 faces are parallel to the axis of the prism
SAIL Durgapur Steel Plant 05.09.2014 and two faces are the faces of the base whose shape is
square.
45. For measuring.............,only the circularity of
contour is determined.
(M.P. Vyapam 08.07.2017, 2 pm)
(a) flatness (b) roundness
Ans : (c) The polygon shown in option 'c' is a heptagon. (c) straight (d) square
• Sum of the interior angles of heptagon = 900º Ans : (b) For measuring roundness, only the circularity
• Sum of the interior angle of the heptagon = 128.57º of contour is determined.
• Each exterior angle of the heptagon = 51.5º 46. Mapping of geometric models include .............
41. How are all the faces of a cube ? (M.P. Vyapam 09.07.2017, 9 am)
BHEL Hyderabad Fitter 2014 (a) Translational mapping only
(a) Circular (b) Rectangular (b) Rotational mapping only
(c) Square (d) Triangular (c) Both translational mapping and rotational
Ans : (c) All the faces of the cube are square. mapping
(d) Reverse mapping only
Cube
Ans : (c) Mapping of geometric models included both
translational and rotational mapping.
47. Sphere radius is represented by symbol in
Prism drawing by
ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.), 21-02-2015
(a) ∅R (b) SR
Pyramid (c) θR (d) SPR
Ans : (b) Sphere radius is represented by symbol in
42. Polygons are known by the number of sides. drawing by SR.
Which of the following plane figure is called Name of shape or Identification symbols
nonagonal? special feature
(Vizag Steel Fitter 2015) Sphere radius SR
Radius of circle R
Diameter φ
(a) (b) Spherical diameter Sφ
square sq
48. Surface finish is specified by the symbol of
(c) (d) ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.), 21-02-2015
(a) Squares (b) circles
Ans : (b) The plane figure which is bounded by nine
straight line is called nonagonal. Each side of the (c) parallelogram (d) triangles
nonagonal is equal and the two adjacent sides are Ans : (d) Surface finish is specified by the symbol of
inclined at approximately 140º. triangles.
43. Number of faces in a dodecahedron are–
(a) 12 (b) 20
(c) 16 (d) 14
Ans : (a)
Number of faces in a dodecahedron are 12
Geometric solid Number of faces
1. Dodecahedron 12 (a) ⇒ The value of Roughness Ra in microns
2. Octagonal 08 (b) ⇒ Production method, treatment or cooling
44. How many faces in square Prism? (c) ⇒ length of sampling base
RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P.Way), 20.02.2000 (d) ⇒ Direction of lay
(a) 4 (b) 5 (e) ⇒ Machinery allowance
(c) 6 (d) 7 (f) ⇒ For other roughness
Engineering Drawing 106 YCT
49. Which drawing symbol has no datum in the 52. Which drawing is correct-
following?
ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.), 25-09-2016
(a) Position (b) Perpendicularity
(c) Parallelism (d) Flatness
Ans : (d) RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent,
21.11.2004
Symbol Characteristics
Ans : (c) The correct drawing is shown in option 'c'.
Cylindricity

Straightness
Flatness
53. Which of the true method of writing the radius-
Position RRB Kolkata Diesel/Electrical Ass., 06.02.2005
(a) 40 R (b) 40 r
Concentricity (c) R 40 (d) R = 40
Ans : (c) 40 R ⇒ Wrong method
50. The drawing symbol represents 40 r ⇒ Wrong method
ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.), 25-09-2016 R 40 ⇒ True method
(a) Symmetry (b) Inclination R= 40 ⇒ Wrong method
(c) Parallelism (d) Total run out Note: R 40 Correct the method.
Ans : (d) Various symbol are as follows- 54. Choose the method of showing spherical
radius.
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III ,
20.11.2005
(a) 30 SR (b) SR = 30
(c) 30 Sr (d) SR 30
Ans : (d) Some symbolic letters is related to cylinder
and sphere.
Name of shape Identification Symbols
diameter φ
Radius R
Square radius SR
Square □
Spherical diameter Sφ
51. Superfluous dimension is a 55. The correct method of representing the
ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.), 25-09-2016 diameter of a sphere is -
(a) functional dimension RRB Allahabad Junior Engineer-II
(b) feature dimension [Mechanical, DSL (C&W)], 08.01.2006
(c) un–necessary dimension (a) S φ 60 (b) φ S 60
(d) chain dimension (c) 60 φ S (d) φ 60 S
Ans : (c) Superfluous dimension is 9 un-necessary Ans : (a) The correct method of representing the
dimension. diameter of a sphere is S φ 60
Dimension Type Figure
Linear Dimension
Aligned Dimension

Angular Dimension
56. As per SP 46:2003 a bar of rectangular section
Radius Dimension is denoted by
Diameter Dimension RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG &
Design, 11.06.2006
Engineering Drawing 107 YCT
 (a) (b)

(c) (d)
(a) Straightness (b) Flatness
Ans : (b) (c) Outlining of a line (d) Surface profile
Cross-section of Rod Indication Ans : (b)
Square solid section
Types of Geometrical Symbols
Rectangular solid section tolerence Charecteristics
Triangular solid section Form Straightness
Flatness
Semi Circular solid section
Circular
Circular solid section
Cylindricity
57. What is the point called in the pyramid where
all the triangular surfaces meet. Profile Outlining of a
(a) Point (b) Base line
(c) Axis (d) Apex
Outlining of a
Ans : (a) Pyramids are those solids, whose base is a Surface
polygon and the triangular faces located on each core of
the base meet at same point on the axis passing through 61. In which part of the dimensional figure is the
the midpoint of its base. error-
This point is called the apex point.
58. Name the method of writing angular
measurements?

RRB Chennai Technical (Eng.), 15.04.2007

(a) (i) (b) (iii)
(c) (iv) (d) All of the above
RRB Kolkata Technical-III, 20.08.2006 Ans : (d) Radius should be written as RS.
(a) Aligned system • All adjacent leader lines should be omitted and if a
(b) Unidirectional system word is added after RS then it makes its meaning clear.
(c) Both a, b •The diameter is not written and the hole should be
(d) None of these dimensioned as φ12.
Ans : (a) In the given figure, angular measurement has 62. The prescribed length for arrowhead are 5mm
been written by aligned system method. and 3mm. There are two errors in the
• In the aligned dimensioning method, the dimension dimensions of the component in the figure. The
line is not broken, rather the written above the errors are?
dimension line.
• In aligned dimensioning method, the drawing has to
be rotated to read the dimensions.
Hence, it is less used.
59. Two-point perspective is also known as
RRB JE Ranchi Red Paper 04.01.2015
(a) Two-view perspective
(b) Regular perspective
(c) Parallel perspective
(d) Angular perspective
RRB Chennai Technical (Eng.), 15.04.2007
Ans : (d) Two-point perspective is also known as
angular perspective. (a) φ 180 & one of 40, 80, 70
60. Identify the geometrical characteristic denoted (b) φ 140 & 190
by this symbol. (c) φ 100 & one of 40, 80, 70
NCVT 2012 ,Fitter, Turner Machinist (d) 40 & φ 180
Engineering Drawing 108 YCT
Ans : (c) There is an error in the horizontal dimensions. (I)Whether the hole in the fig. has been correctly
There is an extra out of 40,80,70 because the complete dimensioned?
parameter is given as 190. (a) No (b) Yes
• If all of these are to be used, the entire parameter 190 (c) Partially (d) None of these
should be placed in bracket. i.e.(190) Ans. (b) : According to question 20 mm dia hole is to
• The second error is in the diameters. be reamed.
φ100 should be placed closer to the image than φ140 • The hole in the fig. has been correctly dimensioned.
because φ100 is smaller than φ140. It is a correct shown in the figure.
63. The dimensions of the features of the shown in (II). With reference to the given Fig. which item(s)
the figure. If we consider the numbers is correct need to be correctly located?
which of the following figure is correct? (a) Centre of the hole
(b) Total length of template
(c) Total width of template
(d) None of these
Ans. (d) : With reference to the given fig. none of these
items need to be correctly located.
As they are correctly dimensioned,
(a) Centre of the hole
(b) Total length of template
(c) Total width of template.
(III) How many location dimensions are there in the
Fig.?
(a) 1 ? (b) 2 ?
(c) 3 ? (d) 4 ?
RRB Bangalore Technical (Eng.), 22.04.2007 Ans. (b) : There are two location dimension in the
(a) 5 (b) 4 figure i.e. (25 & 80).
(c) 6 (d) 3 (IV) In the given Fig. the location dimension (L)
Ans : (a) The dimension features are shown correctly in are_____.
the figure. (a) 25, 80 (b) 25 and R 20
(c) 80, 40 (d) 15, 25
Ans. (a) : In the given fig. the location dimension (L)
are– 25, 80.
Location or datum dimension– These show locations
(or) exact position of various constructional details
within the object.
65. Mild steel plate of size 10 mm thick as shown in
figure is completely calibrated. How many
location dimensions are there is this figure.

64. Fig. shows a component made from mild steel

plate to mm thick. It has been so dimensioned
that accurate marking out and subsequent
manufacture of plates may be carried out
without any difficulty. The 20 mm dia hole is to
DMRC Secunderabad Section Eng. (Civil), 29.06.2008
be reamed. consider that the figure has been
drawn on 1 : 1 scale and all dimensions in mm. (a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
Ans : (c)
There are three location dimensions in the figure, which
are as follows.
i. 15 mm.
ii. 25mm to locate 30 rimmed holes.
iii. To locate the meeting point of the straight and
] sloping part.
Engineering Drawing 109 YCT
66. In the Fig. given below, dimension error can be (a) Four (b) Six
corrected by_____. (c) Eight (d) Nine
Ans. (c) Eight dimensions are wrongly shown in the
above figure. The figure shown below is a full
dimensioned template.

(a) Mentioning all angles

(b) Mentioning all sides
(c) Mentioning that it is right angle triangle
(d) Replacing the angular dimension of radians
with degrees
69. The difference between the object line and
Ans. (d) : In the fig. given dimension error can be dimension line should be φ at least-
corrected by–
RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-III , 30.01.2011
Replacing the angular dimension of radius with degrees.
(a) 6 mm. (b) 8 mm
67. Is the Fig below incorrectly dimensioned?
(c) 4 mm (d) 10 mm
(i) Yes
(ii) No Ans : (b) The difference between the object line and
In case your answer is (ii) then no further work dimension line should be at least 8 mm.
is required. In case your answer is (i), choose 70. Choose the correct drawing.
the correct option(s) to correct the same.

RRB Chennai Section Eng., 12.02.2012

(a) All dimensions should be off the view and

placed adjacent to parts
(b) Only major dimensions i.e. φ 45 and 30
should be indicated
(c) The dimensions should have been indicated
by leader lines
(d) Dimensions should have been covered by
way of a note. Ans : (a) The correct method of dimensioning is shown
in the option 'a'.
Ans. (a) : Yes, the given fig. incorrectly dimensioned.
To correct the dimension– 71. Which of the following is correct method of
All dimensions should be off the view and placed figure dimensioning ?
adjacent to parts.
68. 3 mm thick template shown in the figure below DRDO Fitter 2016
is incorrectly how many dimension are shown (a) (b)
incorrectly ?
(c) (d)
Ans : (c) The dimensions shown outside of the
boundary lines of the object in the drawing as far as
possible

•Dimension should be expressed in the same unit.

•Dimension should always be shown in visible lines.
• Dimension lines should not cross each other.
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Electrical), • Dimension lines should not be drawn from above the
15.03.2009 digits.
Engineering Drawing 110 YCT
72. Select the correct way of applying arrow- from the bottom edge or the bottom edge of the
SAIL Bokaro Steel Plant 2016 right hand edge of the drawing sheet.
drawing sheet • The dimension lines
are broken near the
middle for inserting
Ans : (b) While making the arrow head, it is mandatory the dimensions.
that the arrow head must touch the extension line. It
should not go beyond the extension line and should not
end earlier, hence the correct method of appling arrow
is-

73. Length of arrow head is-

Vizag Steel Fitter 2015
(a) twice of the thickness
(b) Four time the thickness
(c) Same as the thickness
(d) Thrice of the thickness 75. What is the angle from the vertical for
oblique letters ?
Ans : (d) Length of arrow head is thrice of the
thickness. DRDO Mechanic Diesel 2016
(a) 150 (b) 300
(c) 450 (d) 600
Ans : (a) Italic letters are written diagonally or inclined
at equal distances and of equal width.
• These letters are also written in the middle of the two
• Generally closed and filled arrow head is widely used guide lines.
in engineering drawing. • According to the standards institute, inclined letters
• It may be open class or closed and filled. are kept at an angle of 75° to the horizontal or 15° to
the vertical to the right.
76. Letters are usually represented by which
name?
(a) Upper case (b) Lower case
(c) Both (d) None of these
Ans : (c) Letters are usually represented by two names
upper case & lower case.
74. Write the method of measurement -
Capital letters (Upper case)– A, B, C, D, E..........
Small letters (Lower case) – a, b, c, d, e,............
77. What is the height of lower case letter.
SAIL Bokaro Steel Plant 2016
(a) 1.5 to 10 mm (b) 2.5 to 14 mm
(c) 3.5 to 16 mm (d) All of above
Ans : (b) The height of lower case letters is lies
between 2.5 to 14 mm.
DRDO Motor Mechanic 2016 • Lower case letters are the shorter and smaller
(a) Aligned System version of upper case letters. Some lower case
(b) Unidirectional System letters look completely different from their upper
(c) both a, b case.
(d) None of these For example - ‘a’ is the lower case version of ‘A’ and
Ans : (b) ‘w’ is the lower case version of ‘W’.
Aligned system Uni-directional ex. a, b, c, d, ....... etc.
system 78. There are many types of letters in engineering
In the aligned system the • In unidirectional drawing. Name the type of letter ABCDEFGH.
er
dimension is placed 1 to system all dimensions DRDO Mechanic Diesel 2016
the dimension line in such a are so placed that they (a) Gothic (b) Roman
way that it may be read can be read from the (c) Italic (d) Text
Engineering Drawing 111 YCT
Ans : (a) There are many types of letters in engineering Ans : (c) The line and thickness of the gothic letters are
drawing like- uniform.
(i) Gothic Letters (ii) Roman Letters Gothic Style: The thickness of the stroke of these
(iii) Italic Letters (iv) text Letters letters and numbers is uniform. This is used in technical
Gothic Letters:- The strokes of these letters and drawing.
numbers have some thickness. This style is used in Ex - A B C D E F
technical drawing. Roman Style: In this style, the letters are written in
• The letters ABCDEFGH are in 'Gothic Letters'. thick and thin lines.
79. There are many types of letters in engineering Ex - A B C D E F
drawings. Identify the style of the letter below. Italic Style:– In this, the letters are written by tilting
(NCVT 2012 Diesel Mechanic) 15° to the right from the vertical.
Ex - A B C D E F
abcdef
h
(a) Text (b) Italic 84. In which notation system is d = ?
(c) Roman (d) Gothic 10
Ans : (c) Both capital letters and small letters given in COAL India Fitter 2013
the question are roman style letters. (a) Type- A (b) Type-B
• The lettering in which all the letters are formed by (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above
thick and thin elements is called Roman lettering. Ans : (b)
• All roman letters having the elementary strokes h
Type A – In this lettering notation system, d =
acceveted or consisting of heavy and light lines are 14
classified as roman. It is used in engineering drawing. h
80. What should be the minimum proper gap Type B- In this lettering notation system, d =
10
between the letters of type "A"?
SAIL Bokaro Steel Plant 2016 85. What is the value of line thickness (d) in
lettering- B method ?
(a) 1/14 (b) 6/14
CRPF Constable Tradesman 2016
(c) 20/14 (d) None of the above (a) h/14 (b) h/12
6 (c) h/10 (d) h/8
Ans. (b) : There should be a gap of at least between
14 Ans : (c) In lettering- B method, the thickness of the
the letters of type 'A'. h
line is ( d ) = .
81. According to I.S. 9609-1983, the standard 10
height of the letters is in the progressive ratio 86. What is the value of line thickness (d) in
of which number ? lettering - A method ?
Vizag Steel Fitter 2015 Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. Fitter 2013
(a) 5 (b) 4 (a) h/8 (b) h/10
(c) h/12 (d) h/14
(c) 3 (d) 2
Ans : (d) The value of line thickness (d) in lettering-A
Ans : (d) According to I.S. 9609-1983. the standard
h
height of the letters is in the progressive ratio of 2 . method is .
14
82. What is the normal angle of italic letters? 87. All letters are printed in which they can be
NTPC Fitter 2014 read or seen in the following ?
(a) 750 (b) 600 (NCVT 2013 Welder, Carpenter,
(c) 450 (d) 300 Plumber, Sheet metal)
Ans : (a) Italics are written at an angle of 75° from the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. Fitter 2013
horizontal in the anti clockwise direction. (a) From the top of the diagram
• Mostly of the draftsman are able to write gracefully (b) From the left side of the diagram
in descending letters rather than vertical. (c) From the bottom of the diagram
• Italic letters are written in the "Italic" style. (d) From the right side of the diagram
83. In which lettering system the line thickness of Ans : (c) If all the letters are printed, then it can be read
the letters in uniform ? or seen from bottom of the diagram.
BHEL Hyderabad Fitter 2014 88. Ornamental letters which is not used in
(a) Italics (b) Roman technical drawings ?
(c) Gothic (d) All of the above MES Fitter Tradesman 2015
Engineering Drawing 112 YCT
 (a) Gothic letter (b) Roman letter
(c) Italic letter (d) Text letter
Ans : (d) Text Style:– In this style, there are different
types of decorative letters. These include old English
character, German text, etc.
• Text style is not used in technical drawing.
89. The ratio of the height and width of the letters
is generally.
Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. Fitter 2013
(a) 7 : 4 (b) 8 : 3 93. In this method of dimensioning the numerical
(c) 7 : 3 (d) 8 : 4 value are written on the broken portion of the
Ans : (a) The ratio of the height and width of the letters dimension line is such a way that they can be
is generally 7 : 4. easily read from the front only ?
90. According to the Indian standards institute, Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2015
what height of the letter is used in the main title (a) Unidirectional system (b) Aligned system
and drawing number ? (c) Both (d) None
MES Fitter Tradesman 2015 Ans : (a) In unidirectional system dimensioning the
numerical values are written in the broken part (middle
(a) 6 mm (b) 12 mm. part) of the dimension line in such a way that they can
(c) 6 to 12 mm (d) 15mm be easily read from the front only.
Ans : (c) According to the Indian standard institute, the
main title and drawing number is used 6 to 12 mm
height.
91. The solid shape whose sides are different
according to its base and ends are called ?
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2016
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002

(a) Prism (b) Pyramid

(c) Cone (d) Frustum
Ans : (a) The solid shape which have different sides
according to the base and ends are called prism.
• It the base of the prism is a quadrilateral, then there
will be four vertex and also four faces.
• That is, the number of faces depends on the shape
itself.
92. In this method of dimensioning, the numerical
value is written above the dimension line in
such a way that can be easily read from front
and right ?
Indian Ordnance Factory (Itarsi) Fitter
08.05. 2016
(a) Unidirection system (b) Aligned system
(c) Both (d) None
Ans : (b) In aligned system dimensioning the numerical
value is written above the measurement line in such a
way that it can be read from the front and right.
94. In this method of dimensioning, the dimensions
are written one after the other is written in a
straight line and later over all dimensions are
also written?
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2014
(a) Parallel dimensioning
(b) Combined dimensioning
(c) Chain dimensioning
(d) progressive dimensioning
Ans : (c) In chain dimensioning, dimensions are written
one after the other in a straight line and later over all
dimensions are also written.
95. Which method of dimensioning is also called
datum dimensioning ?
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2013
(a) Combined dimensioning
(b) Dimensioning by coordinate
(c) Chain dimensioning
(d) Parallel dimensioning
Ans : (d) Parallel dimensioning is also called datum
dimensioning.
• In parallel dimensioning, all the dimension lines are
parallel to each other starting from the same point.
• In this, all the dimension numbers from the common
part are measured in the same direction.

Engineering Drawing 113 YCT

96. Which measurement is written incorrectly? 100. This dimensioning shows the length, width,
thickness etc. of a part.
ESIC Electrician 2015
(a) Size dimensioning
(b) Location dimensioning
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2012 (c) Auxiliary dimensioning
(a) 16 (b) 18
(d) Functional dimensioning
(c) 8 (d) 32
Ans : (a) Size dimensioning shows the length, width,
Ans : (b) The distance between the dimension line and thickness, radius etc. of the part.
the main drawing should be at least 8 mm and it should
not touch each other. 101. This dimension represents any type of position
in the part ?
97. Which method of dimensioning is in
THDC Electrician 2015
accordance with the standard ?
(a) Size dimensioning
HAL Electrician 2015
(b) Location dimensioning
(c) Negative dimensioning
(d) Functional dimensioning
Ans : (b) Location dimension represents any type of
position in the part.

Ans : (a) The dimensioning method shown in option (a)

is as per standard.
• Under this the dimension line is not broken and the
dimensions are always written above the dimension
line.
102. The dimensions have no direct meaning in the
98. Sort the right way- drawing. can their value be more or less ?
Vizag Steel Electrician 2015 Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2016
(a) Size dimensioning
(b) Functional dimensioning
(c) Negative dimensioning
(d) Auxiliary dimensioning
Ans : (c) Negative dimensioning has no direct meaning
in the drawing.
• Their value can be more or less.
Ans : (c)
Figure (a) – Wrong method. • Negative dimensioning is generally not observed.
Figure (b) – Wrong method. • These dimensions are function less for a given
Figure (c) – Correct method. component.
Figure (d) – Wrong method. 103. The line extended by a fine line in front of the
99. To cut the center line to show the center of the out line is called-
circle. Identify the correct method ? Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2015
Mazagon DOCK Ltd. Electrician 2013 (a) Dimension line (b) Extension line
(c) Leader line (d) None of these
Ans : (b) The line extended by a thin line in front of
the outline or object line is called extension line.
• The extension line is generally drawn perpendicular
to the dimensioning part, but they can also be drawn
obliquely and parallel to each other for dimensioning
the taper part.
104. Which fine line is always drawn parallel to the
Ans : (b) Option (b) is the correct method to showing object line ?
the center of the circle. Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2014
Engineering Drawing 114 YCT
 (a) leader line (b) Extension line 107. Name the arrangement of measurement ?
(c) Dimension line (d) Any of these
Ans : (c) Dimension line is always drawn parallel to the
object line.
• Dimension lines are thin continuous lines, which are
closed by arrow marks at both the ends and touch the
extension line.

RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002

(a) parallel dimensioning
(b) Chain dimensioning
(c) Superimposed running
105. Name the arrangement of measurement? (d) Combined dimensioning
Ans : (d) In the above figure, measurement by
combined dimensioning method has been demonstrated.
• This method is a combination of chain and parallel
dimensioning.
• This type of dimensioning is used where there is a
difficulty in reading the dimensions due to less space.
108. Name the arrangement of measurement ?

Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2013

(a) Chain Dimensioning
(b) Parallel Dimensioning
(c) Combined Dimensioning
(d) Super Imposed Running Dimensioning
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er., 01.12.2002
Ans : (a) Measurement by chain dimensioning is
(a) progressive dimensioning
demonstrated in the given figure.
(b) Parallel dimensioning
• In this method of dimensioning, different dimensions
(c) Chain dimensioning
of work piece are shown in a straight line by drawing
one dimension after the other. (d) Combined dimensioning
106. Name the arrangement of measurement? Ans : (a) In the above figure, the measurement by
progressive dimensioning method has been
demonstrated. In this dimensioning, the dimension line
starts from an origin and extends in the same direction
along with the arrow head.
109. Name the method of giving measurement-

Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2012

(a) Chain dimensioning
(b) Co-ordinate dimensioning RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section Eng.
(c) Parallel dimensioning 23.03.2003
(d) Combined dimensioning (a) Chain dimensioning
(b) Dimensioning by co-ordinate
Ans : (c) In parallel plane arrangement, all the plane
(c) Parallel dimensioning
lines starting from the same point are parallel to each
other. (d) Combined dimensioning
• In this method all the dimension numbers are Ans : (b) Dimensioning by co-ordinate are mostly used
measured in the same direction from the common for components produced on jig boring machines.
parts. • In this different values are shown by making a table.
Engineering Drawing 115 YCT
110. What should be the minimum distance between
hatching lines ?
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG &
Design 11.06.2006
(a) 0.5 mm (b) 1.0 mm
(c) 0.6 mm (d) 0.7 mm
Ans : (d) There should be a distance of at least 0.7 mm
between the hatching line. Ans : (a) Functional dimension refers to the function or
• Hatching lines are drawn obliquely and parallel to mechanism of the component.
each other. • Functional dimension refers to the method of
111. At what angle is the hatching line inclined ? placement of the component in the assembly.
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil) 115. Choose the size dimension in figure ?
29.06.2008 RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) 60° (d) 75°
Ans : (b) The hatching lines are inclined at an angle of
45°.

Ans : (b) The size dimension is used to represent the

size of the product and its various parts (holes, grooves,
112. Name the line 'x' width, depth, radius etc).
• Hence the size dimension in the given figure is
denoted by (b).
116. In this aviation, the method of writing
dimensions on the drawing are shown. This
method is called-
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.), 26.02.2012

RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil) 29.06.2008

(a) Extension line (b) Dimension line
(c) Projection line (d) Leader line
Ans : (a) Extension line is shown by 'x'
• The extension line is the line obtained by extending
the key line of the actual size of the object.
113. Different sizes of shoulder screws are shown as
A, B, C, D. Remove the auxiliary dimension
from it-
RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section Eng (Mechanical)
04.01.2009
Ans : (d) Auxiliary dimensions are included in a
component only for the purpose of providing
information, they are not used for the purpose of
inspection on production. Hence, the dimension 'd' is
representing the auxiliary dimension.
114. Choose the functional dimension in the figure-
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Electrical),
15.03.2009
Engineering Drawing
(a) Unidirectional System
(b) Aligned System
(c) Any of 'a' and 'b'
(d) Both 'a' and 'b'
Ans : (b) In the aligned system, all the dimensions are
always written parallel to the dimension line.
• Dimension written in the aligned system are read
from the bottom and right side of the drawing.
• The method of aviation shown in the given figure is
the aligned system of dimension.
117. Contour lines drawn on a map, are the lines
which passes through
(RRB Bilaspur JE (green), 14.12.2014)
(a) hills and depressions
(b) same elevation
(c) same latitude
(d) none of the above
Ans : (b) The imaginary lines drawn by joining points
of same, elevation in the survey area are called contour
lines. These are also called isarithm lines.
116 YCT
118. When dimensions are specified from a common Ans : (c) In this given figure, a straight angle is
origin and spaced parallel to one another, it is represented .
called–
RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006 Straight angle
(a) Parallel dimensioning
(b) Chain dimensioning
(c) Superimposed running dimensioning
(d) Coordinate dimensioning Right angle
Ans : (a) Parallel dimensioning: When all the
dimensions are specified from a common origin point
and are parallel or located to each other, then they are
called parallel dimensioning. Obtuse angle

Acute angle
122. Which of the following figure are
119. The unit of a degree angle is- supplementary angles ?
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent, RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil),
21.11.2004 26.02.2012
RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-III , 30.01.2011

Ans : (c) Angle subtended by the circle = 360°

1 Ans : (b)
Angle of one degree =
360° (i) Complementary or
120. Angles are identified on the basis of their supplementary angles.
inclination. Name of the angle Q in the given
figure ?
RRB Kolkata Diesel/Electrical Ass., 06.02.2005 (ii) Complementary

(iii) Angle adjacent to Q

(a) Acute angle (b) Right angle
(c) obtuse angle (d) Straight angle is α and β
Ans : (c) Angle Q in figure is an obtuse angle because it
is greater than 90° but less than 180°.
123. If the sum of two angles is 90°, then what is it
• Acute angle: An angle which is less than 90° is
called ?
called an acute angle.
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent,
• Right angle: 90° angles is called right angle.
21.11.2004
• Straight angle: 180° angle is called straight angle.
(a) obtuse angle
121. The name of the angle shown in the figure is-
(b) Acute angle
(c) Complementary angle
RRB RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-II , 30.01.2011 (d) Supplentary angle
(a) Complementary angle Ans : (c) If the sum of two angles is 90°, then it is called
(b) Acute angle a complementary angle.
(c) Straight angle • If the sum of two adjacent angles is 180°, then those
(d) Right angle angles are called supplementary angle.
Engineering Drawing 117 YCT
124. Different angles are shown in the figures. 128. When a right angle is rotated around its side it
Identify the acute angle in these? forms a solid. Name of the solid is ?
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical RRB Bangalore Section Eng. (Civil), 01.02.2009
DRG & Design, 11.06.2006 (a) Cone (b) Sphere
(c) Cylinder (d) Pyramid
Ans : (a) A cone is formed when a right angle revolves
around its side.

129. At what angle, the diagonal of a square bisect

Ans : (a) to each other ?
Acute angle (Because RRB Bhopal (Tec.), 21.11.1999
this angle is less than (a) 180° (b) 90°
90°) (c) 60° (d) 120°
Obtuse angle (Because Ans : (b) Each angle of the square = 90°
this angle is greater than • The diagonals of a square bisect each other at 90°
180°) Area of square = (side)2
Obtuse angle (Because Perimeter = 4 × side
the value of angle is 130. The value of the obtuse angle is-
more than 900 and less RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil)
than 180°). 29.06.2008
Right angle (The value (a) 180°
of the given angle is (b) More than 90° but less than 180°
90°) (c) More than 180°
(d) More than 180° but less than 270°
125. A straight line at right angles to the major axis Ans : (b)
of an ellipse is called- (i) Straight angle = 180°
RRB Kolkata Technical-III, 20.08.2006 (ii) More than 90° but less than 180° = obtuse angle
(a) Focus (b) Vertex (iii) More than 180° but less than 360° = Reflex angle
(c) Directrix (d) Eccentricity 131. An Oblique drawing of an object is made at
which angle?
Ans : (c) The straight line at right angles to the major
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/
axis of an ellipse is called directrix.
DRG & Design 11.06.2006
126. The longest distance formed at right angles to (a) 15o (b) 30o
the center line of the directrix is called- (c) 45 o
(d) 60o
RRB Chennai Technical (Eng.), 15.04.2007
Ans : (c) An oblique drawing of an object is made at
(a) Minor axis (b) Major axis 30° or 45° but mainly it is done at 45°.
(c) Mid axis (d) Focus
Ans : (b) The longest distance formed at right angles to
the center line of the directrix is called the major axis.
127. Which of the following is a Quadrilateral
trapezium ? 132. Identify the angle which is known as straight
RRB Bangalore Technical (Eng.), 22.04.2007 angle ?
SAIL Bokaro Steel Plant 2016

Ans : (d) A quadrilateral whose only two sides are

parallel and two are non-parallel is called quadrilateral
trapezium.
Engineering Drawing 118 YCT
Ans : (d) An angle of 180° is called a straight angle. 136. The shape of set square is-
THDC Electrician 2015
(a) Circular (b) Rectangular
(c) Triangular (d) Rectangular
∠AOB = 1800 Ans : (c) The shape of a set square is triangular. Both
133. Angle is measured by– the edge of the set square is beveled and allow clearance
(RRB JE (Shift-III), 27.08.2015) between the paper and the edge of the set square when
lining up with the ink and to prevent ink spillage.
(a) plain scale (b) comparative scale
• Angles can be drawn in multiples of 15, by of a
(c) scale of chords (d) diagonal scale using set square.
Ans : (c) Angle is measured by scale of chords. 137. For a well conditional triangle, no angle should
Angle measuring instruments: be less than–
(i) Linear standard angular measuring instruments: (RRB JE (Shift-2), 29.8.2015)
(1) Protector (a) 200 (b) 300 (c) 450 (d) 600
(2) Original bevel protector Ans : (b) For good survey work, the proposed land area
(ii) Surface standard angular measurement is divided into several triangles adjacent to each other,
instruments: but the triangle should be well shaped, that is, none of
(1) Sine bar its angles should be less than 30o or more than 120°.
(2) Sine center 138. In a well conditioned triangle, one angle should
(iii) Instruments for measuring inclination: not be less than :
(1) Spirit level (RRB Bilaspur JE (red) , 14.12.2014)
(2) Clinometers (a) 600 (b) 500 (c) 300 (d) 450
(iv) Angular comparator: Ans : (c) While surveying in zarib survey, no angle of
the right triangle should be less than 30° and more than
(1) Autoclinometer.
120°. This makes it easy to take measurements and
134. When the intersection plane passes through the brings precision in making maps.
cone in such a way that is perpendicular to the 139. Delta, Percent, Angle, Total, Dynamic are the
base and lies in the middle of the base, the such options for command :
section is called : (Rajsthan Water Resource Department JE
HAL Fitter 2015 12.01.2014)
(a) triangle (b) Rectangle (a) Extend (b) Lengthen
(c) Square (d) Circle (c) Trim (d) Chamfer
Ans : (a) When the intersection plane passes through Ans : (b) Delta, percent, angle, total, dynamic, lengthen
the cone in such a way that is perpendicular to the base is command for instructions.
and lies in the middle of the base, then such a section is 140. What will happen if a rectangle is revolved
called triangle. around a side ?
RRB Bhubaneswar App. Electrical , 19.08.2001
(a) Cylinder (b) Cone
(c) Pyramid (d) Prism
Ans : (a) If a square or a rectangle is rotated around the
arm on any of its sides, a cylinder will be obtained.

135. Name the triangle in which all the three angles

are less than 90°.
Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. Fitter 2013 141. What is the name of the shaded part in the
(a) Obtuse angle triangle given figure ?
(b) Right angle
(c) Acute angle triangle
(d) Complementary triangle
Ans : (c) Acute angle triangle: The triangle in which
each of the three angles are less than 90°. DMRC Civil Engineering, 07.09.2014
Obtuse angle triangle: The triangle in which each of (a) circular section (b) Radius section
three angles are more than 90°. (c) Equal section (d) Inner section
Engineering Drawing 119 YCT
Ans : (a) The name of the shaded part in the given 145. When the angle made with the axis of
figure is called circular section. intersection plane is smaller than the angle
made with the generater of the cone, then what
the plane is called -
(i) (ii)
RRB Patna Technical Eng., 27.07.2008
(a) Parabola (b) Ellipse
(iii) (c) Hyperbola (d) Directrix
142. Which of the following is a two dimensional Ans : (c) When the angle made with the axis of the
figure ? intersection plane is smaller than the angle made with
RRB Chennai Technical (Eng.), 15.04.2007 the generater of the cone, then such a plane is called a
(a) Cone (b) Rectangle hyperbola.
(c) Cylinder (d) Sphere 146. When the plane of intersection is depressed
Ans : (b) Two dimensional figure -Two-dimensional from the axis but it is parallel to one of the
figure is such a figure that can be shown on paper. generaters of the cone, then what is that plane
•The height is negligible in this for example-circle, called ?
rectangle, square, triangle etc.
RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section Eng.
Three Dimensional shape: Such a shape which has all
(Mechanical), 04.01.2009
the three dimensions (length, width & height). It cannot
be shown directly on paper. (a) Ellipse
Ex.: Cone, Cylinder, Sphere, all other solid objects. (b) Hyperbola
143. A sectioning plane cuts a cone such that it is (c) Focus (d) Parabola
inclined to the axis of the cone at an angle other Ans : (d) Parabola : When the plane of section is
than 900 and it cuts all are its generaters. The inclined to the axis but it is parallel to one of the generators
section formed in this way is called:
of the cone, then this plane is called parabola.
(RRB JE Bhopal Paper-I (Shift-II), 28.08.2015)
(a) Rectangular hyperbola
(b) A Parabola
(c) A Hyperbola
(d) An ellipse
Ans : (d) If the cone is cut obliquely, then the surface
of the cut frustum will be like an ellipse.
Hyperbola : When the section is made from the axis of
the plane, if the angle is smaller than the angle made by
the generator of the cone, then such a plane is called a
hyperbola.

144. To get a hyperbola in conical section, the

section plane must be
ISRO - (VSSC) Draughtsman (Mech.),
25-09-2016
(a) Parallel to the vertical axis of cone
(b) Perpendicular to the vertical axis of cone
(c) Inclined to the vertical axis of cone 147. A cone is made, by rotating which type of
(d) Parallel to the base of the cone plane?
Ans : (a) To obtain a hyperbola in a conical section, the RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-III, 30.01.2011
section plane must be parallel to the vertical axis of the (a) A square (b) A rectangle
cone. (c) A circle (d) A right angle triangle
Ans : (d) When a right angle triangle is rotated around
one of its perpendicular sides, the solid thus formed is
called a cone.

Engineering Drawing 120 YCT

148. The name of the major diameter of an ellipse • The cutting plane of the parabola is denoted by C.
is- • The cutting plane of the hyperbola is shown by D.
RRB Chennai Section Eng., 12.02.2012
(a) Major axis (b) Short axis
(c) Major diameter (d) Small diameter
Ans : (a) The major diameter of an ellipse is called
major - axis and the smaller diameter is called minor -
axis.
Major axis: The maximum distance between the vertex
of the ellipse and at right angles to the direction.
Minor axis): The maximum distance parallel to the
directrix, which cuts the major axis at right angles to the 151. When a cone is cut by a plane parallel to its
center, is called minor axis. base, this conical section is from a-
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Mech.), 26.02.2012
(a) Circle (b) Ellipse
(c) Parabola (d) Hyperbola
Ans : (a) When a cone is cut by a plane parallel to its
base, it is called a conical section circle.

149. The formula for development of cone in radial

line development method is-
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
d L
(a) θ = × 180 (b) d = × 180 152. The value of eccentricity for a hyperbola is-
L θ
DRDO Motor Mechanic 2016
θ
(c) L = × 180 (a) e > 1 (b) e < 1
d
(c) e = 0 (d) e = 1
(d) None of these
Ans : (a) The value of eccentricity of different shapes
Ans : (a) Formula of development of cone in radial line
development method is- are following -
I. For hyperbola > 1
d
θ = × 1800 II. For parabola e = 1
L III. For a circle e = 0
153. Which method is used to make the hexagon in
the given figure ?
(Vizag Steel Fitter 2015)

where, d = diameter of the base of the cone

L = Slant length of the cone
150. Cutting planes at different-different angles of a
right circular cone are shown. Choose the (a) Protractor method (b) Arc method
cutting plane of the ellipse in it- (c) Across flat method (d) Spacing method
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Civil), 26.02.2012 Ans : (d) Spacing method is used to make a hexagon in
the shown figure.
⇒ A hexagon can be defined as a closed two
dimensional polygon with six sides.
⇒ Hexagon has 6 vertex and 6 angles also.
154. A solid is formed when a simple figure is
rotated about its axis. Which of the following
solids is formed when a right angle triangle is
Ans : (b) The cutting plane of the Ellipse is shown by rotated about its axis ?
B. RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer
• The cutting plane shown by A is a circle. (Electrical) , 15.03.2009

Engineering Drawing 121 YCT

 (a) Cone (b) Sphere (a) Square (b) Triangle
(c) Cylinder (d) Pyramid (c) Rectangle (d) Circle
Ans : (a) Ans : (d) When the plane of intersection passes parallel
Plane shape Solids obtained when rotated to the base of the cone, then the cut obtained from it is
around called a circle.
I. Right angle Cone (on rotation around 158. When a cylinder is cut from a section plane
triangle perpendicular) inclined to the base, the shape of the section is-
II. Semi circle Circle (Circulating about the RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er.,
diameter) 01.12.2002
(a) Elliptical (b) Spherical
III. Rectangle Cylinder (on rotation about one
(c) Parabolic (d) Pentagonal
side of the Rectangle)
Ans : (a) Section of the cylinder-
(i) When a cylinder as cut from a plane of section
I. II. III. parallel to the base, the actual shape of the section
is that of a circle of the same diameter.

155. The coordinate measurement x of a hole as

shown in the figure is-
CRPF Constable Tradesman 2016 (ii) When a section parallel to the axis of the cylinder is
(a) 50.00 (b) 57.74 cut from the plane, a rectangle is obtained.
(c) 86.60
(d) None of these

(iii) When a cylinder is cut from a section plane

inclined to the base of the cylinder, the true shape
of the section is an ellipse.

Ans : (a)
x
sin 30° =
100
1 159. Name the part of the circle which is an arc and
so, x = ×100 = 50.00 mm. chord is made by-
2
RRB Bangalore Section Engineer (Civil)
∴ x = 50.00 mm
01.02.2009
156. In figure 1, the coordinate scale Y is - (a) Sector (b) Segment
HAL Fitter 2015 (c) Semi circle (d) Chord
(a) 50.00 (b) 57.74
(c) 86.60 (d) None of these Ans : (b) Segment: The part between a circle is called a
segment.
x
Ans : (c) sin 30° = Sector or Radius segment: The region bounded by the
100 arc formed by two radii of the circle and their end
y = 100 ×0.866 points is called sector of the circle.
y = 86.60 mm
157. When the plane of intersection passes parallel
to the base of the cone, then that section is
called ?
Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. Fitter 2013
Engineering Drawing 122 YCT
160. The part bounded by an arc and chord of a (a) Hyperbola (b) Parabola
circle is known as- (c) Ellipse (d) Circle
IOF 2014
Ans : (b) When the cutting plane of the cone cuts
(a) Circle segment (b) Area
parallel to its transversal or generate, the this conic
(c) Perimeter (d) Volume section is called a parabola.
Ans : (a) The part bounded by an arc and a chord of
a circle is called a segment of a circle.

164. In these conic section, the cutting plane is not

parallel to the slant line and passes through the
base-
161. The locus of a point in a plane is such that let
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section Eng.
us move that a fixed point (fixed point) and the
23.03.2003
ratio of its distances from a fixed line is always
remains fixed is called - (a) Circle (b) Ellipse
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.), (c) Parabola (d) Hyperbola
26.02.2012 Ans : (d) When the cone is not cut parallel to the
(a) Circle (b) Plane Quadrilateral transversal and passes through the past, then it is called
hyperbola.
(c) Cone (d) Rectangle
Ans : (c) Cone: The locus of a point which moves in a
plane in such a way that the ratio of its distances from a
fixed point and a fixed line is always constant, is called
cone.
• The fixed point is called focal and the fixed line is
called directrix. 165. When a semicircle revolves around its diameter
Distance from the focal so which solid is formed ?
Eccentricity(e) =
distance from directrix RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012
162. When the cutting plane cuts a cone at an angle (a) Sphere (b) Cylinder
and all the generaters are cut off, then the conic (c) Cone (d) Pyramid
section formed is called -
Ans : (a) A sphere is formed when a semicircle
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
revolves around its diameter.
(a) Parabola (b) Hyperbola
• A sphere requires a least number of dimension (i.e.
(c) Ellipse (d) Circle only size of diameter is required) to draw it.
Ans : (c) When the cutting plane of a cone is cut at an • It is obtained by revolving a semicircle of any
angle between to the cart and the generater, then the specific diameter about its diameter.
conic section formed is called an ellipse.
• Eccentricity of an ellipse is always less than one.

166. Major axis and Minor axis are found in–

(RRB JE (Shift-2), 29.8.2015)
(a) Circle (b) Ellipse
163. When a cone is cut by a cutting plane parallel (c) Cycloid (d) Involute
to its curved line, then this conic section is
Ans : (b) Two axis are found in a ellipse one is the
formed -
major axis and the other is the minor axis.
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er., 01.12.2002

Engineering Drawing 123 YCT

Note: (i) The eccentricity of the circle. e = 0
(ii) Eccentricity of ellipse e < 1
(iii) The eccentricity of the parabola e = 1
(iv) Eccentricity of the hyperbola e > 1
Ans. (d) Cycloid Curve: When a circle is rolling on a
straight line, than a traced curve through a point on its
circumference, is called cycloid curve."
Involutes Curve: Moving along a stationary roller by
touching a straight line is called involutes curve.

Epicycloids Curve: A circle on a fixed curved surface

167. In isometric projection, a circle appears as or rolling a roller.
(RRB JE (Shift-II), 04.09.2015)
(a) an ellipse (b) an involute
(c) a cycloid (d) a circle
Ans : (a) In isometric projection, a circle appears as an
ellipse.

171. When a pendulum oscillates, the curve traces

out by a point moving along its string at a
constant speed is known as
168. Select the correct option. (RRB SSE (shift-II), 02.09.2015)
(a) circle (b) spiral
This isometric projection of a circle is
(c) cycloid (d) helix
(RRB Bilaspur JE (yellow) , 14.12.2014)
Ans : (b) When a pendulum oscillates, the curve which
(a) Ellipse (b) Parabola
is drawn by the point under its thread at a constant
(c) Hyperbola (d) Circle speed, is obtained as a spiral curve.
Ans : (a) The isometric projection of a circle is appears
as an ellipse.
• In isometric projection only one view is drawn
whereas in orthogonal projection two or three view
are drawn.

172. Solid having five equal triangular faces joining

its base and meet at a certain height is :
(a) Triangular pyramid (b) Pentagonal pyramid
(c) Triangular prism (d) Pentagonal prism
169. Which of the following is not a "conic section":
Ans. (b) : Solid having five equal triangular faces
(RRB SSE (shift-III), 02.09.2015)
joining its base and meet at a certain height is a
(a) Circle (b) Square pentagonal pyramid.
(c) Parabola (d) Ellipse In pentagonal pyramid–
Ans : (b) Square shape is never obtained on cutting a (i) Five equal triangular faces are isosceles triangle in
conic section, while circle, parabola and ellipse are shape.
obtained by sectioning of cone. (ii) Its base is a pentagon in shape.
170. The curve traced out by a point lying on the
circumference of the circle which rolls a
straight line is known as :
(RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I), 01.09.2015)
(a) hypocycloid (b) epicycloid
(c) circle (d) cycloid

Engineering Drawing 124 YCT

173. In the Fig. Identify the square pyramid. • Hence in the given figure, hexagonal prism has
highest number of plane surfaces
Name of prism Figure
Square prism

Pentagonal prism

(a) (i) (b) (ii)

(c) (iii) (d) All of these
Ans. (b) : Square pyramid has four triangular faces.
Its base is square in shape. Hexagonal prism
Name of pyramid Figure
Triangular pyramid

175. Which of the following is not a solid of

revolution?
Square pyramid (a) Sphere (b) Cone
(c) Prism (d) Cylinder
Ans. (c) : Sphere, cone and cylinder are a solid of
revolution whereas prisms are not, because they do not
have circular faces.
Pentagonal pyramid • Sphere is obtained by the revolution of semicircle
disc about its diameter.

Hexagonal pyramid

• Cone is obtained by the revolution of a right triangle

about its height.
174. Identify the solid having highest number of
plane surfaces in the Fig. below.

• Cylinder is obtained by the revolution of a rectangle

about its a side.

(a) (i) (b) (ii)

(c) (iii) (d) None
Ans. (c) : Figure (iii) shown in question, is a
hexagonal prism which has 6 rectangular faces in
equal sizes and 2 bases in hexagonal shape.

Engineering Drawing 125 YCT

176. The pyramid in the Fig. is called_____. Ans. (b) : When we cut a right circular cone by a plane
inclined to its axis in such a way that the plane cuts all
the generators (but not cutting its circular base), the
shape of the top of the portion of the truncated cone is
ellipse.

(a) Oblique pyramid (b) Slanting pyramid

(c) Inclined pyramid (d) None
Ans. (a) : The pyramid, given in figure is a oblique
pyramid because its axis is inclined at an angle (less
than 90o) to its base.
177. The prism in the Fig. is called_____.
180. When you cut a cone by a plane inclined to its
axis and also cuts its base the curve obtained at
the remaining portion of the curve is_____.
(a) Ellipse (b) Circle
(c) Parabola (d) Any curve
Ans. (c) : When we cut a cone by a plane inclined to
its axis and also cuts its base the curve obtained at the
remaining portion of the curve is parabola.

(a) Inclined prism (b) Oblique prism

(c) Slantring prism (d) None
Ans. (b) : The prism in the fig. is called an oblique
prism because its axis is inclined to its base.
• This prism has 6 trapezium and 2 irregular hexagon.
178. When you cut a right circular cone by a plane
parallel to its base (or perpendicular to the axis
of the cone), the shape of the top of the • When a cone is cut by a plane we can find a conic
frustrum of cone is_____. section according to the inclined angle of cutting
(a) Circle (b) Ellipse plane–
(c) Any curve (d) straight line Condition of cutting Obtain conic section
plane
Ans. (a) : When we cut a right circular cone by a plane
parallel to its base (or perpendicular to the axis of the When plane is parallel Circle
cone), the shape of the top of the frustrum of cone is to base
circle.

When plane is inclined Ellipse

and cut all generators but
not cutting base.
179. When you cut a right circular cone by a plane
inclined to its axis (but not cutting its circular
base), the shape of the top of the portion of the
truncated cone is
(a) Cone (b) Ellipse
(c) Any curve (d) None
Engineering Drawing 126 YCT
 When the plane is Parabola 182. The length and height ratio of a closed filled
inclined and cut generator arrow head is_____.
and base both. (a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
Ans. (b) : The length and height ratio of a closed filled
arrow head is 3 : 1.
• It may be open, closed or closed and filled.

When the plane is Hyperbola

parallel to the axis (⊥ to
the base) and cut
generator and base both.
183. Which type of line is part of a dimension?
(a) Break lines (b) Phantom lines
(c) Extension lines (d) Cutting plane lines
Ans. (c) : Extension lines is part of a dimension.

181. In the 10 mm template shown in Fig below,

there are _____size dimension and
_____location dimensions.

184. Figure below shows_____system for angular

dimensions.

(a) 4, 5 (b) 5, 4
(c) 4, 4 (d) 5, 5 (a) Unidirectional (b) directional
Ans. (a) : In the 10 mm template shown in fig. there are (c) Aligned (d) None of these
4 size dimension and 5 location dimensions. Ans. (c) : Figure shows aligned system for angular
Size dimension– dimensions.
(1) φ 16 • In the aligned system the dimension is placed 1er to
(2) 2 Holes φ 10 the dimension line.
(3) 50 185. In chain dimensioning each feature is
(4) 50 dimensioned_____.
Location dimension– (a) Independently
(1) 20 (b) Relative to datum
(2) 12 (c) As per requirement
(3) 10 (d) None of these
(4) 25 Ans. (a) : In chain dimensioning each feature is
(5) 30 dimensioned independently.

Engineering Drawing 127 YCT

Dimensions are arranged in a straight line. Ans. (c): Super imposed dimensioning is basically
parallel dimensions or progressive dimension both.

186. All dimensions are shown from a common base

line in_____dimensioning. Fig → Superimposed running dimensioning in one
(a) Chain (b) Progressive direction.
(c) auxiliary (d) None • It may be used where there are space limitations and
Ans. (b) : All dimension are shown from a common where no eligibility problems would occur.
base line in progressive dimensioning. 189. The Length of the arc AB in the Figure is
represented as_____.

(a) 25 (b) 25
Fig. Progressive dimensioning
(c) 25 (d) AB ARC 25
187. The system of dimensioning in Fig
is_____dimensioning system. Ans. (b) : Chord and arc– Chord and arc shall be
dimensioned as shown in figure below–

(a) Chain Fig → Dimensioning on chord and arc

(b) Parallel 190. Which of following is dimensioned correctly in
(c) Super imposed running the Fig.?
(d) None of these
Ans. (c) : The system of dimensioning in fig. is super
imposed dimensioning system.
Super imposed running dimensions–
• Super imposed running dimensioning simplifies
parallel dimensions in order to reduce the space on a (a) (b)
drawing. (c) (d)
• The common origin for the dimension lines is Ans. (d) :
indicated by a small circle at the intersection of the
first dimension and the perfection line.
188. Super imposed running dimensioning is
basically_____dimensions
(a) Progressive (b) Parallel
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Engineering Drawing 128 YCT
Reason– A circle shall be dimensioned by its diameter
symbol → φ, radius → R.

Reason– Convention φ for diameter is not placed before (a) All dimensions should be off the view and
the dimensional value. placed adjacent to parts
(b) Only major dimensions i.e. φ 45 and 30
should be indicated
(c) The dimensions should have been indicated
by leader lines
191. Is the Fig below incorrectly dimensioned? (d) Dimensions should have been covered by
way of a note.
(i) Yes
(ii) No Ans. (a) : Yes, the given fig. incorrectly dimensioned.
In case your answer is (ii) then no further work To correct the dimension–
is required. In case your answer is (i), choose All dimensions should be off the view and placed
the correct option(s) to correct the same. adjacent to parts.

EXAM POINTS
The minimum distance between two points is the In complementary angles, both the angles will be–
length of _____between these two points– Acute angles
Straight line The complementary angle(s) of 30° is/are–
A straight line is One angle of 60°
– The shortest distance Any angle can be approximately divided into 3 equal
The correct distance between two points showed by– parts with the use of– Protractor
Straight line. Any angle can be exactly divided into 4 equal parts
The lines which do not meet at any point are called– with the use of– compass
Parallel lines With the help of ruler and compass it is not possible
Parallel straight lines can be drawn with are help of– to construct the angle of– 47°
Minidrafter, T-square and Pair of With the help of a ruler and a compass it is not
possible to construct an angle of– 46°
60° – 30° and 45° set squares
A simple closed figure made up of only_____is
The line in which the path of a point always changes
called a polygon– Line segments
its position is– Curved line
A polygon with minimum number of sides is–
Angles are identified by their magnitude. A straight Triangle
angle is one which is– Equal to 180°
Minimum number of sides in a polygon is– 3
An angle of measure 90° is called– rt. angle
A polygon having least number sides is a– Triangle
90° angle is also known as– A rt. angle
A triangle with its one angle more than 90° can be–
Any angle < 180° but > 90° is known as angle–
Scalene triangle and Isoscels
Obtuse
triangle
When two angles together make 90°, they are
A triangle having all different sides or angles is
called– Complementary angles known as– Scalene triangle

Engineering Drawing 129 YCT

 A triangle can be divided into four equal parts by The sum of interior angles an irregular polygon of
drawing lines parallel to the base. Out of these four ten sides is– 1440°
parts the number of trapezium(s) will be– 6 In isosceles trapezium, two equal sides are–
A triangle can be divided into equal triangles by Non parallel
drawing a vertical line from the vertex to its base if Two parallel lines are 50 mm apart. You are
it is a– required to draw a square using these two parallel
Equilateral, Isosceles with equal lines. The square will have the maximum area–
sides meeting at vertex side of the square is 50 mm
All the sides of a regular polygon are– _____Is a plane figure bounded by four sides and
Equal in length four angles–
All the internal angles of a regular polygon are– Trapezium, Quadrilateral and
Equal Trapezoid
A quadrilateral is a plane figure with four sides and In a regular pentagon a vertical line is drawn from
four angle. The sum of the four interior angles is– its one corner to the opposite side. The quadrilaterals
are formed– 2
360°
If a regular n sided polygon is inscribed in a circle of
A trapezium has_____pair(s) of non parallel sides–
radius R, each side will subtend an angle
One 360
A parallelogram with equal sides is called– of_____degrees at the centre–
n
Rhombus A square is inscribed in a circle of radius R. The
A square in an isometric view is a– Rhombus diagonal of this square is– 2R
It is possible to construct _____ between two Square is circumscribed about a circle of diameter d.
parallel lines 50 mm apart– d
The side of the square is–
Regular hexagon and Irregular hexagon 2
A plane figure bounded by eight unequal sides is, The side of a square inscribed in a circle of radius R
irregular– Octagon is– 2R
An irregular pentagon has– 5 sides Circles having same centre and different radii are
Each external angle of an regular pentagon is– 72° known as– Concentric circles
The sum of exterior angles of an irregular pentagon A quadrant is a sector of a circle when the included
is– 360° angle between its two radii is– 90 degrees
The sum of all exterior angles of a rectangle is– The part of the circle covered by chord and arc is–
360° Segment
The sum of all exterior angles of an irregular A sector in a circle is bounded by an arc and–
hexagon is– 360° Two radii
A regular pentagon is inscribed in a circle. each side A sector of 20° is bounded by– 2 radii
of this pentagon subtends an angle of_____at the A line intersects a circle at two points and also does
centre of the circle– 72° not pass through the centre of the circle. This line
The sum of the interior angles of a n sided regular or inside the circle line is called– Chord
irregular polygon is– Maximum angle that can be drawn in a circle is–
(2n – 4) 90°, (n – 2) straight angles 360°
Each exterior angle of a regular hexagon is– Total angle at the centre of the circle is–
60 degrees 360 degrees
The sum of interior angles of a trapezoid is– If the radius of a semicircle is 10 cm, its diameter is–
4 rt. angles 20 cm

Engineering Drawing 130 YCT

 The largest circle that can be accommodated in a An ellipse has– 2 axes
square of 10 cm sides, will have a radius of– An ellipse is inscribed in a rectangle of 50 mm. × 40
5 2 cm mm. The axes of this ellipse are– 50, 40

The longest chord of a circle is its– Diameter An ellipse has– 2 foci

A common element in a sector and segment of a An ellipse has– 2 directrix

circle is– Arc An ellipse can be drawn by–
A chord equal to radius of a circle is drawn in a Concentric circle method, Method of
circle. The circle will have– 2 segments rectangle and Using
Concentric circles have ___centre but _____ radii trammels
– Same, different The two axes of an ellipse are 100 mm and 98 mm.
A chord is drawn in a circle of radius R. another When drawn, it will look like– A circle
concentric circle is drawn so that this chord becomes In ellipse the line passing through the focus and
the tangent to the new circle of radius r. In such a perpendicular to directrix is called– Major axis
case– R>r The directrix, of an ellipse is– Outside the ellipse
A circle has two diagonals perpendicular to each An ellipse has– 2 vertices
other. The quadrilateral joining this the ends of these Figure obtained on cutting a right circular cone with
diagonal is– Square a plane inclined to the axis and cuts all generators
Two diagonals in a circle intersect each other at an one of side of the apex, is– Ellipse
angle of 30° the figure joining the four points of P is a point on an ellipse. If this point is joined with
their diagonals will be a– Rectangle foci F1 and F2 by straight lines, then F1 P + F2 P –
By joining the ends of any two diameters in a circle Length of major axis
we cannot make– Rhombus, Parallelogram In the ellipse of Fig. the ratio AF1 / OA is called–
When a circle passes through three given points, its Eccentricity
centre lines at the intersection of– An ellipse can be constructed by–
The perpendicular bisectors of the two Oblong, Concentric circle and
straight lines that connect paper trammel
the points
In parabola has– 1 focus point
If two circles, cross each other, the number of such
The eccentricity of parabola– 1
crossing points is– 2
If two circles are eccentric, their radii may be– Parabola has– 1 directrix
Equal and Unequal Radar dishes and main cable suspension bridges are
examples of– Parabola
If two circles just touch internally, they should
essentially– A parabola has only one– Axis, Vertex and Focus
A parabola can be constructed by–
have different radius and
Rectangle method, Ordinate method
be eccentric
and Parallelogram
If two circles just touch externally, they should
essentially– Be eccentric method
If two circles touch internally, the number of Parabolic curve is used in–
common tangents to both of these circles can be– 1 Arches, bridges and Light
A line drawn from an external point just touching reflectors
the circle at a point. This line is called– Tangent The nearest directrix from the focus of an ellipse is
When a right circular cone is cut by planes as 50 mm. If the distance from this focus to nearest
different angles, the curves intersection are called– 1
vertex is 10 mm, the eccentricity is–
Conics 4

Engineering Drawing 131 YCT

5. (Projection and View)
Projecting
• It is defined as an image of an object thrown forward
on to plane by means of straight lines called visual
rays projecting lines/projectors.

Principle of Projection
If straight lines are drawn from various points on the The points at which these lines meet the plane, is
contour of an object to meet a plane, the object is called the projection of the object.
The lines from the object to the plane are called
said to be projected on that plane. projectors.
Classification of Projection
(A) According to projection rays (or projectors)

(B) According to no. of views

Engineering Drawing 132 YCT

 Methods of projection- Types of Description
oblique
1. Pictorial Projection- projection
• The projection in which the description of the object Cavalier • Projection
is completely understood in one view is known as projection lines make
Pictorial Projection. an angle of
Or 45º with
the plane of
Pictorial views show all three dimensions in one projection.
view. • In full size
Cabinet • Projection
projection lines make
an angle
with the
projection
plane, it
becomes
about ½
both the axes by decreasing scale.
Clinographic • In cavalier and cabinet projections,
projection the main face of the object is made
parallel to the projection plane. In
some cases, when the object is
rotated at an angle, the plane of
projection is called clinograhic plane.
2D illustration of a 3D object.
Provides a realistic view of a 3D object. (b) Perspective projection-
It has advantage of conveying an immediate It is a linear projection where three dimensional
impression of the shape of the object, but not its true objects are projected on a picture plane.
sizes.. In this projection, the projecting lines or visual rays
converge at a point.
Types of pictorial projection-
It is also termed as convergent projection.
(a) Oblique projection (It means slanting) In this projection further away object from the
In this, projectors are not perpendicular to the plane viewer, small it appears.
of projection. Perspective projections are not used by engineers for
One dimension (i.e. Front face) of object is parallel manufacturing, because the perspective view does
to horizontal and hence front face is shown in its not reveal the exact size and shape.
true size and shape, other is vertical to the horizontal
Perspective may be used in marketing where a
and the third is at an angle of 30º or 45º to the natural view of a product is desirable.
horizontal.

Engineering Drawing 133 YCT

 Types of Projection
Description
Perspective
projection
• It occurs when any of
principal axes intersects
with projection plane or we
One point can say when projection
(Parallel) plane is perpendicular to
Projection principal axis.
• It is simple to draw
• It has one vanishing point.

• It occurs when projection

plane intersects two of
Two point principal axis.
(Angular)
• It gives better impression
Projection
of depth
• It has two vanishing point.

• It occurs when all three axis

intersects with projection
Three point plane. There is no any
(Oblique) principal axis which is
Projection parallel to projection plane.
• It is most difficult to draw
• It has three vanishing point

(c) Axonometric projection- Types of Description

In this projection, only one view showing all the Axonometri
c projection
three dimensions of an object it drawn on a plane of
Isometric
projection. projection
The orientation of object is kept in such a way that
its three mutually perpendicular edges will remain
inclined to the plane of projection. • All the three faces of cube make
equal angles with the plane.
(3 equal axes & 3 equal angles)
Dimetric
projection

• Two faces of cube make equal

angles with plane.
(2 equal axes & 2 equal angles)
Trimetric
projection

• All three faces of cube make

unequal angles with plane.
(0 equal axes & 0 equal angles)
Engineering Drawing 134 YCT
Isometric projection:
• In this type of projection, object is inclined and tilted
in such a way that all its mutually perpendicular
planes are equally inclined to the observer.

Isometric axes • Lines (in figure, AB, AD and
AE) which are meeting at a
point (in figure, at A) and
making angle 120º with each
other are termed isometric axes .
Isometric lines • Lines parallel to the isometric
axes are termed Isometric lines.
Non-isometric • Lines which are not parallel to
lines isometric axes are termed Non-
isometric lines.
Isometric • Planes representing the faces of
planes the cube as well as other planes
parallel to these planes are
termed isometric planes.
Non-isometric • Planes not parallel to isometric
planes planes are Non-isometric planes.
Isometric scale • Isometric projection is drawn
using Isometric scale, which
converts true lengths into
isometric lengths which are
foreshortened to 0.816 times
their actual/true lengths.
Remember–
In isometric projection of an object, the dimension of its
length and width are at an angle of 30º to the horizontal
& dimensions of height are at 90º to the horizontal.
The dimensions of projection in isometric projection
are 18.4% less than the actual dimensions of object or
2
Isometric scale = actual size = 0.815 actual size.
3
In Isometric projection,
Circle ⇒ Ellipse
Square ⇒ Rhombus
Rectangle ⇒ Parallelogram
Generally four methods of projection are used in
Engg. Drawing–
1. Orthographic projection 2. Isometric projection
3. Oblique projection 4. Perspective projection
2. Orthographic Projection
• When the projectors are parallel to each other and
perpendicular to the plane, the projection is called
orthographic projection.

Difference between Isometric view and Isometric

Projection- In orthographic projection methods, an object is
represented by two or three view on an
Isometric View Isometric Projection perpendicular projection planes.
• It is drawn to • It is drawn to isometric scale.
actual scale.
• When lines are • When lines are drawn parallel to
drawn parallel to isometric axes, the lengths are
isometric foreshortened to 2 3
axes, the true
(approx. 0.816) times the actual
lengths laid off.
length.
Engineering Drawing 135 YCT
 Each projection view represents two dimension of
an object.
For the complete description of the three
dimensional object in this projection, at least two
or three views are required.
Quadrants system of orthographic projection–
• When the planes of projections are extended beyond
their line of intersection, they form four quadrants or
dihedral angles.
These quadrants are numbered as I, II, III and IV in
counterclockwise direction.
First Quadrant Object is situated in front of V.P. and above the H.P.
Second Quadrant Object is situated in behind the V.P. and above the H.P.
Third Quadrant Object is situated in behind the V.P. and below the H.P.
Fourth Quadrant Object is situated in front of V.P. and below the H.P.

Difference between first angle and third angle projection–

First angle projection Third angle projection
● Object is situated in first quadrant. ● Object is situated in third quadrant.
● The object lies between the observer and the plane ● The plane of projection lies between observer and
of projection. object.

● The plane of projection is assumed to be non- ● The plane of projection is assumed to be transparent.
transparent.

● H.P. and V.P. is located below and above the ● H.P. and V.P. is located above and below the
reference line (X-Y lines) respectively. reference line respectively.
● Projection is drawn opposite to the viewer side. ● Projection is drawn same side to the viewer.

Engineering Drawing 136 YCT

 Front view → Above X-Y line
Top view → Below X-Y line
Right view → Above X-Y line parallel to V.P. and in Right view → Below X-Y line parallel to V.P. and in
left of elevation.
Left view → Above X-Y line parallel to V.P. and in Left view → Below X-Y line parallel to V.P. and in left
right of elevation.
• This method of projection is used in India and
Europe.
In orthographic projection, Ist and 3rd angle of projections are used. Due to overlapping of projection, 2nd and
4th angle of projections are not used.
Symbol of First angle and Third angle projection-
First angle Third angle
Planes of orthographic projection-
• The planes of which various projections are
drawn are called planes of projection.
There are two planes employed for the purpose
of orthographic projections are called reference
planes or principal planes (i.e. H.P. and V.P.).
Principal or Reference planes-
• They intersect each other at right angles (90º).
1. Vertical plane :- Vertical plane of projection is
usually denoted by V.P.
2. Horizontal plane :-Horizontal plane of projection
is denoted by H.P.
Engineering Drawing
Front view → Below X-Y line
Top view → Above X-Y line
right of elevation.
of elevation.
● This method of projection is used in U.S.A.
The projections are obtained by drawing
perpendiculars from the object to the planes.
Profile Plane (P.P)-
Sometimes some features of an object lie on its left
or right side.
Top and front views will not be sufficient to show
these features in their true shape.
In such cases, the object is projected either on a left
or right side plane, known as profile plane (P.P.)
The view projected on it is known as profile view
or side view.
Auxiliary plane-
Sometimes two views of object (front view & top
view) are not sufficient to convey all information
regarding the object.
In this condition the additional view, called
auxiliary view and projected on that plane known
as auxiliary plane.
137 YCT
 Auxiliary view may also be used for determining– A.V.P. is perpendicular to the H.P. and inclined to
(a) The true length of a line the V.P.
(b) The point view of a line A.I.P. is perpendicular to the V.P. and inclined to
(c) The edge view of a plane the H.P.
(d) The true size and form of a plane Projection of side view of the object is drawn on
Types of auxiliary plane– auxiliary plane.
Important terms-
1. Auxiliary vertical plane (A.V.P.)
2. Auxiliary inclined plane (A.I.P) Auxiliary View • Projection on an Auxiliary
plane is called auxiliary view.
• Side view is a special case of
auxiliary view
Ground Line • The line of intersection of two
reference planes of projections
(the
V.P. and the H.P. is called
Ground Line or Reference Line.
Front View or • The projection of the object
Elevation on the vertical plane
Top View or • The Projection of the object
Plan on the horizontal plane
Side View or • The Projection of the object
Side Elevation or on the Auxiliary Vertical plane
Profile View or
profile plane.
The line in which V.P. and H.P. intersect is called
Reference line and is denoted by XY.
Difference between Perspective and Parallel Projections-
Orthographic Projection Perspective Projection

• Observer is situated at infinite distance from the
object.
• Projection rays (or projectors) are parallel.
• Projection has same size of original object.
Application– Architecture, computer aided design etc.
Projection of Points
• Observer is situated at finite distance from the
object.
• Projection rays are intersect at view point.
• Objects appear smaller the farther away they are.
Application– Animation, visual simulation etc.
Ex. Situation of points A, B, C, P and Q.

• Point is defined as a circle of zero radius,

represented by a dot. When two are more than two
non-parallel lines intersect, a point is produced at
that intersection.
A point may be situated in space in any one of
the four quadrants.

Engineering Drawing 138 YCT

Projection of point A, B, C, P and Q Projections of a Point in Fourth Quadrant-
Ex:- A point D is 45mm below P and 60 mm in front of
VP. Draw its projection.
Position of point Projection of point

H.P. V.P.

Projection of a point in the First Quadrant Projection of Points lying on Horizontal Projection
Ex :- Point A is 30 mm above HP and 45 mm in front of
Plane-
VP. Draw its front View and Top View.
Ex:- Draw the projections of a points a lying on HP
Position of point Projection of
point and 50 mm in front of VP.
Position of point Projection of point

X Y

Projection of Points lying on Vertical Projection

Projections of a Point in Second Quadrant-
Plane-
Ex:- A point B is 45 mm above HP and 60 mm behind
VP draw its projections. Ex:- Draw the projections of a point A lying on VP and
Position of point Projection of point 55 mm above VP.
Position of point Projection of point

Projection of a Point in Third Quadrant-

Ex:- A point C is 35mm below HP and 25 mm behind
VP. Draw its projection. Projection of straight lines
Position of point Projection of point • A straight line is the shortest distance between two
points. Hence, the projections of a straight line may
be drawn by joining the respective projections of its
end points.
X Y
Y
Positions of a Line with respect to HP and VP-
X A line may occupy an infinite number of positions in
space with respect to HP and VP.
The various positions may be classified into the
following types:
Engineering Drawing 139 YCT
1. When line parallel to one or both the planes–
Position of line
i. When a line parallel to
both planes (H.P. and V.P.)
Projection Views
Top view → A line of true length
and parallel to XY-line.
Front view → A line of true
length and parallel to XY-line.
Side view → Point

ii. When a line is parallel to Top view → A line of true length

H.P. and inclined to V.P. and inclined to XY-line (ab =
AB)
Front view → A line smaller
than true length and parallel to
XY-line (a'b' < AB)

iii. When a line parallel to V.P. Top view → A line smaller than
and inclined to H.P. true length and parallel to XY-
line (ab < AB)
Front view → A line of true
length and inclined to XY-line.
(a'b' = AB)

2. Line contained by one or both the planes–

Position of line Projection Views
i. Line contained by horizontal Top view → A line of true
plane (H.P.) length (ab = AB)
Front view → A line smaller
than true length in XY-line (a'b'
< AB).

ii. Line contained by vertical Top view → A line smaller than

plane (V.P.) true length in XY-line.
Front view → A line of true\
length.

Engineering Drawing 140 YCT

 iii. Line contained by both plane Its front view and top view
(H.P. and V.P.) coincide to each other in XY
line.

3. Line perpendicular to one of the plane-

Position of line Projection Views
i. Line perpendicular to Top view → A point
horizontal plane (H.P.) Front view → A line of true
length perpendicular to XY-
line.

ii. Line perpendicular to vertical Top view → A line of true

plane (V.P.) length perpendicular to XY
line
Front view → A point

4. Line inclined to both the planes (H.P. and V.P.)–

Position of line Projection Views
Top view → A line smaller
than true length inclined to
XY-line
Front view → A line
smaller than true length
inclined to XY-line.
(Angles greater than the
true inclinations.)

Remember– When a line is parallel to a plane, its projection on that plane will show its true length and true
inclination with the other plane.

Engineering Drawing 141 YCT

 Some important terms-
• In given figure,
AB = True length of line
ab and a’b’ = Apprant length of line
θ1 and θ2 = True inclination from H.P. and
V.P. respectively
α and β = Apprant angles

True Length (TL) • It is the physical length of the line in space, measured along the direction or orientation of
(AB) the line itself. It is not generally visible in the projections.
• However, when the line is parallel to one or both the reference plane, the length of view
formed on that plane to which the line parallel, is equal to the true length of the line.
True Inclination • It is the physical inclination of the line in space with the reference planes.
(θ1 and θ2) • Similar to the true length, these angles are not always visible in the projections. However,
when a line is parallel to a reference plane and inclined to the other, true inclination can be
seen in the projection that gives the true length.
Apparent • It is the length of the projection of a line, when the line is not parallel to reference plane
Length on which length is being and is always shorter than the true length.
(ab and a’b’)
Apparent Angles • The inclination of the projections that represent the apparent lengths are known as apparent
(α and β) angles.
Trace of a line- Different positions of a line for its traces w.r.t the
When a line is inclined to a plane, it will meet that HP and the VP–
plane, produced if necessary.
(i) Straight Line Parallel to Both the Reference
The point in which the line or produced line meets Planes-
the plane is called its trace.
There are two types of traces normally used in • Straight line parallel to both the reference planes
Engg. Drawings- neither meet the HP nor the VP when produced,
(i) Horizontal Trace (HT): When a straight line is hence it has got no traces.
inclined to the HP, then point of intersection of
the line to the
HP is called its Horizontal Trace and
represented by HT.
(ii) Vertical Trace (VT): When a straight line is
inclined to the VP, then the point of intersection (ii) Straight Line inclined to the HP and parallel to
of the line to the VP is called its vertical trace the VP-
and represented by VT. • When a line AB is inclined to the HP and parallel to
the VP–
(a) Extend the elevation a′ b′ till it touches XY at
point h.
(b) Extend plan ab towards left.
(c) From point h, drop a perpendicular on the
extended ab and obtain HT.
(d) Since plan is parallel to XY, no VT will be
found.

v – V ⇒ V.T., h – H ⇒ H.T.
When a line is parallel to a plane it has no trace upon
that plane.
Engineering Drawing 142 YCT
(iii) Straight Line inclined to the VP and parallel to (d) From point v, drop a perpendicular on the
the HP- extended a′b′ and obtain VT.
• When a line AB is inclined to the VP and parallel to
the HP–
(a) Extend elevation the plan ab till it touches XY at
point u.
(b) Extend elevation a′b′ towards left.
(c) From point u, drop a perpendicular on the
extended a′b′ and obtain VT.
(d) Since elevation is parallel to XY, no HT will be
found.

Projection of Planes
Plane
• A plane surface is defined as a surface with only two
dimensions, i.e., the length and the breadth with
negligible
thickness.
(iv) Straight Line inclined to both the HP and VP- The shape of the plane surface is bounded by straight
• When a line AB is inclined to both the HP and the lines, curves or their combinations.
VP – A unique plane is obtained by either of the following
(a) Extend the elevation a′b′ till it touches XY at combinations–
point h. (i) Three non-cylinder points
(b) Extend the plan ab till it touches XY at point v. (ii) A straight line and a point
(c) From point h, drop a perpendicular on the (iii) Two parallel lines.
extended ab and obtain HT. (iv) Two intersection lines.
Projection of Planes
1.Projection of plane perpendicular to both the H.P. and V.P.-
Position of plane Projection Description
• In this case, H.T. and V.T. are
in a straight line, perpendicular
to XY-line.
Y
Top view and front view → A
line perpendicular to XY-line.
X Y

2. Projection of a plane perpendicular to one plane and parallel to the other plane-
Position of plane Projection Description
i. Plane perpendicular to the H.P. • Its H.T. is parallel to XY-line.
and parallel to the V.P. It has no V.T.
Top view → A line parallel to
XY-line
Front view → A plane of true
shape and size.

Engineering Drawing 143 YCT

 ii. Plane perpendicular to the V.P. • Its V.T. is parallel to XY-
and parallel to the H.P. line. It has no H.T.
Top view → A plane of true
shape and size
Front view → A line parallel to
XY-line

3. Projection of a plane perpendicular to one plane and inclined to the other plane–

Position of plane Projection Description

i. Plane perpendicular to H.P. and • Its V.T. is perpendicular to
inclined to V.P. XY-line and H.T, is inclined to
XY-line.
Top view→ A line inclined to
XY-line
Front view → A plane smaller
than true size of plane.

ii. Plane perpendicular to V.P. and • Its V.T. is inclined to XY-line

inclined to H.P. and H.T. perpendicular to XY-
line.
Top view → A plane smaller
than true size of plane
Front view → A line inclined
to XY-line

Traces of Planes
• Lines in which the planes meet the reference planes (the HP and the VP) are called the traces of planes.
There are two types of traces used in engineering practices.
(i) Horizontal Trace (HT): The intersection of a plane with the horizontal plane is called the Horizontal Trace (HT)
(ii) Vertical Trace (VT): The intersection of a plane with the vertical plane is called the Vertical Trace (VT)
Oblique plane: Planes inclined to both the reference planes.

Engineering Drawing 144 YCT

 Previous Year Questions
1. What is the maximum number of auxiliary
views of any given object ?
(a) Infinite (b) 6
(c) 1 (d) 3
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans. (a) : Any given object has an infinite number of
auxiliary views.
• Sometimes two view of an object (front view & top 4. In an isometric drawing, vertical lines are
view) are not sufficient to convey all information drawn vertically, and horizontal lines in the width
regarding to the object. and depth planes are shown at_____to the
• In this condition the additional view called auxiliary horizontal.
view and projected on that plane known as auxiliary (a) 60 degrees (b) 30 degrees
plane. (c) 45 degrees (d) 90 degrees
Auxiliary view may also be used for determining: RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
(a) The true length of a line Ans. (b) : In an isometric drawing, the Vertical lines
(b) The point view of a line are drawn vertically, and the width line in the horizontal
(c) The side view of a line and depth lines are shown at 30° to the horizontal.
(d) The true size and shape of a plane.
2. In third - angle projection ,__________,
(a) the object lies in the second quadrant
(b) the plane of projection lies between the
object and the observer
(c) the object lies in the first quadrant
(d) the object lies between the observer and the
plane of projection
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (b) In third angle projection, the plane of
projection lies between the object and the observer. 5. A .......... projection is an oblique projection in
which the depth of the object is shown in full
size.
(a) Orthographic (b) Fisheye
(c) Cavalier (d) Perspective
• The plane of projection is assured to be transparent. RRB ALP & Tech 23.01.2019 Shift-II
• H.P. and V.P. is located above and below the Ans : (c) A Cavalier projection in an oblique projection
reference line respectively. in which the depth of the object is shown in full size.
• Projection is drawn same side to the viewly. • Projection lines make an angle of 45° with the plane
of projection.
3. If straight lines are drawn from various points
on the contour of an object to meet a plane,
then the figure obtained on the plane is called
the..... of the object.
(a) Animation (b) Development
(c) Dimensioning (d) Projection
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III 6. In Isometric Projection, those lines which are
not parallel to isometric plane is ....... called.
Ans : (d) If straight lines are drawn from various points
on the contour of an object to meet a plane, then the RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er.,
object is said to be projected on that plane. 01.12.2002
(a) Projection line (b) Isometric line
• The points at which these lines meet, that plane is
called the projection of the object. (c) Non-Isometric line (d) None of these
• The lines from the object to the plane are called Ans. (c) : In Isometric projection, those lines which are
projectors. not parallel to isometric plane are called non isometric
• The figure formed by joining, in the correct line.
sequences the points at which the lines meet the • In isometric projection those lines which are parallel
plane is called projection of that object. to isometric plane is called isometric line.

Engineering Drawing 145 YCT

7. In the section view, the areas that would have 11. In which view, the two faces of cube make
been in actual contact with the cutting plane equal angles with the plane?
are shown with RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section Eng
RRB JE Ranchi Red Paper 04.01.2015 (Mechanical) 04.01.2009
(a) A cutting plane line (b) Section lining (a) Dimetric view (b) Trimetric view
(c) Visible lines (d) Lines and arrows
(c) Isometric view (d) Perspective view
Ans : (b) In the section view, the areas that would have
been in actual contact with the cutting plane are shown Ans. (a) : In Dimetric view two faces of a cube make
with section lining. equal angles with the plane.
8. In the human eyes, the image of an object an
which formed on the retina ....... then the size of
the object?
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil)
29.06.2008
(a) Smaller (b) Larger
(c) Same (d) Nothing
Ans. (a) : In the human eyes, the image of an object 12. In which view the three faces of cube make
which formed on the retina is smaller and inverted than equal angles with plane.
the real size of the object. RRB Bangalore Section Engineer
• The human eye has an 'Ocular lens' which is a convex (Civil) 01.02.2009
lens. (a) Dimetric view (b) Trimetric view
9. Isometric view is... (c) Isometric view (d) Perspective view
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG & Ans. (c) : In isometric view all the three faces of cube
Design 11.06.2006 make equal angles with plane.
(a) 2D view (b) 3D view
(c) 4D view (d) 1D view
Ans. (b) : Isometric view is a 3D view. Its all three
dimension are equispaced each other at 120° and makes
30° angle with horizontal.
• All the three faces of cube make equal angles with
the plane.

From the figure –

10. The view, in which all three faces of the cube α=β= γ
make unequal angle with the plane is called -
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil) 13. The view, which formed when an object is view
29.06.2008 from its top view is called?
(a) Dimetric view (b) Trimetric view RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
(c) Isometric view (d) Perspective view (a) Top view (b) Left side view
Ans. (b) : (c) Right side view (d) Front view
Isometric Dimetric Trimetric Ans. (a) : When the object is viewed from its front then
Projection Projection Projection it is called front view or elevation
All the three Any two faces of All three faces • When the object is viewed from its Top then it is
faces of cube cube make equal of cube make called Top view or plan
make equal angles with plane. unequal angles • When the object is viewed from its side then it is
angle with the with plane. called side view or lateral view
plane.
14. The top view of an object should be drawn–
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer
(Electrical) , 15.03.2009
(a) Right or left the front view
(b) Below or above the front view
(c) Below or right of the front view
(d) Above or left of the front view
Engineering Drawing 146 YCT
Ans. (b) : The top view of an object should be drawn 17. If the Base of the cylinder is placed on the
below or above to the front view. ground its projection, which obtained in the
• In the first angle projection, the top view should be vertical plane will be-
drawn below and in third angle projection it should be RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.),
drawn above of the front view. 26.02.2012
(a) Circle (b) Triangle
1st angle of projection
(c) Square (d) Rectangle
Ans. (d) : If the Base of a cylinder is placed on the
ground its projection obtained in the V.P. will be a
rectangle and the projection which obtained in H.P. will
be a circle -

3rd angle of projection

18. Pictorial drawing or pictorial projection is-

RRB Bhubaneswar App. Electrical , 19.08.2001
(a) Two dimensional (b) Three dimensional
15. The projection obtained on the vertical plane (c) Both of the above (d) None of these
of the object is called. Ans. (b) Pictorial projection is a three dimensional
RRB Thiruvananthpuram Section Eng projection method which shown the three faces
(Mechanical) 04.01.2009 indicating the height, width and depth of the object.
(a) Elevation (b) Oblique plane
(c) Both (d) None of these
Ans. (a) : In orthogonal projection, the projection
which obtained on the vertical plane is called ' Elevation
'.
• The projection which obtained on the horizontal plane
is called ' Plan '.
• The projection which obtained on the lateral plane is
called ' Side view '.
16. The lines on which the horizontal planes (H.P.)
and the vertical plans (V.P.) are intersect each
other is called-
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil),
26.02.2012
(a) Principal line (b) Reference line
(c) Auxiliary line (d) None of these
Ans. (b) The line on which the horizontal planes (H.P.)
and the vertical plans (V.P.) are intersect each other is
called reference line.
This line is represented by XY. • 2D Illustration of a 3D object provides a realistic
view of a 3D object.
19. If a point (G) is situated on ground line (G.L.)
its ........... always obtained on G.L.
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil),
26.02.2012
(a) Plan (b) Viewers
(c) Elevation (d) Both a b
Engineering Drawing 147 YCT
Ans. (c) : In the first angle projection the XY line itself
act as the ground line, while in the third angle
projection the ground line is drawn separately at a
suitable distance below the XY line.
• If any point or object is located on the ground line
(G.L.), then its elevation is always obtained on the
ground line.
20. The lines which connect the object and the 23. In which projection a plane may be at any
projection are called - angle with horizontal.
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III, RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent, 21.11.2004
(a) Isometric projection
20.11.2005
(b) orthographic projection
(a) Projectors (b) Extension lines
(c) Oblique projection
(c) Centre line (d) Dash line
(d) Reference projection
Ans. (a) : Lines, which are connecting the object and Ans. (d) : In reference projection, a plane may be at
the projection are called projectors. any angle with horizontal.
• The plane on which the projection is made is called
the 'Plane of projection'.
• Projectors are lines which going from external points
on the surface of an object to the projection plane.

24.
The decreasing line of oblique projection is
inclined at which angle.
DMRC Station Controller, 09.09.2007
(a) 350 (b) 450
21. The line joining the front and top views of a 0
(c) 60 (d) 750
point is called–
RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006 Ans. (b) : For drawing oblique view, two axes are
drawn as horizontal and vertical axes while the third
(a) Connector (b) Reference line axis (also known as oblique axis or receding axis) is
(c) Projector (d) Locus generally or mostly drawn at an angle of 45o.
Ans. (c) : The line joining the front and top view of a • Some times this axis also be drawn at 30o or 60o.
point is called projectors.
• This line which represented by XY is called
reference line.

25. How many number of stages are required to

• H.P. and V.P. are called the principal plane
projective or projector line is always perpendicular
to the principal planes.
22. If the definition of a normal surface is one that
is parallel to a principal plane of projection
(frontal, horizontal or profile), then for the
object pictured, how many normal surface are
there? (Count ALL surfaces)
RRB JE Ranchi Yellow Paper 04.01.2015
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
Ans : (c) According to the question if the definition of
the normal surface is on that is parallel to a principal
plane of projection (frontal, horizontal profile), then for
the object pictured, has total 6 normal surfaces.
get the projection of a solid which axis is
inclined to one reference plane and parallel to
other plane -
RRB RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-II , 30.01.2011
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans. (b) : If the axis of a solid is inclined at an angle to
one of the reference line, and is parallel to the other
plane, then 2 stages are required to obtained its
projection.
• First of all, we draw projection of the solid
considering it perpendicular to the plane to which the
axis is inclined and draw projection of the base in the
plane to which the axis is parallel.
• Then by tilting the axis of the solid from that plane
(From which inclined plane it is) the desired projection
is obtained.

Engineering Drawing 148 YCT

26. The elevation of a point is 40mm above to
reference line and the plan is 50mm below to
reference line. That point is–
RRB Kolkata Diesel/Electrical Ass., 06.02.2005
(a) 40mm below HP (b) 40mm above HP
(c) 50mm in front of HP (d) 50mm behind VP
Ans. (b) :

29. A Pentagonal prism whose edges are

perpendicular to V.P. and the base is parallel to
V.P. If its rectangular faces are parallel to H.P.
then the projections of their top view and front
view will be–
RRB Kolkata Technical-III, 20.08.2006

The elevation of a point is 40 mm above reference line (a) (b)

and the plan is 50 mm above reference line the point is
40 mm above to the horizontal plane.
27. In which position should a circle be placed so
that one view of its, is an ellipse and the other is
a line?
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III , (c) (d)
20.11.2005
Ans. (b) :
(a) Perpendicular to V.P. and inclined to H.P.
(b) Parallel to both V.P. and H.P.
(c) Perpendicular to both V.P. and H.P.
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a) : If a circle is kept perpendicular to V.P. and
inclined to H.P. then, an ellipse will be obtained in its
reflection, while a line will be obtained in front of it. 30. When the axis of solid is perpendicular to the
V.P. then it will be........ to H.P.-
RRB Bangalore Section Engineer (Civil)
01.02.2009
(a) Perpendicular (b) Parellel
(c) Vertical (d) Horizontal
Ans. (b) : When the axis of solid is perpendicular to the
V.P. then it will be parallel to H.P. and the cross section
of that solid will be parallel to V.P.
31. What is the minimum number of visuals
28. A square pyramid is resting on its base on HP. required to described the shape and size of an
One side of the base is inclined at 600 to VP. object?
The number of dotted lines will appear in the RRB Bangalore Technical (Eng.), 22.04.2007
front view– (a) One (b) Two
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG & (c) Three (d) Four
Design, 11.06.2006
(a) 1 (b) 2 Ans : (b) To tell the shape and size of an object
(c) 3 (d) Zero minimum two number of visuals are required-
1. Top view 2. Front view
Ans. (a) : A square pyramid is resting on its base on
H.P. One side of the base is inclined at 60° to V.P. The • Where as due to complexity of the shape minimum
number of dotted lines will appear in front view is 1 and three views of an object are required-
4 Dotted lines will appear in its top view. 1. Top view 2. Front view 3. Side view

Engineering Drawing 149 YCT

32. What are the methods of making projections ? In the given figure there are 3 horizontal surfaces and 4
RRB Secunderabad Technical (Eng.), 20.05.2007 vertical surfaces.
(a) Orthographic view (b) Pictorial view
(c) Both the above (d) None of these
Ans. (c) : Projections are mainly made in two ways. (a)
Orthographic Projection (b) Pictorial projection
Orthographic view Pictorial view
Orthographic views is a 2 Pictorial views is a
dimensional Projection 3 dimensional
projection 35. Identify the following solid from the given
Projection in which when the The projection in front and side views.
projectors are parallel to each which the
other and perpendicular to the description of the
plane is called orthographic object is completely
projection understand in one
view is known as DRDO 2015
Pictorial projection
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Ans. (b) : The projection made in the figure is of a

solid sphere because the side view or the front view or
33. If a line is parallel to V.P. and inclined to H.P. the top view all the three are obtained in the form of a
then its view ......... will be parallel to XY. circle (of the same diameter).
DMRC Secunderabad Section Eng. (Civil), 29.06.2008 36. In the isometric view of the object there are
(a) Front view (b) Top view many vertical and horizontal surfaces.
(c) Side view (d) All of above
Ans : (b) If a line is parallel to V.P. and inclined to H.P.
then its Top view will be parallel to XY which will be a
straight line.
How many vertical surface in the given object ?
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 10
Ans : (c) There are total 8 vertical surfaces in the given
figure.
34. There are some vertical and axial surface in
three views of an object
How many horizontal surfaces are there in this
object.

• In this figure 6 vertical surfaces are marked by the

number 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 is shown. One vertical surfaces is
behind the surface numbered 5 and one surface behind
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Electrical) , the surface number 6.
15.03.2009
37. What is the angle between the three isometeric
(a) 6 (b) 5
axis in isometric view ?
(c) 4 (d) 3
RRB Chennai Section Eng., 12.02.2012
Ans. (d) :
(a) 30o (b) 60o
o
(c) 90 (d) 120o
Ans : (d) In isometric view, the angle between the three
isometric axis is 120°
• Isometric views of objects are made to show as much
as possible, typically with technical drawings.

Engineering Drawing 150 YCT

•An isometric view is a type of drawing that shows an
object as if it is viewed from a corner, with three axes
equally inclined to the plane of projection.
Ans. (c) : • In oblique projection at least one face is
parallel to the plane of projection.
• In oblique projection, one dimension of object is
parallel to horizontal and other is vertical to the
horizontal and the third is at an angle of 30o or 45o
or any other angle to the horizontal.
• The figure given in question, Shows a practical,
representation of oblique axes.

38. Isometric view is made by which scale -

RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Civil), 26.02.2012
(a) Real scale (b) Isometric scale
(c) Diagonal scale (d) Normal scale
Ans : (a) Isometric view is made by real scale. It
preserves the true dimensions and angles of the object,
regardless of its position or orientation.
42. The Isometric plane which make an angle of
39. That view of an object, which is formed on an 30° with the horizontal is called.
additional vertical plane when it viewed from
DRDO Turner 2016
the side ,is called-
(a) Inclined projection
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Mech.), 26.02.2012
(b) Reference projection
(a) Front elevation (b) Side elevation
(c) Orthogonal projection
(c) Top views (d) Horizontal view
(d) Isometric projection
Ans : (b) The view of an object, which is formed on an
additional vertical plane when it viewed from the side it Ans. (d) : The Isometric plane which make an angle of
°
is called side elevation. 30 with the horizontal is called Isometric projection.
• In this projection method, isometric axis are
equispaced to each other at 120° and makes 30° angle
with horizontal.
• In this projection all the three faces of a cube make
equal angle with the plane.

40. A cone is cut by a section plane parallel to the

profile plane, Its true shape of section is seen in-
BHEL Hyderabad Fitter 2014
(a) front view (b) top view
(c) side view (d) auxiliary view
Ans. (c) : If a cone cut by a section plane parallel to the
profile plane, Its true shape of section is seen in side
view
• The size can be obtained only by its lateral
observation.

43.
Characteristic of Isometric projection-
DRDO Motor Mechanic 2016
(a) 2D Projection (b) 3D Projection
(c) 4D Project (d) 1D Projection
Ans. (b) : Isometric projection is a 3D projection,
because there are 3 isometric axes with an angle of 120°
between them and makes 30° angle with horizontal or
reference line
41. In oblique projection, one face is - • Isometric projection is a type of axonometric
DRDO Fitter 2016 projection which axes are equispaced to each other.
(a) Perpendicular to the plane of projection
(b) Inclined to the plane of projection
(c) Parallel to the plane of projection
(d) All of the above
Engineering Drawing 151 YCT
44. The prospective projection is made at an angle
of how many degrees from the horizontal ?
DRDO Mechanic Diesel 2016
(a) 450–450 (b) 0 – 450
0 0
(c) 30 –30 (d) 0 – 300
Ans. (a) : Prospective projection is also a type of • In Cavalier projection, the face which is parallel to
pictorial projection. It is made at 45° angle from the the projection plane of the object, appears in real
horizontal plane. shape.
• It is a natural view of an object which perceived by a 47. In the cabinet projection the ratio of the length
human eye. of principal face lines and reducing lines is-
• As the distance of an object from the observer NTPC Fitter 2014
increases, its size in this projection view decreases. (a) 1:1 (b) 1:2
• It is used by architects. This view is not usfull for (c) 2:1 (d) 4:1
manufacturing purpose or in industry. Ans. (c) : In the cabinet projection the ratio of the
length of principal face lines and reducing lines is 2:1
• Projection lines make an angle with the projection
plane, it becomes about half of both the axis by
decreasing scale.

48. What is oblique projection or oblique drawing-

BHEL Hyderabad Fitter 2014
(a) Pictorial projection
45. What is the angle of object in the oblique
(b) Orthographic projection
projection ?
(c) Pictorial or orthographic projection
SAIL Bokaro Steel Plant 2016
(d) None of these
(a) 300 (b) 450
(c) 600 (d) Any of these Ans : (a) Oblique projection or oblique drawing is a
Ans. (d) : One dimension of object is parallel to pictorial projection.
horizontal and other is vertical to horizontal and the • Some commonly used pictorial drawing (images) are
third is at angle of 30° or 45° to the horizontal. the following -
• In this projection the front face and faces parallel to 1. Perspective view
front face are presented in true shape and size other is 2. Isometric view
vertical to the horizontal and third side face is at an 3. Oblique view
angle of 30°, 45° or 60° to the horizontal.

46. In Cavalier projection, the ratio between the

lengths of the line of principal face and the
reducing lines is- 49. In third angle projection, the top view of a
Vizag Steel Fitter 2015 body is always drawn:
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (Rajsthan Water Resource Department JE
(c) 1:1 (d) 4:1 12.01.2014)
Ans. (c) : The ratio of the lengths of principal face and (a) Below the front view
reducing lines in the Cavalier projection is 1:1. (b) Above the front view
Cavalier Projection: Projection lines make an angle of (c) Left side of front view
45° with the plane of projection in full size. (d) Right side of front view
Engineering Drawing 152 YCT
Ans : (b) In third angle projection, the top view of a
body is always above the front view
• In first angle projection the top view of a body is
always drawn below the front view.
50. If a line is parallel to H.P. and inclined to V.P.
then its true length will be seen in its –
(RRB JE (Shift-III), 26.08.2015)
(a) Front view
(b) Top view
(c) Side view
(d) Both front and top views
Ans : (b) If a line is parallel to H.P. and inclined to V.P. Ans : (a) Isometric projection are drawn by real scales.
then its true length will be seen in its top view
• In front view, the projection of this line is found a • If the isometric projection of the rectangle is drawn,
straight line, which is shorter than its actual length.
51. In comparison to an isometric projection, the
appearance of an isometric view is :
(RRB SSE (Shift-III), 01.09.2015)
(a) more accurate (b) More realistic
(c) smaller (d) larger
Ans : (d) In comparison to an isometric projection, the
appearance of an isometric view is larger.
Isometric view is easier to draw than isometric
projection. It can also be drawn by free hand.
52. The "front view" and "top view" of a line are
represented below and above the X–Y line
respectively. The projections are drawn in–
(RRB JE (Shift-2), 29.8.2015)
(a) First angle
(b) Second angle
(c) Third angle
(d) It's an orthographic projection
Engineering Drawing 153
Ans : (c) During projection the front view is always
obtained in the vertical plane (V.P.) and the top view is
always obtained in the horizontal plane.
• If front view is below from XY line and top view is
above to the XY reference line than an object or line
is always located in third angle.
V.P.
(i) First angle X Y
H.P.
H.P. V.P.
(ii) Second angle X Y
H.P
(iii) Third angle X Y
V.P
(iv) Fourth angle X Y
V.P. H.P.
53. Which statement is NOT correct
(RRB SSE Secunderabad (yellow), 21.12.2014)
(a) Isometric scale is used to draw isometric
projection
(b) Isometric scale is not used to draw isometric
projection
(c) A square is seen as rectangle in isometric
(d) A rectangle is seen as parallelogram in
isometric
Isometric scale is not used to draw isometric projection
than a parallelogram is obtained and if we draw the
projection, of a square we get a rhombus.
54. A circle is represented as a "top view", "front
view" and "side view". If all these views are
converted into isometric views then–
(RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I), 02.09.2015)
(a) All the three isometric view shall be same
(b)Isometric views of "front view" and "side
view" shall be same
(c) "top view" and "front view" shall be same
(d) Neither the "top view", "front view" or "side
view" shall be the same
Ans : (d) In orthogonal projection, the top view, front
view and side view of a circle will never be same as the
isometric view.
• In isometric view only one projection of the circle is
drawn and the projection of a circle becomes an
ellipse.
55. Vertical edges of an object appear in its
isometric view as–
(RRB JE (Shift-I), 29.8.2015)
YCT
 (a) Vertical
(b) Inclined at 300 clockwise
(c) Inclined at 300 counter clockwise
(d) Inclined at 150
Ans : (a) The isometric axis make 30° angle with
horizontal or reference line.
• Vertical edges of an object appear in vertical in representing three dimensional objects, in two
isometric view like 1, 2 an 3 edges.
• In isometric projection the projection of object is
obtained in three dimensions (3D).
56. A square shaped plane which is lying on H.P.
Its front view would appear as a -
(RRB JE (Shift-I), 29.8.2015)
(a) square of reduced size
(b) square of equal size
(c) rhombus
(d) straight line
Ans : (d) A square shaped plane which is laying on
H.P. Its front view could appear as a straight line.
57. In an "isometric scale" the angle between
actual or true line and its "ISO-equivalent
line" is :
(RRB SSE (shift-III), 02.09.2015) 60. If both the front and top views of a plane are
(a) 30º (b) 45º
(c) 15º (d) 60º
Ans : (c) In an isometric scale the angle between actual
or true line and its ISO equivalent line is 15°.
• Isometric projection is used for combination of solids.
• To draw isometric projection, isometric dimensions
are used which is 0.82× true length.
• A conversion scale used for converting true
dimensions into isometric dimensions is shown in figure
- Ans : (a) If both the front and top views of a plane are
Engineering Drawing 154
58. Isometric projections are commonly drawn
with.............
(RRB JE (Shift-III), 30.08.2015)
(a) One (b) Four
(c) Two (d) Three
Ans : (d)Isometric projection is a method for visually
dimensions in technical and engineering drawings.
• It is an axonometric projection in which the three
coordinate axes appear equally for foreshortened and
the angle between any two of them is 120° .
• Isometric projection are commonly drawn with three
equispaced axis.
59. If a line is parallel to H.P. and inclined to V.P.,
its true length will be seen in :
(RRB JE Mumbai (Shift-II), 27.08.2015)
(a) Front view
(b) Top view
(c) Side view
(d) Both front and top views
Ans : (b) If a line is parallel to H.P. and inclined to V.P.
its true length with be seen in top view.
straight lines, it may be :
(RRB JE Mumbai (Shift-II), 27.08.2015)
(a) perpendicular to both horizontal and vertical
planes
(b) parallel to horizontal plane and perpendicular
to vertical plane
(c) perpendicular to horizontal plane and parallel
to vertical plane
(d) parallel to both horizontal and vertical planes
straight lines it may be perpendicular to both horizontal
and vertical planes.
⇒X Y
YCT
61. An isometric projection is a : Ans : (a) If top view of a line is a point, its front view is
(RRB JE Bhopal Paper-I (Shift-II), 28.08.2015) perpendicular to reference line and equal to its true
(a) To view in 2D length.
(b) To view in 3D
(c) To view in 21/2D
(d) To view in perspective
Ans : (b) An isometric projection is a 3D view. ⇒
• Isometric projection is a type of axonometric
projection
• In this projection method isometric axis are equipaced
to each other at 120° and makes 30 ° angle with
horizontal. 64. An asymmetric object is usually described by:
• In this projection, all the three face of a cube make (UPRVUNL JE 2014)
equal angle with the plane. (a) 6 views (b) 3 views
(c) 4 views (d) 2 views
Ans : (b) In asymmetric object is usually described by
3 views.
62. While making isometric projection, the ellipse
is preferably drawn by-
(RRB SSE (shift-II), 02.09.2015)
(a) concentric circle method
(b) four centered method
(c) parallelogram method
(d) System method
Ans : (b) While making isometric projection, the ellipse 65. The plane which is inclined equally to the
is preferably drawn by four centered method. reference axis is called ...............
• In Isometric projection of an object, the dimension (M.P. Vyapam 09.07.2017, 9 am)
of its length and width are at an angle of 30° to the (a) hexahedral plane (b) tetrahedral plane
horizontal & dimensions of height are at 90° to the (c) pentagonal plane (d) octahedral plane
horizontal.
Ans : (d) The plane which is inclined equally to the
• In isometric view,
reference axis is called octahedral plane.
1. Circle ⇒ Ellipse
• An octahedron has 6 vertices 12 edges, and 8 faces,
• It is composed by 8 equilateral triangles four of which
meet at each vertex.
• In an octahedron, the planes are inclined equally to
the reference axis.
2.Square ⇒ Rhombus

3. Rectangle ⇒ Parallelogram

66. If a square plane is kept perpendicular to both

the horizontal and vertical planes, its true
shape is seen in–
63. If top view of a line is a point, its front view is COAL India Fitter 2013
(RRB SSE (shift-II), 02.09.2015) (a) VP
(a) Perpendicular to reference line and equal to
(b) HP
its true length
(c) PP
(b) Perpendicular to reference line and of
apparent length (d) Auxiliary inclined plane
(c) Parallel to reference line and of true length Ans. (c) : If a square plane is kept perpendicular to both
(d) Parallel to reference line and of apparent the horizontal and vertical planes, its true shape is seen
length in profile plane.

Engineering Drawing 155 YCT

• Profile Plane: In such cases, the object is projected 69. In orthogonal projection if an object is placed
either on a left or right side plane, known as profile below HP and behind V.P. then at what angle will
plane (P.P.) be the object will be located at which angle ?
• The view projected on it is known as profile view or RRB Jammu Section Eng. (Mech,
side view. Elec/Elect./Telecom), 2013
(a) First angle
(b) Second angle
⇒ (c) Third angle
X Y (d) Fourth angle
Ans. (c) :
First angle projection: Object is situated in
front of V.P. and above
67. If the front view of a line is parallel to the XY to the H.P.
its true length is shown in– Second angle projection: Object is situated behind
CRPF Constable Tradesman 2016 the V.P. and above to
(a) top view (b) front view the H.P.
(c) side view Third angle projection Object is situated behind
(d) both front and top view the V.P. and below to
Ans. (a) : If the front view of a line is parallel to the XY the H.P.
line then its true length is shown in top view and its Fourth angle projection Object is situated in
measurement will be equal to the actual measurement of front of V.P. and below
the line. to the H.P.

68. In third angle projection method, the relative

positions of the object, plane of projection and
observer are–
HAL Fitter 2015
(a) Plane of projection is placed between both of
them
(b) Object is placed between both of them
(c) Observer is placed between both of them
(d) May be placed in any order
Ans. (a) : Third angle projection:
• If the Object is situated in third quadrant. The plane
of projection lies between observer and object.
• H.P. and V.P. is located above and below the
reference line respectively.
• In this case, plane of projection is assumed to be
transparent.
Note: In first angle projection, the object lies between
and observer and the plane of projection.
Engineering Drawing
70. Planes which are inclined to both the HP and
the VP are called–
Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. Fitter 2013
(a) Profile planes
(b) Oblique planes
(c) Auxiliary planes
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) : The Planes which are inclined to both the
reference planes (H.P. and V.P.) are called oblique
planes.
• Perpendicular planes the planes which are
perpendicular to one or both the reference plane i.e.
H.P. and V.P. called perpendicular planes.
Profile Plane: In such cases the object is projected
either on a left or light side plane known as profile
plane (P.P.)
• The view projected on it is known as profile view or
side view.
Auxiliary Plane: Sometimes two views of object (front
view & top view) are not sufficient to convey all
information's regarding the object.
• In this conditions view, called auxiliary view and
projected on that plane known as auxiliary plane.
156 YCT
 • If a point is situated below H.P. then its front view is
below the XY line and the distance of the front view
from the XY line is equal to the distance of the given
point from the H.P.

73. Match List-I (Position of point) with List-II

(Orthographic projection) and select correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
71. For the given orthographic projection, what
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will be the position of point with respect to
planes of projection? List-I List-II
A. On HP in front of VP

1.
B. On HP behind VP
Indian Ordnance Factory Fitter 2015
(a) First Quadrant (b) Second Quadrant 2.
(c) Third Quadrant (d) Fourth Quadrant C. On VP above HP
Ans. (b) :
D. On VP below HP

⇒ A B C D
Y (a) 2 1 1 2
X (b) 1 2 2 1
The above condition shows, that the point is situated in (c) 1 1 2 2
second quadrant. (d) 2 2 1 1
• in second quadrant the point is situated behind the
V.P. and above to the H.P. Ans. (b) :
• When the horizontal plane is rotated 90° in a List-I List-II
clockwise direction, the top and front views will overlap
and these overlapping projection views create confusion A. On H.P. and in front
in the drawing. Therefore the IInd quadrant is not used. of V.P.
72. For the given orthographic projection, what 1.
will be the position of point with respect to B. On H.P. and behind
planes of projection? the V.P.
2.
C. On V.P. and above to
the H.P.

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(a) First Quadrant (b) Second Quadrant D. On V.P. and below
(c) Third Quadrant (d) Fourth Quadrant to the H.P.
Ans. (d) : For the given orthographic projection the
position of point with respect to planes of projection is 74. A point whose elevation is above to the
the point is in fourth quadrant. reference line, is probably situated in the–
• In fourth quadrant the pint is situated below to the MES Electrician Tradesman 2015
H.P. and in front of V.P..
(a) First quadrant
• After rotating the H.P., 90° in clockwise direction
H.P. and V.P. are overlapped to each other and the (b) Second quadrant
projection, both of top view and front view obtained (c) Both (a) and (b)
below to the reference plane. (d) None of these
Engineering Drawing 157 YCT
Ans. (c) : A point whose elevation is above to the A B C D
reference line is probably situated in the first quadrant (a) 1 4 3 2
and second quadrant. (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (c) :
List-I List-II
A. Line parallel to both 4. Neither HT nor
HP and VP VT exists
A. First quadrant B. Line parallel to HP and 3. VT exists but HT
perpendicular to VP does not
C. Line inclined to both 2. HT and VT both
B. Second quadrant
HP and VP exists
D. Line parallel to VP and 1. HT exists but VT
75. If a point is below H.P. then elevation from XY inclined to HP does not
line. 77. If the plan of a point is below from XY line its
RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012 will be V.P. point-
(a) Below (b) Above RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Electrical) ,
(c) Behind (d) Front 15.03.2009
Ans. (a) : Third angle projection, object is situated (a) Above (b) Behind
below H.P. and behind the V.P. (c) Below (d) Front
Fourth angle projection object is situated below H.P. Ans. (d) : If the plan of a point is below from x-y line
and front the V.P. then it will be always in front of V.P. Because the plan
• In both cases the elevation of that point will be below of a point is below from XY line that means the point is
the reference line XY while the plan can be below or situated either in first quadrant or in fourth quadrant in
above XY. both conditioned the point is obtained in front of V.P.

A. Third quadrant
78.The plane which is perpendicular to both the
planes H.P. and V.P. is called.
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er.,
B. Fourth quadrant 01.12.2002
(a) Oblique plane (b) Orthogonal plane
(c) Horizontal plane (d) All of these
76. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct Ans. (b) : There are two principal planes (H.P. and
answer using the codes given below the lists : V.P.) in the orthogonal projection, which are
Vizag Steel Electrician 2015 perpendicular to each other. In ordinary there is an
List-I List-II auxiliary vertical plane which is perpendicular to both
these planes. This plane is also called perpendicular
A. Line parallel to 1. HT exists but VT plane or P.P.
both HP and VP does not
B. Line parallel to HP 2. HT and VT both
and perpendicular to exists
VP
⇒X Y
C. Line inclined to 3. VT exists but HT
both HP and VP does not
D. Line parallel to VP 4. Neither HT nor
and inclined to HP VT exists

Engineering Drawing 158 YCT

79. The projection obtained on the V.P. of the
object is called-
IOF 2014
(a) Elevation (b) Octegon
(c) Side view (d) Circle
Ans. (a) : The projection obtained on the VP of the
object is called elevation.
• Projection obtained on the Horizontal plane - Plan 84. If a rectangle is inclined at an angle of θ° from
H.P. and perpendicular to V.P., then which of its
• projection obtained on the vertical plane (A.V.P.)- views will be inclined to the XY line?
Side view or end view. Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2015
80. If a plane is parallel to both planes H.P. and (a) Top view (b) Front view
V.P. then which trace will be obtaind ? (c) Side view (d) None of these
Mazagon DOCK Ltd. Electrician 2013 Ans. (b) : If a rectangle is inclined at an angle of
(a) H.T. (b) V.T. θ° from H.P. and perpendicular to V.P., then then its
(c) Both H.P. VP (d) None of these front view will be inclined to the XY line-
Ans. (d) : If a plane is parallel to both Horizontal plane • The projection (plan) or top view of this plane will
and Vertical plane the line will not meet those planes so found a quadrilateral of less area as compare to the
the line will not have traces on those planes but it will actual rectangle.
have a trace on profile plane.
81. If a rectangle is placed parallel to V.P. then his
front view will be-
ESIC Electrician 2015
(a) Straight (b) Rectangle ⇒
(c) Square (d) Point
Ans. (b) : If a rectangle is placed parallel to V.P. then
his front view will be rectangle and a straight line is
obtained in its top view. 85. A circle is placed at which condition, so that its
82. If a square is perpendicular to H.P. and top view is a square?
parallel to V.P. the its top view will be- Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2014
THDC Electrician 2015 (a) parallel to both H.P. and V.P.
(a) A rectangle (b) A square (b) Perpendicular to both H.P. and V.P.
(c) A line (d) A point (c) Perpendicular to H.P. Parallel V.P.
(d) None of these
Ans. (c) : If a Square is perpendicular to H.P. and
Parallel to V.P. the its top view will be a line then its Ans. (d) : By placing the circle in any position on the
will be obtained side view. plane we will never found a square .
• it a circle is parallel to the V.P. and inclined to H.P. then
an ellipse will be obtained in its top view (Plan), whereas
an inclined line from XY reference will be obtained in its
front view.

83. If a circle is perpendicular to both H.P. and

V.P. then its will be circle in side view.
Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2016
(a) A circle (b) A line
(c) A Point (d) None of these
Ans. (a) : if a circle is perpendicular to both H.P. and 86. If a square is parallel to H.P. and
V.P. then a circle will be obtained at the profile plane in perpendicular to V.P. then its H.T. will be-
side view. Indian Ordnance Factory Electrician 2013
• A line will be obtained in the first view and top view (a) A line (b) A rectangle
of the circle. (c) Either of them (d) None of these
Engineering Drawing 159 YCT
Ans. (d) : In the front view of this square we will
obtained a straight line, which will display the vertical
trace point of the square.
• No trace point will be obtained in the plane to which it
is parallel.
Ans. (b) : Any plane can net be parallel to both the
reference planes.
• If a plane is Parallel to the horizontal plane (H.P.),
then it will be perpendicular to the vertical Plane (V.P.)
and vice versa.

⇒
• In figure (1) the rectangular plane is perpendicular to
V.P. and parallel to the H.P.
• In figure (2) the rectangular plane is parallel to V.P.
and Perpendicular to H.P.
89. What are the maximum possible positions of a
point in any quadrant ?
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG &
Design 11.06.2006
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
Ans. (c) : All most four maximum position of a point
are possible in any quadrant.
• Point is located at certain specified distances from
the horizontal plane and the vertical plane.
87. If a rectangle is parallel to V.P. then its H.T.
.......... will be
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
(a) Parallel to XY line (b) Below the XY line
(c) On the XY line (d) None of these
Ans. (a) : A line , Parallel to the XY line is obtained in
the top view of this rectangular which displayed the • The point should be situated in the horizontal plane
H.T. of the rectangle. and at some distance from the vertical plane.

• The point should be at situated at some distance from

the H.P. and should be situated in the vertical plane

• The Point should be located in both the H.P. and V.P.

88. Any plane can not be ––– to both the reference
planes -
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section Eng.
23.03.2003
(a) Vertical (b) parallel
(c) Inclined (d) None of these
Engineering Drawing 160 YCT
90. If a point is situated in vertical plane then
where its plan will be made ?
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil)
29.06.2008
(a) On H.P. (b) On V.P.
(c) On A.V.P. (d) On XY line
Ans. (d) : If a point is situated in vertical plane then its
plan will be obtained on the XY line and the front view
of this point will be obtained at some distance from the
XY line.
91. In horizontal plane, the plan of a point will be
at the same distance from the XY line whatever
distance of this point is located from-
RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section Eng
(Mechanical) 04.01.2009
(a) V.P. (b) H.P.
(c) XY Line (d) None of these
Ans. (a) : A point is how far from the vertical plane it's
plan will be formed at the same distance from the XY
line and This point is how far from the horizontal plane
it's front view will be formed at the same distance in
V.P.
92. The projection of a point on the XY line will be
obtained when that point from the reference
plane. will be-
(a) At a specified distance
(b) at zero distance
(c) Both situations a and b are possible
(d) None of the above is possible
Ans. (b) : If a point is situated at zero distance from
both the reference plane (H.P. and V.P.) i.e. on the XY
line then both the projection (front view and top view)
of that point will be obtained on the XY line only.
The point 'a' lies on the XY line. Both the front view
and tap view of this point will be obtained on the XY
line.
93. If the front view of a point is on the XY line
then that point will be located in which plane.
RRB Bangalore Section Engineer Ans. (b) : If any point is situated in fourth quadrant then
(Civil) 01.02.2009 it will be above to the ground and in front of V.P.
(a) Vertical plane (b) Horizontal plane
(c) Profile plane (d) One the XY line V.P. then it will be situated in the third quadrant.
Engineering Drawing
Ans. (b) : If the front view of a point is on the XY line
so that point will be located in the horizontal plane.
A point A lies in the horizontal plane (H.P.) in the first
quadrant and is at a distance d from the point V.P. The
front view of this point a is located on the XY line and
the plan is obtained at a distance d from the XY line.
94. How much distance between G.L. and XY line.
G.I. and XY distance between XY has not
finite.
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil),
26.02.2012
(a) 10 mm (b) 20 mm
(c) 45 mm (d) None of these
Ans. (d) : The distance between the G.I. and XY line is
not finite.
• If is drawn only on the XY line the first angle
projection.
• And in third angle projection, the G.L. line will be
drawn at a proper distance from XY line. (at the
distance at which drawing will be made property)
Fig......
95. If the point is located on both planes then the
front view is obtained where?
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.),
26.02.2012
(a) On V.P. (b) On H.P.
(c) On A.V.P. (d) On XY
Ans. (d) : If the point is located on both planes then the
front view is obtained on XY line.
96.
If any point is situated in fourth quadrant then
it will be above to the ground and ––––– of
V.P.
RRB Jammu Section Eng. (Mech,
Elec/Elect./Telecom), 2013
(a) Behind (b) Front
(c) Above (d) Down
• If this point is above to the ground and behind to the
161 YCT
 • This point will be located in the second or third
quadrant and the actual distance from the line of this
point will be visible in the top view only.

Note - In the first angle projection the XY line itself act

as the ground line, while in the third angle projection 99. In which projection, all the three faces of the
the ground line is drawn separately at a suitable distance cube make an unequal angle reference to the
below the XY line. plane?
• If any point or object is located on the ground line RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P.Way), 20.02.2000
(G.L.), then its elevation is always obtained on the (a) Dimetric projection
ground line. (b) Trimetric projection
97. If any point is situated above the ground and (c) Isometric projection
behind to V.P., then than point will be situated (d) Perspective projection
in which quadrant. Ans. (b) : In the trimetric projection, all three faces of
RRB Bhubaneswar App. Electrical , 19.08.2001 the cube make unequal angle reference to the plan.
(a) First quadrant (b) Second quadrant
(c) Third quadrant (d) Fourth quadrant
Ans. (c) : If any point is situated above the ground and
behind to V.P., then than point will be situated in which
quadrant in third quadrant.

• In diametric projection, the two faces of the cube are

inclined at the same angle to the plane.

Note - In the first angle projection the XY line itself act

as the ground line, while in the third angle projection
the ground line is drawn separately at a suitable distance
below the XY line. • In isometric projection, all three faces of the cube
• If any point or object is located on the ground line make equal angle with the plane.
(G.L.), then its elevation is always obtained on the
ground line.
98. A point lying in the HP which top view is
above to above reference line. Then its front
view is located–
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III,
20.11.2005
(a) Above reference line
(b) On reference line
(c) below reference line
(d) Any of the above 100. Four quadrant for drawing orthographical
Ans. (b) : If a point is lying in the HP and its top view projections are numbered_____.
is above to the reference line then its front view is (a) Clock wise (b) Anticlock wise
situated on the reference line. (c) Both (a) and (c) (d) None
Engineering Drawing 162 YCT
Ans. (b) : Four quadrant for drawing orthographical • In 1st angle projection H.P. rotates in clockwise
projections are numbered anticlockwise. direction and comes below X-Y line–

• In 3rd angle projection, H.P. rotates in clockwise

• In projection process plane is rotated as clockwise direction and comes above X-Y line.
direction.
1. For drawing first quadrant projection, HP is rotated
clockwise, then it comes below X-Y line, but V.P.
remains same. Then for first quadrant–

102. With reference to given figure, for making plan

(Top View) in 1st angle as well as in third angle
the direction of looking is_____.
(a) Top to upwards
(b) Top to downwards
2. IInd quadrant, (c) Different for 1st angle and 3rd angle
(d) None
Ans. (b) : With reference to given figure, for making
plan (Top view) in 1st angle as well as in third angle the
direction of looking is top to downwards.
(∵ HP rotated clockwise and comes on VP)
3. IIIrd quadrant,

(H.P. comes above X-Y line)

4. IVth quadrant, • In first angle of projection, projections are drawn opposite
to the viewer side and in third angle of projection,
projections are drawn same to the viewer side.
• In India and Europe first angle of projections are used.
103. With reference to Fig., in the 1st angle
projection:
(a) Observer is between object and plane of
(H.P. comes on) projection
(b) Plane of projection is between observer and
object
(c) Object is between observer and plane of
projection
(d) Order of (a), (b) and (c) can be changed.
Ans. (c) : With reference to fig., in the 1st angle
projection, object is between observer or viewer and
plane of projection.

101. Two forms of orthographic projections are:

(a) 1st angle (b) 3rd angle
nd
(c) 2 angle (d) (a) and (b)
Ans. (d) : Two forms of orthographic projections are–
1. 1st angle • In this projection system, plane of projection
2. 3rd angle assumed to be a non-transparent.

Engineering Drawing 163 YCT

104. With reference to given Fig., in 3rd angle (a) (ii) (b) (i)
projection: (c) either (i) or (ii) (d) Both (i) and (ii)
(a) The object is between observer and plane of Ans. (b) : From the figure, given in question, figure (i)
projection shows the 1st angle of projection system because in this
(b) Observer is between object and plane of figure, object is lie between plane of projection and
projection observer.
(c) Plane of projection is between observer and
object
(d) Order of (a), (b) and (c) can be changed
Ans. (c) : With reference to the given fig. in 3rd angle of
projection, plane of projection is between observer and
object.

Figure (ii) shows the symbol of 3rd angle projection

because the plane is lie between the object and observer.
• In this case, plane of projection is assumed to be
transparent. 107. Choose the correct orthographic view as per
the direction shown in isometric
105. The recommended symbol for indicating the
angle of projection shows two view of the
frustum of a_____.
(a) Square pyramid (b) Triangular pyramid
(c) Cone (d) Any of these
Ans. (c) : The recommended symbol for indicating the angle
of projection shows two view of the frustum of a cone.

Ans. (d) : For an isometric view, given in question,

• Symbol of 1st angle projection–
according to shown direction.

• Symbol of 3rd angle projection–

106. Figure–(i) and (ii) below show the method of

obtaining 1st and 3rd angle projection symbol.
Which one shows the principle of 1st angle
projection symbol?
108. Find out the plan/top view of the object as per
the direction of arrow in isometric view?

Engineering Drawing 164 YCT

Ans. (a) : The plan/top view of the given object as per • The line X-Y of intersection of both principal
the direction of arrow in isometric view in given figure. planes is known as reference line.
• When drawn the projection of object on drawing
paper, reference line works as basic line between
plan and elevation.
112. Figure given below shows_____principal planes
for orthographic projection.
It's orthographic views are–

109. An object is shown by more than one views in a (a) 4 (b) 3

drawing. It is called_____. (c) 1 (d) 2
(a) Isometric projection Ans. (d) : Figure given in question shows 2 principal
(b) Oblique projection planes for orthographic projection.
(c) Perspective projection • These principal planes are – (1) Horizontal plane
(d) Orthographic projection (HP) (2) Vertical plane (VP).
Ans. (d) : An object is shown by more than one views 113. In the figure the shaded vertical plane is known
in a drawing. It is called orthographic projection. as_____.
• In this projection, projectors (or sight rays) are
parallel to each other and perpendicular to the plane.
Fig.
110. Orthographic projection is a_____projection.
(a) One view (b) Two view
(c) Multi view (d) Four dimensional
Ans. (d) : Projection in which when the projectors are
parallel to each other and perpendicular to the plane, is
called orthographic projection. (a) HP (b) VP
• This projection is a multi views projection because (c) AVP (d) All of these
in this projection for the complete description of the
Ans. (c) : In the figure given in question the shaded
3D object at least two or more than two projections
vertical plane is known as AVP.
are drawn.
• This plane is used for showing or drawing the side
• Front view projection is drawn on vertical principal
view of an object.
plane, top view projection on horizontal plane and
other any side view projection on an auxiliary plane. 114. We can draw the orthographic projection
in_____angles.
111. The two principal planes (HP and VP) are
............ degrees to each other. (a) 1st and 2nd (b) 1st and 3rd
st th
(a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2nd and 4th
(c) 90° (d) 180° Ans. (b) : We can draw the orthographic projection in
Ans. (c) : Two principal planes (HP and VP) intersect 1st and 3rd angles.
to each other at 90o. • We can not draw the orthographic projection in 2nd
and 4th angles because, in this system–
nd
2 angle projection,

Engineering Drawing 165 YCT

• When we draw orthographic projection, HP and VP
both come above X-Y line.

• Hence front and top view projections both are

overlapped to each other.
4th angle projection, • From the figure, object (1) is placed below HP and
object (2) is placed on HP.
• When the object is placed in 3rd quadrant the
projection of that is called 3rd angle of projection.
118. Figure below shows the principle of_____angle
projection.
• When we draw orthographic projection, HP and VP
both come below X-Y line.

• Hence front and top view projections both are

overlap to each other.
• Due to this difficulty we can not use these systems
in orthographic projection.
115. On auxiliary vertical Plane (AVP). _____view
is projected. (a) 3rd (b) 1st
(a) Front (b) Top (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) Side or end (d) Any one of these Ans. (b) : Figure above (given in question) shows the
Ans. (c) : Side or end view is projected on auxiliary principle of 1st angle projection, because the object is
vertical plane (AVP). situated between the plane of projection and viewer or
• Some times some features of an object lie on its left observer.
or right side. Top and front views will not be • In this case, projection of plane considered to be
sufficient to show these features in their true shape. non-transparent.
In such cases, the objected is projected either on a 119. Figure below shows the principal of_____angle
left or right side plane. orthographic projection.
• This side plane is known as auxiliary plane.
116. In 1st quadrant (i.e. for 1st angle projections)
the object is placed_____.
(a) On HP (b) Above HP
(c) Below HP (d) (a) or (b)
Ans. (d) : In 1st quadrant (i.e. for 1st angle projections)
the object is placed above H.P. and some times on HP.

(a) 1st (b) 3rd

(c) 4th (d) 2nd
Ans. (b) : Figure given in question shows the principle
of 3rd angle of orthographic projection, because plane of
• From, the figure, object (1) is placed on HP, and (2) projection is situated between object and observer.
is above HP and in front of VP.
117. In 3rd quadrant (i.e. for 3rd angle projections)
the position of the object with reference to HP
is_____.
(a) On HP (b) Below HP
(c) above HP (d) (a) and (b)
Ans. (d) : In 3rd quadrant (i.e. for 3rd angle projections)
the position of the object with reference to HP is on HP • In this projection system, plane of projection is to
or below HP. be considered as transparent.

Engineering Drawing 166 YCT

 EXAM POINTS
A geometrically represented image of an object Orthogonal projection is also known as –
obtained on a surface or place is called 2D projection
Projection of the object Pictorial projection is also knows\n as single view
The straight lines, which are drawn from various projection where as orthogonal projection is known
as– Multi view projection
points on the contour of an object to meet a plane is
called as – Line of sights, Perspective, axonometric and oblique projections
comes in the category of – Pictorial projections
or projection rays
One point, two point & three point projections are
or projectors the types of – Perspective projection
The straight lines from the object to the projection In perspective projection, when any of principal axis
plane are called as – Projectors intersects with projections plane ( or has one
or Projection rays vanishing point) is called –
In the projection of an object, according to One point (Parallel) projection
projection rays, they are classified in two types When projection plane intersects two of Principal
which are – Prospective or central projections axis (or it has two vanishing points) is called–
and parallel projections Two point (Angular) Projection
According to obtaining views of an object in In perspective projection , when all three axis
projection process, types of projection are classified intersects with projection plane, there is no any
as – Single view projections principal axis which is parallel to projection plane (
i.e. it has three vanishing point) is called–
and multi view projections
Three point (oblique) projection
Parallel projections are those, in which projections
Realistic view of a 3D object is provided by–
rays are – Parallel to each
Pictorial projection
other
The projection in which, projections are not
In parallel projections, observer is situated at what perpendicular to the plane of projection one
distance from the object – Infinite distance dimension ( i.e. front face) of the object is parallel to
Perspective projections are those, in which horizontal, second is vertical to the horizontal and
third is at an angle of 30° or 45° to the horizontal is
projection or visual rays are – Converge at a called– Oblique projection
point (called view port) In oblique projection, one dimension (i.e. front face)
In perspective projections, observer is situated at of the object is shown in equal shape and size
what distance from the object – Finite distance because it is – Parallel to horizontal
In parallel projections, size of projections is – Oblique projections are generally in 3 types which
Equal to the size of object are – Cavalier, Cabinet and
In perspective projections, size of projection is – Clinographic Projections
Smaller than the size of object In oblique projection, the projection in which
projection lines make an angle of 45° with the plane
Applications of the parallel projections are in – of projection , all dimensions are in full size but one
Architecture, computer aided designs etc. makes 45° angle to the horizontal is known as –
Applications of the perspective projections are in– Cavalier projection
Animation, visual simulation etc. In oblique projection, the projection in which
The projection in which the description of the object projection line make an angle with the projection
is completely understood in one view is known as – plane, it becomes about 1 both the are s by
2
Pictorial Projection decreasing scale is knows as– Cabinet projection
The projection which shows all three dimensions in
In cavalier and cabinet projections, main face of the
on view called as –
object is made parallel to projection plane (or
Pictorial projection are view parallel to horizontal axis) but the projection in
Pictorial projection is also known as– which main face is stated an angle , is known as –
3D projection Clinographic projection

Engineering Drawing 167 YCT

 In perspective projection, the projecting lines or Isometric view is drawn by the use of –
visual rays converge at a point hence it is termed as Actual scale
–
Isometric scale converts true lengths of the object
Convergent projection
into isometric lengths which are foreshortened to–
Perspective projection are not used by engineers for 8.816 times of actual length.
manufacturing because –
Length of isometric scale is equal to the –
This view does not reveal
The exact size and shape 2 (approx 0.816) time the length
3
The projection which may be used in marketing
where a natural view of a product is desirable is – of actual scale
Perspective projection In isometric projection, when lines are drawn
parallel to isometric axes, the length are
The projection in which only one view showing al foreshortened to – 0.816 times to actual length
the three dimensions of an object when it drawn on a
projection plane and the orientation of object is kept Generally in isometric projection of an object the
in such a way that its three mutually perpendicular dimensions of its length and width are at an angle of
edges will remain inclined to the projection plane, is 30° to the horizontal and the dimensions of height
called – are at – 90° to the horizontal
Axonometric projection The dimensions of projection in isometric projection
In axonometric projection, projection lines are are – 18.4% less than the actual
parallel to each other and perpendicular to which dimensions of the object
plane – Projection plane Isometric view of a circle is – Ellipse
In this projection, observer situated at– a square will appear on a isometric drawing as a –
Infinite distance Rhombus
Axonometric projection are generally three types A rectangle will appear on a isometric drawing as a
which are – Isometric, diametric – Parallelogram
and trimetric projections
In drawing which view shows the actual size of an
An axonometric projection in which, if all three object – Isometric view
faces of a cube make unequal angles with plane, is
known a – Trimetric projection In cavalier projection, ratio between the length of
principal face lines and lines is – 1:1
An axonometric projection in which, is only two
faces of a cube make equal angle with plane, it is In cabinet projection, ratio between the length of
known as – Diametric projection principal face lines and reducing lines is – 2:1
An axonometric projection in which, when all the The size of isometric projection of an object is
three faces of a cube make equal with the plane, it is ............ than size of isometric view – Smaller
known as – Isometric projection Vertical edges of an object is shown by ....... in
The projection in which an object is inclined and isometric view – Vertical lines
tilted in such a way that all its mutually At the time of isometric projection, of an ellipse, it is
perpendicular planes are equally inclined to the drawn by the method of– Four centre method
observer, is known as – Isometric projection
An object, which is asymmetric , generally shown
Two isometric axes are inclined to each other at – by – 3 views
120° Perspective projection are generally used in –
Isometric axes are inclined to horizontal or base line Civil Engineering
at – 30°
For the projection of any object which elements are
Isometric axes are inclined to vertical at – 60°
necessary – Object, observer
The lines which are parallel to isometric axes are
projection plane projector
termed as – Isometric lines
For the easily making of isometric view and easily
The line which are parallel to isometric axes are
termed as – Non- isometric lines measurement of dimensions from the drawing which
scale been used now a days – Read scale
The planes representing the faces of the cube as well
as other planes are parallel to these planes are For isometric projections, which scales are used–
termed as – Isometric scales Isometric scales
Engineering Drawing 168 YCT
 Generally the types of pictorial projection which is
used by architecture is – Isometric projection
The value of isometric factor is – 0.816
The view in which all three plane faces makes
unequal angle with each other is– Trimetric view
In oblique view – One face is parallel to H.P.
and other is inclined to H.P.
In oblique view, the receding line is mostly
inclined........... the H.P. – 45°
In oblique view, the lines which are inclined, are
called – Receding lines
Pictorial projection are used generally in –
Architectural
or Surveying works
In object projection, the dimensions of the object
which are parallel and vertical from horizontal seen
like – Larger than true length
In oblique projection , the dimension which is
inclined to horizontal with 30° or 45° seems like –
Smaller than true length
In isometric view, all dimensions of an abject are–
Real
Isometric projection dimensions of height are drawn
to 90° from – Horizontal
When the projections are parallel to each other and
perpendicular to the plane, the projection is called as
– orthographic projection
The projection method in which, an object is
represented y two or three view on an perpendicular
projection planes is –
Orthographic Projection
According to the no, of views, orthographic
projection is also known as –
Multi views Projection
In orthographic projection , each projection view
represents how many dimensions of an object –
2 Dimensions
For the complete description of 3D object, at least
two or three views are required. For this condition
which projection method is used –
Orthographic projection
The projection method, which is required for the
complete description of the shape on any complex
shaped object is – Orthographic projection
The shape of complete shaped object can never be
described by a single view. Hence at least 2 or 3 or
more than 3 view are required for knowing this. In
this case the used projection method is –
Orthographic projection
Engineering Drawing 169
There are four quadrant system which are made by
the intersection by planes. They are–
1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th quadrant systems
When the plans of projection are extended beyond
their line of intersection , they form–
Four quadrant or dihedral angles
The quadrants in the eng. drawing system, are
numbered as I , II, III and IV , in which direction–
Counterclockwise direction
Second quadrant is that in which object is situated–
Front of VP and above HP
Second quadrant is that in which object is situated in
– Behind the V.P and below HP
Fourth quadrant is that is which object is situated in
– Front of VP and below H.P
In orthographic projection system, there are two
reference planes used they are – H.P. and V.P
Both two principal or reference plans HP and V.P
termed as – Horizontal plane and
Vertical plane respectively
Both reference planes intersect to each other at –
90°
In orthographic projection system there are only two
projection system are used . they are –
Ist angle projection and IIIrd angle projection
is the symbol of –
Ist angle projection
is the symbol of –
IInd angle projection
is the symbol of –
IIIrd angle projection
is the symbol of –
VIth angle projection
In orthographic projection system, IInd and IVth
angle projection methods are not used due to –
Overlapping of projections
In the first angle of projection, object is situated in–
First quadrant
In the fist angle of projection , object is lies
between–
The observer and the projection plane
YCT
 In the third angle of projection, the plane of
projection lies between – Observer and object
The plane of projection of third angle of projection
method is assumed to be–
Transparent
The plane of projection of first angle of projection
method is assumed to be – Non-transparent
When the principal plans (i.e. HP and V.P) intersect
to each other, the intersection line made by those
planes is called – Reference line
In the orthographic projection system, the reference
line is denoted by – X–Y line
HP and VP is located below and above the reference
line (X – Y line) respective in –
Ist angle of projection
HP and VP is located above and below the X – Y
line respectively in – IIIrd angle of projection
The projection system in which projection are drawn
opposite to the viewer side is –
Ist angle of projection
The projection system in which projection are drawn
same side to the viewer, is –
rd
III angle of projection
In first angle of projection, front view is draw .......
X – Y line – Above
In first angle of projection, top view is drawn in
which direction of X – Y line – Below
In third angle of projection, front view is drawn in
which direction of X –Y line – Above
In third angle of projection, top view is drawn in
which direction of X – Y line – Below
In orthographic projections, front view is termed as
– Elevation
In orthographic projections, top view is termed as–
Plan
In orthographic projection front view or elevation is
drawn on which plane – Vertical plane (V.P)
In orthographic projection, top view of plane is
drawn on which plane – Horizontal plane (H.P)
In the fist angle of projection right side view is
drawn to – Left side of front view
or elevation
In the third angle of projection, left side view of on
object is drawn to – Left side of front view
Engineering Drawing 170
In third angle of projection, right side view of an
object is drawn to – Right side of front view
In the first angle of projection, left side view of an
object is drawn to – Right side of the elevation
The plane which is used for drawing the side view of
an object is called – Auxiliary plan
Auxiliary planes are also know as –
Profile planes
In orthographic projection system, when only two
views (ie. front and top views) are not sufficient to
convey the actual shape of an object then extra view
required they called – Auxiliary views
In India , which type of orthographic projection
method is used – Ist angle of projection
The method of orthographic projection which is
used in India and Europe. is –
IST angle of projection
The method of orthographic projection which is
used in USA, is – IIIrd angle of projection
The planes on which various projection are drawn
are called – Planes of projections
The projections is orthographic projection system,
are obtained by drawing .......... from the object to
the planes – Perpendiculars
The reference line ie. X – Y line is also termed as–
Ground line
When the auxiliary plane is perpendicular to H.P.
and inclined to the V.P. it is called –
Auxiliary vertical plane (A.V.P.)
When the auxiliary plane is perpendicular to the VP
and inclined to the H.P. is called –
Auxiliary inclined plane (A.I.P.)
Projection on an auxiliary lane is called as –
Auxiliary view
The projection of the object on the auxiliary vertical
plane or profile plane is called as –
Side view of side Elevation
or profile view
Auxiliary vertical plane is also known as –
Profile plane
In parallel rays projection, observer is situated at
what distance from the object – Infinite
In parallel projection, the size of projection is –
Equals the original object
YCT
 In perspective projection, projection rays are When point is situated behind the VP, its plan will
intersect at – View point always be– Above x-y line
The projection method in which, object appear When a point is situated below H.P. its elevation
smaller the farther away they are, is – will always be– Below x-y line
Perspective projection When a line is situated in front of VP, its plan will
Application of perspective projection as – always be– Below x-y line
Animation, visual Distance from VP of any object or point be seen in–
Plan view
Applications of parallel projection are in –
Distance from HP of any object or point could be
Architecture, CAD etc.
seen in– Elevation view and side view
In fist angle of projection, reference line or X – Y
When the distance of a point from HP is x, it can be
line works as – Ground line
seen in– Elevation
In third angle of projection, ground line is situated–
When a point is situated y distance from VP it can
At some finite distance
be seen y distance from x-y line in– Plan
below X – Y line
In any quadrant, maximum possible position of a
When the object is shown by its front face view is
point will be– 4
known as – Front view
When a point is situated in vertical plane (VP) its
Side view is also known as –
plan will be– On the x-y line
End view, or profile view
When the plan of a point is x distance from x-y line
In orthographic projection , when the plane of it will be distance from– VP
projection is situated between point of right and
When the projection of a point is in x-y line,
object , its projection seems like –
Smaller than original size , it will be situated–
In orthographic projection, when the object is Both on the plane
situated between the point of sight and plane of When the elevation of a point is in x-y line, i.e.
projection, its projection like –
, it will be situated in–
Larger than original size
When the observer or point of sight is situated at
infinite distance, the projection become –
Horizontal plane (HP)
Parallel to each other
When a point is situated both on the plane, its
Point is defined as a circle which has– projection will be– In x-y line
Zero radius
X-Y line is also known as– Reference line
Point is represented on drawing sheet by– Dot
When a point is situated in fourth quadrant, its
When two or more than two non-parallel lines position will be below HP and– In front of VP
intersect, at the intersection what is produced–
When a point is above ground and behind VP it is
A point situated in– Third quadrant
A point may be situated in space in which When a point is above HP and behind VP it will be
quadrants– Any one of the four quadrants situated in– Second quadrant
A point is situated below HP, its elevation is ...... When a point is above ground and in front of VP, it
from the x-x line– Below will be situated in– Fourth quadrant
The plan of a point is found below to x-x line, it will Shortest distance between any points is termed as–
be situated– In front of VP
Straight line
In projection of a pint in orthographic projection
The locus, made by a moving point in a specific
method, when point is situated above HP, its
direction is called as– Straight line
elevation will always be– Above x-y line
Engineering Drawing 171 YCT
 A line may occupy how many number of positions
in space with respect to HP and VP–
An infinite number
When a line is parallel to both plane i.e. HP and VP.
Its plan and elevation both will be–
A line of actual length and parallel to x-y line
When a line is perpendicular to H.P. Its top view
will be– A point
When a line is perpendicular to V.P., its ............
view will be perpendicular to x-y line– Top view
No any line can be in ............ position with both
reference plane– Perpendicular
When the elevation of a line shows a line of true
length, it is possible only when line is ........... to
V.P.– Parallel
A line is placed inclined to HP and parallel to VP, its
true length will be seen in– Elevation
When a line is placed parallel to HP and inclined to
VP, its true length could be seen in–
Plan view or top view
Front and top views of a line have been shown
below and above the x-y line respectively. This
projection is drawn in– Third angle
When the top view of a line is point, its front view
will be– A line of true length and
perpendicular to reference line
During projection process, the true length of a line
can be found when this line is ................ to that
plane– Parallel
When a line is parallel to both principal plane (i.e.
HP and VP) its side view will be– A point
When a line is parallel to both HP and VP, its front
view will be–
A straight line, parallel to x-y line
The front view of a line, when the perpendicular to
VP, will be– A point
o its plan and elevations both have–
When a line is laying VP and inclined to HP to 8 ,
its top view will be– A line smaller than true
length and in the reference line
A 25 mm long line has 25 mm long straight line in
plan and elevation both. It can be placed between
HP and VP in such a way that–
It is parallel to both HP and VP
Engineering Drawing 172
When a line is contained by both the planes, its top
and front views will be–
Both are in x-y line
When a line is perpendicular to VP and parallel to
HP, its side view will be–
A straight line of true length
When a line is perpendicular to HP and parallel to
VP, its side view will be–
A straight line of true length
When a line is situated parallel to both principle
planes, its side view will be– A point
When a line is situated parallel to HP and inclined to
VP, its front view will be–
A line smaller than true length
and parallel to x-y line
When a line is situated parallel to VP and inclined to
HP, its front view will be–
A line of true length and inclined to x-y line
When a line is contained by horizontal plane and
situated some distance from vertical plane. Its top
view will be– A line of true length
When a line is contained by VP and situated some
distance from HP, its front view will be–
A line of true length
When a line is contained by both the principal
planes (i.e. HP and VP) then–
Its FV and TV coincide to each other in x-y line
When a line is placed perpendicular to HP, then it
always be parallel to– Both VP and AVP
True size of a line is found in which plane where it
is– Parallel
When a line is situated parallel to HP and
perpendicular to VP, its top view will be–
A line of true length perpendicular to x-y line
When a line is inclined to both the principal planes,
its– Both top and front view will be a line
smaller than true length and inclined to x-y line
When a line is inclined to both the principal planes,
Angles greater than the true inclinations
When a line is inclined to both the reference planes,
its true length will be found in– Side view
The inclination of the projections that represent the
apparent lengths are known as–
Apparent angles
YCT
 02.
Occupational Safety and Health
1. Accident- (iv) Ignorance– There is a possibility of an accident
Unknowingly the incident which has uncontrollable even if you do not have complete knowledge of the
and sad consequences is called an accident. equipment.
(v) Curiosity– Curiosity is ingrained in human
• Workplace accidents of industrial accidents are only
nature. The more curious person becomes the victim of
those that occur due to errors in working conditions and
an accident therefore it has to be controlled by the
work performance system.
artisans working in the factories.
Causes of Industrial Accidents- Skilled human (vi) Unsafe Hand Tools– Due to improper
labour always works in a protective manner. To keep maintenance of machines, machines are also used in
yourself safe, it is necessary to have knowledge of the unsafe condition which becomes the cause of accident.
causes of accidents. In general, the main causes of Like- torn glove, mushroom headed chisel and split or
accidents are as follows- cracked handles or file etc.
(i) Carelessness– Most of the accidents in factories are
due to carelessness. While working, along with the
concern of the work, the artisan should also take
adequate care of his own and other's safety.

(ii) Loss of Interest– Sometimes the worker loses

interest in the work. In such times the chances of an (vii) Unsafe dress– Use of loose clothes, tie, muffler
accident are high. etc are also prohibited in the factory because all these
also come under the category of unsafe wear. Clothes
should be use as per the requirement of the factory.

(iii) Hastiness– Due to the pressure of the factory (viii) Unsafe Lay-out– At the time of installation of
owner or for his greater profit, the worker work faster various machines in factories, sufficient space should be
than requirement. Due to this the chances of accident left for them. Sometimes, accidents may occur due to
increase. insufficient space.
Occupational Safety and Health 173 YCT
 (iii) Dettol
(iv) Tincture Iodine
(v) Bernol
(vi) Sniffing salt
(vii) Medicated plaster
(viii) Cotton, hemp (net cloth)
(ix) Scissors, knives, safety Pin
(x) Triangular and round bandage
(xi) Medicine glass
(ix) Wrong Method of Working– Unintentionally, (xii) Drapers
many time the artisan adopts the wrong way of working. (xiii) Bamboo sticks
For example, filing with a sand paper without a handle etc. (xiv) Stretcher
(x) Lack of Cleanliness– Accidents can happen due (xv) Potassium permanganate
to improper cleaning of the shop floor. For example, Basic Life Spot– A person who is given first aid is
slipping foot on oil, stumbling anywhere etc. called a 'Basic life spot' by doctors : There are three
(xi) Lack of Discipline– Due to lack of discipline, actions in the basic life spot, which are denoted by the
the Funniment made by the employee become the cause first three letters of English A, B and C.
of accident. (i) A for Airway– Under this, it is ensured that the
(xii) Improper Arrangement of Light– Accidents victim's airway is not closed due to any foreign/other
happen due to lack of light, where the artisan works on objects.
the machines. There should be adequate lighting (ii) B for Breathing– Under this, it is ensured
arrangement. whether the victim in breathing or not. If not, he is given
(xiii) Illness or Tiredness– Sometimes the workers artificial respiration.
comes to work despite being sick or weak due to (iii) C for Circulation– Under this, it is ensured that
financial constraints and can fall due to dizziness or the pulse of the victim is running or not. If there is no
weakness, which comes under the category of accident. pulse then CPR (Cardiopulmonary resuscitation) is given
(xiv) Special precautions should not be taken to victim.
with danger substances– Special precautions should be
taken in the factories where explosive, acid or
inflammable of poisonous gases are used.
(xv) Toxication– Working in a factory while
intoxicated one has to control the accident. Such artisans
are not only themselves victims of accidents, but can also Artificial Respiration Process– If a victim is not
be danger to others. breathing, then he is given artificial respiration by the
2. First-Aid- following methods-
On the time of sudden accident or illness, the
(A) Schaffer's Method
necessary treatment given to the injured person before
(B) Sylvester's Method
reaching the doctor or taking him to the hospital is called
(C) Labord Method (Mouth to mouth respiration)
first aid. It is necessary to give proper training of Basic
(D) Artificial Respiration method
first aid to the employees working in the workshop, so
(A) Schaffer's Method– This method is used when the
that the victim can be saved easily. For this it is
victim has blisters on his back.
necessary to have the following information-
• In this method, the victim is made to lie down on his
First Aid Box– A red (+) sign is made on the first aid
stomach, and a thin pillow is placed under his chest.
box. • In this method, the following two conditions are
used to fill the body of the victim with breath-
(i) First position– Kneel down near to the knee of the
victim with his face towards his head.
• Turn the head to one side so that the mouth and nose
remain away from the ground.
• Place both your hands on the victim's back in such a
First Aid Box Material– The materials and way that both hands remain straight and all four
medicines used in first aid are as follows- fingers meet each other and they form a right angle
with the thumb.
(i) Acriflavine or Mercurochrome
(ii) Spirit ammonia

Occupational Safety and Health 174 YCT

 (C) Labord Method– It is also known as mouth to
mouth respiration. In this method, respiration is
completed by filling air directly in the mouth of the
victim.
• Mouth to mouth respiration is accomplished by
following two positions-
(ii) Second position– While leaning forward in this (i) First Position– Make the victim lie down on his
position, apply pressure on the victim's back. This back. Now put a pillow etc. under the victim's back, so
courses forward pressure on the victim's diaphragm and that his face hangs slightly backwards.
the air lungs comes out. Wait for two second and sit
down to release the pressure.
• Again lean over and apply pressure. In this way, keep
repeating this action 10-12 times per minutes until the
breathing becomes normal.

(ii) Second Position– Clean the victim's mouth

thoroughly. Now cover his open mouth with a cloth and
close his nose with one hand and forcefully blow air his
mouth. Take care that the air is out and his lungs expand
a bit. After letting out the air, remove your mouth. Keep
(B) Sylvester's Method– This method is used when repeating the above activity at the rate of 10-12 times per
there are blisters on the chest. In this method, the victim minute until his breathing becomes normal.
is made to lie down on his back. After this a pillow is
placed under his back so that his chest rises slightly and
his head is slightly lowered.
• The following two positions are adopted for giving
breath to the victim-
(i) First Position– Get down on your knees near the
victim's head. Tie half the fists of both his hands and
spread the heads straight. Now slowly bend both the
hands of the victim and bring them on his chest. Note- Out of the above three method, the third
method is becoming more prevalent because this method
can be started immediately. Along with this, it is an
effective method and it is not necessary to continue it for
a long time, while the first and second method may have
to be continued for more than an hour.
(D) Through Artificial Respiration Instrument–
(ii) Second Position– In the first position, apply
The air comes to the chamber after being filtered through
some pressure on the victim's chest with your hands.
the rubber value used in this device. Here, inlet and
After 2-3 seconds, remove the pressure and spread the
victim's hand towards his head open the fists. outlet values are fitted, which open, and close by
pressing and releasing the rubber values. Under this, air
is enter inside the victim through a mask placed on the
victim's mouth. It is a very simple process. In this the
rubber value is operated 15 to 20 times in a minutes.

Repeat the above activities as the rate of 10-12 times per

minute till his breathing become normal.
• When pressure is applied to the victim's chest, the
air inside the lungs is pushed out and the removal of
pressure, fresh outside air to enter the lungs. Thus,
the victim is assisted in breathing.
Occupational Safety and Health 175 YCT
3. Electric Shock– Generally, when electric current is Server muscle contraction,
4. 20 to 50mA
established across our body at a voltage of more than 90 breathing difficult.
volts, then we experience a shock, this is called electric Serious contraction of Heart
shock. Electrical sector is a very sensitive sector, in 5. 50 to 100mA muscle, Possible death, No
which there are possibilities of continuous accident known remedy
during work. 100mA and Severe burns, Stoppage of
6.
Cause of an Electric Shock above heart, Death certain
The main cause of electric shock is the high speed of Note- A shock caused by a current of less than 1 mA is
electric current (3×108 m/sec.) which does not adjust not felt.
with the speed of blood flow in our body and the person Safety rules for electricity– Machine operators in
gets a very strong electric shock. factories should adopt the following electrical safety
• Damages Caused to Human Body by an rules–
(i) The main switch of electricity should be installed
Electric Shock near the machine and the operator.
Due to electric shock, the following damages can (ii) Without using the plug, the machine should not be
happen to the human body, such as- operated by connecting the electric wire directly to
(i) There may be blisters on the body. the plug.
(ii) The flesh of any part may get burnt. (iii) A fire extinguisher containing carbon tetrachloride
(iii) Blood flow may occur. should be used to extinguish the fire in the electric
(iv) There may be obstruction in breathing wire.
(v) Person may faint. (iv) If any electric wire rubbing on any moving part is
(vi) A person can die due to cardiac arrest. seen, then the electrician should be called and
rectified immediately.
• Isolating a Person from Electric Contact (v) In case of any electrical fault the artisan should
(i) Switch 'off' the machine/equipment or remove the inform about it to his senior officer.
plug top from its main load or switch 'off' the main 4. Fire– Fire is a chemical reaction that occur in contact
switch of the power line. with flammable substances and heat and oxygen.
(ii) If it is difficult to do any of the above, stand on a • Important factor for the production of fire–
rubber mat, a dry wooden objector a thick plastic (i) Fuel
object etc. and pull the victim away from the electric (ii) Heat
contact. (iii) Oxygen
(iii) Carefully when getting rid of electrical contact, the Thus, in the absence of any one of the above three
victim should fall on the ground due to shock, so factors, the fire blows out.
that he does not get more hurt. • Causes of fire- The following are the causes of fire–
• The effect of electric shock on the human body (i) Loose connection of power cables.
depends on the time the current passing through the (ii) Absence of oil in the fast moving part.
body remains in contact with the electricity and (iii) Electrical short circuit or overload.
nature of the electricity (AC or DC). DC (direct (iv) Presence of flammable materials.
current) is more dangerous than AC (Alternating (v) Smoking in the factory
current). (vi) Presence of explosives.
Table related to the effect of electric current on (vii) Due to electric shock.
human body– (viii) Lack of temperature control system in heaters.
S. Current in mA. Effect of electric current (vii) Oil stained rags scattered everywhere.
N. (milli ampere) • Types of fire, methods of extinguishing and
Its shock is felt, but it is not category related table-
1. 1 to 8mA painful, that means human S. Types of Fire Remedy of Class of
can tolerate it. N. Fire-Fighting Fire
Painful shocks, but muscular 1. Carbonaceous fire To extinguish It is
2. 8 to15mA
control is not lost. (fire caused by this type of fire called
Painful shocks, Muscular wood, paper, by water, sand Class
3. 15 to 20mA control affected, so human cloth, jute and or soil 'A' Fire.
cannot tolerate it. charcoal etc.)

Occupational Safety and Health 176 YCT

 2. Oil fire (fire Foam fire It is • In this way, as a result of the chemical reaction of
caused by extinguisher called both the substances, CO2 gas is generated, which
kerosene, diesel and CO2 Class works to extinguish the fire.
and petrol). extinguisher are 'B' Fire. Note- It is used to extinguish class 'D' fire.
used to
extinguish it.

3. Gaseous fires (Fire To Extinguish It is

caused by this type Of fire called
propane, butane by Chemical Class
and LPG etc.) Like CO2, 'C' Fire.
Halon etc are
used. (c) Foam type fire extinguishers (Foam extinguisher)-
This type of device is used to extinguish the fire caused
by oily substance, but it cannot be used on electricity and
fire because both foam and water are good conductors of
4. Electric fire (fire CTC fire It is electricity.
caused by extinguisher is called • This machine produces foam along with the water
electrical wires, used to Class jet.
equipment, extinguish this 'D' Fire. • Mineral oil, soap etc substances are mixed in it with
metallic materials type of fire. Dry air pressure and filled with water to generate foam.
etc.) sand can also be • When the lever of the device is pressed, foam mixed
used. with water is generated, which extinguishes the fire
by cutting off the oxygen supply of the burning
object.

Fire-Fighting Equipment
The liquid, gas or powder that is sprayed by a fire
extinguisher is not flammable by itself, nor does it aid in
ignition.
Fire extinguishers must be available in every
workshop.
(a) Buckets filled with sand- These are used to
extinguish electrical fires. Note- It is used to extinguish class 'B' type i.e oil
• Dry sand is kept outside the workshop in buckets based fires.
painted by red colour. (d) Water based fire extinguisher (water filled
• Symbolically fire is written on these buckets. extinguisher)- This is type of device is used to
extinguisher class 'A' fire.
• It is filled with water with air pressure. Pressing the
lever produces a jet of water by which fire is
extinguished.

(b) Carbon dioxide (CO2) type fire extinguishers-

Carbon dioxide gas does not support combustion and
helps in extinguishing the fire by cutting off the oxygen
supply to the burning material.
• This type of apparatus contains sodium bicarbonate
(NaHCO3) solution and a glass bottle containing
dilute sulfuric acid (H2SO4).
2NaHCO3 + H 2SO 4  → Na 2SO 4 + 2H 2 O + 2CO 2
Occupational Safety and Health 177 YCT
(e) Dry powder type fire extinguisher- In this type of
machine powder is filled with air pressure without water.
• This powder is neither inflammable nor helpful in
burning.
• On pressing the lever of the device, the powder
extinguishes the fire by stopping the oxygen supply
to burning object.
Note- This device is used to extinguish class 'D' type
fire.
(f) Carbon tetra chloride (CTC) type fire
extinguisher (CTC extinguisher)- It is also called halon
type fire extinguisher.
• Generally, this device can be used to extinguish all
types of fires.
• This liquid envelops the burning object and
extinguishes the fire immediately by cutting off its
oxygen supply.
• It is filled with a liquid called carbon tetra chloride
(CCl4) or Bromochlorodi-Fluorometahne (BFC)
with air pressure.
• Due to the poisonous, vapour generated by this
device it is kept in open places only.
Note- These types of fire extinguishers are
especially suitable and safe to use on electrical
equipment.
(g) Soda acid extinguisher- It is used to extinguish
carbonaceous fire (such as, fire caused by wood, cloth
and other solid flammable materials). Electric fire should
not be extinguished by it because the wicked chemicals
release by it are good conductors of electricity.
Occupational Safety and Health 178
5. Safety- The literal meaning of the word safety is to be
safe. Being safe from any unwanted accidental accident,
which affects any person or the environment around him is
called safety.
• Prevention from General Accident- To prevent
accidents in the work area, it is necessary to keep the
following things in mind-
(i) Safety signs should be posted as posters.
(ii) Danger signs must be put on electrical instruments
and machines.
(iii) Every machines must have a chart of precautions
related to possible accidents caused by that
machines.
(iv) Keep buckets filled with sand extinguishing at a
proper distance from fire extinguishing plant..
(v) keep each tool in its respective tool kit.
(vi) The main switch (MCB) should be installed at such
places which are easily accessible by the workmen.
(vii) First aid kit must be in every workshop.
Types of Safety
(a) Self safety
(b) Machine- tools safety
(c) General workshop safety
(a) Self safety- Self safety consists of the following
protections-
(i) Do not work while standing under a hanging
weight, as a fall of the weight may a serious
accident.
(ii) Never work in the workshop wearing loose clothes,
tie, muffler etc. Due to these, there is a danger of
accident due to running machines.
(iii) Oil funnel should be used.
(iv) Running machines should never be repaired.
(v) One should always walk in workshop wearing
boots, because there is a danger of getting injured
due to iron waste coming out of the machines. Steel
cap boot can be used for this.
YCT
(vi) To tamper with a running machine is to invite an (v) Before making the job, its drawing should be
accident. So do not stand on the support of a understood very well.
running machine or its parts (such as touch a bolt
etc.)
(vii) If you have to work while standing near a running
machine, then you must put a safety guard on the
running machine, so that there is no fear of
accident.
(viii) Lift the load properly, use the muscles of the legs
not the muscles of the back.

Safety signs- Safety sign warn us about potential danger

and we should never ignore them. These marks can be
identified by their shape and colour-
• The safety signs are of the following types-
(a) Prohibition signs
(b) Machine-tools safety- For the safety of (b) Mandatory signs
machines and tools etc we should pay attention to the (c) Warning signs
following things- (d) Informational signs
(i) All micro meter instruments should be kept oiled (a) Prohibition signs– These circular shaped
from time to time. They must be take care of signals are made by a red border and cross bar and a
especially in the rainy season, because on the black figure on a white background.
equipment get rusted, its subtlety is lost.
• By these signs it is forbidden (Prohibited) to do
(ii) After working with the file for a one-two months, it certain types of work. For example-
should be washed, this makes the file use as longer.
(iii) It any part of any machine get damaged, it should be S.N. Signs Sign's instruction
repaired immediately. 1. By this sign it is forbidden
(iv) Whenever micrometer instruments are used, they to walk on foot.
should be kept in a safe place and separate from any
cutting tools.
(v) For cleaning the sand, you should keep a file card
2. Smoking and naked flame
with you and keep cleaning the iron particles stuck
are prohibited.
in the sand with the file card from time to time.

3. Prohibited to extinguish the

fire with water.

(b) Mandatory signs– Through these signs

(c) General workshop safety- For general protective instructions are given to the worker/artisans.
workshop safety, we should pay attention to the • These symbols are made up of a circle in the shape
following points- of a white symbol on a blue background. Examples
(i) Fire extinguisher and safety equipment should be of this are as follows-
kept ready in workshop always. S.N. Signs Sign's instruction
(ii) Smoking should not be allowed in the workshop. 1. Wear protection for head
(iii) The floor of the workshop should be neat and clean.
Oil etc should never be scattered.
(iv) While making the job, the tool should be adopted for
the measurement of the job according to its 2. Wearing a safety harness
precision; for example, steel rule for rough belt.
measurement and micrometer or vernier callipers for
fine measurement.
Occupational Safety and Health 179 YCT
 3. Wear protection for (d) Informational Symbols– Various types of
breathing. safety related information are given by these signals.
• These signs are square in shape, represented by a
white coloured figure on a green background or a
4. Wear protection for hands. red coloured figure on a white background.

5. Wear protection for feet.

6. Wear protection for hear.

7. Use adjustable guards. 6. Soft Skills– A naturally developed skill in an artisan

that is useful in an emergency is called a soft skill.
• 5'S' Concept of soft skills– The 5'S' Concept is an
combination of japanese words. Under skill training,
(c) Warning signs– Warning is given through these attention should be paid to the following five words
signs. starting with the letter 'S' and they should be put into
• These marks are displayed by making black drawing practice. Such as-
on a triangular yellow background. The warning a. Sort b. Set in order c. Shine
signs are shown in the following table- d. Standardise e. Sustain
S.N. Signs Instruction
1. for risk from fire

2. for risk from electric shock

3. for risk from poison

4. For corrosive substances Note- 5'S' concept is a circular sequence, which rises
to the process of sustainable development.
(a) Sort–
5. for risk from explosion (i) This is the first S of 5'S'
(ii) It excludes those unnecessary items from the work
system which are not necessary from the point of
view of the present production.
6. for risk from overhead (iii) It is also known as Red tagging.
(iv) Organization have many advantages from sorting,
such as- gain of valuable floor area and elimination
7. for risk from General of broken equipment, scarps and excess raw
warning materials.
(b) Set in Order–
(i) This method arranges all the items in proper form so
8. for risk from ionizing that they can be labeled easily.
radiation (ii) This method can be successful only when the first
column of 5'S' is separated from the scope (work
9. for risk from laser beam area) by sorting unnecessary items.
(iii) Painting of surface, setting of lebels, outlining of
work areas and places etc. come under the set in
order method.
Occupational Safety and Health 180 YCT
(c) Shine–
(i) This method is related to the cleaning method of the
work area and all the machines.
(ii) By working in a clean environment, workers can
easily see and understand the fault in any machine
and solve it.
(iii) Organization often establish shine goal assignments,
methods and tool etc before starting the sine pillar.
(d) Standardise–
(i) Under this, a best process is standardized in the field
of work.
(ii) Under this method, the process is standardized
which maintains all the three previous pillars.
(iii) Three steps are included under this method-
(a) Assign job responsibility of 5'S' (sort, set in
order, shine).
(b) Integrating the 5'S' functions as a regular
function.
(c) Regular checking to maintain the 5'S'.
(e) Sustain–
(i) This is the hardest 'S', the aim of which is to
maintain the proper methods and procedures.
(ii) This method focuses on defining the new present
status and work area standards of the organization.
(iii) Without this pillar, the achievements of all the other
pillars cannot be for longer. There are many tools for
this pillar, which are as follows-
(a) Signs and posters
(b) Newspaper
(c) Performance review
(d) Departmental tour.
Exam Pointer
■ Foam type apparatus is used to
- Extinguish the fire caused by
burning oily substances
■ Which tube should be kept in the first aid box for
wound healing - Betadine
■ Which class comes under fires are caused by wood or
jute - Class A
■ Name of items used in first aid
- Dettol, Tincture iodine and Burnol
■ The shape of soda acid fire extinguisher is - Cone
■ What should we use to extinguish fire in case of
electricity - Sand or soil
■ CO2 fire extinguishers are used for the purpose of
- Extinguish electrical fire
■ The shape and colour of the border of the prohibition
sign is - Circular and red
■ Which quantity of gas is reduced in the fire area by
fire extinguisher - Oxygen
■ Which is used to extinguish the fire caused by
sparking in electric wires
- CTC (carbon tetrachloride)
■ Which fire extinguisher should be used to extinguish
the fire caused by LPG gas
- Dry compound extinguisher
Occupational Safety and Health 181
7. Response to Emergencies– Workshop in industrial
training institutes is such a work area where
processes of various nature go on every minutes.
(a) Power Failure– Electrical power failure is a
common emergency situation in the workshop. During
this, the trainee's reactions should be as follows -
i. Switch off the main switch of the workshop
immediately.
ii. Try to find out the reason for this emergency.
iii. In case of the reason responsible for the emergency
is unusual, restore the power supply only after
proper prevention.
iv. Maintain patience and self control even in this
adverse situation.
(b) Fire Catching–
i. Find out the cause of the fire.
ii. In this situation inform the fire brigade and higher
officials immediately.
iii. Try to cannot the fire immediately by using suitable
fire extinguishers available in the workshop.
iv. Never use water if the cause of fire is electricity.
(c) System Failure– System failure is an accidental
disturbance generated in the system of a workshop, due
to which its functioning is interrupted and affects the
continuity of work. In such a situation, the reactions of
the trainee should be as follows-
i. Try to known the reason yourself by informing the
competent authority.
ii. Immediately deactivate the machines and
equipments related to the workshop system.
iii Check the system properly and rectify the fault
immediately if found.
■ If there is a fire of wood, cardboard or cloth at any
place, then it is used - Soda acid type device
■ The full form of BIS is
- Bureau of Indian standards
■ The shape of the surface of the information security
sign is - Square
■ Fire caused by LPG, and gas comes under
- Class 'C'
■ The symbol of the lamp on the wall is -
■ The danger of electric shock is indicated by -
■ The symbol of a sing way switch is -
■ The danger sign for electrical panel is -
■ The symbol of choke is–
■ The symbol of no smoking is -
■ What type of liquid is filled with air pressure in CTC
fire extinguisher - (CBrClF2) and (CCl4)
YCT
■ For the safety purpose, fuse should be always
connected on the - Phase wire
■ Approximately how many times should the Schaffer
method of artificial respiration be repeated in a
minute - 10 to 12 times
■ Which is necessary to use while working on live
electric line - Rubber gloves and insulated tools
■ The shape of warning signs is - Triangular
■ Which extinguisher is used to extinguish 'B' class fire
- Foam extinguisher device
■ Which extinguisher is used to extinguish petrol fire
- Foam type extinguisher
■ What type of spraying is done by fire extinguisher
- Liquid, powder and gas
■ The full form of ISI is
- Indian Standard Institution
■ What color is used for informational signs
- Green or white
■ Schaffer's method, Sylvester's method and mouth to
mouth respiration are the method of
- Artificial respiration
■ As per BIS standard, which code is used for
earthing system - IS 3043
■ The shower of cold water is suitable to extinguish the
fire of - Wood, cloth and paper
■ Which signs are used white symbols on a blue
background - Mandatory sign
■ Information security sign is - - Blisters on a particulate organ, burning of skin,
■ To rescue the person who came in contact with
electricity
- The main switched should be switched off
■ While changing the fuse wire, it is mandatory for
safety - To switch off the main switched
■ Electrician's shoes should be made of - Rubber
■ Which safety equipment comes under the category of
PPE - Gloves, goggles and safety belt
■ The best way of avoiding accident is
- Observing safety rules related
to job, machine and workplace
■ The failure of electrical power in the workshop is
usually due to - Emergency situation
■ In which type of safety sign are made of red border
and red cross bar - Prohibited sign
■ In examples of safety symbols, examples of
mandatory symbol is - Wearing head protection ■ The symbol of laser beam is
■ What should be used for cleaning the oily surface
- Sawdust ■ What should be available for fire extinguishing in
■ How do you remove a person stuck to an electric
supply wire - By rubber gloves or dry wood
■ When the current is at a very low level, the effect of
electric shock on a person will be
- Slightly burn at the contact place
■ Which drink should not be given to a person having
tremors - Tea, water and coffee ■ The first aid treatment for snake bite is
■ In which method, the patient is laid on their back and
a pillow is placed under the back - Sylvester method
Occupational Safety and Health 182
■ Which artificial respiration method is adopted when a
person is suffering from electric shock has blisters on
his back - Schaffer's method
■ If a patient does not respond well to mouth to mouth
resuscitation, the fist aider should
- Seek medical attention immediately
■ Which type of fire extinguisher is to be used on
electrical equipment or installation under fire
- Halon type
■ Which device can be used to extinguish all types of
fire - CTC fire extinguisher device
■ Who can properly operate the machines
- Skilled man labour, skilled engineer
■ Unintentional incident with uncontrollable and sad
consequences is called - Accident
■ The main cause of industrial accident is
- Inattention
■ Which important process takes place in the body to
transport oxygen from the atmosphere to the brain
and various cells of the body
- Respiration and blood circulation
■ The medical treatment given to the accident victim
before the arrival of the doctor is called - First aid
■ The effect of electric shock on human body depends
on - Line voltage
■ What types of damages can happen to the human
body due to electric shock
cardiac arrest and death, obstruction
in breathing and unconsciousness
■ Which fire extinguishers should not be used for
electrical fires - Foam type
■ ISO stands for
- International organization for standardization
■ Which part of the body should bear the maximum
weight while lifting heavy objects in the workshop
- On feet
■ Which extinguisher is used for the fire caused due to
oil, petrol or electric faults
- CTC (carbon tetrachloride)
■ Which class of fire is used to extinguish CO2 fire
extinguisher - Class B and class C
■ What can be used to neutralize acid waste in an waste
water treatment plant - Alkali
-
electrical workshops
- Fire extinguishers should be available,
buckets filled with sand should be available and
there should be an overhead tank
filled with water for water arrangement.
- To tie a cloth on the bite area and cut the
bite area to let the blood out.
YCT
■ Which type of protective equipment used to protect
head - Hard hats, Helmets
■ What to wear for the protection of the feet
- Leather shoe
■ What are we use for the protection of the eye
- Goggles, face shields and Glasses
■ What are use for protection of the body - Apron
■ Properly equipped and should be kept at an easily
■ When grinding, works man always
accessible place - First aid Box
- Stand on the side of wheel
■ Carbon terminal chlorine, carbon tetra chloride and
■ What is the range of electric current causes a heart
Chloro tetrachloride are full name of - C.T.C.
condition which results in instant death
■ The category of fire involving electric wires,
- 50-100mA
equipment and other metallic materials is - 'D' class
■ According to the factories Act 1948, part 23 which is
■ What is the best way to extinguish fire, if a person's
not a dangerous machine - Grinding machine
clothes catch fire - Cover with a wollen blanket
■ When doing electrical work, a notice board should be
■ The simplest method of artificial respiration is
used as a safety standard for - Most dangerous
- Method Sylvester's
■ In class-A fire, the causes of fire is - Wood
■ OSHA was created to - To reduce hazards
■ According to the definition of "week" under the
■ What is OSHA form 300 and when it needs to be
factory Act 1948, it is a Period of 7 days beginning at
posted-
midnight on - Saturday
Summary of previous years work related
■ Indian Boiler Act, 1923 is applicable to
injuries and diseases February 1st
- Boilers more than 100 liters capacity.
■ The physical occupational hazards to which the
■ Which tactics are used to Promote safety
welder is exposed to are
- Writing slogans
- Infrared radiation,
■ Fire is classified as - Four types (A, B, C, D)
visible radiation, noise.
■ A fire caused by liquids are classified as
■ Decibel (dB) is a unit used to measure
- Class 'B' fire
- Sound loudness.
■ Which type of fire is used to extinguish the soda acid
■ The threshold concentration of sulphur dioxide in any
extinguisher - Class 'A'
industrial activity should not be permitted beyond -
■ What should be done if there is darkness due to 5 ppm
power failure at the work place ■ Which of the following is used as antiknock
- Do not create panic, arrange alternative compound in gasoline. - Tetraethyl lead
lighting and use stairs
■ The submicron particulates (Size 0.5 to 5µn)
■ While using hammer, keep an eye on - The job
associated with smoke and fumes are very effectively
■ For respiratory protection, we use removed by - Venturi Scrubber
- Filter respirators
■ The minimum size of smoke particle is - 0.5µm
■ Which chemicals are used in foam type fire ■ The major contributor of carbon monoxide is
extinguisher - Na2CO3 + AlSO4 - Motor Vehicle
■ Symbol shown in figure represents - Prohibition sign
■ The main function of automobile catalytic converter
is to control emissions of
- Carbon Monoxide and nitrogen dioxide
■ One of the gas involved in production of carboxy
hemoglobin is - CO
■ One of the gas that easily oxidize paints, dyes, textile
fibers is - Ozone
■ Wet body has resistance - Less
■ The full name of CCl4 is - Carbon Tetrachloride
■ The meaning of 5(S) is
- Sort, set, shine, standardize distance, Sustain.
■ Symbol shown in figure represents - Warning sign ■ As per BIS standard, which code is used for
electrical wiring installation - IS -732
■ Which of the following signals is a white signal on a
blue background in the shape of a circle is
- Mandatory signal
■ Symbol shown in figure represents - Mandatory sign ■ BIS standard were set in the year - 1986
Occupational Safety and Health 183 YCT
 PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION
1. ____is a penicillin antibiotic that fights bacteria.
(a) Ibuprofen (b) Clonazepam
(c) Atorvastatin (d) Amoxicillin
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (d) : Amoxicillin is used in the treatment of
bacterial infections. It is a drug belonging to the
penicillin type antibiotic group of drugs. This
medication is used along with amoxicillin in the
treatment of bronchitic pneumonia and infections of
ears, nose, throat, skin or urinary tract.
2. _________ was discovered by the Scottish
physician Daniel Rutherford in 1772.
(a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen
(c) Chlorine (d) Helium
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (a) : Nitrogen was discovered by the Scottish
physician Daniel Rutherford in 1772. Nitrogen is the
chemical element with the symbol 'N' and atomic
number 7. Nitrogen is the fifth most abundant element
in the universe, making up 78% of Earth's air.
Chemical element Discoverer
Hydrogen - Henry Cavendish
Chlorine - Carl Wilhelm Scheele
Helium - Pierre Jules, Norman
Lockyer, William Ramsay
3. Antihistamines are found in some first-aid
boxes. When should these drugs be taken?
(a) To ease indigestion and heartburn
(b) To ease the symptoms of hay fever and other
allergies
(c) To bring relief from asthma
(d) To aid in clotting of blood
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (b) Antihistamines drugs are used to ease the
symptoms of hay fever, conjunctivitis, other allergies
and to treat insect bites or stings.
4. Paracetamol is found in first-aid boxes.
When/why should these drugs be taken?
(a) To ease mild pain and reduce high
temperature (fever.)
(b) To ease the symptoms of hay fever and other
allergies.
(c) To bring relief from asthma
(d) To ease indigestion and heartburn.
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (a) Paracetamol medicines should be taken to
ease mild pain and reduce high temperature (fever).
5. Which hazardous substance can cause lung
cancer?
(a) Arsenic (b) Herbicides
(c) Asbestos particles (d) Benzene vapours
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
Occupational Safety and Health 184
Ans : (c) Asbestos particles can cause lung cancer and
respiratory diseases. All forms of asbestos are
carcinogenic to humans. Exposure to asbestos can
cause cancer of lungs and ovaries and cancer of the
pleural and peritoneal lining.
6. Vitamin B1 is also known as_______.
(a) Niacin (b) Riboflavin
(c) Ascorbic acid (d) Thiamine
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (d) : Vitamins and their chemical names-
Vitamin Chemical name
Vitamin B1 - Thiamine
Vitamin B2 - Riboflavin
Vitamin B3 - Pantothenic acid
Vitamin B6 - Pyridoxine
7. A common drug in a first aid box is Ibuprofen.
When should Ibuprofen be taken?
(a) To aid in clotting of blood
(b) To bring relief from asthma
(c) To ease indigestion and heartburn
(d) To treat pain, fever and inflammation
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (d) : Ibuprofen medicine should be taken to treat
pain, fever and inflammation. It is a common medicine
in the first aid box. It is on the world health
organization's list of essential medicines, which are the
safest and most effective medicines required in the a
health system.
8. Which vitamin is needed for proper clotting of
blood ?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (d) : Vitamin K is required for proper clotting of
blood. Due to its deficiency blood clot does not form
due to injury on the body, which can also lead to death
of the person due to excessive bleeding. Phylloquinone
is the chemical name of vitamin 'K'. It is a fat soluble
vitamin. Its main sources are eggs, liver products, green
leafy vegetables, tomato, cabbage, soybean etc.
9. Raising the head to straighten the neck is called
________.
(a) chin tuck (b) wrist stretch
(c) pectoral stretch (d) finger fan
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (a) Chin tuck are typically one of the key
exercises recommended for keeping the head aligned
above the spine, rather than drifting forward into poor
posture. Only the chin and upper neck are the focus of a
chin tuck. Therefore, we can say that raising the head to
straighten the neck is called chin tuck.
YCT
10. If the magnitude of current passing through
the human body is as follows, then shock will
not be felt-
(CRPF Constable Tradesman Kathgodam
Electrician 07-04-2013)
(a) less than 1 mA (b) 10 to 40 mA
(c) 8 to 15 mA (d) 1 to 8 mA
Ans : (a) If the magnitude of current passing through
the human body is less than 1 mA, then shock is not
felt. The resistance of human body is approximately
1000Ω.
11. The effect of electric shock on the human body
depends on the following-
(JMRC-Electrician 2016), (IOF 2015)
(a) Line voltage
(b) Line current
(c) Line current and voltage
(d) All of the above
Ans : (a) The effect of electric shock on the human
body depends on the line voltage.
The supply of upto 90 voltage can give a reverse shock
to the human body and as the line voltage is increased
then the shock becomes more effective.
12. Which of the following are the harms that can
occur to a person due to electric shock-
(ESIC electrician-2016)
(a) Blisters on a particular body part or burning
of flesh
(b) Heart failure and death
(c) Obstruction in breathing and
unconsciousness
(d) All of the above
Ans : (d) Obstruction in breathing and unconsciousness,
cardiac arrest and death, blisters on any particular body
or burning of flesh, all these can happen to a person due
to electric shock.
13. Which of the following can be used to
extinguish an electric fire?
(UPPCL-2016, TG2 Exam Date : 26-06-2016)
(a) Water (b) Carbon powder
(c) Dry sand (d) None of these
Ans : (c) Dry sand, CO2 type extinguisher and CTC
extinguisher are used to extinguish the fire caused by
electric fire.
14. Which of the following is the cause of sparking
in an electrical appliance?
(UPPCL-2016, TG2 Exam Date : 26-06-2016)
(a) Loose connection (b) Faulty appliance
(c) Short circuit (d) Open circuit
Ans : (a) Loose connection is the cause of sparking in a
electrical appliance. Due to which the contacts of the
equipment are destroyed.
15. The background colour of informative sign is
(UPRVUNL-TG2 Instrumental-2015)
(a) Red (b) Blue
(c) Green (d) Yellow
Occupational Safety and Health 185
Ans: (c) Informative signs are rectangular in shape,
represented by a white shape on a green background or
a red shaped on a white background.
An informative sign is a sign that is used to inform
people of the purpose of an object, gives them
instruction on the use of something.
16. Which of the following fire extinguishers must
not be used for fires generated due to electricity?
(UPRVUNL-TG2 Instrumental-2015)
(a) Carbon tetrachloride type
(b) Foam type
(c) Sand filled type
(d) Carbon dioxide
Ans : (b) Foam type extinguisher must not be used for
fires generated due to electricity.
• Foam type extinguishers are the most effective and
safe extinguisher to use on fire involving flammable
liquids and solid combustible.
• The foam type extinguisher is mostly water based
with a foaming agent that generates foam on the surface
of the fuel, thereby cutting the air supply stopping the
fire.
17. ISO stands for
(UPRVUNL-TG2 Instrumental-2015)
(a) Indian Standard Organization
(b) International organization for standardization
(c) International Science organization
(d) Indian Science Organization
Ans : (b) ISO stands for international organization for
standardization. It was founded on 23 February 1947.
The organization develops and publishes
standardization in all technical and non technical fields
rather than electrical and electronic engineering which
is handled by the IEC. It is headquatered in Geneva,
Switzerland and works in 167 countries as of 2023.
18. In order to extinguish electrical fire which kind
of fire extinguisher should be used?
(UPPCL-TG2-Electrical-2015)
(a) B type (b) A type
(c) A and B type (d) C type
Ans : (d) According to NFPA (National Fire
Protection Association),
C-class fire- This includes the fire in the windings of
machines like motors generators, transformers,
domestic and power wiring, coils, wire insulation,
control panel etc. which is generated by electric
sparking.
It is controlled by the following extinguisher method-
(i) Carbon tetra-chloride fire cylinder
(ii) Carbon dioxides gas fire cylinder.
19. While lifting heavy objects in a workshop,
maximum load should be on which part of the
body ?
(UPPCL-TG-2 Electrician-2015)
(a) on the back (b) on the feet
(c) on the chest (d) on the shoulders
Ans : (b) While lifting heavy objects in a workshop,
maximum load should be on the feet of the body.
YCT
20. Which one of the following fire extinguishers is
suitable for extinguishing on electrical fire?
(UPPCL-TG-2 Electrician-2015)
(a) Water extinguisher
(b) Soda acid extinguisher
(c) Halon extinguisher
(d) Foam extinguisher
Ans : (c) Halon extinguisher is suitable for
extinguishing an electrical fire. It is also known as
CTC fire extinguisher.
21. Electrical fires should be extinguished by the
use of
(UPPCL-TG-2 Electrical-2014)
(a) water
(b) carbon tetra chloride fire extinguisher
(c) foam type fire extinguisher
(d) any of the fire extinguisher in 'b' and 'c'
Ans : (b) Electrical fires should be extinguished by the
use of carbon tetra chloride fire extinguisher.
22. Which of the following is not a type of safety in
Occupational Safety?
(UPRVUNL-TG-2 Electrical-2015)
(a) Machine Safety (b) Body Safety
(c) Work Safety (d) Road Safety
Ans : (d) Road safety is not a type of safety in
occupational safety. Machine safety, body safety and
work safety, these are comes under occupational
safety.
23. A tube of.............is kept in a first aid box for
healing of wounds.
(UPRVUNL-TG-2 Electrical-2015), (IOF 2014)
(a) Soframycin (b) Penicillin
(c) Betadine (d) Fair and Lovely
Ans : (c) A tube of betadine is kept in a first aid box
for healing of wounds.
• Soframycin is used in pain relief.
• Fair and lovely is used for removing blemishes and
spots on the skin.
• Penicillin is used for skin diseases.
24. If the fire is caused due to oil, petrol or electric
faults, the type of extinguisher used is:
(UPRVUNL-TG-2 Electrical-2015)
(a) Soda acid type (b) Foam type
(c) C.T.C (d) Carbon dioxide
Ans : (c) If the fire is caused due to oil, petrol or
electric faults then CTC fire extinguisher is used. This
type of fire extinguisher is generally used to
extinguish all types of fires, but is more suitable and
safe for electrical fires.
25. The following figure is a symbol for
(UPRVUNL-TG-2 Electrical-2015)
Occupational Safety and Health 186
(a) Fuse
(b) Fault
(c) Danger of Electric Shock
(d) Danger on Electric panel
Ans : (c) The given sign/symbol is used for danger of
electric shock.
26. For which of the following classes of fire CO2
Extinguisher are used ?
(LMRC Maintainer Electrical Exam 2016),
(IOF 2013)
(a) Class A & Class B (b) Class A & Class D
(c) Class A & Class C (d) Class B & Class C
Ans : (d) CO2 fire extinguisher is used to extinguish
class B and class C fires.
Class B fires involve flammable liquids such as
gasoline, oil, grease or solvents. The CO2 in the
extinguisher displaces the oxygen surrounding the fire,
effectively suppressing the combustion process.
Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment
such as appliances, wiring or circuit breakers. CO2 fire
extinguishers are non-conductive and can safely be
used on live electrical fires.
27. Which type of fire extinguisher is suited for
extinguishing electrical fire ?
(ISRO Technician Electrical 27.11.2016)
(a) Soda–Acid Fire Extinguisher
(b) Carbon–Dioxide Fire Extinguisher
(c) Foam Type Fire Extinguisher
(d) Water
Ans : (b) CO2, sand (SiO2) and carbon tetra chloride are
used to extinguish electrical fire.
28. Water break test is used to:
(ISRO Technician Electroplating 27.11.2016)
(a) Measure plated thickness
(b) Verify Uniformily of coating
(c) Measure electrolyte Concentration
(d) Verify Cleanliness of surfaces
Ans : (d) Water break test is used to verify cleanliness
of surfaces.
29. In an effluent treatment plant, acid waste is
neutralized by combining it with:
(ISRO Technician Electroplating 27.11.2016)
(a) Alkali (b) Water
(c) Organic solvent (d) salt
Ans : (a) In an effluent treatment plant, acid waste is
neutralized by combining it with alkali.
ETP (Effluent Treatment Plant) is a process design for
treating the industrial waste water for its reuse or safe
disposal to the environment.
Acid or alkali is added to the effluent to increase or
decrease the pH.
30. The given sign depicts warning from..............
(UPPCL Technical Grade-II Electrical 11.11.2016)
YCT
 (a) Ionizing radiation (b) Risk of exposion
(c) Laser beam (d) Electric shock
Ans : (c) The given sign depicts warning from laser beam.
31. The background colour of Informative sign is
............and is...............is shape.
(UPPCL Technical Grade-II Electrical 11.11.2016)
(a) greenk, circuler (b) white, circuler
(c) green, square (d) white, triangular
Ans : (c) The background colour of informative sign is
green and square in shape.
32. Which of the following signs have both border
and a cross in between, painted with red colour?
(UPPCL Technical Grade-II Electrical 11.11.2016)
(a) Prohibitive sign (b) Mandarory sign
(c) informat sign (d) Warning sign
Ans : (a) Prohibitive sign have both border and cross in
between, painted with red colour. The background of
the prohibitive sign is white.
33. After an electric shock, in which of the
following methods of artificial respiration, the
affected person is made to lie on the ground
keeping the chest downwards?
(UPPCL Technical Grade-II Electrical 11.11.2016)
(a) Shaffer's method
(b) Silvester method
(c) Mouth to mouth method
(d) Use of artificial respirator
Ans : (a) After an electric shock, in the Shaffer's
method of artificial respiration, the affected person is
made to lie on the ground keeping the chest downwards.
34. Red colored border and red cross bar are used
in which type of 'safety signal' ?
(R.R.B. Ajmer (L.P.) 2004)
(a) Prohibitive (b) Mandatory
(c) Cautionary (d) Informative
Ans : (a) Red colored border and red cross bar are used
in prohibitive type safety signal. Prohibitive signs are
in the shape of circle. These signs are formed by a red
border and cross bar and a black figure on a white
background. Special type of work is forbidden by them.
35. Which fire extinguisher is used to extinguish the
fire in electrical wires?
(R.R.B. Ranchi (L.P.) 2014)
(a) water type extinguisher
(b) foam type extinguisher
(c) carbon tetra chloride type extinguisher
(d) spray of water
Ans : (c) To extinguish the fire in electrical wires, a
device containing carbon tetra chloride is used. On
pressing the lever of this type of device, spraying of air
mixed liquid starts. Generally, this device can be used
to extinguish all types of fires. This liquid covers the
burning object and extinguishes the fire instantly by
cutting off its oxygen supply.
Occupational Safety and Health 187
36. The simplest method of artificial respiration is-
(R.R.B. Ajmer (L.P.) 2004)
(a) Silvestre method
(b) Shaffer's method
(c) Mouth to mouth method
(d) None of the above
Ans : (c) The simplest method of artificial respiration is
to give mouth to mouth breathing, make the victim lie
on his back and clean the victim's mouth thoroughly.
Now, place a fine cloth on his open mouth and cover his
nose with one hand and blow air forcefully through
your mouth.
37. To rescue a person who has come in contact with
electricity-
(VIZAAG Steel, Electrician)
(a) The main switch should be turned off
(b) The wire should be cut with a knife
(c) The victim should be pushed and separated
from the line
(d) Any one of the above methods can be
adopted
Ans : (a) To get rid of the person coming in contact
with electricity, the main switch should be switched off
and it should careful that while getting rid of the
electrical contact, the victim should not fall on the
ground due to shock and should not get hurt.
38. For extinguishing fire in electrical workshops-
(CRPF constable Tradesman Himachal Pradesh
Electrician 30-12-2012)
(a) Fire extinguishes equipment should be
available
(b) Buckets filled with sand should be available
(c) There should be an overhead tank filled with
water for arrangement
(d) All the above three things should be available
Ans : (d) For extinguishing fire in electrical
workshops-
(i) Fire extinguishers equipment should be available
(ii) Buckets filled with sand should be available
(iii) There should be an overhead tank filled with water for
water supply.
39. What type of fire extinguishers are used in
establishment containing electrical equipment
and such fires?
(CRPF Overseer Electrician-2015)
(a) Foam type
(b) Halon type
(c) Gas cartridge water filled type
(d) Pressurized water type
Ans : (b) Halon type fire extinguishers are used in
installation involving electrical equipment and similar
fires. There are mainly four types of fire extinguishers-
(i) Soda acid fire extinguisher
(ii) Foam fire extinguisher
(iii) Carbon dioxide fire extinguisher
(iv) Carbon tetra chloride fire extinguisher equipments
YCT
40. Which type of fire extinguisher is used to Ans: (d) Overalls, apron and gloves should be worn to
extinguish electrical fire? protect the body.
(UPRVUNL TG-II Electrician–2016) 47. While grinding, we always-
(a) Halon fire extinguisher (HAL Fitter, 2015)
(b) Stored pressure, water filled fire extinguisher (a) stand in front of the wheel
(c) Water filled gas cartridge fire extinguisher (b) stand on the side of the wheel
(d) Foam filled fire extinguisher (c) wear goggles
Ans : (a) Halon fire extinguisher is used to extinguish (d) both (b) and (c)
electrical fire.
Ans : (d) Always stand on the side of the wheel while
41. The first Aid in case of snake bite is.............. grinding with a grinder at the work site as the sparks
(ISRO Technician Plumber 27-11-2016) coming out of the wheel can harm you and wear eye
(a) Pour water on wound glasses.
(b) Put anti septic on wound 48. Which of the following is not being included in
(c) Tie cloth around wound and cut the wound to the hand book?
bleed the blood (UPRVUNL Technician Grade II Fitter 22-09-2015)
(d) Rub the wound (a) Fundamental information's
Ans : (c) The first aid in case of snake bite- First, the (b) Directional details
snake bitten area should be tied with a rope or cloth and (c) General defects
then the wound should be bleed the blood. (d) Factories act
42. If a patient does not perform mouth breathing Ans : (d) The hand book contains fundamental
correctly, then first aid should be done as information, directional details and general defects and
follows- does not contain factories act.
(BHEL Hyderabad Fitter, 2014)
49. Match the following given lists :
(a) Seek medical help immediately
(UPRVUNL Technician Grade II Fitter 22-09-2015)
(b) See broken bones
(c) Keep the body warm with blanket List-I List-II
(d) Cheek pulse and eye sight (Type of fire) (Fuel)
Ans : (a) If a patient does not perform mouth breathing A. Class A fire 1. Gas & liquefied gas
properly, then first aid should be seek medical help B. Class B fire 2. Wood
immediately. C. Class C fire 3. Metalsb
43. To protect the head, we use D. Class D fire 4. Flammable liquids
(IOF Fitter, 2016) (a) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3
(a) hard hats (b) helmets (b) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(c) caps (c) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2
(d) both (a) and (b) above (d) A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1
Ans : (d) To protect the head, we use hard hats and Ans : (a) Type of fire Fuel
helmets, which covers the entire head and protects the
A. Class A fire 2. Wood
head from injury.
B. Class B fire 4. Flammable liquids
44. What do you wear to protect your feet?
C. Class C fire 1. Gas and liquefied gas
(RRB Gorakhpur ALP, 21.10.2001)
(a) Slippers (b) Canvas shoe D. Class D fire 3. Metals
(c) Leather shoe (d) All of the above 50. What is the range of electric current causes a
Ans : (c) To protect the feet leather shoes should be heart condition which results in instant death?
wear while working in the workshop, which prevents (UPRVUNL Technician Grade II Fitter 22-09-2015)
the feet from being pricked. (a) 10-20 mA (b) 50-100 mA
45. To protect eyes, we use- (c) 100-110 mA (d) 20-50 mA
(IOF Fitter, 2015) Ans : (b) The range of electric current causes a heart
(a) Goggles (b) Glasses condition which results in instant death is 50 to 100
(c) Face Shields (d) All of the above mA.
Ans : (d) For the safety of the eyes goggles, glasses and 51. According to the factories act 1948, section 23.
face shields should be worn while working in the Which machine is not a dangerous machine?
workshop which keeps the eyes safe. (UPRVUNL Technician Grade II Fitter 22-09-2015)
46. To protect body, we use- (a) Circular saw
(CRPF Constable Tradesman, 2016) (b) Milling machine used in metal trades
(a) Overalls (b) Gloves (c) Power press other then hydraulic press
(c) Appron (d) All of the above (d) Grinding machine
Occupational Safety and Health 188 YCT
Ans: (d) According to the factories act 1948, section
23, grinding machine is not a dangerous machine.
52. Type of fuel for fire of Class 'A' type:
(SRO Technician-B Carpenter 27-11-2016)
(a) Gas and liquefied Gas
(b) Flammable liquid & liquified solids
(c) Wood, cloth, Paper
(d) Fires in Electrical equipment and metal fires in industrial units-
Ans : (c) The fuel for the fire is selected is follows-
• Class A type consists of cloth paper, wood, plastic
etc.
• Class B type consists of oil, petrol etc.
• Class C type consists of inflammable gases such as
propane, butane, methane etc.
• Class D type consist of metals, aluminium,
magnesium, titanium and electric fire etc.
53. Types of fire extinguishers for Class 'A' Fire:
(ISRO Technician-B Carpenter 27-11-2016)
(a) Water filled extinguishers
(b) Foam or Dry powder or CO2
(c) Special powders
(d) Halon, Carbon dioxide, dry powder and
vaporizing liquid (CTC)
Ans : (a) Extinguishers for class A fires is water filled (v) Unsafe clothing
extinguishers.
54. Which sign board should be used as a safety
standard while doing electrical work?
(Noida Metro Maintainer Fitter 2017)
(a) Do not come in contact with extreme heat
(b) Extremely dangerous
(c) Strictly prohibited area
(d) Do not touch hot
Ans : (b) While doing electrical work, use extremely
dangerous signboard as a safety standard.
55. Class-A fire consists of fire due to:
(ISRO Grinder 27-11-2016)
(a) Wood (b) Oil
(c) Transformer (d) Chemical
Ans : (a)
Class Reason
A Class Wood, paper, leaves
B Class Flammable liquid such as oil, petrol etc
C Class Includes propane, methane etc
D Class Magnesium, titanium metal flame and
electrical fire
56. According to the definition of ''week'' under 61. Which of the following is true if
the Factory Act, 1948, it is a period of 7 days
beginning at midnight on
(HAL Fitter, 2015)
(a) Sunday (b) Monday
(c) Saturday (d) Friday
Ans : (b) According to the definition of "week" under
the factory act 1948, it is a period of 7 days beginning
at midnight on Monday.
Occupational Safety and Health 189
57. Which of the following helps in accident control?
(RRB Patna ALP, 11.11.2001)
(a) Automatic safety guard
(b) Interlock safety guard
(c) trip safety guard
(d) All of these
Ans : (d) The following measures are taken for safety
(i) Automatic safety guard
(ii) Interlock safety guard
(iii) Trip safety guard.
58. Which of the followings, leads to industrial
hazards and causes accidents?
(IOF Fitter, 2015)
(a) Noise and vibrations
(b) Poor lighting and Poor ventilation
(c) Heat and Humidity
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) Industrial hazards and accidents are caused
by-
(i) Noise and vibration
(ii) Poor light and poor air circulation
(iii) Heat and humidity
(iv) Disinterest
(vi) Haste
59. Indian Boiler Act, 1923 is applicable to
(MAZAGON DOCK Ltd. Fitter, 2013)
(a) all boilers
(b) boilers more than 100 litres capacity
(c) boilers more than 1000 litres capacity
(d) None of the above
Ans : (b) Indian boiler act, 1923 is applicable to boilers
more than 100 litres capacity.
60. Which of the following safety measures is used
to promote the safety?
(MES Fitter Tradesman, 2015)
(a) Excessive fine (b) Writing slogans
(c) Stopping the work (d) All of these
Ans : (b) 'Writing slogans' safety measures is used to
promote the safety. Some following slogans are-
(i) "Do not talk while working, other wise you will
meet by accidents"
(ii) There are three enemies of life- "negligence,
intoxicate, pollution"
(iii) "Do not leave it as luck, do not break the safety
rules".
environmentally sound products are made
through efficient processes?
(RRB Chennai/Bangalore ALP, 27.10.2002)
(a) It is unprofitable,as long as recyclable
materials prices are soft
(b) It is known as lean manufacturing
(c) It can still be profitable
(d) It is easier for repetitive processes than for
product-focussed processes
YCT
 Ans: (c) If environmentally sound product are made Ans : (a) A fire caused by gas is extinguished by dry
through efficient processes then it can be profitable. powder fire extinguisher. These are also store in
62. In how many of the following categories is fire pressure type or gas cartridge type. These are similar to
classified- water filled, the only difference is the nozzle. They are
(IOF Fitter, 2016) used to extinguish class 'B' fire i.e fire caused by gases.
(a) Two (b) One
(c) Four (d) Three
Ans : (c) There are four classes of fire which are A, B,
C and D. 'A' category of fire includes carbonaceous, 'B'
category of fire include oily substances, 'C' category of
fire include gaseous fire and 'D' category is electrical
fire.
63. In class 'A' the fire caused by-
(VIZAAG Steel Fitter, 2015) 68. CO2 is used to extinguish which types of fires-
(a) liquids (b) wood, paper (RRB Guwahati ALP, 22.01.2006)
(c) gas (d) electricity (a) Class 'A' (b) Class 'C'
Ans : (b) Class 'A' is a carbonaceous fire that is the (c) Class 'D' (d) Class 'B'
materials that made of wood, paper, cloth, rubber and Ans : (c) Dry chemical extinguisher is used on electric
some plastics. Pressurized water, foam or multi purpose fire. Usually it is plunger type. In this, sodium
(ABC) dry chemical fire extinguishers are used to bicarbonate powder is expelled through carbon dioxide
extinguish the fire. (CO2) or nitrogen gas. This is used to extinguish class
64. In class 'B', the fire caused by- 'D' types of fires.
(RRB Ranchi ALP, 19.01.2003) 69. Foam extinguisher is used to extinguish which
(a) gas (b) electricity type of fire?
(c) oily substance (NTPC Fitter, 2014)
(d) wood and paper etc (a) Class 'B' (b) Class 'D'
Ans : (c) Oily substance (fire) come in class 'B' which (c) Class 'A' (d) Class 'C'
are as follows such as gasoline, kerosene, paint thinner Ans : (a) Foam extinguisher- This type of extinguisher
etc.To extinguish class 'B' fires, flammable liquids are is used to extinguish oil fire. This fire comes in class
extinguished by removing oxygen from the fire. In this 'B'. It contains soda bicarbonate solution in the outer
way dangerous parts can be prevented from reaching container and aluminum sulphate solution in the inner
the ignition point. container a brown colored hand of about 100 mm size is
65. In class D, fire caused by- made on its body.
(MES Fitter Tradesman, 2015) 70. Which type of fire is used to extinguish soda
(a) electricity (b) wood and paper acid extinguisher-
(c) gas (d) oily substance (RRB Ajmer ALP, 23.05.2004)
Ans : (a) Class 'D' is a fire caused by electricity for (a) Class 'D' (b) Class 'C'
example, appliances, switches, electrical boxes or (c) Class 'B' (d) Class 'A'
power tools etc. Ans : (d) Soda acid extinguisher- It is used to
To extinguish this fire CTC fire extinguisher is used. extinguish carbonaceous fire. It contains class 'A' fire.
66. Electrical fire is extinguished by 71. What should be done in case of fire in the
(NTPC Fitter, 2014) workshop-
(a) Water (Sail Bokaro Steel Plant 2016)
(b) Dry powder extinguisher (a) Watch quietly
(c) Soda acid extinguisher (b) Try to get out immediately
(d) CTC fire extinguisher (c) Turn off the main power switch immediately
Ans : (d) CTC fire extinguisher- This fire extinguisher (d) Inform the fire brigade immediately
is filled with carbon tetra chloride and bromochloro di- Ans : (c) In case of fire in the workshop, the main
fluoro methane. It is used to extinguish electrical fires. electric switch should be turned off immediately after
Because its chemicals are electrical insulators, the gas is that one should go out and inform the fire brigade
also harmful. immediately.
67. A fire caused by gas is extinguished by which 72. If there is darkness at the work place due to
of the followings - power failure, then what should be done-
(IOF Fitter, 2014) (IOF Fitter, 2013)
(a) Dry powder fire extinguisher (a) do not panic
(b) CTC fire extinguisher (b) provide alternative lighting
(c) Water (c) use the stairs to get out
(d) All three of the above. (d) All of the above
Occupational Safety and Health 190 YCT
Ans: (d) If there is darkness at the work place due to 80. On what fires is used to soda acid fire
power failure, one should not get panic, find the extinguisher?
arrangements of alternate lighting and use the stairs to (Sail Bokaro Steel Plant 2016)
get out. (a) Wood's fire (b) Petrol fire
73. While using a hammer, you should keep an eye (c) Electrical fire (d) None of these
on- Ans : (a) Soda Acid Extiguisher- It is used to
(RRB Allahabad ALP, 09.12.2007) extinguish carbonaceous fire (such as fire caused by
(a) Chisel head (b) Job wood, cloth and other solid flammable materials). Fire
(c) Hammer (d) None of the above caused by electricity should not be extinguished by it,
Ans : (b) While using a hammer, you should keep an because the chemicals released by it are good
eye on the job only then you can do the right things on conductors of electricity.
the job.
81. What is category 'B' fire?
74. What is used for respiratory protection- (IOF Fitter, 2015)
(IOF Fitter, 2013) (a) Fire in wood, cotton, jute etc
(a) Exhaust Fan (b) Ceiling Fan
(b) Fire in oil, petrol etc
(c) Filter respirators (d) None of the above
(c) LPG gas fire
Ans : (c) Artificial respiration that is filter respirator
(d) Fire in metallic materials
should be used for respiratory protection.
75. Which of the following is not a cause of Ans : (b) Class 'A' fire is involving in wood, paper and
accident - (RRB Chandigarh ALP, 25.05.2003) cloth etc.
(a) inattention to danger • Class 'B' fire is caused by oil, petrol etc.
(b) Negligence • Class 'C' fire is caused by gas.
(c) Respect for safety • Class 'D' fire is involving involving materials and
(d) Wrong use of equipment electricity.
Ans : (c) Accidents in workshop can be caused by 82. Match the following given lists :
inattention to danger, negligence and wrong use of (UPRVUNL Technician Grade II Fitter 22-09-2015)
equipment, but when safety is respected then accidents
COLOUR SYMBOL TYPE
do not occur.
76. Which fire extinguisher is used to extinguish A. Red 1. Warning
the fire of oily substances? (IOF Fitter, 2014) B. Yellow 2. Mandatory
(a) Foam (b) Soda acid C. Blue 3. Prohibition
(c) CTC (d) None of the above D. Green 4. Emergency escape
Ans : (a) Foam type extinguisher is used to extinguish (a) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4
the fire or oily substances.
(b) A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3
77. Which fire extinguishers would be used to (c) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
extinguish the electrical fire?
(d) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(RRB Mumbai ALP, 05.06.2005)
(a) Soda acid (b) Foam type Ans : (a) Colour Symbol type
(c) CTC (d) None of the above A. Red 3 Prohibition
Ans : (c) CTC fire extinguishers is used to extinguish B. Yellow 1 Warning
the electrical fire. C. Blue 2 Mandatory
78. What chemicals are used in foam type fire D. Green 4 Emergency escape
extinguishers? 83. Which of these symbol is used for showing
(Sail Bokaro Steel Plant 2016) toxic hazard–
(a) Na2CO3 + AlSO4 (b) AISO4 + NHCO3 (UPRVUNL Technician Grade II Fitter 22-09-2015)
(c) NaOH + HCl (d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Na2CO3 + AlSO4 chemicals are used in foam type
fire extinguishers
79. Where are dry chemical fire extinguishers
used? (RRB Gorakhpur ALP, 12.10.2003)
(a) Electrical fire (b) Oily fire
(c) Wood's fire (d) None of the above
Ans : (a) Dry chemical fire extinguishers are used for
electrical fires. In this, sodium bicarbonate powder Ans : (b) Danger from toxic hazard is shown by the
along with carbon dioxide or nitrogen gas is spray on symbol shown in option 'b'. Many workers become
the fire. victims of drug addiction and sometimes they go to

Occupational Safety and Health 191 YCT

factory in an intoxicated state. Such workers not only
become victims of accidents but can also be a danger to
others.
84. Which of the following notation is used to
denote a regulator unit?
(Noida Metro Maintainer Fitter 2017)
(a) 3 (b) 0.003
(c) 0.3 (d) 3.0
Ans : (c) 0.3 notation is used to denote a regulator unit. 87. In which category does the symbol shown in
85. In which category does the symbol shown in the figure belong to-
the picture belong to-

(VIZAAG Steel Fitter, 2015)

(a) Mandatory Sign (b) Warning Sign
(IOF Fitter, 2016)
(c) Information Sign (d) Prohibition Sign
(a) Mandatory Sign (b) Information Sign
Ans : (b) These are called warning signs. Their shape is
triangular whose background is yellow and the symbol (c) Prohibition Sing (d) Warning Sign
and border are in black. These are used for different Ans : (a) Mandatory Sign- On seeing these type of
types of warnings. These are the following below which signs, we are reminded of security related work, that is,
their use or purpose is also written. they remind us about the safety precautions to be taken
before or after working. For example, wear glasses to
protect eyes, wear shoes to protect the feet etc.

88. In which category does the symbol shown in

the figure belong to-

86. Which category does the symbol shown in the

picture belong to
(IOF Fitter, 2016)
(a) Prohibition Sign (b) Warning Sign
(c) Mandatory Sign (d) Information Sign
Ans : (d) Informational Sign- Safety related
information is given through these types of signs. Their
(CRPF Constable Tradesman, 2016) shape is square. Their background is green and the
(a) Information sign (b) Warning Sign symbol is white the figure gives information about first
(c) Prohibition Sign (d) Mandatory Sign aid.
Ans : (c) Through these types of signs, advice is given
not to do any wrong work due to which accidents in
factories are reduced. The shape of the symbols is
circular due to which the outer roundness of the circle is
in red color and the shape made inside is in black color.
There is a red cross mark on it.
Occupational Safety and Health 192 YCT
03.
Basic Electricity
■ Electrostatics-Electrostatics is the branch of
physics that deals with stationary electric charges and
the forces between them. It explores concepts like
electric fields, coulomb law, electric potential and
capacitance.
■ Electric Charge:- Electric charge is a physical • In the process the charged object does not transfer
property carried by a matter due to which it can apply electrons to or receive electrons from the object
force on other matter particle. A charged matter can being charged. The charged object merely serves to
apply force and this force is found to be of two types polarize the object being charged.
to explain it we have to discover that charges are of • The object being charged ultimately receives a
two types - charge that is opposite that of the charged object that
(i) Positive Charge is used to polarize it.
(ii) Negative Charge (3) Charging by conduction-
Like charges repel and unlike charges attract each
other.
Basic properties of Electric Charge -
• Additive: Charges can be added by simple rule of
Algebra.
• Quantization of Charge : Electric charges on a body
is not a continuous quantity but it is integral multiple
of charge on one electron. • Charging by conduction involves the contact of a
Q = ± ne charged object to a neutral object. Hence when an
uncharged conductor is brought in contact with a
• Charge is conserved : The total charge of isolated charged conductor, charge is shared between the two
system is always conserved, it may get redistributed. conductors and hence the uncharged conductor gets
Isolated electric charge can neither be created nor charged.
destroyed, it can only be transferred. • During charging by conduction, both objects acquire
238
U = 234 Th + 4 He (Active decay) the same types of charge.
The charges in pair can be created or destroyed. • Electroscope- An electroscope is a device used to
Annihilation:- detect the presence of an electric charge on a body in
the year 1600, British physician William Gilbert
e – + e + 
→γ+ γ (Radiation) invented the first electroscope with a pivoted needle
↓ called versorium.
Gamma rays • Type of electroscope-
There are three types of electroscope
Pair Production:–
(i) Pith-ball electroscope
(ii) Gold- leaf electroscope
(iii) Needle electroscope
• Uses of Electroscope-
The various benefits of an electroscope are
Charging a body – 1. To analyze the electrostatic charges and any ionizing
radiation present in a body.
(1) Charging by rubbing or Frictional-When two
different materials are rubbed, electrons get 2. The nature of the electrical charge is measurable
transferred from one body to another body. using an electroscope.
(2) Charging by Induction - Induction charging is a 3. To compare the magnitudes of two different charges.
method used to charge object another object without ■ Coulomb's law of electrostatics -
charge.
• It is used for charging an object without actually
touching the object to any other charged object.
Basic Electricity 193 YCT
• The law states that if two point charges q1, q2 are Distribution of Continuous Electric Charge ;
separated by a distance r in vacuum the magnitude of • The region in which charges are closely spaced is
the force (F) between them is given by - said to have continuous distribution of charge. It is of
Kq1q 2 three types :-
F=
r2 Linear Charge Surface Charge Volume
1 Density (λ) Density (σ) Charge
Where K = = 9×109 Nm 2 C –2
4πε 0 Density (δ)
(ε0 = Permittivity of free space = 8.85×10–12 C2N–1m–2 ) • It is defined • It is defined as • It is defined
• The law is applicable only for static and point as the charge the charge per as the charge
charges. per unit unit surface per unit
length. area. volume.
• Moving charges may result in magnetic interaction.
• Its unit is • Its unit is • Its unit is
• If charges are extended, Induction may charge the
charge distribution. Coulomb/met Coulomb/mete Coulomb/me
er. r 2. ter3.
• K is arbitrary (we choose any positive value)
dq dq dq
• The choice of K determines the size of the unit of • λ = . • σ= . • δ= .
charge. dL dS dV
• The Separation between the charges must be greater
■ Electric Field :-
than nuclear distance.
• Electric field is space around a charge where its effect
Permittivity and relative permittivity :-
can be experienced, the effect can be strong or weak,
• Permittivity is a characteristics of a medium between we call it intensity of electric field. It is represented
two charges which affect the force between them.
by 'E'.
It is represented by 'ε' (Epsilon).
• Mathematically, Electric field produced by a charge q
Permittivity of free space is represented by 'ε0'. Its
1 q F
dimension is [M–1 L–3T4A2]. at a point 'r' is given by E = 2
ˆr = .
• Relative permittivity is the ratio of absolute 4 πε 0 | r | q 0

permittivity of medium to the permittivity of free • Unit of 'E' = NC–1, Dimension = MLA–1T–3.
space. Electric Field due to a system of Charges :-
ε
εr =
ε0
It is also given by -
Electrostatics Force in free space Electric field in free space
( ε r )m = =
Electrostatics Force in Medium Electric field in medium
It is also equal to dielectric constant k.
(i) (εr) Free space = 1.
(ii) Any medium has permittivity > 1. • If we place a unit test charge q0 near n point charges
(iii) For water 'k' = 81 q1, q2, .......... qn then the net force F from the n point
(v) For metal k = ∞. charges acting on the test charge is
Force between Multiple charges : Superposition F = F1 + F2 + F3 + .......... + Fn .
principle -
• According to the principle of Superposition total
Then net electric field at the position on the test
force on a given charge due to number of charge is
charge is-
the vector sum of individual forces acting on that
E = E1 + E2 + E3 + ......... En
charge due to the presence of other charges.
Let the charges be q1, q2, q3, ........ qn exert force F12, F1 F2 F3 F
= + + + ......... + n
F13, ........ F1n on charge q1. The total force on charge q0 q0 q0 q0
q1 is given by
1 q1 1 q2 1 q3
1  q1q 2 qq qq  E= ˆrlP + ˆr2P + ˆr3P + ........
F1 = F12 + F13 + .........F1n =  rˆ12 + 1 2 2 ˆr13 + ........ 1 2 2 rˆ1n  4πε 0 r1P2 4πε 0 r2P2 4πε 0 r3P2
4πε 0  r122 r13 r1n 
n
1 qi
∑r
n
q qi ˆriP
= 1
4πε0
∑ rˆ
2 1i
i = 2 r1i
E(r) =
4πε 0 i=1
2
iP

Basic Electricity 194 YCT

Physical Significance of Electric field -
• Electric field is a characteristics of the system of
charges. It is independent of the test charge that you
place at a point to find the field.
• Since force is a vector quantity so electric field is a
also vector quantity.
• Electric field can be detected only by its effects
(forces) on charges. It has an independent dynamics
of a force on q2. Effect of any motion of q1 and
charge q2 cannot arise instantaneously.
The accelerated motion of charge q1 produces
electromagnetic waves, which then propagate with
the speed of light c reach q2 and causes a force on q2.
Electric field lines :-
• Electric field lines are imaginary smooth curves
drawn in sphere to represent electric field over there.
Characteristic of electric field lines:-
• Start from positive charge terminate at negative
charge. These are discontinuous curve.
• Field lines are always smooth curves. Tangent at any
point gives direction of electric field at that point.
• Two lines never cross each other because if they
cross that will indicate two directions at that point
which is not possible.
• Crowding of Electric field lines indicate relative
strength of electric field.
• Electric field lines are always at right angle to the
Surface.
• Number of lines assumed to be linked with a unit
1 1
charge are = .
ε 0 8.85 ×10–12
• Lines behave like stretched string trying to decrease
their strength. this explains force of attraction
between positive and negative charges.
+ –
• The lines laterally repel each other (normal to line)
that indicate the force of repulsion between similar
charges.
Electric field lines due to different distribution
+q −q
Basic Electricity 195
• Lightning-During thunderstorm as the static charge
build up in storm cloud increases, the electric field
surrounding the cloud becomes stronger too.
Normally, the air surrounding a cloud would be a good
insulator to prevent the discharge of electrons to the
earth yet the strong electric field surrounding a cloud
are capable of ionizing the surrounding air and making
it more conductive. The ionization involves the
shredding of electrons from the outer shells of gases
molecules. These molecules that compose air are thus
turned into a soup of positive ions and free electrons.
The insulating air is transformed in to conductive
plasma. The ability of a storm cloud's electric fields to
transform air into a conductor makes charge transfer
(in the form of a lightning bolt) from the cloud to the
ground or even to other clouds.
Electric flux -
• Electric flux linked to surface area is a quantity
(Scalar) formed by intensity of field E and area normal to
it A, such that flux linked to surface area is–
• A is the surface area perpendicular to, φE = E ⋅ A
• Flux = Intensity of electric field × Area linked
φE = E A cos θ
If E is not uniform throughout the area 'A' then φ =
∫ E i dA
• It is scalar Quantity and SI unit is N-m2C–1.
• 'φ' does not depend on the -
• φE represents the number of field lines through
surfaces.
• Flux is zero for a surface parallel to the field
(Normal is at 900 to E)
(i) Shape and size of the closed surface.
(ii) The charges located outside the closed surface.
■ Electric Dipoles –
YCT
• Pair of two equal and opposite point charges attached Equipotential Surface –
at a fixed distance is called electric dipole. • Every point on a surface is at same potential called
• Na+ Cl– molecule represents an electric dipole. equipotential surface.
• Dipole Moment ( P ) = q×2l (i) Electric lines always join the equipotential surface
Where P is vector quantity its direction is along the perpendicularly.
line from negative to positive charge. (ii) Work done in moving a charge from one point to
• SI unit - Coulomb meter (Cm) other on an equipotential surface is zero.
• Dimension - [LTA] (iii) It is not affected by the path.
Dipole kept in Electric field - Weq
(iv) = VA – VB ⇒ W = 0
q
(v) Equipotentials are parallel to each other (means
does not intersect each other).
(vi) Equipotential potential surface are planer in an
uniform electric field.
(vii) In a family of equipotential surface the surfaces are
• Torque(τ) = P × E = PE sin θ
closer together where the electric field is stronger
Where θ is angle between P and E and farther apart where field weaker.
If P is along E (viii) Equipotential surface due to line charge is
θ = 0º, τ=0 (Stable equilibrium ) cylindrical.
(ix) Equipotential surface due to an isolated point
If P is opposite to E
charge is spherical.
θ = 180º , τ = 0 (Unstable Equilibrium)
■ Electric potential energy -
Work done in Rotating a dipole – The electric potential energy of a system of fixed
θ2
W = ∫ dW = ∫ τdθ = ∫ PE sin θdθ = PE [cosθ1– cosθ2] point charges is equal to the work that must be done
θ1
by an external agent to assemble the system, bringing
■ Electric Potential - each charge from infinity.
• The electric potential at a point in an electric field is
• Potential Energy of two Charge System -
the ratio of work done in carrying a test-charge from
infinity to that point to the magnitude of the test Potential energy of two point charges system, that
charge. It is given by – contains charges q1 and q2 separated by a distance 'r'
W 1 q1q 2
V= is given by U=
q 4πε 0 r
• Its S.I. unit is J/c or volt and dimension [ML T A ]. • Potential energy in a dipole –
2 –3 –1

Kq
• For point charge, V = .
r 2a
• Electric potential due to an electric dipoles
P
At axis of dipole V = K 2 .
r
On a Equatorial line V = 0
At any point a line making angle θ Potential energy of dipole is given by-
P cos θ KP.r U = – P.E cos θ
V= K = 3
r 2
r If dipole is kept along E then U is given by -
n
q U = – P.E
• For Several point charges, V = K ∑ i Where, P = dipole moment
i=1 ri
E = Electric field
Potential gradient :-
• The rate of change of potential with distance is ■ Motion of Charged Particle in electric field
electric field is called Potential gradient. • Consider a charge particle having charge 'q' and mass
dV m is initially at rest in an electric field of strength E.
• Potential gradient = , its unit is V/m. The particle will experience an electric force which
dr
causes its motion.
• Relation between potential gradient and electric field
The force experienced by the charge particle is F,
 dV  where
intensity is given by E = –   .
 dr  F = qE
Basic Electricity 196 YCT
 Acceleration produced by this force is Flux linked through surface element ∆s is
F qE q
a= = ............... (i) ∆φ = E. ∆S = ∆S
m m 4πε 0 r 2
Total flux linked through the entire surface S
q q
φ= ∫ ∆φ = ∫ E.∆S =
4πε 0 r 2 ∫ ∆S =
4πε 0 r 2
S

For sphere S = 4πr2

At point P particle is at rest and after some time 't' , it
q q q
reaches the point Q and attains velocity v which is φ = .4πr 2 = ⇒φ =
given by, v = at 4 πε 0 r 2
ε 0 ε 0

If potential difference between P and Q be ∆V and Where, q = net charge enclosed by given surface.
the distance between them is d, then Similarly for a cube
qEt 2q∆V
v= = q
m m Total electric flux linked with whole cube =
ε0
• Momentum of charge particle-
As momentum, q
and electric flux linked with one face of cube =
6ε 0
 qEt 
P = mv= m   ⇒ P = qEt
 m  • This law is especially useful in determining electric
2q∆V field when source distribution has simple symmetry.
= m = 2mq∆V
m • This law is true for closed surface only.
• Kinetic Energy of Charged Particle - • Charges outside makes the flux but net flux is only
Kinetic Energy gained by the particle in time t is- due to charge enclosed.
2
1 1  qEt  q2E2 t 2 • Use the gauss theorem with symmetrical surface to
(a) K.E. = mv 2 = m   =
2 2  m  2m calculate E at a point.
1 2q∆V
(b) K.E. = m × = q ∆V • Gauss theorem depends on inverse square law.
2 m
Note:- "Gauss's Law depends upon Symmetry, so that
■ Gauss's Law -
if we can not show symmetry exist then we can not
• According to Gauss theorem the electric flux linked
us Gauss law"
1
with a closed surface is times the charge For example Electric field due to line charge
ε0
enclosed by the surface. distribution.
Gaussian Surface (Imaginary Surface)-
• The surface that we choose for the application of
Gauss's law is called Gaussian surface.
• Gaussian surface does not applicable for discrete
charge because electric field due to a system of
discrete charges is not well defined at the location of
any charge.
• Gaussian surface can pass through a continuous
charge distribution.
• It is an imaginary surface; homogenous in nature,
symmetrical surface.

Basic Electricity 197 YCT

 Applications of Gauss' Theorem
• Electric field intensity due to an infinite line charge -
1 λ
Electric field, E = ×
2πε 0 r
λ r 
Also, Potential difference = ln  2 
2πε 0  r1 
Where λ is linear density and r is distance from
the line charge.
Electric potential for infinite line charge is not
defined.
• Electric field near an infinite plane sheet of charge -
σ
Electric field, E =
2ε 0
Where, σ = surface change density.

• Electric field for a long charged conducting cylinder-

For r≥R
q
Electric field, E=
2πε 0 r
for, r < R, E = 0

• Electric field just outside charge conductor-

σ
E= , ( E inside = 0 )
ε0
• Electric field due to two infinite parallel sheets of Charge-
σ
E= { for both sheets having same charge density}
ε0
• For non-conducting long sheet of surface charge density 'σ'-
σ
E=
2ε 0
• For conducting long sheet of surface charge density 'σ' -
σ
E=
ε0
• For uniformly Charged Spheres –
Figure Electric field (E) and electric Graphs
potential (V)
For r≥R
1 q 1 q
E= 2
, V=
4πε 0 r 4πε 0 r
for , r < R
Charged conducting solid sphere
1 q σR
E=0,V= =
4πε 0 R ε0

Basic Electricity 198 YCT

 For r≥R
1 q 1 q
E= 2
, V=
4πε 0 r 4πε 0 r
for, r < R
Charged Non conducting solid sphere
1 qr
E=
4πε 0 R 3

V=
2
1 q 3R – r(2
)
4πε 0 2R 3

1 xq
Ex =
( )
3
4πε 0 x 2 + a 2 2

1  2q 
Emax =  
4πε 0  3 3a 2 
Charged Ring On the axis of uniformly charged
ring
1 q
4πε 0 ( x 2 +a 2 )1/2
At centre x = 0
1 q
V=
4πε 0 a
for r ≥ R
1 q 1 q
E=  2 ,V =  
4πε 0  r  4πε 0  r 
For r < R
1 q
E = 0, V =  
4πε 0  R 
For conducting/ non-conducting
spherical shell

----
■ Electrostatic Shielding - • At the surface of charged conductor electrostatic field
must be normal the surface at every point.
• The interior of a conductor can have no excess charge
in the static situation.
• Electrostatic potential is constant throughout the
volume of the conductor and has the same value on
its surface.
• Electric field at the surface of charged conductor is
σ
.
ε0
• Any cavity in conductor remains shielded from ■ Millikan’s Oil Drop Experiment :-
outside electric influence (i.e. field inside the cavity is • Millikan allowed charged tiny oil droplets to pass
always zero). This is known as Electrostatic through a hole an electric field. By varying the
Shielding. strength of the electric field the charge over an oil
■ Electrostatic of Conductor :- droplet was calculated, which always came as an
• Inside a conductor, electrostatic field is zero. integral value of 'e'.
Basic Electricity 199 YCT
 • The capacitance depends only on the geometry of the
conductors and not on an external source of charge or
potential difference.
Energy store in a charged capacitor - Energy
stored in a charged capacitor is defined as the total
amount of work in charging the capacitor stored up in
the capacitor in the form of electrical potential
Calculation: energy.
Fup = Fdown
Fup = Q.E 1 1 Q2 1 2
V = CV2 = = Q
Fdown = m.g 2 2 C 2
Q is an electron's charge, E is the electric field, m is
the droplet's Q.E = m.g
m.g Factors affecting capacitance-
Q= The value of capacitance depends upon the physical
E
Conclusion: features, area of the capacitor plates 'A' distance
The charge over any oil droplet is always an integral between the plates 'd' and the permittivity of the
value of e (1.6 × 10–19). Hence, the conclusion of A
dielectric medium 'E' C = E ×
Millikan's oil Drop Experiment is that the charge is α
said to be quantized, i.e. the charge on any particle
• Surface area - Higher the value of the surface area,
will always e or an integral multiple of e.
the higher the capacitance.
Capacitance and Capacitors • The distance, d between the two plates. The smaller
■ Capacitor :- A capacitor is a device that stores the distance, the greater is the capacitance.
electrical energy. It consists of a pair of conductors of
any shape and size carrying charges of equal • Dielectric material - The type of material separates
magnitudes and opposite signs and separated by an the two plates called the "di-electric" the higher the
insulating medium. permittivity of the dielectric, the greater is the
capacitance.
Uses of a capacitor-
The capacitors have both electrical and electronic
applications. They are used or several things such as
filters, energy storage systems, engine starters, signal
processing devices, etc.
• Capacitors are used for storing energy, which can be
used by the device for temporary power outages
whenever they need additional power.
• Capacitors are used for blocking DC current after
getting fully charged and yet allow the AC current to
pass through the circuit of a circuit.
Capacitance of a Capacitor -
• Capacitors are used as sensor for several things like
• The ability to store charge by a capacitor is called
capacitance of the capacitor. measuring humidity, fuel levels, mechanical strain etc.
• It is also defined as the amount of charge required to • Capacitors can be used in a time dependent circuit.
raise the potential of the capacitor by one unit (In SI This could be connected to any LED or loudspeaker
one volt). system, and it's likely that only flashing light/regular
If 'Q' is the amount of charge given and 'V' is beeping uses a timing capacitor.
potential of capacitor, then capacitance of the Dielectric and Polarization :-
capacitor is given by
Q
• A dielectric is an insulating material in which all
C= . electrons are tightly bonded to the nuclei of the
V
atoms. Hence free movement of charges in not
• SI unit of capacitance is Farad or F.
possible. It is given by
1 Farad = 1 Coulomb /Volt.
• Dimension of capacitance = [M L T A ].
–1 –2 4 2 C ε
k= = = εr
• Capacitance is a scalar Quantity. C0 ε 0

Basic Electricity 200 YCT

where, Parallel Plate capacitor :-
C = capacitance when space between pair of conductor • Most commonly used capacitor is parallel plate
is filled with dielectric.
capacitor, which consists of two charged parallel
C0 = capacitance when space is vacuum.
plates separated by a small distance. Capacitance of a
ε0 = permittivity of free space, parallel plate capacitor with vacuum between the
ε = permittivity of medium. plates is given by
εr = relative permittivity
• For a polar and non-polar molecule the dipole moment
per unit volume is called polarization. It is given by
P = χe E
Where, χe is a constant characteristics of the dielectric
and and is known electric susceptibility of the dielectric
medium.
Spherical Capacitor:- εA
Without dielectric– C = 0 Farad
• A spherical capacitor consists of a solid or hollow d
spherical conductor of radius a, surrounded by If the space between capacitor filled with dielectric
another hollow concentric spherical of radius b
then–
ε 0 kA
C= Farad
d
where,
k = dielectric constant of the medium between the plates
• Its capacitance C is given by - A = Area of plates
4πε 0 ba d = distance between the plates
C= Farad.
b–a If medium is partly filled with air then-
• If radius of outer conductor approaches to infinity
then,
C = 4πε0a Farad.
• When inner sphere is earthed then, it serves as two ε0A
capacitors in parallel where, C=
 t
C1 = 4πε0b Farad. (Outer surface and earth) d–t – 
4πε 0 ba  k
C2 = Farad. (Region between two spheres)
b–a
Capacitance of an Isolated Spherical Capacitor
When a dielectric slab of thickness 't' and relative
permittivity εr is introduced between the plates of an air
capacitor, then the distance between the plates is
 t 
effectively reduced by  t −  irrespective of the
 ε r 

position of the dielectric slab.

If the space between plates is completely filled with
multiple dielectrics-

• C = 4πε0kR in a Medium ε 0A
C=
t1 t 2 t 3
C = 4πε0R in a Air + +
k1 k 2 k 3
Where, ε0 = permittivity in free space
R = Radius of sphere.
k = dielectric constant

Basic Electricity 201 YCT

Cylindrical Capacitor :- 1ε A V 2
 ε0A 
• It consists of two co-axial cylinders of radii a and b =  0  C = 
2  d  Ad  d 
the outer conductor is earthed. The dielectric constant 2
of the medium filled in the space between the 1 V
= ε0  
cylinders is k. 2 d
The capacitance per 1 V 
unit length is C = = ε0E2  = E
2 d 
2πε 0 k
• Energy density is the property of electric field and
b above formula is valid in all cases. The unit of energy
ln  
a density is J/m3.
■ Effect of Dielectric on Charge, Potential
Difference, Field and Energy of Capacitor-
■ Combination of Capacitors - Effect of dielectric on various parameters of
• Capacitors in series:- In this arrangement all the capacitors can be seen in two ways-
capacitors when uncharged get the same charge Q but • If Charge is held constant, i.e. Battery is
the potential difference across each will differ (If the disconnected after charging -
capacitance are unequal).
C 0 ,V,
0
E0 ,U 0
1 1 1 1 1
= + + + .......
Ceq C1 C2 C3 Cn
C,V, E ,U

(i) Charge remains constant, q = q0.

• Capacitors in Parallel :- When one plate of each
(ii) Capacity increases as C = kC0.
capacitor is connected to the positive terminal of the
battery & the other plate of each capacitor is (iii)Potential difference between the plates decreases as
connected to the negative terminals of the battery, then q q V
V= = 0 = 0 .
the capacitors are said to be in parallel connection. The C kC0 K
capacitor have the same potential difference , 'V' but
(iv) Electric field between the plates decrease as
the charge on each one is different (If capacitance are
unequal). E
E= 0
k
(v)The energy stored decreases as
Ceq = C1 + C2 + C3 q2 q 20 U0
+ ......... + Cn. U= = = .
2C 2kC0 k
■ Energy stored in a charged capacitor:- • If Potential is held constant, i.e. battery remains
• Energy stored in a charged capacitor is defined as the attached
total amount of work in charging the capacitor stored
up in the capacitor in the form of electrical potential
energy.
1 1 Q2 1 C0,V,
0 E0,U0 C,V, E,U
U = CV 2 = = QV
2 2 C 2
• This energy is stored in the electrostatic field setup in
the dielectric medium between the conducting plates (i) Potential difference remains constant i.e. V = V0 as
of the capacitor. battery is a source of constant potential difference.
Energy Density :- (ii) Capacity increases as C = kC0.
• The energy stored in a capacitor is not localized on (iii) Charge on capacitor increases as q = CV = (kC0)V
the charges or the plates but is distributed in the field. = kq0 .
In case of a parallel plate capacitor, electric field is (iv) Electric field remains unchanged as
only between the plates in a volume (A×d) which is V V
so called energy density. It is given by- E =   = 0 = E0 .
d d
1 2
CV (v) Energy stored in the capacitor increases as -
Energy 2
Energy density = = 1 1 1
Volume A×d U = CV 2 = kC0 V02 = kU 0
2 2 2

Basic Electricity 202 YCT

 Dielectric is Charge (Q) Voltage (V) Electric Field (E) Capacitance (C) Energy (U)
inserted
1. When the battery is Constant Decreases Decreases Increases Decreases
disconnected
2. When the battery is Increases Constant Constant Increases Increases
connected
■ Key Points – Current Electricity and Heating
• The energy of a charged conductor resides outside the
conductor in its electric field, where as in a capacitor it
Effect of Current
is stored within the capacitor in its electric field. ■ Electric Current
• The energy of an uncharged capacitor = 0. • When a charge flows in a conductor from one point to
• The capacitance of capacitor depends only on its size the other then this flow of charge is called electric
& geometry the dielectric between the conducting current (I).
surface and is independent of the conductor material, • The charge flowing per unit time in an electric circuit
like whether it is Copper, Silver, Gold etc. is the measure of electric current i.e.
• The two adjacent conductors carrying same charge can q
(I) =
be at different potential because the conductors may t
have different sizes and hence different capacitance. • Its SI unit is Ampere (A).
• When a capacitor is charged by a battery both the 1Ampere = 1 coulomb/second
plates receive charges equal in magnitude, no matter • The convectional direction of electric current is the
sizes of plates are identical or not because the charge direction of motion of positive charge.
distribution on the plates of a capacitor is in
AT
accordance with charge conservation principle. • Dimension of current = = [A] .
• On filling the space between the plates of a parallel T
plate air capacitor with a dielectric, Capacity of the • Current is a scalar quantity because it follows
capacitor is increased because the same amount of addition laws of scalar quantities and not of vector
charge can be stored at a reduced potential. quantities.
• The potential of grounded object is taken to be zero • According to its magnitude and direction electric
because capacitance of the earth is very large. current is of two types-
(i) Direct Current (DC)- In DC the current flows in a
• Work done by battery to charge a capacitor (W) = CV2
single direction steadily. Example: an electric cell.
q2 (ii) Alternating Current (AC)- In AC the flow of
= qV = .
C current changes its direction forward and backward
• It is a very common misconception that a capacitor periodically. Example: AC Dynamo.
stores charge but actually a capacitor stores electric Mechanism of flow of electric charge in
energy in the electrostatic field between the plates. metallic conductors:
• Two plates of unequal area can also form a capacitor, • In metals the electric conduction occurs by movement
but effective overlapping area is considered. of negative charge carriers (electrons) only.
• Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor doesn't • In liquids and gases it occurs by the movement of
depends upon the charge given. Potential raised or both positive and negative charge carriers (ions)
nature of metals and thickness of plates. Drift Velocity :-
• The distance between the plates is kept small to avoid
• Drift velocity of electrons is the average uniform
fringing or edge effect (non-uniformly of the field) atvelocity acquired by free electrons inside a metal
the boundaries of the plates. conductor by the application of an electric field which
is responsible for current through it. Drift velocity is
very small, it is of the order of 10–4 ms–1 as compared
to the thermal speed ( ≈ 105ms–1) of electrons at room
temperature.
• The current related with drift velocity is
I J σE E V
I = neAVd ⇒ Vd = = = = =
neA ne ne ρne ρ ℓ ne
Where, n = number of free electrons per unit
volume of the conductor .
• Radial and non-uniform electric field exists between A = Area of cross section,
the spherical surfaces of spherical capacitor. V = Potential difference across the conductor.
Basic Electricity 203 YCT
 V ■ Ohm's Law -
E = Electric field inside the conductor (E) =
ℓ • According to ohm's law when physical conditions
I = Current, J = Current density, ρ = Specific resistance (temperature, mechanical strain etc) remains
unchanged then the current flowing through a
 1 conductor is directly proportional to the potential
σ = Conductivity  σ = 
 ρ difference across its ends.
I∝V ⇒ V = RI
e = Charge on charge carrier (Electron), ℓ = length of Where, R is a constant known as the electrical resistance
metallic conductor of given conductor.
eτE • Microscopic form of ohm's law is J = σE.
• In terms of material parameter- Vd = Ohmic conductors -
m
Where, m = mass of electron, τ = Relaxation time • Those conductors which obey ohm's law are called
ohmic conductor, e.g. all metallic conductors are
Electric Current density :- ohmic conductors. For ohmic conductor V-I graph is
a straight line

• The amount of electric current travelling per unit

cross-section area is called current density. It is given by-
I
J=
A
• It's SI unit is A-m–2 and dimension is [L–2A]. Non-Ohmic conductor -
• Current density (J) is a vector quantity. • Those conductors which do not obey ohmic law, are
• ' J' depends upon area (A). called non-ohmic conductors e.g. diode, triode valve
• Current density related with electric field is J = σE = transistor vacuum tubes etc.
E For non-ohmic conductors V-I graph is not a straight
= neVd line.
ρ
Where, σ = conductivity and ρ = resistivity or specific
resistance of substance, n = number of free electrons per
unit volume of the conductor, e = Charge on charge
carrier (Electron), Vd = Drift velocity of electrons
• The direction of current density is same as that of
electric field 'E'.
• In terms of material parameter-
ne 2
J= τE ■ Electrical Resistance :-
m
• Resistance is opposition faced by charges while
Where, m = mass of charge carrier (Electron), τ = moving in a conductor. It is given by -
Relaxation time
V
Mobility - R=
I
• Mobility of charge carrier is defined as the drift
velocity of the charge carrier per unit of the electric field. Where V = potential difference across the ends of
conductor.
• It is also defined as mobility of a charge carrier in a
particular medium is drift velocity developed when I = Current flowing through the conductor.
electric field applied is unity. • Its SI unit is ohm (Ω) and its dimensional formula is
V [ML2T–3A–2].
Mobility (µ)= d 1Ω = 1 Volt-Ampere–1
E
• Its SI Unit is [m2V–1s–1] and its Dimension is [M–1 L0 ρℓ
• It is also given by R = .
T2 A1]. A
• It's Practical units is Cm2V-1S-1 Where, ℓ = length of the conductor
eτ A = cross-section area of conductor
• In terms of material parameter µ = .
m ρ = resistivity of the material of the conductor
• Mobility of free electrons is independent of electric • If a wire is stretched to a greater length, keeping
field and dimension of conductor volume constant, then

Basic Electricity 204 YCT

 R1  ℓ 1  • The resistivity of alloys also increases with rise in
R∝ ℓ ⇒ = .
R2  ℓ 2  temperature, but this increase is much smaller
compared to pure metals.
2
1 R r  • The resistivity of semiconductor decreases rapidly
and R ∝ 2 ⇒ 1 =  2 
r R 2  r1  with rise in temperature.
■ Superconductor -
Where, ℓ = length of the wire • Super conductors are those materials whose
resistance is zero. Superconductors are made at very
r = radius of cross-section area of wire.
low temperature.
• In terms of material parameter it is given by - • The lowers temperature at which a material
mℓ becomes super conductor is called critical
R= 2
ne τA temperature.
■ Specific Resistance or Electrical resistivity - Example: Lead Pb = 4.2 k, Mercury Hg = 7.25 k.

• The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional ■ Colour Coding of Carbon Resistors -

to its length 'l' and inversely proportional to the area of • In electronic circuits, carbon resistors are frequently
cross section 'A' i.e. used and their values vary over a wide range. A
colour code is used to print the value of the
ℓ
R∝ ℓ and R∝ resistance.
A
• The resistance of a carbon resistor can be calculated
ρℓ
⇒R= by the code given on it in the form of coloured
A
strips
If ℓ = 1 unit and A = 1 unit then R = ρ.
Therefore, specific resistance of the material of a
conductor is equal to the resistance offered by wire
Multiplier
of unit length and unit area of cross section of the
material of wire. Its unit is ohm-meter. It remains
constant for a material. Colour Figure Multiplies
• Dimension of resistivity is ML T A 3 –3 –2
Black (B) 0 100 = 1
• The reciprocal of resistivity of the material of a Brown (B) 1 101
conductor is called as conductivity(σ) Red (R) 2 102
1 J Orange (O) 3 103
σ= =
ρ E Yellow (Y) 4 104
–1 –1 –1
The unit of conductivity is ohm metre (Ω m) . Green (G) 5 105
• In terms of material parameter Blue (B) 6 106
1 m Violet (V) 7 107
ρ= = 2 ∴
σ ne τ Grey (G) 8 108
Temperature Dependence of Resistivity White (W) 9 109
• When the temperature of a metallic wire is raised, its Tolerance Power -
electric resistance increases. Colour Tolerance
• The resistance of a pure metallic wire or the Gold 5%
resistivity ρ of pure metal is directly proportional to Silver 10%
its absolute temperature, provided the temperature
No-colour 20%
coefficient of the metal is (1/273)ºC–1

Basic Electricity 205 YCT

 • To read the value of a carbon resistance the following sentence may be memorized:
B B R O Y Great Boy Very Good Wife
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
■ Combination of Resistors –
In Series In Parallel

• Equivalent resistance, Rs = R1 + R2 + R3. 1 1 1 1

• Equivalent resistance, = + +
R p R1 R 2 R 3
• Current through each resistor is same. • Potential difference across each resistor is same.
• Sum of potential difference across individual • Sum of electric currents flowing through
resistors is equal to the potential difference by the individual resistors is equal to the electric current
source. drawn from the source.

• If n-identical resistances are first connected in series • List of measuring Instruments and in electrical
and then in parallel, the ratio of the equivalent or and electronic work
Name Purpose
R
maximum to minimum resistance is- s = n 2 , Ammeter measures current
Rp Capacitance measure the capacitance of a
• If a Skelton cube is made with 12 equal resistors, meter component
Cos phi meter measures the power factor
each having a resistance across (each side has Electricity measures the amount of energy
meter dissipated
resistor R).
ESR meter measures the equivalent series
5 resistance of capacitors.
(a) The diagonal of a cube = R
6 Frequency measure the frequency of the current
3 counter
(b) The diagonal of a face = R LCR meter measures the inductance, capacitance
4
and resistance of component.
7
(c) Along a side = R Multimeter A general purpose instrument
12 measure voltage, current and
resistance (and sometimes other
Electrical measurements and used devices- quantities of well)
Electrical measurements are the methods, devices and ohm meter measure the resistance of a
calculations used to measure electrical quantities. component
Electrical Unit Symbol Description oscilloscope Displays the waveform of a signal
parameter Q meter measure Q Factor of the RF circuit
Voltage Volt V V = IR Signal and measure both the amplitude and the
analyzer modulation of a AF signal.
Current Ampere A I = V/R Signal Signals for testing purposes.
Resistance ohm Ω R=V/I generator
Conductance Siemens G G=1/R Spectrum Displays frequency spectrum
-1 analyzer
or ohm
Transistor Tests transistors
Capacitance Farad F/c C = q/V tester
Charge Coulomb Q Q = C×V Tube tester Tests vacuum tubes triode, tetrads, etc.
Inductance Henry H L=V/(i/t) Wattmeter measure the power
Power Watt W P = V×I Voltmeter measure potential difference
2 2 2 between two points in a circuit.
Impedance ohm Z Z = R +X
UV meter measures the level of AF signals in
Frequency Hertz Hz f =1/T volume units.
Basic Electricity 206 YCT
■ Electric cell ■ Grouping of cells -
• An electric cell is a device which converts chemical Series combination
energy into electrical energy. When connected in a circuit • Series combination of n -cells each of emf E and
it acts as a source of D.C. current. It is of two types- internal resistance r.
S.N. Primary Cell Secondary cell
1. These cannot be These can be recharged
recharged again after easily.
getting discharged
once.
2. These are cheap of These are expensive as
low cost. compare to Primary cell.
3. These are easy to use. These are difficult to use Eeq = E1 + E2 + E3 + .................... + En = nE
in comparison to Primary
cell.
req = r1 + r2 + r3 + .................... + rn = nr
4. These can be used These can be used more Total emf
Current through the circuit = .
only once. than once. Total resistance
5. In these cells In these cells reversible
irreversible reactions reaction occurs. nE
I= ................ (1)
occur. ( R + nr )
6. These have a lower These have a higher self (i) If nr ≪ R then I = nE/R
self discharge rate. discharge rate.
If the value of the internal resistance is much lesser
7. These are used in These are used in inverters than the external resistance then the current in the
torch and other and automobiles. circuit will be n times the circuit current due to the
portable devices as single cell.
they produce electric
current immediately. (ii) If nr ≫ R then I = E/r
If the value of the internal resistance is much greater
8. These cells don't require These cells require regular than the external resistance then the current in the
regular maintenance maintenance. circuit will be equal to the short-circuited current
and can be disposed obtained from a single cell.
easily after use.
Parallel combination-
9. They have a low or They have high lifetime.
small lifetime. • If m cells each of e.m.f. E and internal resistance r be
connected in parallel and if this combination be
10. Examples of these Examples of these cells connected to an external resistance then the e.m.f. of
cells are Dry cells, lead-acid cell, nickel-iron the circuit = E.
Daniel cells etc. cell etc.
r
■ E.M.F. and Potential difference Internal resistance of the circuit =
m
S.N. E.M.F. Potential
difference
1. Emf or electromotive force is It is the difference
the maximum potential of potentials
difference between two between any two
electrodes of this cell when no points in a closed
current is drawn from the cell circuit
i.e. When circuit is open
2. The unit of EMF is volt. The unit of potential
difference is volt. E mE
3. It is independent of It depends upon I= =
resistance. resistance between r mR + r
R+
two points. m
4. It is measured using an Emf It is measured using mE
If R << r then I = → parallel combination should be
meter a voltmeter r
5. The electric, gravitational The electric field is used.
and magnetic fields are the sole source of E
responsible for this. potential difference. If R >> r then I = → No advantage of using parallel
R
■ Internal resistance combination
Internal resistance refers to the opposition to the flow ■ Kirchhoff's Law -
of current offered by the cells and batteries • Ohm's law is unable to give current in complicated
themselves resulting in the generation of heat. circuit, Kirchhoff's in 1842 gave two law which are
Internal resistance is measured in ohms. The extremely useful to solve problem of complicated
relationship between internal resistance (r) and emf electrical circuits.
(E) of cell is given by. Kirchhoff’s two laws –
E = I(r + R)
(i) Kirchhoff's voltage law. (KVL)
Where, I = Current, r = Internal resistance, R =
Resistance in circuit (ii) Kirchhoff's current law. (KCL)
Basic Electricity 207 YCT
 Kirchhoff's Voltage Law
• In any closed circuit the algebraic sum of the products of
the current and resistance of each part of the circuit is
equal to the total e.m.f. in the circuit i.e.-
∑IR = ∑V
• This law follows law of conservation of energy. It is also
called as loop rule.
Kirchhoff's Current Law
• The algebraic sum of all currents meeting at
junction in a closed circuit is zero i.e.
∑I = 0.
• This law follows law of conservation of
charge. It is a junction rule

∑IR = ∑V I1+I2+I3 -I4 -I5=0

■ Applications of Kirchhoff's Law - ■ Meter Bridge:-
■ Wheatstone Bridge - • It is an electrical device used to determine the
• Wheatstone bridge is also known as resistance bridge. resistance of material of given wire/conductor.
It is an arrangement of four resistance connected to • It is based on the principle of balanced Wheatstone
form the arms of quadrilateral ABCD. A battery with bridge.
key is connected along two vertices and
• For uniform wire AC of length 1 meter the balanced
Galvanometer is connected across other two vertices.
condition of meter bridge using Wheatstone bridge
principle is given as-
P R ℓ R 100 – ℓ
G = or = ⇒S= ×R .
Q S 100 – ℓ S ℓ

Where, PQ = Ratio arms

R = Known resistance
S = Unknown resistance
The bridge is said to be balanced, when
(i) VB = VD
(ii)There is no flow of current through galvanometer.
Where S is the unknown resistance to be determined, R
The Wheatstone Bridge is said to be sensitive if it gives is variable Resistance and l is the balancing length.
ample deflection in the galvanometer even on slight
• Meter Bridge is also known as slide wire bridge.
change of resistance.
• For sensitivity of galvanometer the magnitude of four ■ Potentiometer:-
resistances P, Q, R, S should be of same order. It is an electrical device which can -
P R (i) Measure the potential difference with greater
• For balanced condition = , When deflection in
Q S accuracy.
galvanometer is zero IG = 0. (ii) Compare the e.m.f. of two cells.
• Wheatstone bridge is most sensitive if all the arms of (iii) Used to determine the internal resistance of a
bridge have equal resistance i.e. = P = Q = R = S. primary cell.
Basic Electricity 208 YCT
It works on the principle when a constant current is E 
passed through a wire of uniform cross-section, the r = R  − 1
V 
potential difference across any portion of the wire is
Where E = E.m.f of given cell, V = potential difference
directly proportional to the length of that portion. In the
between ends of resistor R.
null-point position the potential difference V is equal to
the emf E of the cell-
(iv) Measurement of low resistance
E∝ℓ ℓ 
x = R 2 
 ℓ1 
Where x is low resistance which is to be measured
connected in series with R
• Ammeter: It is a low resistance galvanometer and is
connected in series in a circuit to read current directly
in 'A'. The resistance of an ammeter is to be made as
low as possible so that it may read current without any
appreciable error. Therefore to convert a galvanometer
into ammeter a shunt resistance (i.e. small resistance in
parallel) is connected across the coil of the
Potentiometer v/s Voltmeter
galvanometer.
• The potentiometer and the voltmeter both are the
voltage measuring device. The significant difference Rg .Ig
Shunt required Rs =
between the two is that the potentiometer measure the I – Ig
emf of the circuit whereas voltmeter measure the end
Vg
terminal voltage of the circuit. Rs =
• The potentiometer has infinite internal resistance, I – Ig
whereas the voltmeter has high internal resistance.
• The sensitivity of the potentiometer is very high, i.e., it
can measure small potential differences between the
two point. The voltmeter has low sensitivity.
• The potentiometer uses the null deflection type
instrument where as the voltmeter uses the deflection
type instrument.
Uses of potentiometer- • This is the working equation for the conversion of a
For various purposes the portion between A and B is galvanometer into an ammeter. The resistance of an
modified- ammeter so formed is
(i) Comparison of emf of two cells Rs .Rg
E1 ℓ1 RA =
= Rs + Rg
E2 ℓ 2
• Voltmeter :- It is a high resistance galvanometer and is
Where, E1 = emf of known cell, E2 = emf of unknown
connected in parallel to the element across which the
cell
potential deference is to be determined. The resistance
ℓ1 = distance of null point of cell 1 from A of a voltmeter is made as high as possible so that it
ℓ2 = distance of null point of cell 2 from A. may read voltage without any appreciable error.
Therefore to convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter, a
(ii) Comparison of Resistance high resistance is connected in series with the
R1 ℓ1 galvanometer.
=
R2 ℓ2
where symbols have their usual meaning
(iii) Determination of internal Resistance
ℓ 
r = R  1 − 1
ℓ
 2 

Basic Electricity 209 YCT

 V • If current is variable passing through the conductor
Ig = then we use for heat produced in resistance in time 0
Rs + Rg T

V
to T is H = ∫
0
I 2 R θ dt .
Rs = – Rg ■ Illumination of electric bulbs in parallel
Ig
and in series-
Where, V = Total voltage Series combination of Bulbs
Rs = Shunt Resistance
Rg = Galvanometer Resistance.
• Ammeter v/s Voltmeter
Ammeter Voltmeter
• It is used to measure • It is used to measure
current. the voltage across two
points.
• Resistance is low • Resistance is high 1 1 1 1
= + + + .....
• It is connected in • It is connected in Ptotal P1 P2 P3
series with the circuit. parallel with the
Parallel combination of Bulbs
circuit.
• For ideal ammeter, the • For an ideal voltmeter,
value of resistance is the value of resistance
0. is approximately
infinity.
• It is denoted by a • It is denoted by a
symbol A.__- symbol V. ___(V)___
__(A)____
■ Heating Effect of Electric Current -
• The generation of heat due to flow of electric energy
in a conductor is known as heating effect of current.
■ Electrical Power -
• The energy liberated per second in device is called its
power. The electrical power P delivered by an
electrical device is given by P = VI, Ptotal = P1 + P2 + P3 + ...........
Where V = Potential difference across device then power ■ Key points -
is consumed by it (i.e. acts as load). If the current • A current flows through a conductor only when there
enters the lower potential point then the device supplies is an electric field within conductor because the drift
power (i.e. acts as source). velocity of electrons is directly proportional to the
V 2 applied field.
• Power consumed by a resistor (P) = I2R = VI = .
R • Electric field outside the conducting wire which
• SI unit of power is watt. carries constant current is zero because net charge on
1 watt = 1J/s a current carrying conductor is zero.
• Unit in the commercial unit of electric energy, • A metal has a resistance and gets often heated by low
6
1 unit = 1 kWh = 3.6×10 J. current because when free electrons drift through a
metal They make occasional collisions with lattice.
■ Joules Law of Electrical Heating -
There collisions are inelastic and transfer energy to
• The heat generated (in Joules) when a current of I the lattice as internal energy.
ampere flows through a resistance of R ohm for t
• Ohm's law holds only for small current in metallic
second is given by
wire, not for high currents because for small currents
I2 Rt V2 change in temperature is small and hence change in
H = I 2 Rt Joule = Colories = t J
4.2 R resistance is small.

Basic Electricity 210 YCT

• Potentiometer is an ideal instrument to measure the • Using n conductors of equal resistance, the number of
potential difference because potential gradient along possible combinations is 2n–1.
the potentiometer wire can be made very small.
• If the resistance of n conductors are totally different,
• An Ammeter is always connected in series where as
voltmeter is connected in parallel because an then the number of possible combinations will be 2".
ammeter is low resistance galvanometer while a • E.m.f is independent of the resistance of the circuit
voltmeter is high resistance galvanometer. and depends upon the nature of electrolyte of the cell
• The drift velocity of electrons is small because of the while potential difference depends upon the
frequent collisions suffered by electrons. resistance between the two points of the circuit and
• The small value of drift velocity produces a large current flowing through the circuit.
amount of electric current, due to the presence of • If the temperature of the conductor placed in the right
extremely large number of free electrons in a gap of metre bridge is increased, then the balancing
conductor. length decreases and the jockey moves towards left.
• Free electron density in a metal is given by n =
• In Wheatstone bridge to avoid inductive effects the
NA × d battery key should be pressed first and the
where NA = Avogadro's number, d = density
A galvanometer afterwards.
of metal and A = Atomic weight of metal.
• In the measurement of resistance, Wheatstone bridge
• In the absence of radiation loss, the time in which a is not affected by the internal resistance of the cell.
fuse will melt does not depends on it's length but
varies with radius as t ∝ r4 • In case of zero deflection, the galvanometer current
• If length (l) and mass (m) of a conducting wire is flows in the primary circuit of the potentiometer, not
in the galvanometer circuit.
ℓ2
given then R∝ • A potentiometer can act as an ideal voltmeter.
m
• Decoration of lights in festivals is an example of
series grouping whereas all household appliances are
connected in parallel grouping.
Magnetism and Matter
■ Magnet– A magnet is an object that produces a magnetic field around itself.

Properties of magnets –
• Magnet attracts iron and has two poles.
• A freely-suspended magnet always stays north-south.
• Unlike poles attract and like poles repel each other.
• A magnet induces magnetism in magnetic materials.
• An isolated magnetic pole does not exist.
Magnetic field lines-

(a) field lines of a bar magnet (b)field lines of a current carrying (c)field lines of an electric dipole
finite solenoid
Basic Electricity 211 YCT
• The magnetic field lines of a magnet (or a solenoid ) • Comparing this with Gauss law of electrostatics. The
form continuous closed loops. This is unlike the q
electric dipole where these field lines begin from a flux through closed surface is given by ∑ E i∆S =
positive charge and end on the negative charge or ε0
escape to infinity. • The difference between these two laws is that
• The tangent to the field lines at a given point electrostatics is a reflection of the facts that isolated
magnetic poles (monopoles) don’t exist.
represents the direction of the net magnetic field B at
that point. ■ Coulomb's Law in Magnetism -
■ The bar Magnet:- • Magnitude of force acting between two magnetic
A bar magnet is a rectangular piece of an object, poles is given by
made up of iron, steel or any other ferromagnetic
substance that shows permanent magnetic properties. It
has two poles, a north and a south pole.
■ Magnetic Dipole - b
• A magnetic dipole consists of two unlike poles of m1m 2
equal strength separated by small distance . It is another F=k . Where, m1 and m2 are magnetic strength
name of bar magnet. It is given by- r2
M = m ×2 ℓ of poles and k is magnetic force constant
Where m = pole strength µ0
• SI unit of k is N- A −2 . and k = = 10–7
• Its SI unit is Am2. 4π
Magnetic dipole Moment of current Loop ■ Earth's Magnetism -
M = NiA • Earth's magnetism is generated by convection
where A = area of current loop currents of molten iron and nickel in the earth's core
i = current carried by loop which has streams of charged particles and generate
N = number of turns of current carrying loop magnetic fields.
■ Potential Energy -
• Potential energy of a magnetic dipole in a magnetic
field is given by
U = – MB cos θ = – M.B
where θ is the angle between 'M' and 'B'.
• Work done in rotating the dipole in a uniform
magnetic field from θ1 to θ2 is given by-
W = MB (cos θ1 – cos θ2).
■ Oscillation of a freely Suspended magnet -
• The oscillations of a free suspended magnet • Earth behaves like a magnet whose North Pole is
(magnetic dipole) in a uniform magnetic field are SHM. somewhere close to geographical South Pole and
I magnetic South pole is closed to geographical North
• The time period of oscillation T = 2π . Pole.
MB
Where, I = moment of inertia of the magnet, Magnetic meridian and geographical meridian -
M = magnetic moment
B = magnetic field intensity
■ Bar Magnet as an Equivalent Solenoid -
• The expression of magnetic field at distance 'r' from
µ 2M
centre is given by = B = 0 3 .
4π r
This expression is equivalent to that of bar magnet.
■ Gauss law of Magnetism:- It states that The net
magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero.
• The net magnetic flux φB = ∑ ∆φB = ∑ Bi∆S = 0
all all
• The vertical plane passing through the axis of a
magnetic needle suspended freely through its center of
gravity and at rest under earth's field is called the
magnetic meridian.
• Similarly, the vertical plane passing through line
joining the geographical north and south poles is called
the geographical meridian.
Basic Electricity 212 YCT
Elements of Earth's Magnetism - ■ Important Terms Used to Describe the
• Magnetic Declination (α) - The smaller angle Properties of Magnetic Materials -
subtended between the magnetic meridian and To describe the magnetic properties of materials
geographic meridian is called magnetic declination. following terms are required.
• Angle of dip (θ) or Magnetic Inclination - In • Magnetic induction
Magnetic meridian, the angle made by resultant of the When a piece of any substance is placed in an
earth's magnetic field (Be) with the horizontal in external magnetic field the substance becomes
magnetic meridian is known as angle of dip (θ). magnetised. The magnetism so produced in the
• Horizontal and Vertical Component of Earth's substance is called induced magnetism and the
Magnetic Field - If B is the intensity of earth's phenomenon is called magnetic induction. It is
magnetic field, then horizontal component of denoted by B
earth's magnetic field H = Becos θ Magnetic induction, B = µ0 (H + I)
Vertical component of earth's magnetic field V = Be Unit is Tesla or Wb/m2
sin θ. • Magnetic Permeability -
2 2 V It is the ability of a material to permit the passage of
B = H + V , tan δ = .
H magnetic lines of force through it.
Neutral Points - B
Magnetic permeability (µ) = .
• These points are where net magnetic field due to the H
magnet and magnetic field of the earth is zero are Where, B is magnetic induction and H is magnetising
called neutral points. force or magnetic intensity.
• When north pole of a bar magnet is placed towards Unit is Wb/A-m or NA–2
South pole of the earth, then neutral point is obtained • Intensity of Magnetisation -
on axial line. The magnetic dipole moment developed per unit
µ0 2Mr volume of the magnetised substance is called
B= =H
4π ( r 2 – l 2 ) 2 intensity of magnetisation. Intensity of
M
Magnetisation (I) = .
If r > > l, then V
µ 2M Where, V = volume and A = area of cross section of
B= 0 3 =H
4π r the specimen
• When north pole of a bar magnet in placed towards Unit is Am–1
north pole of the earth, then neutral point is obtained • Magnetic Force or Magnetic Intensity -
on equatorial line. The degree up to which a magnetic field can
µ0 M magnetise a material is defined in terms of magnetic
B= =H
( )
4π r 2 – l 2 3 2 intensity.
B
If r > > l, then Magnetic intensity (H) = – I.
µ
µ0 M Unit is same as that of Intensity of magnetisation
B= =H
4π r 3 • Magnetic Susceptibility ( χm) - It is equal to the ratio
where, H = horizontal component of earth of of intensity of magnetisation and magnetising field
magnetic field I
χm = .
■ Tangent law - H
It has no unit
The tangent law of magnetism is a way of measuring
• Relation between Magnetic permeability and
the strengths of two perpendicular magnetic fields.
Susceptibility is given by -
When a magnet is exposed to a magnetic fields B that µ = µ0 (1 + χm)
is perpendicular to the Earth's horizontal magnetic
■ Types of magnetic substance
field (H) , the magnetic field will rest at an angle θ. The magnetic materials placed in a uniform magnetic
The relation between the magnetic fields is as field are classified into three parts.
follows: (i) Paramagnetic Substance
B = H tanθ (ii) Diamagnetic Substance
tan θ = Β/Η (iii) Ferromagnetic Substance
Basic Electricity 213 YCT
 Property Paramagnetic Diamagnetic Substance Ferromagnetic Substance
Substance
When placed in a Freely magnetise along Freely magnetise and Strongly magnetise along the
uniform M.F. applied field opposite to magnetic magnetic field
field
Susceptibility (χm) Small and positive Small and negative Very large χm > 1
0 < χm < ε, – 1 < χm < 0
ε = small numbers
Permeability µ >µ0 µ < µ0 µ >>µ0
Relative Permeability 1 < µr < (1 + ε) Positive and less than 1 Large value µr > 1
ε = small-number 0 < µr < 1

Effect of temperature 1 Independent with 1

χm ∝
temperature
χm ∝ ( T > Tc )
T T – Tc

Variation of I with H Linear change Linear charge and low Non-linear change
temperature
In a non- uniform Tends to move from Tends to move from Tends to move quickly from
magnetic field weaker to stronger stronger to weaker weaker to stronger magnetic
magnetic field magnetic field field
Examples Na, Ca, O2, CuCl2, Al Pb, H2O, NaCl, Bi, Cu, Ni, Co, Fe, Fe2, Gd
Si, Sb
■ Curie's law through a complete of magnetisation is called
hysteresis.
• According to this law the intensity of magnetisation I
of a paramagnetic substance is directly proportional Retentivity or Residual Magnetism
to magnetic intensity H of magnetising field and • The value of the intensity of magnetisation of a
inversely proportional to kelvin temperature T. material, then the magnetising field is reduced to zero
I = C(H/T) is called rententivity or residual magnetism of the
material.
Where C is curie constant.
Coercivity
it can also the represented as χ = C/T
• The coercivity of a substance is a measure of the
where χ = magnetic susceptibility reverse magnetising field required to distroy the
• The temperature of transition from ferromagnetic residual magnetism of the substance.
substance to paramagnetism is called Curie Hysteresis Loss
temperature TC. • The energy supplied to the substance during
C magnetisation is not fully recovered. The balance of
χ= (T > TC) energy left in the substance is lost as heat. This is
T − Tc
called Hysteresis loss.
■ Hysteresis - • The energy lost per unit volume of a substance in a
complete cycle of magnetisation is equal to the area
of the hysteresis loop.
Differences in magnetic properties of soft Iron
and steel
• The retentivity of soft iron is greater than the
retentivity of steel.
• The coercivity of soft iron is less than the coercivity
of steel.
• The hysteresis loss in soft iron is smaller than that in
• The lagging of intensity of magnetisation (I) or
steel.
magnetic induction (B) behind magnetising field (H),
when a specimen of a magnetic substance is taken • Permeability of soft iron is greater than of steel
Basic Electricity 214 YCT
 Alternating Current
Alternating Current :-
• An alternating current that current which changes its
direction with time .
• The voltage with which AC current is associated is 0
called AC voltage and varies like a sine function
with time.
• It is represented by-
E = E0 sin( ωt + φ) Average Or Mean Value of Alternating Current
I = I0 sin (ωt + φ) Or Voltage Over One Complete Cycle
Where, I = Instantaneous current t2
I0 = Peak value or maximum value of AC t2 ∫ I(t) dt
∫
t1
Iav = I(t) dt = Iav =
(ωt + φ) = Phase at any time t t1 t 2 – t1
φ = Initial phase or phase constant Where, I = I0 sin ωt
ω = Angular frequency (i) Over first half cycle-
2π 2L0
T = Time period = Iav = = 0.637 I0
ω π
1 (ii) Over full cycle -
f = Frequency =
T Iav = 0
Ε0 = amplitude or peak value of voltage So, average value of current for the full cycle is zero.
E = Voltage at any time t • Average value of alternating emf over complete cycle
is zero.
• Average value of voltage over one half cycle is
2E
E av = 0 = 0.637 E 0 .
π
• Average value during + ve half cycle :
ωt
Iav = 0.637 I0
Eav = 0.637 E0
• Average value during – ve half cycle -
Iav = – 0.637 I0
Key Points Eav = – 0.637 E0
• The equation of current can also be written in cosine Root Mean Square Or Virtual Or Effective
form as I = I0 cos (ωt +φ). Value Of Sinusoidal Voltage Or Current –
• To produce alternating current, emf / voltage should • The effective or virtual value of an alternating current
be alternating. An alternating emf / voltage can be is that steady current which, when passed through a
represented by E = E0sin ( ωt +φ). given resistance for a certain time will develop the same
• An alternating emf is produced by a AC dynamo or amount of heat as the actual alternating current shall
an electronic oscillator. develop when passed for the same time.
• The frequency of an AC in India is 50 Hz, i.e. f = 50 I02 I
Hz, so ω = 2πf = 100 π rad/s–1 Ieff = = 0 = 0.707 I0
2 2
• The AC can be converted into DC with the help of a
• The effective or RMS value of an alternating current is
rectifier while DC into AC with the help of an
inverter. 1
times its peak value or maximum value. Similarly
• It cannot produce chemical effects of current such as 2
electroplating. the effective or virtual value of alternating emf is given
• It can be stepped up or stepped down with the help ofby
transformer. E
Eeff = 0 = 0.0707 E 0
Phasor Diagram - 2
• The length of arrow represents the peak value of the Form Factor - It is define as the ratio of the
quantity and its projection on x or y-axis gives its virtual or RMS value to the average value of an
instantaneous value. alternating current or voltage. Thus
For Example - Iy = I0 sin ωt I E
Ix = I0 cos ωt Form factor = rms = rms .
Ia v E av
Basic Electricity 215 YCT
 Choke Coil: Where symbols, NS = number of coils in secondary
• The inductor which is used for reducing the current NP = number of coils in primary
in the A.C. circuit is called a choke or choking coil. ES = voltage of secondary
The average power dissipated in the choke coil is E P = voltage of primary
given by. IP = current in primary coil
1 IS = current in secondary coil
P = E 0 I0 cos θ
2 (ii) Step down transformer -
R • It converts a high voltage of low current into a low
Where the power factor, cos θ = voltage of high current.
R 2 + ω2 L2
• In choke coil L is large while R is very small. Hence
cos θ is nearly zero. Therefore the power consumed
by the coil is extremely small.
• Resistance is used in place of inductance the power
loss is I2R. Hence to avoid this loss, we prefer choke
coil.
Transformer –
In this transformer
• It is a device which can change a low voltage of
(i) NP > NS
high current into a high voltage of low current and
(ii) EP > ES
vice versa.
(iii) IP < IS
• Its working is based on mutual induction in which
its converts magnetic energy into electrical energy. Transformation Ratio -
There are two types of transformers - It is represented by k
(i) Step up Transformers- N E I
k= S = S = P
• It converts a low voltage of high current into a high N P E P IS
voltage of low current. • For step up transformer, k > 1.
• For step down transformer, k < 1.
Key Points:
(i)Transformer does not operate on direct current. It
operates only on alternating voltage as input as well as at
output.
(ii) Efficiency of transformer is given by
Output power
η= .
In this transformer- Input power
(i) NS > NP (iii) Generally efficiency ranges from 70% to 90%.
(ii) ES > EP (iv) Transformer does not amplify power as vacuum
(iii)IP > IS, tube.
Magnetic Effect of Current and Magnetism
Oersted's Experiment- 1 tesla (T) = 1 weber /meter2 (wbm–2)
In 1820 Oerested discovered that a current in a wire can = 1 Newton/ ampere–metre (NA–1m–1)
also produce magnetic effect. It was demonstrated that • C.G.S units of magnetic field are called gauss or
when a compass needle is brought near a wire carrying
\Oersted 1 gauss = 10–4 Tesla.
current then the compass needle shows a deflection.
Key Points:
Magnetic Field ( B ) -
• A moving charge is a source of magnetic field.
• The space in the surrounding of a magnet or any • A current or moving charge creates a magnetic field in
current carrying conductor in which its magnetic
influence can be experienced is called magnetic field. the surrounding space (in addition to its electric field)
• S.I. unit of magnetic field is Wb/m2 or T (tesla). • The magnetic field exerts a force or any other moving
• The strength of magnetic field is called one tesla, if a charge or current that is present in the field.
charge of one coulomb, when moving with a velocity • At any position the direction of B is defined as that in
1ms–1 along a direction perpendicular to the direction of
which north pole of a compass needle tends to point.
the magnetic field experiences a force of 1 Newton.
Basic Electricity 216 YCT
 Magnetic Force: Lorentz Law Magnetic Dipole And Dipole Moment–
• Magnetic dipole is the magnetic equivalent of electric
dipole.
• The magnetic field pattern produced by a small
current loop is similar to a bar magnet. Therefore, it
also acts like a magnetic dipole.
• The magnetic moment of a flat current loop is defined
as the product of current I and area A enclosed by it.
• The magnetic force on a charge Q, moving with M = IA
velocity v in a magnetic field B is • The direction of the magnetic moment coincides with
( )
Fmag = Q v × B the direction of area vector (which is the direction of
This is known as the Lorentz force law. In the presence the magnetic field)
of both electric field and magnetic fields, the net force on • If the loop contains N number of turns, the magnetic
Q would be – moment is given by M = NIA
 (
F = Q E + V×B
 ) 

• Sometimes a current carrying loop does not lie in a
single plane.
• Since, F and v are vectors, B is actually a pseudo vectors.
• Sometimes a non-conducting body is related with
• In the fig at the second wire the magnetic field points
into the page. The velocity of the charges is upward some angular speed. In this case the ratio of magnetic
and the resulting force is to the left. moment and angular momentum is constant which is
Key Points– equal to q/2m, where q is the charge and m is the
• The magnitude Fmag of the magnetic force exerted on mass of the body. For example, in case of ring of
the particle is proportional to the charge q and to the mass m, radius R and charge q distributed on its
speed. circumference.
• When a charge particle moves parallel to the M q
magnetic field vector, the magnetic force acting on =
the particle is zero. L 2m
• When the particle is at an angle θ ≠ 0 with the
magnetic field, the magnetic force acts in the
direction between both v and B .
• The magnetic forces on oppositely charged particles
moving at the same velocity in a magnetic field are in
opposite direction.
• The magnitude of the magnetic force exerted on the
moving particle is proportional to sinθ, where θ is the
angle of the velocity vector of particle makes with the
direction of B
• Magnetic force do not work because ( V × B) is Torque Acting on A current carrying coil
perpendicular V , so ( V × B ) = 0. Magnetic force may
placed Inside a uniform Magnetic field
Torque acting on a current carrying coil placed inside a
alter the direction in which a particle moves, but they uniform magnetic field is given by–
cannot speed it up or slow it down.
τ = NBIA Sinφ
Difference Between Electric and Magnetic
Force on charged Particles Where, N = number of turns in the coil
Electric Force Magnetic Force B = magnetic field intensity
The electric force is always The magnetic force is I = current in the coil
parallel or antiparallel to perpendicular to the A = area of cross-section of the coil
the direction of the electric magnetic field. φ = angle between magnetic field and normal to
field. the plane of the coil.
The electric force acts on a The magnetic force
charged particle independent acts on a charged
of the particles velocity particles only when the
particle is in motion
and the force is
proportional to the
velocity
The electric force does Magnetic force
work in displacing a associated with a
charged particle. constant magnetic field.

Basic Electricity 217 YCT

 Energy of Dipole I 1
• = ; Where, R is the resistance of the
• When a magnetic dipole changes orientation in a V R
magnetic field, the field does work on it galvanometer.
• Energy needed to rotate the loop through on angle θ is • The unit of the voltage sensitivity is radian per volt or
∆U = MB (cosθ1 – cosθ2) deflection per volt.
If we choose θ1 such that at θ1 = 90º U1 = 0 For the Sensitivity of the galvanometer -
• A galvanometer is said to be more sensitive if it
shows a large deflection for a small value of current. For
U = −M.B
a given value of I, θ will be large.
This is the energy stored in the loop.
• Be can be increased using strong magnets.
Galvanometer– • The value of C for a quartz and phosphor - bronze is
It is a device used for the detection and measurement of very small. So the suspension wire of quartz or phosphor
the small electric currents. is used.
Type of Galvanometer- • 'N' should be large.
• Moving coil galvanometer • 'B' should be large.
• Suspended type galvanometer • 'A' should be large.
• Mirror type galvanometer • 'k' should be small.
• Torsion head type galvanometer Ammeter
Moving coil Galvanometer– An ammeter is a low resistance galvanometer used for
• The principle of moving coil galvanometer is based measuring the current in a circuit. It is always connected
on the fact that when a current carrying coil is placed in a in series.
magnetic field, it experiences a torque. Conversion of a Galvanometer into a Ammeter
• In equilibrium, deflecting torque = Restoring torque A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by
connecting a low resistance into its parallel. If G is the
Cθ
NBIA = Cθ ⇒ I = = Kθ resistance of a galvanometer and it give full scale
NBA deflection for current Ig, then required low resistance S,
Where, C = restoring torque per unit twist. connected in its parallel for converting it into an ammeter
N = number of turns in the coil. of range I is given by
B = magnetic field intensity.
A = area of cross section of the coil.
θ = twist angle
C
K = galvanometer constant =
NBA
• Therefore the deflection produced in the galvanometer
is directly proportional to the current flowing through it.
Current Sensitivity -
• The deflection produced per unit current in
galvanometer is called its current sensitivity.
θ NBA The resistance of an ideal ammeter is zero.
Current sensitivity Is = = Voltmeter
I C
A voltmeter is a high resistance galvanometer used for
NBIA measuring the potential difference between two
Where, θ = .
C points. It is always connected in parallel. The resistance
• The unit of current sensitivity is radian per ampere or of an ideal voltmeter is infinity.
deflection per ampere. Conversion of Galvanometer into voltmeters
Voltage Sensitivity - A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by
• The deflection produced per unit voltage applied across connecting a high resistance into its series.
the ends of the galvanometer is called its voltage If a galvanometer of resistance G shows full scale
sensitivity deflection for current Ig, then required high resistance R,
θ NBIA connected in series for converting it into a voltmeter of
Voltage sensitivity, VS = = . range V is given by
V kV
V
NBA V = Ig (G +R) ⇒ R = − G
VS = . Ig
CR
Basic Electricity 218 YCT
 The Biot-Savart Law–
• In 1820, Biot and Savart formulated the equation for Magnetic field at a point well inside a long solenoid is
the field due to current in a long straight wire. They given by B = µ0nI
produced mathematical formula for the field due to a where, n = number of turns per unit length and I =
single current element rather than a finite length of current flowing through the solenoid.
wire. The equation can be used to calculate Magnetic field at a point on one end of a long solenoid is
configuration as shown in fig. given by
µ nI
B= B= 0
2
Force on a current carrying conductor in
a Magnetic Field
The magnetic force on a segment of current carrying
wire is evidently
( )
µ0 d ℓ × rˆ µ Idℓ sin θ
dB =
4π
I
r 3
= 0
4π r 2
Fmag = ∫ ( v × B) dq = ∫ ( v × B) λdℓ = ∫ ( I × B) dℓ
Ampere's circuital Law – I and dℓ both point in the same direction-
• Ampere's circuital law states that the line integral of
the magnetic field B around any closed circuit is
(
Fmag = ∫ I d ℓ × B )
equal to µ0 times the total current I threading or Typically, the current is constant (in magnitude) along
passing through this closed circuit. Mathematically. the wire, and in that case I comes outside the integral.
∫ B.dℓ = µ I
0 ( )
Fmag = I ∫ dl × B = BIl sin θ
In a simplified form BL = µ0I
q
Toroid Where, λ = = linear charge density
l
A toroidal solenoid is an anchor ring around which is
large number of turns of a copper wire are wrapped. I = λv (when a line charge λ travelling down a wire at
speed v)
Idl = current element

A toroid is an endless solenoid in the form of a ring.

Magnetic field inside the turns of toroid is given by
B = µ0nI
Where n = number of turns/length
Magnetic field inside a toroid is constant and is Direction of force on a current carrying conductor can be
always tangential to the circular closed path. found out by Fleming's left had rule.
Magnetic field at any point inside the empty space Force between Two infinitely Long Parallel
surrounded by the toroid and outside the toroid is
Current Carrying Conductors
zero, because net current enclosed by these space is
zero. Force between two long parallel current carrying
Solenoid conductors is given by
A solenoid is a closely wound helix of insulated µ II
F= F= 0. 1 2 ℓ
copper wire. 2π r

Basic Electricity 219 YCT

 Magnetic Flux:-
• Magnetic flux through any surface held in a
magnetic field is measured as the total number of
magnetic field lines crossing the surface. It is a
scalar quantity.
• Now the magnetic flux passing through the area is
defined as
φ = B.A

• The force is attractive if current in both conductors is in
same direction and repulsive if current in both
conductors is in opposite direction.
• If the current is both parallel wires are equal and in
same direction, then magnetic field at a point exactly half •
way between the wire is zero
The Hall Effect:
• If a conductor is placed in a magnetic field such that
the direction of flow of current is at right angle to the
magnetic field, a voltage is developed across the
conductor in the direction perpendicular to both current
and field. The phenomena by which voltage developed is
called Hall effect and voltage itself is Hall voltage
or φ = BA cosθ = (B cos θ) A = B ⊥ A
where B⊥ = B cosθ is the component of the magnetic
field B perpendicular to the face of the area.
Direction of area vector is normal to the face of the
area.
Special Cases.
1. if θ = 0º, then φ = BA cos0º ⇒ φ = BA (maximum
flux)
2. if θ = 90º, then φ = BA cos90º ⇒ φ = 0
3. if θ < 90º, then cosθ > 0 ⇒ φ > 0 (positive flux)
4. if θ > 90º, then cosθ < 0 ⇒ φ < 0 (negative flux)

•
SI unit of magnetic flux:
The SI unit of magnetic flux is weber (Wb). One
weber is the flux produced when a uniform magnetic
field of one tesla acts normally over an area of 1 m2
1 weber = 1 tesla × 1 metre2
or 1 Wb = 1 Tm2
• CGS unit of magnetic flux.
The CGS unit of magnetic flux is maxwell (Mx).
VH One maxwell is the flux produced when a uniform
KH = .t
I.B magnetic field of one gauss acts normally over an
Where KH = Hall coefficient area of 1 cm2
I = Applied current 1 maxwell = 1 gauss × 1 cm2
B = Magnetic field or 1 Mx = 1 G cm2
t = Thickness of crystal • Relation between weber and maxwell:
1 Wb = 1 T × 1 m2 = 104 G × 104 cm2
Electromagnetic Induction (EMI) or 1 Wb = 108 maxwell.
Electromagnetic Induction (EMI) :- • Law of Electromagnetic Induction.
There are two types of laws which govern the
• A current carrying coil produces a magnetic field.
phenomena of electromagnetic induction.
• The magnetic field lines form appropriate closed
A. Faraday laws of electromagnetic Induction:
curves.
These can be stated as follows-
• Whenever the total number of magnetic field lines First Law : Whenever the magnetic flux linked with
linked normally with a coil/circuit changes (i.e. the a closed circuit changes, an emf (and hence a
magnetic flux linked with coil/circuit changes), an current) is induced in it which lasts only so long as
induced emf is produced in its as per the phenomena of the change in flux is taking place. This phenomena
electromagnetic induction. is called electromagnetic induction.
• The phenomena of electromagnetic induction (EMI) is Second Law : The magnitude of the induced emf is
the basis of the working of power generators, dynamos, equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux linked
transformers, etc. with the closed circuit mathematically.

Basic Electricity 220 YCT

 dφ
| E |=
dt
If the flux changes from φ1 to φ2 in time t, then the
average induced emf will be-
φ −φ
E = − N 2 1 Where N= Number of turns in the coil
t
Faraday's Experiment Conclusions- An electric
current can be induced in a loop by a
changing magnetic field.
• This would be the current in the secondary circuit of
this experimental set-up.
• The induced current exists only while the magnetic Components of electric generator-
field through the loop is changing. • The Frame - The structure
• Faraday's law of induction states that " the emf • An engine - The source of mechanical energy
induced in a circuit is directly proportional to the
time rate of change of the magnetic flux through the • The Alternator- Produces an electrical output from
the mechanical input.
circuit"
• A Fuel System - To keep the generator operational
dφ
ε= B • A Voltage Regulator - To regulate the voltage output
dt
• A Cooling System - To regulate heat levels that build
B. Lenz's Law: Lenz's law depends on the principle of up in the System.
conservation of energy and Newton's third law. It is
the most convenient method to determine the • A Lubrication System - For durable and smooth
direction of the induced current. It states that the operations over a span.
direction of an induced current is always such as to • An Exhaustible System - To dispose of the waste
oppose the change in the circuit or the magnetic exhaust gases produced in the process.
field that produces it. • A Charger - To keep the battery of the generator
Lenz's law formula- Lenz's law is reflected in the charged.
formula of faraday's law. Here the negative sign is • Main control - The control panel controlling
contributed by Lenz's law. generating interface.
 ∆φ  Uses-
Emf = – N   • They provide the Power for most power networks
 ∆t 
across cities.
where, Emf is the induced voltage can also known as
electromotive force. • They are use to derive motors.
N = is the number of terns • They are used in transportation.
∆φ = change in magnetic flux. ■ Electric Motors- An electric motor is used to
∆t = change in time. convert electrical energy into mechanical energy. The
working of an electric motor is based on the fact that a
• The negative sign in Lenz's law indicates that the
current carrying conductor produces a magnetic field
induced emf in the coil is in the opposite direction of
around it.
the magnetic flux, which is linked with the coil.
Lenz's law Applications-
• Eddy currents are balanced using Lenz's Law.
• AC generators work on the principle of Lenz's Law.
• Ampere's circuital law
■ Electric Generators-
Electric generator also known as dynamo is an electric
machine that converts mechanical energy into electrical
energy. It is based on the principle of electromagnetic
induction. Components of electric motor-
Generators do not create electricity instead it uses the • Power source: A simple motor usually has a DC
mechanical energy supplied to it to force the movement power Source. It supplies power to the motors armature
of electric charges present in the wire of winding through or field coils.
an external electric circuit. This flow of electrons
• Commutator: It is the rotating interface of the
constituters the output electric current supplied by the
armature coil with a stationary circuit.
generator.
Basic Electricity 221 YCT
• Field magnet: The magnetic field helps to produce a
torque on the rotating armature coil by virtue of Fleming
left hand rule.
• Armature Core: Holds the armature coil in place and
provides mechanical support.
• Armature Coil: It helps the motor to run
• Brushes: It is a device that conducts current between
stationary wires and moving parts most commonly the
rotating shaft.
Uses-
■ Electric motor are used in-
• Drives • If we hold a current carrying conductor in the grip of
• Water pumps the right hand in such a way that thumb points in the
direction of current then curling finger shows direction
• Hard Disc Drives
of magnetic field.
• Washing Machines
• Industrial Equipment
• Transformer-A transformer is a static electrical device
that transmits AC power from one circuit to another at a
constant frequency, but the voltage level may be
changed, implying the voltage can be increased or
decreased depending on the requirement.
Motional Electromotive Force-
( )
b
E = ∫ v × B dℓ
a

As dℓ × v is the area swept per unit time by

( )
length dℓ and hence B. dℓ × v is the flux of induction
through the area. Therefore, the motional emf is equal to • Fleming's left hand rule-If the thumb forefinger and
the flux of induction cut by the conductor per unit time. middle finger of the left hand are stretched to be
perpendicular to each other, and if the forefinger
represents the direction of magnetic field, the middle
finger represents the direction of current then the
thumb represents the direction of force.
Note:1- In the late 19th century, John Ambrose
• We can write the expression for induced emf in various Fleming introduced both these rules.
forms:
Fleming's left-hand Fleming's Right-hand
( ) ( ) ( )
b b b
E = ∫ v × B dℓ = ∫ B × dℓ v = ∫ dℓ × v B rule rule
a a a
• It is used in electric • It is used in electric
• If any two out of v, B and dℓ becomes parallel or motors generators.
antiparallel, ε will become zero.
• The purpose of this • The of this rule is used
■ Instantaneous induced EMF - rule is used to final the to find the direction of
E = NAB ωsin ωt = E0 sin ωt direction of the the induced current in an
Where, N = Number of turns in the magnetic force acting in electric generator.
coil. an electric motor.
A = Area of one turn. Electric motor- Electric machine that converts
B = Magnetic Induction electrical energy into mechanical energy. It consist of
ω = Uniform angular velocity two essential components.
of the coil. • There's a permanent magnet (or magnets) around the
E0 = Maximum induced emf. edge of the motor case that remains static, so it's called
■ Fleming's Right Hand rule :- the stator of a motor.
If the thumb forefinger and middle finger of right hand • Inside the stator, these's the coil, mounted on an axle
are stretched mutually perpendicular to each other such that spins around at hight speed and this is called the
that the forefinger points the direction of magnetic field, rotor. The rotor also includes the commutator.
middle finger points towards the direction of induced • When the current is passed, the motor rotates to
current in the conductor and thumb points towards the convert electric energy into mechanical energy such
direction of magnetic force. as griders, ceiling fans, pump, etc.
Basic Electricity 222 YCT
■ Eddy Currents :- conducting fluid. A large transient magnetic field of
• Eddy Currents are the current induced in solid 1 T alternating at a frequency of 60 Hz then induces
metallic masses, when magnetic flux threading such a large current in the retina that it produces a
through them changes . sensation of intense brightness.
• Direction of eddy currents can be given by Lenz's ■ Self Induction :-
Law or by Fleming's Right Hand rule. • The phenomenon of production of induced emf in a
■ Application of Eddy currents :- coil, when a changing current passes through it.
• In spite of the undesirable effects, eddy currents are
used in many ways. Some of them are given below.
(i) Speedometer
(ii) Induction meter
(iii) Induction furnace
(iv) Electromagnetic shielding
(v) Electromagnetic damping
(vi) Energy meter
■ Key Points: ■ Coefficient of Self Induction:
• Eddy currents are basically the induced currents set • At any instant, the magnetic flux φ linked with a coil is
up inside the body of conductor whenever the proportional to the current I through it, i.e.,
magnetic flux linked with it changes.
φ∝I
• Eddy currents tend to follow the path of least
resistance inside a conductor. So they form or φ = LI
irregularly shaped loops. However, their directions • Any change in current sets up an induced emf in the
are not random, but guided by Lenz's law. coil given by
• Eddy currents have both undesirable effects and dφ dI
ε=− = −L
practically useful applications. dt dt
• Eddy currents can be induced in biological tissues. • SI unit of self induction is Henry (H)
For example the cavity of the eye is filled with a 1 Henry (H) = 1 V-s/A or 1 Tm2/A.
■ Self Induction of Different Cases–
Cases Formula Figure
• Long Solenoid L = µ0n2lA
Where
n = no. of turns per unit length
N
=
l
• µ = µ0µr, µr = relative permeability
• If solenoid is wound over a core of
permeability µ, then
L = µ n2lA
• Two parallel µ d−r
wires L = 0 log e
π r
Where,
d = distance between two parallel
wires A and B
r = radius of each wire
• Two coaxial µ0 b
Cylinder L= log e
2π a
a = radius of inner cylinder
b = radius of outer cylinder.

Basic Electricity 223 YCT

 • Toroidal coil of µ0 N 2 h b
rectangular L= log e
cross-section 2π a
If coil is wound over a core of
permeability µ, then -
µN 2 h b
L= log e
2π a

• A Toroidal coil µ0 N2A

of circular cross L=
2πR
Where,
A= cross-sectional area
R = radius of circular path
for a toroid wound on a core of
constant permeability µ
µN 2 A
L=
2πR

■Energy stored in magnetic field of ■ Coefficient of mutual induction

Magnetic flux linked with the secondary coil ∝ current in
solenoid– the primary coil
1 φ∝I
U B = Li 2 i.e.
2 or φ = MI
µ0 N2A The proportionality constant M is called the mutual
Where, L = inductance or coefficient of mutual induction of the two
ℓ
coils. Any change in the current I sets up an induced emf
Bℓ in the secondary coil which is given by.
i=
µ0 N dφ dI
ε=− = −M.
■ Energy Density- dt dt
The energy is stored within the volume because B ■ Unit of mutual inductance
outside of the solenoid is zero. Moreover, the stored 1Vs
energy must be uniformly distributed throughout the ∴ SI unit of M = = 1VsA −1 = 1henry ( H )
1A
volume of the solenoid because the magnetic field is
uniform everywhere inside. The energy density is ■ Factors on which mutual inductance depends.
defined as the energy per unit volume. The energy stored a. Number of turns : Larger the number of turns in the
two solenoids, larger will be their mutual inductance.
per unit volume of the magnetic field.
M ∝ N1 N2
U B 1 B2 b. Common cross-sectional area: Larger the common
= Joules/meter 3
Aℓ 2 µ 0 cross-sectional area of two solenoids, larger will be
This equation gives the energy density stored at their mutual inductance.
c. Relative separation: Larger the distance between two
any point where the magnetic induction is B solenoids, smaller will be the magnetic flux linked
■ Mutual Inductance- with the secondary coil due to current in the primary
Mutual Induction is the phenomenon of production of coil. Hence smaller will be the value of M.
induced emf in one coil due to a change of current in the d. Relative orientation of the two coil: M is maximum
neighboring coil. when the entire flux of the primary is linked with the
secondary, i.e., when the primary coil completely
envelopes the secondary coil. M is minimum when the
two coils are perpendicular to each other, as shown in
figure.

Basic Electricity 224 YCT

e. Permeability of the core material: If the two coils • Self inductance in wound solenoid
are wonder over an iron core of relative permeability µr, long solenoid µ NNA
their mutual inductance increases µr times. M = 0 1 2 = µ 0 n 2 Aℓ
µNA 2
ℓ
Coefficient of coupling: The coefficient of coupling of L= 0 = µ0 n 2 Aℓ
two coils gives a measure of the manner in which the two ℓ
coils are coupled together. If L1 and L2 are the self-
inductances of two coils and M is their mutual ■ Key Points-
inductance, then their coefficient of coupling is given by
• When two coils are inductively coupled, in addition to
M
K= the emf produced due to mutual indication, induced
L1L 2 emf is set up in the two coils due to self-induction also.
The value of K lies between 0 and 1. • The mutual inductance of two coils is a property of
their combination. The value of M remains unchanged
■ Formula for self induction and Mutual irrespective of the fact that current is passed through
Induction– one coil or the other.
Self Inductance Mutual Inductance • While calculating the mutual inductance of two long
co-axial solenoids, the cross-sectional area of the inner
• φ = LI • φ = MI
solenoid is to be considered.
• Induced emf = dI • While calculating the mutual inductance of two co-
• Induced emf = − M
dI dt axial solenoids of different lengths, the length of the
−L
dt • M.I of two closely larger solenoid is to be considered.

Electromagnetic Waves
Displacement Current:–
• Displacement current is that current which comes into
existence, in addition to the conduction current whenever
the electric field and hence the electric flux changes with
time.
dφE  x
ID = ε 0 E = E0 sin ω  t − 
dt  c
Where, ID = Displacement current  x
B = B0 sin ω  t −  a
φE = Electric field × area = EA is the electric flux across  c
the loop. Properties of E M waves:–
Need for Displacement current 1. The electric and Magnetic fields E and B are always
• Ampere's circuit law for conduction current during perpendicular to the direction in which the wave is
charging of a capacitor was found inconsistent. travelling thus the electromagnetic wave is a
Therefore Maxwell modified Ampere's circuit law. transverse wave.
• The displacement current produces in space due to 2. E M waves carry momentum and energy.
change of electric flux linked with the surface. This 3. E M wave travel through vacuum with the speed of
reveals that, varying electric field is the source of 1
light 'c' where c = = 3×108 ms–1.
magnetic field. µ0 ε0
Electromagnetic waves:– 4. The instantaneous magnitude of E and B in an E M
E
• An electromagnetic wave is a wave radiated by an waves are related by the expression = c
accelerated or oscillatory charge in which varying B
magnetic field is the source of electric field and 5. The cross product E × B always gives the direction in
varying electric field is the source of magnetic field. which the wave travels.
Thus two fields becomes source of each other and the 6. Energy associated with an electromagnetic wave is
wave propagates in a direction perpendicular to both 1 B2
U = ε0 E 2 +
the fields. 2 2µ 0

Basic Electricity 225 YCT

 U ■ Maxwell's Equations in Differential and
7. Linares Momentum delivered to the Surface P =
c Integral Form-
U = Total energy transmitted by Electromagnetic Differential Integral form
waves form
c = Speed of electromagnetic wave. • ρ q
Key Points:–
∇.E =
E0 ∫ E.dS =
ε0
(Gauss law in Electrost

1. An alternating current of frequency 50 Hz becomes

zero, 100 times in one second because alternating • ∂B ∂B .
∂t ∫
current changes direction and becomes zero twice in a ∇×E = − E.d ℓ = − ∫ dS (Faraday 's law
∂t
cycle.
2. An alternating current cannot be used to conduct
• ∇. B = 0
electrolysis because the ions due to their inertia ∫ B.dS = 0 (Gauss law in Magnetism
cannot follow the changing electric field.
3. Average value of AC is always defined over half
∂E
cycle because average value of AC over a complete ∇ × B = µ 0 J + ∫ B.d ℓ = µ 0 Ienc + µ 0 ε 0 ∫ (Modifi
cycle is always zero. ∂t

Maxwell's Equations of Electromagnetic waves:–

• Maxwell's Equation are the basic laws of electricity and Magnetism. These equations give complete description
of all electromagnetic interactions.
Electromagnetic Spectrum
• The arranged array of electromagnetic radiation in the sequence of their wavelength or frequency is called
electromagnetic spectrum.
Type Wavelength range Production Detection
Radio > 0.1 m Rapid acceleration and decelerations Receiver's aerials
of electrons in aerials
Microwave 0.1m to 1 mm Klystron valve or magnetron valve Point contact diodes
Infra-red 1 mm to 700 nm Vibration of atoms and molecules Thermopiles Bolometer, Infrared
photographic film
Light 700 nm to 400 nm Electrons in atoms emit light when The eye Photocells, Photographic
they move from one energy level to film
a lower energy level
Ultraviolet 400 nm to 100 nm Inner shell electrons in atoms Photocells Photographic film
moving from one energy level to a
lower level
X-rays 10 nm to 10–2nm X-ray tubes or inner shell electrons Photographic film Geiger tubes
Ionisation chamber
Gamma rays < 10–3 nm Radioactive decay of the nucleus -do-
Photon- Phenomenon of photoelectric effect proves • Each photon in vacuum travels with the speed of light
Einstein's quantum theory of light. According to which C = 3×108 m/s.
light interacts with any substance, then each packet of • All photo nodes of a certain frequency or wavelength
energy acts like a bundle or packet of energy is called have same energy and momentum. That is, increasing
photon. the intensity of light only increases the number of
photons passing through that region. All photons have
• Photon cannot be divided into other smaller pieces as it the same energy.
is considered in fundamental particles like elementary • Photons are electrically neutral, so they are not
particle in nature. According to max Planck's quantum deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
theory, photons move in the form of tiny packets of • In collision of a photon with an electron, the total
energy. energy and total momentum is conserved. The photon
Properties of photon- may be absorbed in the collision or a new photon may
• When light interacts with matter, it behaves as if it is be created, that is, it is not necessary that the number
made up of particles. of photons should be conserved. That means photons
can be destroyed as well as created.
Basic Electricity 226 YCT
• The mass of the photon and energy in the rest position • If the Photon's wavelength is known, the Photon's
is zero. hc
• Energy of photon-The energy of a photon can be energy can be calculated using the formula E=
λ
calculated in two ways. Where, h = is Plank's constant
• If the Photon's frequency f is known, we can use the c = is the speed of light
formula
λ= wavelength of the photon.
E = hf. it is known as Planck's equation.
Hence, we can calculate the energy of photon by using
Where, E = is energy
hc
f = Frequency either E = hf or E= .
h = Planck's constant (6.62×10–34Js ) λ

Basic Electronics
■ Solids:-It is a state of matter which has a definite (iv) They do not possess definite facets or faces.
shape and a definite volume. The characteristic
properties of the solid depends upon the nature of
forces acting between their constituent of particles
(i.e., ions atoms or molecules)
Solids are divided into two categories–
1. Crystalline Solids
(i) These solids have definite external geometrical form.
(ii) Ions, atoms or molecules of these solids are arranged
in a definite fashion in all it's three dimensions.
(iii) Examples:- Quartz, Calcite, mica, diamond etc.
(iv) They have well defined facets or faces.
(v) They are ordered at short range as well as at long
range.
(vi) They have sharp melting point.
(vii) Bond strengths are identical throughout the solid.
(viii)These are considered as true solids.
(ix) An important property of crystals is their symmetry.
(v) These have short range order
(vi) They are isotropic
(vii) They do not have a sharp melting point
(viii) Bond strengths vary
(ix) These are considered as pseudo-solids or super
cooled liquids.
(x) Amorphous solids do not have any symmetry.
■ Terms Related with Crystal Structure:-
(i). Crystal lattice:- It is a geometrical arrangement of
points in space where if atoms or molecules of a solid are
placed, we obtain an actual crystal structure of the solid.
(ii). Basis:- The atoms or molecules attached with every
lattice point in a crystal structure is called the basis of
crystal structure.
(iii). Unit cell:- It is defined as that volume of the solid
form which the entire crystal structure can be constructed
by the translational repetition in three dimensions. The
length of three sides of a unit cell (3D) are called
primitives or lattice constant. They are denoted by a, b, c.

2. Amorphous or glassy solids:-

(iv) Primitive cell:- A primitive cell is a minimum
(i) These solids have no definite external geometrical
volume unit cell or the simple unit cell with particles
form.
only at the corners and all other types of unit cells are
(ii) Ions, atoms or molecules of these solids are not
called non-primitive unit cells.
arranged in a definite fashion.
There is only one lattice point per primitive
(v) Crystallographic axis:- The lines drawn parallel to
the lines of intersection of the faces of the unit cell are
called Crystallographic axis.
All the crystals on the basis of the shape of their unit
cells have been divided into seven crystal system as
(iii) Example:- Rubber, Plastic, Paraffin wax, Cement shown in the following table. These system arranged in
etc. 14 Bravais lattices.

Basic Electricity 227 YCT

 System Lattice Constants Angle between Example
lattice constants
Cubic

Diamond, NaCl, Li,

Ag, NH4Cl, Pb,
a=b=c α = β = γ = 90º
Zinc blende, Cu
etc.

Number of lattices = 3
Tetragonal

White tin (SnO2),

a=b≠c α = β = γ = 90º NiSO4 TiO2, CaSO4
etc.

Number of lattices = 2
Orthorhombic

HgCl2, KNO3,
a≠b≠c α = β = γ = 90º Gallium Rhombic
Sulphur, BaSO4etc.

Number of lattices = 4
Monoclinc

KClO3, FeSO4,
α = γ = 90º and Monoclinc Sulphur
a≠b≠c
β ≠ 90º Na2SO4. 10 H2O
elc.

Number of lattices = 2

Basic Electricity 228 YCT

 Triclinic

K2Cr2O7,
a≠b≠c α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90º CuSO4.5H2O,
H3BO3 etc.

Number of lattices = 1

Rhombohedral

Calcite(CaCO3),
a=b=c α = β = γ ≠ 90º As, Sb, Bi, HgS
(Cinnabar) etc.

Number of lattices = 1
Hexagonal

Zn, Cd and Ni,

α = β = 90º and
a=b≠c Graphite, ZnO,
γ = 120º CdS etc.

Number of lattices = 1
Comparison of Cell Properties of Some Crystal Structures
Body Face Hexagonal Close
Diamond Simple
S.No. Properties Centered Centered Packed
Cubic (DC) Cubic (SC)
Cubic (BCC) Cubic (FCC) Structure (HCP)
Volume of unit 3
1. a3 a3 a3 a3 3a 2 c
cell 2
Number of atoms
2. 8 1 2 4 6
per unit cell
Number of atoms 8 1 2 4 4
3.
per unit volume a3 a3 a3 a3 3a 2 c
Number of
nearest
4. neighbours 4 6 8 12 12
(coordination
number)

Basic Electricity 229 YCT

 Nearest
5. neighbour a 3 a a 3 a 2 a
distance (2r) 4 2 2
a 3 a a 3 a 2 a
6. Atomic radius
8 2 4 4 2
Atomic packing
7. 0.034 0.52 0.68 0.74 0.74
factor
Germanium, Sodium, Aluminium,
Magnesium Zinc
8. Examples Silicon and Polonium Lithium and Copper, Silver
and Cadmium
Carbon Chromium and Lead
■ Bonding Forces in Crystals:- The properties (iii) Bonding between H2, Cl2 molecules, Ge, Si quartz,
of a solid are mainly determined by the type of diamond etc. are common examples of covalent
bonding that exists between the atoms. According to bonding.
bonding in crystals they are classified into following 3. Metallic bonds:- This type of bonding is formed
types:- due to attraction of valence (free) electrons with the
1. Ionic crystal:- This type of bonding is formed due positive ion cores.
to transfer of electrons between atoms and (i) Their conductivity decreases with rise of
consequent attraction between them. temperature
(i) In NaCl Crystal, the electron of Na atom is (ii) When visible light falls on a metallic crystal, the
transferred to chlorine atom. In this way Na atom electrons of atom absorb visible light, so they are
changes in to Na+ ion and Cl atom changes into Cl– opaque to visible light.
4. Vander Waal's crystal:- These crystals consist of
ion.
neutral atoms or molecules bonded together in solid
(ii) Cause of bonding is electrostatic force between
phase by weak, short range attractive force & called
positive and negative ions. Vander Waal's forces.
(iii) These crystals are usually hard, brittle and possess (i) This bonding is weakest and occurs in solid CO2,
high melting and boiling point. methane, paraffin, ice etc.
(iv) These are bad conductors of electricity. (ii) They are normally insulator and soft, easily
(v) Common examples are NaCl, CsCl, LiF etc. compressible and posses low melting point.
2. Covalent Crystal:- Covalent bonding is formed by 5. Hydrogen bonding:- Hydrogen bonding is due to
sharing of electrons of opposite spins between two permanent dipole interaction.
atoms. (i) This bond is stronger than Vander Waal's bond but
(i) The conductivity of these solids rise with rise in much weaker than ionic and covalent bond.
temperature. (ii) They posses low melting point
(ii) These crystals Posses high melting point. (iii) Common examples are H2O, HF etc.
Energy Bands of Solids
Theory of energy band is based on the Pauli Exclusion 2.
Conduction band:- The higher energy level band
Principle. In isolated atom the valence electrons can exist is called the conduction band.
only in one of the allowed orbital's each of a sharply (i) It is also called empty band of minimum energy.
defined energy called energy levels. When two atom are (ii) This band is partially filled by the electrons.
brought nearest to each other, there are alterations in (iii) In this band the electrons can gain energy from
energy levels and they spread in the form of bands. external electric field.
■ Energy bands are of following types:- (iv) The electrons in the conduction band are called the
1. Valence band:- The energy band formed by a free electrons. They are able to move anywhere
series of energy levels containing valence electrons within the volume of the solid.
is known as valence band. At '0' K, the electron fill (v) Current flows due to such electrons.
the energy levels in valence band starting from 3. Forbidden energy gap:- (∆Eg)
lowest one. Energy gap between conduction band and valence
(i) This band is always filled with electrons. band is known as forbidden energy gap.
(ii) This is the band of maximum energy. ∆E g = ( C.B.)min − ( V.B.)max
(iii) Electrons are not capable of gaining energy from
external electric field.
(iv) No flow of current due to electrons present in this
band.
(v) The highest energy level which can be occupied by
an electron in valence band at '0' K is called Fermi
level.

Basic Electricity 230 YCT

(i) No Free electron is present in forbidden energy provided so much energy from any external source
gap. that is can jump this energy gap.
(ii) Width of forbidden energy gap depends upon the • Insulators are those substances which do not allow
nature of substance. charges to move through it. e.g. Non- metals,
(iii) As temperature increase (↑), forbidden energy Plastic Gases, pure water etc.
gap decrease (↓) very slightly.
■ Classification of solids on the basis of Empty
energy bands- Depending on whether the energy
band gap is zero, large or small the solid may be
classified into conductors, insulators and
semiconductor.
1. Conductors (metals):-
In case of metals either the conduction band is
partially filled and valence band is partially empty or
conduction band and valence band overlap in case of 3. Semiconductors
overlapping, electrons from valence band can easily The energy band structure of a semiconductor is shown
move into conduction band thus large number of in figure. It is similar to that of an insulator but with a
electrons are available for conduction. comparatively small energy gap (Eg < 3ev)
At absolute zero temperature the conduction band of
In case valence band is empty, electrons from its
semi conductor is totally empty and valence band is
lower level can move to higher level making
conduction possible. This is the reason why completely filled.
resistance of metals is low or the conductivity is Therefore, they are insulators at low temperatures
high.
• Conductors are those substances which allow
charges to move within it. e.g. metal electrolytes tap
water, human body etc.

■ Holes in Semi conductors:-

(i)When an electron is removed from a covalent bond it
leaves a vacancy behind. An electron from a
neighbouring atom can move into this vacancy leaving
the neighbour with a vacancy. In this way the vacancy
2. Insulators formed is called hole (or crater) and can travel through
the material and serve as an additional current carrier.
In insulators, the valence band is completely filled (ii) A hole is considered as a seat of positive charge,
whereas the conduction band is completely empty. having magnitude of charge equal to that of an electron.
As there is no electron in conduction band so no (iii) Holes act as virtual charge, although there is no
electrical conduction is possible. The energy gap physical charge on it.
between conduction band and valence band is so (iv) Effective mass of hole is more than electron.
large (Eg > 3ev) that electron in valence band can be (v) Mobility of hole is less than electron.
Semiconductors
Semiconductors are the materials which have a • The drift velocity of electrons (Ve) is greater than that
conductivity between conductors (generally metals) and of holes (Vn)
non-conductors or insulators (such as ceramics). • Fermi energy level lies at the centre of the C.B. and
example : Germanium. Gallium arsenide and Silicon are V.B.
the most commonly used semiconductors. Silicon is used • In pure semiconductor, impurity must be less than 1 in
in electronic circuit fabrication and gallium arsenide is 108 part of semiconductor
used in solar cells, laser diodes etc. • In intrinsic semi conductor n (eσ) = n (o) n = n, where
■ Types of semiconductors n (eσ ) = electron density in conduction band, n (o) n =
(i) Intrinsic Semiconductor
Hole density in V.B, ni = density of intrinsic carriers.
• A semiconductor in its pure state is called intrinsic
(ii) Extrinsic Semiconductor:-
semiconductor. It has thermally generated current
• An impure semiconductor is called extrinsic
carriers.
semiconductor when pure semiconductor material is
• They have four electrons in the outermost orbit of mixed with small amounts of certain specific
atom and atoms are held together by covalent band. impurities with valency different from that of the
• Free electrons and holes both are charge carriers and ne parent material the number of mobile electrons/holes
(in C.B.) = nh (in V.B.) drastically changes.
Basic Electricity 231 YCT
• The process of addition of impurity is called doping.
• In extrinsic semiconductor ne ≠ nh.
• The number of atoms of impurity element is about 1 in
108 atoms of the semiconductor. In extrinsic
semiconductors fermi level shifts towards valence or
conduction energy band. 2. P type semiconductor:-
These are obtained by adding a small amount of trivalent
[Boron (B), Aluminium (Al) Gallium (Ga) etc.] impurity
to a pure sample of semiconductor (Ge).
Intrinsic trivalent
+ impurity  → P − type semiconductor
1. N type semiconductor – These are obtained by S.C.
adding a small amount of pentavalent [Phosphorus (P),
Arsenic (As), Antimony (Sb) etc] Impurity to a pure
sample of semiconductor (Ge).

Intrinsic Pentavalent
+ → N − typesemiconductor

S.C. impurity

• Majority charge carriers – holes

Minority charge carriers – electrons
• nh >> ne; ih >> ie
• Conductivity σ ≅ n n µ n e
• P type semiconductor is also electrically neutral (not
• Majority charge carriers → electrons positively charged). Impurity is called acceptor
Minority charge carriers → holes impurity acceptor energy level lies just about the
• ne >> nh, ie >> ih valence band.
• conductivity σ ≈ ne µe e
• N–type semiconductor is electrically neutral (not
negatively) charged. Impurity is called donor impurity
because one impurity atom generates one
electron. Donor energy level lies just below the
conduction band.
Densities of charge carriers:-
Material Type Density of conduction Density of holes (m-3)
electrons (m-3)
Copper Conductor 9×1028 0
15
Silicon intrinsic semiconductor 7×10 7×1015
Silicon doped with
N-type
phosphorus 5×1022 1×109
semiconductor
(1 part in 106)
Silicon doped with
P-type
Aluminium 1×109 5×1022
semiconductor
(1 part in 106)

P-N junction & Diodes

■ P-N junction Diode:- 1. Depletion region:- Depletion region or depletion
When a P-type semiconductor is suitably joined to an layer is a region in a P-N junction diode where no mobile
N-type semiconductor, then resulting arrangement is charge carriers are present. Depletion layer acts like a
called P–N junction or P–N junction diode. barrier that opposes the flow of electrons from n-side and
holes from p-side. On account of different concentration
of charge carries in the two sections of P-N junction the
electron from N-region diffuse through the junction into
P-region and the hole from P-region diffuse into N-
region.
Basic Electricity 232 YCT
Due to diffusion, neutrality of both N and P type • In forward biasing resistance offered
semiconductor is disturbed. R Forward ≈ 10Ω − 25Ω
• Forward bias opposes the potential barrier and for V
> VB a forward current is set up across the junction.
 ev 
The current is given by i = is  e KT − 1
 
Where–
is = saturation current in the exponent.
e = 1.6×10–19 C
k = Boltzmann's constant.
2. Reverse Biasing:- Positive terminal of the battery is
connected to the N-crystal and negative terminal of
–6 the battery is connected to P-crystal.
• The thickness of depletion layer is 1 micron = 10 m.
1
• Width of depletion layer ∝
Dopping
• Depletion is directly proportional to temperature the
P-N junction diode is equivalent to capacitor in which
the depletion layer acts as a dielectric.
2. Potential barrier:- It is the potential difference
created across the P-N junction due to the diffusion of
electrons and holes.
For Ge, VB = 0.3V and for silicon VB = 0.7V
On the average the potential barrier in P-N junction is ~
0.5V and the width of depletion region ~ 10-6m.
V 0.5
So the barrier electric field E = = −6 = 5×105 V/m
d 10
3. Diffusion and drift current:- • In reverse biasing width of depletion layer increases.
• Diffusion current is a current in a semiconductor
• In reverse biasing resistance offered reverse ≈ 105 Ω
caused by the diffusion of charge carriers (holes and/
or electrons). This current is due to transport of • The net reverse current is given by-
charges occurring because of non-uniform charged I = Drift current – diffusion current
particles in a semiconductor. ■ Special Purpose Diodes:-
• Drift current is the current flow in semiconductor due 1. Zener diode- It is a highly doped p-n junction
to the applied electric field. It is due to motion of which is not damaged by high reverse current. It can
charge carriers due to the force exerted on them by an operate continuously without being damaged in the
electric field. region of reverse background voltage. In the forward
bias the Zener diode acts as ordinary diode. It can be
■ Biasing:- It means the way of connecting emf used as voltage regulator.
sourced to P-N junction diode. It is of following two
types.
(1) Forward Biasing: Positive terminal of the battery is
connected to the P-crystal and negative terminal as
the battery is connected to N-Crystal.

2. Light Emitting diode (LED):- These are specially

designed diodes which give out light radiations
when forward biased. LED's are made of GaAsP,
• In forward biasing width of depletion layer decreases. GaP etc.
Basic Electricity 233 YCT
 4. Solar cells:- It is based on the photovoltaic effect.
One of the semiconductor region is made so thin that
the light incident on it reaches the P–N Junction and
gets absorbed. It converts solar energy into electrical
energy.

3. Photo diode:- Photo diode is a special type of

photo-detector. (i.e. hν > Eg).
Here, Photon energy (hν) > Band energy (Eg)

■ P-N Junction Diode as a Rectifier:-

Rectifier is a circuit which converts ac to
unidirectional pulsating output. In other words it
converts ac to dc. It is of following types.
Parameter Half Wave Full Wave
(or one pulse) (two Pulse)
Center-tap Bridge
DC output voltage Vm 2Vm 2Vm
π π π
RMS value of output voltage Vms Vm Vm Vm
2 2 2
Ripple voltage Vr 0.3856 Vm 0.3077 Vm 0.3077 Vm
Voltage ripple factor (V.R.F.) 1.211 0.482 0.482
Rectification efficiency ( η ) 40.53% 81.06% 81.06%
TUF 0.2865 0.672 0.8106%
PIV Vm 2Vm Vm
C.F. 2 2 2
No. of diodes 1 2 4
Ripple frequency f 2f 2f

Transistors
Transistor is a type of a semiconductor device that can be
used to both conduct and insulate electric current or
voltage. A transistor basically acts as switch and an
amplifier. In simple words, we can say that a transistor is
a miniature device that is used to control or regulate the
flow of electronic signals.
■ It consists of three main regions:-
2. PNP transistor:- It is formed by sandwiching a thin
• Emitter (E):- It provides majority charge carriers by
layer of N-type semiconductor between two P-type
which current flows in the transistor. Therefore the
emitter semiconductor is heavily doped. semiconductor. In PNP transistor holes are majority
• Base (B):- The based region is lightly doped and charge carriers and flow from emitter to base. In the
thin. symbols of both NPN and PNP transistor arrow
• Collector (C):- The size of collector region is larger indicates the direction of conventional current.
than the two other regions.
■ Junction transistors are of two types-
1. NPN transistor – It is formed by sandwiching 1
thin layer of P-type semiconductor between two N-type
semiconductors. In NPN transistor electrons are majority
charge carriers and flow from emitter to Base.

Basic Electricity 234 YCT

■ Working of transistors:- • From the operation of junction transistor it is found
• There are four possible ways of biasing the two P-N that when the current in emitter circuit changes is
junctions (emitter junction and collector junction of corresponding change in collector current.
transistor.) • In each state of the transistor there is an input port
and an output port. In general each electrical
(a) Active mode:- Also known as linear mode
quantity (V or I) obtained at the output is controlled
operation. by the input.
(b) Saturation mode:- Maximum collector current
■ Transistor configurations:-
flows and transistor acts as a closed switch from A transistor can be connected in a circuit in the
collector to emitter terminals. following three different configurations. Common
(c) Cut off mode:- Denotes operations like an open base (CB), Common emitter (CE) and Common
switch where only leakage current flows. Collector (CC) configuration
(d) Inverse mode:- The emitter and collector are (i) CB Configurations- Base is common to both
interchanged. emitter and collector.
• A transistor is mostly used in the active region of (ii) CE Configurations- Emitter is common to both
operation i.e. emitter base junction is forward biased base and collector.
and collector base junction is reverse biased. (iii) CC Configurations- Collector is common to both
base and emitter.
■ Comparison of Amplifier Configurations
S. No. Particulars Common Base Common Emitter Common Collector
1. Current Gain Nearly Unity High Very High
2. Voltage Gain High Very High Nearly Unity
3. Power Gain High High Low
4. Input Impedance Low High Very High
5. Output Impedance Very High High Low
6. Phase Reversal No Yes No

Logic Gates and Truth Tables

■ Logic Gates:- The digital circuit that can be
analysed with the help of Boolean algebra is called logic
gate or logic circuit. A logic gate has two or more inputs
but only one output.
There are primarily three logic gates namely the OR
gate, the AND gate and the NOT gate.
■ Truth table:- The operation of a logic gate or
circuit can be represented in a table which contains all
possible inputs and their corresponding outputs is called
the truth table. To write the truth table we use binary
digit 1 and 0.

Name Logical symbol Boolean Expression Truth table

A Y=A
Not
Y=A 0 1
(Inverter)
1 0

A B Y = A.B
0 0 0
AND Y = A. B 0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

A B Y =A+B
0 0 0
OR Y= A + B 0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

Basic Electricity 235 YCT

 A B A.B Y = A.B
0 0 0 1
NAND
(Universal) Y = A⋅B 0 1 0 1
1 0 0 1
1 1 1 0

A B A+B Y =A+B
0 0 0 1
NOR
(Universal) Y =A+B 0 1 1 0
1 0 1 0
1 1 1 0

A B Y = A ⊕ B = AB + AB
0 0 0
Y=A⊕B
XOR 0 1 1
= AB + AB
1 0 1
1 1 0

A B A⊕B Y = A⊕B
0 0 0 1
X-NOR Y = A⊕B 0 1 1 0
1 0 1 0
1 1 1 0

Exam Pointer
■ An electromotive force is obtained from ■ Heating effect of electric current is not used in - Cell
- Battery, cell and generator ■ Which instrument is used for measuring electric
■ How many times a proton is heavier than on electron potential - Voltmeter
- 1836 times ■ The value of load emf is always ...... than the source
■ The SI unit of conductivity is - Siemens per meter emf - Less
■ The three main effect of electric current are ■ Resistor is used in electric circuit
- Thermal, magnetic and chemical - To reduce the flow of current
■ The charge on the neutron is - Zero ■ Open circuit, short circuit and closed circuit these are
■ The unit of electric charge is - Coulomb - Electric circuits
■ Which effect of electric current is used in high ■ The relationship between the three factors of
luminous intensity bulbs - Gas ionization effect
V
■ The value of charge on proton is electricity, ohm's law is I=
- 1.67 × 10–19 Coulomb R
■ The substances which have a large number of free ■ EMF is measured in - Volt
electrons -Conductor ■ Aluminum is best used for making plates of
■ The force which induces the flow of electrons in a measuring instruments because aluminum is
circuit is called - Electric voltage -light in weight
■ An electrically charged atom, molecule or group of ■ The natural property of a substance which allows
molecules is known as - Ions electric current to flow through it is called
■ When the value of electric current in a conducting - Conductivity
wire is zero, then the potential difference also ■ The difference of potential between two point in an
becomes - Zero electric circuit is - Potential difference
■ When electric current flows towards the earth, the ■ The number of electrons or protons in an atom of an
potential of the object is - Positive element is called - Atomic number
■ As the temperature of a conducting wire increases its ■ Nichrome wire is made from -
resistance - Increases Nickel and Chromium
Basic Electricity 236 YCT
■ The force which drives the current in a conducting ■ Diamond does not conduct electricity because
wire from one end to the other is called - It does not have any free electron
- Electromotive force (EMF) ■ Transistors are most likely to be an
■ The material which has low resistance to electricity - Audio equipment
and it is a good conductor of electricity - Copper ■ The region passing through the earth's north and
■ Which metal is the best conductor of electricity south magnetic pole is the - Magnetic meridian
- Silver ■ Fleming's left hand rule is related to
■ The relationship between the length of the wire and - The magnetic field of the current
the number of coils is - Directly proportional ■ The process of adding impurities to semiconductor is
■ In order to reduce the speed of electricity through an called - Doping
insulator, the material of the insulator should have ■ A galvanometer can be converted into voltmeter by
- Dielectric strength - Adding a high resistance in series
■ The charge of an electron is - (–1.67×10–19) Coulomb ■ The frequency of direct current is - Zero
■ The current in each resistor in a series circuit is ■ Transistor is used as - Amplifying device
- Same ■ The full form of 'IC' in electronics is
■ The capacity of a battery is expressed as - Integrated circuit
- Ampere-hour (Ah) ■ The process of converting alternating current into
■ The minimum requirement for establishing current direct current is known as - Rectification
flow - Voltage source and conductor ■ Which is not a property of electromagnetic waves
■ Which electrolyte is used in lead acid battery - Interference and diffraction
- Dilute sulfuric acid ■ A device which converts electrical energy into
■ Compared to thick wire of the same length, the mechanical energy - Electric motor
electrical resistance in thin wire is - Greater ■ Resistivity, length of the wire and the area of cross
■ The conductivity of a super conductor is - Infinity section have an effect on - Resistance
■ The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is - Infinity ■ When two resistors R1 and R2 are connected in series,
■ Magnet protectors are pieces of - Soft iron then their equivalent resistance will be - R1 + R2
■ A "NOT Gate" can be implemented by ■ The phenomenon of producing the induced current in
- Single transistor a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and
■ The solids which conduct electricity at higher the coil is called - Electromagnetic induction
temperature but not at lower temperature are called ■ While moving from one end to another end inside a
- Semiconductor solenoid, its magnetic field - Remain same
■ The fuse wire used in domestic electrical appliances
■ Lead and Tin is an alloy of - Solder
is made of a metal which has a - low melting point
■ When the number of turns in a coil is tripled without ■ When the direction of motion of coil is perpendicular
any change in the length of the coil, then its self to the direction of electromagnetic field, then the
inductance becomes - 9 times value of induced current is - Maximum
■ If a resistance of wire R is melted and remelted to ■ The relation between capacitance (C), charge (Q) and
half of its length, then the new resistance of the wire potential (V) is - Q = CV
will be - R/4 ■ The light is composed of small particles, it is called
■ During electro refining, pure metal is collected at - Photon
- Cathode ■ A freely suspended magnetic needle stands in which
■ Silicon is - A semiconductor direction - North-South direction
■ The current carrying conductor is associated with ■ The motion of conductor, magnetic field and induced
- An electromagnetic field current are perpendicular to each other, this is the law
■ The process of pointing wires is called - Splicing of - Fleming's right hand rule
■ A wire of resistance 'R' is cut into 'n' equal parts then ■ Electricians use rubber gloves while working because
these are connected in parallel. The equivalent - Rubber is a bad conductor
resistance of the combination is - R/n2 ■ The process of coating of zinc over iron is called
■ The metal used for making lighting conductor is - Galvanization
- Copper ■ "In the process of electrolysis, the mass of a
■ What is detected by a galvanometer - Current substance deposited at any electrode is directly
■ Which device is used for converting mechanical proportional to the amount of charge passed." This
energy to electrical energy - Dynamo law is
■ The substances which have infinite electrical - Faraday's first law of electrolysis.
resistance are called - Insulators ■ If there is no change in the physical state of a
■ The substance which lose their resistance completely conductor like temperature etc., then the potential
at very low temperature. These substances are called difference applied across the conductor is directly
- Super conductor proportional to the current flowing in it. This is the
■ The filament of an electric bulb is made of rule of
- Tungsten - Ohm's law
Basic Electricity 237 YCT
■ The resistance of an ideal ammeter - Zero ■ The order of magnitude of the electrical resistance of
■ The value of dielectric constant of a material is a dry human body is - 104 ohm
always - Greater than 1 ■ Which method can be used for absolute measurement
■ A 'fuse wire' is used in an electric circuit to of resistance - Wheat stone bridge method
- Break the circuit when excessive current flowing ■ The temperature of the filament of a burning electric
through the circuit bulb's is generally - 3000ºC to 3500ºC
■ Kirchhoff's first law is based on the conservation of ■ The semiconductor chip used in an integrated circuit
which quantity - Charge is made of - Silicon
■ Capacitance is a quantity of - Scalar ■ Transformers are used for
■ The rate of flow of charge in a conductor is called - Stepping up or stepping down the AC
- Current voltage
■ There is a loud noise when the glass of bulb is broken ■ The most commonly used substance in fluorescent
because tubes are - Mercury vapour and Argon
- Air enters the vacuum rapidly inside the bulb ■ In a three pin plug, the longest pin should be
■ Why is air completely removed from the electric bulb connected to - Neutral end
- Because to prevent oxidation of tungsten
■ The energy stored in the dry cell is in the form of
filament
■ Fluorescent tubes are preferred over electric bulbs - Chemical energy
because ■ If the electrical resistance of a substance suddenly
- In a tube, electrical energy is almost converted drops to zero, then the substance is called
into light energy - Superconductor
■ Nichrome wire is used as a heating element because ■ If a resistive wire is elongated, its resistance is
- It has high specific resistance and does not form - Increases
oxide when red hot. ■ If two conductors are carrying current in the same
■ The ratio of voltage and current in a closed circuit is direction, then - Conductors will attract each other
- Same ■ If two resistors of 5 ohm are connected in parallel,
■ What is the effect on resistance due to increase in then the equivalent resistance will be - 2.5 Ω
cross sectional area of the conductor. - Decrease ■ A stationary electric charge produces
■ The specific resistance of the conductor depends on - An electric field only
- Structure of the conductor ■ The property of circuit which converts electrical
■ The force acting between two electric charge is energy into heat is called - resistance
related with - Coulomb's law ■ The electric current flows in a conductor due to
■ Metals are good conductors of electricity because - Potential difference
- They have free electrons ■ Which behaviour is used to understand the flow of
■ 'Earthing' is used in electrical equipment for - Safety current in a network of conductors - Kirchhoff's law
■ According to Kirchoff's law in an electric circuit, the
■ The resistance of the human body is approximately
algebraic sum of current at any junction is - Zero
■ Fans, bulbs etc installed in houses, they are connected - 1000 Ω
in - Parallel ■ Several lamps are connected in parallel with a voltage
■ The SI unit of specific resistance is - Ohm-meter source. If one lamp burns out then other lamps will
■ The electrolyte in dry cell is - not be affected
- Ammonium chloride and zinc chloride ■ The color of the neutral wire for a three phase 4 wire
■ The energy which an electron acquired when system is - Black
accelerated, through a potential difference of 1 volt is ■ The topmost conductor in a high voltage transmission
called -1W lines would be - Guard or earth conductor
■ When a soap bubble is charged, then - It expands ■ The unit of capacitance is - Farad
■ Which device is used to change the speed of an ■ Dielectrics are - insulating substances
electric fan. - Regulator ■ Which rule of Kirchhoff is applicable for node or
■ On putting two electric wires in a bucket full of
junction analysis - KCL
water, lots of bubbles are being formed near both the
wires. This suggests that the type of supply ■ The commercial unit of electrical energy - KWH
- D.C. supply ■ Which resistor is used in fan regulator? - Eureka
■ The resistance of a material decreases if ■ What is the amount of electric current that can give
- The number of free electrons increases. painful electric shock - 50 mA
■ Approximately how much part of the energy ■ One BOT unit is equal to - 1000 Watt-hour
expanded in tube light is converted into light. ■ Total resistance in parallel combination - Decreases
- 60-70% ■ The winding resistance of a coil can be increased by
■ The filament of an electric bulb starts glowing when - Increasing the number of turns
current is passed through it, but the wire carrying ■ In what order should the batteries be connected to get
current in the filament does not glow, because high resistance and low current. - Series order
- The leading wire has less resistance than the ■ In a resistive load, power dissipation would be
filament. proportional to - (Current)2
Basic Electricity 238 YCT
■ The thickness of a wire depends on the value of ■ Aluminium is preferred to be a bus-bar material
- Electric current because of - low cost
■ The thickness of the insulation of the wire depends on ■ What is the time period (t) of oscillation having 50
the - Voltage cycles per second - t = 20 m-sec
■ If the length of an electrical resistance is doubled, ■ Which power is measured by a wattmeter for an
then its resistivity will - remains constant alternating current circuit - Active power
■ A charge is present in a conductor the most suitable ■ What are an example of integrated instrument
way to remove this charge is to - Energy meter, Ampere hour meter and Kilovolt
- Grounding the conductor ampere hour meter etc.
■ The electric field inside a hollow conducting sphere is ■ The correct expression of power factor is
- Zero Truepower
■ Static electricity can be produced by - Friction -
Apparent power
■ Ohm's law is valid only when
- Temperature is constant ■ The power factor of the RC circuit is - leading
■ The number of electrons in one coulomb of charge is ■ Which is usually not the generating voltage - 9.9 kv
- 0.625×1019 electrons ■ On which factors skin effect depends
■ When an electron transitions from one level to - Size of conductor, frequency and resistivity
another, then it - Emits or absorbs photons ■ If three resistors are connected in parallel then the
■ The electrons always flow in the opposite direction to 1
total resistance (Req.) will be - R eq. =
- Electric current 1 1 1
+ +
■ The temperature coefficient of resistance for a R1 R 2 R 3
thermostat is - Negative ■ A transformer does maximum work at
■ Kirchhoff's current law (KCL) is applicable only - Lagging power factor
- Junction of the network ■ An ideal current source should have
■ A variable capacitor is one whose capacitance may be - Infinite internal resistance
- Changed ■ The fuse current of a fuse depends on its
■ If the current flows in anti clockwise direction, then - Material, length and diameter
its polarity near the pole will be - North pole ■ The net power in a series RC circuit is - Positive
■ Fleming's left hand rule is used for - Motor ■ The power for a purely resistive circuit is zero, when
■ In a Fleming's right hand rule, the thumb indicates - Either current or voltage is zero
- The direction of motion ■ In ac circuit the maximum current required is
■ Fleming's left hand rule is used to find - 0.414 times the effective current
- The direction of force acting on a current ■ At low temperature, semiconductor behave as
carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field. - Insulator
■ Magnetic recording tape is most commonly made ■ The role of an external resistance added in the field of
from - Ferric oxide a D.C. shunt generator is
■ The value of total electric flux coming out of a closed - Decrease the voltage of the generator
ε0

surface will be ■ Which type of DC motor is used for constant speed

- Equal to ( the total charge of the surface/ ) drives - DC shunt motor
■ Which is conserved by Lenz's law ■ Calculate the equivalent resistance when two
- Conservation of energy resistance of 4 Ω and 12 Ω are connected in parallel
■ The direction of the induced emf (electromotive fore) - 3 ohm
is determined by - Fleming's right hand rule ■ Step up transformer is used in - Electric bell
■ If a ferromagnetic material is heated upto curie ■ Electric current flows in a conductor due to
temperature, it becomes - Paramagnetic material - Flow of electrons
■ If a conductor is moved through a magnetic field ■ Which quantity remains unchanged in a transformer
then, it induced - Voltage - Frequency
■ The best information about whether the battery is ■ According to the IEE rule, the high voltage limit is
fully charged is - from specific gravity of electrolyte - Not exceed to 11000 volts
■ The emf of a storage battery depends upon ■ In the circuit of a fluorescent lamp, the choke is
- Nature of the electrodes connected in - Series with the lamp
■ The friction losses in real transformers are - 0% ■ The electrons in the outermost orbit are known as
■ A transformer works on the principle of - Free electrons
- Mutual induction ■ In an AC circuit when the inductive reactance is
■ Transformer is used to change the value of - Voltage greater than the capacitive reactance
■ Which metal have negative temperature coefficient of - Current lags behind voltage
resistance - Silicon, Mica, Germanium, Carbon ■ What is internal resistance of a discharged battery
■ A circuit is protected by a fuse and thermal overload - Higher
relay (TOLR). In case of short circuit, which will ■ What is the basic three electrical quantities?
operate first - Fuse will operate first - Resistance, capacitance and inductance
Basic Electricity 239 YCT
■ The core of transformer is laminated to reduce ■ The yoke of a direct current machine is made of the
- Eddy current loss which types of magnetic material - Cast iron or steel
■ The no load current of the transformer is usually what ■ During short circuit, current will flow in the circuit is
percent of its full load value - 2 to 5% - Highest
■ At high frequency, the value of inductive reactance ■ A transformer transfers - Power
- Increases ■ Which winding in a transformer has more number of
■ The number of negative plates in a lead cell is turns - High voltage winding
- One less than the positive plate ■ The phase difference between voltage and current in a
■ A cell in which chemical reaction does not recharged purely inductive circuit is - 90º lag
is called - Primary cell ■ The temperature range of ribbon filament of an
■ Ohm's law given the relation between electric iron is - 800ºC - 850ºC
- Current and voltage ■ The rotating part of a ceiling fan is - Rotor
■ At resonance frequency, the value of reactance will ■ The phase current of the star connection circuit is
be equal to - The reactance of the capacitor 57.7 Amperes then the line current will be
■ Transformer core is made up of which material - 100 Ampere
- Silicon laminated steel ■ The characteristic of a common emitter amplifier is
■ The relationship between magnetic flux and - High power gain
F Magnetomotive force ■ Which is not a common cause of mechanical
reluctance is R= = vibration - Worn brushes
φ Magnetic flux ■ The efficiency of power transformers normally vary
■ Examples of ferromagnetic substance are from - 97 to 99%
- Iron, cobalt, nickel, gadolinium, CrO2 etc. ■ The current density of a conductor of large cross
■ A fluorescent lamp has been flickering the lamp sectional area is ......... than that of conductor of small
should be turned off immediately because cross sectional area, when the same current flows
- To increased radio interference through them - Less
■ If a capacitor type table fan in found to run in the ■ Under light load conditions, the transmission voltage
opposite direction, then what should be changed to at the receiver end is .......... than the voltage at the
run in the same direction transmitter - Higher
- Connection of main or starting winding ■ A common method of cooling a power transformer is
■ When two resistor of 20 ohm and 30 ohm are - Oil cooling
connected in series, the equivalent resistance will be ■ Tapping of a transformer is generally given in
- 50 ohm - High voltage winding
■ The tolerance of silver bar is - ±10% ■ Transformer ratings are often expressed as - kVA
■ A battery is connected to a resistance of 20Ω. If a ■ What is the material used in between the outer casing
current of 0.75 ampere has to be produced the 'EMF' and inner casing of a geyser
of the battery will be - 15 V - Glass wool, wood
■ The dielectric strength of transformer expected to be ■ Any fuse must be connected to a conductor in
- 33 kv/mm - Series and line
■ The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum ■ A dynamometer is type of instrument which is used
when - Copper losses = Iron losses to measure - Current, voltage and power
■ Which is not a part of transformer installation ■ The best metal for making fuse wire is -
- Exciter Lead and tin
■ Which side in not short circuit while performing short ■ When there is a leakage current of 10 ampere in an
circuit test on a transformer - Side installation, the current should not exceed - 2 mA
■ The melting point of aluminium solder is ■ The highest transmission voltage in India is - 765 kV
- 170ºC - 215ºC ■ In the case of the DC generator for improving the
■ The main reason, why efficiency of full wave rectifier armature reaction, the brushes are
is twice of half wave rectifier, that - Given forward lead in the direction of
- Its ripple factor is much less rotation of the armature
■ Buchholz relay is used for - Oil cooled transformer ■ The iron core in the transformer is provided for
■ An alternating emf is applied to a pure capacitance - To decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path
such that the capacitive reactance is 10 ohm. If the ■ Fleming's left hand rule is applicable for - D.C. motor
frequency of ac is doubled, the reactance will become ■ To increase the range of an ammeter, we must
-5Ω connect -
■ An ideal current source has zero Low resistance connected in parallel
- Internal conductance with the armature coil.
■ Non-linear VI characteristics are ■ In India, the maximum DC transmission voltage is
- Vacuum diode, transistor and SCRs etc. - 800 kV
■ An ideal diode is ■ The direction of an induced emf is always such that is
- Neither current controlled nor voltage tends to change the flux responsible for inducing that
controlled resistor emf. This is the rule of - Lenz's law
Basic Electricity 240 YCT
■ Which motor should be used for electric traction ■ The heating element of the thermostat in a geyser is
- Series made of - Bimetallic strip
■ The unit of illuminance is - Lux ■ How is the cable fixed to the cable tray- With clamps
■ Where is the field winding mounted in a DC machine ■ Ohm-meter is the unit of - Resistivity
- On the stator ■ The purpose of a backup fuse is to provide protection
■ Which device is used for direct measurement of against - Short circuit
medium resistance - Ohm meter ■ Megger is an instrument of
■ Which device is used for converting AC to DC - Insulation resistance testing
- Rectifier, converter ■ Ohm is the unit of
■ The purpose of a fuse in a circuit is - Inductive reactance and capacitive
- To prevent the excess current reactance
■ The fuse wire is connected to the circuit ■ Coulomb's law for the force between electric charge
- In series with the live wire most closely resembles with
■ The emf of a dry battery is approximately - 1.5 V - Newton law of gravitation
■ The open circuit test on transformer is carried out ■ Tungsten filament is widely used for - Lamps
with - Rated transformer voltage ■ Tesla is the unit of - Magnetic flux density
■ The zero load current in transformer lags behind ■ The magnetic field presents around - Moving charges
applied voltage by - 75ºC ■ The dielectric strength of Bakelite in kV/mm is
■ The objective of earthing is - 12 to 21
- To provide as low resistance possible ■ How is an electric element capacitor specified
to the ground. - Voltage and capacitance
■ A regulator is used in a ceiling fan circuit to ■ Which properties has got higher value for aluminium
- Drop the voltage applied to the fan in comparison to that of copper - Electric resistivity
■ What kind of rotor is most suitable for turbo ■ Voltmeter is used to measure electrical quantity,
alternators designed to run at high speed which measures - Voltage
- Smooth cylindrical type rotor ■ Which type of fire extinguisher is to be used on
■ If a 100 watts bulb is used for 10 hours then the electrical equipment or installation under fire
amount of consumed electrical energy will be - Halon type fire extinguisher
- 1 kWh = 1 unit if electricity ■ The winding in an auto transformer is
■ Carbon filament lamp works on - 1800ºC - One winding with taps
■ Examples of hard ferromagnetic substance is - Alnico ■ The SI unit of 'temperature coefficient of resistance'
■ The resistance of a conductor does not depends on the is
- Electromotive force, humidity - ºC–1 (Per degree) or K–1 (per Kelvin)
■ What is the colour of positive plates of a lead acid ■ Class D fires involve - Combustible metals
battery - Brown ■ Tachometers are used to measure - Rotation speed
■ Filters are used to convert ■ Class A fire should be extinguished by
- Pulsating DC signal into a pure DC signal - Spraying water
■ The element of electric heater is made of - Nichrome ■ Absolute zero pressure will occur
■ The humming noise in transformers is caused by
- When molecular momentum of the
- Magnetostriction
system becomes zero
■ Which type of DC generator is used for electric
welding machine - Differential compound generator ■ The SI unit of luminous flux is - lumen (lm)
■ In a uniform electric field, the electric field lines and ■ Armature winding carries which of current
equipotential lines are - Perpendicular - Load current only
■ The insulating material used between commutator ■ Which type of single phase induction motor is having
segments is - Mica the highest power factor
■ According to IE (Indian electricity) the color code - Permanent capacitor run type motor
used for neutral is - Black ■ Keeping the cross-sectional area is constant, if the
■ The meter that is suitable for only direct current length of a conductors reduced by more than 2 times
measurement is - Permanent magnet type then the resistance of the conductor will be
■ In domestic electric oven, the temperature is - Also reduce by 2 times
controlled by - Thermostat ■ If the duration of AC supply is 0.25 then the supply
■ In an ideal transformer has frequency will be - 4 Hz
- There is no loss in the core ■ The watt hour efficiency of a lead cell varies between
■ The power factor of magnetizing component of - 70 - 80%
transformer is - Zero ■ Which oil is used in transformers - Mineral oil
■ Now-a-days, the cheapest metal which is widely used ■ Which type of wiring is suitable for multi storey
as a conductor is - Aluminium buildings - Tree system
■ The metal which is the best conductor but very ■ In which type of wiring two lamps are switched on at
expensive are - Gold, silver etc. a time - Tunnel wiring
Basic Electricity 241 YCT
■ Automotive vehicle battery is charged with electrical ■ A dry cell is a - zinc carbon battery
energy, the supply must be - Direct current ■ What is the law used to determine the force between
■ The average value of sinusoidal alternating current is two current carrying conductor - Biot savart law
given by - 0.636×Maximum value ■ The SI unit of absolute permittivity is - Farad/meter
■ What is the effect on the speed of a DC shunt motor ■ Which cable are generally suitable for voltage upto
when it is turned from zero to full load condition 11 kv. - Super tension cables
- Decreases slightly ■ The area of hysteresis loop, frequency of reversed
■ Wheatstone bridge is used to measures field and volume of magnetic material which depends
- Resistance values upon
■ The purpose of breather in transformer is - Hysteresis loss in a magnetic material
- To prevent moisture from the air ■ Which is not generally used for distribution systems
■ At very high frequencies, an inductors act like - Single phase, 4 wire system
- Open circuit ■ In a natural region, there is a similarity of
■ The resistance of an open circuit is - Infinite - Soil and water drainage
■ Silver is considered the best conductor of electricity ■ Gold is - Good conductor of electricity
because - It has low resistivity ■ The measure of low voltage output from the
■ Which generator is used for charging batteries alternator is - to adjust regulator
- Shunt generator ■ The basic reason, why a full wave rectifier has twice
■ The flow of electric current in a conductor is the efficiency of a half rectifier is that
- due to the Electron - Its ripple factor is much less.
■ In the B-H curve, H represents ■ In the high pressure MB lamp the mercury vapour
- Strength of the magnetic field pressure should be 5 to 10 atmosphere
■ For single phase connection, the low tension voltage ■ The working principle of autotransformer is -
line does not exceed from - 230 V Faraday's law of
■ The integrated circuit (IC) chip used in a computer is electromagnetic induction
generally made of - Silicon ■ Which is not an application of electromagnet
■ An alloy of copper and zinc is - Brass -Compass
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION
1. Electrical energy used during a month is (c) Nitrogen and carbon monoxide
expressed in terms of 'units'. Here one unit (d) Nitrogen and carbon-dioxide
means RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift I
(a) 1W (b) 1kWh RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift II
(c) 1J (d) 1kW Ans.(b): Electric bulbs are usually filled with
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift I chemically inactive gases such as argon and nitrogen.
Ans. (b) : • One unit electricity is the amount of • In an incandescent bulbs, usually a tungsten filament is
electrical energy consumed by load as 1 kW in one used which glows and produces light when it gets heated
hour. It is basically unit of electrical energy up due to the passage of electricity through it.
consumption in joule - • Usually, if air is filled inside the bulb, the oxygen in the
• 1 unit = 1 kWh air reacts with it and the tungsten get oxidized. So,
= 1 kW × 1 hour chemically inactive gases such as nitrogen or argon are
= 1000 × 3600 filled in the glass bulb, to prevent oxidation of tungsten
6
= 3.6 × 10 joule. filament.
2. A current of 2A flows though a 24V car head 4. ___ was the first to demonstrate experimentally
light bulb for 5 mins. How much energy that a current carrying conductor behaves like
a magnet.
transfer occurs during this time?
(a) Andre-Marie Ampere
(a) 14400 joule (b) 10800 joule
(b) Hans Christian Oersted
(c) 4200 joule (d) 43200 joule
(c) Henry Cavendish
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift I
(d) Simon Ohm
Ans. (a) : Given : Current (I) = 2A RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift II
Electric potential/voltage (V) = 24V
Ans. (b) : Hans Christian Oersted was the first to
Time (t) = 5 min. = 5 × 60 sec. = 300 sec.
demonstrate experimentally that a current carrying
Amount of heat produced (H) = V.I.t
conductor behaves like a magnet.
= 24 × 2 × 300 When a current flows through a conductor, charges
= 14400 joule / (J) . move with a high speed. At high speed, the ratio of
3. Electric bulbs are usually filled with distance and time changes i.e. distance appears to
chemically inactive ______ gases become smaller and time gets delayed due to which we
(a) Nitrogen and oxygen feel a force. This new type of force due to a current
(b) Nitrogen and argon carrying conductor behaves like a magnetic force.
Basic Electricity 242 YCT
5. Five cells of emf 2V each are connected in Ans. (d): As we can see in the diagrams, the direction
parallel combination. Then, the output voltage of the force depends on both the direction of current in
of this combination will be the conductor and the direction of the magnetic field.
(a) 10 V (b) 2.5 V The force on the wire is the cross product of the length
(c) 5 V (d) 2 V vector and magnetic field vector.
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift II • In order to determine the force acting on the
Ans. (d) : Given: All five (E = 2V) cells are connected conductor we use Fleming's left hand rule.
in parallel combination
So, Equivalent voltage = V = E = 2V
6. In which of the following an electric motor is
not used
(a) Electric toaster (b) Computer
(c) Electric fan (d) Refrigerator
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift II
Ans. (a) : In the computer, electric fan and refrigerator,
there is an electric motor that converts the electrical F = I l×B
energy into mechanical energy and performs their
respective work. 10. The S.I Unit of Resistivity is
In an electric toaster there is no electric motor in it. It (a) ohm (b) ohm/m
converts electric energy into heat which is used to roast (c) V/m (d) ohm-m
bread, toast etc. RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III
7. An electric current of 0.40 A flows in metallic RA
Ans. (d) : The formula of resistivity ρ =
conducting wire for 16 min. Then, the electric L
charge that passes through a cross-sectional ohm× m 2
area of the metallic wire during this time is So, SI unit of ρ = = ohm.m
m
(a) 6.4 C (b) 64 C
(c) 384 C (d) 16 C Where, R = Resistance, A = Area, L = Length
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift II ρ = ohm-m
Ans. (c) : Given : current (I) = 0.40 A 11. 1 ampere = ______.
Time (t) = 16 min = 16 × 60s = 960 sec (a) 1 coulomb × 1 second
From the formula of charge - Q = I × t (b) 1 volt/ 1 second
= 0.40×960 = 384 C (c) 1 second/1 coulomb
So, the electric charge that passes through cross- (d) 1 coulomb/1 second
sectional area of the metallic wire during this time is RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III
384 C. Ans. (d) : An electric current is a flow of electric charge
8. 1 kWh = ________ J in a circuit
4
(a) 3.6×10 J 5
(b) 3.6×10 J q
I=
6
(c) 3.6×10 J 3
(d) 3.6×10 J t
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III 1 coulomb
1 ampere =
Ans. (c) : 1 kWh = 1 kW × 1 h 1 second
1 kWh = 1000 W ×3600 second 12. Tungsten is used for making bulb filaments of
1 kWh = 36 ×105 Ws incandescent lamps because
1 kWh = 3.6×106 Joule (a) Tungsten has the highest boiling point
9. When a current carrying conductor is kept in a (b) Tungsten takes a long time to reach its
magnetic field, it experiences a force. The melting points
direction of this force depends on which of the (c) Tungsten becomes extremely bright when it
following ? glows for long hours
(A) The direction of current through conductor. (d) Tungsten has the highest melting point and
(B) The direction of the magnetic field in which the does not melt even while it is glowing for
conductor is placed long hours
(C) Both (A) and (B) RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) Ans. (d) : Tungsten is used for making bulb filament of
(a) B (b) D incandescent lamps because it has the highest melting
(c) A (d) C point and does not melt even while it is glowing for
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III long hours.

Basic Electricity 243 YCT

13. The length and the cross-sectional area of a 17. The resistance of a metallic wire of length 1 m
conductor in the shape of a cylinder are 'l' and and area of cross -section 1 sq. metre having a
'A' respectively. The resistivity of the material resistivity is 2×10-6 ohm -m is:
of the conductor is 'ρ'. Its resistance depends (a) 2×10-6 ohm (b) 0.5 ×10-6 ohm
upon -6
(c) 1×10 ohm (d) 0.25 ×10-6 ohm
(p) l only (q) l and A RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II
(r) ρ , l and A (s) ρ and l, but not A Ans. (a) : Given : Length of wire (L) = 1m
Pick up the right option from those given Area of cross- section (A) = 1m2
above.
Resistivity (ρ) = 2×10-6 ohm-m
(a) (p) (b) (r)
(c) (s) (d) (q) From the formula of Resistivity-
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I RA
ρ=
Ans. (b) : We know that, L
ρℓ ρL
R= ⇒ R=
A A
Where, 2 × 10−6 × 1
R = resistance, ℓ = length, A = area of cross-section ⇒ R= = 2 × 10−6 ohm
and, ρ = resistivity 1
Hence, resistance depends on length of conductor, 18. An electric iron of resistance 20 ohm takes a
area of cross-section of conductor and resistivity current of 5 A. The heat flow in 30 s is :
14. An electric bulb is connected to 200 V (a) 1.5×104J (b) 2.5×102 J
5
generator. The current is 0.5 A. The power of (c) 1.5×10 J (d) 1.5×102 J
the bulb is Ans. (a) : Given : R = 20 ohm , I = 5A, t = 30sec
(a) 10 W (b) 1000 W Heat, H = I2Rt
(c) 1 W (d) 100 W
= 52×20×30
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I
= 25×600
Ans. (d) : Given, V = 200 V
i = 0.5 A = 15000 = 1.5×104J
P= ? Hence, the amount of heat developed in the electric iron
We know that, is 1.5×104J `
P = V i = 200×0.5 ⇒ P = 100W 19. Consider a circular loop of wire lying on the
plane of a table. Let an electric current pass
15. A current through a horizontal power line flow through the loop clockwise. The direction of the
in east to west direction. The direction of magnetic field inside is :
magnetic field at a point directly below it is
(a) perpendicular to the plane of the table
(a) South to north (b) North to south
pointing into it
(c) west to east (d) east to west
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I (b) always along the tangent to the loop in the
same sense of flow of the current
Ans. (b) : According to Right - hand thumb rule when
(c) perpendicular to the plane of the table and
the thumb points in the direction of the electric current ,
appearing to emerge out from it
the direction in which the rest of the fingers curl gives
the direction of the induced magnetic field. If the (d) always along the tangent to the loop opposite
current through a horizontal power line flows in the east to the sense of flow of the current
to west direction then the direction of the magnetic field RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II
at a point directly below it will be from north to south. Ans. (a) : According to right hand thumb rule, if you
16. Two resistor 1 ohm and 2 ohm are connected in are holding the current carrying straight wire in the
series. The effective resistance is right hand such that the thumb points in the direction of
the current, then your fingers will wrap around
(a) 2/3 ohm (b) 3 ohm
conductor in the direction of the magnetic field.
(c) 1 ohm (d) 2 ohm
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I
Ans. (b) : R1 = 1Ω
R2 = 2Ω
R=?
The effective resistance is.
R = R1 + R2
=1 + 2 = 3 Hence, The direction of the magnetic field inside is
R = 3Ω perpendicular to the plane of the table pointing into it

Basic Electricity 244 YCT

20. When one joule of energy is consumed in one (a) A low resistance in series
second, then the power used is said to be? (b) A low resistance in parallel
(a) one watt (b) one coulomb (c) A high resistance in parallel
(c) one volt (d) one ampere (d) A high resistance in series
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
Ans. (a) : We know, Ans. (b) :
• A galvanometer is a device that is used to detect
W
Power P = = VI small electric current or measure its magnitude.
t • A galvanometer is converted into an ammeter by
If W = 1J & t = 1 sec than P = 1 watt connecting it in parallel with a low resistance called
Power of an electric circuit is said to be one watt or 1 shunt resistance. The value of the shunt is adjusted
ampere-volt if one joule of energy is consumed in one so that the maximum current flow through the
second. shunt.
21. The ratio of potential difference across the
terminals of a conductor to the current flowing
through it is the:
(a) resistance (b) resistivity
(c) conductivity (d) conductance
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II
Ans. (a) : We known Ohm's law, • A galvanometer can be converted in voltmeter also
V = IR by connecting a high resistance in series.
The equation of Ohm's law can be written as 24. Two resistors, A and B are connected in
parallel combination in an electric circuit as to
V
R= have an equivalent resistance of 3Ω. On
I connecting the resistors A and B in series
Therefore the resistance is defined as the ratio of combination the equivalent resistant is found to
potential difference across the terminals of a conductor be 12Ω. Then the resistance R1 and R2 of the
to the current flowing through it. two resistors A and B respectively could be
22. The process of electroplating, using the (a) 8Ω : 4Ω (b) 10Ω : 2Ω
phenomenon of electrolysis, is primarily based (c) 9Ω : 3Ω (d) 6Ω : 6Ω
on RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
(a) Electromagnetic induction
Ans. (d) :
(b) Chemical effect of electric current
Given that,
(c) Heating effect of electric current
(d) Magnetic effect of electric current In parallel, Requivalent = 3Ω
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III In series, Requivalent = 12Ω
Ans. (b) : In parallel
• Electroplating is defined as the process of plating a 1 1 1
= +
layer of any metal on other material by passing an R equivalent R1 R 2
electric current.
• In the process of electroplating, an external source
of electric current is usually applied. The electrode
connected to the positive terminal of the battery is
called anode, while the electrode connected to the
negative terminal of battery is called cathode. The
electrochemical reduction reaction takes place at the
cathode and oxidation takes place at the anode. The
object on which electroplating takes place is made 1 R1 + R 2
=
the cathode. 3 R1 × R 2
So, The process of electroplating, using the R1 × R2 = 3 (R1 + R2) ...(i)
phenomenon of electrolysis is primarily based on In series,
chemical effect of electric current.
Electrolysis - The fundamental process of
electrolysis is the interchanging of ions and atoms
by the addition or removal of electron from the
external circuit.
23. A moving coil galvanometer can be converted
Requivalent = R1 + R2
into a ammeter by connecting to the moving
coil galvanometer 12 = R1 + R2

Basic Electricity 245 YCT

Put the value of R1 + R2 in equation (i) 27. Kirchoffs first rule of any junction of several
R1 × R2 = 36 circuit elements in an electric circuit is based
Now from the given option on the law of conservation of :
Option (d) is = 6Ω × 6Ω (a) Mass (b) Charge
= 36Ω (c) Linear momentum (d) Energy
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
So, option (d) satisfies the equation.
25. Four cells of emf 1.5 V each are connected in Ans. (b) : In 1845, a German physicist, Gustav
parallel combination of cells. Then the output Kirchhoff developed a pair of laws that deal with the
voltage of the parallel combination is conservation of current and energy within electrical
(a) 4.0 V (b) 1.5 V circuits.
(c) 6.0 V (d) 2.5 V These two laws are:
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III • Kirchhoff's 1st law is based on the conservation of
Ans. (b) : charge because sum of current entering to the junction
• Total voltage of a parallel circuit has the same value is equal to sum of current leaving the junction.
as the voltage across each branch.
Voltage = V1 = V2 = V3
Therefore, output voltage of the parallel
combination is 1.5V
V1 = V2 = V3 = V4 = 1.5V
• The total voltage in a series circuit is equal to the
sum of all the individual voltage drops in the circuit.
V = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4
26. When the potential difference across a resistive
I +I +I =I +I
conductor of resistance R obeying ohm's law, is 1 2 3 4 nd 5
doubled, the rate of generation of heat will • Kirchhoff's 2 law states that the algebraic sum of
become potential drops in a closed circuit is zero. So, it is based
(a) Two times (b) One-forth on the conservation of energy.
(c) Half (d) Four times 28. An electric motor has a power rating of 3.3 kw.
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III If its motor turns at a rate of 120 rev/min the
Ans. (d): Given that, torque on the shaft of the electric motor
Potential difference (Vnew) = 2V required for the purpose will be nearly.
We know that, (a) 528 Nm (b) 396 Nm
Power = Voltage × current (c) 350 Nm (d) 263 Nm
P = VI RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
From ohm's law,
Ans. (d) :
V
I= Where, R = Resistance Given that,
R Power (p) = 3.3 kw
Put the value of I = 3.3 × 103 w
V V2 = 3300 watt
P = V. =
R R 120 × 2π
Angular velocity ( ω) = = 4π radian/sec.
Energy 60
Also, Power =
time Power (P) = Torque (τ) × Angular velocity ( ω)
 V2  P
⇒ Heat (H) = E =  × time τ=
 R  ω
 
If potential difference is double i.e. Vnew = 2V 3300 3300 × 7  22 
τ= = ∵ π = 7 
  2
Vnew 4π 4 × 22
Heat generation (Hnew) =  × time
 R  = 262.5 ≈ 263 N.m
 
29. A capacitor of capacitance 800 pF is charged
 4V 2 
Hnew =   × time by an electric source of 100 V. The electrostatic
 R  energy stored by the capacitor is nearly
 V2  (a) 8.0 µJ (b) 4.0 J
Hnew = 4H ∵ H =   × time (c) 4.0 µJ (d) 8.0 J
 R  RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III

Basic Electricity 246 YCT

Ans. (c) : Given that, 1 1 1
= –
Capacitance (C) = 800 pF R 24 60
= 800 × 10–12 F 1 5– 2
Potential difference (V) = 100V =
R 120
1 1 3
Energy stored by the capacitor (U) = CV 2 =
2 R 120
1 −12 2 1 1
= × 800 × 10 × (100) =
2 R 40
1 −12
= × 800 × 10 ×10 4 R = 40 Ω
2 33. Which of the following is the correct relation
= 4 × 10–6 Joule between resistance 'R', conductivity 'σ', length
= 4 µJ 'L' and area of cross section 'A' of a metal
30. Find the potential difference (in V) across a wire?
resistance of 2.5 kΩ through which a 2 mA (a) RL = Aσ (b) RA = Lσ
current flows. (c) RσA = L (d) σ= RL/A
(a) 0.8 (b) 1.25 RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
(c) 0.2 (d) 5 Ans : (c) The correct relation between resistance (R)
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I Conductivity (σ), length (L) and cross-sectional area
Ans : (d) Given that : (A) of a metal wired is given by the formula for
Resistance (R) = 2.5 kΩ resistance,
= 2.5× 103Ω ρL RA
Current (I) = 2 mA R= ⇒ =L
–3
A ρ
= 2×10 A
Conductivity σ is the reciprocal of resistivity, we can
∵ Potential (v) = Resistance (R) × Current (I) write this as
= 2.5×10 Ω × 2 × 10 A
3 –3
 1
RσA = L ∵ σ = 
= 5 Volt  ρ
31. The resistance of a metal rod depends on all of 34. If 36 J of work is done in moving a charge Q
the following, EXCEPT–––––.
across 8 V, find Q (in coulombs).
(a) Density (b) Resistivity
(a) 16 (b) 288
(c) Temperature (d) Length
(c) 9 (d) 4.5
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (a) Since we know that
Ans : (d) Given :
ρL Potential (V) = 8V
Resistance (R) =
A Work done (W) = 36 J
Where, L = Length of the rod (L) Charge (Q) = ?
A = Area of cross-section
Work done ( W )
ρ = Resistivity constant ∴ Potential ( V ) =
Thus the resistance of a metal rod depends on four Charge ( Q )
factors such as length (L), area of cross-section (A), 36
Resistivity material and temperature. 8V =
Q
32. Two resistors of R Ω and 60 Ω are connected in
36J
parallel to get an effective resistance of 24 Ω. Q=
Find R. 8V
(a) 48 (b) 40 Q = 4.5 C
(c) 56 (d) 64 35. Moore's Law is a rule of thumb stated by Intel
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I co-founder Gordon Moore that the number of
Ans : (b) Given that, transistors on a chip doubles every ..... months.
R1 = RΩ (a) 12 (b) 24
(c) 18 (d) 30
R2 = 60Ω
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Net resistance/effective resistance (R) = 24Ω
Ans : (b) Moore's law states that the number of
Use the formula for the parallel combination :
transistors on a chip doubles every 24 months.
1 1 1 Some definitions use 18 months as the doubling period
= +
24 R 60 instead of 24 Months.

Basic Electricity 247 YCT

36. The _______ across the ends of a resistor is Ans: (a) Given :
directly proportional to the current through it, Potential difference (V) = 500 Volt
provided its temperature remains the same. Current (I) = 5 mA
(a) potential difference (b) charge = 0.005A
(c) resistance (d) resistivity Resistance (R) = ?
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (a) The potential difference across the ends of a
∵ We know that,
resistor is directly proportional to the current through it V = IR
provided its temperature remains the same i.e. 500 = 0.005 × R
V (Potential difference) ∝ I (Current) 500
This is known as ohm's law. R= = 100000 Ω = 100 kΩ
0.005
37. Two resistors of RΩ and 15 Ω are connected in 40. Which of the following is the correct relation
parallel to get an effective resistance of 12Ω. between potential difference ‘V’, current ‘I’
Find R. conductivity ‘σ’, length ‘L’ and area of cross
(a) 45 (b) 60 section ‘A’ of a metal wire?
(c) 30 (d) 75 (a) σ = VL/IA (b) VL = IAσ
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II (c) VA = ILσ (d) VσA = IL
Ans : (b) Given: R1 = RΩ and R2 = 15 Ω RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
Effective resistance (Re) = 12 Ω Ans : (d) : Since we know that,
Use the formula for the parallel combination :
L
1 1 1 Resistance (R) = ρ  
= + A
R e R1 R 2
But V = IR
1 1 1 V
= + ∴ R=
12 R 15 I
1 1 1 V L
= – Then = ρ 
R 12 15 I A
5–4
= VA = ρ LI
60
41. Find the potential difference across a resistance of
1 1
= 3.6 kΩ through which a 2.5 mA current flows.
R 60 (a) 0.3V (b) 9V
R = 60 Ω (c) 8V (d) 1.44V
38. If 90 J of work is done in moving a charge of RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
2,000 coulomb's across V volts, find V. Ans : (b) : Given :
(a) 0.2 (b) 180 Resistance (R) = 3.6 kΩ
(c) 0.045 (d) 2,250 = 3.6×103Ω
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II Current (I) = 2.5 mA
Ans : (c) Given: Charge (Q) = 2000 C 2.5
Work done (W) = 90 J = A = 0.0025 A
1000
Potential (V) = ?
Work ( W ) ∴ Potential (V) = IR
∵ (V) = = 3.6×103×0.0025
Charge ( Q ) = 0.009×103 = 9 Volt
90 42. A wire is stretched to 4 times its original length.
V=
2000 The resistance of the streched wire will
be_____its original resistance.
9
V= (a) 1/16th (b) half
200 (c) 16 time (d) double
V = 0.045 Volt RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
39. Find the resistance of the wire (in kΩ) through Ans : (c) : Since volume of the wire before stretching
which a 5 mA current flows when 500 V of and after stretching will remain same. i.e.
potential difference is applied across it. Vi = Vf = V
(a) 100 (b) 2.5
l l2  V
(c) 100000 (d) 2500 ∴ Initial resistance R1 = ρ = ρ ∵ A = 
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II A V  l 

Basic Electricity 248 YCT

 (4l )2 Ans: (b) Electric power is the rate at which electric
Final resistance R2 = ρ (∵l' = 4l) energy (E) is transferred in an electric circuit per unit
V time (t).
R 2 (4l )2 According to ohm's law, power is given as the product
= 2 of voltage (V) and current (i) of a circuit.
R1 l
i.e. P = Vi
R 2 16l 2 E
= 2 = 16 ∵ P=
R1 l t
R2 = 16 R1 E
∴ Vi =
43. If 625 J of work is done in moving a charge of t
Q coulombs across 12.5 V, find Q. E = Vit
(a) 40 (b) 25 • Therefore, the energy supplied in a circuit is given
(c) 20 (d) 50 by E = Vit.
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I 46. Two resistors, 2Ω and 6Ω are connected in series
Ans : (d) : Given that : and this combination is connected to a 12V
Work (W) = 625 J battery. Find the power supplid by the battery.
Potential (V) = 12.5 V (a) 10W (b) 18W
Charge (Q) = ? (c) 16W (d) 14W
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
∵ Work (W) = Charge (Q) × Potential (V)
Ans : (b) Given, R1 = 2 Ω, R2 = 6 Ω, V = 12V
625 J = Q × 12.5 V On connecting the resistors in series.
Q=
625
= 50 C Then equivalent resistance (R) = R1 + R2
12.5 R=2+6=8Ω
44. Two resistors of RΩ and 6Ω are connected in V
parallel to get an effective resistance of 4.5Ω. Supply current ( i ) =
R
Find the value of R. 12
(a) 12 (b) 24 i= = 1.5A
(c) 18 (d) 30 8
Power supplied by the battery
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
P = Vi = 12 × 1.5
Ans : (c) : Given that : P = 18.0 W
R1 = R Ω, R2 = 6 Ω and P = 18 W
Effective resistance (Re) = 4.5 Ω
47. The resistance of a cylindrical wire of length L
∵ The formula for the parallel combination, and radius r in R. What will be the resistance
1 1 1 1 1 1 of a wire of half its length and half the radius
= + ⇒ = + made of the same material?
R e R1 R 2 4.5 R 6
(a) 4R (b) R/2 (c) 2R (d) R
1 1 1 RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
= −
R 4.5 6 Ans : (c) Given :
10 1 Resistance of wire of length L and radius r is :
= –
45 6 ρL ρL
1 2 1 R= = ________ (i)
= – A πr 2
Re 9 6 When length is half and radius is half then resistance of
1 4–3 the wire–
=
Re 18 L L
ρ ρ
R1 = 2 = 2
1 1
=
2
A  
r
R 18 π 
2
R = 18 Ω
L
45. A source of voltage V maintains a current I in a ρ
4ρL 2ρL
circuit. The energy supplied to the circuit by R 1 = 22 = =
the source in time t is. r 2πr 2 πr 2
π
(a) V/it (b) Vit 4
(c) 1/Vit (d) Vi/t From equation (i),
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III R1 = 2R

Basic Electricity 249 YCT

48. Two resistors of 2Ω and 6Ω are connected (a) 20V (b) 15V
inseries and this combination is connected (c) 5V (d) 10V
across a 12V battery. Find the current in the RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
6Ω resistor. Ans : (d)
(a) 0.5A (b) 2.5A
(c) 3.5A (d) 1.5A
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (d)

The total resistance in the circuit is :

R = R1 + R2
Total resistance of the circuit R = 10 + 20
R = R1 + R2 R = 30 Ω
R=2+6=8Ω Current flowing in the circuit
Current flowing in the circuit V 30
V 12 ( i ) = = = 1A
i= = = 1.5 A R 30
R 8 Voltage across 10 Ω resistance
Since resistance connected in series have the same V = iR
value of current in each resistor. V = 1 × 10 = 10 Volt
Hence, 1.5 A current will flow through both the
resistors 2Ω and 6Ω. 51. Two 100-Ω resistors are connected in parallel,
and this combination is connected across a 40 -
49. A cylindrical wire of length l and radius r has V supply. Find the current supplied by the
resistance R. The resistance of another wire of voltage source.
the same material but of thrice its length and
one third its radius is? (a) 1.75A (b) 1.1A
(a) 9R (b) 3R (c) R (d) 27R (c) 1.5A (d) 0.8A
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (d) According to the question, Ans : (d) Given that,
Length = l and radius = r R1 = R2 = 100 Ω
As we know, Potential difference (V) = 40 Volt
ρl Current (i) = ?
R= The equivalent resistance of 100 Ω and 100 Ω
A
For first wire, resistance is:
ρl 1
=
1
+
1
R=
A R R1 R 2
ρl 1 1 1 2 1
⇒ R = 2 ……..(i) (∵ A = πr2) = + = =
πr R 100 100 100 50
For second wire
R = 50 Ω
r
Given, l' = 3l and r' = Hence current supplied by the voltage source,
3
V 40
ρ ( 3l ) i= = = 0.8A
⇒ R'= 2
………(ii) R 50
r I = 0.8 A
π 
 3 52. Identify the conductor having the highest
From (i) and (ii) we get, resistivity.
R ' ρ ( 3l ) πr 2 R ' 3× 9 (a) Mercury (b) Aluminium
= × ⇒ =
R r
2
ρ l R 1 (c) Silver (d) Copper
π  RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
 3
Ans : (a) Resistivity of various materials at 20ºC.
R ' 27
= ⇒ R' = 27 R Metal Resistivity
R 1
Silver 1.59×10–8
50. Two resistors, 10Ω and 20Ω are connected in
Copper 1.68×10–8
series and the voltage supply to this
combination is 30V. Find the voltage across the Aluminium 2.65×10–8
10Ω resistor. Mercury 9.80×10–7

Basic Electricity 250 YCT

53. _____ states that the electric current flowing When resistor are connected in parallel combination
through a metallic wire is directly proportional between the sources of emf the voltage remains the same
to the potential difference 'V' across its ends across all resistors, but the current will be different.
provided its temperature remains the same. Here R1 = 20Ω and R2 = 20Ω
(a) Coulomb's law (b) Ampere's law But both the resistors are connected in parallel. So the
(c) Ohm's law (d) Joule's law voltage across each resistor is 40 V.
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I 56. The electric current flowing through a metallic
Ans : (c) Ohm's law states that the electric current wire is directly proportional to the potential
flowing through a metallic wire is directly proportional difference V across its ends, provided its ____
to the potential difference 'V' across its ends provided remains the same.
its temperature remains the same. i.e. (a) Temperature (b) Voltage
Current (I) ∝Potential (V) (c) Charge (d) Energy
or V ∝ I ⇒ V = RI RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (a) : According to ohm's law, "If the physical
54. Two resistors, one of 20 Ω and the other of 30 circumstances of the conductor (length, temperature,
Ω, are connected in parallel. This combination mechanical strain etc.) remain constant, then the
is connected in series with an 8Ω resistor and a potential across the conductor is directly proportional to
12V battery. The current through the 20Ω the current flowing through it i.e.
resistor is : V ∝I
(a) 0.24A (b) 0.60A
57. A cylindrical wire of length L and radius r has
(c) 0.12A (d) 0.36A
a resistance R. The resistance of another wire
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I of the same material but of twice its length and
Ans : (b) According to question, one-fourth its radius is:
20Ω and 30Ω resistors are connected is parallel, (a) 8R (b) 32R
∴ Resistance in parallel, (c) 16R (d) R
1 1 1 RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
= +
R R1 R 2 Ans : (b) : Let ρ be the resistivity of the material.
1 1 1 For first wire,
= + ρL
R 20 30 R=
3+ 2 A
= ρL
60 R = 2 ……….. (i) (∵ A = πr2)
5 π r
= For second wire
60
ρL '
1 1 R'=
= πr ' 2
R 12
r
⇒ R = 12Ω ∵ L' = 2L, r ' =
∴ Total resistance 8Ω + 12Ω = 20Ω 4
V ρ ( 2L ) '
∵ I= ∴ R'= 2
……(ii)
R r
π 
12 4
=
20 From (i) and (ii)
I = 0.60 A ρ ( 2L ) '
55. Two resistors, each of 20 Ω, are connected in r
2

parallel, and this combination is connected π  

=   =
R' 4 32
across a 40 - V supply. Find the voltage across
R ρL 1
each resistor.
(a) 40V (b) 10V πr 2

R' = 32R
(c) 30V (d) 20V
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I 58. Two resistors, one of 12Ω and the other of 24Ω,
are connected in parallel. This combination is
Ans : (a) connected in series with a 22Ω resistor and a
12V battery. The current in 24Ω resistor is:
(a) (6/15) A (b) (4/15)A
(c) (2/15)A (d) (8/15)A
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
Basic Electricity 251 YCT
Ans : (c): Given that : R = 25Ω
R1 = 12Ω, R2 = 24Ω, R3 = 22Ω, V= 12 Volt V2
Power (P) =
R
100 × 100
P=
25
Total power (P) = 400 W
V2
P1 =
R1
1 1 1 100 × 100
= + P=
R R1 R 2 100
1 1 P = 100 W
= + 60. Three resistor, 9Ω, 9Ω and xΩ are connected in
12 24
2 +1 parallel. Total resistance of this parallel
= combination is 3Ω. Find the unknown
24
resistance xΩ.
1 3
= (a) 3Ω (b) 6Ω
R 24
(c) 9Ω (d) 12Ω
24
R= = 8Ω RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
3
Ans : (c) : Given that :
Now R+R3 = 8 + 22
= 30Ω R1 = 9Ω, R2 = 9Ω, R3 = x and Req = 3Ω
Total current in circuit, In parallel combination,
1 1 1 1
I=
V = + +
R R eq R 1 R 2 R 3
12 1 1 1 1
= = + +
30 3 9 9 x
2 1 1 1 1 1 2 1
I= A = − – = – =
5 x 3 9 9 3 9 9
According to current dividation rule, 1 1
Current through 24Ω. = ⇒ x = 9Ω
x 9
2 
 × 12  61. The resistance of a uniform metallic conductor
I2 =  
5 is .........
12 + 24 (a) Inversely proportional to its resistivity
2 (b) Directly proportional to its area
I 2= A
15 (c) Inversely proportional to its area
59. Four 100Ω resistors are connected in parallel (d) Inversely proportional to its length
and this combination is connected across a 100 RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
V supply voltage. Find the power dissipation in Ans : (c) The resistance of a uniform metallic conductor
each resistor. is inversely proportional to its area and directly
(a) 400 W (b) 300 W proportional to length. i.e.
(c) 200 W (d) 100 W
ℓ
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II R =ρ
Ans : (d) : Given that : A
V = 100 V, R1 = R2 = R3 = R4 = 100Ω, P = ? • The resistance of a uniform metallic conductor is
In parallel combination, dependent on length, area and temperature also.
1 1 1 1 1 62. Three resistors 80Ω, 120 Ω and 240 Ω, are
= + + + connected in parallel. A 12 V battery is
R R1 R 2 R 3 R 4
connected across this combination of resistors.
1 1 1 1 Find the current drawn from the battery.
= + + +
100 100 100 100 (a) 0.3A (b) 3A
1 4 1 (c) 0.9A (d) 0.09A
= = RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
R 100 25
Basic Electricity 252 YCT
Ans : (a): Given that : 65. Two resistors, one of 20 Ω and the other of
R1 = 80Ω, R2 = 120Ω and R3 = 240Ω 30Ω, are connected in parallel. This
combination is connected in series with an 8Ω
V = 12 V, Req = ? resistor and a 12 V battery. The current in the
30Ω resistor is:
(a) 0.36 A (b) 0.60 A
(c) 0.90 A (d) 0.24 A
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (d) : Given that :
R1 = 20 ohms, R2 = 30 ohms, R3 = 8 ohms
V = 2 Volt, I30 = ?
1 1 1 1
= + +
R eq R 1 R 2 R 3
1 1 1 1
= + +
R eq 80 120 240
1 3+ 2 +1
=
R eq 240 ∵ 20Ω and 30Ω resistors are connected in parallel,
1 6
= ∴
1
=
1
+
1
R eq 240 R R1 R 2
1 1 1 1 3+ 2
= = + =
R eq 40 20 30 60
R eq = 40 1
=
5
R 60
∵ V = IR
1 1
V 12 = ⇒ R = 12Ω
∴ I= = R 12
R 40 • Therefore total resistance = R + R3
I = 0.3 A = 12 + 8
63. Elecric current was considered to be the flow = 20Ω
of : From Ohm's law,
(a) Dielecric (b) Magnet pieces V
(c) Positive charges (d) Negative charges I=
R
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I 12
Ans : (c) :Electric current is traditionally defined as the I= = 0.6 A
20
flow of positive charges. This is a convention that dates Voltage drop across 12 ohms is
back to Benjamin Franklin, who initially defined the
12×0.6 = 7.2 Volts
direction of electric current as the flow from positive to
negative. So, based on the traditional definition, the Hence current in 30Ω resistor is
correct answer is positive charges. 7.2
I 30 = = 0.24 A
64. A 12 V battery is connected parallel to a 5 Ω 30
resistor. Find the current supplied by this 66. A continuous and closed path of an electric
battery. current is called as :
(a) 2.4A (b) 1.5A (a) Electric circuit (b) Shoft circuit
(c) 2.8A (d) 2.00A (c) Magnetic circuit (d) Junction
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (a) : Given that : Ans : (a) : A continuous and closed path of an electric
V = 12 Volt, R = 5Ω, I =? current is called as electric circuit. The circuit consists
of various equipments like connecting wires, bulb,
According to ohm's law.
switch etc. These are connected between the two battery
V terminals. There are two types of circuit–
I=
R (i) Open circuit– In an open circuit, electric current
12 does not flow.
I=
5 (ii) Closed circuit– In a closed circuit, electric current
I = 2.4 A flows.

Basic Electricity 253 YCT

67. A cylindrical wire of length L and radius r has Ans : (b)∵ One electron carries a charge of 1.6×10–19
a resistance R. The resistance of another wire
of same material but of twice its length and Coulomb
twice its radius is : So, Number of electron in one coulomb-
(a) R (b) R/2 1 1019
(c) 4R (d) 2R = = = 6.25×1018 ≈ 6 × 1018
1.6 × 10 –19
1.6
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
70. Two resistors, 8Ω and 24Ω are connected in
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
parallel. This combination is connected in
Ans : (b) : Given that : L' = 2L & r' = 2r series with 14Ω resister and 12v battery. How
Let ρ be the resistivity of the material- much current will be in the 8Ω resistor ?
For first wire, (a) 0.45A (b) 0.15A
ρL ρL
R= = …………(i) (c) 0.30A (d) 0.60A
A πr 2 RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
For second wire, Ans : (a) Given that :
ρL ' ρ ( 2L ) R1 = 8Ω, R2 = 24Ω, V = 12V
R' = = ………..(ii)
πr '2 π ( 2r )2 ∵The resistor is connected in parallel combination,
From (i) and (ii)
ρ ( 2L )
R ' π ( 2r )
2
1
= =
R ρL 2
πr 2
R' = R/2
68. The resistance of cylindrical wire of length L 1 1 1
= +
and radius r is R. What will be the resistance of R p R1 R 2
another wire of four times the length and half
1 1 3 +1 4
the radius made of the same material? = + = =
(a) R (b) 16R 8 24 24 24
(c) 12R (d) 8R 1 1
=
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III Rp 6
Ans : (b) Given that : Rp = 6Ω
1 1 r Now, the resistance Rp is connected in series with 14Ω.
L = 4L, r =
2 Req= 14 + 6 = 20 Ω
Let ρ be the resistivity of the material V 12
For first wire, Current in the circuit, I = = = 0.6 A
R 20
ρL ρL
R= = ……..(i) (∵A = πr2) The current flowing in the 8Ω resistor using current
A πr 2
IR 2 0.6 × 24
For second wire, dividation rule I1 = = = 0.45 A
R1 + R 2 8 + 24
ρL ' ρ ( 4L )
R' = = …..…(ii) I1 = 0.45 A
πr ' 2 r
2

π  71. A current of 2A is drawn through the filament

2
of an electric bulb for 2 minutes. Find the
ρ ( 4L ) amount of charge flowing through the circuit.
2
r (a) 360C (b) 120C
π 
(c) 60C (d) 240C
=   =
R' 2 16
R ρ L 1 RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
πr 2 Ans : (d) Given that :
R1 = 16 R Current (I) = 2A, Time (t) = 2 min = 120 Sec
69. On coulomb of charge is approximately equal ∵ Charge (q) = It
to the charge of –––––– electrons. = 2×120
(a) 6×1017 (b) 6×1018 = 240 C
(c) 6×1010 (d) 6×1012 Hence, the amount of electric charge that flows through
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III the circuit is 240 C.
Basic Electricity 254 YCT
72. Two resistors of 10Ω each are connected in Q
parallel. This combination is then connected in But I=
t
series with a third 10Ω resister and 6v battery. V ρL
How much current will be in the circuit? Then =
Q/t A
(a) 0.9A (b) 1.8A
(c) 0.4A (d) 0.2A Vt ρL
=
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III Q A
Ans : (c) Given that : VAt = QρL
R1 = R2 = 10Ω, V = 6 Volt 75. The electric ________ between two points in an
electric circuit carrying some current is the
work done to move a unit charge from one
point to the other.
(a) charge (b) resistance
(c) potential difference (d) current
Since R1 and R2 in parallel, RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
1 1 1 1 1 2 1
= + = + = = Ans : (c) : The electric potential difference between two
R p R 1 R 2 10 10 10 5 points in an electrical circuit carrying some current is
Rp = 5Ω the work done to move a unit charge from one point to
Total resistance (R) = Rp + R3 = 5 + 10 =15Ω the other. i.e.
V 6 W
Hence, current in circuit ( I ) = = V=
R 15 Q
⇒ I = 0.4 A Where,
73. Siemens is the unit of _______. V = Potential difference
(a) permeability (b) permittivity W = Work
(c) watt per steradian Q = Charge
(d) electric conductance The unit of electric potential difference is volt.
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II 76. Two resistors of R Ω and 20 Ω are connected in
Ans : (d) : Siemens is the unit of electric conductance. parallel to get an effective resistance of 15 Ω.
This is the reciprocal of the resistance. It is represented Find R.
by 'G'. (a) 50 (b) 30
1 (c) 40 (d) 60
Electrical conductance ( G ) = RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
Resistance ( R )
Ans : (d) : Given that :
• Electrical conductance denotes how easily electrical
R1 = RΩ, R2 = 20Ω and Re = 15Ω
current can pass through an electrical component for
a given voltage difference. ∵ R1 and R2 are connected in parallel,
74. Which of the following is the correct relation 1 1 1
between potential difference ‘V’ across a metal = +
R e R1 R 2
wire of resistivity ‘ρ’, length ‘L’ and area of
cross section ‘A’ through which a charge ‘Q’ 1 1 1
= +
flows in ‘t’ seconds? 15 R 20
(a) VAt = QρL (b) VQt = AvL 1 1 1
= –
(c) VLt = AQρ (d) VρQ = AtL R 15 20
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II 1 4–3 1
RA = =
Ans : (a) : ∵ Electrical resistivity (ρ ) = R 60 60
L R = 60Ω
ρL
∴ R= ……..(i) 77. Find the current (in mA) flowing through a
A wire of resistance 25 kΩ when a potential
From ohm's law :
difference of 12.5 V is applied across it.
V = iR
(a) 5 (b) 0.2
V
or = R ……...(ii) (c) 2 (d) 0.5
i RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
Substitute the value of R in equation (ii), we get,
Ans : (d) : Given that :
V ρL
= R = 25 kΩ = 25×103Ω
i A V = 12.5 V, I = ?
Basic Electricity 255 YCT
Using ohm's law 81. Due to which of the following properties of a
V = IR conductor, does it pass current?
V (a) Reluctance (b) Inductance
I= (c) Conductance (d) Resistance
R
R.R.B. Allahabad Asst. Loco Pilot, 09.12.2007
Substitute the above values :
Ans : (c) Conductance is a property of a conductor that
12.5
I= = 0.5 × 10−3 A allows the flow of current through it. Conductance is the
25 × 103 degree to which an object conducts electricity,
Current (I) = 0.5 mA calculated as the ratio of the current which flows to the
78. Electric field intensity at any point is equal to : potential difference present. This is the reciprocal of the
resistance and is measured in Siemens or mhos.
R.R.B. Ajmer Asst. Loco Pilot, 10.10.2004
(a) Potential gradient at that point 1
G=
(b) Potential at that point R
(c) Potential difference at that point Where,
(d) Work done at that point G → Electric conductance
Ans : (a) The electric field intensity at a point is equal R → Resistance
to potential gradient at that point. 82. Three wires having conductances 2,3 and 6 mho
−V respectively are connected in parallel in a circuit.
E= The equivalent resistance in the circuit will be :
d
R.R.B. Bangalore Asst. Loco Pilot, 25.01.2004
79. If 1 A current flows in a circuit, the number of (a) 11 ohms (b) 1 ohm
electrons flowing through this circuit is: (c) 1/11 ohms (d) 33 ohms
R.R.B. Allahabad Asst. Loco Pilot, 03.08.2008 Ans : (c) Given that :
(a) 0.625 × 1019 (b) 1.6 × 1019 G1 = 2 mho , G 2 = 3mho , G 3 = 6 mho
(c) 1.6 × 10 –19
(d) 0.625 × 10–19
∵ These are connected in parallel,
Ans : (a) Given that :
I = 1 A, Number of electron (n) = ? G eq = G1 + G 2 + G 3 + .......... + G n
–19
e = 1.6×10 C =2+3+6
Q Geq = 11 mho
∵ n= 1
e ∵ R eq =
But Q = It = 1C G eq
1
∴ n=
R= Ω
1
1.6 × 10−19
11
n = 0.625×1019
83. Which of the following statements about the
80. Ohm's Law is followed by :
force between two charges is true?
(a) Metal rectifier (b) Copper electrode
R.R.B. Bangalore Asst. Loco Pilot, 08.07.2007
(c) Crystal detecor (d) Arc lamp
(a) Unlike charge repel each other
R.R.B. Ajmer Asst. Loco Pilot, 23.05.2004
(b) Like charges attract each other
Ans : (b) Ohm's law states that the current through a
(c) No force exists between two unlike charges
conductor between two points is directly proportional to
the voltage across the points. (d) A force of repulsion exists between two like
charges
V ∝I
or V = IR Ans : (d) A force of repulsion exists between two like
Where, charges
V = Voltage • A force of attraction act between two unlike charges.
I = Current 84. The electrons revolve around the nucleus with
R = Resistance high velocity. Which type of force acts against
• Ohm's law is not applicable to unilateral networks. the centrifugal force and keeps the electrons in
Such types of the network consists elements like a their orbits?
diode, transistor etc. R.R.B. Bangalore Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012
• Ohm's law is also not applicable to non-linear (a) Electrostatic force of attraction
elements. (b) Electromagnetic force of attraction
Examples of non-linear elements are thyristor, arc lamp (c) Gravitational force
etc. (d) Adhesive force
Basic Electricity 256 YCT
Ans: (a) Electron rotate very fast around the nucleus.
There is an electrostatic force of attraction against the
centrifugal force, which keeps the electron in their orbit.
The electron revolves around the nucleus on which
centrifugal force acts, due to this force the nucleus
exerts a force of electrostatic attraction on the electron
due to which the electron is not able to leave the orbit
and the electron keeps revolving around the orbit
continuously. The electron has a negative charge.
85. What is the difference between an atom and an
ion?
R.R.B. Bhopal Asst. Loco Pilot, 06.06.2010
(a) Ions have always larger mass than the atoms
of the same element
(b) Ions are neutral particles while atoms always
carry a positive charge
(c) Ions are always charged particles while the
atoms are neutral as a whole
(d) Ions can only exist in liquid solutions
Ans : (c) The difference between an atom and an ion is
that ions are always charged particles whereas atoms are
completely neutral. The smallest particle of a substance
which has all the physical and chemical properties of that
substance and which can exist in an independent state is
called an atom and a charged atom is called an ion.
86. A charge exists on a conductor. The best way to
remove this charge is to............
R.R.B. Bhubneswar Asst. Loco Pilot, 14.06.2009
(a) Isolate the conductor from other charges
(b) Ground the conductor
(c) Create Vacuum around the conductor
(d) None of these
Ans : (b) A conducing object is said to be grounded if it
is connected to the Earth through a conductor;
Grounding allows the transfer of charge to and from the
earth.
• If an object temporarily grounded, it can be charged
by inductance and obtains the opposite sign charge.
• Grounding works effectively to remove electrostatic
charges from conductors to ground.
87. Inside a hollow conducting sphere, electric field...
R.R.B. Bhubneswar Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012
(a) is zero
(b) is a non-zero constant
(c) changes with the magnitude of the charge
given to the conductor
(d) changes with distance from the centre of the
sphere
Ans : (a)
Basic Electricity 257
For r < R (Inside hollow sphere)
By applying gauss law.
q
⇒ ∫ E in .dS = en = 0
ε0
This is because the charge will be distributed across the
surface but we are measuring the electric field inside the
hollow surface hence net charge enclosed will be zero
i.e., qen = 0.
Therefore, inside a hollow conductive sphere electric
field is zero.
88. Midway between two equal and similar
charges, a third equal and similar charge is
placed. Then this third charge will.............
R.R.B. Bilaspur Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012
(a) Remain in stable equilibrium
(b) Be in unstable equilibrium
(c) Not be in equilibrium
(d) Will move out of the field to influence the
two charges
Ans : (a) The charge in the middle experiences force
along the line. The equilibrium is stable along the line
connecting charges while the equilibrium is unstable
along the line perpendicular to the line of charges.
89. The electric flux and field intensity inside a
conducting sphere is............
R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 02.11.2008
(a) zero (b) maximum
(c) uniform (d) minimum
Ans : (a) From Gauss law, the electric field inside a
conducting sphere is always zero irrespective of how
much charge resides on its surface. Due to zero electric
field inside a sphere, the electric flux inside a sphere is
zero.
90. Static electricity is produced by..............
R.R.B. Chandigarh Asst. Loco Pilot, 14.09.2008
(a) chemical reaction
(b) friction
(c) induction
(d) both friction and induction
Ans : (d) Static electricity can be produced by rubbing
one object against another object Rubbing or friction
causes an imbalance of electrons by transferring the
electrons to other objects in contact. Rubbing releases
negative charges or electrons, which can build upon one
object to produce a static charge.
Similarly, static electricity can be produced by
induction. Here, a charged object is brought close to
another object. These two objects do not touch each
other. The charged object is held near an uncharged
conductive material, which is grounded on a neutrally
YCT
charged material. The charge flows between these Ans : (c) An electric charge is a fundamental property
objects and the uncharged conductive material builds up of matter and never found free. There are two kinds of
a charge with opposite polarity. If the charged body has electric charges, namely positive and negative charges.
positive charges in it, negative charges will be induced If a body has an excess of electrons, it is said to be
in the other object, and vice-versa. negatively charged and if it is deficient in electrons. it is
91. The condition in Ohm's law is that............: said to be positively charged.
R.R.B. Chandigarh Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012 96. The number of electrons constituting 1 C of
(a) the temperature should remain constant charge in it :
(b) ratio of V/I should be constant R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 11.10.2009
(c) the temperature should vary (a) 8.854 × 109 (b) 4 × 1010
(d) current should be proportional to voltage (c) 0.625 × 10 19
(d) 1.6 × 1019
Ans : (a) Ohm's law states that the voltage across Ans : (c) Given that :
conducting material is directly proportional to the
e = 1.6 × 10–19 C
current flowing through the material at constant
temperature. Charge Q = 1 coulomb
V ∝I Q
∵ Q = ne ⇒ n =
Or V=IR e
It is valid at only constant temperature with the increase 1
in temperature, the resistance of the material also ∴ n=
1.6 ×10−19
changes and hence the above condition not holds true.
n = 0.625 × 1019 electrons.
92. Ohm's law is applicable to............
Therefore, the number of electrons in one coulomb of
R.R.B. Chandigarh Asst. Loco Pilot, 25.05.2003
charge is equal to 0.625 × 1019 electrons.
(a) Semiconductors (b) Vacuum tube
(c) Electrolytes (d) None of these 97. When two parallel conductors carrying current
in the same direction are placed near each
Ans : (d) Ohm's law does not apply to semiconductors,
vacuum tubes and electrolytes etc. While applied to other, what will the conductors experience?
resistance. Because all these are non-linear while ohm's (a) A repulsive force (b) An angular force
law is linear. (c) An attractive force (d) No force
93. A capacitor stores 0.3 coulomb charge at 2 R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 12.10.2003
volts, its capacitance is- Ans : (c) Two current carrying conductors attract each
R.R.B. Chennai Asst. Loco Pilot, 06.06.2010 other when the current is in the same direction and repel
(a) 0.15F (b) 0.3F each other when the current is in opposite direction.
(c) 2F (d) 0.6F This can be verified using Fleming's left-hand value.
Ans : (a) Given that :
V= 2 Volt, q = 0.3 coulomb, C = ?
q 0.3
∵ C= = = 0.15 F
V 2
94. What is the charge of a stable atom?
R.R.B. Chennai/Bangalore Asst. Loco Pilot,
27.10.2002
(a) uncharged
(b) charged positive or negative
(c) negatively charged 98. The law used to determine the force between
(d) positively charged two current carrying conductor is:
Ans : (a) Every atom has proton, neutron and electron. R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 14.04.2002
Proton has positive charge, electron has negative charge (a) Joule's law (b) Lenz's law
and neutrons have no charge. In every stable atoms,
(c) Bio-savart's law (d) Faraday's law
number of electrons and protons are same so every
stable atoms have zero electrical charge. All stable Ans : (c) The law used to determine the force between
atoms are electrically neutral and stable. two current carrying conductor is Bio-savart's law.
95. Electric charge of a body is a condition due to: 99. What does the region around the stationary
R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 08.10.2006 electric charge has?
(a) Deficiency or excess of neutrons (a) Electric field
(b) Deficiency of electrons (b) Magnetic field
(c) Deficiency or excess of electrons (c) Semi permeable region
(d) Excess of electrons (d) Insulating field
R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 21.10.2001
Basic Electricity 258 YCT
 Ans: (a) When an electric charge is placed in a Ans: (b) A charge particle q With a velocity v along
stationary position without moving, then an electric the axis of a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic
field will surround the electric charge. The region force on the particle is zero.
around the stationary charge will be an electric field, ∵ Magnetic force (F) = qVBsinθ
not a magnetic field because the presence of charge Here the charged particle of charge q is moving with a
generates an electric field. velocity v along the axis hence angle is zero.
100. Line charge is given by which of the following – ∴ F = qBVsin0º
R.R.B. Guwahati Asst. Loco Pilot, 22.01.2006 F = 0 (∵ sin0º = 0)
(a) Maxwell Equations (b) Gauss law
(c) Faraday's law (d) Ampere's law 103. Potential Difference is :
R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 06.02.2005
Ans : (b) The line charge law is given by Gauss's law.
(a) A Scalar Quantity
(b) A Vector Quantity
(c) Both a Scalar Quantity & a Vector Quantity
(d) None of these
Ans : (a) Electric potential is the work done per unit
charge in order to bring that charge from infinity to a
point in the electrostatic field against in the field force.
The SI unit of Electric potential or electric potential
difference is volts.
Electric potential is a scalar quantity.
104. A current is said to be direct current when
its...........
R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 16.07.2006
(a) Magnitude remains constant with time
(b) Magnitude change with time
(c) Direction changes with time
Suppose PQRS is a Gaussian surface then by Gauss (d) Magnitude and direction changes with time
law.– Ans : (a) In the direct current (DC), the direction and
Q magnitude of the current does not change. It remains
∫
E.dA = in
εo
constant with time.
• Direct current (DC) is an electric current that is
According to Gauss's law, the flux passing through a unidirectional, so the flow of charge is always in the
closed surface is equal to the charge enclosed by the same direction.
surface.
101. Electric field is a :
R.R.B. Jammu-Kashmir Asst. Loco Pilot,
06.06.2010
(a) Scalar Quntity
(b) Vector Quantity 105. One Watt hour contains...........Joules
(c) Both Scalar Quantity & Vector Quantity R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 2014
(a) 3.6X108 (b) 3.6X105
(d) None of these
(c) 3.6X103 (d) 3.6X10−1
Ans : (b) The electric field is defined as a vector field
that associates to each point in space when charge is Ans : (c) The amount of joules present in one watt-hour
present in any form. The magnitude and direction of the can be calculated as,
electric field are expressed by the value of E, 1 watt-hour = 1 watt × 60 × 60
1 watt-hour = 3600 Joules
V = 3.6 × 103 Joules
E=
d Thus, there are 3.6 × 103 Joules in one watt-hour.
Hence, electric field is a vector quantity. 106. While transisting from One level to another
102. Charged particle of q with a velocity v along Level an electron
the axis of a current carrying solenoid. The R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 29.09.2002
magnetic force on the particle is (a) Emits or absorbs Proton
R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 02.11.2008 (b) Emits or Absorbs Photon
(a) qvB (b) 0 (c) Emits or Absorb Neutron
+2 (d) None of these
(c) qv B (d) None of these
Basic Electricity 259 YCT
Ans: (b) When the electron transitions from one level to 110. Unit of absolute permittivity is-
another, it emits or absorbs a photon. When a covalent bond R.R.B. Mumbai Asst. Loco Pilot, 14.06.2009
is broken, the electron associated with that bonds leaves its (a) Joule/Coulomb (b) Newton-meter
place and becomes free and the remaining vacant space is (c) Farad/meter (d) Farad/Coulomb
called a hole. It behaves like a positive charge and has the Ans : (c) The formula for absolute permittivity is given by
ability to attract the electrons coming around it.
D
107. Current always flow in direction : ε0 =
E
(a) Opposite to that of Electron
Where, e0 → Absolute permittivity.
(b) Direction same as of electron
(c) Independent of electron flow D → The electric flux density.
(d) None of these E → Electric field intensity.
R.R.B. Malda Asst. Loco Pilot, 16.07.2006 The unit of absolute permittivity is Farad/meter.
It is denoted as Fm–1.
Ans : (a) In any electrical circuit, the direction of flow
of current is opposite to the flow of electrons. The 111. Which of the following materials has the
direction of an electric current is by convention the highest value of dielectric constant?
direction in which a positive charge would move. Thus, (a) ceramics (b) oil
the current in the external circuit is directed away from (c) glass (d) vacuum
the positive terminal and towards the negative terminal R.R.B. Mumbai Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012
of the battery. Electrons would actually move through Ans : (a) The dielectric constant of ceramic around
the wires in the opposite direction. 8.7∼8.8.
S.N. Dielectric materials Dielectric constant
1. Air 1
2. Vacuum 1
3. Glass 8.5
4. Paper 2
108. Unit of resistivity is :
5. Mica 6
(a) Ω meter (b) mho metre
(c) mho (d) Ω 6. Ceramic 8.7 ∼ 8.8
R.R.B. Mumbai Asst. Loco Pilot, 03.06.2001 112. Two heaters rated at 1000W, 250 each are
Ans : (a) Since the formula for resistivity is given by. connected in series across a 250V, 50Hz ac
mains. The total power drawn from the supply
Ra
ρ= would be ............ watt.
L (a) 1000 (b) 500
Where,
(c) 250 (d) 2000
ρ = Resistivity R.R.B. Mumbai Asst. Loco Pilot, 16.07.2006
R = Resistance Ans : (b) Given that :
A = Cross-sectional area of the conductor. V = 250 Volts, P = 100 Watt
L = Length of the conductor
By putting SI units of these quantities in the formula:
m2
ρ = Ω× = Ω×m
m
ρ = Ω.m
V 2 ( 250 )
2
109. A thermistor has............temperature coefficient
of resistance ∵ Resistance, R = = = 62.5 Ω
P 1000
(a) Positive (b) Zero 250
(c) Negative (d) any of the above Current, I =
62.5 + 62.5
R.R.B. Mumbai Asst. Loco Pilot, 05.06.2005
250
Ans : (c) Thermistors have a negative temperature =
125.0
coefficient of resistance i.e. the resistance decreases
with an increase in the temperature. = 2A
Thermistors can measure the temperature in the range of ∴ The total power drawn from the supply is :
–100ºC to 300ºC. P = VI
• Thermistors are generally made up of = 250×2
semiconductor materials. P = 500 W

Basic Electricity 260 YCT

113. Which of the following statements pertains to
resistor only?
(a) They oppose sudden changes in voltages
(b) They can act as energy storage devices
(c) They can dissipate desirable amount of power
(d) None of these
R.R.B. Mumbai/Bhopal Asst. Loco Pilot, 05.01.2003
Ans : (c) They can dissipate desirable amount of power.
• Capacitor : They oppose the sudden change in
voltage across it.
• Inductance : They oppose the sudden change in
current through it.
114. A lamp rated at 60V, 40W is to be connected
across 230V. What is the value of resistance to
be connected in series with lamp?
R.R.B. Muzaffarpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.02.2009
(a) 100Ω (b) 255Ω
(c) 90Ω (d) 345Ω
Ans : (b) Rating of lamp = 60V, 40 W
V 2 ( 60 )
2
force (emf) is an electric cell or generator. Which is
obtained from a coulomb charge flow.
W
emf ( E ) =
Q
117. Does the electric current always produce a
magnetic field?
R.R.B. Patna Asst. Loco Pilot, 2014
(a) No, only large currents produce a magnetic
field
(b) No, a magnetic field is produced only in the
presence of an iron core
(c) No, a magnetic field is produced only in the
presence of a coil
(d) Yes, the electric current always produce a
magnetic field
Ans : (d) An electric current always produces a
magnetic field. The magnetic field is produced
whenever an electrical charge is in motion.
118. An electric current flows through the

Resistance of lamp ( R L ) = = conductor shown in the figure below. What are

P 40 the effects of the current passing through it?
= 90 Ω R.R.B. Ranchi Asst. Loco Pilot, 08.07.2007
Current rating connected across 230 V, maximum
2
current that can be flow through the circuit is A .
3
Let Rs be the series resistance.
230 2
=
R S + 90 3
(a) Both magnetic effect and heating effect
( 230 )( 3) (b) Only chemical effect
⇒ = R S + 90
2 (c) Only magnetic effect
⇒ RS + 90 = 345 (d) Only heating effect
⇒ RS = 255 Ω Ans : (a)
115. The resistance of a conductor, when its
temperature is increased.............:
(a) remains constant (b) decreases
(c) varies (d) increases
R.R.B. Patna Asst. Loco Pilot, 04.02.2007
Ans : (d) With increase in temperature of conductor, the
number of collisions between the free electrons In the given figure, electric current flows through the
increases due to increase in thermal energy resulting in conductor. The current passing through it will have
the random motion of electrons. These electrons find it both a magnetic field and a heating effect. Electric
difficult to drift in a particular direction for conduction. current flow through each conductor, it opposes more
Hence, the resistance of conductor increases as the or less electric current. Which it becomes hot. It is
temperature increases. called heating effect of current. A magnetic field is
116. Which of the following statements about created around the current carrying conductor.
electric voltage is true? 119. A straight conductor of circular cross-section
(a) Voltage is the directed movement of electrons carries a current. Which one of the following
(b) Voltage causes current to flow statements is true in this regard ?
(c) Voltage is the irregular movement of electrons R.R.B. Ranchi Asst. Loco Pilot, 19.01.2003
(d) Voltage is not always needed to cause the (a) No force acts on the conductor at any point
flow of current
(b) An axial force acts on the conductor tending
R.R.B. Patna Asst. Loco Pilot, 11.11.2001 to increase its length
Ans : (b) Current flows due to electric voltage. Electro (c) A radial force acts away from the axis
motive force is the force that provides motion to tending to reduce its cross-section
electrons in a circuit. Its unit is volt. The electromotive (d) none of these
Basic Electricity 261 YCT
Ans: (c) When a straight conductor of circular cross- Ans: (b) Given that :
section carries a current, it experiences a radial force Power (P1) = Power (P2) = 1000 W
towards the axis tending to reduce its cross-section. In series combination, total power is
This is known as the Ampere's force law. P ×P 1000 × 1000
P= 1 2 =
P1 + P2 1000 + 1000
P = 500 Watt
123. A resistance thermometer has a temperature
coefficient of resistance 10–3 per degree and its
resistance at 00 C is 1.0Ω. At what temperature
120. The current rating of a 5kΩ, 1/2W resistor is: is its resistance 1.1 Ω.
R.R.B. Ranchi Asst. Loco Pilot, 2014 R.R.B. Sikandrabad Asst. Loco Pilot, 11.11.2001
(a) 1A (b) 0.1 (a) 100C (b) 1000C
0
(c) 0.001 (d) 0.01 (c) 120 C (d) -100C
Ans : (d) Given that : Ans : (b) Given that :
Resistance (R) = 5 kΩ = 5000Ω Temperature coefficient of resistance,
1 α = 10–3/degree
Power (P) = watt R0= 1Ω, Rt = 1.1Ω
2
T=?
∵ We know that,
∵ Rt= R0 (1+αT)
P = I 2R
⇒ 1.1 = 1(1+10–3T)
P 1
⇒ I= = ⇒ 1.1=1+10–3T
R 2 × 5000
⇒ 0.1 = 10–3T
I = 0.01 Amp ⇒ T = 0.1×103
121. A 1φ 220V, 1000W resistive electric heater is
T = 100o C
connected to a 110V-DC source. What is the
power absorbed by the heater from the 110V 124. If 10 lamps are connected in series across a
source? power supply, then determine the voltage of the
R.R.B. Ranchi Asst. Loco Pilot, 21.09.2003 supply when it is given that the voltage across
(a) 500W (b) 110W each lamp is 6.0 V.
(c) 250W (d) 750W R.R.B. Sikandrabad Asst. Loco Pilot, 29.06.2008
Ans : (c) Given that : (a) 60V (b) 20V
Power (P) = 1000 W (c) 35V (d) 42V
V = 220 V Ans : (a) Ten lamp in series
V2
∵ P=
R
V 2 220 × 220
⇒ R = =
P 1000 Its equivalent voltage is,
R = 48.4 Ω V = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4 + V5 + V6 + V7 + V8 + V9 + V10
V2 Here, voltage across each lamp = 6 V
Now, P=
R ∴ V = 6+6+6+6+6+6+6+6+6+6
110 × 110 V = 60 V
=
48.4 125. Unit of conductance is-
P = 250 W R.R.B. Siliguri Asst. Loco Pilot, 2014
122. What would be the total power drawn from the (a) mho (b) siemens
supply, when two heaters, rated at 1000 W, 250 (c) both (d) none of these
V each are connected in series across a 250V, Ans : (c) Conductance is defined as the reciprocal of
50 Hz supply? resistance i.e.
R.R.B. Sikandrabad Asst. Loco Pilot, 06.06.2010 1
G=
(a) 1000 W (b) 500 W R
(c) 250 W (d) 2000 W The SI unit of conductance is siemen or mho or ohm–1
Basic Electricity 262 YCT
126. An ideal current source has zero ∵ 3Ω and 6Ω are parallel,
R.R.B. Trivandrum Asst. Loco Pilot, 20.06.2004
R × R 2 6 × 3 18
(a) Internal conductance So, R= 1 = =
(b) Internal resistance R1 + R 2 3 + 6 9
(c) Voltage on no load R = 2Ω
(d) Ripple Now,
Ans : (a) An ideal current source has infinite resistance.
Infinite resistance is equivalent to zero conductance. So,
an ideal current source has zero conductance
127. For the circuit shown find I : 2Ω and 2Ω in series order,
R.R.B. Siliguri Asst. Loco Pilot, 2014 Therefore, effective resistance
Req = 2Ω + 2Ω
= 4Ω
130. Kirchoff's current law (KCL) is applicable only
to ...........
(a) 3A (b) 0A R.R.B. Allahabad Asst. Loco Pilot, 03.08.2008
(c) 6A (d) 1A (a) Closed loops in a network
Ans : (c) According to Kirchhoff's current law (KCL), (b) Electronic circuits
"The algebraic sum of the currents meeting at a junction (c) Junction in a network
in a electric circuit is zero. (d) Electric circuits
Ans : (c) Kirchhoff's law is applicable to the junction in
a network. It is not applicable for time varying magnetic
fields.
• Kirchhoff's current law (KCL) : This law is also
known as junction rule or current law (KCL).
From the figure at point P, I = 8–2 = 6A
Accordingly to this law, "The algebraic sum of
128. What is called the electro-motive force(e.m.f) of currents meeting at a junction is zero i.e.,
a voltage source?
R.R.B. Ajmer Asst. Loco Pilot, 10.10.2004 ∑i = 0
(a) Terminal voltage when load is applied
(b) Internal voltage when no load is applied
(c) Product of internal resistance and load current
(d) Electric pressure provided to the load
Ans : (b) When no load is connected to a voltage
source, the open circuit voltage is called the internal
current carrying voltage of the voltage source. • In a circuit, at any junction, the sum of the currents
entering the junction must be equal to the sum of
The internal e.m.f. of the voltage source is always the currents leaving the junction
greater than the terminal voltage.
i.e. I1 + I4 + I5 = I2 + I3
V = emf – IR
• This law is simply a statement of conservation of
Where, V = Terminal potential
charge.
R = Internal resistance
131. Kirchhoff's law states that in a closed loop of a
129. If three resistances of values 2Ω, 3Ω and 6Ω be circuit..............
connected as shown in the diagram, what will R.R.B. Allahabad Asst. Loco Pilot, 09.12.2007
be the effective resistance?
(a) That total current, algebraically summed is
R.R.B. Ajmer Asst. Loco Pilot, 23.05.2004 zero
(b) the algebraic sum of the potential differences
is zero
(c) Potential is zero (d) None of these
Ans : (b) The Kirchhoff's voltage law states that "the
(a) 2Ω (b) 3Ω algebraic sum of the voltage around a closed loop in a
(c) 4Ω (d) 6Ω circuit must be zero", i.e.
ΣV = 0
Ans : (c) From figure,
• According to Kirchhoff's second law, the product of
current resistance in every conductor of a closed
circuit and the algebraic sum of potential on the
same circuit is zero.
i.e. ΣIR + Σemf = 0

Basic Electricity 263 YCT

132. Voltage drop across 14.5 ohm resistor as in 135. In a circuit, two resistances of 9 ohm each are
figure is : in seies with two resistances of 2 ohm each. If
R.R.B. Bangalore Asst. Loco Pilot, 25.01.2004 the supply voltage is 38V, then what will be the
value of current in the circuit.
R.R.B. Bhopal Asst. Loco Pilot, 06.06.2010
(a) 38A (b) 0.5A
(c) 2A (d) 19A
Ans : (c) According to question,
(a) 29 V (b) 30.5 V
(c) 14V (d) 18V
Ans : (b) According to figure,

Since 2Ω and 2Ω resistance are in parallel so,

2× 2
The voltage drop across 14.5Ω resistor R eq = = 1Ω
2+2
200
V14.5 = × 14.5 9Ω and 9Ω are in series so,
14.5 + 26.5 + 60
200 Req = 9 + 9 = 18Ω
= × 14.5
101
V14.5 =28.7 volt.
Hence voltage drop across 14.5Ω resistor is 28.7 volt.
Note : But the commission has decided to the answer
30.5V. V 38
∴ I= =
133. Kirchoff's Voltage Law is known as: R 18 + 1
R.R.B. Banglore Asst. Loco Pilot, 08.07.2007 I = 2A
(a) Conservation of charge 136. In the following dc circuit, determine the
(b) Conservation of Energy current in branch A-B
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans : (b) According to Kirchhoff's voltage law (KVL),
the algebraic sum of all the voltages around any closed
path is zero.
It is based on the conservation of energy.
V1 + V2 + V3 + ………. + Vn = 0
or ∑ V=0
n =1,2,3,....
R.R.B. Bhubneswar Asst. Loco Pilot, 14.06.2009
It is also known as the loop current method analysis. It (a) 6.85 A (b) 5.33 A
is concerned with both IR drop and battery emf. (c) 4 A (d) 8.6 A
134. The value of current I in a section in the circuit Ans : (b)
shown will be-

R.R.B. Banglore Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012

(a) 1.3A (b) 2A
(c) 1A (d) 1.7A
Ans : (d) By Kirchhoff's first law,
Current coming at the node = Current leaving the node.
⇒ 2+1 = 1.3+I
⇒ 3 = 1.3 + I
⇒ I = 1.7 A b
Basic Electricity 264 YCT
By applying KCL at node A, 138. Find R3 for the circuit shown in figure:
I1 + I2 + I3 = 16
By applying KVL in the first loop,
I1(1) + (I1–5)1 –I2(1) = 0
⇒ 2I1 – I2 = 5
By applying KVL in the second loop,
I3(1) + (I3–4)1 –I2(1) = 0
⇒ 2I3 – I2 = 4 R.R.B. Bilaspur Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012
By solving the above three equations, (a) 25 ohm (b) 25 kilo ohm
We get, I2 = 5.75 A. (c) 25 mega ohm (d) 25 mili ohm
137. In the network shown, if one of the 4 Ω Ans : (b)
resistances is disconnected, when the circuit is According to given circuit,
active, the current flowing now will R1 A I

By Kirchhoff current law,

R.R.B. Bhubneswar Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012 At point A entering current = outgoing current
(a) increase very much Current flowing in resistance R3.
(b) decrease 50 mA = 10 mA + I
(c) be zero I = 50–10 = 40 mA
(d) increase very slightly
From current division rule,
Ans : (b) Current in R2 = 10 mA
R3
10 mA = × 50 mA
( R 3 + 100kΩ )
R3
10 × 10 –3 = × 50 ×10 –3
( R 3 + 100 ×10 )
3

R3 = 25×103Ω
R3 = 25 kΩ
From figure, 139. Potential difference across a 0.04 F capacitance
Equivalent resistance, is 4V. Charge stored in it will be :
Req = 6+2+2m = 10Ω R.R.B. Chandigarh Asst. Loco Pilot, 14.09.2008
V 24 (a) 0.1 C (b) 2.1 C
Current I1 = =
R 10 (c) 0.16 C (d) 0.016 C
I1 = 2.4 A Ans : (c) Given that :
If 4Ω resistance is disconnected then Capacitance (C) = 0.04F
Potential difference (V) = 4V
Charge stored (Q) = ?
∵ Charged stored across capacitor
Q = CV
= 0.04×4
Q = 0.16 C
140. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored
Equivalent resistance in............
Req = 6 + 4 + 2 = 12Ω R.R.B. Chandigarh Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012
V 24 (a) Dielectric
Therefore, current I 2 = =
R 12 (b) Metal plates
I2 = 2A (c) Dielectric as well as metal plates
So, the current flowing now will decrease. (d) Neither dielectric nor metal plates

Basic Electricity 265 YCT

Ans: (a) In capacitors, the metal plates are used to 2×3
connect a voltage source between the dielectric =
2+3
medium. Hence, the electric charge is produced due to 6
presence of a dielectric medium and it is stored in that Ceq = F = C3
dielectric medium. 5
Let Ceq = C3
141. A six dot mica capacitor color coded, white,
red, green brown, red and yellow has the 6
When two capacitor of capacitance (C4) 1F and F are
capacitance value of: 5
R.R.B. Chandigarh Asst. Loco Pilot, 25.05.2003 connected in parallel combination then equivalent is–
(a) 25 pF (b) 124 pF Ceq = C3 + C4
(c) 250 pF (d) 925 pF 6
= +1
Ans : (d) A six dot mica capacitor color coded, white, 5
red, green, red and yellow has the capacitive value will 11
Ceq = F
be 925 ± 4 % 5
White → 9 144. How will the total capacitance change, when
Red → 2 two capacitors are connected in parallel?
Green → 5 R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 08.10.2006
Brown → 1 (a) The total capacitance increases
Yellow → 4 (b) The total capacitance deceases
142. What will be the capacity of four capcitors of (c) The mean value gives the new capacitance
equal capacity 'C', when connected in series? (d) The total capacitance is found by reciprocal
R.R.B. Chennai Asst. Loco Pilot, 06.06.2010 equation
(a) 4C (b) C/4 Ans : (a) If two capacitors are connected in parallel, the
(c) C (d) 3/4C overall effect is that of a single equivalent capacitor
Ans : (b) C1 = C2 = C3 = C4 = C having the sum of the plate area of the individual
capacitors. An increases plate area, with all other factor
All four capacitors are connected in series then
unchanged, results in increased capacitance.
equivalent capacitance will be–
When two capacitance are connected in parallel then–
Ceq = C1 + C2
The total capacitance increases.
145. A variable capacitance is one whose capacitance :
R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 11.10.2009
1 1 1 1 1 (a) Changes with time
= + + +
Ceq C1 C2 C3 C 4 (b) Changes with temperature
(c) Changes with voltage
1 1 1 1
= + + + (d) Can be changed manually or mechanical by
C C C C force
1 4 Ans : (d) A variable capacitance is one whose
=
Ceq C capacitance can be changed manually or mechanically
by an external force. A variable capacitor is constructed
C
Ceq = from layer aluminum and plastic foils that are variable
4 pressed together using a screw. These so-called
143. Two condensers of capacity 2F and 3F are squeezers can not provide a stable and reproducible
connected in series, a third condenser of 1F is capacitance.
connected in parallel to them, the resultant 146. If three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 of values of
capacity in Farad (F) will be: 1µF, 2µF and 4µF respectively are in series and
R.R.B. Chennai/Bangalore Asst. Loco Pilot, connected across a potential of 230 V, then
27.10.2002 charge of each capacitor is:
(a) 6/F (b) 5/11F R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 12.10.2003
(c) 5/6F (d) 11/5F (a) 110 × 10–6 C (b) 121 × 10–6 C
Ans : (d) When two capacitors of capacitance 2F and (c) 131 × 10 C–6
(d) 161 × 10–6 C
3F are connected in series then equivalent capacitance Ans : (c) Given :
is– C1= 1µF
C × C2 C2 = 2µF
Ceq = 1
C1 + C2 C3 = 4µF
Basic Electricity 266 YCT
In series combination – C''eq = 5 µF
1 1 1 1 When C'eq and C''eq are in parallel then–
= + +
Ceq C1 C 2 C3
C = C'eq + C''eq
1 1 1
= + + =5+5
1 2 4
C = 10 µF
1 4 + 2 +1 7
= = 148. In the following circuit, the equivalent
C 4 4 capacitance between terminals A and B is
4
C = µF
7
4
C = ×10−6 F
7
V = 230 V R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 21.10.2001
q = CV C 2
4 (a) (b) C
= ×10−6 × 230 2 3
7 (c) C (d) 3C
q = 131 × 10–6 C
Ans : (c)
147. Five capacitance, each of capacitance 10µF, are C ×C C
connected across a direct current potential C AB = +
C +C 2
difference of 100 Volts as shown in the figure.
The equivalent capacitance between A and B C2 C
= +
will be- 2C 2
R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 14.04.2002 CAB = C
149. Potential applied across a 2 F capacitor is 10 V.
Energy stored in it will be:-
R.R.B. Guwahati Asst. Loco Pilot, 22.01.2006
(a) 200 J (b) 100 J
(c) 20 J (d) 10 J
Ans : (b) Energy stored in capacitor is–
1
E = CV 2
(a) 40µF (b) 20µF 2
(c) 30µF (d) 10µF C = 2F , V = 10 V
Ans : (d) 1
E = × 2 × 102
2
E = 100 J
150. An isolated sphere of radius 1 cm is kept in air.
Its capacitance will be :
R.R.B. Jammu-Kashmir Asst. Loco Pilot,
06.06.2010
(a) 2.2 pF (b) 1.11 pF
(c) 1.8 pF (d) 2.1 pF
It is balanced Wheatstone bridge. Hence,
Vc = VD Ans : (b) Capacitance of earth C = 4π∈0r
Equivalent capacitance when C1 and C2 are connected Where, 4π∈0 = 1 r = 1×10–2 m
in series combination– 9 ×109
C × C2 C=
1
× 10–2
C'eq = 1
C1 + C2 9 × 109
C = 1.11 PF
10 × 10
= 151. Which of the following materials has the
10 + 10 maximum dielectric strength?
100 R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 02.11.2008
=
20 (a) Porcelain (b) Glass
Ceq = 5 µF (c) Polystyrene (d) Soft rubber
Similarly,
Basic Electricity 267 YCT
Ans: (c) Dielectric strength- The dielectric strength is
the ratio of the permittivity of substance to the
permittivity of free space
Materials Dielectric strength
(V/m)
1. Glass 14×106
2. Polystyrene 24×106
3. Soft rubber 12×106
4. Porcelain 12×106
⇒ In above material polystyrene has maximum
dielectric strength.
152. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to
find the direction of induced emf, the thumb
points towards:
R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 06.02.2005
(a) direction of induced emf
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if
forefinger points in the direction of generated
emf.
(d) direction of motion of the conductor if
forefinger points along the lines of flux
Ans : (d) Fleming right hand rule–
According to this rule, if we stretch the thumb,
forefinger and the middle finger of right hand at right
angle each other. The forefinger indicates direction of
magnetic field, thumb gives the direction of motion of
conductor (force) and middle finger points in the
direction of induced current.
153. Copper, Silver, Diamond are examples of :
R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 16.07.2006
(a) Diamagnetic substance
(b) Paramagnetic substances
(c) Ferromagnetic substance
(d) None of these
Ans : (a) Diamagnetism is the property of materials that
are repelled by a magnetic field, and applied magnetic
field creates an induced magnetic field in them in
opposite direction, causing a repulsive force.
Copper, Silver and Diamond are example of
diamagnetic substance.
154. The electromagnets is made of............:
R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 2014
(a) soft iron core
(b) soft iron core with current passing around it
(c) steel core
(d) steel core with current passing around it
Ans : (b) An electromagnet is made by winding an
insulated copper wire around a soft iron core either in
the shape of a solenoid U-shape and passing current
through it.
155. If the current flows in an anti-clockwise
direction, then the polarity of the nearer pole
will be..............:
R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 29.09.2002
(a) south pole (b) no polarity
(c) north pole (d) both the polarities
Basic Electricity 268
Ans : (c)
• By the clock face rule, if the current seems to be
flowing in the clockwise direction, the respective
coil is the south pole.
• If the current seems to flow in the anticlockwise
direction, the respective face of the solenoid is the
north pole.
156. Henry' is the unit of measurement for which of
the following properties?
R.R.B. Malda Asst. Loco Pilot, 16.07.2006
(a) reactance (b) capacitance
(c) resistance (d) induction
Ans : (d) Induction is also known as inductance.
It is represented by L.
According to faraday's law–
∆I
E.M.F. = – L
∆t
Volts × second
Unit of inductance = = Henry
Ampere
157. Fleming's left hand rule is used in____:
R.R.B. Mumbai Asst. Loco Pilot, 03.06.2001
(a) Motor (b) Generator
(c) Transformer (d) None of these
Ans : (a)
• Fleming left hand rule is used in motor.
• From Fleming left hand rule, when current flows
through a conducting wire and an external magnetic
field applied in the perpendicular direction then the
thrust of the motor is the mutually perpendicular
direction to both current and magnetic field.
158. According to Fleming's right hand rule the
thumb shows..............:
R.R.B. Mumbai Asst. Loco Pilot, 05.06.2005
(a) Direction of current (b) Direction of flux
(c) Direction of motion (d) Direction of gravity
Ans : (c) Fleming right hand rule–
According to this rule, if we stretch the thumb,
forefinger and the middle finger of right hand at right
angle each other. The forefinger indicates direction of
magnetic field, thumb gives the direction of motion of
conductor (force) and middle finger points in the
direction of induced current.
159. Fleming's left hand rule is used to find ........?
R.R.B. Mumbai Asst. Loco Pilot, 14.06.2009
(a) Polarity of magnetic pole
(b) Direction of flux in a solenoid
(c) Direction of magnetic field due to a current
carrying conductor in a magnetic field
(d) Direction of force on a current carrying
conductor in a magnetic field
YCT
 Ans: (d) Fleming left hand rule:
When we stretch the thumb, forefinger and the middle
finger of left hand perpendicular to each other then
direction of
Thumb → Force (motion)
Index finger → Magnetic field (B)
Middle finger → Current (I)
160. Magnetic recording tape is most commonly
made from............
R.R.B. Mumbai Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012
(a) Small particles of iron
(b) Silicon–iron
(c) Ferric oxide
(d) None of these
Ans : (c) Magnetic recording tape is most commonly
made from Ferric oxide.
161. An electromagnet can be made by ..........
R.R.B. Mumbai Asst. Loco Pilot, 16.07.2006
(a) Single Touch method
(b) Double Touch method
(c) Divided Touch method
(d) passing current through a Solenoid
Ans : (d) Electromagnets can be created by wrapping a
wire around an iron nail and running current through the
wire. The electric field in the wire coil creates a
magnetic field around a nail.
162. Which is the only sure proof of testing the
polarity of magnet?
R.R.B. Mumbai/Bhopal Asst. Loco Pilot,
05.01.2003
(a) Attraction and repulsion both
(b) Attraction
(c) Repulsion
(d) None of these
Ans : (c) The only and definite evidence to test the
polarity of a magnet is repulsion. Due to repulsion, two
magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.
163. The laws of electromagnetic induction
(Faraday’s and Lenz’ laws) are summarized in
the following equation.
R.R.B. Muzaffarpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.02.2009
(a) e = LR (b) e = Ldi/dt
(c) e = dφ/dt (d) None of these
Ans : (c) When there is change in the magnetic flux
through a circuit or a coil, an emf is induced in the
circuit or coil.
dφ
e= N
dt
According to Lenz law–
dφ
e = −N
dt
164. Paramagnetic substances are:
R.R.B. Patna Asst. Loco Pilot, 04.02.2007
(a) Weakly attracted by a magnetic field/
(b) The same as that of diamagnetic material/
Basic Electricity 269
(c) Weakly repelled by magnet/
(d) Produced by heating iron above the curies
point
Ans : (a) Paramagnetism is a form of magnetism where
by some materials are weakly attracted by an externally
applied magnetic field and form internal induced
magnetic field in the direction of the applied magnetic
field.
165. What is the value of total electric flux coming
out of closed surface
R.R.B. Patna Asst. Loco Pilot, 11.11.2001
(a) Zero
(b) Equal to volume charge density
(c) Equal to the total charge enclosed by the
surface
(d) Equal to the surface charge density
Ans : (c) The value of total electric flux coming out of
closed surface is equal to the total charge enclosed by
the surface.
Q enc
∫ E.ds = ε0
166. In Lenz's law the induced emf 'e' opposes the–
R.R.B. Patna Asst. Loco Pilot, 2014
(a) Flux
(b) Change in flux
(c) Both the flux and change flux
(d) None of the options
Ans : (b) Lenz law states that the direction of induced
current in a conductor by a changing magnetic field is
such that the magnetic field created by the induced
current opposes changes in the initial magnetic field.
dφ
e = –N
dt
e = Induced emf
N = number of turns in the coil.
dφ = Change in magnetic flux.
dt = Charge in time.
167. Faraday's Law is applicable:
R.R.B. Ranchi Asst. Loco Pilot, 04.09.2005
(a) In all changing Magnetic fileds
(b) In all moving conductors
(c) Only when the conductor is closed of thin
wire
(d) Only when magnetic field is of permanent
magnet
Ans : (c) Faraday law of electromagnetic induction–
(i) First law– Whenever the magnetic flux linked with
a closed circuit changes, and emf (and hence a
current) is induced in it which lasts only so long as
the change in flux is taking place. This phenomena
is called electromagnetic induction.
(ii) Second law– The magnitude of the induced emf is
equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux linked
with the closed circuit mathematically.
YCT
 dφ
E =
dt
Is the flux changes from φ1 to φ2 in time t, then the
average induced emf will be–
φ – φ1
E = –N 2
t conductivity increases.
Where, N = Number of turns in the coil.
Faraday's Law is applicable only when the conductor is
closed of thin wire.
168. Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction
are related to :
R.R.B. Ranchi Asst. Loco Pilot, 08.07.2007
(a) The e.m.f. of a chemical cell
(b) The e.m.f. of a generator
(c) The current flowing in a conductor
(d) The strength of a magnetic field
Ans : (b) Faraday law of electromagnetic induction are
related to the emf of a generator.
169. Lenz's Law follows from :
R.R.B. Ranchi Asst. Loco Pilot, 19.01.2003
(a) principle of conservation of mass
(b) principle of superposition
(c) principle of conservation of energy
(d) principle of homogeneity
Ans : (c) Lenz's law is based on the principle of
conservation of energy.
170. The direction of induced e.m.f. is given by :
R.R.B. Ranchi Asst. Loco Pilot, 2014
(a) Fleming's right hand rule
(b) Fleming's left hand rule
(c) Cork Screw rule
(d) Kirchoff's law
Ans : (a) The direction of induced emf is given by
Fleming right hand rule.
171. If a ferromagnetic material is heated upto
Curie temperature, it becomes
R.R.B. Ranchi Asst. Loco Pilot, 21.09.2003
(a) Permanent magnet
(b) Anti-ferromagnetic material
(c) Diamagnetic material
(d) Paramagnetic material
Ans : (d) When the temperature is greater than the
Curie temperature ferromagnetic material becomes
paramagnetic material.
→ At the Curie temperature, magnetic property of
material changes.
172. Which class of insulating material can
tolerate high temperature?
R.R.B. Sikandrabad Asst. Loco Pilot, 06.06.2010
(a) AB square (b) E square
(c) C square (d) B square
Ans : (c) 'C' class of insulating material can
tolerate high temperature.
Class Temperature
Y 900 C
A 1050 C
E 1200 C
Basic Electricity 270
B 1300 C
F 1550 C
H 1800 C
C Above 1800 C
173. By heating conducting material, its
R.R.B. Sikandrabad Asst. Loco Pilot,
11.11.2001
(a) Only increases
(b) Only decreases
(c) Does not change
(d) May increases or decreases
Ans : (b) When conducting material is heated, its
conductivity decreases.
174. If a conductor is moved through a magnetic
field
R.R.B. Sikandrabad Asst. Loco Pilot, 29.06.2008
(a) heat is created
(b) voltage is created
(c) the magnetic field is increased
(d) the magnetic field is decreased
Ans : (b) If a conductor moved through a magnetic
field then according to the law of electromagnetic
induction, voltage is created.
175. Which of the follwing is a semiconductor:
R.R.B. Siliguri Asst. Loco Pilot, 2014
(a) Germanium (b) Copper
(c) Aluminium (d) Graphite
Ans : (a) Semiconductor are materials which have a
conductivity between conductors and non-conductors or
insulators. Ge and Si are semiconductors.
176. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure
metals–
R.R.B. Trivandrum Asst. Loco Pilot, 20.06.2004
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Ans : (a) The resistance of pure metal increases with
the increase in temperature, with increases in
temperature the random motion of electrons increases.
As a result the number of collision of electrons with the
positive ions increases in a metal. Hence the resistance
of a metal increases with increases with increase in
temperature.
177. The Good conductor among the following is–
R.R.B. Ajmer Asst. Loco Pilot, 10.10.2004
(a) Ceramic clay (b) Resin
(c) Graphite (d) None of these
Ans : (c) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity
because it has delocalised electrons. The structure of
graphite is formed by every carbon covalently bonding
itself to three other carbon atoms. The last electron in
every carbon atom is not bonded with any other carbon
atom and is free to move.
YCT
178. Which of the following is a bad conductor of (c) Decrease the internal resistance
electricity? (d) Increase the current capacity
R.R.B. Ajmer Asst. Loco Pilot, 23.05.2004Ans : (a) Cell are connected in series to increase the
(a) Water (b) Coal output voltage. Whereas cell are connected in parallel to
(c) Acid (d) Humanbody increase the battery capacity (Ah).
Ans : (b) Coal is a bad conductor of electricity. Water,183. Who can get the best information about
acid and human body all work as good conductors of wheather the battery is fully charged?
electricity. The resistance of human body is upto R.R.B. Banglore Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012
1000Ω. (a) From the color of the electrolyte
179. 4 cells each of emf E are connected in series. (b) From the specific gravity of the electrolytic
The effective emf of combination will be: (c) from the surface of the electrolytic
R.R.B. Allahabad Asst. Loco Pilot, 03.08.2008 (d) From the temperature of the electrolyte
(a) E (b) 4E Ans : (b) If the battery is fully charged, then the best
(c) E/4 (d) 4/E information about it will be obtained from the specific
Ans : (b) Cell is connected in series to increase the gravity of the electrolyte and in this condition the
voltage. In series combination current is same whereas voltage of battery is 2.2 volts per cell and relative
in parallel combination voltage is same, density of its electrolyte is between 1.20 and 1.25. In
E = E1 + E2 + E3......En. this condition less gas bubbles come out from the
En = E + E + E + E = 4E holes of battery.
184. E.M.F. of storage cell depends on–
Cell is connected in parallel combination to increase the
current. R.R.B. Bhopal Asst. Loco Pilot, 06.06.2010
1 1 1 1 1 (a) Shape or cell (b) Size of electrode
= + + ....... (c) Nature of electrodes (d) All of these
E n E1 E 2 E3 En
Ans : (c) The electromotive force of a storage battery is
180. In an electroplating solution of an +ve ions are: depends on the nature of the electrodes of the battery.
R.R.B. Allahabad Asst. Loco Pilot, 09.12.2007 Battery capacity is measured in ampere-hour.
(a) Negatively charged Ampere hour discharge
(b) Positively charged % Battery efficiency = ×100
Ampere hour charge
(c) Neutral
(d) Having Varying polarity 185. The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II storage cell is–
R.R.B. Bhubneswar Asst. Loco Pilot, 14.06.2009
Ans : (a) 1. Cation- It is positively charged particle.
(a) 1.400 – 1.280 (b) 1.250 – 1.280
Which is charged by cathode(–ve). Cation is positively (c) 0.250 – 0.280 (d) 1.105 – 1.110
charged.
Ans : (b) The specific gravity of the electrolyte in
2. Anion- It is a negatively charged particle, which is storage cell is 1.25-1.280. This given range is the
charged by Anode (+ve). Cation is Negatively capacity of good battery.
charged. 186. A composite current wave is given by the
equation I = 14sinωt+2sin5ωt. The r.m.s. value
of current will be ampere.
R.R.B. Bhubneswar Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012
(a) 14 (b) 12
(c) 10 (d) 16
181. A load cell is a
R.R.B. Bangalore Asst. Loco Pilot, 25.01.2004 Ans : (c) Given,
i = 14 sin ωt + 2 sin 5 ωt
(a) strain gauge (b) Photo voltaic cell
I
(c) thermistor (d) Pressure pick up ∴I rms1 = max
Ans : (a) Load cell is a force transducer. It convert a 2
force such as tension, compression, pressure or torque 14
= = 9.899
into an electrical signal that can be measured as 2
standardize. 2
⇒ The most common type of load cell used as strain I rms2 = = 1.414
gauge, pneumatic and hydraullic. 2
182. Cells are connected in series to I rms = I rms1 2 + I rms2 2
R.R.B. Banglore Asst. Loco Pilot, 08.07.2007
I rms = 9.8992 + 1.4142
(a) Increase the voltage output
(b) Decrease the voltage output Irms = 10 A

Basic Electricity 271 YCT

187. A heater coil is marked 100W, 200V. The coil is Ans : (a) Given :
cut into two equal parts and both the pieces are C1 = 2µF C2 = 3µF C3 = 1 µF
connected in parallel to the same source. Now ∵ C1 and C2 are in series then equivalent capacitance
the energy released from it per second is–
will be–
R.R.B. Bilaspur Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012
C1 × C2
Ceq =
'
(a) 25 J/S (b) 400 J/S
(c) 100 J/S (d) 50 J/S C1 + C 2
Ans : (b) Given , 2×3
=
P = 100 watt 2+3
V = 200 V 6
Ceq = µF = C 4
R =? 5
When C3 and C4 are in parallel combination then
equivalent capacitance will be–
Ceq = C3 + C4
6
Ceq = 1 +
5
11
V2 V2 Ceq = = 2.2 µF
P= ⇒ R= 5
R P 189. The factor which affects capacitance of a
( 200 )
2
capacitor ?
R= R.R.B. Chandigarh Asst. Loco Pilot, 15.07.2012
100
= 400Ω (a) Separation between plates
Coil is cut into two parts then each part will have (b) Area of plates
(c) Permittivity
400
resistance = = 200Ω (d) Separation between plates, area of plates and
2 permittivity
Now, coil is connected in parallel combination– Ans : (d) Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with
vacuum between the plates is given by–
∈ A
C= 0 ……(i)
d
200 × 200 From equation (i) it is clear that capacitance of a
R eq = = 100Ω
200 + 200 capacitor depends on–
V (i) Area of plates
I= (ii) Distance between the plates.
R
200 (iii) Permittivity of the medium.
⇒ I= = 2 Amp 190. What is the total capacitance of the given circuit?
100
R.R.B. Chandigarh Asst. Loco Pilot, 25.05.2003
Now, energy ( E ) = I Rt2

= ( 2 ) × 100 × 1
2

= 400 Watt-sec
E 400
Energy per second = =
t 1 (a) 16 microfarad (b) 4 microfarad
E = 400J / sec (c) 2 microfarad (d) 1/4 microfarad
188. The capacitors of capacity 1µF, 2µF and 3µF Ans : (a) From the given figure capacitors are in parallel
are connected as shown in figure. equivalent combination–
capacitance will be– C = C1 + C2
=8+8
R.R.B. Chandigarh Asst. Loco Pilot, 14.09.2008
C = 16µf
191. A poorly made electrical connection –
R.R.B. Chennai Asst. Loco Pilot, 06.06.2010
(a) has a much higher resistance than normal
resistance
(a) 2.2 µF (b) 1.5 µF
(b) can produce excessive heat when normal
(c) 2.2 F (d) 6 µF current flows through the circuit
Basic Electricity 272 YCT
 (c) can reduce the total energy normally
available for the load
(d) all of these
Ans : (d) Due to faulty connection, resistance increases.
Due to which, at normal condition, when normal current
flows through the circuit then excessive heat will 196. when N2>N1 in transformer, the transformer is
produce in the circuit. called–
192. The current in an inductive circuit relative to R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 21.10.2001
the voltage is– (a) Stepup
R.R.B. Chennai/Bangalore Asst. Loco Pilot, (b) Stepdown
27.10.2002 (c) Both Stepup and Stepdown
(a) In phase (b) In leading (d) None of these
(c) In lagging (d) In opposite phase Ans : (a) When N2>N1 in transformer then it is called
Ans : (c) The current lags behind the voltage by π/2 (or step up transformer and vice-versa.
quarter of cycle) or voltage leads the current by π/2 as 197. In case fo DC supply, fuses are placed in the
shown in figure. following–
R.R.B. Guwahati Asst. Loco Pilot, 22.01.2006
(a) Positive wire (b) Negative wire
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Only (b)
Ans : (c) In case of DC supply, +ve and –ve can be
connected to any wire, where as in the case of AC, they
are only connected to the phase wire.
193. The potential difference between two points is V. 198. The friction losses in real transformers
The value of work done W, in taking Q charge are..............
from first point to second point will be– R.R.B. Jammu-Kashmir Asst. Loco Pilot,
R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 11.10.2009 06.06.2010
Q Q (a) 30% (b) 75%
(a) W = 2 (b) W = (c) 0% (d) 50%
V V
(c) W = Q.V (d) W = Q V2 2 Ans : (c) The transformer is a static device so there is
no friction and air friction losses.
Ans : (c)
Transformer losses are as follows-
Work = charge × potential difference
Hysteresis loss
Charge = Capacitance × potential difference Eddy current loss
Q = CV Stray loss
W = Q.V Copper loss
Radiative loss
194. The voltage of India's domestic supply is– Mechanical vibration and audible noise
R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 12.10.2003 transmission.
(a) 250-300 V (b) 110-220 V 199. A transformer is based on the principle of–
(c) 220-230 V (d) 460-520 V R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 02.11.2008
Ans : (c) The voltage of domestic supply in India varies (a) Mutual induction
between 220-230 Volt. Frequency of supply voltage or (b) Lenz law
current is 50 Hz. (c) Self induction
195. If there are two resistor of 20 ohms and 30 (d) Faraday law
ohms in a circuit and a potential difference of Ans : (a) A transformer is base on the principle of
50V is applied across the circuit, then what will mutual inductance, of two coils or Faraday law of
be the voltage drop across the 3 ohm resistor? electromagnetism induction.
R.R.B. Gorakhpur Asst. Loco Pilot, 14.04.2002 200. A step-up transformer can be used as:
(a) 50 Volt (b) 15 Volt R.R.B. Kolkata Asst. Loco Pilot, 06.02.2005
(c) 30 Volt (d) 20 Volt (a) Motor
Ans : (c) By voltage division rule– (b) DC Generator
20 (c) Step down transformer
V1 = 50 × = 20 Volt (d) Alternator
50
30 Ans : (c) A step up transformer can be used as step
V2 = 50 × = 30 Volt transformer and vice-versa.
50
Basic Electricity 273 YCT
04
General Physics
4.1 Units and Measurements • Derived Unit- Those units of physical quantities
which are derived from units of fundamental
Physical Quantity- quantities are called Derived units. Example:- Units
• A quantity which can be measured directly or of Velocity, Acceleration, Force, Work etc.
indirectly or can be explained and expressed in the S.I. Unit-
form of laws of physics are called physical quantity. • The S.I. unit is the international system of units. This
• A physical quantity is completely represented by its system contains seven fundamental units and two
magnitude and unit. supplementary fundamental units.
Fundamental quantities in S.I. System and their
• The magnitude of physical quantity and unit are
units-
inversely proportional to each other. Larger the unit
smaller will be the magnitude. Sr. Physical Name of Symbol of
No. Quantity unit unit
Types of Physical Quantity -
• Ratio (Numerical value only)- When a physical 1. Mass Kilogram kg
quantity is a ratio of two similar quantities. It has no 2. Length Meter m
unit. 3. Time Second s
For example- Temperature Kelvin K
4.
Density of Object
Relative Density = 5. Luminous Candela Cd
Density of Water Intensity
• Scalar- A physical quantity which has magnitude 6. Electric Current Ampere A
only and do not have any direction.
7. Amount of Mole Mol
Example- Work, Energy, Length, Time. Substance
• Vector- A physical quantity which has magnitude Supplementary S.I Unit- (Dimensionless Unit)
and direction both.
Sr. Physical Name of unit Symbol of
Example- Displacement, Velocity, Acceleration etc.
No. Quantity unit
• Units- Measurement of any physical quantity
1. Plane angle Radian rad
involves comparison with a certain basic, arbitrarily
chosen, internationally accepted reference standard 2. Solid angle Steradian Sr
called unit.
Dimension of Physical Quantity-
System of units- • The powers to which fundamental quantities must be
• A system of unit is a complete set of unit. It is used to in order to express the given physical quantity is
measure all kinds of fundamental and derived called its dimension.
quantities. • It is used to express derived quantity in terms of
Some system of units are as follows- fundamental quantities.
For example- Force = Mass× Acceleration
Units CGS MKS FPS
Mass × Velocity
Length cm meter foot =
Time
Mass gram kg pound = Mass ×Length ×
Time–2
Time second second second
= [MLT–2]
Fundamental and Derived Unit- S.I. Prefixes-
• Fundamental Unit- The units of those physical • The magnitudes of physical quantities vary over a
quantities which can neither be derived from one wide range. The CGPM recommended standard
another, nor they can be further resolved into more prefixes for magnitude too large or too small to be
simpler units. Example:- Units of Mass, Length etc. expressed more compactly for certain powers of 10.
General Physics 274 YCT
 Power of 10 Prefix Symbol Power of 10 Prefix Symbol
18 –1
10 exa E 10 deci d
1015 peta P 10–2 centi c
12 –3
10 tera T 10 mili m
9 –6
10 giga G 10 mirco µ
6 –9
10 mega M 10 nano n
103 kilo k 10–12 pico p
2 –15
10 hecto h 10 femto f
101 deca da 10–18 atto a
Units of Important Physical Quantities-
Physical Quantity Unit Physical Quantity Unit
–2
Angular Acceleration Rad-s Frequency Hertz
2
Moment of inertia kg-m Resistance ohm(Ω)
Self inductance Henry Surface tension Newton/m
Magnetic Flux Weber Universal Gas Constant Joule K–1 mol–1
Pole Strength A-m Dipole-moment coulomb-meter
Dynamic Viscosity Pascal-sec or Stefan Constant Watt m–2 K–4
kg/ms
Kinematic Viscosity m2/s Permittivity of free space (ε0) Coulomb2/N-m2
Reactance ohms(Ω) Permeability of free space (µ0) Weber/A-m
Specific heat J/kgºC Planck's constant Joule-sec
Strength of magnetic field Tesla Entropy J/K
Astronomical distance Parsec Angular Speed Rad/sec
Dimensions of important Physical Quantities -
Physical Quantity Dimensions Physical Quantity Dimensions
1 1 –1
Momentum MLT Capacitance M–1L–2T4 A2
Calorie M1L2T–2 Modulus of rigidity M1L–1T–2
Latent heat capacity M0L2T–2 Magnetic permeability M1L1T–2 A–2
Self inductance M1L2T–2A–2 Solar constant M1L0T–3
Coefficient of thermal conductivity M1L1T–3 θ–1 Magnetic flux M1L2T–2 A–1
Power M1L2T–3 Current density M0L–2T0 A1
Impulse M1L1T–1 Young's Modulus M1L–1T–2
Hole mobility of a semiconductor M–1L0A1 T2 Magnetic field intensity MT–2 A–1
Bulk modulus of elasticity M1L–1T–2 Magnetic induction M1T–2 A–1
Light year M0L1T0 Permittivity M–1L–3T4 A2
Thermal resistance M–1L–2T3 θ Electric field M1L1T–3 A–1
Coefficient of Viscosity M1L–1T–1 Resistance ML2T–3 A–2

General Physics 275 YCT

 Physical quantities which are dimensionless-
Sr. No. Physical Quantity Dimensional Formula
1. Specific gravity
2. Strain
3. Angle (θ)
4. Avogadro's number (N)
5. Reynold's number (NR)
6. Refractive Index (µ)
[M0L0T0]
7. Mechanical equivalent of heat (J)
8. Dielectric Constant (K) or relative permittivity
9. Relative density
10. Trigonometric-ratios
11. Distance gradient
12. Relative permeability
Physical quantities which have same dimensional formula -
S.No. Physical Quantity Dimensional Formula
1. Speed or Velocity
2. Velocity of light in Vacuum (c)
M0L1T–1
3. Distance travelled in nth second (Snth)
4. Relative Velocity
5. Frequency (v)
6. Angular frequency
M0L0T–1
7. Angular velocity (ω)
8. Velocity Gradient
9. Work
10. Moment of force
11. Torque
12. Internal energy
M1L2T–2
13. Potential energy
14. Kinetic energy
15. Heat energy
16. Light energy
17. Coefficient of elasticity
18. Pressure
19. Stress
20. Young's Modulus M1L–1T–2
21. Bulk Modulus
22. Modulus of rigidity
23. Energy density

General Physics 276 YCT

 24. Force
25. Weight
26 Thrust M1L1T–2
27. Energy gradient
28. Tension
29. Acceleration
30. Acceleration due to gravity [M0L1T–2]
31. Gravitational field intensity
32. Plank's Constant (h)
[M1L2T–1]
33. nga Angular momentum
34. Mass [M1L0T0]
35. Momentum
[M1L1T–1]
36. Impulse
37. Length
38. Radius of gyration (K) [M0L1T0]
39. Wavelength (λ)
40. Force constant
41. Surface tension M1L0T–2
42. Surface energy
43. Area M0L2T0
44. Volume M0L3T0
45. Density M1L–3T0
46. Universal gravitational constant (G) M–1L3T–2
47. Moment of Inertia M1L2T0
48. Angular acceleration M0L0T–2
49. Rate of flow M0L3T–1
50. Mass per unit length M1L–1T0
51. Rydberg constant (R) M0L–1T0
52. Coefficient of viscosity (η) M1L–1T–1
53. Kinematic viscosity M0L2T–1
54. Surface potential M0L2T–2
55. Specific volume M–1L3T0
56 Power M1L2T–3
Dimensional Analysis and Its Applications:- Example -
• Dimensional analysis helps up in deducing certain (i) Work done = force × displacement ;
relations among different physical quantities checking [ML2T–2] = [MLT–2] × [M0LT0]
the derivation accuracy and dimensional consistency [ML2T–2] = [ML2T–2]
or homogeneity of various mathematical expressions.
1
• Checking dimensional consistency of equations: (ii) S= ut + at 2 ; Dimensionally,
2
Principle of homogeneity states that dimensions of
each of the terms of a dimensional equation on both [S] = [ut] = [at2]
sides should be the same. Mathematically [LHS] = [M0LT0] = [M0LT–1] [M0L0T] = [M0LT–2] [M0L0T2]
[RHS]. [M0LT0] = [M0LT0] = [M0LT0]

General Physics 277 YCT

• To convert a physical quantity from one to • We cannot determine the value of constants in a
another system of units: Q1n2 = Q2n1; Where Q1 = relation.
unit in 1st system, Q2 = unit in 2nd system and n1 and • It gives no information whether a physical quantity is
n2 be constant value in 1st and 2nd system. a scalar or a vector.
Qn Q  • In mechanics, the physical quantities depends on
∴ n 2 = 1 1 ⇒ n 2 = n1  1  more than three quantities cannot be derived by
Q2  Q2  dimensional method as there will be less number (=
Example - 3) of equations than the unknowns (> 3). However
Conversion of SI unit of force from Newton (MKS) still we can check the correctness of equation
into dyne (CGS), dimensionally.
–2
Let n2 = x, Q2 = dyne (g cm s ), n1 =1, Q1 = N(kg • Physical quantities having identical dimensions may
–2
m/s ) be of entirely different in nature.
Application of Dimensional Analysis -
Q 
Applying n2 =  1  n1 1. To convert physical quantity from one system of units
 Q2  to another.
a b c 2. To check correctness of a given physical relation.
M  L  T 
∴ x = 1  1   1   1  or 3. To derive a relationship between different physical
 M 2   L 2   T2  quantities.
1 −2
1
 kg   m   s  Key points -
x = 1×      
 g   cm   s  • Trigonometric functions sin θ, cos θ, tan θ etc and
their arrangements θ are dimensionless.
1000 g  100 cm  1 s 
or x = 1×  ×  ×  s  ⇒ x = 10
5
 dn y   y 
 g   cm    • Dimension of differential coefficients  n  =  n  .
 dx   x 
∴ 1 N = 105 dynes.
• Dimension of integrals [∫ ydx] = [yx] we can not add
• Deducing relation among the physical quantities: or subtract two physical quantities of different
If we know the dependency of a physical quantity on dimensions.
the other quantities then using dimensional analysis • Independent quantity may be taken as fundamental
relation between them can be derived. quantities in a new system of units.
Example- Time period of simple pendulum depends • Measure of a physical quantity = Numerical value of
on mass of bob (m), length (l) of string and the physical quantity × Size of the unit
acceleration due to gravity (g).
i.e Q = n × u
∴ T ∝ ma lb gc ; T = k ma lb gc...............(i) Thus, the numerical value (n) is inversely
Here k is a dimensionless constant. proportional to the size of the unit (u) .
[M0L0T] = [ML0T0]a [M0LT0]b [M0LT–2]c 1
n ∝ or nu = constant.
[M0L0T] = [MaLb+cT–2c] u
Comparing the powers, we get a = 0, b + c = 0 and – Some important units:-
2c = 1 1 fermi = 10-15m
∴ c=
–1
and b =
1 1 X- ray Unit = 10-13m
2 2 1 Astronomical unit = 1.49×1011m ( average distance
Substituting values of a, b and c in equation (i), T = k b/w sun and earth)
m0 l1/2 g-1/2 1 Light Year = 9.46×1015m.
l 1 Parsec = 3.08 × 1016m = 3.26 light year
∴ T=k (k = a constant cannot be determined 1A0 = 10-10m
g
1 Micron = 10-6m
using dimensions)
1 Mili micron = 10-9m
Limitations of dimensional analysis:
1 Joule = 107 erg
• Dimensional method can be used only if the
dependency is of multiplication type. The formulae Values of some important physical constants-
containing exponential, trigonometric and logarithmic Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s2
function can't be derived using this method. Formulae Standard atmospheric pressure = 76 cm Hg =
containing more than one term which are added or 1.01×105 N/m2
1 2 Density of mercury = 13.59×103kgm-3
subtracted like S= ut + at also can't be derived. Gravitational constant (G) = 6.67×10-11 Nm2/kg2
2
General Physics 278 YCT
 Ideal gas = 8.3145 J. mole-1K-1 Pitch -
Speed of light (C) = 3×108m/s • The smallest value of length or any other units which
Plank's Constant = 6.626 × 10-34JS can be read directly from a main scale accurately is
Avogadro number = 6.023 × 1023mol-1 called pitch.
1 Unit
Measurement - Pitch =
No. of division in unit
• Measurement is the process of comparison of the
Least Count-
given physical quantity with the known standard
quantity of the same nature. • The minimum measurement which can be taken
accurately by the measuring instrument.
For Example- Measurement of length using Vernier
Calipers and measurement of diameter of wire using Value Measured
L.C. =
Screw gauge. No. of Division in that Measurement
Need of measurement- Pitch
or L.C. =
• To understand any phenomenon in physics we have No. of V.S.D.
to perform experiments. There are basically two types of precision
• Experiments require measurements and we measure instrument used for measurement:-
several physical properties like length, mass, time, (i) Vernier Calipers
temperature, pressure etc.
(ii) Screw Gauge
• Experimental verification of laws & theories also
needs measurement of physical properties.
Vernier Calipers -
Units for measurements-
• In order to measure a physical quantity a standard is
needed (Which is acceptable internationally) This
standard is known as unit. The standard should be
some convenient definite and easily reproducible
quantity of same kind in terms of which the physical
quantity as a whole is expressed.
Important measurement :-
1 Foot = 12 inches
1 Yard = 3 Feet = 36 inches • A vernier scale is an auxiliary scale that slides along
1 Mile = 5280 feet = 1760 Yard the main scale.
1 Barrel (fluid) = 159 litres • The vernier scale is that a certain number, n no. of
1 Gallons = 3.785 litres division on the vernier scale is equal to the length in a
1 Ounce = 28.35 grams different number (usually one less) of main-scale
1 Pound = 0.4536 metres divisions.
1 Biswa = 1350 square feet nV.S.D. = (n – 1)M.S.D.
1 Acre = 1.613 bigha Where n = number of divisions on the vernier scale
Some Approximate masses- V.S.D=The length of one division on the vernier scale
and M.S.D = Length of the smallest main-scale
Object → Kilogram
division
Our galaxy → 1.5×1041
1
Sun → 1.98×1030 • Least count = M.S.D. – V.S.D. = M.S.D.
n
Moon → 7.35×1022
• In the ordinary Vernier calipers, 1 M.S.D. is 1 mm
Asteroid Eros → 6.69×1015 and 10 V.S.D. coincide with 9 M.S.D.
Note :- 1 Horse Power = 746 W 9
1 Pascal = 1Nm-2 1 V.S.D. = M.S.D. = 0.9 mm
10
1 Atmosphere pressure = 76 cm of Hg = 1.01×105 Least Count of Vernier 1 M.S.D. – 1 V.S.D.
Pascal = 1 mm –0.9 mm
1 erg = 10-7J = 0.1 mm
General Physics 279 YCT
Types of zero error–
No Zero Error Positive Zero Error Negative Zero Error
Correction None Negative Positive
Correction formula None – Coinciding division × + Coinciding division ×
L.C. of V.S. L.C. of V. S.

Corrected reading Observed reading + correction

Actual reading Main scale reading + V.S. reading ± zero correction
Screw Gauge- • A Screw gauge allows a measurement of the size of
a body. It is one of the most accurate mechanical
devices in common use.
• It consists of a main scale and a thimble
Pitch
• Least Count =
No. of Divisions on Circular Scale
• L.C. of Screw gauge = 0.001 mm
Method of Measurement
Step- I : Find the whole number of mm in the barrel
Step - II: Find the reading of barrel and multiply by 0.01
Step III: Add the value in Step- I and Step –II

Types of zero Error :–

No zero Error Positive zero error Negative zero error
Correction None Negative Positive
Correction Formula None +zero error ×L.C -zero error ×L.C.

Actual reading Observed reading -excess reading ×zero error

Least Count of various measuring Instruments :- limit of precision = ± ½(least count of instrument)
Instrument Its least Count 1
Precision ∝
mm scale 1 mm least count
Vernier Calipers 0.1 mm Fractional error
Precision ∝
Screw Gauge 0.001 mm Relative error
Accuracy and Precision - Example-
• Accuracy- Accuracy is the term used to indicate the • Suppose, A cadate of soldier want to shoot bull's eye
and they have six bullets.
closeness of a measured value to its accurate value.
1
Accuracy ∝
Fractional or Relative error
• Precision- Precision is the closeness of a measurement
of two or more measurement to each other.
General Physics 280 YCT
 Conditions Conclusions

(i) Maximum bullets are far from target. Low Accuracy and Low Precision
(ii) The separation between bullets are also large.

(i) Bullets are far from target.

(ii) Bullets are very close to each other. Low Accuracy and High precision

High Accuracy and Low Precision

(i) Bullets are close to target.
(ii) Separation between bullets are large.

(i) Bullets are close to target.

(ii) Separation between bullets are low. High Accuracy and High Precision

Thus,

x
Precise but
inaccurate data

Significant figure -
• The figure which express the required degree of accuracy, is called significant figure.
• In significant figure digits carry a meaningful representation.
• Accuracy ∝ No. of Significant figure.
Rules for counting the no. of Significant figure in a measured quantity-
(i) All non-zero digits are significant.
Ex- 13.75 S.f = 4
(ii) All zeros between two non- zero digits are significant.
Ex- 100.05 km S.f = 5
(iii) All zeros to the rights of a non-zero digits but to the left of an understood decimal point are not significant.
Ex- 86400 S.f = 3
But such zero are significant if they come from a measurement 86400 sec S.f = 5
(iv) All zero to the rights of a non-zero digits but to the left of the decimal point are significant.
Ex- 648700 S.f = 6
(v) All zeros to the rights of a decimal point are significant.
General Physics 281 YCT
 Ex- S.f
161 cm 3
161.0 cm 4
161.00 cm 5
(vi) All zeros to the right of a decimal point but to the left of a non-zero digit are not significant.
0.161 cm → S.f = 3
0.0161 cm → S.f = 3
(vii) The no. of significant figure does not depend on the system of units.
16.4 cm → 3
0.164 m → 3
0.000164 km → 3
(viii) The power of 10 are not counted as significant digit.
1.4×10–7 → 2
1.65×1014 → 3
Rounding off a digit-
(i) If the no. lying to the right of cut off digit is less than 5, then the cut off digit is retained as such. However, if
it is more than 5, then the cut off digit is increased by 1.
x = 6.24 rounding in 2 significant x = 6.2
x = 5.328 rounding in 3 significant x = 5.33
(ii) If the digit to be dropped is 5 followed by digits other than zero then the preceding digit is increased by 1.
x = 14.252 x = 14.3 (upto 3)
(iii) If the digit to be dropped is 5 or 5 followed by zeros, then the preceding digit is unchanged if it is even.
x = 6.250 or x = 6.25
x = 6.2 (upto 2)
(iv) If the digit to be dropped is 5 or 5 followed by zeros then the preceding digits is raised by one if it is odd.
x = 6.350 or x = 6.35
x = 6.4 (rounding off two significant)
Error
• The difference between the measured value and the true value of a quantity is known as the error in the
measurement.

Error

• When we know actual error in observation. • When we do not know the actual error in observation.
• Systematic error • Random error
• Upto 10%
Combination of Error-
(i) Absolute error - The difference between the true value and the measured value of a quantity is called an
absolute error.
x1 + x 2 + x 3 + ...... + x n
x= = measured/mean value
n
General Physics 282 YCT
 Absolute error -
∆x1 = x – x1
∆x 2 = x – x 2
∆x 3 = x – x 3
. .
. .
. .
∆x n = x – x n
Absolute error may be + ve or – ve.
(ii) Mean absolute error-
| ∆x1 | + | ∆x 2 | +.........+ | ∆x n |
∆x mean =
n
Final result can be written as–
x = x ± ∆x mean
(iii) Relative or Fractional error-
∆x mean ∆x mean
= =
xm x
∆x mean
%= × 100
x
Operation Formula (Z) Absolute error (∆Z)  ∆Z  ∆Z
Relative error   Percentage error × 100
 Z  Z
Sum A+B ∆A + ∆B ∆A + ∆B ∆A + ∆B
× 100
A+B A+B
Difference A–B ∆A + ∆B ∆A + ∆B ∆A + ∆B
× 100
A–B A–B
Multiplication A×B A∆B + B∆A ∆A ∆B  ∆A ∆B 
+  +  × 100
A B  A B 
Division A B∆A + A∆B ∆A ∆B  ∆A ∆B 
B2
+  +  × 100
B A B  A B 
Power An nAn–1∆A ∆A ∆A
n n ×100
A A
Root A
1
n 1 1/ n −1 1 ∆A 1 ∆A
A ∆A ×100
n n A n A
Propagation of Error-
Case Propagation of Error
Z = ax ± b δz = a⋅δx
Z=x±y δz = [(δx)2 + (δy)2]½
1
δz  δx   δy  
2 2 2

Z = cxy =   +   
z  x   y  
1
δz  δx   δy  
2 2 2
x
Z=c =   +   
y z  x   y  
δz δx
Z = cxa =a
z x
General Physics 283 YCT
 1
δz  δx   δy  
2 2 2

Z = cxayb =  a  +  b  
z  x   y  

δz
Z = sin x = δx cot x
z
δz
Z = cos x = δx tan x
z
δz δx
Z = tan x =
z sin x cos x
Keypoint - • Smaller the least count, higher is the accuracy of
• If units or dimension of two physical quantities are measurement.
same, these need not represent the same physical • Significant figure do not change if we measure a
characteristics. e.g- Torque and work have the same physical quantity in different units.
units and dimensions but their physical characteristics 1 Inch = 2.54 cm
are different.
1 Foot = 12 inch = 30.48cm = 0.3048m
• A measurement of a physical quantity is said to be 1 Mile = 5280 ft = 1.609 km
accurate if the systematic error in its measurement is
1 Yard = 0.9144m
relatively very low. On the other hand the
measurement of a physical quantity is said to be 1 Slug = 14.59 kg
precise if the random error is small. 1 liter = 103cm
• A measurement is most accurate if its observed • When we add or subtract two measured quantities,
values is very close to the true value. the absolute error in the final result is equal to the
• The absolute error in each measurement is equal to sum of the absolute errors in the measured quantities.
the least count of the measuring instrument. • When we multiply or divide two measured quantities,
• Percentage error = relative error × 100 the relative error in the final result is equal to the sum
of the relative errors in the measured quantities.
• The unit and dimensions of the absolute error are
same as that of quantity itself.
• Absolute error is not dimensionless quantity.
• Relative error is dimensionless quantity.
Exam Pointer
■ System of units are - F.P.S, C.G.S and M.K.S ■ The SI unit of electric current is - Ampere
■ S.I unit is taken from - M.K.S system ■ The SI unit of the physical quantity "Luminous
■ SI system was developed in - 1971 intensity" is - Candela (cd)
■ No. of basic unit is - Seven ■ The SI unit of the physical quantity "magnetic flux
intensity" is - Tesla (T)
■ In system that uses the meter for length, the kilogram
■ The SI unit of the physical quantity "magnetic flux"is
for quantity, the second for time, Kelvin for
temperature, ampere for electric current. The candela - Weber (wb)
for luminous intensity and the mole for the amount of ■ The SI unit of the physical quantity "magnetic field
a substance is called - SI system intensity" is - Amperes per meter
■ No. of supplementary unit is - Two ■ The SI unit for heat capacity will be - Joule/ºC
■ The SI unit of luminous flux is - Lumen
■ Plane angle (radian), Solid angle (steradian) are
■ The SI unit of "force couple" is
- Supplementary unit
- Newton-meter (Nm)
■ SI unit of temperature is - Kelvin (K)
■ The SI unit of 'surface tension' is - Newton/meter
■ The SI unit of energy is - Joule
■ The SI unit of viscosity is - Poiseuille (PI)
■ The SI unit of torque is - Newton-meter (Nm) ■ The density of water in MKS system is - 103 kg/m3
■ The SI unit of frequency is - Hertz ■ Light year is the unit of - Distance
General Physics 284 YCT
■ Kilowatt hour is the unit of - Energy ■ How many gram are in an ounce - 28.3 gram
■ Tonne is the unit of - Weight ■ One parsec is equal to - 3.26 light years
■ Unit of angular velocity is - Radian/second ■ How many liters are in one barrel of oil - 159 liter
■ Angstrom is the unit of - Length ■ How many liters will be in 5 gallons - 18.927 liters
■ The derived unit of mass in MKS system is ■ How many kilograms in one tonne - 103 kg
- Kilogram ■ One horse power (HP) is equal to - 746 watts
■ In MKS systems the unit of force is ■ Value of 1000 watts in horse power (HP) will be
kg - m - 1.359 watts
- (Newton) 12
sec 2 ■ 9.45×10 km is equal to - One light year
■ In FPS system, the unit of weight is - Pound ■ One kg of weight is in Newton - 9.81 N
■ The largest unit to measure the distance is - Parsec ■ For 1012 prefix unit is used - Tera
■ The unit of solid angle is - Steradian ■ 5280 feet, 1.609 km and 1760 yard is equal to
■ The unit that is used in all system - second - 1 mile
■ The CGS unit of length is - Centimeter ■ How many millimeter are in 24 inches - 609.60 mm
■ The unit of force in CGS system is - Dyne ■ How many joules are in one calorie - 4.18 Joules
■ The unit of gravitational constant (G) is - Nm2/kg2 ■ One milligram (mg) is equal to kilogram - 10–6 kg
■ "Calorie" is the unit of measurement of - Heat ■ The value of 2 square miles converted into square
■ The unit of density in CGS system is - gram/cm3 km. will be - 5.175 square km
■ Curie is the unit of - Radio-activity ■ One pound contains - 453.592 gram
■ R.P.M. of a rotating fly wheel is measured by ■ The value of 5 meters in inches will be
- Stroboscope - 196.85 inches
■ Kilowatt-hour is unit of - Electrical energy ■ The value of 5 square kilometer converted to square
■ The unit of Plank's constant is - J-S miles will be - 1.932 square mile
■ The unit of physical quantity "Jerk" is ■ The value of 95ºC is in Fahrenheit - 203ºF
- Meter per second cube (m/sec3) ■ One pico-second is equal to - 10–12 second
■ Those physical quantities which have only magnitude ■ 10 micro meter is in meter - 10–5 meter
and no direction are called - Scalar quantity ■ One micron is equal to millimeter - 0.001 mm
■ The unit of density in MKS system is ■ The value of 10 inches in mm will be - 254 mm
- Kilogram/cubic meter (kg/m3) ■ Calories in one Joule are - 0.24 caloric
■ How many miles are in 1 km - 0.622 miles ■ 300 Kelvin (K) is the temperature in ºC - 27ºC
■ How many millimeters are in one kilometer -106 mm
■ The unit of young's modulus of elasticity in the SI
■ How many liters in one cubic foot - 28.316 liter (L) system is - Newton/meter2
■ How many feet are in 6 meters - 19.68 feet (ft) ■ Momentum, mass and velocity are related to
■ One hectare is equal to - 2.47 acres - Momentum = mass × velocity
■ How many watts are in 5 (five) horse power (hp) ■ Joules and 'electron volt' are the unit of - Energy
- 3728.5 watt ■ The dimensions of energy and work are - [ML2T–2]
■ How many joules are in one K.W.H. -36×105 Joules ■ The dimension of gravitational constant (G) is
■ How many inches are in one meter - 39.37 inches - [M–1L3T–2]
■ Unit of mass in SI/MKS system is - kilogram (kg) ■ The unit of moment of inertia is - Kilogram×metre2
■ Weight of one kilogram amount is -9.8Newton (N) ■ The unit of angular momentum is - Joule-second
■ How many liters are in one gallon - 3.785 liter ■ The dimensional formula for angular momentum is
■ How many square feet will be in 3 square meters - [ML2T–1]
- 32.3 square feet ■ The dimensional formula of momentum and impulse
■ Yard is one inch is - 0.0278 Yard is - [MLT–1]
■ How many hectares are in one acre -.4047 hectares ■ In international measurement system, 'Kelvin' is the
■ Value of 2.5 gallons in liters will be - 9.464 unit of - Temperature
■ The physical quantities having magnitude and ■ One Joule energy is equal to erg - 107 ergs
direction are called - Vector quantity ■ The unit used to measure the ultrasonic speed is
■ 0.4047 hectare, 4047 square meter and 4840 square - Knots
yard is equal to - One acre
■ The number of base unit in the S.I. system is
■ One angstrom is equal to - 10–10 meter
General Physics 285 YCT
 - 7 (seven) o
■ The value of 1A in micron is - 10–4 micron
■ One nano is equal to - 10–9 metre
■ The length of one division of the venier scale than the
■ One micro is equal to - 10–6 metre length of one division of the main scale is
■ One pico is equal to - 10–12 metre - little less
■ 'Tesla' (T) is the unit of - Intensity of magnetic field ■ How many millimeters (mm) are in one micron
■ A manometer is used to measure - Pressure 1
- mm
■ In C.G.S system the name of the unit of charge is 1000
- esu ■ One nanometer is equal to centimeter (cm) - 10–7 cm
■ The unit used to measure the distance of a star is ■ The minimum reading marked on the scale is called
- Light year Actual Value
■ Which type of scale is used to measure the distance ■ The quality of an instrument which caste difference
between the sun and earth - Indirect scale between two suitable values
■ Measured by direct scale - distance, length, weight -Transfer persistence
■ The first type of measuring instrument is used ■ If the input were more in the measurement sub-
- simple scale section -Ductility decreases
■ In the measurement of which physical quantity after ■ Mechanical measuring instruments are -less sensitive
making 2 transformations, the observation is ■ Electrical measuring instruments are -Less durability
presented - Electric current ■ Nature of mechanical measuring instrument is
■ Expresses the range of a scale - 0 to Rmax -Less sensitivity , more stability
■ The span of a scale is shown by - Rmax –Rmin ■ What have an impact on stability when the
■ The accuracy of a measurement method is expressed sensitivity of a speech increases -Decreases
in - Close to the actual value ■ The difference between the upper limit and lower
■ Accuracy shows limit of any measurement is called -Tolerance
- The closeness of the actual value to the measured ■ What effect on the auspiciousness, when the accuracy
value of the measuring instrument increases
■ If the errors in a measuring instrument are less than -Decreases
its accuracy will be affected - It will increase ■ In any type of measurement , there is a reasons for
■ The accuracy and error of a measuring instrument is error - Indirect and direct both
1 ■ The function of measuring system is
related to - Accuracy ∝
error -Pointer function, recording
■ Electric current is measured by - Ammeter function, control function
■ The time taken by the earth to revolve around the sun
is of the order of - 107 second

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following physical quantities Electric Current - The rate of flow of charge is called
is a vector quantity? electric current. It is a scalar quantity.
(a) Gravitational Potential energy Gravitational Potential Energy- The energy stored in
an object due to its position above the earth's surface is
(b) Electric Power called gravitational potential energy. It is scalar
(c) Electric current quantity.
(d) Dipole Moment Electric Power: It is electrical energy per unit time.It is
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift I a scalar quantity.
Ans. (d) :Dipole moment - The product of the charge 2. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
and the distance between the two charges is called (a) Speed (b) Velocity
dipole moment. It is a vector quantity. (c) Displacement (d) Acceleration
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift I
P = q×d
Ans. (a) : Vector Quantity - A physical quantity which
Where, p = dipole moment has both magnitude and direction. Displacement,
q = charge velocity, acceleration, momentum, force, weight are
d = distance. examples of vector Quantity.

General Physics 286 YCT

Scalar quantity- A scalar quantity only has a 6. S.I. Unit of universal gravitational constant is
magnitude. Some common examples of scalar quantity (a) Nkg2/m2 (b) kg2/Nm2
are mass, speed, volume, temperature, density etc. (c) Nm2/kg2 (d) N2m2/kg2
3. kgms–1 is the SI unit of –––– RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III
(a) Momentum (b) Pressure Ans. (c) : As per universal law of gravitations,
(c) Force (d) Velocity GMm
F=
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift I d2
Ans. (a) : Momentum - It is the product of the mass and Fd 2
velocity of an object whose change with respect to time G=
Mm
gives force.
Where,
P = m×v
The SI units of Gravitational force = Newton (N)
Where P = momentum
The SI unit of Distance = Meter (m)
m = mass of object
The SI units of Masses (M, m) = kg
v = velocity
2
• The S.I. unit of momentum is kg-m/sec. and Therefore, The SI unit of G = Nm2kg–2 or Nm
-1 2
dimension is [MLT ]. Kg
4. Which of the following has no unit 7. The dimensional formula of speed
(a) Pressure (b) Density (a) [MLT–1] (b) [M0LT–1]
0 –1
(c) Distance (d) Relative Density (c) [ML T ] (d) [MLT2]
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift I RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III
Ans. (d) : Relative density - It is defined as the ratio of RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I
density of a substance with respect to the density of Ans. (b) : We know that,
water. It is denoted by R.D.
 d
Density of substance Speed  v = 
R.D =  t
Density of water
v=
[ L]
• Relative density is a dimensionless quantity.
[T]
Pressure - The force applied perpendicular to the 0 –1
surface area of an object is known as pressure. It is The dimensional Formula of speed = [M LT ]
denoted by 'P'. • M = Mass
F • L = Length
P=
A • T = Time
Where, F = Force applied by the body (N) 8. Light year is the unit of
A= Total area of the object (m2) (a) Length (b) Time
• The S.I unit of pressure is Pascal (Pa) or N/m2. (c) Mass (d) Area
Density - It is defined as mass per unit volume. It is RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III
denoted by ρ. The unit of Density is kg/m3. Ans. (a) : The light year is a unit of length. It is used to
Mass(m) express Astronomical distances.
ρ=
Volume(v) • It is equal to about 9.46 trillion kilometers
12 12
Distance - The complete path travelled by an object. (9.46×10 km) or 5.88 trillion miles (5.88×10 miles).
The unit of Distance is meter (m). 9. Light year is the unit of a quantity whose unit
can also be
5. Which among the following is a derived unit ?
(a) Second (b) Kg
(a) Length (b) Density
(c) Square metre (d) Angstrom
(c) Time (d) Mass
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift II
Ans. (d) : Light year is the unit of a quantity whose
Ans. (b) : Derived Unit :- The combination of two base unit can also be Angstrom.
units is called derived units. The distance travelled by light in one year is called one
• Density is derived unit because it is a combination of light - year. It is the unit of astronomical distance.
two basic units mass and volume and it is given by The unit of length which is equal to 10-10 meters is
kg/m3. called 1 Angstrom. It is denoted by Aº.

General Physics 287 YCT

10. The distance covered by a particle in time 't' ∴ Mass = [ M ]
is given by
Put both the values in eq (i)
s = at +bt2 where 'a' and 'b' are two constants.
The dimensional formula of 'b' is: Force = [M] × [LT–2] = [MLT–2]
(a)  M 0 L1T −2  (b)  M 0 L2 T −1  13. Which one of the following physical quantities
represent stress?
0 1 −1
(c)  M L T  0 2 −2
(d)  M L T  (a) Force/length (b) Impulse/volume/j
(c) Restoring force/area (d) Energy/area/j
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
Ans. (a) : Given : S = at + bt2 --------(i) Ans. (c) : Stress a physical quantity that defines force
From the principle of dimensional homogeneity , the per unit area applied to a material. It is denoted by σ.
L.H.S of the equation dimensionally equal to the R.H.S Force
of the equation. Stress =
So, the dimension of (s), (at) and (bt)2 is same. cross - sectional area
F
Dimensional formula of distance (s) = [ L ] σ=
A
For the first term • The S.I. Unit of stress is Newton/meter2 or Pascals
∴ [ L ] = [ a ][ T ] (Pa).
Force
[ L] =  LT −1  • = Surface tension
[a ] = length
[T ]  
Surface tension is the attraction force found which is
For the second term responsible for pulling surface molecules in the rest of
∴ [L]= [b] [T2] the liquid.
14. Which one of the following physical quantities
[b]=
[ L] =  LT −2  is a scalar quantity?
 T 2  (a) Dipole moment (b) Angular momentum
(c) Torque (d) Electric current
Hence, the dimensional formula of 'b' is  Mº L1T −2  RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
Ans. (d) :
11. Which of the following is dimensionless?
• A scalar quantity is defined as the physical quantity
(a) Velocity (b) Angle that has only magnitude e.g. Mass, electric current,
(c) Mass (d) Area volume, speed, temperature etc.
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II • A vector quantity is defined as the physical quantity
Ans. (b) : Angle is defined as the ratio of the length of that has magnitude as well as direction e.g. Angular
arc to the radius. momentum, torque, force, acceleration,
displacement, dipole moment etc.
length of arc ( ℓ )
Angle (θ) = 15. Which of the following is not the SI base unit?
radius ( r ) (a) Coulomb (b) Metre

θ=
[ Mº LTº ] = 1 (c) Kilogram (d) Ampere
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
[ Mº LTº ] Ans. (a) : Fundamental unit/SI base unit:-
Hence, an angle is a dimensionless quantity. • The SI unit of a fundamental quantity is called a
12. The dimensional formula of force : fundamental unit
−3 2
(a)  ML T  −2
(b)  MLT  • There are 7 fundamental quantities and their
fundamental units are given below
(c)  ML−2 T −2  (d)  ML−1T −1  Fundamental Quantities
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II Quantities S.I. base unit
Ans. (b) : Dimensional Formula of Force Mass Kilogram (kg)
Force = Mass ×Acceleration .............(i) Length Meter (M)
velotcity Time Second (S)
∴ Acceleration = Temperature Kelvin (K)
time
Electric current Ampere (A)
distance / time Luminous intensity Candela (cd)
=
time Amount of substance Mole (Mol)
L/T • We can say that the coulomb is not the SI base
= =  LT −2 
T unit. So option (a) is correct.

General Physics 288 YCT

16. Which of the following is NOT a base unit? (c) capacitance (d) entropy
(a) Radian (b) Mole RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
(c) Ampere (d) Candela Ans : (a) : Katal is the unit of catalytic activity. It is
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I equivalent to 1 mole/second.
Ans: (a) Fundamental quantities in SI system and 22. Which of the following option does not have SI unit?
their units - (a) Frequency
Physical Quantity Name of Symbol of (b) Amount of substance
unit unit (c) Electric current
Mass Kilogram kg (d) Luminous Intensity
Length Meter m RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (a) Frequency does not have S.I base unit. The SI
Time Second S unit of frequency is hertz which is the reciprocal of
Temperature kelvin K time period.
Luminous intensity Candela Cd 23. One mile is approximately equivalent to ______
kilometers.
Electric current Ampere A
(a) 0.8 (b) 1.2
Amount of Mole Mol (c) 1.4 (d) 1.6
substance
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
17. Farad per meter is the unit of–––––. Ans : (d) 1 mile = 1.69344 Kilometers
(a) Permeability Hence, option (d) is correct.
(b) Electric conductance 24. Heat supplied to a system is measured in____.
(c) Permittivity (a) joules (b) amperes
(d) Watt per steradian (c) kilowatts (d) degrees kelvin
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (c) Farad per meter is the unit of permitivity Ans : (a) Heat supplied to a system is measured in
• Electric conductance → Siemen (s) Joule or Calorie.
• Permeability → Henry/ meter 1 Calorie = 4.18 Joule
18. Henry per meter is the unit of .......... 25. Which meter is used for the measurement of
(a) permeability heat ?
(b) electric conductance (a) Energy meter (b) Calorimeter
(c) watt per steradian (c) Ammeter (d) Wattmeter
(d) permittivity RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II Ans : (b): Instrument Uses
Ans : (b) Henry per meter is the unit of permittivity. • Calorimeter To measure the thermal
19. Which of the following is NOT a derived unit? change
(a) Mol (b) Volt • Ammeter To measure current in the
circuit
(c) Radian (d) Lumen
• Wattmeter To measure and estimate the
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
electric power
Ans : (a) Derived unit: Those units of physical
quantities which are derived from units of fundamental • Energy To measure the total power
quantities are called derived units. ex – 26. When you convert one inch from British to SI
Unit of mass, length etc. unit, it becomes ......... cm.
Mol is a fundamental unit. (a) 25.4 (b) 12
20. Which of the following is a base unit? (c) 2.54 (d) 0.254
(a) candela (b) hertz RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
(c) radian (d) ohm Ans : (c) : One inch from British to SI unit is equal to
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I the 2.54 cm.
Ans : (a) : Candela is base unit, Hence option (a) is 27. The SI unit for elecrical resistivity is :
correct. (a) Tesla (b) Ohm meter
21. Katal is the unit of_______. (c) Ampere (d) Volt/meter
(a) catalytic activity (b) stress RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
General Physics 289 YCT
Ans : (b) SI unit of electrical resistivity is ohm meter. Ans. (c) : Unit of force –
• Electric field Resistivity – Ohm-meter M. K. S kg-m/sec2
• Magnetic field strength – Tesla or Ampere/meter S.I Newton
• Electric field strength – Volt/meter C.G.S Dyne
28. What is the S.I unit of potential difference ? 34. How much watt in one horse power-
(a) 1000 (b) 750
(a) Coulomb (b) Tesla
(c) 746 (d) 748
(c) Volt (d) Ampere
RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 09.11.1997
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans. (c) : 1 horse power = 746 watt
Ans : (c) SI Unit
35. Kilowatt hour is the unit of-
Electric charge – Coulomb
(a) mass (b) time
Electric field – Tesla
(c) Electrical energy (d) Electrical power
Potential difference – Volt RRB Secunderabad Technical-III (Electrical), 11.12.2005
Electric current – Ampere Ans. (c) : Kilowatt hour is a unit of electrical energy.
29. Generally, the capacity of a battery is
36. eV is the unit of -
expressed in -
(a) energy (b) Charge of electron
(a) Tesla (b) Kilowatt hour
(c) Potential difference (d) Power
(c) Ampere (d) Ampere hour RRB Kolkata Technical-III, 20.08.2006
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans. (a) : eV is a unit of energy.
Ans : (d) An ampere hour is a unit in which capacity of 1 eV= 1.602×10-19 Joule
battery can be expressed.
37. Which of the following is a vector quantity-
1 Ampere – hour is equal to 3600 coulombs. It is a
(a) momentum (b) pressure
useful metric to determine the capacity of an energy
storage device, such as a rechargeable battery or deep (c) energy (d) work
cycle battery. RRB Patna Technical Eng., 27.07.2008
30. What is the S.I. unit of transferred heat energy? Ans. (a) : Momentum is a vector quantity.
(a) Kelvin (b) Ampere 38. ‘Parsec’ is the unit measurement of
(c) Kilowatt (d) Joule (a) Density of stars
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III (b) Astronomical distance
Ans : (d) Physical quantity SI unit (c) Brightness of heavenly bodies
Temperature Kelvin (K) (d) Orbital velocity of giant stars
Electric current Ampere (A) RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Civil), 26.02.2012
Power Killowatt (kW) Ans. (b) : Parsec is the unit of astronomical distance.
Heat energy Joule. 1 astronomical = 9.46 × 1015 meter
31. Which of the following is a unit of momentum? 39. One atmospheric pressure is equal to..........bar:
(a) Nm (b) kg m s–1 (a) 1.01325 (b) 10.3
(c) kg m s–2 (d) kg m–2 (c) 760 (d) 101.325
RRB JE Bhopal Paper-I (Shift-II), 28.08.2015 DMRC JE Mech. 18.02.2017
Ans. (b) : Physical quantity Unit Ans : (a) 1 atm pressure = 1.01325 bar
Work done N-m = 10.3 meter (height of water)
Linear momentum Kg-ms-1 = 760 mm (height of mercury)
Force Kg-ms-2 = 101. 325 (kilo pascal)
32. SI unit of force is- 40. The specific gravity of liquids is usually
-
(a) kg-ms–2 (b) kg-ms 1 measured by means of a:
2 -2 3 –1 (a) Hygrometer (b) Thermometer
(c) kg-m s (d) kg-m s
RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012 (c) Piezometer (d) Hydrometer
Ans. (a) : Force = mass × acceleration DMRC JE Mech. 07.09.2014
Force = kg × m - s -2 Ans : (d) The specific gravity of liquids usually
SI Unit of force is equal to kg – m-s -2 measured by means of hydrometer.
Hygrometer – To measure amount of humidity
33. C.G.S. unit of force is-
(a) Newton (b) kg Piezometer – To measure underground water
(c) Dyne (d) None of these pressure
DMRC Junior Engineer (Electronics), 03.08.2014 Thermometer – To measure temperature of matter

General Physics 290 YCT

41. What does the voltmeter measure? 48. The value of 1 A° is.
- -
(a) Strength of current (a) 10 10 Micron (b) 10 6 Micron
-4 -
(b) Potential difference between two points (c) 10 Micron (d) 10 2 Micron
(c) Resistance RRB Bangalore Technical (Engineering), 22.04.2007
(d) Energy consumed Ans. (c) : 1 A° = 10-10
RRB Ajmer (Technical), 25.01.1998 = 10-10 × 106 micron
Ans. (b):Voltmeter is used to measure electric potential = 10-4 micron
difference between two point in an electric circuit. 49. The length of one division of the vernier scale is
equal to the length of one division of the main
42. A barometer is used to measure :
scale
(a) Very low pressure (a) less than (b) greater than
(b) Very High pressure (c) equal (d) (a) and (b)
(c) Pressure difference between two points RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Chandigarh)-2003
(d) Atmospheric pressure Ans. (a) : The length of one division of the vernier
RRB JE Bhopal Paper-I (Shift-II), 28.08.2015 scale is slightly less than the length of one division of
Ans. (d) : A barometer is used to measure atmospheric the main scale.
pressure. 50. If the observed measurement of an object is
43. Which one of the following instruments will be 2.85 cm. When object is measured with vernier
used for measuring electric current? calipers having a positive error of 0.05 cm then
(a) Voltmeter (b) Ammeter actual measurement of the object will be
(a) 2.90 cm (b) [2.85 + (0.05/2)] cm
(c) Ohmmeter (d) Wavemeter
(c) 2.80 cm (d) None of these
RRB Bilaspur JE (red) , 14.12.2014 RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Gorakhpur)-2003
Ans. (b) : Ammeter is used to measure electric current. Ans. (c): Actual measurement of the object = observed
44. The order of magnitude of 0.00542 is – value + error value
(a) 10–5 (b) 10–4 Note:- decrease on positive value and increase on
(c) 10 –3
(d) 10–2 negative value
Actual value = 2.85-0.05 = 2.80
RRB Ajmer (Technical), 01.03.1998
51. The top scale of screw gauge is marked with 50
Ans. (d) : If given no is greater than 3.16 then given no division, if the pitch of the screw is 1 mm then
is multiplied by 101 i,e the least count of the screw gauge.
5.42 > 3.16 (a) 0.50 mm (b) 0.002 mm
⇒ 5.42 × 10-3 × 101 (c) 0.02 mm (d) 0.05 mm
⇒ 5.42 × 10-2 RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Mumbai)-2005
Order of magnitude is 10-2 Pitch 1
If given no is less than 3.16 then the given value is Ans. (c) : Least count = =
no.of divisions 50
unchanged.
L. C = 0.02 mm
45. The order of magnitude of 1.6 × 106 is-
52. The no of significant figure in 0.00237×105is.
(a) 107 (b) 108 (c) 100 (d) 106 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
RRB Trivandrum (Technical), 11.04.1999 RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Ranchi)-2005
Ans. (d) : The order of magnitude of 1.6 × 106 is 106. Ans. (c) : Standard from = 2.37 × 102
46. In one measurement, the diameter is 1.308 cm, Significant no =3
the significant no is. Order of magnitude = 102
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 0 53. 1 micron is equal to
RRB Trivandrum (Technical), 29.06.1999 (a) 1/10 mm (b) 1/100 mm
Ans. (b) : The significant no of 1.308 is 4. (c) 1/1000 mm (d) 1/10000 mm
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Kolkata)-2006
47. What is the order of magnitude of time taken
by the earth to revolve around the sun. Ans. (c) : 1 micron = 10-6 m = 10-3 mm
(a) 105 second (b) 107 second 1
9 = mm
(c) 10 second (d) None of the above 1000
RRB Kolkata (Technical), 29.08.1999 54. One nanometer is
Ans. (b) : The time taken by the earth to revolve the sun is- (a) 10–6 cm (b) 10–7 cm
–8
= 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 (c) 10 cm (d) 10–9 cm
= 3.1536 × 107 second RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Kolkata)-2006
= 107 second Ans. (b) : 1 nanometer = 1.0 × 10-9 m = 10-7 cm
General Physics 291 YCT
4.2 Mass, Weight & Density ■ Weight:
■ Mass: The weight of an object is defined as the force of
gravity on the object and may be calculated as the
The mass (m) of a body of matter is quantitative
mass times the acceleration of gravity, w = mg.
measure of its inertia i.e., its resistance to a change in
Since the weight is a force, its SI unit is the Newton.
the state of rest or motion of the body, when a force
For an object in free fall, so that gravity is the only
is applied.
force acting on it,Then the expression for weight
The mass of a body is the amount of substance in the follows from Newton's second law.
body.
W=F=M×g
SI unit of mass is the kilogram (kg).
Where W = weight
It is a scalar quantity.
M= mass
The greater the mass of a body, the smaller the rate of
F = net external force
change in motion.
g = acceleration due to gravity

■ Difference between Mass and Weight

Mass Weight
Definition The amount of substance in a The gravitational pull acting on a body
body
Dependent on No Yes
location The mass is same on the Moon The weight is different on the Moon from Earth
as on Earth
Measured using A beam balance A spring balance
Unit Kilogram Newton
Force - Or
• A push or pull that one object exerts on another. = 1kg m/s2
• One dyne is that much force which produces an 1N = 1000 gm × 100 cm/s2
2
acceleration of 1cm/s in a mass of 1 gm. 1N = 105 dyne.
2 -2
1 dyne = 1gm × 1cm/s = 1 gm.cms • There are four fundamental forces in nature-
One Newton is that much force which produces an 1. Gravitational force
acceleration of 1m/s2 in a mass of 1 kg. 2. Electromagnetic force
Using
3. Strong nuclear force
F = ma
4. Weak force
1N = 1kg × 1m/s2
Interaction Particle Range Relative Characteris Particle Role in universe
affected Strength -tics time exchange
Strong Nuclear Quarks ∼10–15 m 1 10–23 sec Gluons Holds quark together
force to form nucleon.
Hold nucleons
Hadrons Mesons together to form
atomic nuclei.
Electromagnetic Charged ∞ 10–2 10–20 sec Photons Determine structure
particles of atoms, solids and
liquid is important
factor in astronomical
universe.
–13
Weak nuclear Quark & ∼10–16 m 10 10–10 sec Intermediate Mediate
force Leptons boson transformations of
quarks & leptons
helps determine
composition of
atomic nuclei
Gravitational All ∞ 10–39 10–16 sec Gravitons → Assemble matter into
Not experim- planet, stars and
entally galaxies
detected

General Physics 292 YCT

Types of forces on macroscopic objects – FL
(a) Field Force or Range Forces - µS = tan λ =
R
• These are the forces in which contact between two
objects is not necessary.
Ex. (i) Gravitational force between two bodies.
(ii) Electrostatic force between two charges.
(b) Contact force -
• Contact forces exist only as long as the objects are ■ Law of friction- There are four laws of friction.
touching each other. 1. When two bodies are in contact, then the friction
(i) Normal force force (F) is directly proportion to normal reaction
(ii) Frictional force. (normal force) R between them i.e. F ∝ R .
(c) Attachment to another body - 2. The direction of friction force is always opposite
• Tension (T) in a string and spring force (F = kx) to the direction of motion of one body over the other.
comes in this group. 3. The friction force does not depend upon the area
■ Friction- If there is relative motion or tendency of of contact unless the normal reaction remains same.
relative motion between two bodies an opposing
4. The friction force depends on material and nature
force parallel to surface comes into play preventing
the relative motion. This is called friction. of two surfaces in contact.
■ The frictional force on each body is in a direction Newton's Law of Motion –
opposite to its motion relative to the other body i.e (i) First law (Galileo's law of inertia)
frictional always oppose the relative motion. (ii) Second law (Law of force)
■ Classification of friction- (iii) Third law (Law of action and reaction)
1. Static friction- The force of friction that comes into
play between the surface of two bodies before the (i) Newton's First law (Galileo's law of inertia)
body actually starts moving is called static friction. • If Fexternal = 0 and V = 0 i.e body is in rest then it
As long as there is no relative motion net force is always in rest.
direction of expected motion is zero, so the object
Ex. A person who is standing freely in bus is thrown
remains in equilibrium, the maximum value of static
frictional force is called limiting, frictional force. backward when the bus starts suddenly.
2. Kinetic friction- the force of friction between two (ii) Newton's Second law (Law of force) -
surfaces when one surface is motion over the other • The rate of change of linear momentum w.r.t. time
surface is called kinetic friction. Force of kinetic is equal to applied force and change in momentum
friction is slightly less than force of limiting friction. takes place in the direction of applied force.
Kinetic friction does not depend upon relative ∆P
velocity. F=
■ Kinetic friction is of two types ∆t
(a) Sliding friction (b) Rolling friction If P = f(t) then,
■ Co-efficient of friction- dP
■ co-efficient of static friction. F=
dt
F
µS = L ∆P Pf − Pi mv − mu ∆v
R • If = = =m = ma
∆t ∆t ∆t ∆t
Where, F = Limiting force of friction
R = Normal relation • F = ma
µS = Co-efficient of static friction • Unit - 1 Kg-m/s2 = 1 Newton (In M.K.S.)
■ Coefficient of kinetic friction, 1 Newton = 105 Dyne ( In C.G.S.)
F
µK = K • For Horizontal motion -
R F = ma
■ µS can be greater than µK as well.
Where, m = Inertial mass
■ Force of friction does not depend upon shape, size or
area of contact, as long as the normal reaction • For vertical motion -
remains the same. It is so, because force of friction is W = mg
given by Where, m = Gravitational mass.
F = µR Concept -
Where µ = a constant. The force (F) acting on a moving
■ Angle of friction (λ)- The angle which is resultant of object is the product of the mass (m) and
normal reaction and limiting friction makes with acceleration (a)
direction of normal reaction is called angle of
friction. F = ma

General Physics 293 YCT

 (c) If variable force is acting on the body i.e
F = f(t)
(i) F = ma

(ii) F1 – F2 = ma

(iii) F1 cos θ– F2 = ma
Concept -
Momentum (P) -
• It is the product of the mass and velocity of a body (i) ∆p mv – mu
F= =
i.e ∆t ∆t
P = mv 2mu
(ii) F=
• Change in linear momentum (∆P) - ∆t
u

∆P = P f – P i ∆p 2mu cos θ
(iii) F= =
Where, Pf = Final momentum, Pi = Initial momentum. ∆t ∆t
∆P = mv – mu
∆P = m(v – u) Newton's Third Law (Law of action and reaction)
∆P = m (v – u) • According to this law, for every action there is always
equal and opposite reaction i.e the forces of action
• S.I. unit is Kg-m-s or N-sec
-1
and reaction are always equal and opposite.
• Dimension of linear momentum = [MLT–1]. Example -
Impulse - • When you walk you interact with the floor, you push
• If a force is applied on the body for very small time against the floor and the floor pushes against you.
interval then- The pair of forces occurs at the same time.
I = F ∆t • Likewise, the tires of car push against the road while
the road pushes back on the tires the tires and the road
∆P simultaneously push against each car.
I= × ∆t
∆t NOTE :-Normal force will be perpendicular to the
surface of contact.
I = ∆P Impulse = changing in momentum.
Representing normal reactions and weight in free
Area bounded by F - T Graph - body diagram -
(a) If constant force acting on the body-

(i) Smooth

Area = length × breadth

= F × ∆t
(b) If direction of force on the body is reversed. (ii)
I = ∆P = |A1| – |A2|

(iii)

General Physics 294 YCT

 Tension- Inertial observer –
• Tension force always pulls a body. •Rest
• Tension can never push a body. •Moving with constant velocity
•a = 0
• Tension across massless pulley or frictionless pulley
•Non-acceleration
remains constant.
•Newton's law is valid for it.
• Ropes become slack when tension force becomes
Non-inertial observer –
zero.
•Accelerated observer or retarded observer
Representation of Tension force in different
•a ≠ 0
situations -
•Newton's law is not valid.
Case-1 Two blocks of masses mA and mB are
arranged in the diagram as shown. The free body •Newton's law is valid when Pseudo force is
applying.
diagram of -
•FPseudo = Mass of observer body× Acceleration of
1. Block mA 2. Block mB
observer
3. Pulley 1 4. Pulley 2
FPseudo = ma
Apparent Weight and Weight -
•Apparent Weight is a measure of upward force
whereas weight is a measure of downward force.
•If whole system is in rest, then-
R = mg
•If acceleration increases or decreases then-
R > mg or R < mg
R = m(g ± a)
Where, R = apparent weight
= observed weight
= reading of spring balance
Case -2 Three blocks of masses mA, mB and mC are Different cases for lift Motion –
arranged in the diagram as shown. The free body (i) When lift is in rest, then-
diagram of -
1. Block mA 2. Block mB
3. Block mC 4. Pulley

R = mg
The weighing machine will read the actual weight.
(ii) If lift upward with some acceleration (a > g)

Frame of Reference -A frame in which an

observer is situated and makes his observations is
known as "Frame of reference."
• Inertial frame of reference - A frame of reference
which is at rest or which is moving with a uniform The weighing machine will read the apparent
weight which is more than the actual weight.
velocity along a straight line is called an inertial
(iii) If lift moves downward with some acceleration (a <
frame of reference.
g)
Ex. Car moving with constant velocity on a straight
road.
• Non-Inertial frame of reference - Accelerated
frame of references are called non-inertial frame of
reference.
Ex. Car moving in uniform circular motion.

General Physics 295 YCT

 The weighing machine will read the apparent (1) Its acceleration down the plane is g sin θ
weight, which is less than actual weight. (2) It velocity at the bottom of the inclined plane will
(iv) When lift is falling freely under gravity (g = a),
then be 2gh = 2glsin θ
R = m(g – g) (3) Time taken to reach the bottom will be –
R=0 2ℓ 1 2h
The apparent weight of body becomes zero. t= =
g sin θ sin θ g
2
(v) If lift is accelerating downward with acceleration
greater than g, then body will be lifted from floor to (4) If the angle of inclination is changed keeping the
ceiling of the lift. height constant then–
Key Points- t1 sin θ1
=
(i) Inertia of direction - It is the inability of body to t 2 sin θ2
change by itself the direction of motion.
(xvi) Action and reaction forces never act on the same
Ex. The rotating wheel of any vehicle throw out mud.
body they act on different bodies. If they act on the
(ii) The equilibrium of a particle in mechanics refers to
the situation when the net external force acting on same body, the resultant force on the body will be
the particle is zero. zero i.e., the body will be in equilibrium.
(iii) Lami's Theorem- When three coplanar & • Action and reaction forces act along the line joining
concurrent forces acting at a point are in the centres of two bodies.
equilibrium, then each force is proportional to the • Newton's third law is applicable whether the bodies
sine of the angle between the other two forces. are at rest or in motion.
Gravitation - It is the force of attraction between
any bodies.
■ Newton's Law of Gravitation-

P Q R
= =
sin α sin β sin γ
(iv) The force on a body due to acceleration of non-
inertial frame is called fictitious or apparent or
pseudo force. • Force of attraction between two masses m1 and m2
(v) Aeroplane always fly at low altitudes because separated by a distance r -
according to Newton's IIIrd law of motion as Gm1m 2
aeroplane displaces air & at low altitudes density of F=
r2
air is high.
Where, G = Universal gravitational constant
(vi) Rocket move by pushing the exhaust gases out so
G = 6.67×10–11 Nm2 kg–2
they can fly at low or high altitude.
F12 = –F21
(vii) A man in a closed cabin (lift) falling freely does not
experiences gravity as inertial and gravitational ■ Kepler's Law's of Planetary Motion –
mass have equivalence.
(i) Laws of orbit -
(viii) Inertia is proportional to mass of the body.
(ix) If a number of force F1 , F2 , F3 ......... act on the body
then it is in equilibrium when F1 + F2 + F3 ....... = 0
(x) A body in equilibrium cannot change the direction of Perigee
motion.
(xi) If a body moves along a curved path, then it is
certainly acted upon by a force • Every planet revolves around the earth in an
(xii) A single isolated force cannot exist. elliptical orbit and sun is at its focus.
(xiii) Newton's second law of motion give the measure of (ii) Law of area -
force i.e., (f = ma), force is a vector quantity. • The radius vector drawn from the sun to a planet
(xiv) Absolute units of force are dyne in C.G.S. system sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time i.e
and Newton (N) in SI. that areal velocity of the planet around the sun is
(xv) A body starting from rest moves along a smooth constant.
inclined plane of length ℓ, height h and having dA L
Areal velocity of planet = = constant
angle of inclination θ. dt 2m
General Physics 296 YCT
 ■ Acceleration due to gravity –
The uniform acceleration produced in a freely falling
object due to the gravitational pull of the earth.
GM 4
g= = ( πρGR )
R2 3
Where, L = angular momentum • for same material on two planet -
m = mass of the planet g∝R
(iii) Laws of period - g1 R1
• The square of the time period of revolution of a =
g2 R 2
planet around the sun is directly proportional to the
cube of semi-major axis of its elliptical orbit. Where, ρ = density of earth, M = mass of earth and
2 3 R = radius of earth
T  a 
T2 ∝ a3 or  1  =  1 
 T2   a 2 
Acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface –

GM e
Ge = = 9.8 m/sec 2
R e2

Where, Me = 6×1024 kg
Re = 6.4 ×106 m or 6400 km
Acceleration due to gravity at moon surface –
GM m
g moon =
R 2m
g earth
g moon =
6
Where, Mm = 7.34×1022 kg
Rm = 1.74 ×106 m or 1737.4 km
■ Variation of gravity -
(i) Due to top shape of earth-
GM e
g=
R e2
1
g∝
R 2e
Requator > Rpolar
gequator < gpolar
Requator – Rpolar = 21 km
(ii) Due to height from earth surface -
g
gh = 2
 h 
 1+ 
 Re 
• The value of 'g' decrease with height. It varies inversely as the square of the distance from the center of the
earth.
h
g
If h = Re , g' =
4
If h → ∞, g' = 0
2hg
Decrease in the value of g with height is g' - g h =
Re
g' – g h 2h
Fractional decrease in the value of g = =
g Re

General Physics 297 YCT

(iii) Due to depth from earth surface -
 h 
g' = g  1 – 
 Re 
If h = Re, g'centre = 0
gh
Decrease in the value of 'g' with depth is ∆g = g – g' =
Re
∆g g – g' h
Fractional decrease in the value of 'g' with depth is = =
g g Re
∆g h
Percentage error in g is = ×100 = ×100
g Re
(iv) Rotation of earth about its own axis-
If ω is the angular velocity of rotation of earth about its own axis then acceleration due to gravity at a place
having latitude λ is given by - g' = g – R ω2cos2λ
♦ At poles λ = 90º and g' = g. Therefore, there is
no effect of rotation of earth about its own axis
at poles.
♦ At equator λ = 0º and g' = g – R ω2. Therefore
value of g is minimum at equator.
♦ If earth stops its rotation about its own axis,
then g will remain unchanged at poles but
increase by R ω2 at equator.

■ Gravitational field –
• The space around a body in which its gravitational pull works, is called gravitational field.
• The gravitational force acting per unit mass at any point in gravitational field is called intensity of gravitational
field at that point.
• It is denoted by E.
F
E=
m
GMm
F=
r2
GM
E = – 2 er
r
Where, er is the unit vector along r
– ve sign shows force of attraction
• Intensity is zero at infinite distance from the body.
Gravitational field intensity for different bodies -
(1) Intensity due to point mass -
GM
E = – 2 er
r

Where, er is the unit vector along r

If r = 0, E = ∞
If r = ∞, E = 0

General Physics 298 YCT

Concept
• Gravitational field intensity always towards the mass (M) of the body.

(2) Intensity due to uniform solid sphere –

♦ Outside the Surface , r > R
GM
E=–
r2
♦ On the Surface, r = R
GM
E=–
R2
♦ Inside the Surface, r < R
GMr
E=–
R3
(3) Intensity due to Spherical shell -
♦ Outside the surface , r > R
GM
E=–
r2
♦ On the surface, r = R
GM
E=–
R2
♦ Inside the surface, r < R
E=0
(4) Intensity due to uniform circular ring-
♦ At a point on its axis
GMr
E= 3
(a + r 2 )
2 2

♦ At the centre of ring, E = 0

■ Gravitational Potential (V) -

• It is amount of work done in bringing a unit mass m0 from infinity to a point in the gravitational field without
acceleration.
r GM
V=∫ dr
+∞ r2

GM W
V=– =
r r
• If r = R (Surface of earth)
– GM
V=
R
• If r = ∞, V = 0 means 'V' is maximum at infinity.
• Its S.I. units is J/Kg.
• It is a scalar quantity.
• Since, work W is obtained i.e. it is negative, the gravitational potential is always negative.

General Physics 299 YCT

■ Gravitational Potential Energy (U) -
• It is amount of work done in bringing a massive body from infinity to a point in the gravitational field without
acceleration.
GMm
U=–
r
• Negative sign shown attractive force.
• When r = ∞, U = 0 (Maximum gravitational P.E.)
• Change in P,E. of a body, when it moves from distance r1 to distance r2
r2 GMm
∆U = ∫ dr
rl r2
1 1 
∆U = GMm  – 
 r1 r2 
• Gravitational potential energy at height 'h' from surface of earth
GMm mgR
Uh = – =
R +h h
1+
R
• P.E. of the body decreases when it brought close to the earth.
• Change in P.E. of a body, which is at a height 'h' above the surface of
the earth.
∆U = mgh

Gravitational Potential Energy of a two particle system-

Gm1m 2 r
U= – •− − − − − − −•
r m1 m2
Gravitational Potential Energy for a System of more than two particles- (say m1, m2, m3 & m4)
m m m m m m mm mm m m 
U = – G 4 3 + 4 2 + 4 1 + 3 2 + 3 1 + 2 1
 r43 r42 r41 r32 r31 r21 
n ( n – 1)
∴for n particle system there are pairs
2
■ Gravitational Potential for different bodies -
(i) Potential due to a point mass -
GM 0 r
V=– •− − − − − − −• P
r M
(ii) Potential due to uniform ring –
♦ At a point on its axis
GM
V=–
a 2 + r2

♦ GM
At the centre of ring, V = –
a
(iii) Potential due to spherical shell -
♦ Outside the Surface , r > R
GM
V=–
r
♦ On the Surface, r = R
GM
V=–
R
♦ Inside the Surface, r < R
GM
V=–
r

General Physics 300 YCT

(iv) Potential due to uniform solid sphere -
♦ Outside the Surface , r > R
GM
V=–
r
♦ On the Surface, r = R
GM
Vsurface = –
R
♦ Inside the Surface,
GM   r  
2

V=– 3 – 
2R   R  
–3 GM
Vcentre =
2 R
■ Relation between Gravitational Field and Potential –
dV = – E .dr
Where, E = E ˆi + E ˆj + E kˆ
x y z

dr = dxiˆ + dyjˆ + dzkˆ

dV = – E x dx – E y dy – E z dz
–δv –δv –δv
Ex = , Ey = , Ez = ,
δx δy δz
■ Orbital Velocity -
• Orbital velocity of satellite is the minimum velocity required to put the satellite into a given orbit around earth.
GM g
Vo = =R
r R+h
Where, M = mass of the planet
R = radius of the planet
h = height of the satellite from planets surface.
• If satellite revolving near the earth's surface then r = (R + h) ≈ 7.92 Km/s.
• If V is the speed of satellite in its orbit and Vo is the required orbital velocity.
(i) If V < Vo, then satellite will move on a parabolic path and satellite will fall back to earth.
(ii) If V = Vo, the satellite will revolve in circular path/orbit around earth.
(iii) If Vo < V <Ve, then satellite will remove around earth in elliptical orbit.
■ Escape Velocity -
• Escape velocity of earth is the minimum velocity with which a body has to be projected vertically upwards
from the earth surface, so that it just crosses the earth's gravitational field and never returns.
Case-1
• Escape velocity does not depend upon the mass, shape and size of the body as well as direction of
projection of body.
2GM
Ve = = 2gR
R
Ve ∝ mº
Case-2 Escape velocity in terms of density of that planet -
M
ρ=
V
8
Ve = R πGρ
3
Case- 3 – Condition for black hole of any planet –
2 GM
Escape velocity of the planet = ≥ light velocity (3×108)
R

General Physics 301 YCT

Case-4
• If projection velocity (Vp) of a body from earth-surface is more than escape velocity (Ve) then to determine
the velocity of that body in space -
Vs = Vp2 – Ve2
Some important escape velocity –
Heavenly body Escape Velocity
Moon 2.3 Km/sec
Mercury 4.28 Km/sec
Earth 11.2 Km/sec
Jupiter 60 Km/sec
Sun 618 Km/sec
Neutron star 2×105 Km/sec
Relation between escape velocity and orbital velocity–
Ve = 2Vo
■ Motion of Satellite –
GM
• Orbital velocity Vo =
r
2π
• Time period T = r 3/2
GM
GMm
• Kinetic energy K =
2r
GMm
• Potential energy U = –
r
GMm
• Total mechanical energy E = –
2r
• Near the surface of earth,
GM V
r ≈ R and Vo = = Rg = e = 7.9Kms –1
R 2
This is the maximum speed of any earth's satellite.
• Time period of such satellite would be
2π 3
2
R
T= R = 2π
= 84.6 min
GM g
This is the minimum time period of any earth's satellite.
GMm
• Binding energy B.E = +
2r
• Angular momentum of satellite, L = m 2 GMr
• Effective weight in a satellite, W = 0 and satellite behaves like a free fall body.
■ Geostationary or Parking Satellites –
• A satellite which appears to be at a fixed position at a definite height to an observer on earth is called
geostationary or parking satellite. They rotate from west to east.
Height from earth's surface = 36000 Km
Time period = 24 hour
Orbital velocity = 3 Km/sec
2π π
Angular velocity = = rad/min
24 12

• These satellite are used in communication purpose.

• INSAT 2B and INSAT 2C are geostationary satellite of India.
■ Polar Satellites –
• These are satellites which revolve in the polar orbits around earth.
General Physics 302 YCT
 • Height form earth's surface ≈ 880 km
Time period ≈ 90 min
Orbital velocity ≈ 8 km/sec
2π π
Angular velocity ≈ = rad/min
90 45

• These satellite revolve around the earth in polar orbits.

• These satellites are used in forecasting weather studying the upper region of the atmosphere in mapping etc.
• PSLV series satellites are polar satellites of India.
■ Key Points -
(i) At the centre of earth, a body has centre of mass, but no centre of gravity.
(ii) The centre of mass and centre of gravity of body coincide if gravitational field is uniform.
(iii) We does not experience gravitational force in daily life due to objects of same size as value of G is very
small.
(iv) Moon travellers tie heavy weight at there back before landing on moon due to smaller value of g at moon.
(v) Space rockets are usually launched in equatorial line from west to east because g is minimum at equator
and earth rotates from west to east about its axis.
(vi) Angular momentum is gravitational field is conserved because gravitational force is central force.
(vii) Kepler's second law or constancy of areal velocity is a consequence of conservation of angular momentum.
(viii) The energy required by satellite to leave its orbit around the earth (planet) and escape to infinity is called
binding energy of satellite.
■ Density -
• The density of any material is defined as its mass per unit volume. If a body of mass M occupies volume V,
then its density is.-
M
ρ=
V
• Density is positive scalar quantity.
• As liquids are incompressible, their density remains constant at all pressures.
• Density of a gas varies largely with pressure.
Example- water = 1.0×103 kg-m–3 , Mercury = 13.6×103 kg-m–3 , Air = 1.29 kg-m–3
■ Relative density/ Specific Gravity-
• Relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of water at 4 °C
Density of sustance
R.D =
Density of water at 4°C
• Water has highest density at 4°C = 1g / cm3 =103kg/m3
• Relative density is a unit less quantity.
Example -
13.6 × 103 kg / m 3
( R.D )Hg = = 13.6
103 kg / m 3
■ Density of a mixture of two or more liquids-
Case I - In the proportion of Mass -
M1 + M 2 + M3 + ......
The density of mixture is ρ =
M1 M 2 M3
+ + + ......
ρ1 ρ2 ρ3
Case (II) - In the proportion of volume-
ρ V + ρ2 V2 + ρ3 V3 +
The density of the mixture is (ρ) = 1 1 ..........
V1 + V2 + V3 +

General Physics 303 YCT

■ Pressure - The amount of force exerted (thrust) on a surface per unit area is called pressure.
Thrust F⊥
Pressure = =
Area A
• Pressure is a scalar quantity.
• Unit of pressure -
- In S.I. unit = Nm–2 = Pascal = Pa
- 1atm = 1.01×105 Pa ≈ 1 bar ≈ 760 mm of Hg ≈ 760 torr
- 1 torr = 133.32 Pa
- In gravitational unit = Kgfm–2
1 Kgfm–2 = 105 Pa
■ Pressure in fluids-
When an object is submerged in a fluid at rest, the fluid exerts a force on its surface . This force is always normal
to the object's surface.
Force⊥
Pressure =
Area

■ Pressure Exerted by Liquid Column-

The pressure exerted by a liquid column at rest is proportional to
(i) Height of liquid column
(ii) Density of the liquid
P = hρg

■ Absolute Gauge, Atmospheric and vacuum pressures-

(i) Absolute pressure -
• It is the zero reference to a perfect vacuum which exist in the air free space of the universe.
• It is the sum of gauge pressure and atmospheric pressure.
P = P0 + ρgh
Where, Pgauge = ρgh
(ii) Gauge pressure -
• It is the pressure, zero referenced against ambient pressure
• It is also called overpressure. Gauge pressure is + ve for pressure above the atmosphere and negative for
a pressure below it.
Pgauge = P – P0
(iii) Atmospheric Pressure-
• It is the pressure exerted by the weight of the atmosphere.
• The standard value of air pressure at sea level is 14.696 pounds per square inch at 59 degree Fahrenheit heat
• In imperial unit and metric units - it is 1013.25 milibar at 15 deg C
(iv) Vacuum Pressure -
It is the pressure below atmospheric pressure measured by vacuum gauges. It indicates the difference between
atmospheric pressure and absolute pressure .
General Physics 304 YCT
 Pvac = P0 – P
Pvac= – Pgauge

■ Effect of gravity on Fluid Pressure-

PB = PA + ρgh
Where, h = vertical height.
• The liquid pressure is the same at all points at the same horizontal level or same depth.
• Pressure at any point inside the fluid depends on the depth h.
• Pressure does not depend on the cross- section or base area or the shape of the vessel.
■ Pascal's law -
• This law tell us how pressure can be transmitted in a fluid.
• The pressure exerted at any point on an enclosed liquid is transmitted equally in all direction.
• The pressure in a fluid at rest is same at all points if we ignore gravity.
Application of Pascal's law-
(i) Hydraulic lift-
• Hydraulic lift is an application of Pascal's law.
• It is used to lift heavy objects.
• It is a force multiplier.
• According to Pascal's law , the same pressure P
is also transmitted to the larger piston of
cross- sectional area A.
• Force on larger piston is-
f A
F = P×A = A = × f
a a
As A > a , therefore , F > f
(ii) Hydraulic brakes-
The hydraulic brakes used in automobiles are based on Pascal's law of transmission of pressure in a
liquid.
• The working of hydraulic lift and hydraulic brakes are based on Pascal's law.
■ Hydrostatic Paradox-
The liquid pressure at a point is independent of the quantity of liquid but depends on the depth of point below
the liquid surface this is known as hydrostatic paradox.
Important Point related to fluid pressure-
(i) The pressure exerted at any point on an enclosed liquid is transmitted equally in all direction.
(ii) Pressure will be same at all point at the same level in a liquid.
(iii) The pressure exerted by a liquid depends only on the height of fluid column and is independent of the shape of
the containing vessels.

General Physics 305 YCT

 If hA = hB = hC, then pA = pB = pC
(iv) Pressure at a point inside the liquid increases with the increase in the density of liquid.
■ Buoyancy-
The upthrust force experienced by a body when partly or wholly immersed in a fluid is called upthrust or
buoyant force .The phenomena responsible for this force is called buoyancy
■ Archimedes Principle -
• Archimedes Principle states that when a body is partially or wholly immersed in a fluid, it experiences an
upward thrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it and its upthrust acts through the center of gravity
of the displaced fluid.
Upthrust or buoyant force = weight of liquid displaced.
• Apparent weight of immersed body -
Apparent weight = Actual weight – Buoyant force
 ρ
Wapp = W 1 − 
 σ
Where , W = V σg = weight of the body, σ = density of the body, ρ = density of liquid
V = volume of liquid displaced.
■ Law of floatation-
A body will float in a liquid, if the weight of the body is equal to or less than weight of the liquid displaced by
the immersed part of the body.

If W is the weight of the body and ω is the buoyant force, then -

(a) If W > ω ⇒ V σ g > Vρg or σ > ρ
Then a body sinks in a liquid.
(b) If W = ω ⇒ V σ g = Vρg or σ = ρ
then the body will be float fully immersed in the liquid.
(c) If W < ω
then the body will float partially submerged in the liquid.
• The floating body will be in stable equilibrium, if meta-centre (center of buoyancy ) lies vertically above the
center of gravity of body.
• The floating body will be in unstable equilibrium, if meta-center (centre of buoyancy) lies vertically below
the centre of gravity of the body.
• The floating body will be in neutral equilibrium if meta-centre coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.
• Fraction of volume of a floating body outside the liquid.
Vout  ρ 
= 1 − 
V  σ
where, ρ = density of body
σ = density of liquid
If two different bodies A and B are floating in the same liquid , then
ρA (Vin )A
=
ρB (Vin )B
If the same body is made to float in different liquids of densities σA and σB respectively then-
σA (Vin ) A
=
σ B (Vin ) B
■ Equation of continuity -
• Conservation of mass (m) ; Mass flow rate is constant.

General Physics 306 YCT

 • For compressible flow, ρ1A1V1 = ρ2A2V2 .
• For incompressible flow; Density ρ will be constant A1V1 = A2V2. (Q = AV is discharge)
■ Bernoulli's Equation -
Assumptions -
1. Fluid is ideal i.e. viscosity is zero.
2. Steady flow.
3. The flow is incompressible.
4. The flow is irrotational.
5. The flow is along the stream line.
Mathematically, equation in form of energy per unit volume
1
P + ρV 2 + ρgh = constant
2
Equation in form of head
P V2
+ + h = constant
ρg 2g
P
Where, = pressure head.
ρg
V2
= velocity head or K.E. head
2g
h = gravitational head.
Application of Bernoulli's Equation -
1. Venturimeter (To measure the rate of discharge or flow rate).
2. Orificemeter (To measure the rate of discharge or flow rate).
3. Pitot tube (To measure the fluid velocity).
Exam Pointer
■ Three liquids whose densities are d, 2d and 3d ■ The relative density of alcohol is - 0.8
respectively are mixed in equal volumes, then the ■ The instrument for measuring atmospheric pressure is
density of the mixture will be - 2d called - Barometer
■ When an object is completely or partially immersed ■ The instrument used to measure the humidity in the
in a liquid, its weight decreases. This loss of weight is atmosphere is called - Hygrometer
equal to the weight of fluid displaced by the object. ■ Beaufort scale is used to measure - Wind speed
This statement shows - Law of flotation ■ Eudiometer measures - Volume of gas
■ To find the relative density and specific gravity of ■ When ice floats on top of water, then the part of it
liquids and the relative density of solids. It is used that remains outside the water is - 0.1 part
- Hydrometer ■ In which sport players must have knowledge of
■ Two pieces of metal immersed in water exert equal Pascal's law - Scuba diving
buoyant force, then ■ A sudden fall in the reading of the barometer means
- Both pieces have the same volume - Storm
■ Form of hydrometer is - Lactometer ■ It is easier to swim in the sea than in the river
■ The ratio of mass and volume is - Density - The density of sea water is higher
■ The value of relative density of a substance in ■ The mass of the body at the center of the earth is
different measurement method is - Same - Zero
■ Part of unit volume of a substance is called - Density ■ Density of solid metals on heating - Decreases
■ The instrument used to obtain the specific gravity of a ■ In general, the density of a liquid on increasing the
substance is - Nicholson Hydrometer temperature - Decreases
■ The density of water in gram/cubic cm is ■ Which have higher density in the same amount of
- 1 gram/cubic cm viscous (thick) liquid and non-viscous liquids
■ The specific gravity of water at 50ºC will be - Viscous liquid
- Less than one ■ A piece of iron floats in mercury and sinks in water
■ The relative density of wood compared to that of because - Density of mercury is greater than
water is - Less the density of water
■ The ratio of the density of an object to the density of ■ When a solid object is completely immersed in a
water at 4ºC is called - Relative density liquid, it feels. The upward force of an abject depends
■ In CGS system, the unit of density is - gram/cm3 on
General Physics 307 YCT
 - Density of solid ■ Escape velocity from a planet of mass M and radius R
■ The theory which explains the buoyant force 2GM
experienced by a body while it is immersed in a will be -
liquid, was proposed by - Archimedes R
■ A bottle of soda lime is held by the neck and rapidly ■ Geotropism is
rotated in a vertical circle near which part of the - Response to gravity or the pull of the Earth
■ Who is the inventor of the laws of gravity - Newton
bottle will the bubbles collect - Near the neck
■ The value of escape velocity from the Earth's surface
■ The floating of clouds in the atmosphere is due to
is - 11.2 km/sec
- Low density of cloud ■ If the speed of rotation of the Earth increases, then
■ The performance of an air compressor at high altitude the weight of the object lying on its surface will
as compared to that at sea level will be - Lower - Decrease
■ When an air bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to ■ Which rule is followed by the use of hydraulic breaks
the upper surface, then its size will - Increase in automatic vesicles - Pascal's Law
■ If the mass of the Earth remains the same and radius ■ An object is moved from the equator towards the
decreases by 1% then, the value of 'g' at the surface of poles then its weight - Increases
the Earth is - Increase by 2% ■ 'Hydraulic brakes' and 'Hydraulic lift' are devices in
■ A polythene balloon is filled with hydrogen gas then which fluid are used for transmitting - Pressure
released from the surface of the Earth. As the balloon ■ Value of Gravitational constant (G)
rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere then size of -6.67×10-11 Nm2/kg2

G R
M 2
g
=
balloon will - Increase
■ What will remain unchanged when the quantity of the ■ Relation between g and G is –
object changes - Density ■ Value of gravitational constant at different places on
■ Ink starts leaking out of the pen while traveling in an the surface of the earth -Same
aeroplane due to - Lack of air pressure ■ Acceleration due to gravity is different at different
■ An iron nail sinks in water but it floats in mercury places on the surface of the earth and it is smaller at
due to - Density of iron is more than that of water the equator than at poles because
■ It is more difficult to walk on ice than on the road -g is inversely proportional to the radius.
because - Ice has a lesser friction than the road ■ When an object place at height h from the surface of
■ Why do the pendulum clocks go slow in summer earth then value of g is - Decreases
■ When an object placed at depth 'd' from the surface of
- Length of pendulum increases due to which the
earth then value of g is - Decreases
time period increases and pendulum takes more ■ Ratio between the escape velocity and orbital velocity

2
:
1
time to complete one oscillation.
is
■ The pressure inside the soap bubble is
- More than atmospheric ■ On the surface of the earth, weight (w) of the body in
comparison to the surface of the moon is
pressure
■ A boat will submerged when it displaces water equal w
approximately - W' =
to its own - Weight 6
■ An astronaut can Jump higher on the moon than on ■ According to the third law of Kepler's, the time
Earth because - Gravitational force on the moon period of revolution of a planet around the sun is
surface is very small as compared - T2 ∝ a3
to the Earth surface ■ An artificial satellite revolving around the earth does
■ The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy not fall down because of the attraction of the earth-
minimum volume is due to - surface tension Its curve generates acceleration
■ A piece of ice is floating on the surface of a mug for motion on the earth.
filled to the top with water. When the ice cube melts ■ If the earth losses its gravity, then for body
then water level is - remain unchanged - Weight becomes zero while
■ The amount of buoyancy obtained by a solid partially mass are not zero.
or fully immersed in a liquid depends on ■ Acceleration due to gravity, from the earth surface at
- The amount of liquid displaced by the solid. gR 2
height h is -
■ If the volume of a bubble rising from the bottom of a (R + h)2
lake increases, then the pressure exerted on that ■ At the centre of the earth, acceleration due to gravity
bubble will - Decreases is -Zero
■ According to Archimedes principle, when a body is ■ If two men talk on the surface of the moon, then
fully immersed in a liquid the apparent loss in the -Cannot hear each other voices because
weight of body is equal to there is no medium (i.e. air).
- Weight of liquid displaced by the body ■ A storm is predicted when the pressure of the
■ When a cubical snowflake disintegrates into 10 small atmosphere - Suddenly decreases.
cubes, then its surface area will - Decrease

General Physics 308 YCT

■ Eggs sink in normal water but floats in concentrated
solution of salt because
-The density of solution of salt is
greater than the density of egg.
■ When extracting butter from milk
- The density of milk decreases
■ Bernoulli theorem is based on the principle of
- Conservation of energy
■ Weightlessness describes the - Zero gravity
■ An iron needle sinks in water but a ship floats. It is
based on the principle of - Archimedes
■ Archimedes law is related - law of flotation
■ When an object is fully or partially immersed in a
liquid then its weight appears decreases and equal to
the weight appears decreases and equal to the weight
of the liquid displaced by that object. It is based on
the principle of -Archimedes Principle
■ The scientist related to buoyancy is - Archimedes
■ The amount of buoyancy obtained by a solid
partially or completely immersed in a liquid depends
on - Amount of liquid displaced by a solid
■ A piece of iron should not float on the surface of the
water is due to - The weight of the mass displaced
by it is less than iron ball.
■ Which country did the great scientist Archimedes
belong. -Greece
■ When a stone is brought from the surface of the moon
to the earth, then
- Its weight will change but mass not change.
■ A person sitting in a lift feel his weight more when
-lift moving upward with uniform velocity
■ The tennis ball lands higher on a hill than on the field
due to - Earth's Gravitational acceleration
on mountains gets less.
■ If the gravitational force of the earth suddenly
vanishes, then
- The weight of the object will become
zero, but the value remain the same.
■ What fraction of earth gravity is approximately the
moon's gravity -1/6
■ Steel bullet floats in mercury because
-The density of mercury
is higher than that of steel.
■ When a boat goes to sea from river then
- Rises slightly upward.
■ The density of water is maximum at - 4 0C
■ On changing the quantity of the object will remain
unchanged -Density
■ A swimmer find it easier to swim in seawater than in
normal water because
- Sea water has density than normal water
■ The wall below the dam is built thick because
-Pressure of liquid increases
with increases in depth.
■ The distance covered by a body free fall is
proportional to - Square of time of fall

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

1. A 10 N force is applied on a body which 125
produces in it an acceleration of 2 m/s2. The ∆t =
mass of the body is 250
(a) 5 kg (b) 10 kg ∆t = 0.5 sec
(c) 15 kg (d) 20 kg 3. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III air and the gravitational force between them is
Ans. (a) : Given, F = 10 Newton F. The space between the masses is now filled
Acceleration (a) = 2 m/s2 with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The
The mass of the body = ? gravitational force will now be
F=m×a (a) F/3 (b) F/9
10 = m × 2 (c) 3F (d) F
m = 5 kg RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I
2. If a force of 250 N acts on a body at rest, the Ans. (d) : Gravitational force is given by
momentum required is 125 kgm/s. The time for
GMM
which the force acts on the body is F=
(a) 0.5 s (b) 0.2 s R2
(c) 0.1 s (d) 0.3 s Clearly the Gravitational force is dependent only on
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III mass of objects and distances between them. It does not
Ans. (a) : Given that, depend on any medium between them. Hence, the force
F = 250 N will remain same i.e. F.
Change in momentum = Impulse (∆P) = 125 Κgm/s 4. If three particles, each of mass M are placed at
∆t = ? the three corners of an equilateral triangle of
∆P = F×∆t side a , the force exerted by this system on
∆P another particle of mass M placed at the
∆t = midpoint of a side is
F
(a) 4GM 2 / 2a 2 (b) 4GM 2 / 3a 2
2 2
(c) 2GM /3a (d) 2GM2/5a2
General Physics 309 YCT
 RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I 1
Ans. (b) : We know that, E= Kx 2
2
 GM1M 2  Where K is spring constant and x is compression/
F = R 2  expansion of spring
 
According to Question- 1
E = × K × x2
2
1
2 = × K × 16 ×10−4
2
4
K= = 2500 N / m
16 × 10−4
Now force required to extend it by 8 cm is
F = Kx = 2500×8×10-2 ⇒ F = 200N
7. Three blocks of masses m1 , m2 and m3 are
connected by mass less strings as shown in
The gravitational force at D due to A is figure on a frictionless table.
GMM
FAD =
AD 2
Now,
AC2 = AD2 + DC2 They are pulled with a force F = 40 N. If m1 =
2
10 kg, m2 = 6 kg and m3 = 4 kg then tensions T2
a
(a ) = ( AD ) +   will be
2 2

2 (a) 20 N (b) 40 N

a2 (c) 10 N (d) 32 N
a2 − = AD 2 RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I
4
Ans. (d) : Given,
3a 2 F = 40N
= AD 2
4 m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg, m3 = 4 kg
Then, We know that,
2 F = ma
4GM
FAD = Total mass of the system
3a 2 m = m1 + m2 + m3
5. The quantity of motion of a body is best = 10 + 6 + 4
represented by = 20 kg
(a) Its velocity Then,
(b) Its speed Total acceleration of the system
(c) Its mass 40 = 20× a ⇒ a = 2m / s 2
(d) Its linear momentum
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I Now,
Tension T2 will be,
Ans. (d) : ⇒ The quantity of motion of a body is best
T2 = (m1 + m2) a = (10+6) × 2
represented by 'its linear momentum'.
T2 = 16 × 2
P = m×V
⇒ T2 = 32N
Where,
P = Momentum 8. Which of the following force is conservative?
m = Mass (a) Frictional force (b) Air resistance
V = Velocity (c) Electrostatic force (d) Viscous force
6. A spring when compressed by 4 cm has 2 J RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I
energy stored in it. The force required to Ans. (c) : A conservative force is one for which the
extend it by 8 cm will be work done is independent of path.
(a) 2 N (b) 20 N For example - Gravity force, Electrostatic force.
(c) 2000 N (d) 200 N The electrostatic force is an attractive as well as
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I repulsive force caused by the electric charge particles. It
Ans. (d) : Energy stored in a spring is given by, is also known as Coulomb's force.

General Physics 310 YCT

9. A man weighs 'W' on the surface of earth and 11. Two wires, A and B, of same material and
his weight at a height '2R' from surface of length are stretched by applying the same load.
earth is (R is the Radius of earth). If the diameter of wire A is twice that of wire B,
w w then the ratio of the extensions produced in the
(a) (b) wires by applying the same load will be
9 6 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
w (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
(c) w (d)
3 RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II Ans. (c) : Given that,
GM Diameter of A = 2× diameter of B
Ans. (a) : g = [given h = 2R] Let diameter of B = d,
R2 So,
GM diameter of A = 2d
g' =
(R + h)
2
F.ℓ
Change in length (∆ℓ) =
GM GM GM g γ.A
g' = = = = Where, F = Force or load
( R + 2R ) ( 3R ) 9R 9
2 2 2

ℓ = original length
w = mg
w' = mg' γ= Young's modular
A = cross section area
mg
w' = From the questions,
9
The force, original length (ℓ) and young's modulus is
w same for both wire.
w'=
9 So,
10. A bullet of mass 0.05 kg is moving with a speed F.ℓ
Change in length of wire A, (∆ℓ)A =
of 90 m/s and hits a heavy wooden block. The γ.A
bullet enters the block and stops at a depth of F.ℓ
30 cm. Then the average force exerted by the (∆ℓ)B =
wooden block on the bullet to resist the motion γ.A'
π ( 2d )
2
is
(a) 675 N (b) 150 N Area of wire BA(A') =
4
(c) 250 N (d) 270 N 2
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III π d
Area of wire A(A) =
Ans. (a) : Given that, 4
Mass(m) = 0.05 kg Put the value of Area of wire A and B
Initial speed (u) = 90m/sec Fℓ
30 π
γ ( 2d )
2
Travelling distance (s) = 30 cm = m ( ∆ℓ )
100 So, A
= 4
Finally the bullet comes to rest after travelling some ( ∆ℓ ) B F.ℓ
distance i.e. Final velocity (v) = 0 π
γ d2
From 3rd equation of motion : 4
v2 – u2 = 2as (∆ℓ) A 1
ratio = =
Put the value in above equation ( ∆ℓ ) B 4
2 × a × 30
0 – (90)2 = 12. Moment of inertia of a thin circular ring of
100 mass M and R rotating about an axis, passing
3a through its centre and perpendicular to the
– 8100 = plane is
5
(a) MR2 (b) MR2/4
−8100 × 5
a= (c) MR /2 2
(d) (2/5) MR2
3 RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
a = –13500 m/sec2
Ans. (a) : Given, the mass of the circulating ring is 'M'
Negative sign shows that it is retardation, and radius 'R'.
a = 13500 m/sec2
We take elementary unit section of the ring
Force = mass × acceleration
M
= 0.05 × 13500 dm =
= 675N 2 πR

General Physics 311 YCT

So, dI = dm(R)2 ∵ I = mr2 (a) F1 > F2 only
M (b) F1 = F2
dI = .R 2 (c) F1 < F2 or F1 > F2, depending on the mass
2πR
density of the material of the objects.
Integrating the mass moment of inertia
(d) F1 < F2 only
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
Ans. (a) :
Given that,
Mass (m1) = 4 kg
Mass (m2) = 6 kg
Acceleration (a1) = 7 m/sec2
M Acceleration (a2) = 4m/sec2
∫ dI = ∫ .R 2 .dx We know that,
2πR
Force (F) = Mass (m) × Acceleration (a)
M 2 πR So,
I= .R ∫ dx
2π 0 F1 = m1 × a1
M =4×7
= .R(2πR − 0) = 28 N
2π
I = MR2 F2 = m2 × a2
13. Which of the following will not exist for a =6×4
liquid in a gravity – free space = 24N
(a) Viscosity (b) Surface tension Relationship between the force = F1 > F2.
(c) Upward thrust (d) Pressure So option (a) is correct.
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III 15. Dirt can be removed from a carpet by shaking
Ans. (c) : it vigorously for some time in process that is
Upward thrust is defined as the force that is exerted on based on
an object by the fluid when the object is submerged. It (a) Second law of motion
is also called as buoyant force. It always acts upwards. (b) Both third and second laws of motion
It always acts against the weight of an object. (c) Third law of motion
Fbuoyant = ρ × g × V (d) First law of motion
Where, ρ = density of fluid RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
g = acceleration due to gravity Ans. (d) :
V = volume of fluid • Newton's first law of motion also known as the law
In gravity free space, of inertia. The property of inertia is the property of
Fbuoyant = 0 a body that causes it to tend to stay in a steady state
That is upward thrust will not exist in a gravity free of motion or at rest unless an external force is
space. applied to the body.
Viscosity : The property of a fluid which opposes the • When a carpet is shaken with a stick the material of
relative motion between the layer is called viscosity. the carpet moves in forward and backward
Surface tension : It is a property of liquids directions. The dust particles on the carpet tend to
characterised by the surface molecules tendency to remain at rest due to their property of inertia. Since
shrink into a lower surface area as a result of bulk force the dust particles get separated from the carpet
from inner molecules. because they are still at rest, they fall under the
force force of gravity. Thus it is based on the first law of
surface tension = motion.
length
16. What is the relative density of a solid of mass
Pressure : Fluid pressure is a measurement of the force 50 gm which when fully immersed in water
per unit area on an object in the fluid or on the surface weighs 10 gm?
of a closed container. (a) 0.8 (b) 1.25
• Viscosity, surface tension and pressure does not (c) 2.5 (d) 5
depends on the gravity. RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
14. Two objects A and B of masses 4 kg and 6 kg Ans : (b)
are acted upon by the forces F1 and F2 required Mass of solid = 50 gram
to accelerate them at 7 m/s2 and 4 m/s2
Decrease in weight of solid = 50-10 = 40 gram
respectively. Which of the following
density of water = 1 gm/cc
relationships between the force F1 and F2 holds
Volume of solid = 40 cc
true for the required purpose?
General Physics 312 YCT
 Mass 20. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1/6th
Hence, the density of solid = that on earth. How would an astronaut weigh
Volume on moon if he weighs 90 kgf on earth?
=
50 (acceleration due to gravity on earth = 10m/s2)
40 (a) 9N (b) 90N
= 1.25 gm/cc (c) 150N (d) J15
density of solid 1.25 RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
relative density = = Ans : (c) Mass (m) = 90 kg
density of water 1
= 1.25 gm/cc acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/sec2
Astronaut weight on earth,
17. Find the length (in cm) of the edge of a cube of
a piece of wood which weighs 80 N. (Use g = 10 W=m×g
m/s2, density of wood = 1g/cm3) = 90 × 10
(a) 60 (b) 20 = 900 N
(c) 80 (d) 40 1
Weight on moon = × weight on earth
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I 6
Ans : (b) Let the side of cubical piece = a 1
Volume = a3 = × 900
6
Force = 80 N
2 = 150 N
g = 10m/s
density (ρ) = 1g/cm3 = 1000 kg/m3 21. Acceleration due to gravity on Jupiter is two
Force = m × g and a half times that on earth. How much
80 = m × 10 would a 250 kg satellite weight (in N) on
m = 8 kg Jupiter? (acceleration due to gravity on earth =
10m/s2)
m (mass)
density(ρ) = (a) 6250 (b) 10
v (volume) (c) 625 (d) 100
8 RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
1000 =
v Ans : (a) Mass on earth (m) = 250 kg
8 Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 m/s2
V=
1000 Weight on earth (w) = m × g
8 = 250 × 10
(a)3 = = 2500 N
1000
5
2 Weight on Jupiter · × 2500 = 6250 N
a= m 2
10
22. A block of metal of mass 500 g has a relative
2
a = ×100 cm density of 2.5. What will be its apparent mass
10 when it is fully immersed in water?
a = 20 cm (a) 250g (b) 300g
18. Find mass of an iron cube of side 2 cm. (c) 200g (d) 400g
(Density of iron is 7.8 gm/cm3) RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
(a) 15.6gm (b) 3.9gm Ans : (b) Actual mass = 500
(c) 0.975gm (d) 62.4gm relative density = 2.5
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I appearant mass = ?
Ans : (d) Volume of iron cube =2×2×2 Actual mass
= 8 cm3 Relative density =
Actual mas - appearant mass
Mass of cube = volume × density
= 8 × 7.8 500
2.5 =
= 62.4 gm 500 −x
19. An object with greater–––––has greater inertia 2.5 (500–x) = 500
(a) Acceleration (b) Mass 1250 – 2.5x = 500
(c) Velocity (d) Volume 2.5x = 1250 – 500
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I 750
x=
Ans : (b) Inertia is depend on the mass of the object 2.5
Hence, an object with greater mass has greater inertia. x = 300g
General Physics 313 YCT
23. A uniform meter scale weights 50g. It is 0.192 ×100000
pivoted at the 70cm mark. Where should a 40 g (d) =
24
mass be placed so that the scale is in
19200
equilibrium? = = 800 kg/m3
(a) At the 45 cm mark (b) At the 25 cm mark 24
(c) At the 95 cm mark (d) At the 5 cm mark 27. Find the length of the edge of a metal cube of
3
density 8 g/cm which weight 17.28 kN. (Use g
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II 2
= 10 m/s )
Ans : (b) In equilibrium condition :- (a) 9 cm (b) 8 cm
∑m = 0 (c) 10 cm (d) 6 cm
40 × x = 20 × 50 RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
20 × 50
x= Ans : (d) : volume =
mass
40 density
x = 25 cm
17.28 × 103
24. Find the mass (in kg) of a tank completely Volume of cube = = 216cm3
filled with kerosene of dimensions 5m × 2m × 10 × 8
1m (Density of kerosene is 800 kg/m3) ∵ Volume of cube = a3 (a = side of cube)
(a) 8000 (b) 1250 a3 = 216 cm3
(c) 800 (d) 12500 1
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II a= (216) 3 cm = 6 cm
Mass 28. Two children of 24 kg and 16 kg sit on one side
Ans : (a) density = of a see-saw at a distance of 1 m and 0.625 m
Volume
respectively, from the fulcrum. If a body of ‘m’
∴ mass = density × volume kg sits on the other side of the see-saw at a
mass of kerosene = 800 × 5 × 2 ×1 distance of 1.6 m from the fulcrum and the see-
= 8000 kg saw is in equilibrium. Find m.
25. Acceleration due to gravity is highest at_____. (a) 21.25 kg (b) 32.25 kg
(a) the poles (b) the equator (c) 27.75 kg (d) 36.75 kg
(c) at an infinite distance from the earth RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
(d) the center of the earth Ans : (a) : Since, the children of 24kg and 16kg are
sitting on the one side and one child of mass ‘m’ is
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II sitting on another side of mass ‘m’. Therefore in
Ans : (a) Acceleration due to gravity (g) is highest at equilibrium position -
the poles. As the distance decreases from the centre g (24×1) + (16×0.625) = m×1.6
decrease and vice – versa. 24 + 10 = m × 1.6
26. Find the density (in kg/m3) of a piece of wood 34
measuring 6cm×8cm×5cm and weighing 1.92N m=
1.6
(g = 10m/sec2) m = 21.25 kg
(a) 3000 (b) 300 Hence, the weight of the child sitting on the other side
(c) 8000 (d) 800 will be 21.25kg.
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II 29. The gravitational acceleration is ______m/s at
2

Ans : (d) Given that, the equator.

Volume (V) = 6 cm × 8 cm × 5 cm (a) 9.87 (b) 9.72
240 24 (c) 9.78 (d) 9.83
= = m3 RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
1000000 100000
Weight (W) = 1.92 N Ans : (c) : The acceleration due to gravity at the equator
(g) = 10 m/s2 is 9.78 m/sec. The diameter of the earth at the equator is
w = mg approximately 12,756 km. The equator divides the earth
1.92 = m × 10 into the Northern Hemisphere and southern hemisphere.
1.92 30. Acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 1/3rd
m= that on earth. How much would an astronaut
10 weight on Mars if he weighs 72 kg on earth?
m = 0.192 kg (Acceleration due to gravity on earth = 10 m/s )
2

mass(m) 0.192 (a) 720 N (b) 240 N

(density) (d) = =
volume(v) 24 (c) 120 N (d) 360 N
100000 RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
General Physics 314 YCT
Ans: (b) : Weight on earth (W1) = 72 kg 35. If a body is not homogeneous, then its density is
Acceleration due to gravity (g) · 10 m/s2 a function of its ____.
(a) Pressure (b) Position
Gravity on mars (g) · g/3 (c) acceleration (d) velocity
10 RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
= m/s2
3 Ans : (b) If a body is not homogeneous, then its density
g 72 is a function of its position. The density of a substance
g' = = = 24 kg is equal to mass per unit volume. The density of a
3 3 homogeneous material is equal at all points on an
Weight on mars = 24×10 = 240 N object.
31. What is the relative density of a solid of mass 36. It is mainly due to the gravitational effect of
75 gm which when fully immersed in water the ____ on the rotating earth that the level of
weighs 25 gm? water in the sea rises and falls.
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.8 (a) Moon (b) Venus
(c) 1.6 (d) 2.5 (c) Mercury (d) Sun
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (a) The rise and fall of sea level is mainly due to
Ans : (a) : the gravitational effect of the moon on the rotating
Weight of solid = 75 gm earth.
Weight of solid on sinking = 25 gm 37. An object weighs X units on the earth. If we
Amount of water displaced by solid (75-25) = 50 gm take the same object to the moon, its weight
there will be........
mass of solid (a) more than X (b) equal to X
relative density = (c) less than X (d) zero
amount of water displaced by solid
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
75 3
= = = 1.5 Ans : (c) The value of acceleration due to gravity on
50 2 1
the moon is of the acceleration due to gravity on the
32. The effort done to shift a load is 15 units and 6
the workdone by the machine is 3. Then find earth. If the weight of the object is x unit on the earth
the weight. than weight of the object on the moon is
(a) 45unit (b) 3unit  m×g  x
(c) 5 unit (d) 15 unit w =  decreases by unit. Hence, if we take
 6  6
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III the same object to the moon, its weight decrease.
Ans : (a) The effort done to shift a load is 15 units and 38. A block of wood floats on water, with 65% of
the work done by the machine is 3 units. The weight its volume under water. Its density (in kg/m3) is
will be 45 unit. approximately.
33. If the specific gravity of a body is less than1, it (a) 0.55×103 (b) 0.35×102
2
will float on ___. (c) 0.25×10 (d) 0.65×103
(a) Water (b) Liquid RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
(c) Mercury (d) Air Ans : (d) Total volume of wood = 100%
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III Volume of wood immersed in water = 65%
Ans : (a) If specific gravity comes out to be less than Density of water = 1000kg/m3
one. It simply means that it is less than dense than Density of wood = x = ?
water. Hence, it will float on water, And if the value is Volume of wood immersed in water Density of wood
=
more than one, it means it is denser than water and it Total Volume of wood density of water
would sink in water.
65 x
34. The volume of a certain amount of water =
100 1000
between 0°C to 4°C is ____.
x = 650 kg/m3
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
x = 0.65 × 103 kg/m3
(c) Remains constant (d) Zero
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III 39. The density of fresh water is_____ the density
of salt water :
Ans : (b) The density of water is highest at 4°C and the
volume is least. The volume of water increase when is (a) less than (b) more than
heated or cooled at a temperature higher or lower than (c) negligible compared with
4°C. Thus, volume of given amount of water decrease (d) equal to
between 0°C and 4°C while it increase above 4°C. RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
General Physics 315 YCT
 Ans: (a) When salt is dissolved in fresh water the 44. The Ideal-gas equation is ____.
density of water increase due to the increase in the mass (a) P/VT = µR (b) T/PV = µR
of the water therefore, the density, of fresh water is less (c) PV/T = µR (d) PV/T = (1/µ)R
than the density of salt water. RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
40. The mass density or density of a material is Ans : (c) : Ideal gas equation:-
defined as its _________. PV = µRT _______ equ.(i).
(a) mass per unit volume Where,
(b) mass per unit length P = atmospheric pressure
(c) mass per unit area V = volume
(d) mass per ampere µ = mole of the gas
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I R = Gas constant
mass T = Temperature
Ans : (a) Density =
volume PV
3
equ. (i) ⇒ = µR
Density is scalar quantity. Unit of density is kg/m . T
41. Let We and Wm be the weight of an object on 45. Water has the maximum density at ___°C.
the Earth and the Moon, respectively. Then, (a) 4 (b) 22
the ratio We/Wm is equal to ________. (c) 2 (d) 0
(a) 2 (b) 1 RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
(c) 6 (d) 4 Ans : (a) : Water has maximum density at 4°C. Graph
between temperature and density:-
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (c) Let, mass of object = m
Weight on earth surface = We = m×g
g
Weight on moon surface = Wm = m ×
6
We m×g
=
Wm m × g
6
We
=6
Wm 46. Consider a planet whose mass and radius both
42. The relative density of gold is 19.3. Its density are one half to that of Earth. An object of
in SI unit is: weight W on Earth will weigh ____ on that
(a) 19.3 kg/m3 (b) 19.3 × 103 kg/m3 planet.
(a) W/2 (b) 2W
(c) 1.93 ×102 kg/m3 (d) 19.3 × 10 kg/m3
(c) W/4 (d) W
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (b) Relative density of gold = 19.3 Ans : (d) : There will be no change in the mass of
density of object object. only the weight will change due to gravitational
relative density =
density of water acceleration. The mass of the object remain unchanged.
density of gold = relative density × density of water 47. A cubical block of side 10 cm and with a mass
of 600 g floats in water. How much of the cube
gold.
is submerged?
= 19.3×1000 (a) 30% (b) 40%
= 19300 kg/m3 (c) 60% (d) 50%
= 19.3×103 kg/m3 RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
43. If an object has a mass of 100 kg on Earth, RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
what would be its mass on the Moon? Ans : (c) : Side of cube = 10 cm
(a) 980 kg (b) 100 kg Volume of cube = (10)3 = 1000 cm3
(c) 0 kg (d) 16.7 kg Mass of cube = 600 g · 0.6 kg
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II density of cube (d) = m/V
Ans : (b) : If an object has a mass of 100 kg on earth, 600
then its mass on the moon is 100 kg i.e. remains same. = = 0.6g / cm3
1000
Weight = mass × gravity
Percentage of immersed cube in water
W = mg = 0.6×100= 60%

General Physics 316 YCT

48. The actual weight of a person is determined by 52. An object of a specific mass will weigh -
his: (a) more on earth than on the moon
(a) Mass and the acceleration due to gravity (b) same on both earth and moon
(b) Mass (c) less on the earth than on the moon
(c) Mass and width (d) zero on the earth
(d) Mass and height RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (a) We know that
Ans : (a) : The actual weight of a person is:- W = mg ... eq(i)
Weight = mass of object × gravity
g
W = mg On the moon, g ' = ...eq(ii)
6
49. The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is From equation(i), it is clear that the weight is directly
(1/6) of that on the Earth. Hence, an object proportional to the acceleration due to gravity.
weighing 12 N on the Earth will weigh ....... on From equation (ii) and equation (i) it is clear that the
the Moon. weight on the surface of earth is more than that on the
(a) 6 N (b) 72 N Moon's surface.
(c) 2 N (d) 12 N
53. The density of ice is –––––––– compared to the
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I density of water.
Ans : (c) : Weight of body on the earth (W) = 12N (a) Equal (b) Negligible
Weigh of body on the moon (c) Less (d) More
1 RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
= ×W
6 Ans : (c) The density of ice is less compared to the
1 density of water. Ice has low density than water
= × 12N
6 because it has a cage like structure. In this structure, a
lot of vacant spaces are left when water molecules
= 2N
linked in ice.
50. Identify the variable from below that does not 54. The mass of an object is a numerical measure
describe the behaviour of a gas.
of its ––––––––.
(a) Temperature (b) Volume
(a) Velocity (b) Gravity
(c) Pressure (d) Time
(c) Inertia (d) Acceleration
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (d) : Ideal gas equation is –
Ans : (c) The tendency of an object to resist changes in
PV = nRT its state of motion varies with mass is called inertia of
Where, P = atmospheric pressure an object, Inertia is basically a measure of the mass of
V = Volume the body.
n = no. of moles 55. The apparent mass of a piece of metal when
R = Gas constant fully immersed in water is 60 gm. If the relative
T = Temperature density of this metal piece is 2.5, find its actual
Hence, time is not describe the behaviour of gas. mass (in gm)?
51. The density of an ideal gas can be doubled by (a) 300 (b) 40
halving the : (c) 400 (d) 100
(a) Absolute temperature (b) Velocity RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
(c) Mass (d) Pressure Ans : (d) : Given : relative density = 2.5
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I Apperant mass = 60 gram
Ans : (a) : From ideal gas equation :- Actual mass = x
PV = nRT Actual Mass
relative density =
n Actual Mass – Appearant Mass
P = RT
V x
2.5 =
ρ x − 60
P = RT
M 5 x
=
MP 2 x − 60
ρ= n
……(eq (i))
RT 5x – 300 = 2x
n 3x = 300
From eq (i), It is clear that the density of an ideal gas
can be doubled by halving the temperature. x = 100 gram

General Physics 317 YCT

56. Find the volume (in cm3) of a piece of metal of 59. On the placing of body successively in the pans
density 5000 kg/m3 and which weights 10.8 N. of a faulty balance. whose sides are unequal, its
(Use g = 10 m/s2) weight appeared to be 6.4 grains and 10 grams.
(a) 21.6 (b) 216 The correct weight of the body is –
(c) 540 (d) 54 (a) 10 gm (b) 14 gm
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II (c) 8.2 gm (d) 8 gm
Ans : (b) : Given : density (d) = 5000kg/m3 RRB Asst. Loco Pilot/Technician (Ranchi)-2014
Weight (W) = 10.8 N Ans. (d): Actual weight = W1 × W2
Gravitation (g) = 10m/sec2
W = mg = 6.4 × 10
10.8 = m × 10 = 8 gram.
108 60. A wooden plank can rotate on a horizontal axis
m= = fixed in the middle. A child of mass 20 kg sits
100 on one side the axis at a distance of 1.5m from
m = 1.08 kg the axis and on the other side another child of
m weight 16 kg sits at a distance of 2.0 m from the
d=
V axis, then which boy will rise.
m 1.08 3 (a) 20 kg-weight (b) 16 kg-weight
V= = m (c) None of these (d) both (a) and (b)
d 5000 RRB Asst. Loco Pilot/Technician (Kolkata)-2014
1.08
V= × 106 cm3 [∵ 1m = 100cm ] Ans. (a) : The child whose torque is less about the
5000 middle point of the frame will rise up. the torque of the
= 216 cm3 20W boy is 20 × 1.5, less then the torque (16 × 2 = 32)
57. A body of mass 60 kg weight 222 N on Mars. of the 16 W boy. therefore, 20W boy will rise up.
What is the acceleration due to gravity (in 61. In comparison to the measurement of the
m/s2) on Mars? surface of the Earth, those on top of Mr.
(a) 4.9 (b) 13.32 Everest demonstrate :
(c) 19.8 (d) 3.7 (a) decrease in weight with mass remaining the
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II same
Ans : (d) : Given, (b) increase in the mass with weight remaining
m = 60 kg the same
W = 222 N (c) decrease in both mass and weight
g=? (d) increase in both mass and weight
RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I), 01.09.2015
From W = mg
Ans. (a) : The mass of a system is always a constant, i.e
W
g= same in each case but the value of g decrease on going
m above or below the surface of the earth. The weight of
222 an object always depends on the acceleration due to
g= gravity (g). Hence the weight of the object decrease at
60
g = 3.7m/sec2 the height but mass remains the same.
Hence, on the mars acceleration due to gravity will be 62. If two liquids of same mass and densities D1
3.7m/sec2. and D2 are mixed then density of mixture-
58. The weight of the object appears on one pan of D1 + D2 D1 D2
(a) (b)
a faulty scale as W1 and on the other pan as 2 D1 + D2
W2. True weight of the object- 2 D1 D2 D1 + D2
W1 + W2 (c) (d)
(a) (W1+W2) (b) D1 + D2 D1 D2
2 RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er., 01.12.2002
(c) W1 × W2 (d) W1 × W2 Total mass(m)
Ans. (c) : Density of mixture (D) =
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot/Technician (Ahmedabad)-2014 total volume(V)
Ans. (c) : According to the ques, it the weight of an
m+m
object is W in one pan of an deffective scale and W2 on =
m m
the other pan, then the correct weight of the object is +
equal to the geometrical mean of W1 and W2. D1 D2
i.e 2 D1 D2
D=
W = W2 × W2 D1 + D2

General Physics 318 YCT

63. The mass of an object is 100kg. If acceleration 67. The relative density of ice is 0.9 then what part
1 of it will be above the water when it is put in
due to gravity on the moon is then mass of an water?
6
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.1
object on the surface of the moon will be –
(c) zero (d) None of these
(a) 100/6 kg (b) 60 kg
DMRC Electronics Engineering, 21.09.2014
(c) 100 kg (d) 600 kg
Ans. (b) : Let volume of cube = (1×1×1) cm3
RRB Bangalore Section Engineer (Civil) 01.02.2009
relative density of ice = 0.9
Ans. (c) Mass always remains constant. Therefore the
ρice x
mass on the moon will be only 100 kg. =
ρw h
64. It is easier to swim in the sea than in the river
because – 0.9 x
=
(a) Sea water is deep 1 1
(b) Density of sea x = 0.9 cm
(c) Water keep rising in the ocean Therefore, 0.9 part of ice under the water and 0.1 cm
(d) The density of water in the sea is less part of ice above the water.
DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 18.02.2017 68. The weight of body in air is 30g and when
Ans. (b) : It is easier to swim in the sea than in the river immersed in water is 26.25g. The relative
because the density of sea water is more in comparison density of the material of the body is –
to river. 8 8
(a) (b)
65. The weight of an object is maximum 9 7
3
(a) on the equator (c) 8 (d) 8g/cm
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III, 20.11.2005
(b) on the surface of the earth
(c) at the centre of the earth Ans. (c) :
(d) on the poles of the earth Wair
Relative density of substance =
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil), 26.02.2012 Wair – Wwater
Ans. (d) : The weight of a body is maximum at the 30
poles of the earth because the value of acceleration =
(30 − 26.25)
due to gravity is maximum at the poles while the
30
weight of the body at the equator is minimum. The =
weight of the object at the centre of the earth is zero. 3.75
=8
66. The weight of a body at the centre of earth is:
(a) half the weight at the surface 69. Two liquids which are equal to weight, are
mixed, their density are ρ1 and ρ2 respectively.
(b) infinite
The density of mixture will be -
(c) twice the weight at the surface
ρ + ρ2 2ρ1ρ2
(d) zero (a) 1 (b)
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer 2 ρ1 + ρ2
(Mech.), 26.02.2012 ρ1 + ρ2 ρ2 − ρ1
(c) (d)
Ans. (d) The weight of the object at the centre of the ρ1ρ2 2
earth is zero because the value of accretion due to RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006
gravity is zero.
Ans. (b) : Let, weight of the liquids are W and volume
at centre h = Re are V1 and V2.
g' = 0
total mass of maxture
The acceleration due to gravity at any depth is given density of mixture =
as – total volume of mixture
 d
g d = g 1 − 
( M1 + M 2 ) = 2M ∵ W1 = W2 = W 
 
 R ( V1 + V2 ) M + M ∴ M1 = M 2 = M 
Where, gd = acceleration due to gravity at some depth. ρ1 ρ2
d = depth from its surface. 2 2
at centre d = R = =
1 1 ρ1 + ρ1
+
gd = 0 ρ1 ρ2 ρ1ρ2
W = mgd 2ρ1ρ2
Density of mixture =
W=0 ρ1 + ρ2

General Physics 319 YCT

70. A vessel has, mercury (density =13.6 g/cm3) at 74. If the volume of four bodies of equal mass are V1,
the bottom and oil (density 0.8 g/cm3) at the V2, V3 and V4 respectively then which body will
top. Half of the volume of a floating have greater density if V4 > V2 > V3 > V1 then
homogeneous sphere is immersed in mercury (a) V2 (b) V3
and half, in oil. The density (g/cm3) of the (c) V1 (d) V4
material of the sphere. RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 29.06.1999
(a) 3.3 (b) 6.4 (c) 7.2 (d) 12.8 Ans. (c) : By the formula-
Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Train Operators’,
14.09.2003 mass
density = ……………….(i)
ρHg + ρoil volume
Ans. (c) : density of substance of sphere = (Mass is same for all bodies)
2 According to the equation (i), which body has less
(13.6 + 0.81) volume, has more density.
=
2 Hence, V1 has density. (given: V4 > V2 > V3 > V1)
14.4 75. What is density. of solid metals when hearted
= = 7.2
2 (a) Increases (b) Decreases
71. The reading of spring balance when a block of (c) Equal (d) None of these
air is suspended from it is 60 N. When the RRB Kolkata (Tech.), 29.08.1999
block is immersed in less volume in water. The Ans. (b) : When metals are heated, they expand due to
reading of a balance changes to 40 N – the which volume increase but mass remains constant by
relative density of the block should be - formula-
3 mass
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) density =
2 volume
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent, therefore, when metals are heated, their density
21.11.2004 decrease.
Wair 76. Generally, the density of any liquid increases
Ans. (a) : Relative density of block = with increases temperature -
Wair – Wwater
(a) decrease (b) increase
60
= (c) remains constant
(60 − 40) (d) first increase and then decreases
60 RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P. Way), 20.02.2000
= =3
20 Ans. (a) : Generally, the density of a liquid decrease
72. A vessel is filled with oil of relative density 1.2 up with increase in temperature. Because by increasing the
to a height of 3cm and water is filled up to 10 cm temperature the volume of a liquid increase. But the
above it. If the relative density of mercury is 13.6 mass remains constant.
then the bottom of the vessel will be. 77. Whose density will be higher in the same
(a) Equal to 1 cm of Hg (b) Equal to 5 cm of Hg quantity of viscous (thick) liquid and non-
(c) Equal to 13cm of Hg viscous liquid.
(d) Equal to 15 cm of Hg. (a) viscous (b) non-viscous liquid
RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 09.11.1997 (c) None (d) both (a) and (b)
Ans. (a) : According to the question- RRB Mumbai Electrical/
ρHg gh = ρoil gh1 + ρwater gh2 Diesel Drivers’, 03.06.2001
13.6×gh = 1.2×g×3+1×g×10 Ans. (a) : If the quantity of thick (viscous) and non-
13.6 h = 3.6+10 viscous liquid are equal then the no. of molecules in the
viscous liquid will be more than the no. of molecules in
13.6 the non-viscous liquid. Hence, the mass of the viscous
h=
13.6 (thick) liquid will also be more. The density will be
h =1 cm of Hg. higher than that of a viscous liquid.
73. Among four substance M1, M2, M3 and M4 of 78. A body of a substance whose density is d is
different masses having the same volume. immersed in a liquid of density &, which
Which substance will have the least density If completely sinks then -
M2>M3>M1>M4 then. (a) d > ρ (b) ρ > d
(a) M1 (b) M3 (c) M4 (d) M2 (c) d = ρ (d) None of these
RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 11.04.1999 RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
mass Ans. (a) : If a body made of a substance is placed in a
Ans. (c): By formula, density =
volume liquid and the body is completely submerged then the
According to the ques, given that M2>M3>M1>M4 and density of the body is greater than the density of the
volume is constant and by the formula M4 has least density liquid. So, d > ρ
General Physics 320 YCT
4.3 Speed and Velocity
Scalars:- Those physical quantity which require
only magnitude but no direction for their complete
representation are called Scalars. Ex- Distance,
Speed, Work, Mass, Energy, Power, Temperature,
Area, Volume, etc .
Vectors:- A physical quantity which requires
magnitude and direction both for representation. AB + AD = AC = R or A + B = R
Ex.- Force, Displacements, Momentum, (a) Resultant of vectors A and B is given by -
Acceleration, Velocity, Impulse, Pressure, Gravity , R = A 2 + B2 + 2ABcos θ
Electric flux, Weight, Torque.
(b) If the resultant vector R subtend an angle β with
Tensors- A quantity that has different values in vector B and angle α with vector A, then
different direction is called Tensors. Bsin θ A sin θ
Tensors can be classified according to following tan α = & tan β =
A + B cos θ B + A cos θ
order-
• Zeroth-Order Tensors (Scalars): Among some of
θ θ
the quantities that have magnitude but not direction Case1- If A=B then R= 2Acos & α =
are e.g.: mass density, temperature, and pressure. 2 2
Case2- If θ = 0° then
• All scalars are isotropic zero- order tensor ( a Rmax = A+B
quantity that has only magnitude such as Case3- If θ = 180° then
temperature, entropy or mass. Rmin = A-B
• First-Order Tensors (Vectors): Quantities that Vector subtraction-
have both magnitude and direction e.g.: velocity, Subtraction of vector B from a vector A is defined as the
force. The first-order tensor is symbolized with a addition of vector =B (negative of vector B) to vector A.
boldface letter and by and arrow at the top part of Thus, A − B = A + −B ( )
the vector, i.e.: 0 . Rotation of a vector -
• The isotropic first order tensor (vector) is zero (i) If a vector is rotated through an angle θ, which is not
vector. an integral multiple of 2π the vector changes.
• Second-Order Tensors: Quantities that have (ii) If the frame of reference is rotated or translated the
magnitude and two directions, e.g. stress and strain. given vector does not change, the components of a
vector may change.
The second-order and higher-order tensors
are symbolized with a boldface letter. The rectangular unit vector-
It is an important set of unit vectors and are those vectors
Vector addition- having the direction of the positive x,y and z axis of a
(i) Triangle law of vector addition - three dimensional co-ordinate system and denoted
When two vectors are represented as two sides of respectively by i,j and k
the triangle with the order of magnitude and
direction then the third side of the triangle represents
the magnitude and direction of the resultant vector.

Rectangular component-
When a vector is resolved along two mutually
perpendicular directions the components so obtained are
called rectangular components of a given vector.
• R =A+B Rectangular components of a vector in a
(ii) Parallelogram law of vector addition- plane-
If two vectors are represented by two adjacent sides A = Ax + Ay
of a parallelogram which are directed away from
A = A x ˆi + A y ˆj
their common point then their sum (i.e. resultant
vector) is given by the diagonal of the parallelogram If A makes an angle θ with x-axis then-
passing away through that common point. Ax = A cos θ Ay = A sin θ
General Physics 321 YCT
 Right hand thumb rule-
Curl the fingers of your right hand from A to B
through the smaller angle between them. Then, the
direction of thumb represents A×B or n̂ .

Magnitude of vector -
Ay A 
A= A 2x + A 2y tan θ = ⇒ θ = tan –1  y 
Ax  Ax 
General vector in x-y plane-
• The thumb represents the direction of motion of the
conductor.
• The first finger reprsents the direction of the field
(North to South).
Examples of Cross product-
• Torque τ = r × F Where, r → position vector, F →
r = xiˆ + yjˆ force
If r makes an angle θ with x-axis, then • Angular momentum J = r × p Where, r → position
x= r cos θ and y = r sin θ vector , p → linear momentum
( )
r = r cos θɵi + sin θˆj • Linear velocity V = ω× r Where, r → position
The Dot or Scalar product - vector, ω → angular velocity
The dot or scalar product of two vector is defined as the
product of the magnitudes of A and B and the cosine of • Torque on dipole placed in electric field τ = p × E
the angle θ between them. Where, p → dipole moment, E → Electric field
A ⋅ B =| A || B | cos θ (0 ≤ θ ≤ π) Key points-
Note:-
• A ⋅ B is a scalar not a vector.
• A scalar quantity is a one dimensional quantity.
• A ⋅ B is +ve if θ is acute. • A scalar quantities obey the rules of arithmetic and
• A ⋅ B is –ve if θ is obtuse. ordinary algebra. But vectors are added according to
• A ⋅ B is zero if θ is right angle. vector laws of addition.
Example of dot product- • We can not add vectors and scalars together.
• Work (W) = F.d = Fd cos θ Where, F → Force, d → • Scalar quantities change when their magnitude
Displacement changes. But in vector quantities both magnitude and
• Power (P) = F.v = F.v cos θ Where, F → Force, v → direction change.
Velocity • A vector quantity can be either two dimensional with
• Electric Flux φE = E.A = E A cos θ Where, E → components in the x and y direction, or three
Electric field, A → Area dimensional with components in the x,y and z
directions.
• Magnetic flux φB = B.A = B A cos θ Where, B →
• A scalar is a zero rank tensor
Magnetic field, A → Area
• A vector is a first rank tensor.
• Potential energy of dipole in uniform field U = −p.E
• Electric current is not a vector because it does not
Where, p → Dipole moment, E → Electric field. obey the vector addition.
• A unit vector has no unit.
Cross Product (or Vector Product)- • A scalar or a vector can never be divided by any
The magnitude of cross or vector product of A and B i.e. vector
A×B is defined as the product of the magnitude of A and • To a vector only a vector of same type can be added
B and the sine of the angle θ between them. then,
and resultant is a vector of same type.
A × B = A B sin θnˆ
■ Mechanics-: Mechanics is the branch of physics
where, n̂ is a vector perpendicular to A & B or their that deals with the condition of rest or motion of the
plane and its direction given by right hand thumb rule. material object around us.

General Physics 322 YCT


Position: If a particle is restricted to move along a
given straight line (assumed along x-axis), its position
is represented by the x- coordinate relative to a fixed
origin .If the particle moves in a plane (let x-y plane)
its position is completely known when the x
coordinates of its position are known with respect to
the given coordinate axes Ox and Oy.
■ Rest: When a body does not change its position with
respect to time, the body is said to be in rest.
Example: A bed lying in a room is in the state of
rest, because it does not change its position with
respect to time.
■ Motion: When a body changes its position with
respect to its surrounding, it is said to be in motion.
Example: A train moving on rails
■ Rest and motion as relative terms - Rest and
motion are relative states. It means an object which is
at rest in one frame of reference can be in motion in
another frame of reference.
Types of Motion –
On the basis of direction:-
1. One dimensional Motion- if only one out of three
co-ordinates specifying the position of the object with
respect to time, then it is called one dimensional
motion or rectilinear motion.
For Example - (i) Motion of car on straight road.
(ii) Motion of a body under gravity.
2. Two dimensional Motion - If only two out of three
co-ordinates specifying the position of the object with
respect to time, then the motion is called two
dimensional motion.
For Example - (i) A gymnast on a balance beam.
(ii) Motion of planets around the sun.
(iii) A car moving along zig-zag path on a level road.
3. Three dimensional motion -
The motion of three co-ordinates specifying its
position change with respect to time.
General Physics 323
For example - (i) Movement of gyroscope.
(ii) A kite flying on a windy day.
(iii) Motion of an Aeroplane in space.
On the basis of moving object in space:-
1. Uniform Motion: When moving objects
cover equal distances in equal time intervals.
2. Non Uniform Motion: When moving objects
cover different distances in equal time intervals.
■ Frame of reference-
A Frame of reference is a well defined co-ordinate
system and with respect to this the state of rest or
motion of a body is described. There are two types of
frame of reference.
(i) Inertial frame of reference- A frame of reference
in which a body continues to be in a state of rest or in
a state of a uniform motion, If no external force act
on the body is called an inertial frame of reference.
(ii) Non- inertial frame of reference-
A frame of reference in which a body is accelerated
without applying any external force on a body is
called accelerated or non-inertial frame of reference.
■ Distance and Displacement -
Distance (x) -
• Total path x-ACB travelled by the body between
initial and final position in definite interval is called
Distance
• It is a scalar quantity.
• It have no direction
• Distance will be always positive.
• Distance have infinite function.
• Distance covered by particle never decreases.
• Its SI unit is meter (m) and dimensional formula is
[M0L1T0]
Displacement ( x ) -
• Displacement is the minimum possible path (AB)
between initial and final position.
• It is a vector quantity.
• Its direction will be always from initial to final
position.
• It may be +ve, –ve or zero.
• It have only one unique function.
• Its SI unit is meter and dimensional formula is
[M0L1T0].
■ Speed and Velocity-
■ Speed-: The rate of change of position of an object
with respect to time in any direction is called its speed.
distance travelled(s)
Speed(V) =
time taken(t)
YCT
• It is a scalar quantity Changein velocity (∆V)
Acceleration =
• It is always +ve Timeinterval (∆t)
• It's S.I unit is m/sec. • Its S.I unit is m/sec2
Uniform Speed- If a body covers equal distance in • It is a vector quantity
equal intervals of time it is said to be moving with
• It may be +ve, -ve or zero
uniform speed.
• If velocity increases then acceleration is +ve
Example- (i) A rotating fan
(ii) A rocket moving in a space. • If velocity decreases then retardation and 'it' is -ve.
Variable speed or Non-Uniform speed:- • If velocity is constant then a = 0 (i.e uniform
motion)
If a body covers unequal distances in equal intervals
of time. It is said to be moving with a variable speed. Uniform Acceleration - When a body describes
equal changes in velocity in equal intervals of time ,
Example- (i) A train starting from a station.
it is said to be moving with uniform acceleration.
(ii) A dog chasing a cat.
Non- Uniform Acceleration-
Average speed : The ratio of total distance travelled
If an object is moving with non-uniform
by the object to the total time taken is called average
acceleration, it means that change in velocity is
speed.
unequal for equal interval of time.
Distance travelled
Average speed = Average Acceleration-
time interval The ratio of the total acceleration to the total time
Instantaneous speed: If the speed of a body is taken by the body is called average acceleration.
continuously changing with time. Then the speed at Instantaneous Acceleration-
some particular instant during the motion is called It is defined as the acceleration of body at any
instantaneous speed. instant of time.
For example - Speedometer of a moving automobile ∆V dV
measures instantaneous speed. Instantaneous Acceleration = lim =
∆t →0 ∆t dt
■ Velocity : The rate of change of displacement with
respect to time the body in specified direction is ■ Formula and concept for uniformly
called velocity. accelerated motion in a straight line
Displacement Scalar form Vector form
Velocity = • v = u + at v = u + at
Time taken
1 2 1
• It is a vector quantity. • s= ut + at s = ut + at 2
2 2
• It may be +ve, -ve or zero.
• v2 = u2 + 2as v.v − u.u = 2as
• It's S.I. unit is m/sec.
u+v 1
Uniform velocity - • s=  t s = (u + v) t
When a body covers equal distances in equal  2  2
intervals of time in a particular direction the body is a a
said to be moving with uniform velocity. • s n = u + ( 2n − 1) sn = u + ( 2n − 1)
2 2
Non-uniform velocity- when a body covers • Displacement of a particle in n second of its
th
unequal distances in equal intervals of time in a motion in uniformly accelerated motion-
particular direction the body is said to be non-
a
uniform velocity . Dn = u + (2n-1)
Average Velocity- The ratio of the total 2
displacement to the total time taken by the body is ■ Relative motion in one Dimension ;- If x A
called average velocity. and x B are their respective displacements with
Totaldisplacement respect to the fixed origin. Then
Average velocity =
Total time taken
Instantaneous Velocity - The velocity of a particle
at any instant of time is known as instantaneous
velocity Instantaneous
∆x dx
velocity = lim =
∆t →0 ∆t dt
■ Acceleration - • The relative displacement of B with respect to A is
The rate of change of velocity with respect to time is defined as
known as acceleration. x BA = x B – x A
General Physics 324 YCT
• The relative velocity of B with respect to A is defined
as-
V BA = V B − V A
• The relative acceleration of B with respect to A is Case II -
defined as - • If the swimming is in the direction opposite to the
a BA = a B − a A flow of water or then-
Relative velocity of Rain with respect the Moving
man -
A man walking west with velocity vm , represented by
OA . Let the rain be falling vertically downwards Case-III To cross the river from one bank to another
with velocity vr represented by OB as shown in bank.
(i) To cross the river in minimum possible path.

d = width of river to reach from A to B,

Vm sin θ = Vr
Vr
sin θ =
Vm
Vr
The relative velocity of rain with respect to man θ = sin –1
Vm
Vrm = Vr − Vm
(ii) Time taken to cross the river -
Will be represented by diagonal OD of rectangle d d
OBDC. t= =
Vm cos θ Vm – Vr2
2

∴ Vrm = Vr2 + Vm2 + 2Vr Vm cos90° = Vr2 + Vm2 (iii) To cross the river in minimum possible time-
If θ is the angle which Vrm makes with the vertical
direction then
BD Vm V
tan θ = = ⇒ θ = tan −1 m
OB Vr Vr
• Swimming into the River-
A man can swim with velocity V i.e it is the
velocity of man with respect to still water. If water is
also flowing with velocity VR , then velocity of d
t=
man relative to ground. Vm cos θ
Vm = V + VR For minimum, θ = 0º
Case I -
 d 
• If the swimming is in the direction of flow of water  t min = 
 Vm 
or downstream then-
General Physics 325 YCT
■ Motion Under Gravity –
• If a body is thrown vertically up with a velocity u in the uniform gravitational field (neglecting air resistance),
then-
u2
(i) Maximum height attained H =
2g
u
(ii) Time of ascent = time of descent =
g
2u
(iii) Total time of flight =
g
(iv) Velocity of all at the point of projection = u (downwards)
(v) Gallileo's law of odd numbers : For a freely falling body ratio of successive distance covered in equal time
interval 't' S1 : S2 : S3 ............. = 1 : 3 : 5 : ............ : 2n – 1.

(vi) At any point on its path the body will have same speed for upward journey and downward journey.
1
(vii) If a body throws upward crosses point in time t1 & t2 respectively, then height of point h = gt t and
2 12
1
g ( t1 + t 2 ) .
2
maximum height H =
2
(viii) A body is thrown upward, downward & horizontally with same speed takes time t1, t2 & t3 respectively to
1
reach the ground then t 3 = t1t 2 & height from where the particle was thrown is- H = g t1t 2 .
2

Important points about graphical analysis of motion -

 dx 
• Instantaneous velocity is the slope of position time curve  V = .
 dt 
 dv 
• Slope of velocity time curve = instantaneous acceleration  a = .
 dt 
• V-t curve area gives displacement, ∆x = ∫ vdt  .
 
• a-t curve area gives change in velocity ∆v = ∫ adt 
 
■ Key points -

• Displacement ≤ Distance.
Velocity
• ≤1
Speed

General Physics 326 YCT

 Average velocity
• ≤1
Average speed
Instantaneous velocity
• =1
Instantaneous speed
• If distance > |displacement| this implies -
(a) At least at one point in path, velocity is zero.
(b) The body must have retarded during the motion.
• If particle travels distances S1, S2, S3, ...... with speeds V1, V2, V3, ..... then,
S1 + S2 + S3
Average speed =
 S1 S2 S3 
 + + ...... 
V
 1 V 2 V 3 
• If particle travels equal distances (S1 = S2 = S) with velocities V1, V2, V3, ..... during time intervals t1, t2, t3
V t + V2 t 2 + V3 t 3
then, Average speed = 1 1 ...........
t1 + t 2 + t 3
• If particle travels with speed V1 and V2 for equal time intervals i.e t1 = t2 = t, then
V + V2
Average speed = 1 .
2
• When a body travels equal distances with speed V1 and V2, the average speed (V) is the harmonic mean of
two speeds i.e
2 1 1
= +
V V1 V2
Different Motions and their Graphs :
Different Cases V-t Graph S-t Graph

1. Uniform motion

2. Uniform accelerated motion

with u = 0 at t = 0

3. Uniformly accelerated with u

≠ 0 at t = 0

4. Uniformly accelerated motion

with u ≠ 0 and S= S0 at t = 0

General Physics 327 YCT

 5. Uniformly retarded motion
till velocity becomes zero

6. Uniformly retarded then

accelerated in opposite direction

■ Motion in a Plane Displacement Vector -

• Motion in a plane is also called as a motion in two
dimension.
For example - circular motion, projectile motion etc.
Polar Vectors - The polar vectors which have a
starting point and describe the translation motion.
Example- Displacement, Velocity, Force etc are
polar vectors.
Axial Vectors- The vector which represent rotational
effect and act along the axis of rotation in accordance
with right hand screw rule are called axial vector.
• In plane, displacement can be represented as -
Example:- Angular velocity, Torque, Angular
momentum etc. ∆r = ( x – x ) ˆi + ( y – y ) ˆj
2 1 2 1

• Magnitude of displacement vector

( x 2 – x1 ) + ( y 2 – y1 )
2 2
∆r =
• Direction of the displacement vector ∆r is given by
-
∆y
tan θ =
∆x
Velocity Vector-
■ Terms Related to motion in a plane -
(i) Average Velocity -
Position vector

∆r r2 – r1
Vav = =
∆t t 2 – t1
OP = OA + OB Average velocity in component form-
r = xiˆ + yjˆ ∆x ˆ ∆y ˆ
Vav = i+ j
∆t ∆t
• This equation express position vector r in terms of
= ∆V ˆi + ∆V ˆj
x y
its rectangular component x and y.

General Physics 328 YCT

 Direction of the velocity ∆V is given by- ■ Angular displacement (θ)-
∆Vy • It is the angle traced out by the radius vector at the
tan θ = circular path.
∆Vx
arc
(ii) Instantaneous Velocity- angle (θ) =
radius
∆r dr
V = lim =
x → 0 ∆t dt
dx ˆ dy ˆ
V= i+ j
dt dt
V = V ˆi + V ˆj
x y It is a vector quantity.
Magnitude of Instantaneous Velocity- ■ Angular Velocity ( ω ) -
V = Vx2 + Vy2 • It is the time rate of change of angular
displacement.
Direction of V is given by-
Vy SI unit is rad .
sec
tan θ =
Vx Angular displacement
ω=
Acceleration Vector - Time taken
(i) Average Acceleration- dθ
• Instantaneous angular velocity ω =
• The average acceleration vector is defined as the dt
rate at which the velocity changes. It is in the • Average angular velocity = ω =
direction of the change in velocity ∆V ωav =
Total angular displacement
=
∆θ
∆V Total time taken ∆t
a av = • For clockwise rotation ω
∆t
ω is directed downwards
a av = a x ˆi + a y ˆj + a z kˆ
(ii) Instantaneous Acceleration -
• It is defined as the limit of the average acceleration
A
as ∆t approaches zero. ∆θ
∆V dV B
a = lim =
∆t →0 ∆t dt
 ∆V ∆Vy ∆Vz  →
a = lim  x xˆ + yˆ + zˆ  ω
∆t →0
 ∆t ∆t ∆t  • For anti-clockwise rotation ω is directed upwards.
■ Motion in a plane with uniform
acceleration-
Vx = Vox + axt
Vy = Voy + ayt
Path of particle Under constant Acceleration-
1
x = x0 + Voxt + a x t 2 ............. along x-axis
2
1 2 ■ Time Period (T):- The taken by object to completed
y = y0 + Voyt + a y t ............. along y-axis one revolution on its circular path.
2
■ Frequency (v):-The number of revolution per unit
■ Circular Motion - time on the circular path.
• When object is moving on a circular path on the
■ Angular acceleration (α) -
circumference of the circle, then the motion is
• It is the time rate of change of angular velocity
called circular motion.
dω
Uniform Circular Motion- α =
• When object is moving on a circular path on the dt
circumference of the circle, covers equal distances • SI unit radian/second2
in equal intervals of time then the motion is called • When a body moves with constant angular velocity,
uniform circular motion. its angular acceleration is zero.
General Physics 329 YCT
■ Centripetal Acceleration (ac) - ■ Motion in Vertical circle -
• Acceleration of an object moving with uniformly • Motion in a vertical circle is non-uniform circular
on the circular, it acts along the radius towards the motion.
centre of the circular path.
V2  V
ac = ω2r = = ωV ∵ ω= 
r  r
ac = ω × V
■ Centripetal Force (Fc) -
mv 2
Fc =
r
Fc = mα
Fc = mω2r • Tension at the lowest point P
Fc = mωv mVP2
TP = + mg
Fc = m ( v× ω ) l
• Tension at the highest point Q.
b mVQ2
• The work done by centripetal force is zero. TQ = – mg
l
• Centripetal force is essential for circular motion, mVP2
without it the body cannot move in circular path. TQ = − 5mg
l
• The K.E. and angular momentum cannot be
• Tension at point R-
increased by centripetal force.
mVR2
■ Tangential Acceleration (at) - TR =
l
• The acceleration which acts along the tangent to the
circular path. mVP2
TR = − 2mg
at = α r l
at = α × r • TP > TR > TQ
• TP – TQ = 6 mg
■ Total acceleration ( a ) - • TP – TR = 3 mg
a = α × r + ω× v • Tension at any point A -
a = a 2t + a c2 mV 2
T= + mg cos θ
r
• Minimum velocity for vertical circular motion -
(a) VP at P ≥ 5gl
(b) VQ at Q ≥ gl
(c) VR at R ≥ 3gl

Where, at = Tangential acceleration - • In case of minimum velocity-

ac = Centripetal acceleration (a) TP ≥ 6 mg
(b) TQ = 0
■ Some relations -
(c) TR ≥ 3 mg
1 • If Tmin < 0, the string will slack and the body will
(i) Relation between time period and frequency (v) =
T fall down from the highest point. Hence, for
(ii) Relation between frequency angular velocity and "looping the loop" or completing the vertical
circle Tmin ≥ 0.
time, • If VP = 2gl , velocity and tension becomes zero
at R and S and particle will oscillate along semi-
(iii) Relation between linear acceleration and angular circular path.
acceleration. • If VP < 2gl , velocity becomes zero between P
a=αr and R and particle oscillate about with the lower
a = α× r point P.
General Physics 330 YCT
 • If VP > 5gl tension never becomes zero and • When centripetal force is obtained from friction
particle will just complete the circle. force as well as banking of roads then maximum
safe value of speed of vehicle.
• For leaving. the vertical circle somewhere
between 90º < θ < 180º. Tension becomes zero (T rg(tanθ + µ s )
Vmax =
= 0) at the point of leaving but the velocity will (1 – µ s tanθ)
not be zero.
2gl < VP < 5gl
■ Motion in Vertical circle -

■ Bending of cyclist -
• When a cyclist takes turn at road, he inclines
T cos θ = mg himself from the verticle slows down this speed
and moves on a circular path larger radius.
mv 2
T sin θ = If a cyclist is inclined at an angle θ, then
r
2 V2
v tan θ =
tan θ = rg
rg
Where, V = Speed of the cyclist
l cos θ r = Radius of path
T = 2π
g g = Acceleraation due to gravity
■ Rounding a level curved Road - ■ Projectile Motion –
• When any object is thrown from horizontal at an
angle θ except 90º then it moves on a parabolic
known as trajectory. The object is called projectile
and its motion is called projectile motion.
Projectile motion in two dimensional motion :-

mv 2
• ≤ ( F1 + F2 )
r
Where, F1 = µR1 and F2 = µR2 µ = Coefficient of
friction between tyres and road.
• V≤ µrg , Vmax = µrg
This is the maximum speed without skidding.
• If centripetal force is obtained only by the banking
of roads, then the speed (v) of the vehicle for a safe Ux = U cos θ
turn. = Horizontal motion
v= r g tan θ = Responsible for range produced
= Constant acceleration ( ∵ a = 0)
• If speed of vehicle is less than r g tan θ . Then it
But,
will move inward (down) and (r) will decrease and
Uy= U sin θ
if speed is more than r g tan θ then it will move = Vertical component
toward (up) and (r) will increases. = Variable (ay = – g)
• In normal life, the centripetal force is obtained by = Responsible for height produced.
the friction force between the road and tyres as well Concept -
as by the banking of the roads.
x-axis y-axis
• Therefore the maximum permissible speed for the
vehicle is much greater than the optimum value of Ux= U cos θ Uy = U sin θ
the speed on a banked road. ax = 0 ay = –g
General Physics 331 YCT
 • Time of ascending (t) - U2
along y axis- R max =
g
V y = U y + a yt
• Ratio -
U sin θ
t= U2
g
R max g
• Time of Flight (T) - = =2
H max U 2
T = 2t
2g
2U sin θ
T= Rmax = 2× Hmax
g
• Two projective angles for the same range -
• Height attained by the body in projectile motion
-
U 2 sin 2 θ
H=
2g
• Condition for maximum height attained (Hmax) –
For maximum height,
θ = 90º, Sin θ = 1
π
U2 θ1 + θ2 = 90º =
H max = 2
2g Note:-
• Range produced by the body in projectile •Projectile refers to an object that is in flight along the
motion (R) - horizontal and vertical direction simultaneously.
U 2sin 2θ • Acceleration acts only in the vertical direction due to
R= gravity (g).
g • The horizontal velocity of a projectile is constant. So
• Condition for maximum Range : (Rmax) – there is no acceleration in vertical direction.
Sin 2θ = 1 = max = sin90º • Projectiles travel with a parabolic trajectory due to the
θ = 45º influence of gravity.
Exam Pointer
■ Newton's first law of motion gives the definition of ■ If two objects are thrown upwards with velocities V1
- Force and V2 then the ratio of their maximum heights will
■ The velocity of one moving body with respect to V2
another moving body is called - Relative velocity be - 12
■ If the magnitude of velocity of an object is increasing V2
with time, then the acceleration of the object is ■ The unit of momentum is CGS system is
- Positive - Dyne × second
s■ Motion of Earth around Sun is an example of
■ The formula for velocity is - - Circular Motion
t■ If an object is at rest, it will remain at rest, if it is in
■ The rate of change of displacement is called motion, it will remain in motion unless an external
- Velocity force is applied to it. This Statement is known as -
■ For every action, there is an equal and opposite Newton's first law of motion
reaction - Newton's third law of motion ■ The first equation of motion is - v = u + at
■ Which formula is used to convert the angular ■ An iron ball and wooden ball of the same radius are
momentum of a body moving on a circular path into released from the height h in vacuum. The time taken
linear momentum - a = r×a by both of them to reach the ground will be the -
■ The tendency to resist the change in the present Same
situation is called - Inertia■ The slope of a velocity-time graph represents
■ The rate of change of velocity is called - Acceleration - Acceleration
■ The maximum speed of a body can be - 3×108 m/sec ■ A cannon ball has been fired. The motion of this ball
■ The distance covered per unit time is called - speed is an example of - Projectile motion
■ The rate of change of momentum is directly ■ The speed of a train is an example of
proportional to the external force acting on the body. - Translatory motion
This statement is of - Second law of motion ■ In a projectile motion, a large angle with the
■ The weight of a body is maximum at horizontal produces - High trajectory
- Poles of the Earth ■ If the axis of rotation passes through an object while
■ The rate of change of velocity of an object while its it is in motion, then that motion is called
velocity is increasing is called - Acceleration - Rotational motion
General Physics 332 YCT
■ If a ball is thrown up, so what does not change ■ An object is moving with non-uniform velocity and
- Mass (m) uniform acceleration, then
■ If an object is moving in a circular path and - Velocity-time graph will be linear
completes one revolution in one second then its ■ If the velocity time graph is parallel to the time axis
average speed will be - Zero then - object is moving with a constant velocity
■ Newton's first law of motion given the concept of dv
■ The acceleration of the body represents -
- Inertia dt
■ The part of the body on which all the weight of the ■ If the velocity time graph is parallel to the time axis,
body is concentrated is known as - Center of mass then the speed is - uniform
■ Earth has its own atmosphere ■ The velocity time graph for uniform accelerated
- Due to gravitational force motion is - Straight line
■ It is difficult to fix a nail on a freely suspended ■ In uniform circular motion
wooden frame which law supports for this statement - Speed is constant and velocity is variable
- Newton's third law ■ Velocity of a body is said to be uniform, when
■ The appropriate relation between the time period (T) - Both the magnitude and direction of velocity are
constant
and particle of mass (m) performing simple harmonic
v -u
m ■ The formula to find acceleration is - α=
motion is - T = 2π t
k ■ If a ball is thrown up, what does not change
■ The time period of the simple pendulum will be - Acceleration (due to gravity)
ℓ ■ Cyclist bends or leans while taking a turn because
- 2π - It tilts so that the center of gravity remains inside
g
the base. It will keep him from falling
■ The correct relationship between moment of inertia ■ A truck and a car are running at the same speed. If the
(I), torque (τ) and angular acceleration (α) is mass of the truck is 10 times more than the mass of
-τ=α×I the car. The ratio between their kinetic energy will be
■ Who can change the speed direction and shape of an - 10:1
object - Force ■ A rocket works on the principle of
■ If a pendulum oscillates in a vacuum, its time period - Newton's third law of motion or
will - Decrease conservation of linear momentum
■ The change in seasons on the Earth occurs because ■ Newton's law of motion apply when the nature of
- Earth's revolution and inclination of its axis matter is - particle nature
■ A large force exerted on a rotating object result in ■ If the velocity time graph of a particle is represented
- Large torque by v = mt + c, then the particle is moving with
■ It is difficult to walk an ice because - - Constant acceleration
Very less friction ■ A person climbing a hill leans forward because
■ If the wavelength of an electron and photon are the - To increase stability
same then their linear momentum will be - Same ■ A girl is swinging on a swing in sitting position when
■ When the earth is orbited by a spacecraft the girl stands up the period of swing will be
weightlessness is felt due to - zero gravity - Shorter
■ If an object is thrown upwards, its velocity on ■ The working principle of washing machine is
reaching the maximum height will be -Zero (0 m/sec) - Centrifugation
■ What will happen to the force between the two ■ A hunter aim his gun at a point between the eyebrows
positive charge which are released after being held of a monkey sitting on a branch of a tree. Just as he
near each other - Force will decrease fires, the monkey jumps down the bullet will
■ The velocity time graph of a body comes in a straight - Hit the monkey at the point aimed
line and touches the x-axis passing through the origin ■ If a person sitting in a lift then when will he feel that
the body is moving with - Changing in Acceleration his weight gets increased
■ A body strikes the ground vertically downwards with - When the elevator going upward with speed
a velocity µ and rebounds with the same speed. The ■ If the horse starts moving suddenly the rider on the
change in velocity would be - –2µ horse fall back because - Interia of rest
■ In a vacuum all free falling objects have ■ A cricketer pull his hands back word while catching a
- Same acceleration fast moving ball because - Ball may come to rest
General Physics 333 YCT
■ When a force of 5 Newton is applied to a mass of 2 ■ A particle is moving in a uniform circular motion
kg the acceleration produced will be - 2.5 m/sec2 with a uniform speed 'v' parallel to a circle of radius r.
■ If a sphere is rolling the ratio of its rational energy to v2
total kinetic energy will be -2:7 The acceleration of a particle is -
r
■ The velocity of a particle located at the center of a ■ If the horizontal range of a projectile if four times the
pipeline will be - Maximum maximum height, then the angle of projection is - 45º
( ˆ ˆ ˆ )
■ An force F = 6i + 2j – 3k acts on a particle and ■ What is the magnitude of force which when applied
on a body of mass 0.6 kg produces an acceleration of
(
produces a displacement of S = 2iˆ – 3jˆ – xkˆ . If the) 0.08 m/sec2. - 0.048 N
work done is zero, the value of x is -2 ■ A force of 30 N acts on a body of 5 kg for 2 seconds
■ the frequency of transverse vibration of a thread is then the acceleration will be - 6 m/sec2
100 cycle/sec. If the tension of the thread is increased ■ A second's pendulum is taken in a transport vehicle
to 4 times, then the frequency will be - 200 cycle/sec find the period of oscillation when the vehicle moves
■ In the moving state of the lift the apparent weight with an acceleration of 4 m/sec2 vertically upwards
becomes twice the actual weight when - 1.93 second
- lift goes up with acceleration g ■ What will be the speed of the body after three
■ Generally 'key' is used between two parts to stop seconds if the body is mioving along a straing line at
which motion - Rotation a speed of 20 m/sec and under goes an acceleration of
■ A particle of mass 10 kg is moving in a straight line. 4 m/sec2
If its displacement x, with time t, is given by - 32 m/sec
x = ( t – 2t –10 ) m, then the force acting on it at the
3 ■ A stone is dropped from a cliff its speed after it has
fallen 100 m is - 44.72 m/sec
end of 4 seconds is - 240 Newton ■ Friction between two objects is due to
■ The Motion of the wheels of a bullock-cart while - Irregularities on the surface
moving on the road is an example of ■ A thumb-tripped nail goes easily into wood because
- Translatory and rotatory motion - Move force acts on less area
■ A particle is moving with the same speed but its ■ When a gun is fired, it exerts a forward force on the
direction is constantly changing. Then path of the bullet. The bullet also exerts on equal and opposite
particle will be - Circular reaction force on the gun. This phenomenon is
■ Two spheres made of the same material and same explained by - Third law of motion
radius are placed to each other, the gravitational force ■ When a moving bus suddenly applies brakes, the
'F' between them is - F ∝ R4 passengers fall in the forward direction. It is because
■ "There is no change in the position and direction of - Newton's law of inertia
any stationary or moving object unless an external ■ A boy sitting in a train moving with constant speed
force acts on it." - Newton's first law of motion throws a ball straight in the air, then the ball will fall
■ Name the property of bodies due to which they resist - into the Hand
change in their state of rest or state of uniform motion ■ When an object is moving with uniform velocity with
along a straight line - Inertia respect to time then velocity-time graph represents
■ When the length of the pendulum clock becomes 4 - Straight line
times then its time period is - doubled ■ An object is moving with non- uniform velocity and
■ The minimum number of forces to keep a particle in
uniform acceleration then
equilibrium is -2
■ Newton-second is the unit of - Impulse - Velocity time graph will be linear
■ The speed of a car increases from 20 km/hr to 50 ■ If the velocity- time graph is parallel to the time axis,
km/hr in 10 second moving on a straight road. The then - The object is moving
acceleration of that car is - 0.83 m/sec 2 with constant velocity
■ Which force is responsible for providing the ■ The time - graph for uniformly accelerated body
necessary centripetal force to plants moving around - Straight line.
the Sun - Gravitational force ■ An iron ball and a wooden ball of equal radius are
■ If we suspend the pendulum in a vessel filled with dropped from height h in vacuum. The time taken by
liquid - The pendulum will stop soon both to reach the earth is - Approximately same.
■ How much force is required to rotate a body of mass ■ Velocity of body is said to be uniform when
6 kg in a circle of radius 3m with a velocity of 10 - Both the value and direction
m/sec. - 200 N of velocity are constant.

General Physics 334 YCT

 PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
1. A car accelerates uniformly from 5 ms–1 to x + y = 8a .... (ii)
10ms–1 in five seconds. Find the acceleration of From equation (i) and (ii), we get
the car x + y = 8a
(a) 1 ms2 (b) 1 ms–2 2a + y = 8a
(c) 1 ms1 (d) 1 ms–1 y = 6a
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift I
Given, y = nx
Ans. (b) : Given : y = 3 × 2a
Initial velocity = 5 m/sec.
⇒ n=3
Final velocity = 10 m/sec.
Time = 5sec. 4. A planet moves around the sun in elliptical
∆V = Final velocity – Initial velocity orbit. When earth is closest from the sun, it is
= 10 – 5 at a distance r having a speed ν. When it is at a
= 5 m/sec. distance 4r from the sun its speed is
∆V (a) ν/4 (b) 4ν
Acceleration of car (a) = (c) 2ν (d) ν/2
t
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III
5m / sec
= Ans. (a) :
5sec
dA 1
= 1 m/sec2 or, 1ms–2 Kepler's second law = r × ν ...(i)
2. Which one of the following physical quantities dt 2
is a scalar quantity? If distance is 4r then,
(a) Electric current (b) Electric field dA 1
(c) Torque (d) Impulse = 4r × ν 2 ...(ii)
dt 2
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift II
From equation (i) and (ii)
Ans. (a) : Scalars are the physical quantities that only According to question,
have the magnitude and other characteristics. A scalar is
1 1
unvaried by any changes in the coordinate system. × r × ν = × 4r × ν 2
Examples: volume, energy, mass, density, time, electric 2 2
current are scalar quantity. ν
A vector Quantity is one which is characterized by both ν2 =
4
magnitude and direction. Examples are: Torque,
5. A car moving with a speed of 50 km/hr can be
Impulse, Electric field. stopped by brake after travelling at least 6 m.
3. A particle starts moving from rest under If the same car is moving at a speed of 100
uniform acceleration. It travels a distance 'x' in km/hr, the minimum stopping distance is
the first two seconds and a distance 'y' in the (a) 18 m (b) 12 m
next two seconds. If y = nx, then n = (c) 24 m (d) 6 m
(a) 1 (b) 3 RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III
(c) 2 (d) 4 Ans. (c) : Speed of the car when stopping distance is 6
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III km km
m is given as, u1 = 50 and u2 = 100
Ans. (b) : Given that, hr hr
Now,
v2 = u2 – 2aS
0 = u2 – 2aS
1 u2
S = ut + × at 2 S =
2 2a
1 S ∝ u2

x = a×4 (a is constant and negative as considering retarding)

2
S2 ( u 2 )
2
x = 2a .... (i)
∴ =
1 S1 ( u1 ) 2
and S = ut + × at 2
2
S2 (100 )
2

1 =
x + y = × a × 4× 4 S1 ( 50 )2
2
General Physics 335 YCT
 S2 8. A body is projected horizontally with a velocity
=4 u from a point which is at a height h above the
S1
ground level. The range (R) is (Take
S2 = 4S1 acceleration due to gravity = g units)
S2 = 4×6
2u 2g
S2 = 24m (a) R = h (b) R = u
6. A spacecraft of mass 2000 kg moving with a g h
velocity of 600m/s suddenly explodes into two 2h 2h
pieces. One piece of mass 500 kg is left (c) R = g (d) R = u
stationary. The velocity of the other part must u g
be (in m/s) RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I
(a) 1000 (b) 600 Ans. (d):Horizontal distance covered is = velocity ×
(c) 800 (d) 1500 time
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III R = ut
Ans. (c) : Given that, Vertical displacement
mass (m) = 2000kg 1
velocity (v) = 600m/s h = vt + gt 2
m1 = 500kg, v1 = 0 2
Explodes in two piece, then mass = m1 + m2 Given, v = 0, for vertical displacement
2000 = 500 + m2 1
⇒ h = 0 + gt 2
m2 = 1500kg 2
Formula P = mv
2h
Momentum before explosion = 2000 × 600 ⇒ t=
Momentum after explosion = P1 + P2 g
= (m1v1 + m2 v2) Now,
= 1500 × v2 R = ut
sine, there is no external fore, the momentum is
conserved 2h
R=u
So, Momentum before explosion = Momentum after g
explosion
2000 × 600 = 1500 v2 9. An automobile that is towing a trailer is
v2 = 800 m/s accelerating on a level road. The force that the
automobile exerts on the trailer is
7. A body is thrown with a velocity 20 m/s at an
(a) Equal to the force the trailer exerts on the
angle of 30º with the horizontal. The time taken
automobile
to reach the maximum height is (Take g =
10m/s ) 2 (b) Greater than the force the trailer exerts on the
automobile
(a) 2 s (b) 5 s
(c) Equal to the force the trailer exerts on the
(c) 4 s (d) 1 s
road
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III
(d) Equal to the force the road exerts on the
Ans. (d) : Given,
trailer
Initial velocity (u) = 20 m/s RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I
The angle of inclination (θ) = 30º
Ans. (a) : An automobile that is towing a trailer is
The time taken to reach the maximum height is equal to
accelerating on a level road. According to Newton's
half of the time of flight.
third law The force that the automobile exerts on the
Time of flight (T) = ?
trailer is equal to the force the trailer exerts on the
2 ⋅ u ⋅ sinθ automobile.
T=
g 10. A body falling from rest has a velocity 'v'. After
2× 20×sin30º it falls through a distance 'h', the distance it
=
10 has to fall down further, for its velocity to
1 become double is _______ time 'h'.
2× 20× (a) 0.5 (b) 1.5
= 2 = 2 sec
10 (c) 2 (d) 3
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I
The time taken to reach the maximum height is,
T Ans. (d) : We know that, v2 = u2 + 2gh
= 1 sec Given, v1 = v
2
Hence, option (d) is correct. v2 = 2v

General Physics 336 YCT

Then, (a) 2.5 m (b) 5 m
v = u + 2gh
2 2 (c) 10 m (d) 3.5 m
1
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I
v2 Ans. (b) : Given t = 1 second
h= h= {∵ u = 0 as body initially at rest}
2g g = 10 m/s2
Then, from Newton's first equation of motion
v 22 = u 2 + 2gh 2 v = g t =1×10 ⇒ ( v = 10m/s)
(2v)2 = u2 + 2gh2 From Newton's third equation of motion
4v2 = 2gh2 v2 10 × 10
h= = = 5m ⇒ h = 5m
4v 2 2g 2 × 10
h2 =
2g 14. Average Acceleration =
Required distance, h1 = h2 -h toatal displacement changein velocity
(a) (b)
= 4h - h = 3h ⇒ h1 = 3h total time time taken
distance change in mass
11. An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. Now a 6 N (c) (d)
force is applied on the object for 3 second. Find time time
the velocity of the object acquired by it in m/s. RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II
(a) 12 (b) 6 Ans. (b) : The change in velocity divided by the elapsed
(c) 9 (d) 8 time is the average acceleration. i.e.
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I Changein velocity
Average Acceleration =
Ans. (b) : Given, An object of mass (m) = 3 kg time taken
Force (F) = 6 N 15. A body is allowed to slide down a frictionless
time (t) = 3 second track from rest position at its top under
v =? gravity. The track ends in a circular loop of
From Newton's second law. diameter D. Then, the minimum height of the
 v−u  inclined track (in terms of D) so that it may
F=m   complete successfully the loop is
 t  (a) 3D/4 (b) 9D/4
 v−0 (c) 5D/4 (d) 7D/4
⇒6=3   ⇒ v = 6m / s
 3  RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II
12. If 'c' is the velocity of light in free space, the Ans. (c) :
time taken by light to travel a distance x in
medium of refractive index µ is given by
µx h
(a) µxc (b)
c
µc x
(c) (d)
x µc For the body to reach point B, the body must have least
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I velocity of 5gr (from vertical circular motion) at A.
Ans. (b) : So, for a body falling from height h
c
Refractive index of a medium is given by µ = Velocity (v) = 2gh
v From both the velocities
Where v is velocity of light in given medium
5gr = 2gh
Distance = speed × time
distance ( x ) D
⇒ Time (t) = 5g = 2gh
speed(v) 2
On squaring both sides, we get
µx
⇒ t= D
c 5g = 2gh
2
13. A boy throws two balls in air in such a manner
5D
that when the first ball is at maximum height h =
he throws the second ball. If the balls are 4
thrown with the time difference of one second, 5D
the maximum height attained by each ball is ( Hence, the loop is
4
g = 10m/s2)
General Physics 337 YCT
16. A rope of length 10 m and linear density 0.5 Ans. (b) : Given:
kg/m is lying length wise on a smooth Acceleration of first block (a1) = 6m/s2
horizontal floor. It is pulled by a force of 25 N.Acceleration of second block (a2) = 3m/s2
The tension in the rope at a point 6 m away
from the point of application is: Given that force acted on the block is same.
(a) 10 N (b) 20 N So,
(c) 15 N (d) 5 N F1 = F2 = F
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II Force, F = ma
Ans. (a) : Given : Length of rope (L) = 10 m F
m=
Linear Density (λ) = 0.5 kg/m a
Force (F) = 25N The mass of first block -
L1 = 6 m, L2 = 4 m F
Total mass of rope = λ × L m1 = ---------(i)
a1
= 0.5×10
The mass of second block -
= 5 kg
F
Acceleration of rope [ F = ma ] m 2 = − − − − − −(ii)
a2
F 25
a = = = 5m / s 2
Add equation (i) & (ii), we get
m 5
m = m1 + m2
T = m' × a
F F F
m' = 0.5 kg/m × 4m = 2 kg = +
T = 2 ×5 = 10 N a a1 a 2
17. A constant force (F) is applied on a stationary 1 1 1 a 2 + a1
particle of mass 'm' They velocity attained by = + =
a a1 a 2 a1a 2
the particle after a certain displacement will be
proportional to aa
atotal = = 1 2
1 a 1 + a2
(a) (b) m (c) 1/m (d) m
m Put the given values of a1 & a2 , we get
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II 6 × 3 18
atotal = = = 2m / s 2
Ans. (a) : Given : Force = F , Mass = m 6+3 9
Initial velocity (u) = 0 m/s Hence, the acceleration produced will be 2m/s2
F 19. To keep a particle moving with constant
Acceleration of particle, a =
M velocity on a frictionless surface, an external
The equation of motion of the particle after moving a force:
certain displacement is given by- (a) should act continuously
v2 – u2 = 2as (b) should act opposite to the direction of motion
Put the values. (c) is not necessary
2 2 F (d) should be of variable magnitude
v = (0) = 2   s
 
M RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II
Ans. (c) : To keep a particle moving with constant
F
v= 2  s velocity on a frictionless surface, an external force is
M not necessary.
From the above equation, it is clear This is based on Newton's first law of motion - A body
1 remains at rest, or in motion at a constant speed in a
v= straight line, unless acted upon by a force.
m
20. When light travels from one medium to
18. A horizontal force F produces an acceleration another, which of the following does not
2
of 6m/s on a block resting on a smooth change?
horizontal surface. The same force produces an
(a) Wavelength (b) Intensity
acceleration of 3 m/s2 on a second block resting
on a smooth horizontal surface. If the two (c) Velocity (d) Frequency
blocks are tied together and the same force RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II
acts, the acceleration produced will be Ans. (d) : Whenever light goes from one medium to
(a) 1 m/s2 (b) 2 m/s2 another (from air to glass), the frequency of light and
(c) 4.5 m/s2 (d) 9m/s2 phase of light does not change. However, the velocity
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II of light and wavelength of light change.
General Physics 338 YCT
21. By applying the brakes without causing a skid, 1 2  2x 
the driver of a car is able to stop his car within (c) V0 + at (d)   − v0
a distance of 5m, if it is going at 36 kmph. If the
2  t 
car were going at 72 kmph, using the same RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
brakes, he can stop the car over a distance of: Ans. (b) :
(a) 10 m (b) 20 m Given that,
(c) 40 m (d) 2.5 m Initial velocity (u) = V0
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II Acceleration (a) = a
Ans. (b) : Distance (s) = x
5 The motion of the equation is only valid when -
Given: Initial velocity (u1) = 36 km/h = 36× = 10 m/s • Acceleration is constant
18
• The motion is in straight line.
Distance (s) = 5m
From third motion equation,
Final velocity (v1) = 0
v2 = u2 + 2as -------- (1)
Using second equation of motion -
2 2 Where, v = Final velocity
v – u = 2as
Put the values in equation (1)
(0)2 – (10)2 = 2×a×5
–100= 10a So, V2 = V02 + 2ax
2
a= –10m/s 24. An object of mass m follows a circular path of
Now again from question– radius r with a constant speed v in uniform
5 circular motion. Then, the work done by the
Initial velocity (u2) = 72 km/h = 72 × = 20m / s centripetal force for the object to move once in
18
Final velocity (v2) = 0 m/s a full circle is
2 (a) (MV2/r).2r (b) Zero
& Acceleration (a) = –10 m/s 2
Distance (s) = ? (c) (Mv /r).2πr (d) (MV2/r).2πr
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
Again, using second equation of motion –
v2 – u2 = 2as Ans. (b) : Work done on an object is the force applied
2 2 and the displacement covered in the direction of the
(0) – (20) = 2 × (–10) ×s
force applied.
– 400 = – 20×s
i.e. W = f.dcosθ
s = 20m
22. A rigid body is made to rotate about an axis of
rotation. Its moment of inertia about the axis of
rotation depends on
(a) Its angular momentum only
(b) Its angular velocity only
(c) The distribution of its mass about the axis
about which it rotates, and also the orientation
In uniform circular motion, dot product of two mutual
and position of this axis of rotation
perpendicular vectors is the angle between them is 90°.
(d) The torque applied only
Then, cos90° = 0
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
W = f.d.cos90°
Ans. (c) : Moment of inertia of a rigid body about a W = 0
fixed axis is defined as the sum of the product of the
Hence, the work done in a uniform circular motion is
masses of the particles constituting the body and its
always zero.
square of a distance from the axis of rotation.
I = mr2 25. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with initial
Moment of inertia of a body made up of number of velocity V0 and returns to its starting point in 6
2 2 2 seconds then the initial velocity with which the
particles = m1r1 + m 2 r2 + m3 r3 + ..... ball was thrown will be
So it can be said that moment of inertia depends on the (a) 58.8 m/s (b) 19.6 m/s
mass and its distribution about the axis which it rotates. (c) 39.2 m/s (d) 29.4 m/s
So, option (c) is correct. RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
23. A ball, having speed V0 moves in a straight line Ans. (d) : Given that,
under the influence of a constant acceleration Time (t) = 6 second
a. Then its final speed after travelling a Initial velocity (u) = V0
distance x for time t will be Acceleration (a) = –g = –9.8 m/sec2
x The ball returns to its initial point, so displacement (s) = 0
(a)   − v0 (b) V02 + 2ax
t According to motion equation

General Physics 339 YCT

 1 2 (a) 800 (b) 400
S = ut + at (c) 300 (d) 600
2
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
1
0 = 6V0 + (−9.8) × (6) 2 Ans : (c) Let, y take t hours to reach from A to B,
2 therefore, time taken by x to reach from A to B = (t +2)
1 hours.
6V0 = × 9.8 × 36
2 from, r1t1 = r2t2
V0 = 29.4 m/sec. 50×(t+2) = 75×t
26. An object is made to move with uniform speed 50t + 100 = 75t
such that the magnitude of its velocity remains 25t = 100
constant with its direction of motion t = 4 hours
continuously changing with time. Then, the So, desired distance = 75 ×4
unbalanced force acting on the object will be in = 300km
the direction.
29. By cycling 7/9 times his usual speed, Anwar
(a) Inclined at an angle of 60° with the direction
reaches his school 4 minutes late. How many
of its acceleration
minutes does Anwar take to reach school at his
(b) Opposite to that of its velocity usual cycling speed?
(c) Parallel to that of its velocity (a) 14 (b) 20 (c) 18 (d) 16
(d) Parallel to the direction of its acceleration RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
Ans : (a) Let, the normal speed of answer be x and with
Ans. (d): From the question it is example of uniform this speed its time to reach school.
circular motion.
From, s1t1 = s 2 t 2
• The circular motion in which the speed of the particle
7
remains constant is called uniform circular motion. In x×t = x × ( t + 4)
uniform circular motion, force supplies the centripetal 9
acceleration. ⇒ 9t = 7t +28
v2 ⇒ 2t = 28
ac =
r ⇒ t = 14 min
where, v = velocity Hence, answer takes 14 min to reach school at normal
r = radius speed.
30. A truck travels 450 km in two and a half hours.
Find its speed in m/s.
(a) 60 (b) 90
(c) 50 (d) 75
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (c) Given,
1
t = 2 hour
2
• In uniform circular motion, force is parallel to the 5
direction of its acceleration i.e. towards the center. = hour
2
27. A bullet travels 90 m in 0.2 seconds. Find its s = 450km.
speed in km/hr. s
(a) 162 (b) 1620 speed =
t
(c) 125 (d) 1250
450
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I = = 180km / h
5
distance
Ans : (b) Speed of bullet = 2
time 5
90 18 = 180 ×
= × 18
0.2 5 = 50m/s
= 1620km/hr
31. A rocket travels 108 m in 0.3 seconds. Find its
28. Two cars, X and Y, travel from A to B at speed in km/hr.
average speeds of 50 km/hr and 75 km/hr
respectively. If X takes 2 hours more than Y (a) 1296 km/h (b) 6300 km/h
for the journey, then the distance between A (c) 1692 km/h (d) 3600 km/h
and B in km is––––. RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I

General Physics 340 YCT

Ans : (a) : t = 0.3 sec t12 = 16
distance = 108 m t1 = 4
distance v1 = u + at1
speed = v1 = 0 + 1.6 × 4
time
v1 = 6.4 m/s
108
= 1
0.3 20 = ut + at 2 2
= 360 m/sec 2
18 t2 = 5
= 360 × km/hour t2 = 5 sec
5
v2 = u + at2
= 72 × 18
= 1296 km/hour v2 = 0 + 1.6 × 5
v2 = 8 m/s
32. A body starts moving form rest. Its
displacement is propational to ____ when its Average velocity = v1 + v 2 = 8 + 6.4 = 7.2 m / s
acceleration is constant. 2 2
(a) Velocity (b) Work 35. An airoplane flies at a speed of 50 m/s. How
(c) Time squared (d) Time much distance will it cover in 5 hours?
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III (a) 895 (b) 880
Ans : (c) Let, constant acceleration is a initial velocity (c) 850 (d) 900
u=0, RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
s = ut + ½at2 Ans : (d) distance = speed × time
s = 0×t + ½at2 18
s = ½at2 = 50 × × 5 = 900 km.
5
s ∝ t2 36. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a speed
Therefore, displacement of object is directly of 30 m/s. The magnitude of its displacement
proportional to the square of time. after 4 s will be _______.
33. A motorcycle covers a distance of 1000 m at a (a) 30m (b) 50m
speed of 36 km/hr. Find the time (in seconds) (c) 15m (d) 40m
taken by the motorcycle to cover this distance. RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
(a) 300 (b) 200 Ans : (d) Given:
(c) 100 (d) 400 u = 30 m/sec
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III t = 4 sec
Ans : (c) Time =
distance g = 10 m/sec2
speed h=?
nd
1000 by 2 equation of motion -
= 1
5 h = ut − gt 2 (in ward directive)
36 ×
18 2
= 100 second 1
h = 30 × 4 − ×10 × 4 × 4
34. An object starts from rest at x = 0 m and 2
rotates with a constant acceleration of 1.6 m/s2 h = 120 – 80
about the x-axis. What is its average velocity h = 40 m
during its journey from x= 12.8 m to x= 20.0 m?
(a) 2.4m/s (b) 3.6m/s 37. .......... is defined as the total path length
travelled by an object divided by the total time
(c) 7.2m/s (d) 8.8m/s
interval during which the motion has taken
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
place.
Ans:(c) T1, T2 and V1, V2 shows time and displacement (a) Instantaneous acceleration
respectively.
(b) Average speed
Initial velocity (u) = 0, acceleration (a) = 1.6 m/s2
(c) Uniform acceleration
1 2 (d) Instantaneous velocity
S = ut + at1
2 RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
1 Ans : (b) Average speed is defined as the total path
12.8 = 0 + × 1.6 × t12

2 length covered by an object which is divided by time

1.6 t12 = 25.6 interval during which the motion occurred.

General Physics 341 YCT

38. An object is moving with a speed 100 m/s. Find 42. An object starts from rest at x = 0 m and moves
the distance travelled by this object in one with constant acceleration of 3 m/s2 along x
minute. axis. During its journey from x = 13.5 m to x =
(a) 100 km (b) 0.6 km 54 m, its average velocity is :
(c) 6 km (d) 10 km (a) 13.5 m/s (b) 10.0 m/s
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II (c) 8.5 m/s (d) 12.0 m/s
Ans : (c) : Distance = speed × time RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
= 100 × 60 Ans : (a) : u = 0 a = 3 m/s2
= 6000 m {∵ 1 km = 1000 m}
= 6 km
39. An object starts from rest at x = 0 m and t = 0
Motion A to B
sec. It moves with constant acceleration of 3
m/s2 along x axis. What is its average velocity v 2B = 0 + 2 × 3 × 13.5
between time 4 s and 8 s? v 2B = 6 × 13.5
(a) 6 m/s (b) 18 m/s
(c) 12 m/s (d) 3 m/s v 2B = 81.0
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II vB = 9 m/s
Ans : (b) : t = 8–4 = 4 sec motion A → C
u =0 uA = 0
a = 3 m/s2 vc = ?
v = u + at mes v2 = u2 + 2as
v = 0 + 3×4 v c2 = 0 + 2 × 3 × 54
V = 12 m/s v c2 = 6 × 54
From 2nd equation of motion -
1 v c2 = 324
S = ut + at2 vc = 18 m/s
2
9 + 18
1
S = 12×4+ ×4×4×3 vavg =
2 2
S = 72 m 27
= = 13.5m / s
total distance 72 2
Average velocity = = = 18 m/s 43. Find the velocity (in m/s) that a car will achieve
total time 4
after 20 seconds if it starts and accelerates at
40. An object starts moving from rest, with 3.2 m/s2.
constant acceleration. Its velocity is: (a) 72 (b) 36
(a) Directly proportional to time (c) 108 (d) 64
(b) Inversely proportional to time RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
(c) Inversely proportional to time square Ans : (d) : t = 20 second
(d) Directly proportional to time square a = 3.2 m/sec2
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II u=0
Velocity v = u + at
Ans : (a) : Acceleration =
time = 0 + 3.2 × 20
Velocity = acceleration × time = 64 m/second
Velocity α time 44. A car accelerating for two seconds would cover
Velocity of object is directly proportional to time. ........... times the distance of a car accelerating
41. When you double the speed of a car, it takes for only one second (cars starts from rest with
......... times more distance to stop it. the same acceleration in both the cases).
(a) four (b) one (a) Four (b) Three
(c) two (d) three (c) Two (d) One
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (a) : v2 = u2 –2as Ans : (a) : A car accelerating for two seconds would
cover 4 time distance of a car accelerating for only one
0 = u2 – 2as
second.
u2 45. An object covers the first distance of 200 m in
s=
2a 20s and takes 30s for the next 200m. What is
If initial velocity is 2 time then distance will be 4 times, the average speed of the object?
General Physics 342 YCT
 (a) 8m/s (b) 12m/s 1 40 × 40
(c) 4m/s (d) 6m/s h= ×
2 10
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III h = 80 m
Ans : (a) Total distance = 200+200= 400m
48. A car starts from rest with a constant
total time = 20+30 = 50sec acceleration of 3m/s2. Find the distance covered
total distacne by this car in 10s.
Average speed =
total time (a) 250m (b) 100m
(c) 200m (d) 150m
400
= RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
50 Ans : (d) a= 3m/s2
= 8 m/sec t = 10s
Average speed of object = 8 m/sec S=?
46. An object starts from rest at X = 0m and t = 0 s 1
and rotates with a constant accelerration of S = ut + at 2
4m/s2 about the x-axis. What is its average 2
velocity between the time 2s and 6s ? 1
S = 0 × 10 + × 3 × 102
(a) 12m/s (b) 16m/s 2
(c) 8m/s (d) 18m/s 1
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III S = × 300
2
dv S= 150m
Ans : (b) a =
dt Total distance covered by the car is 150 m.
v 6 49. The circumference of a planet is 36,000 km. If
∫ dv = ∫ adt the planet makes no other movement and takes
20 hours for one complete rotation, what is the
o 2
6 speed of a point on its equator?
( v − 0 ) = a ∫ dt (a) 500 m/s (b) 400 m/s
2
(c) 300 m/s (d) 200 m/s
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
V = a ( t )2
6
Ans : (a) : If ∆θ is the augular displacement at a time
= 4[6–2] = 16m/s (given : a = 4 m/sec2) ∆t then the angular speed is given by –
Average velocity will be 16 m/sec ∆θ
47. A ball is dropped freely from the top of ω=
∆t
building from an intial rest and attains a
maximum velocity of 40m/s. What will be the 2πr
Angular speed (ω) =
height of the building ? (use g = 10m/s for the time
acceleration due to gravity) Given that-
(a) 70m (b) 80m Circumference of the planet (2πr) = 36,000 km
(c) 50m (d) 60m time = 20 hours
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III 36000
Ans : (b) v = u + gt angular speed ( ω) = = 1800 km / h
20
v = 0+gt
Now, converting km/h to m/sec
v = gt
5
v ∴ Angular speed ( w ) = 1800 × = 500m / s
t= 18
g Hence, the speed of a point on its equator will be 500
1 m/s.
Now, h = ut + gt 2
2 50. A bullet is fired vertically upwards with a
2 velocity of 196 m/sec. What is the maximum
1 v height reached by the bullet? (Assuming g = 9.8
h = 0 + g× 
2 g m/sec2)
(a) 1960 m (b) 196 m
1 v2 (c) 980 m (d) 490 m
h= g×
2 g×g RRB Bilaspur JE (red) , 14.12.2014
1 v2 Ans. (a) : Given that,
h= × v = 196 m/sec
2 g
h=?
1 402 (u) = 0
h= ×
2 10 v2 = u2 + 2gh

General Physics 343 YCT

 (196)2 = 0 + 2 × 9.8 × h 54. A car travels three equal parts of its journey
h = (1960)m with average speed of 60 kmh-1, 80 kmh-1 and
120kmh-1. Average speed of car during its
The maximum height reached the bullet is 1960m. journey will be.
51. One early morning, with no traffic on roads, (a) 60kmh-1 (b) 80 kmh-1
Rahul while cycling down from Red Fort to his (c) 100 kmh -1
(d) 87 kmh-1
residence noted the distance covered and the RRB Kolkata Apprentice Supervisors, 14.10.2001
total time taken to reach home. What can he Ans. (b) :
calculate from this data ? x x x
(a) Velocity (b) Speed
x x x
(c) Acceleration (d) Displacement t1 = t2 = t3 =
RRB SSE Secundrabad (Shift-I), 02.09.2015 60 80 120
Ans. (b) : total distance
averagespeed =
total distance total time
Average speed =
total time 3x 240
= = 3x × = 80kmh -1
Average speed can be calculated from the given data. x x x 9x
+ +
52. In above graph ratio of average speed to 60 80 120
average velocity is : 55. When ball is drop from the roof of a building.
It takes 3 second for the ball to reach the
ground. the acceleration of the ball towards the
earth is 10 m/sec then height of the building is
(a) 40 m (b) 20 m
(c) 30 m (d) None of these
RRB RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-II , 30.01.2011
Ans. (d) : Hight of building = vertical distance
travelled by the ball –
1
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 3 h = ut + gt 2
2
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
1
RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012 h = 0 + × 10 × (3) 2 [∵u = 0] , g = 10 m/sec2
2
total distance
Ans. (c) : Average speed = h = 45m
total time
56. Which is the correct formula to find
1 1
×10 × 20 + × 10 × 4 acceleration?
2 2 120
= = v−u
14 14 (a) a = (b) a = u + vt
t
Displacement
Average speed = v+u v+u
time (c) a = (d) a =
t 2
1 1
× 10 × 20 + × (−10) × 4 RRB Ajmer (Tech.), 01.03.1998
= 2 2 Ans. (a) : By first equation of motion
14 v = u + at
100 − 20 80 v − u = at
= =
14 14 v−u
Averagespeed 120 80 3 a=
∴ = : = t
Average velocity 14 14 2 57. If an object, on a free fall from a certain height,
53. A force F produces an acceleration of 3ms-2 in a reaches the ground in 1 second, what is its
-2
body and 6ms in another body. If both the velocity on the impact with the ground?
bodies are tied together and same force is (a) 4.9 m/s (b) 9.8 m/s
applied due to acceleration in the bodies will be : (c) 14.7 m/s (d) 19.6 m/s
(a) 3ms-2 (b) 9 ms-2 RRB Mumbai Electrical/Diesel Drivers’, 03.06.2001
(c) 4.5 ms-2 (d) 2ms-2 Ans. (b): t = 1 second
RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P.Way), 20.02.2000 initial velocity (u) = 0
velocity of collision with earth = v m/s
Ans. (d) : Common acceleration of two object -
v = u + gt
aa 3× 6 v = 0 + 9.8 × 1
a= 1 2 = = 2ms -2
a1 + a 2 3 + 6 v = 9.8 m/s

General Physics 344 YCT

58. In a projectile motion, a large angle with the Ans. (d): F = Ma
horizontal produces ............. F 1.5
(a) flat trajectory (b) curve trajectory a= = = 0.3 m/sec2
M 5
(c) straight trajectory (d) high trajectory
RRB Bhubaneshwar (Tech.), 03.06.2001 leye 1
S = ut + at 2
Ans. (d) : When an object is project from a vertical 2
plane making an angle with the horizontal its path is 1
S = 0 × 2 + 0.3 × ( 2 )
2

parabolic, this motion of the body is called projective 2

motion - S = 0 + 0.3 × 2
u 2 sin 2 θ S = 0.6m
h=
2g 62. A car travels from A to B at a speed of 20 km/h
u 2 and returns at a speed of 30 km/h. The average
θ = 900 h max = speed of the car during this journey will be
2g (a) 5 km/hour (b) 24 km/hour
Hence, projective motion, a high trajectory is obtained (c) 25 km/hour (d) 50 km/hour
at a large angle θ = 90° with the horizontal. RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Guwahati)-2006
59. If a ball is thrown up, which of the following 2v1v 2 2 × 20 × 30
does not change? Ans. (b) : Average speed = =
(a) Acceleration (b) Speed v1 + v 2 20 + 30
(c) Potential energy (d) Distance 1200
RRB Bhubaneshwar App. Elec. Signal Maintainer, 19.08.2001 Vavg = = 24 km/hour.
50
Ans. (a) : When a ball is thrown upwards, its path, is
parabolic, in such a situation its speed, potential 63. When a ball is dropped from the roof of a
energy and distance change but acceleration remains building. It takes 3 second for the ball to reach
unchanged. The value of this acceleration is always the ground. The acceleration to the ball
equal to g (acceleration due to gravity). towards the earth is 10m/sec2 then the height of
the building is
60. A 5 kg mass at rest on a frictionless table is (a) 40 Meter (b) 20 Meter
acted upon by a constant force of 12 N. The (c) 30 Meter (d) None of these
distance travelled by it in 2s is– RRB Mahendrughat (Patna) Diesel Driver,11.11.2001
(a) 1.2 m (b) 2.4 m Ans. (d) : Given u = 0, t = 3 second g = 10 m/sec2
(c) 4.8 m (d) 9.6 m 1
RRB JE Bhopal Paper II (Shift-II), 26.08.2015 Then h = ut + gt 2
2
Ans. (c) : m = 5 kg 1
F = 12 N h = 0 × t + gt 2
2
F = m.a
1
12 = 5.a = 0 + × 10 × 32
12 2
a = m / s2 h = 45 meter.
5
64. A bullet of mass 20 grams moves with a speed
by 2nd equation of motion is :-
of 10 m/sec. It can sink 8 cm into the target
1 2 before coming the rest. if the target is only 6
S = ut + at (u = 0)
2 cm thick, the speed with which the bullet will
exist the target is.
1 12
S = × × ( 2 )2 (a) 10 m/sec (b) 7 m/sec
2 5 (c) 4 m/sec (d) 5 m/sec
24 RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Guwahati)-2006
S=
5 Ans. (d) : From equation of motion -
S = 4.8 m v2 = u2 + 2as
0 = (10)2 + 2 × a × (8 × 10–2)
The distance travelled by it in 2 sec is 4.8 m. 1
61. A force of 1.5 Newton is applied on a body of a = − × 104 m/sec2
16
mass 5kg for 2 second. the distance covered by Now, for the 6 cm thick target -
the body is - From v2 = u2 + 2as,
(a) 2 m (b) 1.6 m
104
v2 = (10 ) − 2 × × ( 6 × 10−2 )
2
(c) 1.2 m (d) 0.6 m
RRB Ranchi Diesel/Electric Assistant (Driver), 16
21.09.2003 v = 5 m/sec
General Physics 345 YCT
4.4 Work, Energy and Power
Work: Work is the process of applying force to an
object to move it over a distance or to transfer energy • W = F.d ,For constant force.
from one system to another. Work is measured in • Unit = Newton - meter.
joules (J) in the international system of Units (SI).
■ Workdone –
• W= ∫ dw = ∫ F dx , For unidirectional force.
• Nature of work done -Although work done is scalar
W= ∫ dw = ∫ F ⋅ dr = ∫ F dr cos θ quantity, yet its value may be +ve, –ve or zero.
Negative Work Zero Work Positive Work

Positive Work: Positive work means that force (or its (2) If there is no displacement [S=0]
components) is parallel to displacement. Eg. (i) When a person tries to displace a wall or
E.g. When a person lifts a body from the ground, the heavy stone by applying a force and it does not move,
work done by the (Upward) lifting force is positive. then work done is zero .
Negative Work:- Negative work means that force (or (ii) A weight lifter does work in lifting the weight off
its components) is opposite to displacement i.e, the the ground but does not work in holding it up.
negative work signifies that the external force (3) If there is no force acting on the body [F=0] e.g-
opposes the motion of the body. E.g. When a person Motion of an isolated body in free space.
lifts a body from the ground, the work done by the ■ Graph between force and displacement -
(down ward) force of gravity is negative. (i) If constant force is acting on body
Zero Work: Under three condition, work done
becomes zero W= Fs cosθ =0
(1) If force is perpendicular to the displacement [F ⊥ S]
E.g: (i) When a coolie travels on a horizontal
platform with a load on his head, work done against
gravity by the coolie is zero.
(ii) When a body moves in a circle the work done by the
centripetal force is always zero.
General Physics 346 YCT
(ii) If direction of force on the body is reversed - Mechanical Energy: Mechanical energy is the sum
of potential energy and kinetic energy in an object
that is used to do a particular work.
Solar Energy: Energy generated from the radiation
emitted by the sun is called as solar energy.
Nuclear Energy: Nuclear energy also called atomic
energy. Nuclear energy is a form of energy released
(iii) If variable force is applied on the body from the nucleus, the core of atoms, made up of
protons and neutrons.
dw = Fdx Sound Energy: Sound energy comes from vibration
x2 moving through something. Solids, liquids and gases
∫dw = ∫
x1
Fdx all transmit sound as energy waves.
x2 Chemical Energy: Chemical energy is energy
w = ∫ Fdx stored in the bonds of atoms and molecules batteries,
x1
biomass, petroleum, natural gas and coal are
example of chemical energy.
Concept- Heat Energy: Heat energy, also called thermal
(i) If F = f(x) energy, is the energy an object has because of the
x2 movement of its molecules and heat can be
W = ∫ Fdx transferred from one object to another object.
x1

(ii) If F = f(y) ■ Kinetic Energy-

y2 1
W = ∫ Fdy • K.E. = mv 2
y1 2
(iii) If F = f(z) • K.E ∝ v2
z2
W = ∫ Fdz
z1

But for more than one variable -

W=
( x 2 , y2 , z 2 )
∫( (
F dxiˆ + dyjˆ + dzkˆ
x1 , y1 ,z1 )
)
■ Conservative Forces -
• Work done does not depend upon path.
• Work done in a round trip is zero.
• Central force, spring force etc are conservative forces. • Percentage error in K.E -
• When only a conservative forces acts within a system, ∆K ∆v
×100 = 2 ×100
the kinetic energy and potential energy can change K v
into each other. However, their sum of the • Relation between Kinetic energy (K.E) and Linear
mechanical energy of system doesn't change. Momentum –
• Work done is completely recoverable. P2
K.E =
• If F is a conservative force then- ∇ × F = 0 2m
(i.e. curl of F is zero) P = 2mK
■ Non-Conservative Forces - • For same K.E of two particles -
• Work done depends upon path. P1 m1
• Work done in a round trip is not zero. =
• Force are velocity dependent & regarding in nature P2 m2
e.g. friction, viscous force etc. Concept -
• Work done against a non-conservative force may • Work done due to all types of forces acting on the
be dissipated as heat energy. body will be equal to only change in K.E of that
• Work done is not recoverable. body.
■ Energy - ■ Potential Energy -
• The capacity of doing work is called energy. • The energy possessed by any object by virtue of its
• Energy possessed by the body by virtue of any position or configuration is called potential energy.
cause is equal to the total work done by the body
when the cause responsible for energy becomes
completely extinct.
• The SI unit of energy is joule (J)
• Types of energy:- There are many types of energy
like mechanical energy, electrical , magnetic,
nuclear, solar, chemical etc.

General Physics 347 YCT

• Potential energy is relative quantity. ■ Total Mechanical Energy of body-
• Potential energy is defined only for conservative • Mechanical energy = K.E + P.E
force field. • E=K+U
• Relationship between conservative force field and • E = Kmax + Umin
potential energy. • E = Kmin + Umax
 ∂U ˆ ∂U ˆ ∂U ˆ  ■ Work energy theorem for constant force-
F = – ∇U = –grad(U) = –  i+ j+ k • It states that the work done by the net force acting on
 ∂x ∂y ∂z 
a body is equal to the change in the K.E of the body.
• If force varies only with one dimension (along x-axis) W = Kf – Ki
then Change in K.E of body = Work done in the body by
dU x2 net force.
F=– ⇒ U = – ∫x F dx
dx 1 Work Energy theorem for variable force -
Gravitational potential Energy: Energy possessed W = ∆ K.E
by a body by virtue of its height above surface of Change in Kinetic energy = Work done by all forces.
earth is known as gravitational potential energy. Important Point
G.P.E = mgh Joule: It is the absolute unit of work in the SI
■ Potential energy curve and equilibrium - system of unit. Work done is said to be one joule,
when a force of one Newton actually moves a body
through a distance of one meter in the direction of
applied force.
Erg:-It is the absolute unit of work in the CGS
system of unit. Work done is said to be one erg, when
a force of one dyne actually moves a body through a
distance of one cm in the direction of applied force.
■ Power -
• The rate of doing work with respect to time is called
• It is a curve which shows change in potential power.
energy with position of a particle. W dW
Pavg= & Pinstantaneous =
■ Stable Equilibrium - t dt
• When a particle is slightly displaced from equilibrium • Power is scalar quantity.
position and it tends to come back towards • S.I. unit of power is J/S or Watt.
equilibrium then it is said to be in stable equilibrium. • Because it is a ratio of two scalar quantities.
dU Dimension formula = [ML2T-3]
At Point C : Slope is negative so F is positive.
dx • 1 mW = 10–3 W 1 MW = 106 W
3
dU 1 KW = 10 W 1 Horse Power = 746 Watt
At Point D : Slope is positive so F is negative.
dx • P = F⋅V
At Point A : It is the point of stable equilibrium. = F V cos θ
dU d2U • If θ = 0º If θ = 180º If θ = 90º
At Point A : U= Umin, and = positive. P = FV = +ve P= – FV = –ve P = 0
dx dx 2
■ Unstable Equilibrium – ■ Graph between force and velocity –
• When a particle is slightly displaced from equilibrium
and it tends to move away from equilibrium position
then it is said to be is unstable equilibrium.
dU
At Point E : Slope is positive So, F is negative.
dx
dU
At Point G : Slope is negative so F is positive.
dx (i) Area = FV = P = Power
At Point B : It is the point of unstable equilibrium
dU d2U (ii)
At Point B : U = Umax , = 0 and = negative.
dx dx 2
■ Neutral Equilibrium –
• When a particle is slightly displaced from equilibrium
position and no force acts on it then equilibrium is
said to be neutral equilibrium point.
dU d2 U
U = constant : = 0, 2 = 0
dx dx
General Physics 348 YCT
(iii) rest and initial momentum of the system is zero. As
soon as bullet is fired, it moves forward with a large
velocity. In order to conserve momentum the rifle
moves backward with such a velocity that final
momentum of the system is zero.
■ Collision of Bodies –The event of the process, on
which two bodies in contact with each other or due to
mutual interaction at distance apart, affect each other
v2 motion (velocity, momentum, energy or direction of
P = ∫ F dv motion) is defined as a collision.
v1

■ Principle of Conservation of Energy – In Collision –

• The particle comes closer before collision and after
• This law states that energy can neither be created nor
collision they either stick together or move away
destroyed but it can changed from one form to
from each other.
another.
Example – When a body falls freely, under gravity • The particles need not come on contact with each
its potential energy gradually changes into Kinetic other for a collision.
energy, but total mechanical energy (Kinetic energy + • The law of conservation of linear momentum is
Potential energy) remains constant at any point of its necessary applicable in a collision whereas the
motion. law of conservation of mechanical energy is not.
Type of Collision –
S.N. Equipment Transformation of • On the basis of direction
energy (i) One dimensional collision or Head on collision-
1. Microphone Sound energy into The collision in which the particles move along
electrical the some straight line before and after the collision
2. Musical Mechanical energy into is defined as one dimensional collision.
instruments sound energy. (ii) Two dimensional collision or oblique collision-
3. Heat engine Thermal energy (Heat The collision in which the particles move in the
energy) mechanical same plane at different angles before and after
energy. collision is defined as oblique collision.
4. Coal Chemical energy into • On the Basis of Kinetic Energy-
thermal energy. (i) Elastic collision-A collision is said to be elastic, if
5. Candle Chemical energy into the total kinetic energy before and after the
thermal energy. collision remains same.
6. Bulb/Tube Electrical energy into light (ii) Inelastic collision - A collision is said to be
energy. inelastic, If the total K.E does not remains
7. Heater Electrical energy into constant.
thermal energy. (iii) Perfectly Inelastic collision- The collision in
8. Electric motor Electrical energy into which the particles gets stacked together after the
mechanical energy. collision it is called perfectly inelastic collision, in
9. Electric cell Chemical energy into this type of inelastic collision loss of energy is
electrical energy. maximum.
10. Loudspeaker Electrical energy into Coefficient of restitution --
sound energy. Velocity of Separation (after collision)
11. Solar cell Solar energy into electrical e=
energy. Velocity of approach (before collision)
12. Dynamo Mechanical energy into ⇒ Value of e-
electrical energy. For perfectly elastic collision, e = 1
13. Battery Chemical energy to For perfectly inelastic collision, e = 0
electrical energy. For inelastic collision, 0 < e < 1
Efficiency:- Using the least amount of inputs to Head on collision-
achieve the highest amount of output.
Energy output
η= × 100%
Energy Input
■ Law of Conservation of Linear Head on inelastic collision of two bodies-
Momentum – (i) Momentum is conserved m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 +
• This law states if no external force acts on a system, m2v2 ................ (i)
then its linear momentum remains constant. (ii) Kinetic energy is not conserved.
Example - A rifle given backward kick on firing a V – V1
(iii) According to Newton's law- e = 2 .......... (ii)
bullet before firing, both the bullet and the rifle are at u –u 1 2

General Physics 349 YCT

 By solving (i) and (ii) we get- Since number of force is acting on m1 and m2,
m u + m 2 u 2 – m 2 e ( u1 – u 2 ) along the tangent (i.e y-axis) the individual
v1 = 1 1 momentum of m1 and m2 remains conserved.
m1 + m 2
m1u1 sin α1 = m1v1 sin β 1 & m2u2 sin α2
m1u1 + m 2 u 2 – m1e ( u 2 – u1 ) = m2v2 sin β 2
v2 =
m1 + m 2 By using Newton's experimental law along the line
Elastic collision (e = 1) of impact-
• If the two bodies of equal masses : m1 = m2 = m, e= 2
v cos β 2 – v1 cos β1
v 1 = u2 , v 2 = u1 . u1 cos α1 – u 2 cos α 2
Thus, if two bodies of equal masses undergoes
• To Determine Rebounce Velocity and Rebounce
elastic collision in one dimension, then after the
Height of Body when Collision Takes Place
collision, the bodies will exchange their velocities.
Between A Body And Horizontal Rigid Surface-
• If the mass of body is negligible as compared to
other -
If m1>>m2 and u2 = 0 then v1 = u1, v2 =2u1. When a
heavy body A collides against a light body B at
rest, the body A should keep on moving with same
velocity and the body B will moves with velocity
double that of A. If m2>>m1 and u2 = 0 then v2 = 0,
v1 = – u1.
Loss in Kinetic Energy in inelastic collision–
∆K =
m1m 2
2 ( m1 + m 2 )
(1 – e 2 ) ( u1 – u 2 )
2

• Newton's Experimental Formula-

Oblique Collision – V1–V2 = –e (U1–U2)
• Conserving the momentum of system in direction • V–0 = –e (U–0)
along normal (x-axis in our case) and tangential (y- • V = –eU
axis in our case). • Rebounce Velocity -
m1u1 cos α1 + m2u2 cos α2 = m1v1 cos β 1 + m2v2
• | V| = eU = e 2gh
cos β 2
m2u2 sin α2 – m1u1 sin α1 = m2v2 sin β 2 – m1v1 • nth Rebounce Velocity
sin β 1 • Vn = enu = en × 2gh
• Here, n = 1,2,3,4,5........
• Rebounce Height-
e2
• h=
x
• nth Rebounce Height-
• x nth = e 2n × h
x nth
• h=
e2n
• here, n = 1,2,3.......

■ Rocket propulsion –
 dm 
Thrust force on the rocket = v r  – 
 dt 
Velocity of rocket at any instant
m 
V = u – gt + vr ln  0 
 m 

General Physics 350 YCT

■
Key points- ■ The capacity of a simple machine is usually
• A quick collision between two bodies is more violent expressed in - Kilowatt
then slow collision, even when initial and final ■ A person in standing with a load on his head, then the
velocity are equal because the rate of change of work done by the person will be - Zero
■ When a particle performs simple harmonic motion
momentum determines that the impulsive force small
then its kinetic energy is maximum at- Mean
or large.
position
• Impulse momentum theorem is equivalent to ■ The kinetic energies of both moving a car and train
Newton's 2nd law of motion. engine are equal, which will have more momentum
• For a system conservation of linear momentum is - Train engine
equivalent to Newton's third law of motion. ■ If the speed of an object is halved as compared to
• A body may gain P.E. simultaneously because earlier then the kinetic energy remains as compared to
principle of conservation of mechanical energy may earlier - One fourth
not be valid every time. ■ Which type of energy is stored in a compressed
• Comets move around the sun in elliptical orbits. The spring - Potential energy
Gravitational force on the comet due to sun is not ■ If the linear momentum of a particle is doubled then
normal to the comet's velocity but the work done by the kinetic energy of that particle will be - Four times
the gravitational force is zero in complete round trip ■ If the force is perpendicular to the direction of
because gravitational force is conservative force. displacement, then the work done will be - Zero
• Rocket move by pushing the exhaust gases out so ■ When an object moves in a circle at constant speed
then the work done on it is - No work (zero)
they can fly at low or high altitude.
■ What will be change in kinetic energy if the velocity
• A man in a closed cabin (lift) falling freely does not
of kinetic energy is increased by 25% - 56.25%
experiences gravity as inertial and gravitational mass
■ The SI unit of work done is - Joule
have equivalence.
■ On applying a force of 5 Newton on an object, there
• Work done is path independent only for a is a displacement of 8 meters in it, then the work will
conservative field. be - 40 Joule
• Work done depends on the frame of reference . [Hint - w = f × s]
• Work done by a centripetal force is always zero. ■ The instrument used to measure work done is called
• When work is done on a body, its kinetic or potential - Ergometer
energy increases. ■ A steam engine converts the heat energy of steam
• When the work is done by the body ,its potential or into
kinetic energy decreases. - Mechanical energy
• Potential energy of a system increases when a ■ In which form is the supplied heat energy stored
conservative force does work on it. during change in temperature of substance
• The kinetic energy of a body is always positive. - Kinetic energy
• Mass and energy are inter convertible. That is mass ■ How much mechanical work must be done to
can be converted into energy and energy can be completely melt 1 gram of ice of 0ºC - 336 Joule
converted into mass. ■ If the force is parallel to the direction of
Exam Pointer displacement, then the work done will be
■ In metric system, 1 HP is equal to - 735.5 Watt - Maximum
■ how much power is required to do 40 J of work on an ■ The mechanical efficiency of an engine is - B.H.P.
object in 5 seconds - 8 watt I.H.P.
■ If a man of mass 70 kg climbs up a mountain of ■ Work done is said to be positive if the applied force
height 150 m, then the work done by him will be and the displacement are in .......... direction
- 10,500 kg.m - Same
[Hint, w = f×s ■ Kinetic energy and potential energy are collectively
= 70×150 called as - Mechanical energy
=10,500 kg.m] ■ If the momentum of a moving object is p and mass is
■ Energy possessed by an object due to its motion is m, then the value of kinetic energy in terms of p and
called - Kinetic energy
■ In the British system, the value of 1 HP is - 746 Watt P2
m is -
■ When we sit on the seat of a rubber mattress, it sinks 2m
down there, then the energy contained in the rubber ■ When a body rolls down on inclined plane, it
mattress is - Potential energy possesses - Both kinetic and potential energy
■ The work done in lifting a 36.3 Newton up to a height ■ The efficiency (η) of an ideal machine is equal to
of 3 meters is - 108.9 Joule - η = 100%
[Hint- w = f × s] ■ 1 Kilowatt hour is equal to - 36×105 Joule
General Physics 351 YCT
■ Which energy is used by the human body to do work
- Potential energy
■ If an applied force and displacement of the body are
made at 90º to each other, then the work done is
- Zero
■ The kinetic energy of a body has quadrupled then
new momentum will be
- Double from its initial value
■ The work done against by the friction is - Positive
■ When two elastic bodies collide with each other then
- Both bodies start to regain their initial shape
■ Rocket works on the principle of
- Conservation of momentum
■ Both force and displacement are vectors, then the
work which is the product of force and displacement
is - Scalar
■ The momentum of a light and a heavy body is the
same which has more kinetic energy - lighter body
■ A light and a heavy body have same kinetic energy
which one has grater momentum - heavier body
■ A truck and a car are moving with the same kinetic
energy, then if a force is applied to stop them, then
- Both will cover the same distance
before coming to rest
■ When the mass of body is doubled and velocity is
halved then the kinetic energy of the body is - Half
■ Erg is the unit of - Energy
■ An object of mass 1 kg was moving with velocity 1
m/sec, then the value of kinetic energy will be
- 0.5 Joule
■ If the work done is +ve then direction of force is
- In the direction of displacement
■ When a body is rotating in an infinite plane then its
have
- Both kinetic energy and potential energy
■ Efficiency of ideal machine is equal to -100%
■ Energy used by human body to do work
- Potential energy
■ Rocket is based on the principle of
-Conservation of energy

. Previous Year Questions

1. An object of mass 10kg is moving with a • The particle is moved around the loop and ends up at
uniform velocity of 6ms–1. What is the kinetic 'A' itself then the entire displacement of particle is zero
energy possessed by the object which means that the total work done is zero in closed
(a) 180J (b) 18J path which means that total mechanical energy is
(c) 360J (d) 1800J conserved.
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift I • Total Energy = Potential Energy + Kinetic Energy. If
Ans. (a) : Given: total energy is conserved then gain in K.E is equal to the
Mass (m) = 10 kg loss in P.E.
Velocity (v) = 6 m /sec.
3. An electric heater is used on a 220V supply and
1
We know that, Kinetic Energy (K.E) = mv 2 , where m it takes a current of 2A. How much power does
2 it consume?
is mass and v is the velocity (a) 550 W (b) 440 W
1 (c) 400 W (d) 450 W
⇒ K.E = × 10 × 6 × 6
2 RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift I
So, K.E = 180 Joule Ans. (b) : Given :
2. Which of the given statements are correct for a Voltage = 220V
conservative force field Current = 2A
(p) The total mechanical energy is conserved.
Power (P) = Voltage × Current
(q) The work done round a closed path is zero
= 220V × 2A
(r) Gain in kinetic energy = Loss in potential
= 440 W
energy.
(a) (p) and (q) (b) Only (p) 4. An electric motor is marked 2 HP. The work
(c) (p), (q) and (r) (d) (q) and (r) done by the electric motor in 3 seconds will be
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift I nearly.
Ans. (c) : • Conservative force is defined as the force (a) 373 J (b) 497 J
whose work done is independent of the path taken and (c) 1.5 kJ (d) 4.4 kJ
depends only on the initial and final position. RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift II
• Gravitational forces, elastic forces, magnetic forces Ans. (d) : Given:
etc are the example of conservative force. Power of the motor (P) = 2 HP
Time (t) = 3 sec
From the work done formula- W = P × t
= 2 ×746 × 3 [ ∵ 1 HP = 746 W]
= 4476 Joule
= 4.4 kJ

General Physics 352 YCT

5. Identify the correct statement from among the Here is the diagram when a shot is fired at 30º with the
following. vertical from a point on the ground with kinetic energy
(a) Work and kinetic energy do not have the K.
same unit The path will be parabolic and we have separated it into
(b) Work = Energy × Power
the sine and cosine components as seen in the diagram.
(c) Work is equal to power per unit time
(d) Work and potential energy have the same unit The sine component will come to zero at top because
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift II gravity is acting on it and hence only V cos 60º will
Ans. (d) : The standard unit used to measure energy and remain for the motion.
work done is Joule, which is represented by J. 1
Work can be calculated by multiplying Force with Initial kinetic energy is K = mV 2 ...(i)
2
Displacement in the direction of applied force. Now, we will calculate the kinetic energy at the top
W=F×d
The S.I. unit of work is Joule. 1
most point. It will be K' = m(Vcos60º ) 2 .
• Potential energy is stored in the form of energy that 2
depends upon the relative position of various parts of a 1
system. The value of cos60º = putting it in above equation we
2
P.E = mgh
The S.I. unit of Potential Energy is Joule. 1 2
will get K' = mv ...(ii)
Hence, Work and Potential Energy have the same unit. 8
6. When the momentum of a body is doubled, by 1 2
keeping its mass unchanged, the kinetic energy is mv
Κ' 8
(a) Halved Dividing equation (ii) and (i) we get =
K 1 mv 2
(b) Becomes three times of the original
2
(c) Becomes four times of the original
K
(d) Doubled ⇒ K' = .
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III 4
Ans. (c) : The momentum of a body, (P) = mv Thus the kinetic energy at the top of the trajectory is
Where, m = Mass K
.
v = Velocity of the particle 4
The relation between kinetic energy and the momentum 8. A freely falling body takes 4 s to reach the
is given by- ground. One second after release, the
P2 percentage of its potential energy, that is still
K.E. =
2m retained is
P2 (a) 25% (b) 37.5%
K.E 1 (c) 93.75% (d) 6.25%
⇒ = 2m (According to question) RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III
K.E 2 ( 2P ) 2
Ans. (c) : Given that,
2m Acceleration (a) = g = 10 m/s2 (freefall)
K.E 1 1 Initial velocity (u) = 0
⇒ =
K.E 2 4 t = 4 sec
Hence, If the momentum of a body is doubled, the 1
kinetic energy becomes 4 times of the initial kinetic Height of the body(H) = ut + at2
2
energy.
1
7. A shot is fired at 30º with the vertical from a = 0 + × 10 × 42
point on the ground with kinetic energy K. If 2
air resistance is ignored, the kinetic energy at = 80 m
the top of the trajectory is After 1 sec releases :
(a) K/4 (b) 2K 1
S = ut + at2
(c) K (d) 3K 2
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift III
1
Ans. (a) : ⇒ S = 0 + × 10 × (1)2
2
⇒ S = 5m
So, height (h) = 80 – 5 = 75 m
Potential energy after 1 sec (PE') = mgh = mg × 75 ⇒
(PE') = 75 mg
Initial potential energy (PE) = mgH = 80 mg
General Physics 353 YCT
 PE' 12. A car of mass 800 Kg is moving on an
%PE = ×100 expressway. In order to increase the speed of
PE
the car from 54 km/hr to 90 km/hr the work
75 mg required to be done will be
= ×100
80 mg (a) 150 KJ (b) 160 KJ
⇒ % PE = 93.75% (c) 250 KJ (d) 200 KJ
So, option (c) is correct. RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III
9. Dams are constructed to collect water flowing Ans. (b) : Given that,
in high altitude river. The stored water has a Mass (m) = 800 kg
lot of Initial velocity (v1) = 54 km/hr
(a) Both KE and PE 54 × 1000
(b) Kinetic energy (KE) = = 15 m/sec
3600
(c) Potential energy (PE)
Final velocity (v2) = 90 km/hr
(d) Neither KE nor PE
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I 90 × 1000
= = 25m/sec.
Ans. (c) : The energy possessed by a body (or water) by 3600
virtue of its position or height is called as potential Work done = change in kinetic energy
energy . = ∆K.E
• The water stored in dam posses potential energy. 1 1
= m ( v 2 ) − m ( v1 )
2 2
• Kinetic energy is possessed by flowing water.
2 2
10. A pump is required to lift 600 kg of water per
1
= m ( 25 ) − (15 ) 
minute from a well 25 m deep and to eject it 2 2
2
with a speed 50m/s. If g = 10m/s , the power 2  
required to perform the above task is 1
(a) 20 kW (b) 15 kW = × 800 ( 625 − 225)
2
(c) 10 kW (d) 22.5 kW
1
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I = × 800 × 400
Ans. (b) : Given mass to be lift M = 600kg 2
Depth of well (h) = 25 m = 16 × 104 Joule
Speed (v) = 50 m/s = 160 kJ
g = 10 m/s2 13. The radiant energy of the sun results from the
Total energy required = kinetic energy + Potential process of
energy (a) Combustion (b) Nuclear fusion
1 (c) Nuclear fission (d) Chemical reaction
E= Mv + Mgh2

2 RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III

1 Ans. (b) : The sun generates energy from a process
= × 600 × ( 50 ) + 600 × 25 ×10 = 900000 J
2
called nuclear fusion. During nuclear fusion the high
2
pressure and temperature in the sun's core cause nuclei
Work Energy 900000 to separate from their electrons. Hydrogen nuclei fuse to
Power required = = = = 15kW
Time time 60 form one helium atom. During the fusion process
11. A lorry and a car moving with the same kinetic radiant energy is released.
4
energy are brought to rest by applying the 2 at high ∆T
H1 + 2 H1  → He 2 (+Radiant energy)
same retarding force. Then:
(a) lorry will come to rest in a shorter distance 14. Find the work done (in kJ) if a force of 750 N
(b) car will come to rest in a shorter distance pushes a cart of mass 30 kg by 16 m.
(c) in order to know which one will come to rest (a) 28 (b) 48
in a shorter distance, one needs to know the (c) 36 (d) 12
masses of the lorry and the car RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
(d) both come to rest in same distance Ans : (d) Given,
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift II Force = 750 N
Kinetic energy Displacement (s) = 16 m
Ans. (d) : Stopping distance =
retarding force Work done (w) = F.S cosθ
Where θ = 0, if cosθ = 1
1 mv 2
S= W = 750 × 16 = 12000 J
2 F
If lorry and car both posses same kinetic energy and 12000
W= kJ
retarding force is also equal then both will come to rest 1000
in the same distance. W = 12 kJ
General Physics 354 YCT
15. If the speed of a car increases from 54 km/hr to 17. A boy of 50 kg is riding a scooter of 100 kg
90 km/hr, its kinetic energy would increase in mass at a speed of v m/s. Find v (in m/s) if the
the ratio–––––. kinetic energy of the scooter and the boy is 76.8
(a) 3/5 (b) 4/9 kJ.
(c) 9/16 (d) 9/25 (a) 32 (b) 64
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I (c) 40 (d) 80
Ans : (d) Initial velocity (u) = 54 km/hr RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Final velocity (v) = 90 km/hr
Ans : (a)
1
Kinetic energy = × m × v 2
Total mass of boy and scooter · (50 + 100)kg
2
= 150 kg
(Where, m = mass, v = velocity)
Kinetic energy = 76.8 KJ = 76800 J
Kinetic energy for the initial velocity
v=?
1
= × m × 54 × 54 1
2 Kinetic energy (K) = mv 2
Kinetic energy for the final velocity 2
1
1 ⇒ 76800 = × 150 × ( v )2
= × m × 90 × 90 2
2
So, the ratio of kinetic energy ⇒ 76800 = 75 v2
76800
1
× m × 54 × 54 v2 = = 1024
2 75
=
1
× m × 90 × 90 v2 = 1024 ⇒ v = 32 m/s.
2 18. If 1,200 J of work is done in pushing a trolley
54 × 54 by 20 m, what was the force (in N) employed?
= (a) 30 (b) 90
90 × 90
(c) 120 (d) 60
6.6 3.3 9
= = = RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
10.10 5.5 25
Ans : (d) Given,
16. A truck of mass 5000 kg accelerates from 25 Work (w) = 1200 J
m/s to 35 m/s, Find the change in its kinetic Displacement (d) = 20 m
energy (in MJ). Force (F) = ?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1 Work = Force × displacement
(c) 2 (d) 2.5 ⇒ 1200 = F × 20
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I 1200
Ans : (a) Given, ⇒ F=
20
Mass (m) = 5000 kg So, F = 60 N
Initial velocity (u) = 25 m/s 19. Find the efficiency of a pump (rated 400 W)
Final velocity (v)= 35 m/s that can lift 500 kg of water by 30 m in 10
1 minutes. (Use g = 10m/s2)
Kinetic energy (KE) = mv 2
2 (a) 77.50% (b) 84.00%
Kinetic energy of initial velocity (c) 62.50% (d) 92.00%
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
1
= × 5000 × ( 25) = 1,562,500 J
2
Ans : (c) Given,
2
M = 500 kg
Kinetic energy of final velocity
T = 10 min. = 600 sec.
1
= × 5000 × ( 35 ) = 3,062,500 J
2
Rate of power = 400 W
2 Distance = 30 m.
Change in Kinetic energy ( ∆K.E.) = m ( v − u )
1 2 2 Work = F × s = mg×s = 500 × 10 × 30
2
⇒ W = 15 × 104 Joule
= 3, 06,2500 – 1,56, 2500
 work  15 ×10
4
= 1500, 000 J So, power (P) =  =
= 1.5 MJ  time  600

General Physics 355 YCT

⇒ P = 2.5 × 102 Ans : (b) v1 = 64 km/hrs
v2 = 120 Km/hrs
 Power 
Thus, efficiency =   × 100 Mass is same then
 Rate of power 
1
2.5 ×102 Kinetic energy (K1) = mv12
= ×100 2
400 1
Efficiency = 62.5% = m.(64)2
2
20. A car loses 200 kJ of kinetic energy when its = 2048 …(i)
speed decreases from 25 m/s to 15 m/s. Find its 1
mass in tonnes. K2 = mv22
2
(a) 1 (b) 1.5
1
(c) 2 (d) 2.5 = (120)2 = 7200 …(ii)
2
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
From equation (i) and (ii),
Ans : (a) Change in kinetic energy
7200 225
= × m × ( v 2 − v1 )
1 2 2 Proportionate increase = =
2048 64
2
Let, v2 = 25m/sec and v1 = 15 m/sec 23. Find the power of a pump if it can lift 750 litres
of water by 150 m in 25 minutes. (Assume 75%
200 ×103 = × m × ( 252 − 152 )
1
⇒ 2
efficiency and use g = 10 m/s and density of
2 3
water as 1g/cm )
1
⇒ 200 ×10 = × m × ( 625 − 225 )
3
(a) 1.5kW (b) 1kW
2 (c) 1.2 kW (d) 2kW
1
⇒ 200 ×10 = × m × 400
3 RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
2 Ans : (b) :
⇒ 200 × 103 = 200 m  Total work done  mgh
Power of pump =   =
⇒ m = 1000 kg  time  t
So, m = 1 tonnes  1× 750 × 10 ×150 100 
According to question =  ×
21. A train of mass 50,000 kg accelerates from 5 m/s  25 × 60 75 
to 25 m/s. Find the change in its kinetic energy.
= 1000 Joule/second
(a) 17.5 MJ (b) 12.5 MJ
= 1 kilowatt
(c) 15 MJ (d) 25 MJ
24. Find the work done if a force of 1200 N pushes
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I a trolley of mass 45 kg by 30 m.
1 2 (a) 42 kJ (b) 24 kJ
Ans : (c) : Kinetic energy = mv , let u = 5 m/sec
2 (c) 54 kJ (d) 36 kJ
and v = 25 m/sec. RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
According to the question, Ans : (d) : Given,
The charge in kinetic energy of the train Force (F) = 1200N
Mass (m) = 45kg
1
{
= × 50000 (25)2 − (5) 2
2
} Displacement (S) = 30 m
Work done = F × S
1
= × 50000 × 600 ⇒ W = 1200N × 30m
2
6 W = 36000Nm
= 15 × 10 Joule
W = 36000J
= 15 MJ
So, W = 36 KJ (1KJ = 1000 × J)
22. If the speed of a car increases from 64 km/hr to
25. How much work is required to increase the
120 km/hr then its kinetic energy would speed of a ball of mass 1 kg from 2 m/s to 4
increase in the ratio_______. m/s?
(a) 15/8 (b) 225/64 (a) 10J (b) 12J
(c) 25/16 (d) 125/32 (c) 8J (d) 6J
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
General Physics 356 YCT
Ans: (d) Given ⇒ m = 1kg Ans : (d) Power is defined as the rate at which work is
v2 = 4m/sec done or energy is transferred. Power is a scalar
v1 = 2m/sec quantity. Its S.I. unit is joule/second or watt. If a person
does (w) work in (t) time then power is-
work done = change in kinetic energy (∆U)
W
∆U = m ( v 22 − v12 )
1 P =   joule/second
2  t 
29. Work done will be maximum when the angle
∆U = × 1× ( 42 − 22 )
1
between the direction of force and the direction
2
of displacement is.
1
∆U = (16 − 4 ) (a) 45º (b) 0º
2 (c) 90º (d) 60º
12 RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
∆U = = 6 Joule
2 Ans : (b) : Work = force acting in the direction of
Thus 6 J of work is needed to increase the speed of the displacement
ball from 2 m/sec to 4 m/sec W = F.S cosθ
26. The potential energy of a 20-kg object at height When, θ = 0, work will be maximum because cosθ =1
h is 600 J. The value of h is –––––– (Take g = 10 When the work done is maximum, then the direction of
m/s2). the force and the angle between direction of the
(a) 1m (b) 3m displacement will be 0º or force acting in the direction
(c) 2m (d) 30m of displacement.
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I 30. How much work is done in moving a charge of
Ans : (b) Given, 10 C across two points having a potential
difference 20 V?
Potential energy (U) = 600 J
(a) 200J (b) 0.5J
m = 20 kg
(c) 10J (d) 2J
g = 10 m/sec2
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
∵ U = mgh ⇒ 600 = 20 × 10 × h
Ans : (a) : Q = 10 C
600
h= = 3 meter V = 20 V
200 W=?
27. An object of mass 1 kg is moving with a Work done(W)
velocity 10 m/s. Find the kinetic energy of the ⇒ V=
Charge(Q)
object.
(a) 100J (b) 10J ⇒ W = V × Q = 20×10 = 200 J
(c) 5J (d) 50J 31. A ball of mass m is dropped from a height H.
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I At height H/3, the ratio of its potential energy
Ans : (d) given, (PE) to kinetic energy (KE) is equal to:
m = 1kg, v = 10 m/sec (a) 1 (b) 1/4
KE = ? (c) 1/2 (d) 1/3
1 RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
KE = mv 2
2 Ans : (c) : By the principle of conversation of energy, =
1 Potential energy + Kinetic energy always remain
× 1× (10 )
2
KE =
2 constant.

KE =
100
= 50 Joule P.E  Remaining polential energy 
= 
2 K.E  loss in polential energy 
28. _______ is defined as the time rate at which
2H
work is done or energy is transferred. The object is at distance from the releasing point.
3
(a) Distance (b) Displaement
(c) Force (d) Power 2mgH
So, potential energy at this point =
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I 3

General Physics 357 YCT

 2mgH Ans : (d) : 1 Kilowatt – hours = ? Joule
Hence, loss in energy = = kinetic energy at point.
3 1 Kilowatt = 1000 watt
H mgH 1Hours = 3600 second
At height, potential energy =
3 3 1 Kilowatt = 1000 × 3600 Joule
Potential energy mgH 3 1 = 3.6 × 106 Joule
∵ = × =
Kinetic energy 3 2mgH 2 36. A 100-gram ball is kept on the top of a building
of 70 m height. Find the potential energy of the
32. If the total energy of the reactants is more than
the products of the reaction, heat is released ball (assume g = 10 m/s2).
and the reaction is said to be a/an ___ reaction. (a) 50 J (b) 70J
(a) Work (b) Endothermic (c) 80 J (d) 60J
(c) Potential (d) Exothermic RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II Ans : (b) : Given,
Ans : (d) : If the total energy of the reactants is more mass = 100gm, Height = 70meter, g = 10m/sec2
than the products of the reactions, then the energy is
100
released, in such reactions in the form of heat and are mass = = 0.10 kg
1000
called as an exothermic reaction.
Example:- formation of water, burning of graphic in air Potential energy of ball = 0.10 × 70 × 10
etc. = 70 Joule
33. A girl of weight 440 N climbs up a rope 37. One horse - power (hp) 1 hp = ........... W.
through a height of 7 m in 20 s. The power (a) 746 (b) 500
expended by the girl is: (c) 846 (d) 646
(a) 36 W (b) 15.4 W RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
(c) 72 W (d) 154 W Ans : (a) :1 Horse power (H.P.) = 746 Watt
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
≅ 0.75 Killowatt
Ans : (d) : Weight of girl (W) = mg = 440N
38. A girl weighing 40 kg limbs a rope to a height
Height climed by the girl (h) · 7m [g = 10 m/s2]
of 6 m in 16s. What is the power spent by the
Power (P) = work /time girl ? (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
And work = Force × distance = mgh (a) 150W (b) 210W
mgh 440 × 7 (c) 240W (d) 40W
Power = = = 154 watt
t 20 RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
34. A 0.5 kg ball is relased from the top of a Ans : (a) mass of Girls = 40kg
building of height 20 m. Find the kinetic energy
time taken by rope = 16s
of the ball, just before it hits the ground
and height (h) = 6m
(assume g = 10 m/s2).
(a) 20 J (b) 100J Power spent (P) = ?
(c) 40 J (d) 80J Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10m/sc2
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I W = f.d
= 40×10×6
Ans : (b) : Given,
2 = 2400J
m = 0.5 kg, g = 10m/s , h = 20 m
W 2400
Kinetic energy of a body falling from a height = mgh P= =
= 0.5 ×10 × 20 t 16
= 100J P = 150W
Since the total potential energy (mgh) at the top of the Hence, the power consumed by the girl will be =150.W
building will be converted to kinetic energy before it 39. How much work required to be done to
reaches the ground. increase the speed of a ball of mass 0.4 kg from
35. 1 kilowatt hour (kWh) of energy = ......... joule. 1 m/s to 3m/s?
(a) 1.8 × 106 (b) 1.8 × 104 (a) 1.6J (b) 1.2J
(c) 3.6 × 104 (d) 3.6 × 106 (c) 0.8J (d) 0.4J
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
General Physics 358 YCT
Ans: (a) Let the mass of ball (M) = 0.4kg 1
625 = × 50 × v 2
Work (W) = Change in kinetic energy ( ∆KE ) 2
625
v2 = = 25
m ( v 22 − v12 )
1
= 25
2
v = 5 m/sec
= × ( 0.4 ) × ( 32 − 12 )
1
Hence, the drum was pushed down with a velocity of
2 5m/sec.
So, W = 1.6 J
42. A bus runs with a force of 4000 N. The work
40. If both the mass and speed of a ball are done by the bus is 2000 J. What is the distance
doubled, then how many times will the kinetic covered by the bus?
energy becomes? (a) 1 meter (b) 2 meter
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1.5 meter (d) 0.5 meter
(c) 8 (d) 16 RRB Group-D 06-12-2018 (Shift-III)
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
1 Ans : (d) : Work = force × displacement
Ans : (c) The kinetic energy, K. E = mv 2
2  Work 
’ ’
If m =2m v = 2v Displacement =  
 Force 
1
Then the new kinetic energy ( K.E ) ' = m'v'2 2000 2
2 = = = 0.5 meter
4000 4
1
K.E' = (2m).(2v) 2 43. If a box of mass 25 kg is pushed 15 m by a
2 force of ‘F’ N, work done in the process is 480
1 J. Find F:
= mv 2 .8
2 (a) 16 (b) 32
K.E' = 8 KE (c) 25 (d) 50
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
Hence the kinetic energy becomes 8 times.
Ans : (b) : given,
41. A drum of mass ‘m’ kg was rolled down a
Mass = 25 kg
ramp. At the bottom of the ramp its kinetic
energy was 10 kJ and velocity was 20 m/s. With displacement = 15 meter
what velocity (in m/s) was it pushed down the work = 480 J
ramp if its initial kinetic energy was 625 J? work = force × displacement
(a) 10 (b) 5 480 = F × 15
(c) 7.5 (d) 2.5 480
F= = 32N
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II 15
Ans : (b) Given, 44. A car of 500 kg mass has a kinetic energy of 64
mass of energy = mkg kJ. Find its speed (in m/s).
Kinetic energy (KE) = 10 kJ = 10 × 103 J (a) 32 (b) 16
Velocity (v) = 20 m/s (c) 64 (d) 48
1 RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
K.E = mv 2 Ans : (b) : Given,
2
1 Mass (m) = 500 kg
10 × 103 = × m × 20 2 Kinetic energy (KE) = 64 kJ = 64 × 103 J
2
1
1  KE = mv 2
10 × 103 =  m.20 2  2
2 
1
mass (m) = 50 kg 64 ×103 = × 500 × v 2
2
So, we will get the mass of the drum as 50 kg. when the
kinetic energy was 10 kJ. v = 64 × 4
2

1 v = 16 m/s
Since, KE = mv 2 ∴ speed of car = 16 m/s
2
General Physics 359 YCT
45. A force acting on an object of mass m changes Ans. (a): mass of an object m = 10 kg
its velocity during its course of motion. In Height gained by the object (h) = 2 m
which of the following cases, the work done by
Therefore, work done on the object during this time =
the force is maximum?
(a) When velocity of the object chages from 0 to potential energy acquired by object
v m/s W = mgh = 10 × 9.8 × 2
(b) When velocity of the object changes from v W = 196 Joule
m/s to 3 v m/s
(c) When velocity of the object changes from 2 48. The quantity of work equal to one joule is also
m/s to 3 v m/s equivalent to–
(d) When velocity of the object changes from 3 v (a) watt × second (b) watt/second
m/s to 4 v m/s (c) watt/second2 (d) watt
RRB JE (Shift-I), 29.8.2015
RRB JE (Shift-III), 27.08.2015
Ans. (d) : When the velocity of the objects changes
during the action of force on the object, the kinetic Ans. (a) : Work = Force × displacement
energy of the object also changes- therefore, the Unit of work = Newton × meter = Joule
velocity change of the object for which the change in  Work (W) 
energy is maximum is equal to the maximum amount of Power (P) =  
work done.  time (t) 
(a) Change in kinetic energy of the object Joule
Unit of power = = Watt
( ∆K.E. ) = mv 2 − 0 = 1  mv 2 
1 1 second
2 2  Therefore, watt × second = Joule
(b) Change in kinetic energy of the object Joule = watt × second
( ∆K.E. ) = m ( 2v )2 − mv 2 = 3  mv 2 
1 1 1
49. A 50 kg man uses the energy of bread, which
2 2 2 
produces 100,000 calories of heat, to climb a
(c) Change in kinetic energy of the object
hill If his body works at 30% efficiency, he can
( ∆K.E. ) = m ( 3v )2 − m ( 2v )2 = 5  mv 2 
1 1 1 climb the hill by?
2 2 2  (a) 200m (b) 252m
(d) Change in kinetic energy of the object (c) 246m (d) 258m
1 1 1 
( ∆K.E. ) =
m ( 4v )2 − m ( 3v )2 = 7  mv 2  RRB Trivandrum (Technical), 11.04.1999
2 2 2  Ans. (b) : According to question,
Hence, maximum work is done on the object is in Let the person climb the hill up to a height (h).
option (d).
30 50 ×10 × h
46. A ball of mass 10 kg is moving with a velocity 100000 × = (1Joule = 4.2 calori)
100 4.2
5m/s. The kinetic energy of the ball is
(a) 50 J (b) 125 J 30000 × 4.2
h=
(c) 250 J (d) 25 J 500
RRB JE (Shift-I), 27.08.2015 h = 252 meter
Ans. (b) : mass of the ball m = 10 kg 50. 1 J equivalent .
velocity of the ball v = 5 m/s (a) 1 kg×1m (b) 1 HP×1m
1 (c) 1 N×1m (d) 1 N×1cm
K.E of the ball (K.E) = mv 2
2 RRB Chennai Technician
1 (Engineering), 15.04.2007
K.E = ×10 × ( 5 )2
2 Ans. (c) : If a force 1 Newton is applied on an object
and it is displaced by 1 meter in the direction of force,
K.E = 125 Joule then the work done by the force on the object will be 1
47. An object of 10 kg is raised through a height of joule.
2 m. The work done is (g = 9.8 m/s2) W= F×S
(a) 196 J (b) 98 J W = N–m
(c) 19.6 J (d) 4.9 J = Joule
RRB JE Bhopal Paper II (Shift-II), 26.08.2015 In S.I system it is called absolute unit of work.
General Physics 360 YCT
51. The S.I unit of power (watt) is equal to - Ans. (b): Total height of 30 steps.
(a) kg-meter –second-2 h = 30 × 20 = 600 cm = 6 meter
(b) kg-meter2 –second-2 ∴ Total work done by the person
(c) kg-meter2 –second-3
W = mgh = 60 × 10 × 6 = 3600 Joule
(d) None of these.
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Gorakhpur)-2001 W 3600
P= = = 180 watt
Ans. (c) : The rate of doing work is called power. The t 20
S.I unit of power is the watt. 55. Doubling the mass and halving the velocity of
1 Joule 1N × m kg×m×m body but its kinetic energy will be?
1 Watt = = = 2
second second sec ×sec (a) Half (b) Quarter
2
m × kg (c) Doubled (d) unchanged
1 Watt = 3 RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Chandigarh)-2008
second
Ans. (a) : Suppose a body of mass m moves with
1 Watt = 1 kg – m 2 second -3
velocity (v). The kinetic energy of the body be given
52. A force of 40 Newton’s acts on a body. if an by-
angle of 45° is formed between the line force 1
K. E = mv 2
and the direction of displacement, then tell the 2
value of the work done in displacing the body According to question.
by 2 meters 2
1 v
(a) 40 2 Joule (b) 30 2 Joule K E ' = ( 2m )  
2 2
(c) 20 2 Joule (d) 20 Joule
⇒ K E ' = mv 2  
1 v2 1 1
K. E ' = 2m ×
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Kolkata)-2002 2 4 2 2
Ans. (a) : Work W = F.s cosθ
KE
= (40×2× cos 450) KE ' =
2
1
= 40 × 2 × = 40 2 Joule 56. Erg is unit of.
2
(a) work (b) force
53. Two bodies of equal mass of are moving with
(d) power (c) energy
velocities 3v and 2v respectively. The ratio of
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Bhuvneshwar)-2009
its kinetic energy will
Ans. (a) The unit of work is Joule while 1 Joule = 107
(a) 9:4 (b) 8:2
ergs. That’s why the unit of work is also erg.
(c) 4:9 (d) 2:3
57. A pump lifts 160kg of water to a height of 5m
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Ajmer)-2005
per second. The power of the pump will be- (g
Ans. (a) : According to question, = 10 m/sec2)
V1 = 3v, V2 = 2v (a) 5000 watt (b) 4000 watt
and masses are equal. (c) 6000 watt (d) 8000 watt
Then the ratio of kinetic energy will be- RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.), 26.02.2012
1 Ans. (d) : Work done by the pump W = mgh
mV12
V12 ( 3v )
2
K1 2 9v 2 W = 160 × 10 × 5 = 8000
= = = = =
K 2 1 mV 2 V2 2 ( 2v )2 4v 2 W 8000
2
2 Power of pump = =
t 1
K1 9 = 8000 Watt
=
K2 4 58. A stone of mass 1 kg is observed falling down
54. A man of mass of 60 kg climbs 30 steps of in front of a window 2 m high. The speed of the
length 20 cm each in 20 second. Calculate the stone at the top of the window was 4m/sec.
total work done by the person and his power. g While reaching from the upper end of the
2 window to the lower end, its kinetic energy be
= 10 m/sec
increased by
(a) 130 watt (b) 180 watt
(a) 19.6 Joule (b) 16 Joule
(c) 100 watt (d) 50 watt (c) 8 Joule (d) 39.2 Joule
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Patna)-2007 DMRC Junior Engineer (Electronics), 03.08.2014
General Physics 361 YCT
Ans. (a): Increase in kinetic energy = decrease in Ans. (d):
potential energy. W F × s 100 × 20
= mgh = 1 × 9.8 × 2 Power used P = = = = 200 watt
t t 10
= 19.6 Joule
63. When a force of 6 Newton is applied on a body,
59. A 40kg body runs up a ladder and reaches the the body travels a distance of 2 meters then the
1 value of the work done will be
first floor 9m height in   of a minutes. The
2 (a) 6 × 2 Joule (b) 6 × 22 Joule
power developed by the boy is (c) 4 Joule (d) 6/2 Joule
(a) 600 watt (b) 120 watt RRB Bangalore (Tech.), 22.08.1999
(c) 420 watt (d) 640 watt Ans. (a) : Work done on the body
RRB Bhubaneshwar App. Electrical , 19.08.2001 = force × displacement
Ans. (b) : = 6 × 2 = 12 Joule
Work done by the boy 64. A motor of 1.5k W power raises water 1.5 m
Power of the boy (P) =
Total time taken to do the work high, the work (in Joules) done by the motor in
W mg × h one hours will be
P= = (a) 3.6 × 106 Watt (b) 5.4 × 106 Watt
t t 6
(c) 36 × 10 Watt (d) 54 × 106 Watt
40 × 10 × 9
= RRB Kolkata (Tech.), 29.08.1999
30
Ans. (b) :
= 120 watt
Power of motor (P) = 1.5 kilowatt = 1500 watt
60. A frictional force of 100 Newton acts on a
Then in one hours = 60 × 60 = 3600 second
cyclist. He is going with a speed of 2m/sec his
work done by the motor (W) = P × t = 1500 × 3600
power will be
= 540 × 104 = 5.4 × 106 watt
(a) 100 watt (b) 200 watt
(c) 300 watt (d) 400 watt 65. When a force of 50 Newton is applied to a
P. WAY/SUPERVISOR/CHASING INSPECTORr body, the body is displaced by 5 m making an
angle of 30º. With the line action of the force.
Ans. (b) : Friction force acts on the cycle F = 100 N
The work done on the body is
speed of cycle v = 2m/s
(a) 125 Joule (b) 125 2 Joule
W F.s
The power of cyclist P = = (c) 125 3 Joule (d) 205 3 Joule
t t
=F.V RRB Bhubaneshwar (Tech.), 03.06.2001
P = 100 × 2 Ans. (c) : Work = F.s. cosθ
= 200 watt. = 50×5×cos300
4
61. A man does 6 × 10 Joule of work in one
5 3
minutes. man’s power will be = 50 ×
(a) 104 watt (b) 66 × 104 watt 2
3 3
(c) 110 watt (d) 6 × 10 watt = 125 3 Joule
Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Train 66. To lift a body of mass 30 kg 4000 Joules of
Operators’, 14.09.2003 work is done. How high is the body raised (g =
Ans. (c) : 9.8 Newton/kg)
work done by man (a) 136 meter (b) 1.36 meter
Efficiency of man =
Total time taken to do the work (c) 13.6 meter (d) 0.136 meter
6 × 10 4 RRB Bhubaneshwar App. Elec. Signal
Power of man = = 103 watt
60 Maintainer, 19.08.2001
62. A box is lifted by a pulley system to a distance Ans. (c) : Work done = increase in potential energy of
of 20m in 10 second with a force of 100 the body.
Newton. The power used in this will be- W = mgh ⇒ 4000 = 30 × 9.8 × h
(a) 50 watt (b) 20,000 watt
4000
(c) 2000 watt (d) 200 watt ⇒ h= = 13.6 meter
RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 11.04.1999 30 × 9.8
General Physics 362 YCT
 ■ Heat:- Heat is a form of energy that flows between
4.5 Heat and Temperature a body and its surrounding medium by virtue of
■ Temperature:- Temperature is a relative measure temperature difference between them.
or indication of hotness or coldness of the body.
• The SI unit of temperature is Kelvin (K) • The SI unit of heat energy transferred is expressed in
• Commonly used unit of temperature is degree Joule (J).
Celsius (ºC)
■ Types of Temperature Scale
Symbol for each Lower fixed Upper fixed point Number of Divisions
Name of the scale
scale point (LFP) (UFP) on the scale
Celsius ºC 0ºC 100 ºC 100
Fahrenheit ºF 32 ºF 212 ºF 180
Kelvin K 273.15K 373.15K 100
■ Relationship among different Temperature In these thermometers the length of mercury thread is
scale. taken as thermometric property if length of mercury
column at 0º and 100º are ℓ 0 and ℓ100 respectively.
(2) Gas Thermometer:-
In such thermometers, the pressure of a given mass of
an ideal gas (at constant volume) or volume of a given
mass of an ideal gas (at constant pressure) is the
C−0 F − 32 K − 273.15 X − LFP thermometric property. The reference temperature is
= = = taken as 0ºC (ice point) and 100ºC (Boiling point). The
100 − 0 212 − 32 373.15 − 273.15 UFP − LFP
• Two familiar temperature scales are the Fahrenheit unknown temperature can be calculated as
temperature scale and the Celsius temperature scale.  P − P0 
• The Celsius Temperature (tC) and the Fahrenheit
t(ºC) =  t  × 100 (Constant volume gas
 P 100 − P0 
temperature (tF) are related by
thermometer)
9  V − V0 
t F = t C + 32
5 t(ºC) =  t  × 100
 V 100 − V0 
• Absolute Zero Temperature (0K = –273.15ºC)
Absolute zero is the temperature at which a system (Constant pressure gas thermometer) (0ºC) and steam
is in the state of lowest possible energy. It is also point.
known as thermodynamic temperature. (3) Platinum Resistance Thermometer
In this thermometer, the resistance of platinum wire is
■ Measurement of Temperature taken as thermometric property. The reference
• Thermometer:- The instrument used to measure the temperatures are ice point (100ºC). The unknown
temperature is called thermometer. The thermometers temperature in ºC is given by.
work on the thermometric property, i.e the property
 Rt – R 
which changes with temperature like any physical
t(º C) =  0 ×100  º C =  R t × 273.16  K
quantity such as length, volume pressure and resistance R –R  R 
etc. These quantities varies linearly with a certain range  100 0   tr 
of temperature.Common liquids used in glass Here, temperature coefficient of Resistance (α) is
thermometers are mercury, alcohol etc. whose volume given by
varies linearly with temperature over a wide range.  R − R0 
α =  100 
■ Different types of thermometers  R 0 × 100 
(1) Mercury thermometer:-

S. No. Thermometer Thermometric property Principle

1. Constant volume gas Pressure Ideal gas equation
thermometer
2. Constant pressure gas Volume Ideal gas equation
thermometer
3. Electrical resistance Resistance Wheat- stone bridge
thermometer
4. Thermocouple Thermal E.M.F. Seebeck effect
5. Liquid- in- glass Length Volumetric expansion
thermometer
6. Pyrometer Infrared radiation flux Radiation
7. Magnetic thermometer Paramagnetic Curie's law
General Physics 363 YCT
 Note:- S. No. Materials Coefficient of
linear expansion
• The number of molecules present in 1 gm mole of a
(α) in K-1
gas is defined as Avogadro number N.
1. Aluminium 2.5×10-5
N = 6.023×1023 per gm mole = 6.023×1026 per kg
2. Brass 1.8×10-5
mole.
3. Iron 1.2×10-5
■ Thermometry:- The branch of physics which deals 4. Copper 1.7×10-5
with the measurement of temperature is called 5. Silver 1.9×10-5
thermometry. 6. Gold 1.4×10-5
Few Terms used in Thermometry:- 7. Glass (pyrex) 0.32×10-5
• Melting: - Conversion of solid into liquid state at 8. Lead 0.29×10-5
constant temperature is called melting. (ii) Superficial Expansion:- Superficial expansion of
• Fusion and Freezing point:-The process of change of the material of a lamina is equal to the increase in
state from liquid to solid is called fusion. The unit area of the lamina when its temperature rises to
temperature at which liquid starts to freeze is known as 1ºC.
the freezing point of the liquid. ∆A
• Evaporation: - Conversion of liquid into vapour at all ∆A = Aβ∆T ⇒ β =
A × ∆T
temperatures (even below its boiling point) is called
evaporation Where,
∆A = Change in Area
• Sublimation: - The conversion of a solid into vapour
A = Original Area
state is called sublimation. ∆T = change in Temperature
• Hoar - Frost:- The conversion of vapour into solid β = Coefficient of superficial expansion
state is called Hoar frost.
■ Thermal Expansion (iii) Cubical (volumetric) Expansion:- Expansion in
Almost all substances (solids, liquids and gases) volume on heating is called cubical expansion.
expand on heating and contract on cooling. ∆V
∆V = Vγ∆T ⇒ γ =
The expansion of a substance on heating is called V∆T
thermal expansion of substance. Where,
Note:-Water from 0ºC to 4 ºC and silver iodide from ∆V = Increase in Volume
80ºC to 141ºC contract on heating and expand on V = Original Volume
cooling. γ = Coefficient of cubical expansion
∆T = Increase in temperature.
• Relation between α , β and γ are
β = 2α and γ = 3α
α : β : γ = 1 : 2: 3
• Dimension of α, β and γ are [θ-1] and units are k-1 or
(ºC)-1

(i) Linear expansion:- By Experiments it is observed

that on heating a rod, the increase in its length is (i) Apparent Expansion of Liquids:-
directly proportional to its original length, as increase When expansion of the container containing liquid,
in its temperature. on heating is not taken into account, then observed
∆ℓ expansion is called apparent expansion of liquids.
∆ℓ = ℓα∆T ⇒ α =
ℓ × ∆.T Coefficient of apparent expansion of a liquid.
Where, apparent (or observed) increase in volume
∆ℓ = Increase in length γa =
original volume × change in temperature
ℓ = Original length
α = Coefficient of linear expansion  ∆Va  −1
γa =  ºC
∆T = Change in Temperature  V × ∆T 
General Physics 364 YCT
(ii) Real Expansion of Liquids
When expansion of the container, containing liquid,
on heating is also taken into account then observed
expansion is called real expansion of liquids.
Real Expansion of Liquid = Apparent expansion of
liquid + volume expansion of vessel.
Coefficient of real expansion of a liquid
realincreasein liquid
γr =
original volume × changein temperature
 ∆Vr  −1
=  ºC
 V × ∆T 
Relation between coefficient of real and apparent
expansions- γ r = γ a + Yg
■ Anomalous Expansion of water
When temperature of water is increased from 0ºC, then
its volume decreases upto 4ºC, becomes minimum at
4ºC and then increases. Hence density of water is
maximum at 4ºC because at this point volume is
minimum. This behaviour of water around 4ºC is
called anomalous expansion of water.
■ Thermal Expansion of Gases
There are two types of coefficient of expansion in
gases.
(i) Volume Coefficient (γv) : At constant pressure, the • The specific heat of water = 4180 J kg-1 K-1
change in volume per unit volume per degree Celsius • Specific heat for Hydrogen is maximum
is called volume coefficient.
∆V
γv =
V0 × ( ∆T )
Where,
∆V = change in volumes of the gas
V0 = original volume
∆T = change in Temperature.
General Physics 365
(ii)Pressure coefficient (γP)
At constant volume, the change in pressure per unit
pressure per degree Celsius is called pressure
coefficient.
∆P
γP =
P0 × ( ∆T )
Where,
∆P = change in pressure
P0 = original pressure
∆T = change in Temperature
■ Practical Applications of Thermal Expansion
(i)A glass stopper Jammed in the neck of a glass bottle
can be taken out by heating the neck of the bottle.
(ii) When rails are laid down of the ground space is
provided between the ends of two rails.
(iii) The transmission cable are not tightly fixed to the
poles.
■ Triple point of water-
The values of pressure and temperature at which water
coexists in equilibrium in all three states of matter, i.e.
ice, water and vapour is called triple point of water.
Temperature at triple point = 0.01ºC = 273.16 K.
Pressure at triple point = 0.006 Patm = 4.58 mm of Hg
■ Specific Heat:-
Specific heat of a substance is the amount of heat
required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of
the substance through a unit degree (1º C or 1K). It is
denoted by C or S.
• Its SI unit is Joule/kilogram- ºC or J kg–1 K–1 and its
dimensional formula is [L2T-2θ-1]
The value of specific heat (S) will depend upon nature
of the substance, and will obviously be different for
different substances.
Q
S=
m∆T
(3.5
cal/(gºC)) and for water 1 cal g-1 ºC–1.
• For Radon and Actinium, specific heat is minimum (=
0.022 cal g-1 ºC-1)
• Specific heat of a substance depends also on the state
of the substance i.e solid, liquid or gas. For example
Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal g-1 ºC-1,
Specific heat of water = 1 cal g-1 ºC-1
Specific heat of steam = 0.47 cal g-1 ºC-1
YCT
• Gases have two types of specific heat such as specific • Steam converted to water at 100ºC , then it gives out
heat capacity at constant volume Cv and at constant 536 cal of heat, so it is clear that steam at 100ºC has
pressure Cp. more heat than water at 100ºC (i.e boiling of water).
For molar specific heats Cp - Cv = R where R = gas • After snow falls, the temperature of the atmosphere
constant and this relation is called Mayer's formula. becomes very low. This is because the snow absorbs
• Specific heat ratio of adiabatic index is given as, the heat from the atmosphere to melt down. So in the
Cp mountains, when snow falls, one does not feel too cold
γ= but when ice melts he feels too cold.
Cv • There is more shivering effect of ice-cream on teeth as
The value of γ depends on atomicity of the gas. compared to that of water (obtained from ice). This is
■ Heat capacity or Thermal Capacity. because when ice-cream melts down, it absorbs large
The capacity of a body is defined as the amount of amount of heat from teeth.
heat required to raise the temperature of the (whole) ■ Joule's Law:-
body through 1ºC or 1K. According to Joule, when ever heat is converted into
∆Q = ms∆T work or work is converted into heat, then the ratio
When, between work and heat is constant.
∆T = 1 W
= J, Where J is mechanical equivalent of heat and
∆Q = ms Q
∆Q = Thermal capacity J = 4.2 J. Cal–1
Hence thermal capacity of a body is the product of ■ Calorimetry
mass and specific heat of the body. This is the branch of heat transfer that deals with the
Its unit is Jk-1 or Cal ºC-1 measurement of heat. The heat is usually measured in
■ Water Equivalent:- calories or kilo calories.
It is the quantity of water whose thermal capacity is ■ Principle of calorimetry:-
same as the heat capacity of the body. It is denoted by When a hot body is mixed with a cold body, then heat
W lost by hot body is equal to the heat gained by cold
W = ms = heat capacity of the body. body.
Its expressed in the unit gram. Heat lost = Heat gained.
■ Latent Heat:- If two substances having masses m1 and m2, specific
Latent heat of a substance is the amount of heat energy heats C1 and C2 kept at temperature T1 and T2 (T1 >
required to change the state of unit mass of the T2) are mixed, such that, temperature of mixture at
substance from solid to liquid and from liquid to equilibrium is Tmix then,
gas/vapour without any change in Temperature. m1C1 (T2 –Tmix ) = m2C2 (Tmix –T2 )
Quantity of heat (Q) m C T + m 2 C 2 T2
Latent heat (L) = Tmix = 1 1 1
Mass of substance (M) m C +m C
1 1 2 2
• Its unit is measured in J kg-1 or Cal g-1 Note:- Principle of calorimetry follows the law of
• Latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal. g-1 =3.33×105 conservation of heat energy.
J/kg ■ Heating curve:-
• Latent heat of vaporisation of water is 540 cal g-1 or When a substance is given the heat, it undergoes rise
22.6 × 105 J/kg. in temperature and change of state at specific
■ Few examples to understand Latent heat temperatures. The graph showing the change in
• It is more painful to get burnt by steam rather than by temperature and state of the substance with time is
boiling water at 100ºC. called the heating curve.
General Physics 366 YCT
 (I)Conduction:- In conduction, heat is transferred
from one point to another point without the actual
motion of heated particles.
Key points:-
(i) Heat Transfer due to Temperature difference.
(ii) Heat transfer due to free electron or vibration of
molecules.
(iii) Heat transfer in solid body (in mercury also)
(iv) It is slow process.
(v) In conduction irregular path follows
■ Fourier law of heat Conduction-
1
• Specific heat (or thermal capacity) ∝ Rate of heat flow Q = −
kAdT
Slope of curve dx
• Latent heat ∝ Length of horizontal line. ■ Thermal conductivity:-
■ Heating curve of water:- Thermal conductivity of a solid is a measure of the
ability of the solid to conduct heat through it. It is
denoted by 'k'

dQ T2
T1
dt A

dQ −kAdT Q kA(T1 − T2 )
Rate of heat flow = or =
dt dx t ℓ
ℓ
Thermal resistance RH =
Modes of Heat Transfer kA
■ Transfer of Heat SI units of k are
Joule / sec
= Wm −1K −1
Heat is a form of energy which can be transferred from m2 k / m
one part of the system to another part of system due to CGS unit of k are cal sec–1cm–1ºC–1
temperature difference. • The value of k is large in case of good conductors
■ There are three modes of heat transfer and it small in the case of insulator.
(I) Conduction • ksolid > kliquid > kgas (due to shape & size of matter or
(II) Convection orientation of atoms in molecules)
(III) Radiation
■ Variation of Thermal conductivity with Temperature -
S. No. Phase Temperature Effect Cause
1. Solid Increase Conductivity The crystal configuration of
decrease solid is affected and they
start to occupy random
positions.
2. Liquid Increase Conductivity The liquids expand and try to
decrease attain gaseous configuration.
3. Gas Increase Conductivity The gas molecules collide at
Increases higher rate and momentum
transfer due to collision
increases.
■ Applications:- ■ Rods in parallel:
(a) Rods in series

In parallel, the total thermal resistance is given by -

Total equivalent thermal resistance (R) is equal to sum
of individual thermal resistances i.e. 1 1 1 1 1
Req = R1 + R2 + R3 = + + .... = + + .....
R e q R1 R 2  1 ℓ1   1 ℓ 2 
 1 ℓ1   1 ℓ 2     
+… =  +  + .....  k1 A1   k 2 A 2 
 k1 A1   k 2 A 2 
General Physics 367 YCT
(II) Convection:- It is a mode of transfer of heat from The emission of thermal radiation which (range are
one part of the medium to another part by the actual lies between wavelength of 10-5 µm and 104 µm)
movement of heated particles of the medium. depends upon the nature, temperature and state of the
Key points:- emitting surface. However, with gases the dependence
(i) Heat transfer due to density difference
is also upon the thickness of the emitting layer and
(ii) In convection actual motion of particles.
(iii) Heat transfer in fluids (Liquid & Gas) the pressure.
(iv) It is slow process. Key points:-
(v) It follow irregular path. (i) Heat transfer without any medium.
■ Newton's law of cooling:- (ii) It is an Electromagnetic radiation
It states that the rate of loss of heat of a body is (iii) Radiation acts in all form (Solid + liquid + Gas)
directly proportional to the difference in temperature (iv) It is fast process (with speed of light c=3×108ms-1)
of the body and the surroundings, provided the (v) Path of radiation is straight line like "light"
difference in temperature is small, not more than ■ Stefan's Boltzmann law:-
40ºC Radiated energy emitted by a perfect black body per
dT unit area per second is directly proportional to fourth
= k(T1 − T0 ) ⇒ T = T0 + (T1 -T0 )e -kt

dt power of absolute temperature.

E ∝ T 4 or E = σT 4
Where σ is a constant of proportionality and is called
TºC
Stefan's constant. Its value is 5.67×10–8 Wm–2 K–4
• If the body at temperature T is surrounded by a body
at temperature T0 then Stefan's law -
E = σ (T14 -T04 )
Where , • For a general body:
T = Temperature of body
T0 = Temperature of surrounding E = εσ (T14 -T04 )
k = constant of proportionality Here 'ε' is taken as emissivity of both the body and the
When a body cools from T1 to T2 in time 't' in a
enclosure.
surrounding of temperature T0 then,
■ Prevost's theory of heat exchange:-
T1 − T2  T − T2 
= k 1 − T0  A body is simultaneously emitting radiations to its
t  2  surrounding and absorbing radiations from the
(III) Radiation:-Radiation is the energy emitted by the surroundings.
matter by the mechanism of photon emission or If surrounding temperature is T0 then
electromagnetic wave emission as result of changes
in the electronic configuration of the atoms and E net = εσ (T14 -T04 )
molecules. Because the mechanism of transmission ■ Kirchhoff's Law
is photon emission, unlike conduction and
• According to Kirchhoff's law, the ratio of emissive
convection, there is no need of intermediate matter
to enable to transmission. In radiation, the internal power to absorptive power is same for all surfaces at
energy of the object decreases. the same temperature and is equal to the emissive
Electromagnetic Spectrum:- power of a perfectly black body at that temperature.
All the electromagnetic waves are classified in • If a and e represent absorptive and emissive power of a
terms of the wave length and are propagated at the e E
speed of light (c) i.e., 3×108 m/s. The difference perfectly black body then = = constant for all
a A
between one form of radiation and another lies only
in its frequency (f) and wavelength (λ) which is surface.
related by the given figure. • For a perfectly black body A = 1 so, for any surface
e
= E for the radiation of a particular wavelength
a
eλ E λ e
= ⇒ λ = Eλ .
a λ Aλ aλ
Since Eλ is constant at a given temperature hence
according to this law, if a surface is a good absorber of
a particular wavelength it is also a good absorber and
bad emitter.
General Physics 368 YCT
■ Perfectly black body Where,
• A perfectly black body is that which absorbs RS = Radius of sun
completely all the radiation of all wavelengths incident r = average distance between Sun and Earth.
on it. s = 2 cal cm–2 min = 1.4 kWm–2
• A perfectly Black body maintained at a suitable T = Temperature of sun ≈ 5800K
temperature emits radiations of all wavelengths.
• A perfectly black body neither reflects nor transmits Kinetic Theory of Gases
any radiation, it will always appear black whatever be It relates the macroscopic properties of gases to the
the colour of the incident radiation microscopic properties of gas molecule.
■ Absorptive Power:- ■ Basic Postulates of kinetic theory of gases:-
Absorptive power of a surface is defined as the ratio of
the radiant energy absorbed by it in a given time to the
• Every gas consists of extremely small particles known
as molecules. The molecules of a given gas are all
total radiant energy incident on it in the same time. It
identical but are different than those another gas.
is represented by 'a'
( ∆Q )absorbed • The molecules of a gas are identical, spherical rigid,
a= and perfectly elastic point masses.
( ∆Q )incident • The size is negligible in comparison to inter molecular
• For a perfectly black body absorptive power is distance.
maximum and it is unity. ■ Assumptions of kinetic theory of Gases
• It has no units and dimension. • The space occupied by the molecules is much smaller
■ Emissive power:-
than the volume of the gas.
• For a given surface it is defined as the radiant energy • There is no force of attraction among the molecules.
emitted per unit area of the surface. The pressure of a gas is due to elastic collision of gas
• It is represented by 'e' molecules with the walls of the container.
• Emissive power of a surface depends on its nature and • The time of contact of a moving molecule with the
temperature. walls of the container is negligible as compared to the
• Emissive power (e) of given wavelengths of radiations time interval between two successive collisions.
emitted range from 0 to ∞, e = ∫ eλ dλ
∞ • Gravitational attraction among the molecules is
0 ineffective due to extremely small masses.
'e' is measured in Joule sec–1 metre–2 or Wm–2 ■ Gas Laws:-Through experiments, it was established
■ Wein's Displacement law:- that gases irrespective of their nature obey the
Product of the wavelength λm of most intense radiation following laws-
emitted by a black body and absolute temperature of ■ Boyle's Law:- According to Boyle's Law, At
the black body is a constant, λmT = b = 2.89×10–3mK constant temperature the volume (V) of given mass of
where b = Wein's constant. a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure (P) i.e.

1
∞ P∝ ⇒ PV = constant.
• Area under eλ –λ graph = ∫ e λ dλ = σ T 4
V
0
For a given gas,
■ Solar constant:- P 1V 1 = P 2V 2
The solar radiant energy received per unit area per unit
■ Charles Law:- According to this law, when pressure
time by a black surface held at right angles to the sun's
(P) of a certain mass of a gas is kept constant the
rays and placed at the mean distance of the earth (in
volume 'V' occupied by the gas is directly proportional
the absence of atmosphere) is called solar constant.
to the temperature T of the gas i.e when P is constant.
Solar constant is represented by 's'
V
P 4πR s2 σT 4 V ∝ T ⇒ = constant.
s= = T
4πr 2 4πr 2 For a given gas,
2
R  V1 V2
= σ  S  T4 =
 r  T1 T2

General Physics 369 YCT

 At constant pressure, the volume (V) of a given mass ■ Dalton's Law of Partial Pressure:-
1 It states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of
of a gas increases or decreases by of its non-reactive ideal gases is equal to sum of the partial
273.15
pressures which each would exert, if it alone occupied
volume at 0ºC for each 1ºC rise or fall in temperature.
the same volume at the given temperature.
Hence,
P = P1 + P2 + P3 + ……
■ Ideal or Perfect Gas Equation
Gases which obey all gas laws in all conditions of
pressure and temperature are called perfect gases.
■ Equation of Perfect gas
Volume of the gas at t ºC, PV = nRT
Where,
 t 
Vt = V0  1 +  P = Pressure
 273.15  V = Volume
where V0 is the volume of gas at 0ºC. T = Absolute temperature
■ Gay Lussac's Law or Renault's Law:- R = Universal gas constant
At constant volume, the pressure 'P' of a given mass of n = Number of moles of a gas
gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature R = 8.31 J mol-1 K-1
T i.e ■ Graham's law of diffusion:-
P It states that the rates of diffusion of two gases are
P ∝ T ⇒ = constant. inversely proportional to the square roots of their
T
densities.
For a given gas,
1
P1 P2 r∝ , which is Graham's law of diffusion
= ρ
T1 T2
For a given gas
At constant volume, the pressure P of a given mass of
1 r1 ρ2
a gas increases or decreases by of its pressure =
273.15 r2 ρ1
at 0ºC for each 1ºC rise or fall in temperature. Where, r1 & r2 are the rates of diffusion and ρ1 & ρ2
are densities.
■ Real Gases:-
Real gases deviate slightly from ideal gas Laws
because-
• Real gas molecules attract each other.
• Real gas molecules occupy a finite volume.
■ Real or Vander Waal's Gas equation :-
 an 
 P + 2  ( V − nb ) = nRT
Pressure of the gas at t ºC,
 t   V 
Pt = P0  1 + 
 273.15  Where, a and b are called Vander Waal's constants.
Where P0 is the volume of gas at 0ºC. • Dimension of [a] = [ML5T-2] & [b] = [L3]
■ Avogadro's Law:- • Units of a = N – m4 – mole2 & b = m3
It states that equal volumes of all gases under identical Note:- Real gases obey ideal gas equation at high
conditions of temperature and pressure contain the temperature and low pressure.
same number of molecules this statement is called ■ Pressure of a gas:-
Avogadro's hypothesis. According to Avogadro's Law The pressure exerted by the gas is due to the
N1 = N2, where N1 and N2 are number of molecules in continuous bombardment of gas molecules against the
two gases respectively. walls of the container.
• The number of molecules present in 1 g mole of a gas Pressure due to an ideal gas is given by
is defined as Avogadro's number (NA). 1 mn 2 1 2
P= Vrms = ρVrms
NA = 6.023×1023 per gram mole. 3 V 3
• At STP or NTP (T = 273K and P = 1atm) 22.4 L of • For one mole of an ideal gas
each gas has 6.023×1023 molecules. 1M 2
• One mole of any gas at STP occupies 22.4 l of volume. P= Vrms
3V
General Physics 370 YCT
 Where, (x) With rise in temperature RMS speed of gas
m = mass of one molecule molecules increases as- Vrms ∝ T
n = number of molecules (xi) With the increase in molecular weight rms speed of
V = Volume of gas,
1
Vrms = root mean square (rms) velocity of the gas gas molecule decrease as Vrms ∝
M
molecules
(xii) RMS speed of gas molecules is of the order of
M = Molecular weight of the gas.
km/s, e.g. at NTP for hydrogen gas
• If P is the pressure of the gas and E is the kinetic
energy per unit volume then, 3RT 3 × 8.31× 273
Vrms = = = 1.84
2 M 2 × 103
P=
E (xiii) RMS speed of gas molecules does not depend on
3
the pressure of gas (If temperature remains
■ Kinetic energy of a Gas and speed of Gas constant) because P ∝ ρ (Boyle's law). If pressure is
molecules:-
(i) Average kinetic energy of translation per molecules increased n times, then density will also increase by
of a gas is given by n times but Vrms remains constant.
■ Degree of Freedom:-
3
E= kT It is defined as the total number of co-ordinates or
2 independent quantities required to describe completely
Where k = Boltzmann's constant. the position and configuration of the system.
(ii) Average kinetic energy of translation per mole of a It is denoted by f or N.
gas is given by Mathematically, Degree of freedom of a system is
3 given by
E= RT f or N = 3A - R
2
Where A = Number of particles in the system
where R = Universal gas constant. R = Number of independent relations among
(iii) For a given gas kinetic energy, E ∝ T the particles.
E1 T1 ■ Degree of freedom (DOF) for different atomic
⇒ =
E 2 T2 particles are given below.
(i) Mono-atomic gases:-
(iv) Root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is
Consists only of one atom (i.e. point mass) has 3, DOF
given by
(all translatory motion only) e.g. (Neon, argon, helium
3RT 3P etc)
Vrms = =
M ρ (ii) Di-atomic Gases:-
consists of two atoms and shows translatory motion (3
(v) For a given gas, Vrms ∝ T 'DOF') and rotatory motion (2 'DOF') = 5 'DOF' e.g.
1 (Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen etc)
(vi) For different gases, Vrms ∝
M (iii) Triatomic gas:-
R •Linear triatomic gas = 7 DOF (3 translational, 3
(vii) Boltmann's constant, k = rotational and 1 vibrational)
NA
•Non-Linear triatomic gas = 6 DOF (3-translational, 3-
where R is an ideal gas constant rotational)
NA = Avogadro Number ■ Specific heat of a gas:-
k = 1.38×10-23J/k
f
(viii) The average speed of molecules of a gas is given (a) At constant volume, Cv = R.
by 2
f 
(b) At constant pressure Cp =  + 1 R.
8kT 8RT 2 
Vavg = = (c) Ratio of specific heats of a gas all-constant pressure
πM πM
and at constant volume is given by
(ix) The most probable speed of molecules Vmp of a gas
2 Cp
is given by γ = 1+ =
f Cv
2KT 2RT
Vmp = = Specific heat of solids, C = 3R = 24.93 Jmol-1k-1
m M Specific heat of water, C = 9R = 74.97 Jmol-1k-1
Vrms > Vavg > Vmp Where, R = 3.31 Jmol-1k-1

General Physics 371 YCT

 Nature of gas u= f RT C v=
du f
= R CP = CV + R Cp 2
dT 2 γ= = 1+
2 Cv f

Monoatomic 3 3 5 1.67
RT R R
2 2 2

Dia-and linear poly 5 5 7 1.4

RT R R
atomic 2 2 2

Non-linear 3RT 3R 4R 1.33

polyatomic
■ Law of Equipartition of energy:- 3RT
According to this law, for any dynamical system in Vrms =
thermal equilibrium at temperature T (Kelvin), the M
total energy (translational, rotational and vibrational) Vrms ∝ T
is distributed equally among all the degrees of
freedom, and energy associated with each molecule The absolute temperature of an ideal gas is directly
1 proportional to mean square velocity of its molecule.
per degree of freedom is kT , where k is Boltzmann
2 1
Also MVrms 2
= RT (n = 1)
constant. 3
■ Mean Free Path:-
1 M 2 R
The average distance travelled by a molecule between ⇒ Vrms = T
two successive collisions is called mean free path (λ) 3 N 0 N 0
Mean free path is given by 1 3 R
kT ⇒ MVrms 2
= kT (k = = Boltzmann constant)
λ= 2 2 N A
2πσ 2 P
3
where σ = diameter of the molecule ⇒ (K.E)Trans = kT
P = pressure of gas 2
T = Temperature
k = Boltzmann constant ⇒ (K.E)Trans ∝ T
λ = Mean free path.
1 2
Note:- Where MVrms is average translational energy per
1 2
(1) Mean free path, λ ∝ T and λ ∝ molecules.
P
■ Critical Temperature:-
R
(2) Use Ideal gas equation (PV = nRT) and =k The Maximum temperature below which a gas can be
NA liquefied by pressure alone it is represented by 'TC'
1 8a
λ= TC =
2nπ(σ) 2
27Rb
■ Kinetic interpretation of pressure:- Where a & b are Vander Waal constant and R is Gas
1 constant.
2
P×V = mNVrms ■ Critical Volume:-
3
The volume of one mole of a gas liquefied at critical
Where, temperature is known as critical volume.
m = mass of molecule
It is represented by VC.
N = no. of molecule.
■ Kinetic interpretation of Temperature Critical volume VC = 3b
According to kinetic theory of gases, for 1 mole of an ■ Critical Pressure is the maximum pressure required for
ideal gas the liquefaction of gases at the critical temperature. It
1M is represented by PC.
P= (Vrms )2
3V a
PC = 2
1 27b
PV = M(Vrms ) 2 (here M = Total mass)
3 PC VC 3
Note:- For real gas = is called critical
3PV 3RT R TC 8
2
So, (Vrms) = = (PV = nRT , n = 1 mole)
M M coefficient and is same for all gases.
General Physics 372 YCT
 Thermodynamics
It is the branch of physics which deals with conversion
of thermal energy to mechanical energy or other forms
of energy, and vice versa,
Thermodynamic Terms:-
In order to understand these transformations we need
to understand the terms given below-
■ Isothermal Process:-
■ Thermodynamics System:- A thermodynamics
system defined as finite quantity of matter of a • It is a thermodynamic process in which the
prescribed region of space on which analysis is temperature of the system remains constant (PV =
focused. Constant).
• It is very slow process

Example:- Quantity of steam mixture of vapour and ■ Adiabatic Process:-

gas in I.C. engine.
■ Thermodynamic state Variables and Equation of
state:-
• Thermodynamic state variables of a system are the
parameters which describe equilibrium states of the
system.
• A thermodynamic system can be completely specified
by the variables like pressure (P), volume (V),
temperature (T), internal energy (u).
• The variables P, V, T and u whose knowledge specifies
the state of a thermo-dynamical system, are called as
thermodynamic variables /parameters.
■ Different Thermo dynamical Processes
(1) Isobaric Process
(a) It is thermodynamic process in which pressure is
V Efficiency of the cycle is given by
kept constant i.e = constant
T Work done
(b) The amount of heat energy transferred is given by
∆Q = n CP ∆T (n = number of moles)
(c) In the adjoining figure, graphs I and II represent
Isobaric expansion and compression respectively.
• It is a process taking place in a thermodynamic system
for which there is no exchange of heat between the
system and its surroundings.
• Adiabatic processes are very fast processes.
• This process follows Poisson's law, according to which
Tγ
PVγ = TVγ-1 = γ = constant.
P −1
• From dQ = nCdT, Cadi = O as dQ = 0 i.e Molar heat
capacity for Adiabatic process is Zero.
■ Cyclic process:-
When a thermodynamic system returns to its initial
state after passing through several states, then it is
called a cyclic process.
For cyclic process dU = o
or dQ = dW
η=
Heat supplied
work done by the cycle can be computed from area
enclosed by cycle on P-V curve.

■ Isochoric (Isometric) process:-

(a) It is thermodynamic process in which the volume of
the system remains constant (P/T = constant).
(b) The amount of heat energy transferred is given by
∆Q = n CV ∆T (n = number of moles)
(c) In the adjoining figure, graphs I and II represent
Isochoric processes.
General Physics 373 YCT
■ Polytropic Process ■ Applications of the First law of Thermodynamics
Polytropic is a thermodynamic process that obeys the • For Isobaric Process:-
relation P = constant ⇒ V ∝ T
PVn = C Q = mCP∆T, dU = mCV∆T
The polytopic index will take any value between 0 to W = P(V2 – V1) = mCV∆T
∞, depending on the process • For Isothermal Process:-
Process Value of n (PVn = C) Temperature = Constant ⇒ dU = 0
Isobaric (dP = 0) n=0 The first law of thermodynamics
Isothermal (dT = 0) n=1 δQ = dU + δW
Polytropic n=n δQ = 0 + δW = δW
δQ = δW
Adiabatic (δQ = 0) n = γ = 1.4
i.e Heat supplied in an isothermal process is used
Isochoric (dV = 0) n=∞ entirely to do work against the external surroundings.
• Graphical Comparison of thermodynamic process • For Adiabatic process:-
δQ = 0
The first law of thermodynamics
δQ = dU + δW = 0 or dU = – δW
• For cyclic process:-
dU = 0
The first law of thermodynamics
δQ = dU + δW
δQ = δW
From the graph Workdoneadiabetic < WorkdoneIsothermal < • For Melting process:-
WorkdoneIsobaric When a substance melts, the change in its volume (dv)
is very small therefore, it can be neglected.
■ Zeroth law of thermodynamics
When a body 'A' is in thermal equilibrium with δW = pdV = p× 0 = 0
First law of thermodynamics
another body 'b' and also separately in thermal
δQ = dU + δW
equilibrium with a body 'C', then body 'B' and 'C' will
mL = dU + 0 (∴δQ = mL)
also be in thermal equilibrium with each other.
Where L = Latent heat.
• For Boiling Process:-
Work done in expansion δW = pdV = P(V2 –V1)
δQ = mL
According to first law of thermodynamics.
• Temperature measurement is based on Zeroth law of
δQ = dU + δW
thermodynamics
mL = dU + P(V2 – V1)
■ First law of Thermodynamics:- Where L = Latent Heat.
(i) First law of thermodynamics is equivalent to law of ■ Second Law of The Thermodynamics:-
conservation of energy. The second law of thermodynamic can be stated in
(ii)According to this law, If heat ∆Q is added to a system number of ways, out of which the following two forms
then it will be used either as change in internal energy are important-
∆U of the system or as work ∆W performed by the • Kelvin Planck Statement:-
system i.e It is impossible for an engine operating in a cyclic
process to extract heat from a reservoir and convert it
δQ = dU + δW completely into work.
W = ∫PdV • Clausius Statement:-
du = nCv∆T It is impossible for a self acting machine unaided by
■ Sign Convention:- any external agency to transfer of heat from cold to hot
reservoir i.e heat by itself cannot pass from a colder to
• Heat absorbed by the system → positive hotter.
• Heat rejected by the system → negative ■ Entropy:-
• Work done by the system → positive Entropy is related to the disorder in the system.
• Work done on the system → negative Greater the randomness or disorderness, greater the
• When temperature. rise, internal energy increases. → dQ
positive entropy. Change in entropy is given by ds =
T
• When temperature. fall, internal energy decreases → Where dQ = heat supplied to the system
negative T = absolute Temperature.
General Physics 374 YCT
 Note:- Q1 = Heat absorbed from source.
(i) Entropy is a physical quantity that remains constant Q2 = Heat is rejected to the sink.
during a reversible adiabatic change. T1 and T2 are Temperatures of source and sink.
(ii) Entropy of a system increases in an irreversible
process.
(iii) Entropy of universe never decreases i.e. ds ≥ 0.
■ Clausius Equality & Inequality
According to Clausius theorem for a cyclic process-
(1) External Combustion Engine:-
∂Q
1. ∫ =0 Reversible process Heat is produced by burning fuel in a chamber outside
T the main body of the engine e.g. steam engine.
∂Q Note:- Thermal efficiency of a steam engine varies
2. ∫ <0 Irreversible process
T 12% to 16%.
∂Q (2) Internal Combustion Engine:-
3. ∫ >0 Impossible Heat is produced by burning the fuel inside the main
T
■ Change in Entropy for solids and liquids body of the engine e.g. Petrol engine, Diesel engine
• When heat is supplied to a solid and its state changes Note:- The theoretical value of thermal efficiency of
such that temperature remains constant, then change in an internal combustion engine is about 52%
∆Q ■ Carnot's cycle:-
entropy, ∆S = Carnot devised an ideal cycle of operation for a heat
T
engine called Carnot's cycle.
∆Q ± mL
dS = = Carnot cycle consists of the following four stages.
T T 1. Isothermal expansion
• Heat absorbed → Positive sign 2. Adiabatic expansion
• Heat rejected → Negative sign. 3. Isothermal compression
• When temperature of a substance changes from T1 to 4. Adiabatic compression.
T2 then
dQ T2 dT T 
dS = ∫ = mC ∫ = mCℓn  2 
T T1 T  T1 
T 
= 2.303 mC log10  2 
 T1 
Where M = mass of the substance
C = specific heat of the substance. AB = Isothermal expansion (AB)
■ Heat engine:- BC = Adiabatic expansion
A heat engine is a device which converts heat energy CD = Isothermal compression
into mechanical energy. DA = Adiabatic compression
A heat engine essentially consists of three parts. The network done per cycle by the engine is
(1) Source of heat at higher temperature numerically equal to the area of the loop representing
(2) Working substance. the Carnot's cycle.
(3) Sink of heat at lower temperature. From the Carnot cycle for doing the calculations for
different processes,
Q 2 T2
=
Q1 T1
Therefore, efficiency of the cycle is
T Q
W = Q1 – Q 2 η = 1 − 2 or 1 − 2
T1 Q1
■ Thermal efficiency of heat engine is given by-
Net work done / cycle (w) ■ Refrigerator or Heat pump:
η= (1) A refrigerator or heat pump is basically a heat
Total amount of heat absorbed / cycle (Q1 )
engine running in reverse direction. In it working
Q1 − Q 2 substances takes heat Q2 from a body at lower
η=
Q1 temperature T2 has a net amount of work done on it by
Q2 T an external agent (usually compressor) and gives out a
η = 1− = 1− 2 larger amount of heat Q1 to a hot body at temperature
Q1 T1
T1 usually atmosphere.
General Physics 375 YCT
 (2) A refrigerator or heat pump transfers heat from a
cold to a hot body at the expense of mechanical
energy supplied to it by an external agent.
The working substance here is called Refrigerant and
works in cyclic process.
Efficient of Performance of refrigerator.......
Efficient of performance of refrigerator is defined as
β =
Heat extracted from the reservoir at low temperature (T2 )
work done to transfer the heat
Q2 Q2 1 Q
β= = ⇒ = 1 −1
W Q1 − Q 2 β Q2
(4) A perfect refrigerator is one which transfers heat
from cold to hot body without doing any work i.e w =0
So, that Q1 = Q2 and hence for it β → ∞.
Exam Pointer
■ The SI unit of temperature is - Kelvin ■ When water is filled in a bottle and is allowed to
■ The SI unit of energy is - Joule freeze, the bottle breaks because -
■ Who invented the centigrade scale - Anders Celsius Water expands on freezing
■ Temperature of distant luminous bodies can be ■ At what temperature is the density of water maximum
determined by - Pyrometers - At 4ºC
■ In which layer of atmosphere, temperature remains ■ When two pieces of ice are pressed together, then
constant with increase in altitude. - Stratosphere they stick together because
■ Heat is transmitted from higher to lower temperature - An increase in pressure decreases the
through actual motion of the molecules by melting point of ice.
- Convection ■ Which law justified, that energy can neither be
■ If the temperature of a liquid is 32ºF, then its created nor destroyed - Conservation of energy
temperature in Celsius is - 0ºC ■ The normal temperature of the human body in terms
of Kelvin is - 310 K
■ Water is used in hot water bags because
■ The normal body temperature of the human being is
- It has high specific heat
- 98ºF
■ Why does ice covered in sawdust not melt quickly?
■ The body temperature of a healthy human being is
- Sawdust is a bad conductor of heat
- 37ºC
■ The difference in boiling point of liquids is due to
■ The transmission of heat by molecular movement is
- Difference in pressure
called - Convection
■ Which is most important for absorption of heat
radiated from the sun as well as from the earth ■ Dew is not formed in turbulent (high wind blow)
- Carbon dioxide night because - Rate of evaporation is greater
■ At what temperature (in Fahrenheit) pure water ■ The process of vaporizing camphor from solid
freezes camphor is called - Sublimation
- 32ºF ■ Humans feel discomfort due to humidity, this is
■ Heat transfer horizontally with in the atmosphere is because - Sweat does not evaporate
called - Advection due to humidity
■ The direction of flow of heat between two bodies ■ A liquid is converted into vapour below its boiling
depends on - Their temperature point the process is called - Vaporization
■ Earth's surface emits heat into space in the form of ■ Steam produces more severe burns than boiling water
- Infrared radiation because - Steam has more latent heat
■ A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its ■ The first law of thermodynamics confirms the law of
- High temperature and low pressure - Conservation of energy
■ The time taken by the light to travel from the sun to ■ When water is heated from 0ºC to 10ºC then its
the earth is approximately - 8 minutes volume - First decreases and then increases
■ What is the temperature reading at which we get the ■ A white and smooth surface is
same reading on both the centigrade and Fahrenheit - A poor absorber and a good reflector of heat
scale - –40º ■ Which has the highest specific heat capacity
■ Ice is floating on water in a beaker. When the ice - Water (4.186 kJ/grºC)
melts completely, the level of water in the beaker will ■ Which device is used to measure very high
be - Remains same temperatures - Thermoelectric thermometer
General Physics 376 YCT
■ Water droplets are see on the outer surface of glass ■ When an object is cooled, then its molecules motion
containing ice because - Decreases
- The water vapour presents in air, on coming in ■ Which scientist first melted two pieces of ice by
contact with the cold glass of water, losses energy rubbing them together - Humphry Davy
and gets converted to liquid state. ■ What happens to melting point of ice when pressure
■ The unit of physical quantity "heat capacity" is is increased - The melting point of ice decreases
- Joule/Kelvin ■ A gas thermometer is more sensitive than a liquid
■ The instrument for measuring low temperatures is thermometer because a gas
called - Cryometer - Expands more than a liquid
■ The zeroth law of thermodynamics defines ■ Extremtly high temperature are measured by
- The temperature - Platinum resistance thermometer
■ Triple point is ■ Total radiation pyrometer is based on the principle of
- It is point at which all the three phases solid, - Stefan Boltzmann law
liquid and gas are found together ■ If a metal is used for making cooking utensils, then
■ The heat produced by the burning of one gram of fuel the thermal conductivity should be - High
is - Calorific value ■ Which radiations of sunlight are used in heating a
■ For a dry bulb temperature as the relative humidity solar cooker - Infrared radiation
decreases then the wet bulb temperature will ■ The morning sun is not as hot as the mid day sun
- Increase because
■ Which color combination is best for umbrellas to - Sun's rays travel a longer distance through the
protect from the Sun atmosphere in the morning
- White one the top and black ■ Woolen clothes are warmer than cotton clothes
on the inside because
■ The function of the thermostat in the refrigerator is
- They are good insulator of heat
- To maintain uniform temperature ■ "Good emitters are good absorbers". This is the rule
■ By increasing the temperature of sugar solution, then
of
the solubility of sugar - Increases
- Kirchhoff's radiation law
■ A small space is left at the points of rails in a railway
■ The rate of cooling of an object is directly
track because
proportional to the temperature difference between
- Metal expands on heating and
the object and medium around it". This law is
contracts on cooling
■ The amount of heat required to change the - Newton's law of cooling
temperature of one gram of a substance by 1ºC is ■ Newton's law of cooling is applicable only when
called - Difference in temperature is not very large
- Specific heat ■ Who invented the thermos flask - James Dewar
■ How much temperature can be measured by radiation ■ A thermos flask prevents loss of heat by
pyrometer - Above 500ºC - Conduction, convection and radiation
■ When the door of a refrigerator is kept open then the ■ The temperature at which a solid substance turns into
room temperature will be - Increases a liquid is called - Melting point
■ The device which converts thermal energy into ■ The temperature at which a liquid changes into a
mechanical energy is - Steam engine vapour is called - Boiling point
■ When salt is mixed with ice, then the freezing point ■ The addition of any other substance to a pure
of ice is - decreases substance will cause its melting point to - Decrease
■ During hot summer days, the water kept in the ■ The process of converting a liquid into vapour before
earthen pot to keep it cooled by - Evaporation its boiling point is called - Evaporation
■ A clinical thermometer indicates the temperature in ■ The quantity of heat required to change the unit mass
degrees Fahrenheit from - 94 to 108 of a substance from solid state to liquid state at its
■ How does water get heated in an electric kettle melting point is known as
- By convection - Latent heat of fusion of the solid
■ The process by which solid directly changes into ■ The value of latent heat of fusion of ice is
vapour in known as - Sublimation - 80 cal/ g = 336×103 J/kg
■ Salt is added when we boil vegetables because ■ Latent heat of vaporization of water is
- It increases the boiling point of water - 536 cal/g = 2.25×106 J/kg
■ You placed a car in an open parking area in a summer ■ Which is conserved by first law of thermodynamics
day. After a few hours, you noticed that the heat is - Energy
trapped inside a car. This phenomenon is known as ■ The concept of internal energy is given by
- Green house effect - First law of thermodynamics
■ Cooking utensils in kitchen are coated black because ■ What type of weather do we feel more cold during
- Black material absorbs more heat winters - Clear weather
General Physics 377 YCT
■ Water and ice crystal are in equilibrium at 0ºC. When
pressure is applied to this system
- More of ice becomes water
■ Which instrument is used to measure temperature
- Thermometer
■ One calorie is equal to - 4.186 Joule
■ Which law of thermodynamics defines the concept
temperature - Zeroth law of thermodynamics
■ The fractional change in the length of a solid with a
change in temperature of 1ºC is called
- Coefficient of linear expansion
■ There is a hole in the copper disc. When it is heated
the diameter of the hole is - Increases
■ If a bimetallic strip is heated, it will
- Bend towards the metal with lower thermal
coefficient of expansion
■ An iron ball is heated the percentage increase will be
largest in - Volume
■ If the pressure of the atmosphere is increased, then
the latent heat of steam is - Decreases
■ Which energy of the molecules of the substance
decreases in melting and boiling - Potential energy
■ Hygrometer is the instrument which is used to
measure - Humidity or amount of water
vapour in the air
■ Compared to a burn due to water at 100ºC, a burn due
to steam at 100ºC is - More dangerous
■ The temperature at which the air becomes saturated
with water vapour actually present in a given volume
of air is called - Dew point temperature
■ The study of any physical process at a temperature
lower than that of liquid air is called - Cryogenics
■ If specific heat of a substance in infinite, it means
- No change in temperature whether heat
is takes in or given out
■ In isothermal condition, the heat supplied to a gas is
used - to do external work
■ The internal energy of an ideal gas depends only
- Temperature
■ During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, its
mean - temperature is constant
■ The specific heat of a gas in an isothermal process is
- Infinite
■ A thermos flask is polished well
- To reflect all radiations from outside
■ When heat is radiated from one place to another, the
temperature of the medium is remains - Unchanged
■ A perfect black body is the one that
- Absorbs all the radiation
■ A wire is heated gradually as temperature rises, at
first it appears - Red
■ A hot body will emit radiations more rapidly if its
surface is - Black and rough
■ By which process is heat transmitted from the
filament of an evacuated electric bulb to the glass
- Radiation
General Physics
■ The amount of water vapour absorbed by the
atmosphere can
- Increased with increase in air temperature
■ In cold regions, where the temperature can drop
below 0ºC, farmers fill their fields with water to
protect the crops from damage because
- Water has high specific heat capacity
■ A mechanic wants to fit a brass plug to in steel plate
with a hole in the middle. It would be better when
- Brass plug is cold and the steel plate is heated
■ The speed of heat radiation is equal to that of
- Speed of light
■ A black body can absorb radiation of
- All wavelengths
■ During adiabatic compression of a gas, its
temperature
- Rises
■ The temperature at which a ferromagnetic substance
converts into a paramagnetic substance is called
- Curie temperature
■ When two pieces of ice are pressed together, they
combine to form one single piece. This phenomenon
is called - Regelation
■ If 'T' is the boiling point of water at Delhi and 'T2' is
the boiling point of water of Shimla, then the correct
relation between T1 and T2 is - T1 > T2
■ Two spheres are made of same size and same metal
but one is hollow and other one is solid. If both are
heated to the same temperature then
- Both the spheres will expand equally
■ The function of quartz crystal in the watch is based
on
- Piezoelectric effect
■ The temperature of the boiling point of any liquid
- Increases with increase in pressure
■ The device that converts sunlight directly into
electrical energy is called - Solar cell
■ Buffaloes in summers are ofter seen in ponds, this is
because - Their color absorbs more heat
■ With increase in temperature, the thermal
conductivity of air is - Also increase
■ Two thin woollen blankets are less colder than a thick
wollen blanket because
- Air is trapped between the blankets
■ A bucket of lukewarm water will melt more ice than a
cup of boiling water because
-Bucket of water contains more heat
■ the maximum temperature at which human life
cannot be possible is - More than 108ºF
■ The lowest mark on the thermometer is marked at
95ºF. Its meaning is
- Humans cannot live below this temperature
■ At what temperature does water exist in both solid
and liquid states - 0ºC
378 YCT
■ Water boils at lower temperature on hills or high ■ A thermometer suitable for measuring temperature
altitude because 20000C -Absolute radiation pyrometer
- There is less air pressure on the hills ■ If there is sudden increase in the temperature of a
■ When the vapour pressure of a liquid is equal to its place, the relative humidity - Decreases
atmospheric pressure, then the liquid - Boils ■ Energy is lost to the molecules of matter during
■ The purity of solid substance can be checked by its boiling and melting -Potential Energy
- Melting point ■ Hygrometer is instruments which is used for
■ A rubber balloon filled with Hydrogen gets burst -To measure the amount
when it goes up because of - Air pressure decreases of vapor in atmosphere.
■ A closed vessel is maintained at a constant ■ Internal energy of ideal gas depends only on
temperature. It is first evacuated and them steam is -Temperature
introduced in it continuously. The pressure of steam ■ If work is done by the gas then temperature
in the vessel is -Decreases
- First increases and then becomes constant ■ The process by which heat is converted into work
■ Sun temperature is measured by -Pyrometer -Heat engine
■ The cycle tube explodes in summer due to ■ Isothermal expansion in ideal that means
- Expansion of pressure -Temperature is constants
in the wall increases ■ In Ideal gas specific heat capacity is -Infinite.
■ Water pipelines burst on the mountains in extreme ■ When air rises in the atmosphere, it cools because
cold. It has due to -Water expands when it freezes -Diffusion take place due to
in a pipe low atmospheric pressure
■ When a table fan is used in a closed room the air in ■ We sweat maximum when -The temperature is
the room will be -Hot high and it is humid
■ People with dark skin in Africa compared to people ■ In cold region where the temperature can drop below
with white skin in Britain -Feel overheated 00C, farmer flood their crops from damage, because
■ The inner walls of the thermos flask are polished -Water has maximum specific heat
because ■ Purity of solid is decided by -Melting point
-To prevent heat loss by radiation ■ The capacity of air conditioned plants -In tons
■ The walls of a thermos flask galvanized to minimize ■ In piezoelectric effect, production of electricity by
heat transfer by the method of -Radiation -Pressure
■ During the day, the earth heats up very quickly in ■ If T1 is boiling point of Delhi and T2 is boiling point
comparison to the surface of ocean because of Shimla then relation between T1 and T2 are
-The specific heat capacity of water is greater -T1>T2
■ For cooling the car radiator, water is used because of ■ Thermister is -Thermal resistance
■ Quantity of heat absorbed by a substance depends on
-High specific heat capacity of water. -Mass of substance, specific
■ Cryogenic engine is used in -Rocket Technology heat and change in temperature
■ Sublimate substance are -Camphor, Naphthalene, ■ In watch, work of the quartz crystal based on the
Ammonium Chloride. principle of -Piezoelectric effect
■ Some other substance is added to the pure substance ■ The safe temperature for keeping food fresh in the
then its melting point -Decreases refrigerator - 4 0C
■ On the high hills snow fall due to - ■ The water used in the radiator of car due to
The temperature on the high hills is below -High specific heat capacity
the freezing point, so ■ If the coefficient of volumetric expansion of glass
the water vapor freezes and becomes ice. and mercury is equal then the mercury glass tube in
■ It takes more time to cook potato on mountain stoves, the thermometer will - Does not work
because - Atmospheric pressure is less. ■ Out of aluminum , copper, iron and brass, which one
■ Steam burns hand more in comparison to boiling has maximum coefficient of linear expansion
water. -Steam has latent heat -Aluminum
■ First law of thermodynamics is based on the principle ■ Values of elastic measurements with the increase in
of -Conservation of energy temperature -Decreases
■ In adiabatic process -Heat remains constant ■ With the help of hygrometer, we measure
■ Due to impurities boiling point of water - Increases -Relative humidity
General Physics 379 YCT
 Previous Year Questions
1. The efficiency of a heat energy can never be Volumetric expansion - change in volume (∆V) is
(a) 10% (b) 80% directly proportional to volume (V) and ∆T
(c) 100% (d) 50% So, ∆V ∝ ∆T and ∆V ∝ V
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 21 .01.2019 Shift I
∆V ∝ V.∆T
Ans. (c) : Heat energy is the result of the movement of ∆V = γV.∆T → (3)
tiny particles called atoms, molecules or ions in solids,
Where γ = the coefficient of volume expansion.
liquid and gases.
• Heat energy can be transferred from one object to When the temperature of a cube of material of side
another. Its transfer or flow is done by the difference in length (ℓ) is increased by dℓ then the volume will be
temperature between the two bodies. increased by an amount dV is given by,
• According to second law of thermodynamics, it is  dV 
impossible to get 100% of efficiency because of dV =   .dℓ
environmental changes and some other factors. So, the  dℓ 
efficiency of a heat energy can never be 100%. Volume of cube (V) = ℓ3
2. The heat generated while transferring 96000 Put the value of V in equation (3)
coulomb of charge is one hour through a
d(ℓ3 )
potential difference of 50 V is dV = × dℓ
(a) 4.8 ×104 J (b) 1.33 ×103J dℓ
(c) 4.8 ×106J (d) 1.33 ×104 J = 3ℓ2.dℓ
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift I
Put the value of dℓ
Ans. (c) : Given,
V = 50 V dV = 3ℓ2.(ℓ αdT)
Q = 96000 = 3ℓ3 α dT ∵ V = ℓ3
t = 1 hour = 3600 sec
We know that- = 3 α VdT
dV = γVdT
V × Q.t
H=VIt= = V × Q = 50 × 96000 Thus, γ = 3α
t
Second Method- We know that
⇒ H = 4.8 ×106 J α : β : γ = 1: 2 : 3
3. The specific heat capacity of water is α = Coefficient of linear expansion
(a) 540 J/kg°C (b) 4186 J/kg°C γ = Coefficient of volume expansion
(c) 2260 J/kg°C (d) 335 J/kg°C β = Coefficient of Areal expansion
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III So, γ = 3α
Ans. (b) : Specific heat capacity of water = 4186 J/kg°C β = 2α
4. The thermal coefficient of linear expansion of a 5. If half litre of a hot water at 90º C is mixed
material is α. Then the thermal coefficient of its with three and a half liters of cold water at 10º
volume expansion will be C, find the final equilibrium temperature (in
α ºC) if no heat is lost.
(a) (b) 3α
3 (a) 50 (b) 20
(c) α (d) 2α (c) 40 (d) 30
RRB ALP CBT II Physics & Maths 22 .01.2019 Shift III RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans. (b) : First Method- Linear expansion - when the Ans : (b) Heat lost = Heat gain
expansion due to heating occurs only along one m1c ∆T1 = m2c ∆T2
direction. Then linear expansion, m1 ∆T1 = m2 ∆T2
∆ℓ = α ℓ.∆T 1 7
( 90 − T ) = ( T − 10 )
where, ∆ℓ = Change in length 2 2
(90 – T) = (7T –70)
ℓ = Length 8T = 160
∆T = Change in temperature 160
T=
α = Coefficient of linear expansion 8
(S.I. Unit C–1 or K–1) T = 20ºC

General Physics 380 YCT

6. Find the heat capacity of a pan of mass 200 g if (c) 173o (d) –212o
its temperature rises by 8º C on receiving RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
20000 J of heat. 5
(a) 250JK–1 (b) 50JkG–1K–1 Ans : (a) –Using the formula = C = ( F − 32 )
–1 –1 9
(c) 1.25Jkg K (d) 5JK–1
5
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I –100 = ( F − 32 )
Ans : (a) Given, mass (m) = 200 gm 9
Difference in temperature (∆T) = 8ºC 100 × 9
− = F − 32
and heat (∆Q) = 2000 J 5
 Heat capacity  – 180 = F – 32
Quantity of heat =   F = –180 + 32
 Temperatureincreases 
F = – 148
∆Q 2000
= = = 250 Jk–1 10. Two litres of superheated water at 190ºC is
∆T 8 mixed with six litres of cold water at 20ºC. Find
7. Find the specific latent heat of vaporisation of the final equilibrium temperature (in ºC) if no
1.25 g of (in Jg-1), if it releases 250 joules of heat is lost.
heat when it condenses at its boiling point of (a) 47.5 (b) 95
196º C. (c) 62.5 (d) 55
(a) 500 (b) 200 RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
(c) 312.5 (d) 469
Ans : (c) T1 = 190°
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
T2 = 20°
Ans : (b) Latent heat:- Latent heat is the heat required
m1 = 2 litre
to change the state of unit mass of a substance at a
constant temperature is called latent heat of the m2 = 6 litre
substance. It is denoted by L. Here, with no heat loss, let the final equilibrium
Q = mL temperature be T.
Heat loss = Heat gain
Q
or L= m1C∆T1 = m2C∆T2
M m1∆T1 = m2∆T2
Given that m = 1.25 gm
2(190 – T) = 6(T-20)
Q = 250 J
380 – 2T = 6T – 120
Q 250
Then, latent heat (L) = = = 200 8T = 500
M 1.25 500
8. Find the specific heat capacity (in Jg-1 K-1) of a T=
8
block of metal of mass 500 g, the temperature
T = 62.5°C
of which rises by 80º C when it absorbs 10 kJ
of heat? 11. _______º Celsius = 167ºFahrenheite
(a) 1.56 (b) 0.25 (a) 348 (b) 103
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.16 (c) 198 (d) 75
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
5
Ans : (b) Given, Ans : (d) We know that, ºC = ( F − 32 )
Mass of metal (m) = 500 gm 9
Heat (Q) = 10 kJ = 10,000 J 5
C = (167 − 32 )
Increase in temperature (∆T) = 80ºC 9
Then Q = mc ∆T 5
Where Q = Heat ( or thermal energy) = × 135
9
m = mass
C = 75º
c = specific heat
∆T = increase in temperature 12. The specific latent heat of fusion of ethyl
alcohol is 100 Jg-1. Find the heat absorbed (in
Q 10000
When C = = J) by 2.25 g of ethyl alcohol when it melts at its
m × ∆T 500 × 80 melting point of -114ºC.
= 0.25 Jg–1k–1 (a) 311 (b) 45
9. – 100º Celsius = –––––– Fahrenheit (c) 225 (d) 100
(a) –148o (b) –373o RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
General Physics 381 YCT
Ans: (c) Given, Ans: (a) : mass (m) · 180 gram = 0.18 kg
(M) = 2.25 gm Q = 2400 Joule C = ?
specific heat (L) = 100 Jg–1 Temperature (∆T) = 50 Kelvin
(Q) = ? Q 2400
Heat capacity (C)= = = 48 J K–1
 Heat (Q)  ∆T 50
∵ Specific heat (L) =  
 mass  16. If one and a half litres of hot water at 80°C is
Q mixed with two and a half a litres of colder water
100 = at 40°C, find the final equilibrium temperature if
2.25 no heat is lost.
Q = 2.25×100 (a) 50ºC (b) 55ºC
Q = 225 Joule (c) 60ºC (d) 65ºC
13. Find the heat capacity of a steel vessel of mass RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
2.5 kg if its temperature rises by 10 degrees. Ans : (b) : Let final equivalent temperature = TºC
Specific heat capacity of steel is 500 Jkg–1K–1. We know that specific heat of water = 4200 Jkg–1ºC–1
(a) 1250JK–1 (b) 20 Jkg–1K–1 Then,
–1 –1
(c) 200Jkg K (d) 125JK–1 Heat consumed by hot water = 1.5 × 4200 (80 – T)
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II Heat obtained by cold water = 2.5 × 4200 (T – 40)
Ans : (a) Given, According to the principle of mixing,
mass of steel (m) = 2.5 kg Heat loss = Heat gained
Increase in its temperature (∆T) = 10°C 1.5 × 4200 (80 – T) = 2.5 × 4200 (T – 40)
And specific heat (c) = (500 Jkg–1k–1) 120 – 1.5T = 2.5T – 100
Heat Q = mC∆T 4T = 220
= 2.5 × 500 × 10 T = 55ºC
Q = 12500 17. Find the specific heat capacity of a block of metal
of mass 300 g, the temperature of which rises by
 amount of heat 
Heat capacity =   50 degrees when it absorbs 12 kJ of heat?
 Increase in temperature  (a) 2.5 Jg–1K–1 (b) 1.25 Jg–1K–1
–1 –1
12500 (c) 0.5 Jg K (d) 0.8 Jg–1K–1
= = 1250 JK–1
10 RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
14. Find the mass (in g) of a copper calorimeter if Ans : (d) : Given, m = 300 gm,
its temperature rises by 45º when it absorbs ∆T = 50°C,
3.6kJ of heat. The specific heat capacity of and Q = 12 KJ = 12000J
copper is 0.4Jg–1K–1. Specific heat (s) = ?
(a) 500 (b) 405 Q = m.s. ∆T
(c) 648 (d) 200 Q 12000
s= =
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II m.∆T 50 × 300
Ans : (d) Heat absorbed (Q) = 3.6 kJ 4
Increase in temperature (∆T) = 45º = = 0.8 J g-1K-1
5
Specific heat capacitance (C) = 0.4Jg–1k–1
18. – 150° Celsius = ____ Fahrenheit
mass (m) = ? (a) –238º (b) –212º
Q = m C∆T (c) –418º (d) –373º
3.6 = m × 0.4 × 45 RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
3.6 Ans:(a): Formula convert degree Celsius to Fahrenheit:-
m=
18 9  9 
m = 0.2 kg º F =º C × + 32 or  F = C × + 32 
5  5 
m = 200 gram
Given, C = –150
15. Find the heat capacity of a pan of mass 180 g, if
9
its temperature rises by 50 degree on receiving F = −150 × + 32
2400 J of heat. 5
(a) 48 JK–1 (b) 16.67 Jkg–1K–1 F = –270 + 32
–1 –1
(c) 13.33 Jkg K (d) 36 JK–1 F = – 238
So, we can say that – 150°C is equivalent to – 238°F.
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
General Physics 382 YCT
19. Find the specific latent heat of vapourisation of 1  ∆Q 
4.5 gm of nitrogen, if it releases 990 joules of heat Cn =  
when it condenses at its boiling point of – 196°C. µ  ∆T 
(a) 180 J/g (b) 220 J/g 23. A brass rod (conductivity 109J/(m-K)) has an
(c) 200 J/g (d) 160 J/g area of corss section 0.042 m2 and length 20 cm.
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I If a temperature difference of 200 J°C is
Ans : (b) : Given, maintained at the two ends of the rod, what
will be the rate of heat flow through the rod?
mass (m) = 4.5 gram
Heat (Q) = 990 Joule (a) 2.32kJ/s (b) 3.42kJ/s
If the latent heat of the substance is L, then the heat (c) 4.36kJ/s (d) 5.80kJ/s
required to change the state of mass of mass (m) of the RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
substance is. Ans : (c) Rod of conductivity (K) = 109 J (m–k)
Q = mL Area of transverse cut (A) = 0.04 m2
990 = 4.5 × L length of rod (l) = 0.20 m
990 Difference of temperature (∆T) = 200J°C
L=
4.5 A
L = 220 Joule/gram Rate of heat flow through rod, Q = K   ( ∆T )
l 
20. Which of the following is equal to 86°F?
(a) 20oC (b) 30oC  0.04 
= 109   × 200
(c) 10 C o
(d) 34oC  0.20 
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III 1
= 109 × × 200
Ans : (b) 5
C F − 32 = 4360 J/s = 4.36 kJ/s
= [ Formula]
5 9 24. Identify the material which has high coefficient
C 86º −32º of volume expansion.
=
5 9 (a) Alcohol (b) Glass
C 54º (c) Brass (d) Water
= RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
5 9
Ans : (a) Coefficient of volume expansion:- It is the
C
= 6º measure of the fractional change of size per unit change
5 in the temperature with the surrounding pressure being
C = 30º constant. This coefficient is most applicable to fluids.
21. The higher the ____ value of a material, the Material Volume coefficient expansion (/ºC)
faster it will conduct heat. Alcohol – 1490
(a) Resilence Glass – 27.6
(b) Melting point Brass – 57
(c) Latent Heat Water – 210
(d) Thermal conductance out of given option, alcohol has higher coefficient of
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III volume expansion.
Ans : (d) The greater the value of the thermal 25. Identify the material having the highest
conductivity of material. The more rapidly it will coefficient of volume expansion.
conduct heat.
(a) Iron (b) Brass
22. What is the molar specific heat capacity of a (c) Aluminium (d) Mercury
substance?
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
 1   ∆Q   ∆Q 
(a)    (b) µ   Ans : (d) Coefficient of volume expansion is most
µ
   ∆ T   ∆T  efficient for fluids. Among the given option, the order
 1   ∆T   ∆T  of the coefficient of volume expansion is given below-
(c)    (d) ( µ )   Metal Volume expansion of coefficient
 µ   ∆Q   ∆Q  (/ºC)
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III Iron 35 × 10–6
Ans : (a) Molar specific heat of a substance is the Brass 56 × 10–6
amount of heat required to raise the temperature of Aluminum 75 × 10–6
1 mole of a solid or liquid by 1K or 1°C. It is denoted
Mercury 180 × 10–6
by Cn.
General Physics 383 YCT
26. ____ is a mode of heat transfer by actual 4x° = – 160
motion of matter. 160
(a) Conduction (b) Radiation x° = –
4
(c) Convection (d) Vaporisation So, xº= – 40°
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
30. _______ is the unit of thermal conductivity.
Ans : (c) There are the three main methods of transfer
or transmission of heat (energy) between substance (a) J ⋅ s −1 ⋅ K (b) J ⋅ s −1 ⋅ m −1 ⋅ K −1
from one place to another place- (c) J −1 ⋅ s −1 ⋅ kg −1 (d) J ⋅s ⋅ K
1. Conduction RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
2. Convection
Ans : (b) In physics, heat conductivity is that property of
3. Radiation substance which shows how easily heat can flow through
Convection is the method of heat transfer from one that substance. Silver metal has the highest heat and
place to another due to movement of fluid. electrical conductivity among metals. Thermal
27. A 100-g block of lead is heated from 20ºC to conductivity is a scalar quantity. Its unit is watt meter-1
50ºC. Calculate the amount of heat transferred kelvin-1 (W.m–1.K–1) or (Joule second–1 meter–1Kelvin–1)
to the block (specific heat of lead = 127 J kg–1
31. ......... is the heat per unit mass required to
K–1)
change a substance from solid into liquid at the
(a) 321J (b) 381J same temperature and pressure.
(c) 127J (d) 230J (a) Sublimation
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I (b) Vaporisation
Ans : (b) Given, (c) Regelation
m = 100 gm = 0.1 kg (d) Latent heat of fusion
Difference in temperture ∆T = (50°C – 20°C) = 30°C RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
Specific heat of lead (c) = 127 JKg–1.K–1
Ans : (d) When a solid substance is heated, its
∆Q = ?
temperature increase and at a specific temperature the
∆Q = m.c.∆T solid substance starts melting. This temperature is
∆Q = 0.1 × 127 × 30 called the melting points of the solid. At the same
∆Q = 381 Joule melting point, temperature and atmospheric pressure,
28. Conduction and convection modes of heat the amount of heat that can change the unit mass of a
transfer CANNOT operate between bodies solid substance into liquid without changing its
separated by........ temperature is called the latent heat of fusion. Thus, the
(a) ice (b) aluminium heat required per unit mass of a substance to change
(c) vacuum (d) water from solid to liquid at the same temperature and
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I pressure is called latent heat of fusion.
Ans : (c) Conduction and convection modes of heat 32. Identify the conductor having the lowest
transfer cannot operate between bodies separated by resistivity.
vacuum because both are require the presence of (a) Silver (b) Aluminium
material medium to take place. (c) Iron (d) Copper
29. The Fahrenheit and Celsius scales converge at RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
––––––––. Ans : (a) Silver metal has the highest electrical
(a) –500 (b) –400 conductivity and least electrical resistivity among
0
(c) –30 (d) –200 metal. Therefore, out of the above options, silver metal
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I is a good conductor with minimum resistivity. The
Ans : (b) Let the Fahrenheit and Celsius scale are order of the resistivity of the given metal is as follows-
oriented one (x). Irons > Aluminum > copper > silver
then, Hence the resistivity of silver is minimum.
C F − 32 33. A brick wall having a thickness of 24 cm has an
= inner surface temperature of 25ºC and an
5 9
outer surface temperature of 5ºC. The rate of
Where, C° = F° = x ° heat loss through per square metre of the wall
x° x° − 32 (thermal conductivity = 0.15 J/(s.m.K) is :
=
5 9 (a) 18.2J/s (b) 20.0J/s
9x° = 5x° – 32 × 5 (c) 12.5J/s (d) 23.0J/s
9x° = 5x° – 160 RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
General Physics 384 YCT
 Ans: (c) Given, Transferred heat Q = m.c.∆T
Thickness of wall (d) = 24 cm = 0.24 m = 0.05×386×40
k = 0.15J/s.m.K = 772 J
Temperature difference (∆θ) = 25 – 5 = 20°C 38. The boiling and freezing points of water are
Area of wall = 1 m2, time = 1 second exactly ____ degrees apart on the Fahrenheit
 K.A.∆θ.t  scale.
θ=   (a) 273 (b) 50
 d 
(c) 100 (d) 180
0.15 ×1× 20 × 1
θ= RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
0.24
Ans : (d) : In Fahrenheit scale-
15 × 20 300 B.P of water = 212 ºF
θ= = = 12.5 J/second
24 24 Freezing point of water = 32 ºF
34. When 1 kg of water is cooled from 4ºC to 0ºC, Body temperature = 98.6 ºF
its volume _________. And the boiling point and freezing point of water
(a) first decreases and then increases exactly 180º apart on the Fahrenheit scale.
(b) decreses 39. 95 ºF = _____ ºC
(c) remains the same (a) 15 (b) 25
(d) increases (c) 35 (d) 45
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (d) The density of water is maximum at 4°C and
volume of a given sample of water is minimum at this  C F - 32 
Ans : (c) : Formula  =
temperature. But when the water cooled from 4ºC to 5 9 
0ºC, its volume increases due to Anomalous expansion Given F = 95°F
of water. C F − 32
35. Identify the material having the highest =
5 9
coefficient of volume expansion.
C 63 C 7
(a) Iron (b) Mercury = ⇒ = ⇒ C = 35°
(c) Hard rubber (d) Brass 5 9 5 1
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II 40. 770F is equal to :
Ans : (c) : Hard rubber has the highest coefficient of (a) 25ºC (b) 20ºC
volume expansion. The increase in volume of solid (c) 15ºC (d) 10ºC
when heated is known as volumetric expansion. RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Volume expansion (/ºC) of the other materials is- Ans : (a) : Fahrenheit scale was proposed by Daniel
Iron - 3.55 × 10–5 Gabriel Fahrenheit in the year 1724 AD.
mercury - 18.2 × 10–5 C F − 32
Formula =
Brass - 6 × 10–5 5 9
Hard rubber - 24 × 10–5 C 77 − 32
=
36. Copper expands about ____ times more than 5 9
glass for the same rise in the temperature.
C 45
(a) Three (b) Five =
(c) Four (d) Six 5 9
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II C 5
=
Ans : (b) : Copper expands five times more than glass 5 1
with the same increase in temperature. C = 25°C
37. A 50g block of copper is heated from 20°C to
41. A steel rod with the thermal conductivity of
60°C. How much heat is transferred to the
50.2 W/(m-K) has an area of cross-section 0.02
block (specific heat of copper 386 Jkg-1K-1)?
m2 and length 15 cm. If the two ends of the rod
(a) 852 J (b) 572 J
are maintained at a temperature difference of
(c) 320 J (d) 772 J 3000C, the rate of heat flow through the rod is :
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II 50.2 W
Ans : (d) : ∆T = (60–20) = 40°C (a) 4.0 kJ/s (b) 1.0 kJ/s
m = 50 gm = 0.05 kg (c) 3.0 kJ/s (d) 2.0 kJ/s
specific heat (c) = 386 J Kg–1 K–1 RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
General Physics 385 YCT
Ans: (d) : Thermal conductivity (K) = 50.2 W/(m-K) C F - 32
Length of rod (l) = 15 cm = 0.15 m Ans : (b) =
5 9
Area of cross-section of rod (A) = 0.02 m2
Given F = 152°
Temperature difference betweens (θ1 – θ2) = 300°C
C 152 - 32 C 120
KA(θ1 – θ 2 ) = =
Rate of flow of heat (Q) 5 9 5 9
l
9C = 120.5
50.2 × 0.02 × 300
=  120× 5  40 × 5
0.15 C= =
= 2008 J/s  5  3
= 2 kJ/second  200 
=  
42. How much heat should be transferred to a 100 g  3 
block of aluminum (specific heat 900 Jkg–1K–1) = 66.67°C
to increase its temperature by 100C ?
(a) 90 J (b) 9 J 46. The change from the state of ice to the state of
(c) 9000 J (d) 900 J water is due to the ––––––.
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I (a) Increase in temperature
(b) Absorption of heat
Ans : (d) : Given,
m = 100g = 0.1 kg (c) Emission of heat
c = 900 Jkg–1k–1 (d) Decrease in temperature
∆T = 100C RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
Q = m.c.∆T Ans : (b) The change of state of ice into water is due to
Q = 0.1 × 900 × 10 the absorption of heat because when ice ( solid state) is
Q = 900 Joule converted into water (liquid state), heat is absorbed by
ice and the crystalline nature of ice broken and it is
43. Identify the substance from the below having
available to us as water.
highest specific heat capacity :
(a) Kerosene (b) Aluminium 47. When the temperature of a certain quantity of
(c) Water (d) Ice water is increased from 0°C to 4°C, its volume
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I ----------------
Ans : (c) :Water has the highest specific capacity strong (a) Decreases (b) Increases
hydrogen bonding is found between water molecular, (c) First increases and then decreases
due to which the inter molecular force between water (d) Remains the same
molecules is high, which requires more heat to break. RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
Therefore the specific heat water is high. The specific Ans : (a) When the temperature of a certain amount of
heat of water is given as 4.18 J/g°C. water increases from 0°C to 4°C its volume decreases
44. How much heat must be transferred to a block and density increases. This is called abnormal
of silver weighing 100g so that its temperature expansion of water. If water is cooled from its boiling
increase by 40°C ? (The Specific heat of silver point 100°C, then from 100°C to 4°C the volume of
is 236 Jkg-1k-1). water decrease like other liquids, but from 4°C to °C
(a) 450J (b) 1270J the volume of water increases, that is the volume of
(c) 1988J (d) 944J liquids increases according to their freezing point
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III whereas the volume of water is minimum at a
Ans : (d) temperature slightly higher than its freezing point.
100 gram 48. A styrofoam sheet 5 cm thick and 0.25 m in
Let the weight (mass) silver (m) =
1000gram area has a temperature difference of 40°C
between its inner and outer saerfaces. What is
= 0.1kg
the rate of heat flow on the sheet ? (Thermal
Temperature (∆T) = 40oC Conductivity is 0.01 J(smk))
Specific heat of silver = 236 Jkg–1 (a) 2.0J/s (b) 1.0J/s
Q = MC∆T = 0.1×236×40 = 944J (c) 4.0J/s (d) 3.0J/s
Hence 944J of heat will be transferred to the silver RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
block.
Ans : (a) Thickness of Styrofoam sheet (a) = 5cm
45. 152° Fahrenheit is equal to –––––––––° celsius. And its area (A) = 0.25m2
(a) 36.67 (b) 66.67
Temperature ∆T = 40oC
(c) 86.67 (d) 56.67
Thermal conductivity k = 0.01 J/smk
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
General Physics 386 YCT
 The rate of heat flow through the sheet can be 52. If 2.5 l of hot water at 85ºC is mixed with 4.5 1
calculated as- of cold water then the temperature of the cold
Q kA∆T water rises by 15ºC when equilibrium is
= reached. Find the initial temperature (in ºC) of
t a the water assuming no heat is lost.
Q 0.01× 0.25 × 40 (a) 48 (b) 43
=
t 0.05 (c) 15 (d) 25
Q RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
= 2.0 J / sec
t Ans : (b) : mass of Hot water (m) = 2.5 litre
Hence, the rate of heat flow is 2.0 J/sec. Temperature (T1) = 850C
49. When to bodies are in thermal contact, heat mass of cold water (m2) = 4.5 litre
will flow between them when their ––––––––– change in temperature of cold water (T1 – T2) = 150C
are different. Final temperature = T0C
(a) Specific heath (b) Mass The specific heat capacity is ‘C’
(c) Temperature (d) Density
Formula Q = mC∆T
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (c) When two bodies comes in thermal contact, m1c1 (T1–T) = m2c2 (T1–T2)
heat will flow between then when their temperature are C1 = C2 = C
different i.e. heat can not flow from an object of lower
temperature to an object of Higher temperature unless 2.5 (85 – T) = 4.5 (T1 – T2)
an external source is used for energy. This is according 2.5 (85 – T) = 4.5 × 15
to the second law of thermodynamics. 212.5 – 2.5T = 67.5
50. The boiling and freezing points of water are 2.5 T = 145
exactly–––degree apart on the fahrenheit seale.
T = 580 C
(a) 90 (b) 270
(c) 180 (d) 360 Hence final temperature of cold water (T) = 580C
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III Change in temperature (T2) = 150C
Ans : (c) The boiling point of water in Celsius is Thus, the initial temperature of cold water is
always 100°C. But in Fahrenheit it is 212 F° and the = 580C – 150C
Freezing point is 32F°. that is, in English units, the = 43°C
boiling point of water (212F°) and the freezing point 53. By how many degrees Celsius should an 800 g
(32F°) will be exactly 180° apart. calorimeter made of aluminium be heated so
51. Specific heat capacity of lead is 125 Jkg–1K–1. If that it absorbs 43.2 kJ of heat? Specific heat
the temperature of a block of 250 g of lead rises capacity of aluminium is 0.9 Jkg–1K–1.
by 10ºC on absorbing 5 kJ of heat, then find its (a) 120 (b) 60
heat capacity. (c) 67.5 (d) 42.5
(a) 250 Jkg–1K–1 (b) 325 Jkg–1K–1 RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
–1
(c) 500 JK (d) 200 JK–1 Ans : (b) : ∆Q = 43.2 KJ
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II m = 800 gm = 0.8 kg
Ans : (c) :Given, C = 0.9 Jkg–1K–1
Absorbed heat (Q) = 5 KJ ∆T = ?
Q = 5 × 1000 J. [∵ 1 KJ = 1000J]. From ∆Q = m.c. ∆T ,
Q = 5000 J ∆Q
Specific heat capacity (c) = 125 J kg–1, K–1 ∆T =
m.c.
mass (m) = 250 gm = 0.25 kg
43.2
Rise in temperature (∆T) = 100C ∆T =
The amount of heat required to raises the temperature of 0.8 × 0.9
a substance by 1°C. Such quantity of heat is called its 43.2
∆T = = 60°C
heat capacity. 0.72
Amount heat absorbed 54. Watt/steradian is the unit of _______.
Heat capacity =
Raise in temperature (a) electric conductance (b) permittivity
(c) radiant intensity (d) permeability
5000
= = 500 JK–1 RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
10
Ans : (c) : Radiant intensity- The radiant energy that is
∴ Heat capacity = 500 J K -1 emitted by a source per unit time per unit solid angle.

General Physics 387 YCT

Watt/ steradian is the unit of ‘radiant intensity.
Electrical conductivity:- Ability of materials to
conduct electric current. The measurement is called ‘
Electrical conductivity’ it is denoted by ‘σ’.
Permeability :- permeability in the content of
electromagnetism is the ability of magnetic lines of
force to pass through a medium is called the magnetic
permeability of the medium. It is denoted by ‘µ’. The SI
units of permeability is Henry/meter.
Permittivity:- Electrical permittivity is the content of
electricity. It is the property of a substance which helps
in general applying an electric field in that substance.
But it tells the measure of ‘resistance’ displayed by that
material.
55. Woolen clothes keep the body warm in winter
because–
(a) Wool is a bad conductor of heat
(b) Wool is a good conductor of heat
(c) Wool increases body temperature
(d) Wool decreases body temperature
RRB SSE Bilaspur (green) , 21.12.2014
Ans. (a) : Woolen clothes protect the body in winter
and keeps warm due to the following reasons.
(i) wool is a bad conductor of heat. Hence the heat is
of body does not escape.
(ii) the pores of wool do not allow air to enter. These
holes acts as a barrier for air.
56. Which has higher temperature between boiling
water or and water vapor?
(a) Boiling of water (b) Vapour of water
(c) None of these
(d) Depends on heat supply
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Patna)-2001
Ans. (c) : Temperature of boiling water and water vapor
the temperature is constant (100°C) and heat is given to
boiling water is spent in its state change (water to
vapour) this heat does not change the temperature.
That’s why it is called latent heat.
57. Black buffaloes remain lying in ponds in
summer the reason for this is -
(a) It is their habit (b) They feel hot
(c) Their color absorb more heat
(d) They feel more thirsty
Ans. (c) : Since black color absorbs more heat and
reflects less. Hence buffaloes feel very hot and they like
to sit in the pond.
58. Explain how thin blankets causes less cold than
a single thick blanket because -
(a) Thickness increase
(b) Air comes between them
(c) The body gets double the heat
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) : Two thin woolen blankets are warmer than a
thick wollen blanket because there is an extra layer of
air trapped between thin blankets which act as an
insulator and does not allow the body heat to flow out.
General Physics 388
59. A bucket of Luke warm water will melt more
ice than a cup of boiling water because
(a) The volume of bucket is more
(b) There is more water in the bucket
(c) There is more heat in water in the bucket
(d) The temperature of the water in the bucket is
flowing
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Mumbai/Bhopal)-2003
Ans. (c) : One bucket of luke warm water will melt
more ice than a cup of boiling water because there is
more heat in it.
60. It is not cold on the mountains at the time of
snowfall but more after. It has a reason.
(a) Ice keeps cooling the air
(b) The temperature of ice starts falling later
(c) cools the surrounding object to melt ice
(d) Jakes heat from the atmosphere to melt ice
RRB Bhopal (Technical), 21.11.1999
Ans. (d) : It is not cold on the mountains at the time of
snow fall but it is more cold later because the snow
absorbs heat from the atmosphere to melt, due to
which the temperature of the atmosphere decreases
slightly and we feel cold.
61. The value of mechanical equivalent of heat is.
(a) 4.2×107ergs/cal (b) 4.2 ergs/ cal
(c) 4.2×107 Joule/cal (d) 4.2×107 joule/kcal
Ans. (a) According to Joule law- work is directly
proportional to heat.
W∝H
W = JH
Where J is Joules constant.
Which is called mechanical equivalent of heat.
Hence J = 4.2 Joule/calori
or J = 4.2 × 107 erg/calori
62. The value of specific heat depends on:-
(a) On the nature of matter
(b) On the amount of external work done due to
expansion of the substance due to increase in
temperature
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) and (b)
Ans. (a) : Specific heat is characteristic property of a
substance which depends on the nature of the substance.
63. Which will have the highest specific heat?
(a) Water (b) Copper
(c) Mercury (d) None of these
Ans. (a) : The specific heat of metals is less than that of
liquid and the specific heat of liquid is more than of
gasses.
Specific heat of water = 1 Calori/ gram°C
Specific heat of mercury = 0.3 calori / gram°C
Specific head of Copper = 0.1 Calori/gram°C
64. The unit of linear expansion coefficient is-
-1
(a) 0C (b) m–0C
0 -1 0
(c) C (d) m– C
RRB Bhopal (Secunderabad) 2001
YCT
 Ans:(c) Ans.: (b) Specific heat of copper = 0.10 calori/ gram
 ∆L  Specific heat of copper = ( Joule/kg – °C)
Linear expansion coefficient ( α ) =  
 L × ∆T  = 0.10 × 4.2×103
 increase in length  = Joule/kg – °C
Unit of α =  
 per unit length × temperature  = 0.42 × 103 Joule/kg –°C
Unit of α = 0C–1 70. Heat is supplied to 50 grams of a solid at the
rate of 5 calori/second and the temperature
65. There is different of 25°C is the temperature
of two object, this difference will be on the rises by 11°C per minute. The specific of solid
Fahrenheit scale substance is calori/ gram°C.
(a) 26 F 0
(b) 45 F0 (a) 0.545 (b) 0.90
(c) 52 F 0
(d) 54 F0 (c) 0.45 (d) None of these
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Ranchi)-2005 RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P.Way), 20.02.2000
∆C ∆ F Ans. (a) :According to Question Q = H.t = ms∆T
Ans. (b) : =
5 9 ⇒ 5 × (60 × 1) = 50×s×11
 ∆C  25 300 = 550 × s
∴ ∆F =   ×9 = × 9 = 450 F
 5  5
s=
300
66. Absolute zero temperature is- 550
(a) 0 F 0
(b) –212 F0
s = 0.545 Calori/gram0C
(c) –459.400F (d) None of these 71. The mass of a metal is 500 grams and its
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Ranchi)-2005 specific heat is 0.5 calori/g°C. Its capacity is.
K − 273 F − 32 (a) 250 Calori/°C (b) 2500 Calori/°C
Ans. (c) : = ,
5 9 (c) 0.25 Calori/°C (d) 25 Calori/°C
For absolute zero temperature is - ( K = 0 ) RRB Bangalore (Tech.), 22.08.1999
0 − 273 F − 32 Ans. (a) :
= Heat capacity of metal C = mass×specific heat.
5 9
2297 C = 500 × 0.5
F= = −459.4 0 F C = 250 Calori/0C
5
67. The maximum temperature at which human 72. The mass of the copper calorimeter is 50 grams
life cannot be possible is and the specific heat of copper is 0.1
(a) Less than 110°C (b) Less than 110°K calori/gram°C the water equivalent of the
calorimeter will be
(c) Less than 110°F (d) At 110°F
(a) 5 Calori (b) 5 gram/°C
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Patna)-2007
(c) 50 Calori (d) 50 gram
Ans. (c) : The normal body temperature of a healthy
RRB Kolkata (Tech.), 29.08.1999
human being is 98°F (37°C). If human body
temperature exceeds 110°F, human life is not possible. Ans. (b) : The water equivalent = m × 5
68. The lowest mark in the thermometer is marked = 50×0.1 = 5 gram/0C
at 95°F. This mean- 73. The heat capacities of two objects made of the
(a) Can not measure temperature below this same metal are in the ratio 3:4. the ratio of
(b) Man can not live below this temperature their masse will be
(c) To make the calorimeter smaller (a) 3 : 4 (b) 3 : 7
(d) Mercury can not fall below this mark (c) 4 : 3 (d) 4 : 7
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Muzaffarpur)-2009 RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P. Way), 20.02.2000
Ans. (b) : The lowest mark in the thermometer is Ans. (a) : Heat capacity, C = ms
marked at 95°F i.e. below this temperature man can not C ms
live. Then 1 = 1 1
C2 m 2s2
69. Specific heat capacity of copper is 0.1 cal/gm. For material made of same metal s1 = s 2
Its value in J/kg0C is :
(a) 0.84×103 J/kg0C (b) 0.42×103 J/kg0C 3 m1
3 0 =
(c) 0.24×10 J/kg C (d) 4.2×103 J/kg0C 4 m2
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Patna)-2001
General Physics 389 YCT
 ■ Load- The weight carried by the lever is called load.
4.6 Lever and Simple Machines ■ Theory of Lever- The basic physical principle on
Simple Machines: Simple machines are basic which a lever operates is the product of effort and
mechanical devices that can make tasks easier by effort-arm is equal to the product of the load and
altering the force required to perform them. There are load-arm.
six types of simple machines: the lever, wheel and Thus; Effort x Effort-arm = Load × Load-arm
axle, pulley, inclined plane, wedge, and screw.
■ Torque or moment of a force- The turning effect of
a force about a point or a line is called the moment of
force about that point or line which is called axis of
rotation. The turning effect of a force is dependent on
the magnitude of the force and the perpendicular
distance of its line of action from the axis of rotation.
Thus the moment of the force (F) × Perpendicular Effort – arm = EF
distance (d). Load – arm = FL
■ Mechanical Advantage of lever- The ratio of the
load carried by the lever to the effort applied is called
the mechanical advantage of the lever.
Load or weight (L)
Thus; Mechanical advantage =
Effort (E)
but we known that
Where, effort arm (EF)= distance between the
fulcrum and the effort.
Where, θ = angle between the force and the position And load arm (LF) = Distance between the fulcrum
vector. and the load.
The moment of a force or Torque is a vector quantity Effort × Effort – arm = Load × Load – arm
and its S.I unit is N-m. Load (L) Effort – arm (EF)
1. Lever- Lever is a simple machine in which a straight =
Effort (E) Load – arm (LF)
or an inclined rod is made to turn or rotate at a point
freely or independently. In every lever there are three ■ Types of Lever- There are three types of lever.
points namely- Fulcrum, Effort and Load. (i) First Type of Lever- In this type of lever the
Example- Tongs, nut cracker, scissors, fishing Rod, fulcrum (F) is at midway between Effort (E) and
stapler etc. weight or Load (L).
■ Fulcrum- The fixed point about which the rod of the Load or weight (L)
lever moves independently is called fulcrum. Mechanical advantage =
Effort (E)
■ Fulcrum is also called support point.
EF Effort – arm
MA = =
LF Load – arm

Scissors
■ Effort- To use (operate) lever the force applied
externally is called effort. Examples- Scissors, brakes of a bicycle our hand
pushing an object or seesaws, crowbars. Pulling a nail
out of a wooden plank also represents a first - class
level.
■ First type of lever, mechanical advantage is equal to 1
or greater than 1 or less than 1.
Thus, EF = LF or, EF > LF or, EF < LF
(ii) Second Type of lever- In this type of lever the
load (L) is at midway between the Fulcrum (F) and
Nut cracker Effort (E).

General Physics 390 YCT

 Load (L) Effort – arm ( EF ) ■ Example of first class lever are
Mechanicaladvantage = = - pliers (cutting pliers), scissors, a crow bar,
Effort (E) Load – arm ( LF )
a claw hammer,(Jambura) a see saw, hand
Example- Nut cracker, Lemon Squeezer Doors/gates pump handle, bent rod etc.
bottle openers, nail clippers, staplers etc. 1
■ EF > LF, It's mechanical advantage is greater than ■ The velocity ratio of an inclined plane is -
sinθ
one. ■ The velocity ratio of a wheel and axle is
D
- where, D is diameter of wheel and d is
d
diameter of axle.
■ The velocity ratio of a differential wheel and axle
(iii) Third Type of Lever- In this type of lever the with D as the diameter of effort wheel and d1 and d2
Effort is located at midway between the fulcrum (F) as the diameter of larger and smaller axles
and the weight (or) Load (L). 2D
respectively, will be -
Load (L) Effort – arm ( EF ) d1 – d 2
Mechanical Load = = = ■ The formula for the efficiency of the machine is
Effort (E) Load – arm ( LF )
work output
- η=
work input
or
mechanical advantage(M.A.)
η=
■ EF < LF, It's mechanical advantage is less than one. velocity ratio (V.R.)
Example- Tongs, plough of the farmers, hands of a ■ The mechanical advantage of class III lever is
man, Fishing rod, A baseball bat etc. - Less than one
2. Wheel and Axle: The wheel and axle consist of a ■ The mechanical advantage of a fixed pulley is - One
wheel attached to a smaller axle. It is used to reduce 2πL
■ The velocity ratio of a screw jack will be -
friction and make it easier to move objects, like a P
doorknob or a car's steering wheel. Where, L is the radius of the arm of rotation of the
3. Pulley: A pulley is a simple machine consisting of a handle, P is pitch or distance between
grooved wheel and rope or cable. It can change the two consecutive threads
direction of force or multiply the force applied when ■ In which of the three types of levers is the effort
lifting objects . There are fixed and movable pulleys. located between the load and the fulcrum.
4. Inclined Plane: An inclined plane is a flat surface - Class III lever
■ The ratio of the distance displaced by the effort to the
that is tilted at an angle. It reduces the amount of
distance displaced by the load is called- Velocity
force required to lift an object by increasing the
ratio
distance over which the force is applied, like a ramp. ■ Dumpster, pitch bar and boat's pole are example of
5. Wedge: A wedge is a simple machine with two - Second class lever
inclined planes back to back it is used for splitting ■ The velocity ratio of the third system of pulleys is
cutting, or holding objects in place, like a knife or an - 2n – 1
axe. ■ In the first system of pulleys, the velocity ratio is - 2n
6. Screw: A screw is an inclined plane wrapped around a ■ The gond dani is made in the shape of a cone because
central shaft. It converts rotational motion into linear - Its center of gravity lies far below
motion and is used in various applications, from that's why it is not rolling.
fastening screws to lifting loads. ■ The center of gravity of the circle is - At its centre
Exam Pointer ■ The mechanical advantage of a lever will always be
■ The ratio of the load and the effort exerted on a less than one, if
- Effort lies between the load and fulcrum
machine is called - Mechanical advantage
■ The relation between mechanical advantage (MA),
■ In bell crank lever, the arms are bent - At right angle
load (L)
2R load (L) and force/effort (E) are - MA =
■ The velocity ratio of a differential pulley is - effort (E)
(R – r)
or
■ If the body remains in the state of rest condition L = MA ×E
under the influence of the applied forces, the body is ■ If the line of action of a force passes through the axis,
said to be - Static equilibrium then torque will be - Zero
■ The applications of class III lever are ■ If on a body which is free to rotate about a point if
- Fishing rod, broom, baseball, bat, a bow and many forces are applied but the body is in
arrow and human jaw, human hand, equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of the moments
lever safety valve, fire tong etc. of all those forces will be - Zero
General Physics 391 YCT
■ When the distance between two machine is large then ■ Mechanical advantage of movable pulley is -2
at this time machine used -Pulley ■ Mechanical advantage due to addition of pulley is
■ Pulley changes the direction of -Force -Increase
■ Pulley is usually made -Cast Iron ■ The effect on energy in pulley system - Constant
■ No. of arms in Pulley -4 to 6 ■ The centre of attraction of pulley at its -Centre
■ The number of force act on pulley will be -2 ■ In pulley system the weight of pulley and rope are
■ The speed of pulley of pulse of one square inch section -Zero
should be -100 FPS ■ If θ<φ then mechanical advantage is -Negative
■ In order to gain more speed, the pulley is made of ■ If θ>φ then mechanical advantage is -Positive
-Combination of a+b.

Previous Year Questions

1. Two children, weighing 30 kg and 15 kg, sit on 3. Find the efficiency of a pulley system which has
one side of a see-saw at a distance of 1 m and a mechanical advantage of 2.5 and where the
1.2 m respectively, from the fulcrum. A boy of load lifts by 2.5 meters on pulling the rope by
10m.
'M' kg sits on the other side of the see-saw at a
(a) 40.00% (b) 100.00%
distance of 1.2 m from the fulcrum, and the
(c) 25.00% (d) 62.50%
see-saw is in equilibrium. Find value of M.
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
(a) 45 (b) 48
Ans : (d) Mechanical advantage · 2.5
(c) 40 (d) 36
Velocity ratio = 10
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
 Mechanical advantage 
Ans : (c) Efficienty =  
 Velocity ratio 
2.5
= × 100%
4
= 62.50%
4. Which of the following is an example of a
Torque (τ) = Force × perpendicular distance of force second class lever?
From point O. (a) Ice tongs (b) Pliers
τ=F×r (c) Wheel barrow (d) See-saw
= (m × g) × r RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
M × g × 1.2 = 30 × g × 1 + 15 × g × 1.2 Ans : (c) Second class lever:- In this class of levers the
1.2 × Mg = g (30 + 15 × 1.2) load is situated between the fulcrum and the support. In
this type of levers the mechanical advantage is always
1.2 M = 30 +18
more than one for example. pliers, lemon squeezer,
1.2 M = 48 stapler, wheel barrow etc. So wheel barrow is an
48 example of a second class levers.
M= = 40
1.2 5. Find the efficiency of a pulley system which has a
Mechanical advantage of 3.6 and where the load
M = 40kg
lifts by 1.6 meters on pulling the rope by 8 m.
2. Which of the following is an example of a first (a) 64% (b) 81%
class lever? (c) 90% (d) 72%
(a) Wheel barrow (b) A pair of scissors RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
(c) Ice tongs (d) Nut cracker Ans : (d) : Given,
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I Mechanical advantage = 3.6
Ans : (b) Lever:- It is the most basic machine which is
used to do some work with minimum effort. Distance covered by the efforts
Velecity ratio (VR) =
First class lever – In the first class lever, the fulcrum is Distance covered by the weight
situated between the load and the inertia. Like – 8m
scissors, swing, Hand pump, see-saw, pliers etc. VR = =5m
1.6 m
Second class lever –Lemon squeezer, wheel barrow,
Nut cracker, doors or gates, bottle opener, nail clippers. Now the efficiency of pulley system = 3.6 ×100 = 72%
Third class lever – Fishing rod, broom, human arm 5
General Physics 392 YCT
6. Which of the following is an example of a first 10
class lever? 20 × 10
(a) ice tongs (b) wheel barrow Hence efficiency = 5 × 100 = × 100
50 50 × 5
(c) nut crackers (d) pliers
20
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
 20000 
Ans : (d) : From the given option ‘pliers’ is an example Efficiency =  = 80% 
of first class of the levers. In this type of levers, the  250 
fulcrum is between the load and the effort. 11. In practice, the work output of a machine is
7. If a machine overcomes a load 'L' and the ______ the work input due to the effect of
friction.
distance travelled by the load is 'Ld', the work
done by the load will be........... (a) always zero to (b) always more than
(c) always less than (d) opposite to
1
(a) (b) L×Ld RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
L × Ld
Ans : (c) While doing work, the work output of the
Ld L machine is always less than the work input due to the
(c) (d)
L Ld effort of friction.
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III 12. The efficiency of a machine can never be––––.
Ans : (b) Weight of the machine = L (a) 100% (b) 75%
Distance covered by the load = Ld (c) 50% (d) 10%
Work done by the weight = weight × distance covered RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
by the weight = L × Ld Ans : (a) The efficiency of any machine can never be
8. The effort in a class 1 lever in .......... 100% because the energy supplied by the machine as
directions(s). output is less than the energy provided as input to the
(a) multiple (b) one machine and some of the input energy in the machine is
spent in the form of heat or sound energy to reduce the
(c) two (d) three
friction produced in the machine.
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
13. The force applied to overcome a load is called
Ans : (b) In class (1) lever, the effort is in one ________.
direction. In this type of lever, the fulcrum is always (a) Weight
located between the load and the effort. Like scissors, (b) velocity ratio
pliers. Its mechanical advantage can be equal to one or
(c) mechanical advantage
less than one.
(d) effort
9. The ratio of the velocity of a simple machine is RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
the ratio of the distance travelled by ___ to the
Ans : (d) The force applied to overcome a load is
distance traveled by ____ in the machine.
called effort.
(a) load, load (b) effort, load
14. Which statement with regard to Class 2 lever is
(c) load, effort (d) effort, effort
true?
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III (a) The mechanical advantage is always less than
Ans : (b) Velocity ratio of a simple machine 1
distance traveled by effort (b) The effort is between the load and the
= fulcrum
distance moved by load
(c) The fulcrum is near the effort
10. An effort of 5 units is applied on a 10-unit load. (d) The load is in between the effort and the
The distance travelled by the effort and the fulcrum
load are 50 and 20 units, respectively. Find the RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
efficiency of this machine.
Ans : (d) : In the lever of class (2) load is always
(a) 70% (b) 80% situated between the base and the effort. Their
(c) 50% (d) 60% mechanical advantages is always more than 1.
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I 15. Which statement with regard to class 3 lever is
Ans : (b) According to the question - true?
 mechanical advantages  (a) The fulcrum is between the load and the
Efficiency =   ×100 effort
 velocity ratio  (b) The fulcrum is near the effort
load or weight  10  (c) The effort is between the load and the
Machanical advantages = =  fulcrum
effort  5
(d) The load is in between the effort and the
 Distance traveled by effort  50
Velocity ratio =   = fulcrum
 Distance traveled by weight  20 RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
General Physics 393 YCT
Ans: (c) In class (3) (circular type) lever, the effort
always remains between the load and the base. Example
human hand, plow etc.
16. Identify the one that is not a class 1 lever.
(a) Pliers (b) Scissors
(c) See-Saw (d) Nut cracker
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (d) : In the first class levers the fulcrum is
situated between the load and the force (effort). Among
the given options, but nut cracker is a second class lever
while pliers, scissors and see – saw are first class lever.
17. In a class 3 lever, the effort and load move:
(a) In the same direction
(b) In the opposite direction
(c) Depending on the load
(d) In the perpendicular direction
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (a) : In the third class of levers, the effort is
situated between the support and the load. In this, the
weight and effort move in the same direction.
18. A bearing or other device is needed to hold the
beam in .............. lever/levers.
(a) Class 2 (b) Class 1 and 3
(c) Class 3 (d) Class 1
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (c) : In class III levers, bearing or other devices
are required to hold the beam as pivots otherwise the
tension will pull the arm from the base.
19. If we compare the effort arm length with the
load arm length in a class 3 lever, then which of
the below is true ?
(a) effort arm length is always > load arm length
(b) effort arm length can be greater than, equal to
or less than the length of the load arm
(c) effort arm length is always = load arm length
(d) effort arm length is always < load arm length
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (d) : If we compare the length of the effort arm
and the length of the load arm in the third class lever.
then the length of the effort arm is always less than the
length of the load arm.
20. Identify which of the below is not a Class 3
lever.
(a) Tweezers (b) Stapler
(c) Hockey stick (d) Wheelbarrow
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (d) : A third class lever is one in which the effort
(E) is found between the fulcrum (F) and the load (W).
The third class of lever is different from the first and
second class because it has a momentum multiplier
instead of a force multiplier, so to move an object in a
third class of levermore force is required.
Example of third class levers are as follows -
1. Fishing rod
2. Cricket bat
General Physics 394
3. Tweezers, stapler, hockey stick and hands holding
weight on the palm. Wheel barrow is an example of a
second class lever.
21. The ratio of resistance to overcome to the effort
applied is referred to as :
(a) Velocity of effort
(b) Velocity of load
(c) Load
(d) Mechanical advantage
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (d) : The ratio of the force generated by a
mechanical advantages i.e. the ratio of the force applied
and the resistance required to balance the force applied
on an object is called mechanical advantage.
22. The work output of a machine is less than the
work input due to the effect of––––––.
(a) Friction (b) Velocity
(c) Effort (d) Mass
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (a) The work output of a machine is always less
than the work input due to the effect of friction.
The work output of a machine is never equal to the
work input because some of the work done by the
machine is used to overcome the friction reated by the
use of the device.
23. The efficiency of a simple machine is
determined in terms of ––––––––.
(a) Mechanical Advantage/Velocity ratio
(b) 1/(Velocity Ratio × Mechanical Advantage)
(c) Velocity Ratio/Mechanical Advantage
(d) Velocity Ratio × Mechanical Advantage
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (a) The ratio of the produced force ( output force)
and the applied force (input force) is called mechanical
advantage. The efficiency of a simple instrument or
simple machine is determined in terms of mechanical
advantage/ velocity ratio.
24. Ideal machines are those hypothetical
machines, which ––––––––.
(a) have zero velocity (b) are frictionless
(c) are weighless (d) are effortless
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (b) Ideal machines are those hypothetical
machines, which are frictionless.
25. Find the velocity ratio of a pulley system if it
has an efficiency of 50%. It lifts a load of 250 N
on applying an effort of 100 N.
(a) 5 (b) 2.5
(c) 10 (d) 7.5
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (a) : Given,
efficiency = 50%
weight = 250 N
effort = 100N
velocity ratio = ?
YCT
  mechanical advantage  Ans: (a) Mechanical advantages = 40
efficiency =  × 100  Velocity ratio = 50
 velecity ratio 
 Mechaical advantage 
∵ Mechnical advantage = 
weight  Efficiency =   ×100
  velocity ratio 
 effort 
40
250 = × 100
∴ Mechnical advantage = = 2.5N 50
100 = 80%
 mechanical advantage  28. Scissors belong to the category of simple
So, velocity ratio =  
 efficiency  machines called levers. It is a first class lever
because–
 2.5  (a) Fulcrum (fixed point) is between load and
= 
 50/100  effort
2.5 × 100 (b) Load is between Fulcrum and effort
velocity ratio = = 5.0
50 (c) Effort is between fulcrum and load
Velocity ratio = 5 (d) It does not have a fulcrum
(RRB JE (Shift-III), 26.08.2015)
26. The efficiency of a pump is 50%. It lifts 2 Ans. (a) : In first class levers, the Fulcrum is situated
tonnes of water by 60 m in 20 minutes. Find the between the effort E and the weight W. In this type of
input power (in kW) of the pump. levers mechanical advantage can be greater than 1,
(a) 2 (b) 1 equal to 1 and also less than 1. Its example are scissors,
(c) 3 (d) 4 Pliers, nail cutter, sewing, Hand pump, bicycle brake
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II etc.
Ans : (a) : Given, 29. The gondani (glue box) is made in the shape of
a cone because.
Mass (m) = 2 tonnes = 2 × 103 kg
(a) More glue can be filled in it
Height (h) = 60 meter
(b) It is convenient to lift it
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 m/s (c) It has a high center of gravity so that it does
Time (t) = 20 minute = 20 × 60 not roll over
= 1200 second (d) Its center of gravity is low so that it does not
efficiency = 50% roll over
 work  RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Bhuvneshwar)-2012
output power =   ……………. (i) Ans. (d) : The glue box is made in the shape of a cone
 time 
because its center of gravity (centre of mass) is down
work = mgh ........ (ii)
wards at its base due to which it does not roll.
Putting the value of equation (ii) in equation (i)
30. The centre of gravity of the circle will be-
 mgh  (a) On the circumference of the circle
Output power =  
 time  (b) On any chord of the circle
2 ×103 ×10 × 60 (c) At the centre of circle
Output power = = 103 watt (d) On the diameter of the circle
20 × 60
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Bilaspur)-2012
output power
Efficiency = Ans. (c) : The centre of gravity (center of mass) of the
input power
circle will be at the center of the circle.
1 103 31. A 2 m long rod AB is balanced on a knife edge
=
2 input power at a distance of 120 cm from end A. When a
weight of 100 grams is placed at the same end.
Input power = 2 × 103
the rod become balanced at its centre the
= 2 kW weight of the rod is-
27. In a simple machine, if the mechanical (a) 300 gram (b) 200 gram
advantage is 40 and the velocity ratio is 50 then (c) 500 gram (d) 100 gram
its efficiency will be. RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er., 01.12.2002
(a) 80% (b) 70% Ans. (c) : Let a weight of 100 gram be placed on A and
(c) 75% (d) 85% the rod is balanced at centre O.
DMRC JE Mech. 4:30 pm .17.04.2018 Taking moment about the point.
General Physics 395 YCT

20 × W = 100 × 100
∴ W = 5 × 100
W = 500 gram
32. The lever for which the mechanical advantages
is always less than one has :
(a) fulcrum between load and effort 33.
(b) load between effort and fulcrum
(c) effort between fulcrum and load
(d) load and effort acting at the same point
RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012
Ans. (c) : Mechanical advantage of the lever will be
less than one if the force is between fulcrum and the
weight.
Mechanical advantages:- The ratio of the load (L)
lifted by the levers and the effort (E) applied on it is
called mechanical advantage of the lever.
∴ Mechanical advantage (A) =
weight (L)
effort (E)
Type of lever: there are three type of leverl
(i) First class lever
(ii) Second class lever
(iii) Third class lever
(i) First class lever:- The mechanical advantage of
levers of this class can be more than 1, equal to 1 and
also less than1.
Example – spade, hammer to pull out nails etc.
(ii) Second class lever:- The value of mechanical
advantage of this class of lever is always greater than 1.
Example:- lemon squeezer, paper of whole cutting
machine.
General Physics 396
(iii) Third class of levers:- The value of mechanical
advantage of this class of levers is always less than one.
Example:- Farmer’s plough, tongs, elbow of human
hand etc.
Mechanical advantages (MA), load (L) and
effort (E) are related as :
(a) MA = L × E
(b) L = MA × E
(c) E = MA × L
(d) None of these
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil), 26.02.2012
Load (L)
Ans. (b) Mechanical advantage (MA) =
Effort ( E )
∴ L = M.A × E
34. The leaning Tower of pisa does not fall even
though it is tilted because-
(a) The vertical line passing through its center of
gravity passes through its base
(b) The vertical line passing through its center of
gravity passes through its vertex
(c) The vertical line passing through its center of
gravity passes through it’s mid
(d) None of the above
RRB SIGNAL MAINTAINER GRADE-I, II, III-2005
Ans. (a) : The leaning Tower of pisa does not fall even
though it is tilted because the vertical line passing
through its center of gravity passes through its base.
35. Which of the following is true regarding second
class lever
(a) In the lever, the effort occurs between the
load and the fulcrum
(b) In the lever, the load is between the effort
and the fulcrum
(c) The fulcrum in the lever is between the effort
and load
(d) lever can have any position of effort, load
and support
RRB Bhubaneshwar App. Electrical, 19.08.2001
Ans. (b) : Second class lever:- In this class of lever the
load is situated between the fulcrum and the effort.
Example:- lemon squeezer, box lid raises.
YCT
36. Two children weighting 30kg and 20kg are
sitting at the ends of a plank and plank is
horizontal. If the length of the plank is 5m,
then the distance of the fulcrum of the 30kg
child is
(a) 1m (b) 2m
7 (8–x) = 9x
(c) 3m (d) 5m 56 – 7x = 9x
DMRC Customer Relations Ass., 22.07.2012 9x + 7x = 56
Ans. (b) : 16x = 56
56
x=
16
x = 3.5m
40. The moment of the couple shown in the
following figure will be-

Taking moment relative to C.

30x =20(5-x)
30x = 100 – 20x
50x = 100 ⇒ x = 2 meter
37. If the line of action of a force passes through (a) 60 Newton-meter (b) 20 Newton-meter
the axis, then the torque will be - (c) 80 Newton-meter (d) 40 Newton-meter
(a) 1 (b) 0 RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 11.04.1999
(c) 2 (d) 4 Ans. (c) :According to question,
RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 09.11.1997 Perpendicular distance (r) = 4 meter
Ans. (b) : Torque (τ) = r × F Work force (F) = 20Newton
Torque (τ) = r × F
=0×F
= r.F
τ=0 = 4 × 20 sin 900
38. If a body which is free to move about a point. If = 80 (sin 900 = 1)
many force are applied but the body is in = 80 Newton-meter
equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of the 41. A 3 horse power motor rotates the wheel at
moment of those force will be 1200 revolutions per minute. The force-torque
(a) 1 exerted by it is
(b) 0 (a) 18 N-m (b) 1.8 N-m
(c) Both (a) and (b) 1
(c) 3 N-m (d) 15 Newton-meter
(d) None of these 2
RRB Ajmer (Tech.), 25.01.1998 RRB Bhopal (Tech.), 21.11.1999
Ans. (b) : If many force are acting on a body which is Ans. (a) : P = W = τθ
free to rotate around a point but the body is in t t
equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of the moments of Where τ = Torque, θ = Angular displacement, t = time
those force will be zero. P×t P×t
Torque ( τ ) = = ….(i)
39. The masses of two meteorites in space 7kg and θ 2 πn
9kg respectively. If they are at a distance of 8m P = 3 × 746 watt
from each other, then their center of mass will t = 1 minute = 60 seconds
be away from the 9 kg body and n = 1200
(a) 1m (b) 2m Putting the value of (n) in equation (i)
(c) 3m (d) 3.5m 3 × 746 × 60
τ=
RRB Ajmer (Tech.), 01.03.1998 2 × 3.14 × 1200
Ans. (d) : According to the question, Let the body of 9 τ = 17.8 Newton-meters
kg be at a distance x from its centre of mass. = 18 Newton-meters

General Physics 397 YCT

05
IT LITERACY : Computer
Introduction
History Characteristics of Computer
■ The genesis of mechanical/digital computing can be • Accuracy
traced back to Blaise Pascal (1623-1662) and GW • Consistency
Leibniz (1646-1716). However Charles Babbage • Versatility
(1792-1871) was the first to imagine a machine that
• Memory
could process data. He designed first difference
engine and analytical engine and an all purpose • Diligence
calculating machine. He is rightly known as the • Speed
father of computer science. • Storage
Computer • Reliability
"Computer is an electronic device for performing • Automated
arithmetic and logical operations", or "Computer is a Components of a digital computer
device of flexible machine to process data and convert it
A digital computer can be broadly classified as a
into information. Computer is programmable meaning
collection of four components. They are:
that it all depends upon what program computer is using
for performing a particular function. 1. Input unit
2. Output unit
3. Central Processing Unit
CPU 4. Memory (auxiliary)
Printer
Input Unit : The Input Unit provides an interface
between the users and the machine for inputting data and
instruction etc.
Some common input devices are listed below :
1. Keyboard
2. Mouse
3. Voice data entry
Mouse
4. Joystick
5. Light pen
ω
1
6. Scanner
■ Programme : It is a set of instructions fed into the 7. Secondary storage devices
computer on what to do. 8. Punch Card Readers
■ Hardware : It is a actual machine that does 9. Optical Mouse
whatever the Software (computer programs) tells it 10. Speech Recognisition system
to do. Output Unit : The Output Unit also provides an
Four basic operations of a computer interface between the user and the machine. The output
1. Input : This is the purpose of inserting or feeding unit receives the data from the CPU in the form of binary
data into the computer by means of an input device bits. This is then converted into a desired form
like keyboard. (graphical, audio, visual etc.) understandable by the user.
2. Processing : Some kind of processing is done in the Some common output devices are:
computer to take out or transform the data in some way. 1. Visual Display Unit (Monitor)
3. Output : The computer produces output on a 2. Printers
device, such as printer, scanner of a monitor, that 3. Speakers
shows the result of processing operations 4. Secondary Storage Devices
4. Storage : The computer stores the result of 5. Tape Reader
processing operations for future use in some storage 6. Plotter
device like hard disk, compact disk drive (CD Rom) The input and output unit the collectively referred to as
or a floppy disk. 'peripherals'
IT Literacy : Computer 398 YCT
 Central Processing Unit (CPU) : It is the brain of ROM : It contains information that can only be
the computer system. The input and output devices may read. It is non-volatile or permanent in nature. It is
vary for different application, but there is only one CPU basically used to store permanent programs such as
for a particular computer. program for the functioning of the monitor.
The central processing unit can be further divided Cache Memory : The Cache memory lies in the
into: path between the processor and the main memory.
1. Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) DATA MEASUREMENT CHART
2. Control Unit Data Measurement Size
3. Main Memory Bit Single binary Digit (1 or 0)
Functions of CPU : Nibble 4 bits
1. Performs arithmetic calculations such as Byte 8 bits
addition, subtractions etc. Kilobyte (KB) 1024 Bytes
2. Performs logical decisions. Megabyte (MB) 1024 Kilobyte
3. Performs data transmission. Gigabyte (GB) 1024 Megebyte
4. It can manipulate tasks such as word processing. Terabyte (TB) 1024 Gigabyte
Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) : The arithmetic Petabyte (PB) 1024 Terabyte
logic unit performs all arithmetic and logic calculations Exabyte (EB) 1024 Petabyte
on the data it receives. Arithmetic calculations like Zettabyte (ZB) 1024 Exabyte
addition, subtraction, multiplications, division, Yottabyte (YB) 1024 Zettabyte
exponentiation etc. Logical calculations are basically
CONVERSION TABLE
decision making statements e.g. A > B. It decides
whether A is greater than B or not. If A is greater the Traditional Units Decimal for Comparison
statement is true and logical '1' would be generated Name Symbol Binary Equal Name IEC Decimal
otherwise illogical '0' would be generated. to
Control Unit : The Control unit controls the entire Kilobyte KB 210 1024 Kilobit Kbit 103
B
operations of the computer and the CPU. It controls all
the other devices connected to the CPU, i.e. Input Megabyte MB 220 1024 Megabyte Mbit 106
KB
devices, Output devices, Auxiliary Memory etc. Hence,
the output unit acts as the nerve centre of the computer. Gigabyte GB 230 1024 Gigabyte Gbit 109
MB
Main Memory Unit : The main memory also
known as the primary memory. It is a part of the central Terabyte TB 240 1024 Terabyte Tbit 1012
GB
processing unit and is a combination of both RAM
(random access memory) and ROM (read only memory). Petabyte PB 250 1024 Petabyte Pbit 1015
TB
RAM : The random access memory is read write
Exabyte EB 260 1024 Exabyte Ebit 1018
memory i.e. information can be read as well as written
PB
into this type of memory. It is volatile in nature, i.e., the
information it contains lost as soon as the system is shut Zettabyte ZB 270 1024 Zettabyte Zbit 1021
EB
down unless 'saved' for further usage by users. It is
basically used to store programs and data during the Yottabyte YB 280 1024 Yottabyte Ybit 1024
ZB
computer's operation.

COMPUTER GENERATION
Generation Years Chief Components Memory Operating Language Examples
Elements System
1st 1940-55 Vacuum Magnetic
Tubes/Electronic drums for
valves for circuitry memory
2nd 1956-63 Transistors Magnetic cores
(invented in 1947) Magnetic
Tapes
IT Literacy : Computer 399 YCT
 3rd 1964-71 Integrated circuits RAM, DISKS
(semi conductors
were used)
4th 1972 present LSI (Large Scale All Primary,
Integration)/VLSI Secondary
(Very Large Scale Storage
Integration) devices
5th Development Artificial Intelligence, Some application such as voice recognition that are being
phase Robotics & Nano used today are based on artificial intelligence.
Science
Next Generation Computer
Nano Computer : It is a computer whose
fundamental parts are in nanometers. It can be built
by using mechanical, electronic, biochemical or
quantum technology.
Quantum Computer : It is a computational device
that makes direct use of quantum mechanical
phenomena, such as superposition and entanglement
to perform operations on data.
Software : It is used to describe the instructions that
the given to computer. These instructions can be
either a single programme or a group of
programmes.
Types of Software
1. System software
2. Application software
3. Utility software
Computer Programming :
It is the process of designing, writing, testing,
debugging/ troubleshooting and maintaining the
source code of computer programs. This source code
is written in a programming language
Programming languages :
It Consists of words, symbols and usage rules
pertaining to the grammar that permits people to
communicate with the computer programming
languages must create to the following tasks :
– input/output
– text manipulation/calculation
– logic/comparison
– storage retrieval
Some of the commonly used languages for various
applications are :
1. Scientific and Engineering : Ex., Basic, Fortran
2. Business and Commercial purpose : Ex.,
COBOL, BASIC
3. Text processing : LISP, SOSL
4. General Purpose : PASCAL, ADA
5. Artificial intelligence (AI) : PROLOG, LISP
OPERATING SYSTEM
The operating system is the core software
component of the computer. It performs many
functions and is, in very basic terms, an interface
between your computer and the outside world.
Types of Operating System
There are many types of operating system. The most
common operating system is the Microsoft window.
They include from most recent to the oldest : Which
is given in the below.
IT Literacy : Computer 400
Windows SQL All Pc's
DOS, ORACLE Desktops,
LINUX CRAYX-MP
• Windows 10
• Windows 7
• Windows XP Professional Edition
• Windows XP Home Edition
• Windows 2000
• Windows 2008
• Windows ME
• Windows 98
• Windows NT
• Windows 95
• Unix
• Linux
• Apple Macintosh
Kernel : The kernel is the central component of
most computer operating systems. It is a bridge between
applications and the actual data processing done at the
hardware level. The kernel's responsibilities include
managing the system's resources. It typically makes these
facilities available to application processes through inter-
process communication mechanisms and system calls.
Multitasking : In computing, multitasking is a
method where multiple tasks, also known as processes,
share common processing resources such a CPU.
Multiprocessing : Multiprocessing is the use of two
or more processing units (CPU) within a single computer
system. The term also refers to the ability of a system to
support more than one processor and the ability to
allocate tasks between them.
Applications : Applications are programs that are
installed on computers to give users the ability to do
specific tasks. For example, Microsoft Word is a
program that gives the user the ability to write
documents.
Features of window system
• Desktop • Icon • Window • Dialogue Box • Start
Menu • Task bar • Title bar • Tool bar • Menu bar •
Status Bar • Scroll Bar • Tab Menu • Start Up •
Shut down • Stand by • Hibernation
NETWORKING
Computer Network Definition : A network is any
collection of independent computers that communicate
with one another over a shared network medium. A
computer network is a collection of two or more
connected computers.
YCT
Types of Networks:
LAN (Local Area Networks) : A networks is any
collection of independent computers that communicate
with one another over a shared network medium. LAN
are networks usually confined to a geographic area, such
as a single building or a college campus.
WAN (Wide Area Networks) : Wide area
networking combines multiple LAN that are
geographically separate. This is accomplished by
connecting the different LAN using services such as
dedicated leased phone lines, dial-up phone lines (both
synchronous and asynchronous), satellite links, and data
packet carrier services.
MAN (Metropolitan Area Networks) : A
metropolitan area networks (MAN) is a computer
network that usually spans a city or a large campus. A
MAN usually interconnects a number of local area networks
(LAN) using a high-capacity backbone technology such as
fibers-optical links, and provides up-link services to wide
area networks (or WAN) and the internet.
IT Literacy : Computer 401
The OSI Model : Open System Interconnection
(OSI) reference model has become an international
standard and serves as a guide for networking. This
model is the best known and most widely used guide to
describe networking environments.
Network Topologies : It is the geometric
arrangement of nodes and cable links in a LAN, there are
two types to topology: physical and logical. The physical
topology of a network refers to the configuration of
cables, computers and other peripherals, Logical
topology is the method used to pass the information
between workstations.
Main types of physical Topologies
• Linear Bus
• Star
• Star-Wired Ring
• Tree
• Point to point topology
• Mesh topology
• Ring topology
• Hybrid topology
Hubs/Repeaters : Hubs/Repeaters are used to
connect together two or more Ethernet segments of any
media type. Hubs provide the signal amplification
required to allow a segment to be extended a greater
distance.
Bridges : The function of a bridge is to connect
separate networks together. Bridges connect different
networks types (such as Ethernet and Fast Ethernet) or
networks of the same type. Bridges map the Ethernet
addresses of the nodes residing on each network segment
and allow only necessary traffic to pass through the
bridge.
Routers : Routers filter out network traffic by
specific protocol rather than by packet address. Routers
also divide networks logically instead of physically. An
IP router can divide a network into various subnets so
that only traffic destined for particular IP addresses can
pass between segments.
A Network Firewall : A firewall is a system or
group of systems that enforces an access control policy
between two networks. Some firewalls place a greater
emphasis on blocking traffic, while others emphasize
permitting traffic. Probably the most important thing to
recognize about a firewall is that it implements an access
control policy.
Proxy server : In computer networks, a proxy
server is a server that acts as an intermediary for requests
from clients seeking resources from other servers. A client
connects to the proxy server, requesting some service, such
as a file, connection web page or other resource, available
from a different server. The proxy server evaluates the
request according to its filtering rules.
IP Addressing : An IP (Internet Protocol) address is
a unique identifier for a node or host connection on an IP
network. An IP address is a 32 bit binary number usually
represented as 4 decimal values, each representing 8 bits,
in the range 0 to 255 (known as octets) separated by
decimal points. This is known as "dotted decimal"
notation.
Example : 140.179.220.200
YCT
 Address Classes : There are 5 different address Viruses
classes. You can determine which class any IP address is Virus is a program that runs on a system against the
in by examining the first 4 bits of the IP address. owner's or user's wishes and knowledge. Viruses have
Class A addresses begin with 0xxx, or 1 to 127 decimal. one or more methods they use to spread. Most commonly
Class B addresses begin with 10xx, or 128 to 191 decimal. they will attach a file to an e-mail message and attempt
to trick victims into running the attachment.
Class C addresses begin with 110x, or 192 to 223 decimal.
Types of viruses :
Class D addresses begin with 1110, or 224 to 239 decimal.
• Memory resident virus
Class E addresses begin with 1111, or 240 to 254 decimal.
• Overwrite virus
Addresses beginning with 01111111 or 127 decimal
• Macro virus
are reserved for loopback and for internal testing on a
local machine. • Polymorphic virus
INTERNET • FAT virus
The Internet, the world wide web or the web are all • Web scripting virus
names used to describe the vast network of information • Direct Action virus
in cyberspace, available to anyone who has access to a • Boot sector virus
computer, a browser (software) and a connection to an • Directory virus
Internet service provider through a modem (or other • Companion virus
connection such as DSL, ISDN, LAN etc.). • Multipartite virus
The internet is a massive network of networks, i.e. a Spyware : This usually comes with some free
networking infrastructure. programs and it will monitor your internet activity and
Web : The web is a way of accessing information send information to some corporation, this type of
over the medium of the Internet. It is an information program is not normally seriously harmful but most
people do not want to have their activities monitored.
sharing model that is built on top of the Internet. The
Web uses the HTTP protocol, the transmit data. This Worms : It is program very similar to a virus, it has
the ability to self replicate and can lead to negative
stands for Hyper Text Transfer Protocol.
effects on your system.
E-mail : Electronic mail, commonly called email, e-
Trojans: Trojans or Trojan horse, do not reproduce
mail is a method of exchanging digital messages from an by infecting other files, nor do they self-replicate like
author to one or more recipients worms. It is a program which disguises as a useful
FTP : It stands for File Transfer Protocol. This is program or application.
both a program and the method used to transfer files Spam : Spam is unsolicited junk e-mail sent to large
between computers. Anonymous FTP is an option that numbers of e-mail addresses. It is used to promote some
allows users to transfer files from thousands of host product or service and many spam e-mails are
computers on the Internet to their personal computer pornographic in nature.
account. E-commerce
Web Browsers : A web browser is software, E-commerce : Electronic commerce (E-Commerce
installed on your computer, the allows you to navigate or EC) is an emerging concept that describes the process
the Internet. Example : Netscape Navigator and of buying and selling or exchanging or products, services
Microsoft Internet Explorer. and information via computer networks including the
Internet.
Web Sites : It contains all the information offered
Types of E-Commerce :
by a particular organization, individual or company and
• Electronic Banking
will sometimes include links to other sites as well.
• Internet Banking
INTERNET ACCESS METHODS
• PC banking
Internet access refers to the means by which users
Electronic Banking : The process by which a
connect to the Internet. For e.g-
customer may perform banking transactions
• Dial-up electronically.
• WiMax PC Banking : PC banking is a form of online
• ADSL banking that enables customers to execute bank
• Wifi transactions from a PC via a modem. In most PC banking
ventures the bank offers the customer a proprietary
• Mobile financial software program that allows the customer to
• Broadband perform financial transactions from his or her home
• Modem computer.
IT Literacy : Computer 402 YCT
 Internet Banking : Internet banking, sometimes CPU : Central Processing Unit
called online banking is an outgrowth of PC banking. IBM : International Business Machines
Internet banking uses the Internet as the delivery channel Fortran : Formula Translation
by which to conduct banking activity. An Internet IC : Integrated Circuit
banking customer accesses his or her accounts from HTML : Hyper Text Markup Language
browser-software that runs Internet banking programs CD-ROM : Compact disk Read Only Memory
resident on the bank's World Wide Web server not on the WAP : Wireless Application Protocol
user's PC.
BCD : Binary Coded Decimal
Smart Card : A smart card is a plastic card about
EBCDIC : Extended Binary Coded Decimal
the size of a credit card with an embedded microchip that Interchange Code
can be loaded with data used for telephone calling
ASCII : American Standard Code for Information
electronic cash payments and other applications and then
Interchange
periodically refreshed for additional use.
OMR : Optical Mark Recognition
Credit Card : The plastic credit card with a
COBOL : Common business Oriented Language
magnetic strip many people carry in their wallets or
LDU : Local Display Unit
purses is the end result of a complex banking process.
Holders of a valid credit card have the authorization to GUI : Graphical User Interface
purchase goods and services up to a predetermined OS : Operating System
amount, called a credit limit. URL : Uniform Resource Locator
ATM Card : An ATM card (also known as a bank VRML : Virtual Reality Markup Language.
card, client card, key card or cash card) is a card issued PDF : Portable Document Format
by a bank credit union or building society that can be JPEG : Joint Photographic Experts Group
used at an ATM for deposits, withdrawals, account MICR : Magnetic Link Character Recognition
information and other types of transactions. DOS : Disk Operating System
COMPUTER ACRONYMS DVD : Digital Video/ Versatile Disc
CDAC : Centre for Development of Advanced OCR: Optical Character Reader
Computing TCP : Transmission Control Protocol
C-DOT : Centre for Development of Telematics VIRUS : Vital Information Resource Under Siege
HTTP : Hyper Text Transfer Protocol WLAN : Wireless Local Area Network
ROM : Read Only Memory WML : Wireless Markup language
RAM : Random Access Memory XML : Extensible Markup Language
BIOS : Basic Input-Output System BCR : Bar Code Reader
MODEM : Modulator-Demodulator BASIC : Beginner's All Purpose Symbolic
CAD : Computer Aided Design instruction Code
PSTN : Public Switched Telephone Network BRD : Blu-Ray Disc
PSPDN : Pocket Switched Public Data Network DVR : Digital Video Recorder
RABMN : Remote Area Business Message Network EROM : Erasable Read Only Memory
LAN : Local Area Network Address Bar : An address bar is a text field near the
WAN : Wide Area Network top of a Web browser window that displays the URL of
the current webpage. The URL or web address reflects
MAN : Metropolitan Area Network
the address of the current page and automatically
CDMA : Code Division Multiple Access
changes whenever you visit a new webpage. Therefore,
GIAS : Gateway Internet Access Service you can always check the location of the webpage you
E-Mail : Electronic mail are currently viewing with the browser's address bar.
CD : Compact Disc Bios : Basic Input Output System. This is the basic
LCD : Liquid Crystal Unit set of instructions that tell the computer how to act. Most
VDU : Visual Display Unit computers have these instructions built into a chip that
ARPA : Advanced Research project Agency plugs into the motherboard.
IP : Internet Protocol Bit : Short for binary digit; either 1 or 0; the
TCP : Transmission Control Protocol smallest unit into which digital information may be
PING : Packet Internet Groper Boot up : The process of turning on the computer,
PROM : Programmable Read Only Memory which includes a number of functions that are performed
WWW : World Wide Web automatically every time the power switch is turned on.
IT Literacy : Computer 403 YCT
 Byte : There is Eight Bits in a Byte.
CMOS : Acronym "Complementary Metal Oxide
Semiconductor". A CMOS computer circuit consumes
very little power and is used in computers to keep track
of the system setup information, data, time, type of disk
and hard drives, etc. that a computer has installed. The
CMOS information is powered by the computer's on-
board battery. So if the on-board battery falls the
information in CMOS will be lost.
Compressed File : Computer files that have been
reduced in size by a compression program. Such
programs are available for all computer systems.
Crash : An unexpected shutdown either of a
program or the whole system.
Cyberspace : A term coined by author William
Gibson. It describes the imaginary space in which
computer users travel when "surfing" the Internet.
Domain Names : A name give to a host computer
on the Internet. E-mail names are good examples of
domain names (i.e. anyname@mopa.ca).
Download : The process of transferring information
from one computer to another, usually from a server to a
client. You download a file from another computer to
yours.
DPI : Dot per inch is a measure of spatial printing
or video dot density, in particular the number of
individual dots that can be placed in a line within the
span of 1 inch (2.54 cm).
Floppy Disk : It is a flat, portable, disk made of
plastic that can store files written magnetically on it's
surface information stored on Floppy disk can be read,
copied or deleted. The disk is protected by a shell or
cover of some kind. "Floppy" is not a misnomer, it was
originally referred to an obsolete type of disk 5.25" disks
were actually flexible or floppy while new ones 3.5"
disks are not.
GB : Acronym "Gigabyte" 1,024 Megabytes. It is
measure storage space. Hard Drives are measured in GB
capacity.
Gig : Refers to the amount of memory or space,
when used to describe data storage. One Gig or gigabyte
is equal to 1024 megabytes. Gigabyte is often
abbreviated as G or GB. (1 MB is equal to 1048576
bytes. Megabyte is frequently abbreviated as M or MB.)
GIF : Acronym "Graphic Interchange Format" One
of two popular systems used to compress the size of
image files so they require less bandwidth to transfer on
the Web.
GUI : This is a system where things are shown
graphically. This means that instead of entering
commands on a text only screen with a keyboard the user
manipulated icons and windows often with a mouse.
Hyperlink : A code which contains an "address",
which when clicked, will take you to that address.
IT Literacy : Computer 404
Icons : Pictures that are shortcuts to programs or
files. By clicking on an icon you start the program or
open the file.
ISDN : Acronym "Integrated Services Digital
Network" Large bandwidth telephone line. Allows you to
transfer information quickly.
JAVA : Developed by Sun Microsystems mainly to
enhance the "online experience" of the World Wide
Web.
Port : Port refers to the hardware through which
computer data is transmitted the plugs on the back of
your computer are ports. On the Internet, port often
refers to a particular application. For instance you might
telnet to a particular port on a particular host. The port is
actually an application.
Protocol : A set of rules computer programmers
apply when writing code for a specific software.
Computers and networks interact according to standard
protocols, which determine the behaviour that each side
of a network connection expects from the other side.
SQL : Acronym "Structured Query Language" an
official ANSI(American National Standards Institute)
language for retrieving information from a database.
Most database software providers add extensions. The
"official" pronunciation is "sequel".
Surfing : The random aimless exploration of web
pages achieved through following links that look
interesting with a document.
TCP/IP : Acronym "Transmission Control
Protocol/Internet Protocol" A set of protocols
(communications rules) that control how data is
transferred between computers on the Internet.
UNIX : A computer operating system, popular with
high-end computer users, academics and the research
community. Most hosts connected to the internet run
UNIX.
USB : Acronym "Universal Serial Bus" (the plug is
very flat and has no pins or prongs). This is a style of
port connection that is used by many peripheral devices
such as Palm Pilots, phones, scanners, printers etc. This
type of connection is much faster than more traditional
kind of connections such as serial and parallel ports
(often used by older printers these ports have plugs with
little screws attached).
URL : Acronym "Universal Resource Locator" The
specific path to a World Wide Web file, including
filename and extension.
Web Page : A single screen (document) on a Web
sites.
Information Technology (IT) including : ICT
(Information and Communication Technology) is the
application of appropriate (enabling) technologies to
information processing.
YCT
 Exam Pointer
Computer : An Introduction ■ The specialty of erasable optical disc is
- It is possible to overwrite
■ The full name of PC is - Personal computer
■ MICR is mainly used - In bank
■ Theoretically computer is divided into
■ The world's first electronic computer was - ENIAC
- In three parts
■ Father of computer - Charles Babbage
■ The input device is - Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner etc
■ Gigabyte is equivalent to - 1024 Megabyte
■ The biggest key of the keyboard in size is
■ Data is stored in the computer in the form of
- Space bar key
- In binary form
■ Comes under function Keys - From F1 to F12
■ Non impact printer is - Laser printer
■ The following technology is used in the mouse
■ Full name of DVD is - Digital versatile disk
- Optical technology
■ The following part of the laser printer should not
■ The term CRT is used in the context of which device
come in contact with sun light - Drum
- Monitor
■ Output device is - Printer, Plotter, Monitor etc
■ The Full form of the word LCD is
■ Another name of Mini Computer
- Liquid Crystal Display
- Midrange computer
■ The full name of CPU is - Central processing unit
■ Portable computer cannot be considered
■ Full name of ALU is - Arithmetic and logic unit
- To desktop computer
■ Which word is used for processor- Pentium, Itanium
■ The button that starts or stops a feature like Caps
■ The word is used for the primary memory of the
Lock is called - Toggle keys
computer - RAM
■ There are graphical objects which are used to display
■ This device can be used as a secondary memory
and open frequently used applications - Icon
- Pen drive
■ Temporary type of memory is
■ This unit is used to measure the speed of the
computer are - Megahertz/Gigahertz - Random access memory (RAM)
■ Operating system is - Linux, Windows, DOS ■ Protects your computer system from harmful
■ Computer language is - BASIC programs - Anti virus
■ To work with numeric keypad you have to press ■ The level of intelligence of computer is - 0 (zero)
- Num lock key ■ System software is - Operating system
■ In which device video games are played on the ■ A program that finds and removes unnecessary and
computer - Joystick unused disk space to limit operations
■ Providing the results given by the computer is the - Disk De-Fragmenter
work of - Output device ■ The largest unit of memory - Yotta byte
■ There is a magnetic memory in - EPROM ■ GUI is the short form of - Graphical user interface
■ MS-DOS is - System software ■ Is a basic text editing program and is generally used
■ Which memory data is destroyed on the power cut to vies and edit text files - Notepad
- RAM ■ Which button used to delete a single character from
■ Sharp memory between CPU and main memory the right side - Backspace
- Cache memory ■ Used other than function keys to create shortcuts is
■ The example of primary storage is done - Combination keys
- ROM, RAM, EPROM ■ The meaning of CD ROM is
■ Full name of EPROM is - Compact disc read only memory
- Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory ■ Help to protect your computer from various types of
■ Used in calculators, laptops and video games unwanted software - Windows firewall
- LCD panel ■ Alt + I + F is used for - Mathematical operations
■ Programs written in high level language are called ■ The input device of computer is - Keyboard
- Source code ■ The brain of the computer is - CPU
■ Super market management program ■ To cut the selected file the short cut key is - Ctrl + x
- Software application ■ 1 byte contains - 8 bit
■ The Unit of storage capacity of memory is ■ Low level language is also called
- Bit, Byte, Kilobyte and Megabyte - Machine language
IT Literacy : Computer 405 YCT
■ There are three main part of a computer, input unit, ■ Peripheral device display information to the user by
output unit and - Control processing unit - Monitor
■ An integrated (IC) is a small electronic device made ■ The first pair of audio headphones was made in 1910
is - Semi conductor material by - Nathaniel Baldwin
■ A computer program or software that is stored in a ■ When the processor is using programs and data they
computer corrupts the information it is called - Virus are kept in - Main memory
■ One gigabyte is equal to - 1024×1024 byte ■ The programs and data that the CPU is currently
■ Component of the motherboard is - Processor processing which computer memory is used to store
■ What is hardware and not software - Control unit them goes in - Internal memory
■ What are the devices that make up the computer ■ Permanent memory of a computer is called - ROM
system and what are the you can see or touch ■ The buffer used to accommodate the speed difference
- Hardware is called - Cache
■ Written programs that cause the computer to function ■ Who is used as a secondary storage system in
in the desired way - Software computer - Floppy
■ Mother boards are ■ In the context of computer software means
- Circuit board containing the CPU and - Computer program
other chips are attached ■ Bill Gates co-founded Microsoft corporation in 1975
■ Which work the computer does not do with
- Understanding - Paul G. Allen
■ Connects the CPU and other components on the ■ Which program is essential for the computer system
mother board to the mother board - System bus to work - Logistics
■ First mechanical computer designed by Charles ■ BIOS which is a part of PC operating system - ROM
Babbage was - Analytical engine ■ The full form of (POST) is - Power on self test
■ First electronic digital computer contain ■ Examples of word processing spread sheet and photo
- Electronic Valve editing are - Application software
■ The only computer made available for commercial (Microsoft Windows)
use was - Univac ■ Windows 98 supports - 32/64 bit
■ Where was the first computer installed in India ■ Windows XP can be installed in this mode
- Indian Statistical Institute (Kolkata) - NTFS and FAT 32
■ In which city India's first post office ATM has been ■ When windows 98 and XP are installed in a computer
opened - Chennai it is called - Dual booting system
■ In a hybrid computer what features are combined in ■ Install windows XP - Using Run.exe file
these - Analog and digital computer ■ There is a button on the left corner of the task bar
■ On the basis of memory size and performance which
- Start button
type of computer is known as "Big iron"
■ The start button of windows is in the menu contain
- Mainframe computer
- Run command
■ Mouse, trackball and joystick are examples of
■ You can customize the task bar by
- Pointing devices
- Right mouse button menu on task bar
■ Optical character reader (OCR) and light pen is an ■ To bring the clock to the right corner of the taskbar
example of - Input device select - Show the clock
■ How many alphabets are there in the keyboard of the ■ In windows operating system when we delete the file
computer - 26 it goes - In the recycle bin
■ As a standard pointing device in the graphics user ■ To create a new folder on the desktop use the
interface is used - Mouse following command of the right button menu of the
■ To select the word click the mouse - Twice mouse - New command
■ Often used to select or highlight - Mouse ■ To change the display properties of windows in
■ Scanner scans - Both picture and text control panel click on - Display theme
■ Full form of OMR is - Optical Mark Reader ■ Accessories of windows have component
■ Output is - Which the processor gives to the user - System tools
■ Which group has only output device ■ Customizing windows for persons with disabilities
- Plotter, Monitor, Printer for this the following option is used - Accessibility
■ How is the display size of a monitor measured ■ Network set up wizard comes
- Diagonally - Under communication
IT Literacy : Computer 406 YCT
■ To establish on internet connection use the sub-option ■ To save the file use this command of the file menu
of the communication option given in the accessories lets use - save command
option of windows - New connection wizard ■ To set the size of the page according to your
■ Windows media player comes under the following requirement use-page - Set up command
section of accessories - Entertainment ■ Page set up command is used to set the margin
■ To watch the movie stored in VCD or DVD use around the page to set the - Margin tab
- Windows media player ■ Paper size use the following page setup command lets
■ The computer itself searches and removes use the option - Layout tab
unnecessary files stored in the hard disk for this we ■ To see the preview of the page use this command of
use the utility of the system tool - Disk cleanup file menu - Print preview command
■ To withdraw the file again from the recycle bin is ■ Use to close MS Word - Alt key + F4
done by - Restore ■ Use to cancel the command - Control + Z
■ File management input output management and ■ Use this key strokes to select the entire file
processor management are the main function of - Control + A
- Operating system ■ The command used to check spelling is in the
■ Windows to display various applications and - Tool Menu
documents on the desktop in shown - By icon ■ Recover the file itself use for this
■ The first screen of the interface after booting the - Auto correct command
computer in windows is called - Desktop ■ Used to insert date and time - Insert Menu
■ Can copy files and folders open files and delete files ■ Microsoft office is - Desktop application
and folders - In windows explorer ■ Word processing software is - MS-Word
■ Windows XP and Linux are example ■ To change the size of the text use the command
- Operating system - Ctrl + shift + >
■ The main window of the program in GUI is called ■ Editing, formatting, save, load, output mixing all
- Application window symptoms are - Word processing
■ The gateway of window xp is called - Desktop ■ MS view buttons in word are - Five types
■ File manager in windows operating system is called ■ Commands are used to save the document - Ctrl + S
- Windows explorer ■ To give double line space in a paragraph, we use
■ To cut, copy and paste is selected from - Edit Menu - (Ctrl + 2) command
■ The extension part to be added to the name of word ■ To convert the text to uppercase use
documents is - .doc & .docx - (Ctrl + Shift + A) command key
■ Edit Menu, File Menu and Help Menu components ■ The largest formatting unit in MS word is - Page
are - In the Menu bar ■ Allows to change the current setting on the computer
■ Minimum 1 GB RAM is required - For windows is - Control panel
■ A picture placed on the desktop is called ■ Synonyms of a word when typed in MS word is
- Desktop background, Screen saver received - Thesaurus
■ The bar present at the bottom of the desktop is called Microsoft Excel
- Task bar ■ A spreadsheet program is - Excel
■ The full form of FAT is - File allocation table ■ Title bar represents - Document title
■ An example of an operating system is ■ On menu bar provides us - Command
- Microsoft Windows ■ Go to the next worksheet - From sheet tab
■ If we are working in a window environment then the ■ If any menu command is preceded by (...) it will
desktop of the background area is called - The screen show us - Dialog boxes
■ The general meaning of 'OS' computer is ■ If a menu command has a triangle mark next to it will
- Operating system have - Sub menu
Microsoft Office ■ Shortcut key are necessary to use - Function keys
■ The operating system is which MS word is used ■ To open the task pen use the command
- Windows - View menu's task pen command
■ Use to open a new file - (Control + N) key ■ The following work can be done from office assistant
■ Use to open an already created file - Open command - Get help
■ The extension name of the text files created in ■ Office assistant is - In the window menu
notepad is - .txt ■ There are both rows and columns - In the worksheet

IT Literacy : Computer 407 YCT

■ The command is used to open a new workbook ■ Absolute cell reference is marked before - & marks
- New command of file menu ■ The cell address 4th row and 4th column will be - D4
■ Use of this period to end the content of the cell lets ■ Application software is - MS office
- Do-clear command or edit ■ Microsoft office's personal information manager
■ To insert new row use the command - Out look
- Insert menu key row command ■ A pre-designed document with a coordinating font
■ To erase the contents of a cell press key layout and background is a - Template
- Back space key ■ If you use a font that a browser if not aided by then
■ To delete a column or row use the delete the text - Will be displayed in the default font
- Command of the edit menu ■ Software used in wood processing - PageMaker
■ To insert a new cell use - Cell command ■ Which programs are used to create amount based
document is - Spread sheet
■ Used to copy cells - Command of edit menu
■ Customer inventory and payroll records of a business
■ Used to bring up the office clipboard view
is stored in file - Worksheet
- Menu office clipboard
■ Which type of software is like an accountants
■ Shortcut key to go to worksheet A1 cell is worksheet - Spread sheet
- Ctrl + Home ■ Which of the following is a Spread sheet application
■ The name of the worksheet can have maximum of program - MS Excel
- 255 characters ■ In MS Excel which function is used to find the
■ The maximum number of columns that a worksheet highest value under the list - Max
in excel can have is - 256 ■ Can be made in Excel
■ Excel's worksheet is called - Electronic spread sheet - Bar, Chart, Line graph & Pie chart
■ The cell where the pointer is present in excel is called ■ By default in Excel the text inside the cell is
- Active cell Horizontally aligned is called - Left align
■ Number in an excel worksheet default to the left ■ The default alignment of text is MS Excel is - Left
- In right alignment ■ The entire worksheet can be selected in excel
■ Default worksheet level is in excel worksheet - Ctrl + S + spacebar
- Book-1 ■ You can select the entire row by pressing in excel.
■ Appears on opening the new workbook - Shift + spacebar
- 3 worksheet ■ Key to create a chart from a selected cell range in
■ Address of the fourth row and seventh column will be excel shortcuts are - F11
- G4 ■ In MS Excel a function within a function is called
■ The smallest range of excel is - Cell - Nested function
■ The file created in excel are called - Workbook ■ To rename an excel worksheet
■ The bar of excel window to enter values and formula - On the worksheet tab double click and type new
called - Formula bar name
■ Below the title bar in excel - Menu bar ■ Professionally designed an empty document that
changed according to the needs of the user is
■ The figure formed by the intersection of column and
row is called - Cell - Template
■ In Excel it is a predefined formula that can perform
■ Excel worksheet 2003 contains - 65536 row
complex calculations provides shortcuts for
■ Extension name of the file in excel is - .xls
- Function
■ The command used to move a cell range from one
■ This feature of excel includes the function of
place to another in the same worksheet - Cut calculating average minimum, maximum and sum
■ The symbol "^" represent - Ambush operator - Calculate
■ Your excel 2007 file with extension is stored as ■ To enter the date present in a cell, press
- .xlsx - CTRL + (semicolon)
■ The text located in the upper margin of the page is ■ By using which option do you create charts is excel
called - A Header - Chart Wizard
■ To move the active cell to the next sheet command ■ In any wide sheets (spreadsheet) the address of the
used is - Ctrl + page down first cell is - A1
■ Use to go to the last row - Ctrl + ↓ ■ The address of the cell at intersection in the first row
■ A file that provides an application gateway in a ready & twenty seventh column will be - AA1
to use form - Templates ■ Presentation scripting software is - MS power point

IT Literacy : Computer 408 YCT

 Microsoft Word ■ In word the feature which automatically detects
common errors is called - Auto correct
■ MS word is basically used ■ That feature of the word which determines the
- To prepare various documents amount of space between the characters automatically
■ Example of Microsoft words is adjusts between combinations allowing all the words
- Application software appear equally spaced is called - Kerning
■ Which component of MS-office is clearly Notepad ■ Considered to be the most intelligent CASE tool
- MS Word - Work bench
■ You can start Microsoft word by using the button ■ Which menu does the user select to print a document
- Program in word will select - File
■ The default body font in Microsoft word 2007 is ■ There are margins in the pair of
- Calibri font - Four (top, bottom, right, left)
■ In MS Word which key's can be used to select ■ In preview mode - View all pages in your document
multiple words lines or paragraphs in word - Control ■ Which short key is used to reach directly at the
■ These combination keys are used to copy and paste bottom of the MS word document - Control + end
respectively while editing the text document of MS ■ In MS word Ctrl + K is used - To insert a hyperlink
word - Ctrl + C, Ctrl + V ■ Delete text in MS word
■ Which key combination is used in MS word to - Select the text by pressing the delete key
perform a task as before - Ctrl + Z ■ When working in a text document of MS word it
■ To center align the selected text short cut key is selects the entire paragraph by default when the
- Ctrl + E mouse is clicked - Triple
■ The short cut key to respond to the action performed Internet and Web Browser
at the end of a document in MS word is - Ctrl + Z ■ Full name of LAN is - Local Area Network
■ Paragraph formatting in a word processor includes ■ Full name of WAN is - Wide Area Network
- Line spacing ■ Commonly used networks is - Wide Area Network
■ Using the 'Home key' in Microsoft word the ■ Now a days it is being used for LAN - Date switch
processor moves the cursor to the beginning of the
■ Crores of computers around the World are inter
-Line connected - By internet
■ If a word is repeated immediately how does MS-word ■ First Internet was started - In America
display will respond
■ The initial purpose of internet was
- Below the repeated word red wavy line
- To keep defense information secret
■ To save a document with a new name one will choose
■ The internet was started - 1970
- Click on file save as
■ The development work of internet was started
■ To open file in MS-word we use - Ctrl + O
- Dr. Kleinrock
■ The shortcut key for go to menu in MS-word is
■ Internet is considered to be the birthday
- Ctrl + G
- 1st January, 1983
■ The pre-designed format of text and color scheme is ■ World Wide Web was started in - 1990
- Template ■ The full name of IP address is - Internet protocol
■ To change the font in MS word use the short key ■ The digits are used in IP address - From 0 to 255
- Control + Shift + F ■ For the division of digits in internet protocol (IP)
■ Use the Short key for shift + tab address is used - .dot
- To go back through the options ■ The full name of DNS in internet is
■ If a number or letter is above the base line and is - Domain name system
smaller is called - Superscript ■ .gov domain name is used - Government institutions
■ To subscript the selected word in MS-word the short ■ .net domain name is used - To network
key is - Ctrl + = ■ Using the internet explorer go to - On the web
■ To extract a paragraph from a report you wrote, you ■ Web address is typed in this part of internet explorer
can - Highlight and delete - Address bar
■ In MS which key should be pressed to start a new ■ Internet explorer is available in the following
page in word - Ctrl + Enter operating system - Windows
■ You click B to make the text - Bold ■ Internet was started in India - August 15, 1995
■ To indent the first paragraph of your report you ■ The full meaning of e-commerce is
should use - Tab key - Electronic Commerce
IT Literacy : Computer 409 YCT
■ The combination of hardware and software is the ■ The most popular virus is - C-brain
process of saving a file from the internet to the ■ In the terminology of computer the terror of virus has
computer is called - Downloading been named - Electronic terrorism
■ The invertors of www is - Tim Berners Lee ■ These network mediums are used in WAN
■ Internet security is related to - CERT (Computer - Communication satellite
emergency Response Team) ■ The modem which is like a circuit board and which is
■ Real timed conversation which happens on computer integrated with the computer is added to
is - Chat - Internal modem
■ The address of a document or page on www is ■ The internet explorer is - Web browser
- URL ■ Maximum distance of LAN connections is - 1 km
■ The act of opening another web page by clicking on a ■ The computer network which is in the regional
word of the web page is called - Hyperlink national and international boundary spreads - WAN
■ Internet explorer, Mozilla firebox and Google ■ Illegal work done on the internet is called
Chrome - Web browser - Cyber crime
■ E-commerce means - Internet business accounting ■ The device used to connect telephone of PC is
■ The full form of HTML is - Modem
- Hyper Text Markup Language ■ Fire wall is used in computers - For protection only
■ The set of connections between the links in the local ■ One place is used by the employees of a company the
area is called - LAN classification of an exclusively private network going
■ Performs the work of routing in OSI model through would be - Local area network
- Network layer ■ The network of general importance is
■ The best web based e-mail service provider - Local area network (LAN)
recognized - Hot mail ■ LAN (Local area network) connected computers
■ The work of converting analog signal to digital signal - Share information and/or peripheral equipment
and converting digital signal to analog signal is ■ The world's largest network is - Internet
- Modem's ■ Telephone lines are used in the network - WAN
■ It is useful to send e-mail - SMTP protocol ■ Communication network which is used by large
■ To store files on a certain subject - Website organization in the regional national and global area
■ Full name of URL - Uniform Resource Locater - WAN
■ .gov, .edu and .net etc extensions are called- Domain ■ Who has the largest geographical area city is
codes categories
■ IRC in R stands for - Riley - WAN
■ FTP stands for - File Transfer Protocol ■ SWAN under the National e-Governance plan is
■ Private internal network of an organization is called - State wide area network
- Internet ■ The full name of Wifi is - Wireless fidelity
■ Google MSN and yahoo these are all - Search engine ■ Bluetooth technology allows
■ Web spiders and crawler are examples of - Search - Wireless communication between devices
■ Internet was started as - US security forces network
engine ■ Inter connected government, academic, corporate,
■ ISP means - Internet Service Provider public and a global system of personal computer is
■ Which web page interaction is available from the - Internet
website get done - Dynamic ■ The first network to sow the speed of the internet was
■ The highest cost is at this medium - Fiber optic - ARPANET (Advance Research
■ Addressing is used in LAN - Four byte Project Agency Network)
■ Social networking site is - Face book ■ Responsible for the development of advanced
■ One type of protocol is - UDP research projects for agency (ARPA) - Internet
■ To navigate a website the user has to go it is ■ The world's largest network is - Internet
necessary - In URL ■ Which country has the most internet used - China
■ Developed to build network of network - IP ■ Allowing an external organization to access internal
■ This is used to search the web page on www web pages if yes then it is used - Extranet
- HTTP protocol ■ A network that is used to connect LAN computers in
■ There is no uniform protocol - ASCII a building to connect with each other is done
■ Antivirus is - Program Code - Intranet
IT Literacy : Computer 410 YCT
■ The group of rules and guidelines used for the ■ Computer hacker is
internet is technically known as - Netikel - A person who for personal gain malicious
■ Raymond Samuel Tomlinson if famous for intentions does not follow computer
developing is - E-mail ■ Alta Vista is - A search engine
■ Who invented e-mail in India- V.A. Shiva Very Important Exam Question
Ayyadurai
■ Modern computer was first discovered - 1946
■ Pshama@yahoo.com is - e-mail address
■ Great revolution came in the field of computer - 1960
■ Full form of FTP is - File transfer protocol
■ The Hindi name of computer is
■ Computer is not unique in the network
- Sangnak (Computer)
- Work group name
■ Computer literacy day is celebrated on - 2 December
■ Host ID for class 'C' IP of address bits used for -8
■ The input unit of computer is
■ The post used by SMTP is - 25
- Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner
■ Internet explorer is - A web browser
■ 1 Kelobyte (KB) is equal to how many bytes
■ Which application do you use to get information from
the internet - The web browser - 1024 bytes
■ 1 Megabyte (MB) is equal to how many bytes
■ Which is the browser - Safari
■ To view information on the web you must have - 1024 KB
■ 1 Gigabyte (GB) is equal to how many bytes
- The web browser
■ Browser is - 1024 MB
■ IC used in computers chip are made of - Silicon
- The software for searching web pages on the
internet ■ The word HTTP in the internet address is the
expanded from of - Hyper text transfer protocol
■ In the third quarter of the year 2008 a new let's start
the browser - Chrome ■ The language used by children in a computer program
is often there is - Logo
■ Which web browser was developed by Google
■ A portable personal computer that fits on your lap it
- Chrome
is small it is called - Note book computer
■ Google chrome is - Web browser
■ Multi processing is - By more than one processor
■ Browser is used - For technical people
■ Optical memory is - C.D. Rom
■ Client side script usually refers to the execution on
■ CPU which unit is control, memory and the third
the client side by computer programs on the web
- Arithmetic/logic
- Web browser
■ CPU, ALU consist of - Registers
■ What types of files can be sent e-mail attachments is
■ Which part of the computer is used for calculation an
- All types file
comparison is - ALU
■ http://www/rediff.com is - Website
■ A hardware device that converts data into meaning
■ Choose the odd one out - HTML
full information - Processor
■ Which is also called web there are millions of
■ There are three main parts of the processor
documents - World wide web
- ALU, Control unit and registers
■ Programs that serve HTML files and page- Web page
■ Which control the movement of signals between CPU
■ What services, e-commerce, e-learning, e-banking,
and I/O is - Control Unit
m-commerce etc is. - e-services
■ The function of the central processing unit of the
■ Provides information about the location of a
computer is - Calculation and processing
document in the internal - URL
■ Performs the operation - Arithmetic
■ Website address or URL is a unique name which
establishes the identity of a specific on the web page ■ Most of the processing takes place in the computer
- Website - CPU
■ W3C stands for - World wide web consortium ■ The main memory works in coordination with - CPU
■ Viruses that over time or on a specific date let's go it's ■ The micro processor which is the brain of the
called - Time bomb computer is called - Micro chip
■ Virus is usually found in hard disk but it is the ■ The result produced by the computer is - Output
situation keeps on changing - Viyana ■ The main components of CPU is
■ Which of these viruses spreads through dangerous e- - Control unit, Memory unit, ALU
mails - Js-night ■ What kind of intelligence has been given to the
■ Which of the category of virus does not replicate computer - Artificial
itself - Trojan horses ■ EDP is - Electronic Data Processing

IT Literacy : Computer 411 YCT

■ What is called information in computer - Data ■ Pattern of printed lines on most of the fire key
■ What is called data in computer products is called - Barcodes
- Symbols and numbers ■ The full form of OCR is
■ The data going into the computer is called - Input - Optical Character Recognition
■ Data processing means ■ The most common storage device for personal
- Preparing information for commercial use computer is - Floppy disk
■ In electronic device that converts data into ■ The input device used to get the printed diagram in
information processes by doing - Processor the computer is - Scanner
■ The first calculating machine is - Abacus ■ The first computer mouse was made
■ Who made the first mechanical calculator - Douglas Engelbart
- Blaise Pascal ■ When working on a document of PC the document is
■ The basic structure of computer was developed by stored temporarily in - RAM
- Charles babbage ■ Floppy disk is related to which type of memory is
■ The biggest fastest and most expensive computer is - External
- Super computer ■ What type of memory is RAM - Main memory
■ Commonly used computer is - Digital computer ■ What type of storage device are used in cell phones
■ CRY-1 is - Door computer goes - Cache
■ The use of multi-programming started with which ■ What type of storage in internal storage - Primary
generation of computer was - Third generation ■ CD is also known by what name other than computer
■ When was the world's first super computer made disc - Optical disk
- 1976 ■ The most common types of storage device are
■ The name of the first computer made in India is - Magnetic
- Siddhartha ■ What you can do with CD - Read and writing
■ Microprocessor is the computer of which generation ■ What device can understand the difference between
- Fourth generation program and data can - Micro processor
■ What type of computer is Param computer made in ■ DVD is an example - Optical disk
India - Super computer ■ The main memory of a computer is called
■ In which country the calculation plant Abacus was - Primary memory, Internal memory, Primary
invented - China storage
■ IMAC is a type of - Machine ■ The process of dividing a disk into tracks and sectors
■ The Analytical engine was built by is - Formatting
- Charles Babbage ■ File system resides permanently in
■ First punch card was used - Joseph Mary - Secondary storage
■ Who has contributed the most in the development of ■ Performs simple math for CPU - ALU
computer - Von Neumann ■ Through whom the information between the
■ Developed the integrated circuit chip - J.M. Kilby components of the motherboard travels - Data BUS
■ Which substance has a layer on the magnetic disk ■ The main board of the computer is - Mother board
- Iron Oxide ■ The place where accessories are connected to the
■ On what principle does digital computer work system unit is called there are - Port
- Calculation ■ IBM in computer full name of
■ Which organization has developed Param super - International business machine
computer developed in India - C-DAC ■ Which part connects special types of music devices to
■ The first electronic computer ENIAC was made by sound cards - MIDI
Presper Eckert - John Mauchly and Presper Eckert ■ Controls communication for the entire computer
■ Dot matrix is a - Printer system - Mother board
■ By which printer one character is printed in one ■ The hardware used to read the disc is - Disk drive
stroke - Line printer ■ Thin plate or board with electronic components is
■ The fastest speed printer is - Laser printer called - Circuit board
■ The full name of LCD is - Liquid crystal display ■ Expansion cards are inserted in - Slot
■ Displays the work output in the computer's memory ■ In what is the clock speed of the computer calculated
- Monitor - Bit
IT Literacy : Computer 412 YCT
■ What resides in the motherboard that connects the ■ The main language of Unix - Assembly
CPU to other components on the motherboard ■ Which software is used to work in computer goes
connects to - System bus - Application
■ Using which the first computers were programmed ■ The hardware of the computer is controlled by
- Machine language - System software
■ Basic computer language was developed by ■ What type of computer language is the compiler
- John G. kemeny - Low level
■ When was the basic computer language developed ■ Programs sold in the market for use in computers it is
- 1964 said - Software package
■ The representation of a program in the form of a ■ It works to converts the program written in the
picture is called - Flowchart assembly language of the computer into machine
■ Scientific computer language is - FORTRAN language - Assembler
■ Computer language COBOL is useful for ■ The technique or facility of making relation between
- Professional work hardware and software is called - Interface
■ The high level computer language similar to the ■ The basic program written in programming language
English language - COBOL is called - Source code
■ Inventor of computer language JAVA - Sun ■ CAD stand for - Computer Aided Design
■ MS word is an example of - Application software
Microsystem ■ A human readable representation of a program is
■ The computer language used on the internet is - called - Program code
JAVA ■ Converts and executed one statement at a time
■ The operating system called Unix is specially used - Interpreter
for ■ Restarting an already running computer is called
- Web servers - Re booting
■ Which programming language does not require a ■ What type of software is Linux - Open source
translator - Machine language ■ When two processors are installed in a computer it is
■ A mistake is an algorithm that gives wrong results it called is - Parallel processing
is called - Logical error ■ To access mainframe or super computer uses often
■ Number system to store computer data and perform use
calculations use - Binary - Terminal
■ Bit is the short from of - Binary digit ■ Protocol in which network components are connected
■ How many bits are there in a byte - 8 bit by a - Bus
■ The smallest unit of computer memory is called - Bit ■ What is the name of the network topology in which
■ How many digits are there in the binary number every possible node has bidirectional links - Mesh
system - 2(0, 1) ■ Unsolicited e-mail is called - Spam
■ The method of starting letters and symbols in bytes is ■ Network support and e-governance support to
called are - Coding system government bodies providing - NIC
■ Measure the length of a word in the computer - Bit ■ In computer terminology class means
■ In what form is information stored on a computer - An error in the program
- Digital data ■ The device which connects two or more networks is
■ Which is a program that makes use of the computer called - Gate way
become easy - A utility ■ The first page or main page that appears on accessing
■ Error in the program that would have produced a website is called - Home page
incorrect or in appropriate results are he is called ■ 'org' is related to which field - Organization
- Bug ■ .com domain is related to - Business organization
■ The primary purpose of software is to convert data ■ The full name of modem is
into - information - Modulator Demodulator
■ The process of finding errors in software code is ■ Full name of e-mail is - Electronic mail
- Debugging ■ The full name of internet is - International network
■ The physical structure of the computer is called ■ Who is called information high way - Internet
- Hardware ■ Who is considered the father of e-mail
■ The full name of DOS is - Disk operating system -Ray Tomlinson
■ When was the development of Unix - 1969 ■ The inventors of WWW are - Timberburnes lee
IT Literacy : Computer 413 YCT
■ The standard protocol of internet is - TCP/IP ■ The range of word length of a super computer is
■ The most popular internet activity is - 16 to 64 bits
- Communication ■ Number 7 is written in binary code - 111
■ Button to reload web page goes to - Refresh ■ Window is a type in computer - Operating System
■ Writting on e-mail is similar to - Writting letters ■ Computer virus is only one type of software which
■ Software contains lists of commands and options mainly destroy - To programs
- Tool bars ■ The world's fastest computer is - Frontier (USA)
■ Which company made MS office 2000 - Microsoft ■ What is Anupam - A super computer
■ The founders of Microsoft company are ■ Michelangelo virus is - Computer viruses
- Paul Allen, bill Gates ■ Applies to all computers - Machine language
■ Windows software was created by - IBM ■ What is apple - A fourth generation computer
■ MS is what type of software in windows - GUI ■ Super computer developed by Bhabha atomic
research center the project is - Anupam
■ Development of windows 98 in year - 1998
■ Fastest speed mimic of brain function the computer
■ The name of new version of android, Android 8.0 is
with - Quantum computer
- Oreo
■ Spam is a word related to which subjects - Computer
■ In July 2005 which company acquired Android Inc.
■ File is often called - Document
was acquired for millions of dollars - Google
■ The principle of working of computer is - Process
■ What is android - Operating system
■ The microprocessor which is the brain of the
■ The number of pixels displayed on the screen is computer is called is - Microchip
known - Color depth
■ The name given by the user to the document is called
■ Who is called the father of modern computer
- File name
- Charles Babbage ■ Changing existing document is called - Editing
■ Who shows your position in text - Cursor ■ In word processing it is said to move the text from
■ A rectangular group of cell in a worksheet is one place to another within the document- Cut and
- Cell range paste
■ The main folder of the storage device is called ■ How the data is organized in the spread sheet
- Root directory - Row and columns
■ Displays the contents of the active cell in Excel ■ The software for preparing text based document is
- Formula bar called - Word processors
■ A group of files stored in a computer is called ■ All the components of your computer are either
- Directory - Input or output
■ Support the list of date files of a database is called ■ _______ represents raw facts while data becomes
- Data directory meaningful - Data information
■ In MS office the software that corrects spelling in ■ Alphanumeric data in information system generally
word is called - Spell check _______ take the form of - Numbers and alphabetic
■ Text in the column is usually aligned - Left ■ Characters are stored as information on the computer
■ Chart can be made by using which option in excel - Digital data
■ All the machinery and equipment of the computer is
- Chart wizard
called _______ - Hardware
■ In which mode the document is printed by default
■ Is in computer hardware the actual
- Portrait
- Main memory and control unit
■ A directory in directory is called - Sub directory
■ Written programs that cause the computer to function
■ A group of interrelated records is called - Data base in a desired manner we do ________ is called
■ The keyboard short cut for new slide is - Ctrl + N - Software
■ Where was the super computer Param built - Pune ■ Software means ______ - Programs
■ What is Google - Search engine ■ _______ An example of computer software is
■ What is IBM - Company - Microsoft office
■ Whose contents are destroyed when the computer is ■ Data or information used to run a computer _______
turned of - Memory is called - Software
■ First generation computer was used - Vacuum tube ■ The part of the computer responsible for the
■ The main system board of computer is called processing of data happens - CPU
- Motherboard ■ Is the conversion of input into output by - CPU
IT Literacy : Computer 414 YCT
■ Another word for CPU is - Micro processor ■ _______ is Antivirus software - Norton
■ CPU performance is usually measured in - MHz ■ The name of the parent company of Google formed
■ Computer is MIPS in computer terminology means on 2 October 2015 is - Alphabet Inc.
- Millian instruction per second ■ Trojan is a type of - Malware
■ P symbol in CPU is - Processing ■ _______ actual telephone call between people on the
■ A part of the central processing unit is - ALU internal - Internal telephony
■ Write new data in register the action of ■ Mobile phone was invented by - Martin cooper
- Erases the first contents of the register ■ MMU is the expansion of
■ Program counter register is an essential part of - Memory management unit
- Cache memory ■ Face book was started in the year - 2004
■ CPU has direct access to memory - RAM ■ Any online demo is - An active user interfaces
■ Program counter (PC) register are stored in ■ India-born Surdar Pichai is the Chief Executive
- Execute address of the next instruction Officer (CEO) of the company - Google
■ The main function of CPU is ■ Laser was invented by - Theodore Maiman
- Program instruction execution and processing ■ Concept of key stored programme was introduced by
data and information - John Von Neumann
■ Computer _______ sums up and compares data ■ In the context of software application CRM meaning
- On CPU is - Customer Relationship management
■ The function of the central processing unit of the ■ The full from of API is
computer is - Calculating and processing - Application programming interface
■ The microprocessor which is the brain of the ■ A device for recording spoken words in type is called
computer also it is called - Microchip - Dictaphone
■ Another name of computer chip is - Microchip ■ The full form of CAS is - Conditional Access
■ Under the brand name Pentium sold System
- Microprocessor ■ In the context of computer parts the term chip
■ Intel name is a - Computer processor company Jewelry means - Old junk computer of no use
■ A microprocessor at 8 bit word length _______ bit ■ SMS stands for - Short messaging service
data can simultaneously process -8
■ The first SMS was sent over the network - Vodafone
■ Is not a peripheral device - Motherboard
■ Father of SMS is - Matti Makkonen
■ For doing calculations in the computer _______
■ Associative memory in information technology is
mainly is liable - Arithmetic logic unit
called - Content addressable Memory
■ _______ manages computer resources - Control unit
■ In computer system a complete schemes are used to
■ The _______ part of the computer is called the
protect items in the sense of - Password
central nervous system - Control unit
■ The waste generated after the functionality of
■ The information travels from mother board to
personal computer is over it is said - E-waste
components through devices called - Buses
■ Do no evil the tagline of - Google
■ Mother board is
■ Cc _______ is
- Circuit board containing CPU and other are
chipped - Google e-mail to more than
■ Provides expansion capability for computer system one person say send copy
- Slots ■ The process of mixing AF signal and RF wave is
■ System unit is -Modulation
- Container containing electronic components are ■ In Doordarshan broadcasting picture message are
kept transmitted - By amplitude modulation
■ Minimum gate to obtain the Ex-OR function _______ ■ The world's first laptop computer in the market was
NAND gate is required -4 brought by - Epson
■ The name of the cloud computing service of the ■ A portable personal computer which can be carried
company skydive is - Microsoft on the lap it is small enough to be kept it is called
■ The expansion of SMPS is - Note book
- Switched mode power supply ■ In OSI network architecture routing works on
■ The process of carrying commands is - Execute - Network layer
■ The name of the latest android mobile phone ■ _______ there are graphical objects that represent
operating system 6.0 is - Marshmallow commonly used applications - Icons
IT Literacy : Computer 415 YCT
 Previous Year Questions
1. A/An _______ is a special high-speed storage
mechanism.
(a) board (b) cache
(c) host (d) interface
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (b) : Cache is a special high speed storage system
used in computer. Cache stores data so that it can be
solved faster in future requests for that data. Cache
memory has the shortest access time.
2. A/An _________ is a painting and drawing
device shaped like a pen. It is used on a touch
screen.
(a) flag (b) stylus
(c) index (d) cursor
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (b) : Stylus is a pen-shaped painting and drawing
device, which is used to operate touch screen devices
such as tablets PC etc.
Flag-The value of a flag is used to determine the next
step in a program.
Index- An index is a method of sorting data by creating
a keyword or list of data.
Cursor-The arrow like mark in the computer screen
that selects opens or closes things in the computer
screen with the help of mouse activity is called cursor.
3. ......... is the most common way of connecting
computers on a network with a wired
connection.
(a) LAN (b) Internet
(c) Ethernet (d) Wi-Fi
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (c) : Ethernet is a type of computer networking
technology which is used in a local area network (LAN)
to connect data only through connecting Ethernet
computers to a network with a wired connection. It is
the most common method. It enables devices to
communicate with each other by a protocol which is set
of rules or common - network language. It was invented
by Robert Metcalte. Ethernet also known as Alto Aloha
network which is commonly used LAN protocol. There
are different types of ethernet-
(1) Fast Ethernet (2) Gigabit Ethernet
(3) Logigabit Ethernet (4) Switch Ethernet
4. The physical place where a computer stores
information is called :
(a) Modem (b) Wi-Fi
(c) Hard disk (d) POP
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (c) : A hard disk drive is a data storage device in
which data can be stored for a long time. That is the
physical place where the computer stores information is
called Hard disk. A hard disk is a magnetic storage
medium for microcomputers. It is a flat, circular plate
made of aluminium or glass and coated with a magnetic
material. Hard disk is abbreviated as HD or HDD.
IT Literacy : Computer 416
5. –––––––is a technology that allows computers
and other devices to communicate through
wireless signals.
(a) Wi-Fi
(b) Wired equivalent Privacy
(c) ZIP
(d) Wireless
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (a) It is a technology used for Local Area
Networking (LAN) of devices and internet access,
allowing nearby digital devices to exchange data by
radio waves. Wi-Fi is a technology through which
computers, smartphones, laptops and other devices can
get internet access through wireless signals. Wi-Fi is a
trademark of the Alliance.
6. Which of the following acts as an interface
between the Central Processing Unit (CPU)
and the main memory?
(a) Cache memory (b) Compact memory
(c) Hard disk (d) Magnetic type
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (a) Cache Memory is an extremely fast memory
that acts as buffer between RAM (main memory) and
CPU.
It holds frequently requested data and instructions so
that they are immediately available to the CPU when it
requires.
7. ––––––– is an improvement over wired
equivalent privacy (WEP) used in wi-fi
networks.
(a) Software as a service
(b) Post office protocol
(c) Secure sockets layer
(d) Wi-fi Protected Access.
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (d) Wireless Protected Access (WPA) is an
improvement over wired equivalent privacy (WEP)
used in Wi-Fi network. Wi-Fi protected wireless access
has three protocols and security certification programs
developed by the Wi-Fi Alliance to secure the network,
which are WPA1, WPA2 and WPA3.
8. A piece of programming code inserted into
another program to cause damage is called:
(a) Viral (b) Virus
(c) Malware (d) Spam
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (c) : Malware - It stands for malicious software,
is a whole term used for viruses, worms, trojans and
other harmful computer programs. Hackers used it to
destruct the files and gain access to sensitive
YCT
information. It is especially designed to cause damage
to a single computer, server or computer network.
Virus - It is a type of code that inserts itself within the
code of another program already installed in computer,
then forces that program to take malicious action and
spread itself.
Note - Thus virus is a type of malware, so all viruses
are malware but not every piece of malware is a virus.
9. A file, which is used to archive and compress
them into one file of smaller size using a
program is called as ___.
(a) SSL (b) ZIP
(c) SAAS (d) SEO
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (b) : ZIP file is a system that packs one or more
files of the computer into a single file or folder which
takes up less space than the original file and is also smaller
in size. The ZIP file is also called as an archive file. Its
purpose is to eliminate the problem of our space and
storage and at the same time give security to the files.
10. Unsolicited electronic messages sent for
marketing purposes are called _______.
(a) spam (b) URL
(c) unzip (d) virus
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (a) Unsolicited messages sent for promotional
purposes are called spam.
When a sender sends a large number of mails on your
email address without your permission in the form of
an advertisement or promotion of a product, which is of
no use to you is called as spam mail massage, also
called electronic junk mail.
11. A video or photo experiencing a sudden spike
in popularity in a short period of time is
termed as ––––––
(a) virus (b) spam
(c) viral (d) Wi-Fi
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (c) The experience of sudden popularity of a
video or photo in a very short time is called viral.
12. A software program that has been developed to
harm other computers is called a ___.
(a) Local Area Network (b) Server
(c) Operating System (d) Malware
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (d) Malware - It stands for malicious software, is
a whole term used for viruses, worms, trojans and other
harmful computer programs. Hackers used it to destruct
the files and gain access to sensitive information. It is
especially designed to cause damage to a single
computer, server or computer network.
13. What will be the full form of JPEG ?
(a) Joint Program Executing Group
(b) Joint Photographic Experts Group
(c) Joint Program Experts Group
(d) Joint program Experimental Group
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
IT Literacy : Computer 417
Ans : (b) The full form of JPEG is Joint photographic
experts Group. It is a standard way of compression
graphic images and are used to store images or sent
them over the internet.
14. A/ An ..... is an interface on a computer to
which you can connect a device.
(a) port (b) array
(c) anime (d) dongle
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (a) Computer port is used to connect any device
with computer (CPU). These ports connects various
types of internal devices such as hard disk, DVD player
and external devices such as keyboard, mouse, printer,
monitor etc to the mother board. Port provides input
and output interfaces which is used by devices through
external device, internal device and required to
communicate with the computer network.
15. Binary number 101110110 is equal to decimal
number _______.
(a) 374 (b) 326
(c) 468 (d) 412
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (a) (101110110)10 = ()2-
1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0
28 × 1 + 27 × 0 + 26 × 1 + 25 ×1 + 2 4 × 1 + 23 × 0 + 22 × 1 + 21 × 1 + 20 × 0
256 + 0 + 64 + 32 + 16 + 0 + 4 + 2 + 0 = 374
Therefore, (101110110)10 = (374)2
16. ______is the general term covering all the
different types of threats to your computer
safety such as viruses, spyware, worms, trojans,
rootkits and so on.
(a) Clickbait (b) Encryption
(c) Spam (d) Malware
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (d) : Malware is common in general for all types
of threats related to computer security such as viruses,
spyware, Warms, Trojans, Rootkits etc. Malware is a
software that is specially designed to harm a computer
or other software installed on it.
17. The_____ process loads the operating system
into main memory or the random access
memory (RAM) installed on your computer.
(a) Index (b) format
(c) boot (d) map
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (c) : The boot process loads the operating system
installed on your computer into the main memory or
random access memory (RAM). The booting process
starts again when the computer is restarted. Computer
hardware is tested during booting.
18. A/An ...... is software used to maintain the
security of a private network.
(a) firewall (b) click bait
(c) encryption (d) malware
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (a) A firewall is a software used to maintain the
security of a private network.
YCT
19. ......... is when we cover a surface with a pattern
of the shapes so that there are no overlaps or
gaps.
(a) Gradient (b) Kerning
(c) Tessellation (d) Tracking
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (c) A tessellation (or tiling) is when we cover a
surface with a flat shaped pattern so that there is no
overlap or gap.
In computer terminology, Tessellation is the dividing of
data sets of polygons also called as vertex sets
presenting objects in a scene into suitable structures.
20. A––––map converts color intensity or grayscale
information to heights to give the appearance
that features are raised above the surface, like
embossed letters.
(a) Tint (b) tone
(c) bump (d) Shade
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (c) A bump map transforms color intensity or
gray scale information into height to give the
impression that features are raised above a surface like
raised letters. Bump mapping is a method used in
computer graphics to follow wrinkles and bumps on the
surface of an object.
21. To––––– is to prepare a storage medium,
usually a disk, for reading and writing.
(a) defrag (b) boot
(c) map (d) format
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (d) Formatting preparing storage medium usually
a disc for reading and writing to do.
22. Which of the following statement is wrong with
respect to computer.
(a) It is a logical machine and processed
information
(b) It can access whatever information it has stored
(c) It has no impulse and no feeling or desire of its
own
(d) It accesses its information in an unrestricted
manner
D.M.R.C. 2002
Ans : (d) A computer is an automatic electronic machine
that accepts data stores it analyzes it according to the
given instruction and output the analyzed results as
needed. There is no emotion in it because it works within
the given guidelines (Program). It accesses its
information in a restricted manner. Hence option (d) will
be the appropriate answer.
23. All the components of your computer are
either.
(a) Software or CPU/RAM
(b) Application software or system software
(c) Input device or output device
(d) Hardware or software
(e) Input or output
RRB Allahabad ALP, 2006
IT Literacy : Computer 418
Ans : (d) All the components of computer are either
hardware or software. The set of instruction and
programs given in the computer is called a software and
the physical parts of the computer machine such as
keyboard, mouse, etc are called hardware.
24. Which of the following term is not related to
the computer.
(a) CPU (b) Mother board
(c) Hard disk (d) Erythrocytes
(R.R.B Kolkata (L.P.)-2012)
Ans : (d) Erythrocytes are not related to the computer
where as the chipset in the computer is known as the
mother board. RAM is a temporary memory and CPU is
the main part of the computer, which is called as the
brain of the computer.
Erythrocytes is a term used to denote Red Blood cells
(RBC).
25. A person is called computer literate if he/she is
just able to :
(a) Run need–based applications
(b) Create anti–virus software
(c) Write programs
(d) Hack other computers
RRB NTPC, (Shift -2) Online, 19.03.2016
Ans : (a) A person is said to be computer literate if he
only be able to run the required application.
26. What is being converted into information by
computer process?
(a) Number (b) Data
(c) Input (d) Processor
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2005
Ans : (b) Computer converts data into information by
process. Data is unorganized data or facts while
information is organized data or facts. Data is the first
stage of the process.
Generally the data is divided into two parts-
1. Numerical data
2. Alphanumeric data
27. What is called data in computer?
(a) Number
(b) Mark
(c) given information
(d) Symbol and numerical
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2006
Ans : (c) Data is a raw or given information in the form
of input where these initial informations are translated
in a meaningful form which may be efficient for
movement or processing, called as information which is
saved by computer devices for the different tasks.
Computer data is information processed or stored by a
computer, including text images audio clips, software
programs, or it may be other types of data.
28. In which form the data is stored in the
computer?
(a) Octal (b) Hexa-decimal
(c) Decimal (d) Binary
UPSSSC Lower-1 (2015)
YCT
 Ans : (d) Data is stored in the form of binary in the
computer. Binary numbers are made up of 0 and 1.
As, it is the language that is understood by computer.
29. ............ states the raw facts while the data
becomes meaningful in.........
(a) information, reporting
(b) information, bits
(c) Data, information
(d) record, bytes
(e) Bits, bytes
RRB Secundrabad ALP, 2010
Ans : (c) Data are raw facts which do not given any
meaningful meaning like (A to Z), (0 – 9), (+, –, ∗, ÷)/,
\, >, <) etc. ,where as information is made of data after
processing which has some meaning like- 96/115B
ALLAHPUR ALLAHABAD, this is an information.
30. What form of alpha-numeric data does
generally take in information system?
(a) Sentence and paragraph
(b) Number and alphabetic characters
(c) Graphic and figure
(d) Human voice and other sounds
(e) None of these
RRB Secundrabad ALP, 2009
Ans : (b) Data is a raw fact or data which does not have
any meaning. The following are the types of data -
1. Alphabetical data (A to Z)
2. Numeric data (0 – 9)
3. Symbolic data (+, –, ÷, ∗, >, <)
Therefore, alphanumeric data in information system
generally takes the form of numbers and alphabetic
characters.
31. Which is the example of non-numeric data-
(a) Address of the employee
(b) Marks in the examination
(c) Bank remainder
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007
Ans : (e) In non-numeric data numbers (from 0-9) are
not used while in numeric data only numbers are used
such as exam marks, bank balance etc. The address of
employees contain alphanumeric data i.e. digits and
letters both are used.
32. ………stored as information on a computer.
(a) analog data (b) digital data
(c) modem data (d) watts data
(e) none of these
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2006
Ans : (b) Information is stored in the computer as a
string of 0 or 1 which is called digital data. In an
electronic memory the absence of a voltage level is
represented by 0 and the presence of a certain voltage
level by 1. In this way 0 and 1 are the two symbols
which represent the binary state of different parts of the
IT Literacy : Computer
computer these are called binary digits or bits. The
computer provides the facility to divide the main
memory into words or bytes. One byte contains 8 bits of
information.
33. Processed data is known as
(a) Data (b) Information
(c) Knowledge (d) Analysis
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2007
Ans : (b) All types of material available that can be
processed by the computer are called data. The data on
which the process has been complete is called
information. In other words the meaningful data
obtained after processing the data is called information.
34. The basic goal of computer process is to
convert data into ..........
(a) graph (b) tables
(c) files (d) information
(e) diagrams
RRB Kolkata ALP JE, 2008
Ans : (d) The basic goal of computer process is to
convert data into information.
35. All the machinery and equipment of computer
are called
(a) hardware (b) software
(c) chips (d) electronic equipment
R.R.B. Chennai (T.C./C.C.) 2001, 2002
Ans : (a) All the machinery and equipment (physical
components) of the computer are called hardware. E.g.
keyboard, mouse, monitor etc.
36. Which of the following is hardware and not
software?
(a) Excel (b) Printer driver
(c) Operating system (d) Power point
(e) Control unit
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2006
Ans : (e) Control unit is hardware. It is a part of the
CPU that receives instructions from programs stored in
main memory, interpret those instructions and generates
electronic signals that activate other unit of the system
to perform their functions. Printer drivers, excel,
operating system, power point are all software.
37. What are the devices that make up a computer
system and which you can see or touch?
(a) Menu (b) Print
(c) Software (d) Hardware
(e) None of these
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2006
Ans : (d) All those instruments which we can full feel
by touch are called hardware. All input/output devices
in a computer system come under hardware such as
monitor, keyboard, mouse, etc.
38. Which of the following is not a part of
hardware?
(a) Monitor
(b) Semi-conductor memory
419 YCT
 (c) LAN 44. What is hardware in computer?
(d) Keyboard (a) C+++ (b) Window 7
(R.R.B Kolkata (L.P.)-2006) (c) CD ROM (d) None of above
Ans : (c) Monitor, semi-conductor memory and RRB Ajmer ALP, 2008
keyboard are hardware while LAN is a network of Ans : (c) CD ROM (Compact Disc-Read only
computers interconnected in a fixed and small area. It is memory) is a hardware. Data is stored in C.D. ROM
used in office factory, shod etc. which cannot be easily changed. It reads data using
39. Computer hardware consists of - laser rays.
(a) Control unit
45. Which of the following is not hardware?
(b) Both main memory and control unit
(a) Processor Chip (b) Printer
(c) None of these
(c) Mouse (d) Java
(d) Main memory
RRB Kolkata ALP, 2008
R.R.B. Jammu (A.S.M.) Exam, 2005
Ans : (d) Java is a computer programming language. It
Ans : (b) Computer hardware consists of main memory
is a popular language used in client server web
and control unit. The physical part of the computer
machine that we can touch is called hardware such as application while mouse, printer, processor chip are
keyboard, mouse, monitor etc. hardware.
40. Which part of the computer can be touched 46. Computer is made up of which hardware
and felt? equipment?
(a) Program (b) Software (a) Monitor, central processing unit (CPU)
(c) Hardware (d) Output keyboard, mouse, software and network.
(e) None of these (b) Monitor, central processing unit (CPU)
RRB Secundrabad ALP, 2011 Keyboard, mouse, program and network
RRB Secundrabad ALP, 2009 (c) Monitor central processing unit (CPU)
Ans : (c) All those instruments which we can feel by keyboard, mouse, printer and modem
touch are called hardware. All input/output devices in a (d) Monitor central processing unit (CPU)
computer system come under hardware such as monitor, keyboard, mouse, application and network
keyboard, mouse, etc. (e) None of these
41. Which of the following is not hardware? RRB Allahabad ALP, 2010
(a) Keyboard (b) Mouse Ans : (c) As we know, all the physical or external
(c) Windows-XP (d) ROM things which we can touch connected to computer is
R.R.B. Malda (T.A./C.A.) 2007 called as hardware. Thus CPU, Monitor, Keyboard,
Ans : (c) The physical structure of the computer is called Mouse, Printer and Modem are all hardware.
hardware, like-keyboard, mouse, ROM etc. Windows- XP 47. The written program due to which the computer
is a operating system. Operating system are those software works in the desired way is called-
which are a collection of many programs to communicate (a) Codes (b) Instruction
between the computer and the user. (c) Software (d) None of these
42. Which of the following is not hardware RRB Ajmer ALP, 2009
(a) Magnetic tape (b) Printer Ans : (c) Software is a series of instructions written in
(c) Assembler (d) C.R.T. a particular programming language according to which
RRB Allahabad ALP, 2011 the given data is processed. Computer can not do any
Ans : (c) Assembler is a software program which converts work without software. Its primary objective is to
an assembly language code to machine code whereas convert data into information. Hardware also works
magnetic tape, printer, C.R.T. are computer hardware. according to the instructions of the software.
43. Which of the following is not a computer 48. Software means ........
hardware? (a) The physical components that make up a
(a) Mouse (b) Printer computer
(c) Monitor (d) Excel (b) Firmware
RRB Allahabad ALP, 2009 (c) Programs
Ans : (d) Those parts of the computer which can be (d) Peopleware
seen, touch or feel, called as hardware such as a (e) None of these
mouse, Printer monitor etc. whereas the set of RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007
programs in which the computer runs the hardware it is Ans : (c) Computer software is a set of instructions. We
called software such as Excel, Active file etc. also called it software or program in simple language.
IT Literacy : Computer 420 YCT
49. The program used to work on a computer is (i) Control unit
called- (ii) Arithmetic and logical unit
(a) Software (b) Mouse (iii) Store unit
(c) Keyword (d) Hardware 55. Which part of the computer is responsible for
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2009 processing data?
Ans : (a) The program used to work on a computer is (a) CPU (b) Memory
called software. (c) Keyboard (d) Display
50. The main purpose of software is to convert data into RRB Secundrabad JE, 2010
(a) Website (b) Information Ans : (a) CPU of the computer is responsible for
(c) Program (d) Object processing data.
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2006 56. If you want to improve the performance of
Ans : (b) The primary objective of software is to your PC, you need to upgrade
convert data (raw facts) into information. (a) CPU (b) Monitor
Data → Software → Information (c) Keyboard (d) None of these
51. What is meant by software in the context of RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2009
computers? Ans : (a) To improve the performance of PC, CPU
(a) Floppy disk (b) Computer programs (central processing unit) should be upgraded because
(c) Computer circuit (d) Human brain CPU is the main part of a computer in which all the
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2008 calculations take place. The faster the CPU work, the
better will be the performance of the PC.
Ans : (b) Software is part of computer which has
certain set of instructions or programs written in a 57. The four basic tasks performed by CPU are
particular programming language which tells what Fetch ,............, Manipulate and Output:
action has to perform on the given input. (a) Design (b) Decode
Generally, program, application and software indicate (c) Display (d) Regulate
the same thing. RRB Gorakhpur SSE, 2006
52. An example of computer software is- Ans : (b) The four tasks performed by CPU are fetch
(a) C.P.U. (b) Compact disc (receiving), decode (clarifying), manipulate (efficient
(c) Monitor (d) Microsoft-office transformation) and output (providing results
RRB Allahabad ALP, 2006 respectively).
Ans : (d) Microsoft office is a computer application 58. In which of the following language, the CPU
software in which there are programs like MS-word, can execute program?
Excel, Power point etc. using which different type of (a) In assembly language (b) In sign language
work can be perform such as letter typing, Mail-merge, (c) Octane (d) In binary
calculation, Pay roll etc. (R.R.B Bhuvaneshwar (L.P.)-2012)
53. The data or information used to run the Ans : (d) Every data, instructions and result in a
computer is called .........? computer is represented or stored in binary or bit form.
(a) Software (b) Hardware
59. The conversion of input to output is done by
(c) Peripheral (d) CPU
...........
(e) None of the these
(a) Peripheral (b) Memory
RRB Ajmer ALP, 20011
(c) Storage (d) Input- Output unit
Ans : (a) The data or information used to run the (e) CPU
computer is called software.
RRB Allahabad ALP, 2008
54. In computers the central processing unit comes
Ans : (e) The conversion of input into output is done by
under-
CPU.
(a) Input devices, output devices and memory
(b) Software, hardware and power supply units 60. A hardware device that coverts data into
meaningful information.
(c) Memory, Visual, display unit and printer
(a) Protector (b) Output device
(d) Store, Arithmetic and logical unit and control unit
(c) Input device (d) Program
RRB Secundrabad ALP, 2009
(e) Processor
Ans : (d) The central processing unit (CPU) controls,
directs and coordinates all the functions of the RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2007
computer. The CPU also does the work of processing Ans : (e) Processor or CPU is a major hardware device
the data as instructed. CPU can be divided into three of the computer which converts data into meaningful
main parts in terms of hardware - information.
IT Literacy : Computer 421 YCT
61. Another word for CPU is ? 67. CPU performance is often measured in?
(a) Microprocessor (b) Execute (a) GB (b) MHz
(c) Micro chip (d) De code (c) MIPS (d) Band rate
(e) None of these RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2009
RRB Secundrabad ALP, 2009 Ans : (b) CPU performance is measured in mega hertz
Ans : (a) The CPU is the part of computer system that (MHz) and Giga Hertz. MIPS is not use nowadays.
is commonly referred to as the brain of a computer. 1 Mega hertz · 106,1 Giga hertz · 109
Sometimes the CPU is also known as the processor or 68. The name of the unit of measuring the editing
microprocessor. capacity of a computer is-
62. .............is the brain of any computer system. (a) MIPS (b) Seconds
(a) ALU (b) Hard disk (c) Watt (d) M.I.S.
(c) CPU (d) Monitor RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2006 Ans : (a) MIPS (Million Instruction Per Second) is a
Ans : (c) CPU is the brain of any computer system. unit of measurement of the computer performance and
63. Which of the following components of CPU its speed. It measures how much information the
responsible to direct the system to execute computer can execute in one second.
instructions? 69. The speed of a computer processor is measured
(a) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU) in which of the following?
(b) Control Unit (CU) (a) B.P.S. (b) M.I.P.S.
(c) Registers (c) Band (d) Herts
(d) Random Access Memory (RAM) RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2009
(RRB JE (Shift-I), 27.08.2015) Ans : (b) Processor is that unit of computer system
Ans : (b) CU (Control Unit) is the part of CPU which is which interprets the instructions and executes them.
used to execute instructions and direct the system uses The working efficiency of PC depends on the capacity and
control unit. speed of the microprocessor. The processing speed of a
64. The brain of the computer is called? microprocessor is measured in MIPS (Million Instruction
(a) C. D. (b) C.P.U. per second). The MIPS rating is used to specify the integer
(c) Floppy disk (d) Monitor computation performance of the processor.
RRB NTPC, (Shift -1) Online, 16.04.2016 70. What does MIPS mean in computer
RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2010 terminology?
RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2009 (a) Marginal Input Storage
RRB Gorakhpur ALP-2006 (b) Million Instruction per Second
RRB Ahmedabad LP-2005 (c) Micro Information Processing Storage
R.R.B Ranchi (Asst. Driv.) 2003 (d) Memory Image Processing State
Ans : (b) CPU (Central Processing Unit) is the RRB NTP RRB Secundrabad SSE, 2010
controlling, directing and coordinating unit of all the Ans : (b) The processing speed of a microprocessor is
functions of the computer. The CPU also does the work measured in MIPS (Million Instruction per second).
of processing the data as instructed, for this reason The MIPS rating is used to specify the integer
CPU is also called as the brain of the computer. computation performance of the processor.
65. The working speed of computer is measured in 71. It is an electronic device that processes data by
the following units? converting it into information.
(a) Mega byte (b) Mega hertz (a) Processor (b) Computer
(c) 16 bit (d) Milli second (c) Case (d) Stylus
R.R.B. Denceoeyeeo (Stenographer) hejer#ee, 2006 (e) None of these
Ans : (b) The working speed of computer is measured RRB Gorakhpur JE, 2006
in mega hertz. Computer speed is measured on the Ans : (a) Processor is the unit of computer system
basis of the number of instructions processed in one which interprets the instruction and executes them.
second. The performance of a PC depends on its speed of the
66. Which of the following is not a valid unit to processor. It is made of silicon chip. Microprocessor is
represent the speed of CPU? a combination of ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit) and CU
(a) Hertz (Hz) (b) MIPS (Control Unit).
(c) MFLOPS (d) Byte 72. In computer language CPU means
(RRB SSE (Shift-III), 01.09.2015) (a) Computerized power unit
(b) Central power unit
Ans : (d) CPU speed is measured in Hz, MIPS (Million
Instructions Per Second), MFLOPS(Million Floating (c) Central processing unit
Point Operations Per Second) etc. while byte is the unit (d) Central peripheral unit
of memory. R.R.B. Kolkata (A.A.) 2009
IT Literacy : Computer 422 YCT
 Ans : (c) CPU (Central Processing Unit) is a dense (i) Control unit (CU)
integrated chip installed in the mother board of the (ii) Memory unit
computer which is also called microprocessor. It (iii) Arithmetic logic unit (ALU)
controls, directs and coordinates all the functions of the ALU does the actual work of data processing. It
computer. Hence it is also called as the brain of the performs all types of mathematical and logical
computer. operations on the data as per the instructions received
73. What is the full name of CPU in computer from the control unit.
science? 78. Accumulator is an integral component of
(a) Core programming utility (a) CPU (b) Hard Disk
(b) Central processing unit (c) RAM (d) Cache memory
(c) Circuit peripheral unit (RRB SSE (Shift-III), 03.09.2015)
(d) Controlled electricity Ans : (a) Accumulator is an integrated component of
RRB NTPC, (Shift -1) Online, 04.04.2016 CPU (Central Processing Unit).
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2012 79. Which of the following is not a component of
RRB Gorakhpur SSE, 2008 Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
RRB Gorakhpur JE, 2007 (a) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
Ans : (b) The full form of CPU is central processing (b) Control Unit (CU)
unit and it is also known as the brain of a computer. (c) Registers
74. What does 'P' symbols in CPU? (d) Random Access Memory (RAM)
(a) Processing (b) Program (RRB SSE (Shift-I), 26.08.2015)
(c) Portal (d) Power Ans : (d) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU), control
(e) Primary unit (CU) and Registers are part of CPU while Random
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2006 Access Memory (RAM) is a part of memory.
Ans : (a) The full form of CPU is central processing 80. The following parts are included in a computer
unit. The symbol P is presented by processing. processor..........
(a) CPU and main memory
75. Which of the following does computing in a
(b) Hard disk and floppy drive
personal computer?
(c) Main memory and storage
(a) CPU (b) Motherboard
(d) Operating system and application
(c) RAM (d) BIOS
(e) Control unit and ALU
RRB NTPC, (Shift -3) Online, 29.03.2016
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2006
Ans : (a) A computer's central processing unit (CPU) is Ans : (e) The central processing unit (CPU) can be
the central brain of the computer. A central processing divided into three main parts from the point of view of
unit (CPU) is the electronic circuit within a computer hardware.
that carries out the instruction of a computer program (i) Control unit (CU)
by performing the basic arithmetic, logical, control and
(ii) Memory unit
input/output operations specified by the instructions.
(iii) Arithmetic logic unit (ALU)
76. Which of the following controls memory input
and output devices? ALU does the actual work of data processing. It
performs all types of mathematical and logical
(a) C.P.U. (b) A.L.U.
operations on the data as per the instructions received
(c) C.U. (d) Memory from the control unit.
RRB Gorakhpur ASM, 2007
81. The process of writing new data in the register?
Ans : (a) A computer's central processing unit (CPU) is (a) Erases the first contents of the register
the central brain of the computer. A central processing (b) Does not destroy the present content
unit (CPU) is the electronic circuit within a computer (c) Possible only if the register is accumulator
that carries out the instruction of a computer program
(d) Possible only if the register is an accumulator
by performing the basic arithmetic, logical, control and
or an instruction register
input/output operations specified by the instructions.
RRB Ajmer ALP & Tech., 2011
77. Which of the following is a part of the central Ans : (a) Register is a small space in CPU which keeps
processing unit? any kind of data (Address instruction) for a short time
(a) Printer (b) Keyboard during the process and old data is replaced by new data.
(c) Mouse (d) A.L.U. 82. Which of the following is an integral
R.R.B. Kolkata (T.A.) 2008 component of CPU?
Ans : (d) The central processing unit (CPU) can be (a) Hard Disk (b) RAM
divided into three main parts from the point of view of (c) NIC (d) Registers
hardware. RRB Secundrabad SSE, 2011
IT Literacy : Computer 423 YCT
Ans : (d) Registers are an essential component of CPU.
Register is a small space in CPU which keeps any kind
of data (Address instruction) for a short time during the
process and old data is replaced by new data.
83. Program counter (PC) register is an integral
part of :
(a) Hard Disk (b) RAM
(c) Cache memory (d) CPU
(RRB SSE (Shift-II), 03.09.2015)
Ans : (d) Program counter (PC) is a register present in
the CPU which contains the address of the next
instruction to be executed from the cache memory.
84. Which of the following memories is directly
accessible by the CPU?
(a) RAM (b) Hard Disk
(c) Magnetic Tape (d) DVD
(RRB SSE (Shift-I), 28.08.2015)
Ans : (a) C.P.U. (central processing unit) also called as
processor or microprocessor, is an electronic microchip
that processes data by converting it into information.
Ram memories is directly accessible by the CPU.
85. Which of the following components of CPU
temporarily stores data for ALU operations?
(a) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
(b) Control Unit (CU)
(c) Registers
(d) Random Access Memory (RAM)
(RRB JE (Shift-III), 26.08.2015)
Ans : (c) Most of the functions of CPU are performed
by A.L.U which loads data from input registers. A.L.U.
stores the result in the output register. Control unit in
these register transfers data between the ALU and the
memory.
86. Program Counter (PC) register stores the :
(a) Address of the first memory block
(b) Address of the last memory block
(c) Address of the next instruction to be executed
(d) Size of the primary memory
(RRB SSE (Shift-I), 03.09.2015)
Ans : (c) The program counter is a register in a
computer processor that contains the address (location)
of the instruction currently being executed as each
instruction is received the program counter reads its
storage.
87. "For computer, world consists of zeros and
ones only. To store the zeros and ones,........... is
placed inside a processor:
(a) I/O device (b) Instruction set
(c) Transistor (d) Main Memory
(UPPCL TG2 11-11-2016)
Ans : (c) For computers world is made of zeros and
ones and to store these zeros or ones, a transistor is
installed inside the processor. All the calculations in the
computer are completed through 0 and 1 only.
IT Literacy : Computer 424
88. Where are the functions of adding, comparing
and matching done in a computer?
(a) Memory chip (b) CPU chip
(c) Floppy disk (d) Hard disk
RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2009
Ans : (b) CPU works on the basis of stored program
instructions. Before processing, data and instructions
are temporarily stored in registers built in the CPU,
performs arithmetical and logical operations for data
processing according to the instructions located in the
register.
89. The main function of CPU is
(a) To execute program instructions
(b) To store data/information for future use
(c) Processing data and information
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) None of these
RRB Secundrabad SSE, 2010
Ans : (c) The main function of a central processing unit
is to execute (processing) instructions or programs apart
from this the processing unit is connected to all other
parts such as memory unit, input and output. Also
control of the processing unit, data and programs
received from the input devices are stored in the
memory. After processing according to the program
instructions the result is obtained as output.
90. Most of the processing takes place in the
computer.
(a) Memory (b) RAM
(c) CPU (d) Mother board
(e) ALU
RRB Secundrabad SSE, 2012
Ans : (c) Most of the processing in the computer takes
place in the CPU. The processing speed of a CPU is
measured in hertz (Hz). These days processors with
giga hertz speed are being used.
91. Works in coordination with major memory.
(a) Special function card (b) RAM
(c) CPU (d) Intel
(e) All of these
RRB Allahabad ALP, 2008
Ans : (c) CPU is the most important part of the
computer system. All calculations corrections and
comparison work in computer system is done by CPU.
Apart from this CPU is responsible for the control and
implementation of the tasks performed by other units of
the computer system. The main parts of the CPU are
ALU, CU, registers which work in coordination with
the CPU memory. CPU has all kinds of processing
tasks.
92. Where does the computer add and compare
data?
(a) Plotter (b) On CPU
(c) On floppy (d) Screen projector
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2007
YCT
Ans : (b) A central processing unit (CPU) is the
electronic circuit within a computer that carries out the
instructions of a computer program by performing the
basic arithmetic, logical, control, and input/output
operations specified by the instructions.
93. C. P. U. consists of
(a) Arithmetic and Logical unit and Register
(b) Arithmetic and Logical unit, Register and
Control unit
(c) System unit and Memory
(d) Hard disk and Control unit
RRB Gorakhpur ALP, 2006
Ans : (b) The main parts of the CPU are ALU, CU,
registers which work in coordination with the CPU
memory. CPU has all kinds of processing tasks.
94. The most important part of the computer is?
(a) CPU (b) Disk
(c) Key-board (d) Printer
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2011
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2010
RRB Ajmer ALP-2006
Ans : (a) CPU is the most important part of the
computer system as all the calculations, corrections
and comparison work is done by CPU. A part of CPU
is responsible for the control and implementation of
the tasks performed by other units of the computer
system which is called as control unit.
95. The processor has three main parts .........
(a) ALU, control unit and register
(b) ALU, control unit and RAM
(c) Cash, control units and registers
(d) Control unit, registers and RAM
(e) RAM, ROM and CD-RAM
RRB Secundrabad SSE, 2009
Ans : (a) The processor has three main parts- ALU,
control unit and register.
96. Important units of microcapacitor are-
(a) ALU (b) Array of registers
(c) Control units (d) All of the above
RRB Secundrabad JE, 2011
Ans : (d) Important units of microcapacitor are- ALU,
array of registers, control units.
97. In which part of the computer do all the logical
and mathmatical calculations done by the
computer take place?
(a) System board
(b) Central control unit
(c) Central processing unit
(d) Mother board
(e) Memory
RRB Secundrabad ALP & Tech., 2010
RRB Secundrabad ALP, 2009
Ans : (c) In Central Processing Unit, the computer do
all the logical and mathmatical calculations.
IT Literacy : Computer 425
98. Microprocessor which is the brain of the
computer is also called............?
(a) Microchip (b) Macrochip
(c) Macroprocessor (d) Calculater
(e) Software
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007
Ans : (a) A micro processor is also called a microchip
which is the brain of the computer and executes all the
program instructions. It is made of silicon chip on
which small circuits (micro chips) are made by a photo
chemical process. These chips are available in different
types and sizes.
99. Another name of computer chip is
(a) Microchip (b) Mother board
(c) CPU (d) Macroprocessor
RRB Kolkata ALP, 2007
Ans : (a) Micro chip is another name for computer chip.
100. Which of the following products is sold under
the brand name Pentium?
(a) Mobile chip (b) Computer chip
(c) Computer (d) Microprocessor
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2010
RRB Secundrabad ALP & Tech., 2007
Ans : (d) Pentium is a special type of microprocessor
developed by Intel company. Microprocessor is called
processor, CPU or also known as chip. It is also called
as the brain of the computer. Athlon and sempron are
the other prominent microprocessor.
101. Celeron, Pentium and core runtime formats
are-
(a) Computer RAM
(b) Computer microchip
(c) Computer processor
(d) All of the above
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2013
Ans : (c) Celeron, Pentium and core series are models
of computer processors. Celeron and Pentium is the
name of a brand of computer processor provided by
Intel corporation and core is also a processing unit of
CPU which can be called as a small CPU.
102. High power micro processors are
(a) Pentium, Pentium pro (b) Pentium II and III
(c) Pentium II (d) All of these
(UPSSSC JE-2016)
Ans : (d) Pentium is an X 86-compatible
microprocessor introduced by Intel in 1993. Pentium
processors rank above atom and Celeron and below
dual-core i3, i5, i7. Intel developed the Pentium micro
processors and introduced the high-performance
Pentium-Pro in 1995 followed by the Pentium II and
Pentium III.
103. The name Intel is a
(a) Birds (b) Scientist
(c) Computer company (d) Fighter plane
R.R.B. Ajmer (E.C.R.C) 2008
YCT
 Ans : (c) Intel is a computer company that 109. Which of the following is not a peripheral
manufactures semiconductors and microprocessors. device?
The first microprocessor was made by Intel in 1971 (a) Printer (b) Monitor
was 'The Intel 4004'. (c) Mother board (d) Key-board
104. Which part of the computer is directly involved RRB NTPC, (Shift -3) Online, 03.04.2016
in executing the instructions of the computer RRB NTPC, (Shift -2) Online, 04.04.2016
program? RRB NTPC, (Shift -1) Online, 18.03.2016
(a) Scanner (b) Main storage Ans : (c) Devices that are connected externally to the
(c) Secondary storage (d) Printer CPU are called peripheral devices such as printer
(e) Processor monitor, keyboard, mouse etc.
RRB Ajmer SSE, 2011 Whereas mother board, hard disk, are important parts of
Ans : (e) A microprocessor executes all the program the CPU which are in the CPU.
instructions apart from the processing, also controls the 110. ALU is the part of–
functions of all other parts like memory, input and (a) CPU (b) CU
output devices. It is made of a silicon chip on which (c) Memory (d) None of these
tiny circuits have been created by a photo chemical (UPPCL TG2 Re-exam 16-10-2016)
process. These chips are available in different types and
Ans : (a)
sizes.
105. Which part of CPU calculates and takes
decision-
(a) Arithmetic Logic Unit
(b) Alternating Logic Unit
(c) Alternate Local Unit
(d) American Logic Unit ALU, CU and memory are all three CPU parts.
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2008 111. Which is mainly responsible for doing
Ans : (a) CPU mainly divided into three parts ALU, CU calculation in computer?
and register. All types of comparisons and calculations (a) Random access memory
are done by the Arithmetic Logic Unit whereas the CU (b) Control unit
(Control Unit) is the manager of the CPU which (c) Arithmetic Logic unit
controls the data in all respects.
(d) Hard disk
106. An electronic device which processes data by RRB NTPC, (Shift -2) Online, 28.03.2016
converting it into information is called? RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2011
(a) Processor (b) Computer RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2011
(c) Case (d) CPU Ans : (c) ALU means Arithmetic Logic unit, is the part
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007 of the CPU which performs general mathematical and
Ans : (a) Processor is the unit of computer system logical operations. ALU can perform four basic
which interprets instructions and executes them. It is a arithmetic operation add, subtract, multiply and
combination of ALU, CU and MU made on an division.
integrated chip. Microprocessor works on binary digits 112. Which among the following has capability to
0 and 1. execute computer's command?
107. A microprocessor with 8-bit word length can (a) Processor Socket
process.............bits data simultaneously. (b) Main Memory
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) Arithmetic Logic Unit
(c) 16 (d) 32 (d) Cache Memory
RRB Kolkata ALP, 2007 (UPPCL TG2 11-11-2016)
Ans : (b) A microprocessor with 8-bit word length can Ans : (c) The arithmetic logic unit has the ability to
process 8-bits of data simultaneously. execute the order or command given to the computer.
All type of calculations are done here ALU is the main
108. Most of the processing in computers takes part of CPU. There is a control unit under ALU it
place in……. respresent all the tasks being done by the computer.
(a) Memory (b) RAM 113. Arithmetic and logic unit
(c) Motherboard (d) CPU I. Performs mathematical operations
(e) None of these II. Collects Data
RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2009 III. Makes comparisons
Ans : (d) Most of the processing in the computer takes IV. Communicates investment tips
place in the CPU. Which of the following is correct
IT Literacy : Computer 426 YCT
 (a) Only I (b) Only III 118. Which part of the computer is used for
(c) I and II (d) Only I and III calculation and comparison?
RRB Ajmer JE., 2006 (a) ALU (b) Control unit
Ans : (d) Arithmetic logic unit is a part of CPU through (c) Disk unit (d) Modem
which the actual work of data processing is done. It (e) None of these
performs all types of mathematical and logical RRB Ajmer ALP & Tech., 2011
operations on the data as per the instructions received RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2008
from the control unit. Ans : (a) ALU is used for calculation and comparison.
114. ALU of CPU contains ................... 119. The ALU performs ............ operations?
(a) RAM Space (a) Login based (b) ASCII
(b) Register (c) Algin based (d) Arithmetic
(c) Byte Space RRB Ajmer ALP & Tech., 2012
(d) Secondary storage space
Ans : (d) The ALU performs Arithmetic operations
(e) None of these
120. …….tells the computer’s memory, arithmetic/
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2006
logic unit and input and output devices how to
Ans : (b) There are registers in the ALU of the CPU. respond to a program’s instructions.
The ALU performs all types of mathematical and (a) Storage Unit (b) Input Device
logical calculation as per the instruction received from (c) Control Unit (d) Logic Unit
the control unit. ALU is again divided into two part AU
(Arithmetic unit) and LU (Logic unit). Basic arithmetic RRB Ajmer SSE, 2011
operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2011
and division etc are performed on AU data. On the other RRB Ajmer ASM, 2007
hand LU (Logical Unit) performs logical operations Ans : (c) Control unit controls every component of the
such as greater, smaller, equal etc. computer. It controls input and output functions as well
115. ALU is a part of ………… of a computer is as directs the exchange of data between the ALU and
RRB Ajmer ALP & Tech., 2011 memory does. It determines how a program will run.
Control unit CPU is directly connected to computer
(a) Application (b) ROM
memory arithmetic logic unit and input and output
(c) RAM (d) Processor devices are also connected to each other.
Ans : (d) Arithmetic Logic unit (ALU) is a part of the
121. Which part of the CPU selects, interprets and
processor (CPU). The actual work of data processing is
monitors the execution of program
done by the ALU. It performs all type of mathematical
instructions?
and logical operations on the data according to the
instructions received from the control unit. (a) Memory (b) Register unit
Thus it is an application designed on some certain set of (c) Control unit (d) ALU
instructions which performs according to the input data. RRB Ajmer JE., 2012
116. In Computers, what does ALU stand for? Ans : (c) The control unit controls all the functions of
the computer, it coordinates between the software and
(a) Advanced Logic Unit
hardware. The main function of the control unit are-
(b) Accelerated Logic Unit
1. Controlling input, output devices and other hardware.
(c) Arithmetic Logic Unit
2. To read instructions and give orders to carry them
(d) Asymmetic Logic Unit out.
RRB Ajmer ALP & Tech., 2011
RRB Ajmer ALP & Tech., 2010 122. Which part of computer is called nervous
RRB Ajmer JE., 2009 system?
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2008 (a) Software (b) Hardware
RRB Ajmer SSE, 2006 (c) Control unit (d) Programs
Ans : (c) In Computers, ALU stands for Arithmetic RRB NTPC, (Shift -2) Online, 18.04.2016
Logic Unit. Ans : (c) Control unit is an important part of the CPU,
117. Which of the following is a component in the which controls all the functions of the computer. That is
central processing unit? why it is called the nervous systems of the computer.
(a) Memory regulation unit 123. Which of the following acts as the central
(b) Flow control unit nervous system for other components of the
(c) ALU computer system?
(d) Instruction manipulation unit (a) Registers
(e) None of these (b) Primary memory
RRB Allahbad SSE., 2008 (c) Arithmetic and logic unit
Ans : (c) ALU is a component in the central processing (d) Control unit
unit. (RRB JE (Shift-II), 29.8.2015)
IT Literacy : Computer 427 YCT
Ans : (d) The control unit is called the nervous system 128. Which of the following transmits different
of the computer. It is part of the CPU. Its main commands or control signals from one component
functions are- to another component of a computer system?
(i) Controlling input and output devices and other (a) Data Bus
hardware. (b) Address Bus
(ii) Controlling the functions of the Arithmetic logic unit. (c) Both Data Bus and Address Bus
(iii) Fetching data from main memory and storing them (d) Control Bus
immediately. RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2011
(iv) To read instructions and give orders to implement Ans : (d) Control Bus transmits different commands or
them. control signals from one component to another
component of a computer system.
124. Which of the following is the part of the CPU
that coordinated the activities of all other 129. Connects the CPU to the mother board and
computers? other components on the mother board-
(a) Mother board (a) Input unit (b) System Bus
(c) ALU (d) Primary memory
(b) Coordination board
(e) None of these
(c) Control unit
RRB Secundrabad ALP & Tech., 2007
(d) Arithematic logic unit
Ans : (b) The system bus connects the CPU and other
(e) None of these
components on the mother board and exchange data and
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2006 signals between them. The system bus consists of three
Ans : (c) The control unit coordinate the activities of all part: data bus, address bus and control Bus.
other computers. It is part of the CPU. 130. Who controls communications for the entire
125. Which controls the movement of signals computer system?
between CPU and I/O? (a) Arithmetic logical unit
(a) ALU (b) Control unit (b) Semi conductor
(c) Memory unit (d) Secondary storage (c) Motherboard
(e) None of these (d) Coprocessor
RRB Ajmer ALP & Tech., 2006 (e) None of these
Ans : (b) The control unit controls the movement of RRB Kolkata JE., 2011
signals between the CPU and I/O. Ans : (c) A mother board is a type of board made up of
126. Information between mother board a number of devices and circuits, in which various type
components (devices) travel through of devices are interconnected with each other and
establish communication, as well as allow and provide
(a) Flash memory (b) Si mass connections for external devices. Motherboard is called
(c) Wedge (d) Buses main board, system board, baseboard, planner board or
(e) Peripherals logic board etc. It controls communication for the entire
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2010 computer system.
Ans: (d) Information between motherboard components 131. Another name for mother board is-
(devices) travel through Buses. (a) Mouse (b) Computer board
127. Motherboard is- (c) System device (d) Central board
(a) The first chip accessed when the computer in (e) System board
turned on. RRB Gorakhpur JE, 2006
(b) Circuit board which contains peripheral Ans : (e) Another name for mother board is System board.
devices 132. The main system board of the computer is
(c) CPU chip called-
(d) Circuit board in which CPU and other chips (a) Integrated circuit (b) Mother board
are installed. (c) Processor (d) Micro-chip
(e) A part of a printer (e) None of these
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007 RRB Gorakhpur SSE, 2008
Ans : (d) Mother board is a circuit board of any Ans : (b) The main system board of computer is called
motherboard.
computer, it has structures similar to fine threads
made of metal which is called bus. Various signals or 133. The main board of the computer is called-
information are exchanged through the bus in the form (a) Father board (b) Mother board
of electric current. This is the foundation of computer. (c) Key board (d) None of these
Processors in computers are installed on many mother RRB Kolkata JE, 2006
boards of different types. This is the main board of the Ans : (b) The main system board of computer is called
computer. motherboard.

IT Literacy : Computer 428 YCT

134. What do you mean by motherboard? 139. Which of the following functions does the
(a) Scanner and other items come under mother computer not perform?
board. (a) Computing (b) Processing
(b) Keyboard is also known as mother board. (c) Understanding (d) Outputting
(c) It is a circuit board in which all the elements RRB Kolkata JE, 2011
are connected Ans : (c) Computers do not have the ability to think,
(d) It is a type of file server understand and take decision on their own. It works
RRB Gorakhpur JE, 2011 only on the given guidelines while computing,
Ans : (c) Mother board is a circuit board in which all processing; output printing are the important functions
the elements are connected. of the computer.
135. Through what the transfer of computer data 140. Which of the following basic operations is/are
from CPU to peripheral device is achieved? performed by a computer ?
(a) Modem (b) Computer ports (a) Arithmetic operation
(c) Interface (d) Buffer memory (b) Logical operation
RRB Allahabad JE, 2006 (c) Storage and retrieval
Ans : (b) Computer port is used to connected any (d) All of these
device with a computer. Computer ports are used in two RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2009
ways, first is internal ports, in which the devices inside Ans : (d) Arithmetic operations, Logical operation and
the computer are connected such as hard disk, drive etc. storage and retrieval are all basic operations performed
Second external port, in these external devices are by the computer.
connected to the computer, such as modem, printer, 141. Which of the following function is not one of
scanner, USB etc. the four major data processing functions of a
136. Which provides expansion capability for computer?
computer system? (a) Collecting data
(a) Sockets (b) Slots (b) Processing of data into information
(c) byte (d) Web (c) Analyzing data or information
(e) None of these (d) Store of data or information
RRB Gorakhpur ASM, 2006 (e) None of these
Ans : (b) Computer expands the computer system RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2011
through slots on the mother board. Through expansion Ans : (c) The four main functions of a computer are to
slots, we can connect other devices to the computer in collects data, processes of data into information, store of
future. data and information and output data. Computer does
137. The expansion card inserted in……. not analyze data or information.
(a) Slot (b) Peripheral device 142. Which of the following task cannot be done by
(c) CPU (d) Behind the computer a computer?
(e) Pegs (a) Taking pictures
RRB Ajmer JE, 2008 (b) To calculate
Ans : (a) The expansion card is inserted into the slot. (c) Identifying the fingerprints
138. System unit is - (d) Preparing tune (music)
(a) Coordinates input and output devices RRB Allahabad ALP, 2008
(b) It is a container in which electronic Ans : (a) Computer can compose tunes, record music
components are kept. and identify fingerprints, whereas a web cam or camera
(c) It is a combination of hardware and software is required to take pictures.
(d) It is controls and manipulates data 143. Which of the following functions does not
(e) It performs arithmetic operations perform by computer?
RRB Gorakhpur ASM, 2011 (a) Inputting (b) Processing
Ans : (b) System unit is the container in which (c) Controlling (d) Outputting
electronic components are placed. All the functions (e) Undersatnding
performed by PC are controlled from the system unit. RRB Allahabad ALP, 2011
Keyboard, monitor, mouse and printer etc are connected Ans : (e) Computer has been termed as artificial
to its rear part with the help of wires. Hardisk, CD drive intelligence because the computer work only according to
and floopy drive etc are connected inside its which are predetermined instructions, hence the computer does not
controlled by software. have the ability to understand.
IT Literacy : Computer 429 YCT
144. Computer manipulate data in many ways and 148. Which of the following characteristics of the
this manipulation is called. computer reflects its flexible behaviour?
(a) Upgrading (b) Processing (a) Accuracy (b) Reliability
(c) Batching (d) Utilizing (c) Versatility (d) Diligence
(e) Downloading RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2011
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2008 Ans : (c) Versatility reflects the flexible behaviour of a
Ans : (b) Data in a computer is received from any input computer, while accuracy, reliability and diligence are
device (Keyboard, mouse, scanner or disk). The data is the characteristics of a computer.
manipulated or processed by the processor by bringing 149. Computer is-
it to the primary memory. All types of calculations in 1. It is an efficient data storage device
the computer, whether logical or mathematical are done 2. Able to analyze data
in ALU of the CPU. The results generated in the ALU
3. Capable of maintaining complete
are transferred to the primary memory when the
confidentiality.
processing is over, the data available in the primary
4. Sometimes infected by virus
memory is sent to the output device.
Select the correct answer from the codes gives
145. Which of the following is not correct regarding
below-
computers?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) Complicated problems can be solved easily
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All four
(b) The speed of the process is very high
RRB Kolkata SSE., 2007
(c) Memory and storage capacity is more
Ans : (d) Computer has following characteristics -
(d) Due to its high general knowledge, it can
itself correct the fulfillment of inappropriate 1. Storing data
instructions 2. It is capable of analyzing data
R.R.B. Chennai (T.A./C.C) 2001-2002 3. Privacy can be done in the computer with the
help of password.
Ans : (d) Computer does not have the ability to think and 4. Sometimes infected by virus.
take decisions on its own, it can work only under the
given guidelines (program). Therefore, it cannot correct 150. Which of the following is a presentation
the fulfillment of inappropriate instructions on its own. graphics software ?
complicated problems can be solved easily by computer, (a) MS–Windows (b) MS–Power Point
its processing speed is very high and memory and (c) MS–Excel (d) MS–Word
storage capacity is high. (UPPCL TG2 Re-exam 16-10-2016)
146. The advantage of using computer is- Ans : (b) MS-power point is a part of MS-office
(a) Computer are very fast and large amount of developed by Microsoft. It is a powerful software for
data can be stored in them. creating presentations and slide shows.
(b) Computers give correct output even when the Uses of MS-Power point-
input is wrong. (i) Preparing slides for a business application
(c) Computers are designed to be inflexible. presentation.
(d) All of the above (ii) Creating graphical things by animation.
(e) None of the these (iii) For general use, preparation of artistic slides by
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007 Art gallery.
(iv) To provide training in business world.
Ans : (a) A large amount of data is store in the
computer. Computer is being used extensively in 151. What is the short key for insertion of a new
educational institution, offices, homes, shops, banks slide in MS–Power Point ?
because by its use tasks can be done easily and in less (a) Ctrl + Insert (b) Ctrl + N
time. (c) Ctrl + O (d) Ctrl + M
147. Computer gets its power from- (UPPCL TG2 Re-exam 16-10-2016)
(a) own speed (b) Accurately Ans : (d) Ctrl + M = Insertion of a new slide.
(c) Memory (d) All of the above Ctrl + O = Open file.
RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2009 Ctrl + N = Create a new presentation.
Ans : (c) Computer is a device by which various types 152. Which shortcut key is used in Microsoft
of data are processed and stored operationally. The PowerPoint for "Spellcheck"?
power of a computer depends on how accurately and (a) F12 (b) F7
quickly it gives the solution to a problem according to (c) F5 (d) F1
its memory. (UPPCL TG2 11-11-2016)
IT Literacy : Computer 430 YCT
Ans : (b) F7 shortcut key is used in Microsoft power
point for "Spell check'' Both spelling and grammar are
checked by F7 short key. While F5 shortcut key is used
to begin the slideshow.
M.S. Power Point Shortcut Key
Ctrl + A Selecting all the contents of
the active text box or pages.
Ctrl + C To copy
Ctrl + P Open the print dialog box
Ctrl + S To save
Ctrl + V To paste
Ctrl + Z Undo (go to the previous
pages or actions)
F5 Present slide show
Ctrl + B Applying bold to selected text
Ctrl + I Apply italics to selected text
Ctrl + D Inserts a duplicate of the
selected slide
Ctrl + F Open the Find Dialog Box
Ctrl + G Open the grids and guide
dialog box
Ctrl + H Open the Replace Dialog Box
Ctrl + M Insert a new slide
Ctrl + N Open a new blank
presentation
Ctrl + O Opening a open Dialog Box
Ctrl + T Open the Font Dialog Box
Ctrl + Left Arrow Move cursor or word to
left/beginning of previous
word.
Ctrl + Right Arrow Move carsor or word to
right/beginning of the next
word
Ctrl + Down Arrow Move cursor/word to end of
paragraph or beginning of
next paragraph.
Ctrl + Up Arrow Move cursor/word to begining
of line or paragraph
Ctrl + Del End the word to the right of
the cursor.
Ctrl + Backspace End the word to the left of the
cursor.
Ctrl + Home Move cursor to end of
document
Ctrl + Spacebar Resetting Highlighted text to
the default font.
Ctrl + F1 Open the task pane
F1 Open help
Alt + Ctrl + F2 Open a new document
F12 Open Save As
Alt + Shift + D Inserts the current date
IT Literacy : Computer
Alt + Shift + T Inserts the current time
Numbering Based on current defaults, a
sequential number to each
line or paragraph such as
1,2,3 ......
Decrease Indents Tool of formatting toolbar
that reduces the left margin.
Increase Indents Tool of formatting toolbar
that increase the left margin
Ctrl + U Underline the selected text
Ctrl + W Closing the presentation
Ctrl + Y Repeating the last entered
command.
Home Move the cursor to the
beginning of the currently
being typed line of text.
End Move the cursor to the end of
the currently being typed line
of text.
Ctrl + End Move the cursor to the end of
the presentation.
Page Up go to previous slide
Page Down go to next slide
Shift + Left Arrow Selecting previous letter
Shift + Right Arrow Select next letter
Shift + Home Selecting text by moving the
cursor to the beginning of the
current line.
Shift + End Selecting text by moving the
cursor to the end of current
line
F7 Spell check
"Some 'Key' used during slide show"
Spacebar Go to the next slide or next
animation or mouse click.
Number+ Enter Go to slide of specified number
B Pausing the slide show and
displaying a black screen. B is
pressed again to start the slide show
W Pausing the slide show and
displaying a white screen. W is
pressed again to restart the show.
N Go to the next slide or next
animation.
P Go to previous slide or previous
animation.
Esc to end slide show
Tab Jump to the next hyperlink in the
slide show.
Shift + Tab Go to previous hyperlink in
slideshow.
431 YCT
153. Y2K Problem is related to -
(a) To find a solution to control computer
viruses.
(b) Efforts to bring uniformity in computer
working around the world.
(c) To find their replacement in case of last two
words of AD become zero.
(d) To make radical changes in the working
system of computer on the basis of sixty years
of experience.
RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2009
Ans : (c) The Y2K problem is related to computers.
In this to find their replacement in case of last two of
AD becomes zero. Due to this, there was a possibility
of calculation errors. This problem had given toughest
time to computer scientists around the world, but now
this problem has been solved.
154. At the end of this century, it will be very difficult
to use the currently working equipment and
large expenditure is likely to be incurred in
improving it?
(a) Computer
(b) T.V. Sets
(c) Communication satellite
(d) Air conditioner
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007
Ans : (a) At the end of the 21st century, the possibility
of huge difficulty in the use of computers was
expressed. In which Y2K problem and computer virus
were main problems. But at the beginning of the first
year of 21st century, no such problem arose.
155. The most critical part of the UPS is :
(a) Battery (b) Rectifier
(c) Electronic switch (d) All of the above
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2011
Ans : (a) The most critical part of the UPS is battery.
Battery is the heart of the UPS system. Its functions
depend on the battery system of the UPS, while load is
a string to at least support the UPS battery system.
156. The new technology emerging in the field of
computer is-
(a) IC technology
(b) Parallel processing system
(c) Semiconductor technology
(d) Transistor technology
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2007
Ans : (b) At present, parallel computer processing
system are an emerging technology. It speeds up
program execution by dividing the program into
multiple parts.
157. ...........involves traversing the entire file system,
marking everything that can be accessed.
(a) Index pointer (b) Garbage collection
(c) File system (d) Stack pointer
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2011
IT Literacy : Computer 432
Ans : (b) The process of the entire file system, marking
everything that can be accessed is called garbage
collection. It is an automatic memory management
system that stores long term redundant data and objects
that will not be used in the future in a pool or heap.
158. Which will be the smallest and fastest
computer that can mimic the functioning the
functioning of the brain?
(a) Super computer (b) Quantum computer
(c) Pram-10,000 (d) IBM chip
RRB Kolkata ALP, 2007
Ans : (b) Quantum computer is a future computer
which will solve problems by mimic the function in of
the brain.
159. What is online processing ?
(a) When computer are connected to LAN and
data are sent for storage/Processing
(b) When computers are connected to internet
and data is sent for storage/Processing
(c) None of these
(d) Computer processing data on time
RRB Allahabad JE 2007
Ans: (b) In online processing, data is sent to store or
process by connecting the computer to the internet.
160. Vaccine software is used to control the
following-
(a) Drawbacks of multimedia
(b) Shortcomings of e-mail
(c) Drawbacks of hacking
(d) Drawbacks of virus
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2011
Ans : (d) Vaccine software is used to control for virus
deficiencies. Virus works to erase or spoil the data.
161. What is backup?
(a) Adding more components to your network
(b) Protecting data by copying it from the
original source to a different destination
(c) Filtering old data from the new data
(d) Accessing data on tape
(UPPCL TG-2 26.06.2016)
Ans: (b) Backup - To protect data from less in
information technology, we copy that data from the
original source and preserve it at another place, so that
even if a technical fault occurs in one of the systems,
there is no effect on the protected data.
162. Which is not true about 'Backup'
(a) Exact copy of computer files
(b) It is part of the business continuity plan.
(c) PC does not need to be backed up regularly
(d) Off site and on-site backups are more
beneficial
RRB NTPC, (Shift -1) Online, 19.04.2016
Ans : (c) PC does not need to be backed up regularly,
which is not true about backup when all other
statements given in the options are true.
YCT
163. Which of the following features are necessary 168. If you do a ' CAT scan' then you will-
for scanning in TV broad cast?
(a) Visual Activity
(b) Brightness and Colour Sensation
(c) Resistance of Vision
(d) All of the above
(DMRC Maintainer Electronic EXAM, 2014)
Ans : (d) Some functions are required for scanning in
TV broadcast are visual Activity. Brightness and colour
sensation and Resistance of vision.
164. Which algorithm is used to decide the path to medical imaging technique based on tomography. It
transfer the packets from source to was earlier called 'EMI' after the name of the company
destination?
(a) Routing (b) Pathing
(c) Selecting (d) Directing
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007
Ans : (a) In mathematics, computing and other
disciplines, the set of steps required to do any work is
called algorithm. Routing algorithm is used to decide
the path to transfer the packets from source to
destination.
165. In computer science data hazard occurs when
(a) pipeline changes the order of read/write Tomography), Photographs are taken from different
access to operands
(b) performance loss
(c) machine size is limited
(d) some functional unit is not fully pipelined
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2011
Ans : (a) In computer science data hazard occurs when
pipeline changes the order of read/write access to
operands.
166. ATM is the abbreviated form of
(a) Automatic Teller Machine
(b) Automated Teller Machine
(c) All Time Money
(d) Automatic Tally Machine
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2012
Ans : (b) ATM, also known as Automated Teller
Machine, is an automated electronic outlet (banking),
which provides cash with the help of debit or credit
cards. It is invented by john shepherd Barron. Its first Ans : (a) Wikileaks, a whistleblowers website is an
use was in London in 1967.
167. Related to computers, what is 'Wetware'?
(a) Computer programme
(b) Circuitry
(c) Human brain
(d) Chemical Storage device
(SSC CGL (TIER-1) 31-08-2016, 1.15 pm)
Ans : (c) In the context of computers, the wet ware is
called the human brain. It is a biological computer
which is produced with the help of living neurons.
Hence it is also known as artificial organic brain or
neuro computer.
IT Literacy : Computer
(a) Test will have to be conducted with the help
of computer
(b) Computerized axial topography will have to
be done
(c) Tomography will have to be done with the
help of computer.
(d) Computer axial tomography will have to be
done
RRB Allahabad ALP & Tech., 2007
Ans : (c) Computer tomography or CT is a type of
that first developed it but later come to be known as
computer axial tomography (CAT).
169. According to Doctors, the term 'CAT scan'
means-
(a) Computer Analysis test
(b) Computerized axial tomography
(c) Computer analyzed tomography
(d) Computerized axial test
R.R.B. Chennai& (T.A./C.A./E.C.R.C)-2006
Ans: (b) Through CAT (Computerized Axial
axes of the brain by x-rays and analyzed through
computer.
170. Simulation is a process in which-
(a) Computer is used to control the process.
(b) Computer collects data for later processing
(c) Computer systems and programs are used to
produce action of a real physical system
(d) Actual computer models are prepared at
cheap rates
D.M.R.C.- 2002
Ans : (c) Simulation is a process in which computer
systems and programs are used to produce action of a
real physical system.
171. Wikileaks, a whistleblowers website is an
international organization based on-
(a) U.S.A (b) UK
(c) Sweden (d) Norway
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2010
international organization based on U.S.A.
172. ICT means-
(a) Information and computer technology
(b) Information and communication technology
(c) Information code techniques
(d) Integrated circuit technology
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2006
Ans : (b) ICT stands for information and
communications technology (ICT) is commonly used
as a synonym for information technology (IT) but it
usually emphasizes the role of telecommunications in
modern information technology.
433 YCT
173. Which of the following is part of the 178. Which of the following is not an information
terminology of information technology? technology term?
(a) Protocol (b) Login (a) Cyber space (b) Upload
(c) Archie (d) All of the above (c) Optical storage (d) Modem
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2011 RRB Allahabad ALP, 2011
Ans : (d) Protocol, Login and Archie are part of the Ans : (c) Cyber space is a network of computer systems
terminology of information technology. The in which computers of different countries of the world
information of system exchange between different exchange the data and collected in formation of crores of
computers is called protocol. Login is a process by people and send various types of data here and there
which a person can authenticated his identity and take quickly.
advantage of any computer based facility and Archie is Upload is a process by which files are transferred
an internet based search facility. from local computer to remote computer over the
network.
174. The field of science which studies automation The modem connects computers to the internet
and communication between humans and through telephone lines whereas, optical storage is
machines is called- not related to information technology.
(a) Didroponics (b) Cryogenics
179. Which of the following is not an information
(c) Dietex (d) Cybernetics technology definition?
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2010 (a) Login (b) Modem
Ans : (d) Cybernetics is the most modern branch of (c) Password (d) Pinaka
science, under which the control mechanisms taking RRB Allahabad ALP, 2009
place in various systems are studied. It was discovered
Ans : (d) The words related to information technology
by Norbert wiener in 1949.This is called the science of
are login, modem, password, finger, email etc. Pinaka
control. Cybernetics is also called "communication is a multi-barrel rocket Launder which is not related to
control science". information and technology.
175. If any information can be dialed through 180. Neuro nuer is a base book for-
telephone and seen or read elsewhere on the
(a) Online (b) Video mail
television screen, then it is called-
(c) Cyber space (d) Virus
(a) Telex (b) Telefax
RRB Secundrabad ALP, 2009
(c) Tele text (d) Teleprocessing
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2006 Ans : (a) Neuro nuer is a base book for online which
is given for online works and for the use of cyber
Ans : (b) Telefax is such an information technology works.
through which any information can be dialed by
telephone and seen or read elsewhere on the television 181. In IT, means that the data available in the
screen. database in both accurate and consistent.
(a) Data Security (b) Data Availability
176. Information technology can be defined as-
(c) Data Binding (d) Data Integrity
(a) Computers+ Connectivity
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2006
(b) Computers + Network
Ans : (d) In IT, Data integrity means that the data
(c) Hardware + Software
available in the database is both accurate and consistent.
(d) Connectivity + Hardware There should be no duplication of data in the database
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2008 management system as well as the data should be
Ans : (d) Information technology can be defined as consistent so that there is no loss of data and the
connectivity and Hardware. Information technology is integrity of the data is maintained.
the basis of computer based information system. In the 182. Consider the following statements and select
present times, information technology has become an the correct answer from the code given below-
integral part of commerce and trade. 1. Dot Net (NET) framework is developed by
177. Web portal (DACNET) is related to- Microsoft.
(a) e-agriculture (b) e-commerce 2. Java is open source technology developed by
(c) e-business (d) e-logistics sun micro systems.
RRB Allahabad ALP & Tech., 2006 Code :
Ans : (a) The web portal (DACNET) is related to e- (a) Only (1) is true
agriculture. DACNET (Department of Agriculture and (b) Only (2) is true
Cooperation Network) is a project run by the (c) Both (1) and (2) are correct
department of agriculture and cooperation, under which (d) None is correct
online facilities related to agriculture are provided. RRB Ajmer ALP & Tech., 2006
IT Literacy : Computer 434 YCT
 Ans : (c) Dot Net is a framework developed by
Microsoft. Microsoft is a computer software company
owned by Bill gates of America. Java is an open source
technology developed by sun Microsystems.
183. Universal product code (UPC) is accepted for-
(a) Fire safety codes in buildings
(b) Earthquake resistance code of the building
(c) Bar code
(d) Against adult ration in food items
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007
Ans : (c) The universal product code is a 12 digit
number which is made available to retail traders.
According UPC, we can trace the product and the
vendor selling. It is used for barcode.
184. 3G and 4G are wireless technologies, which are
supposedly faster, more secure and reliable.
present day 3G technology is capable of
handling data around 2 megabits per second
(1.8-2.5 GHz frequency band). What speed is
expected from new 4G technology?
(a) 10-30 megabits per second (1.5GHz frequency
band)
(b) 10-100 megabits per second (2-10 GHz
frequency band)
(c) 100 megabits-1 Gigabit per second (2-8 GHz
frequency band)
(d) More than 10 Gigabits per second (10-20
Frequency band)
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2011
Ans : (c) 3G and 4G are wireless technologies, which
are supposedly faster, more secure and reliable. 3G
technology is capable of handling data around 2
megabits per second (1.8-2.5GHz frequency band),
whereas the 4G technology has expected speed around
100 megabites-1 gigabit per second (2-8 GHz
frequency band).
5G technology delivering upto 20 Gbps peak data
rate & 100+ Mbps average data rate.
185. For which word, the letter 'G' has been used in
'2G spectrum'?
(a) Global (b) Government
(c) Generation (d) Google
RRB Kolkata JE, 2010
Ans. (c) : In 2G spectrum, the letter 'G' is used for
generation. Presently technology 3G, 4G and 5G has
also been launched in addition to 2G. In all these
technologies, the later generation has some more
technical features than the earlier generation.
186. The first computer literate district of the
country is-
(a) Ernakulam (b) Villupuram
(c) Thiruvallur (d) Malappuram (Kerala)
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2008
Ans : (d) The first computer literate district of the
Country is Malappuram (Kerala)
IT Literacy : Computer 435
187. ..............is a type of software that provides
control, monitoring and data manipulation of
engineered products and systems:
(a) Freeware (b) Firmware
(c) Batchware (d) Dual Tchnology
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2010
Ans : (b) Firmware is a type of software that provides
control, monitoring and data manipulation of
engineered products and systems. Firmware is a
programming, which writes non-volatile memory for
the hardware device.
188. CGI stands for–
(a) Common Graphics Interface
(b) Common Gateway Interchange
(c) Common Gateway Interface
(d) Computer Gateway Interface
RRB Gorakhpur JE, 2011
Ans : (c) CGI stands for common gateway interface, it
provides the facility of dynamic content on web pages
and web applications. It can be written in C, Java and
Perl languages.
189. What is the full form of SIM ?
(a) Subscriber Identity Module
(b) Simple Information Mode
(c) Signal Information Module
(d) Self Identity Module
RRB Secundrabad ALP, 2009
(R.R.B. Kolkata (L.P.)-2008)
Ans : (a) The full form of SIM is Subscriber Identity
Module. It is an integrated circuit, which stores the
service subscriber keys required for telephone calls on
mobile phones or computers.
190. Which of the following is not in the GSM
family of wireless technologies?
(a) EDGE
(b) LTE
(c) DSL
(d) Both EDGE and LTE
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2006
Ans : (c) The GSM family of wireless technologies
includes both EDGE and LTE while DSL is used to
transfer data through telephone lines.
GSM: Global System for Mobile Communication
EDGE : Enhanced Data rate for GSM Evolution
LTE : Long term Evolution
DSL :Digital Subscriber line
191. The CDMA technology used in mobile phones
is-
(a) Computer Developed Management
Application
(b) Code Division Multiple Application
(c) Code Division Multiple Access
(d) Code Division Mobile Application
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2011
Ans. (c) The full form of CDMA used in mobile phones
is Code Division Multiple Access.
YCT
192. When more than one person interacts with the 198. Which of the following is a network security
central computer at the same time, which one system that monitors and controls the incoming
is required ? and outgoing network traffic based on
(a) Keyboard (b) Digitizer key predetermined security rules?
(c) Joystick (d) Terminal's (a) Anti-virus (b) Spyware
(R.R.B Chandigarh (L.P.)-2008) (c) Firwall (d) Search engine
Ans : (d) When more than one person interacts with a RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007
central computer at the same time, a terminal is
Ans : (c) Firewall is a network security system which
required. It mainly includes video terminal and work
monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network
station.
traffic based on predetermined security rules. It is of
193. The Internet operations protocol providing two types.
virtual circuit service in multiple x.25 protocols
is- (i) Network firewall
(R.R.B Kolkata (L.P.)-2009) (ii) host- based firewalls.
(a) x.75 (b) x.21 199. The conditional operator (? :) is also known as
(c) x.25 (d) x.400 (a) loop operator (b) control operator
Ans : (a) The Internet operations protocol providing (c) case operator (d) ternary operator
virtual circuit service in multiple x.25 protocols is x.25. RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2010
194. Which signals inform the operating system that Ans : (d) In the computer programming (? :)
some activity has been performed ? conditional operator is a ternary operator that is part of
(a) Informer (b) Interrupts the syntax for basic conditional expressions in many
(c) Events (d) Handlers programming languages. This is known as the ternary or
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2009 conditional operator.
Ans : (b) Interrupts are the signals, which inform the 200. To which port of the computer do you plug your
processor about any event through hardware or keyboard cable ?
software. Interrupts are of two types hardware and (a) V.G.A. port (b) Ethernet port
software. (c) U.S.B. port (d) Sanpidro port
195. Which of the following statements is used to RRB Kolkata JE, 2006
make a selection from more than two choices?
(a) if-else (b) switch Ans : (c) The keyboard cable is connected to the USB
(c) else-if (d) None of these port of the computer. In fact USB (Universal Serial
RRB Secundrabad ALP, 2007 Bus) is a system for connecting various devices to
computers, which was created jointly by Intel and
Ans : (b) Switch statement is used to select from more
other companies.
than two options.
196. The IMAGE tag uses which of the following 201. To whom is IRQ 6 generally given ?
attributes to specify the URL of the image to be (a) Sound card
displayed? (b) Com 1
(a) SCR (b) SRC (c) Floppy drive controller
(c) Source (d) Alt (d) LPT. 1
RRB Ajmer ALP & Tech., 2010 RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2009
Ans : (b) The IMAGE tag uses SRC (System Resource Ans : (c) IRQ 6 is generally given to the floppy drive
Controller) to specify the URL of the image to be controller. In fact, IRQ (Interrupt request) is a
displayed. The SRC attribute instructs the browser massage sent to the computer processor, in which
where it wants to look for the image on the server to temporarily stopping any work already being done, to
display to the user. pay attention to another instruction are given for.
197. Which of the following operators is used for
making comparison between different operands? 202. How many minimum NAND gates are required
to achieve Ex-OR function ?
(a) Logical operator
(b) Relational operator (a) 4 (b) 3
(c) Arithmetic operator (c) 2 (d) 5
(d) Assignment operator RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2011
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007 Ans : (a) A minimum of 4, NAND gates are required
Ans : (b) Relational operators are used to make to achieve the Ex-OR function. NAND and NOR
comparisons between different operation between gates are called universal building blocks because
different operands such as numerical equality (5 = 5) and they are capable of constructing any type of computer
inequality (4 ≥ 3). function.

IT Literacy : Computer 436 YCT

203. Centre for Development of Advanced
computing" has developed a new software to
avoid the fear of cyber attacks and data theft,
which is called-
(a) Avrodh (b) Nayan
(c) Trikal (d) None of these
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2006
Ans : (b) To avoid the fear of cyber attacks and data
theft, the center for Development of Advanced
Computing has developed 'Nayan' software.
204. .............. is a type of computing that performs
computation, storage and even applications act
as a service network.
(a) Cloud Computing
(b) Distributed Computing
(c) Parallel Computing
(d) Virtual Computing
RRB Secundrabad SSE, 2009
Ans : (a) Cloud computing is a computing technology
that provides virtual resources on the Internet. In this
technology, all the work from computing and data
access to data store is done on the network itself. In this
computing there is no need of hard drive nor mother
board therefore, there is no risk of virus in it.
205. "Sky Drive" is the name of the cloud
computing service of which of the following
companies ?
(a) Vodafone (b) B.S.N.L
(c) Microsoft (d) None of the above
RRB Secundrabad JE, 2010
Ans : (c) Microsoft is a system software company. Its
chief executive is Bill Gates. "Sky Drive" is the name
of Microsoft's cloud computing service.
206. The place where accessories are connected to a
computer is called-
(a) Port (b) Ring
(c) Bus (d) Zip
RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2011
Ans : (a) Ports are used as hardware devices in
computer communication. The interface of an
operating system to which various types of external
devices are connected is called a port.
Ring and bus are ways of interconnecting different
modes or terminals of a network in network
topology while zip is a file type.
207. The use of firewall in communication
network/system protects against which of the
following ?
(a) Unauthorized attack
(b) Data driven attack
(c) Fire attack
(d) Virus attack
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2012
IT Literacy : Computer
Ans : (a) A firewall is a device used in a computer or
network to prevent unauthorized access to the system.
It protects the computer from network threats like
viruses, worms, hackers etc.
208. The expansion of 'SMPS' is-
(a) Switched mode power supply
(b) Start mode power supply
(c) Signal mode power supply
(d) Store mode power supply
RRB Allahabad ALP & Tech., 2006
Ans : (a) The expansion of SMPS is switched mode
power supply. This protects the computer from damage
caused by voltage surges.
209. The process of carrying 'commands' is-
(a) Fetching (b) Storing
(c) Decoding (d) Executing
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2010
Ans : (d) The process of carrying commands is
executing.
210. Latest android mobile phone operating system-
6.0 is the name of
(a) Kitkat (b) Marshmallow
(c) Lollipop (d) Jelly Bean
RRB Gorakhpur SSE, 2010
Ans : (b) Marshmallow is the 6th version of Android
released by Google in October 2015, whose official
name is android 6.0-6.0.1 marshmallow.
211. Which of the following is antivirus software ?
(a) Java (b) Tally
(c) Norton (d) None of these
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2011
Ans : (c) A small program or instruction attached to the
correct program which when run causes some
malfunction in the computer system is called a virus.
Software programs designed to deactivate this virus are
called antivirus utility programs. Norton is a antivirus,
Java is a language and Tally is a software (database).
212. Data in database at a particular point of time is
called as?
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2006
(a) Intension (b) Extension
(c) Back up (d) Application
Ans : (b) The data in the database at a particular time is
called extension.
213. The strategy for maximum use of information
technology for development is-
(a) Government of West Bengal
(b) Government of Tamil Nadu
(c) Haryana Government
(d) Government of Andhra Pradesh
RRB Allahabad ALP, 2008
Ans : (d) The Government of Andhra Pradesh has a
strategy to use information technology officially for
development. Andhra Pradesh is the first state in India
whose all districts are connected by fiber optical
network.
437 YCT
214. Which is the first Indian state whose all districts 219. Who invented the mobile phone ?
are connected to the state capital by fiber optical (a) Joseph Wilson (b) Edwin Land
network ? (c) Martin Cooper (d) John Lloyd Right
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar RRB NTPC, (Shift -3) Online, 12.04.2016
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand Ans : (c) In the year 1970, American engineer Martin
RRB Allahabad ALP, 2010 Cooper invented the mobile phone.
Ans : (c) For better administration and to make the 220. In which generation of computers was
bureaucracy more accountable, all the districts in mechanical language used for programming ?
Andhra Pradesh have been connected by fiber-optical (a) First (b) Second
network from the state capital. (c) Third (d) Fourth
215. What is the name of the parent company of RRB NTPC, (Shift -3) Online, 12.04.2016
Google formed on 2 October 2015 ? Ans : (a) In the first generation of computers,
(a) Nest Labs Inc. (b) Alphabet Inc. mechanical language was used for programming.
(c) Calico (d) Alpha Inc. 221. Extension of MMU
RRB NTPC, (Shift -1) Online, 04.04.2016 (a) Machine Memory Unit
Ans : (b) The name of the parent company of Google (b) Memory Management Unit
formed on 2 October 2015 is Alphabet Inc. (c) Main Memory Unit
216. Trojan is type of (d) Machine Management Unit
(a) Computer language RRB NTPC, (Shift -2) Online, 16.04.2016
(b) Malware Ans : (b) Extended form of MMU is Memory
(c) Operating System Management Unit. MMU is the component of computer
hardware that controls all types of memory and caching
(d) Computer peripheral
operations in the processor.
RRB NTPC, (Shift -3) Online, 04.04.2016
222. In which year was Facebook started ?
Ans : (b) Trojan is a type of malware (Malicious (a) 2002 (b) 2004
software) that gets access to a computer or system by
(c) 2008 (d) 2009
appearing to be harmless, but is designed to do
RRB NTPC, (Shift -1) Online, 18.04.2016
something damaging.
Ans : (b) Facebook was started in the year 2004 by
217. Actual telephone calls between people on the
Mark Zuckerberg. It is a free social networking site.
Internet are-
(a) E–Telephony (b) Internet Telephony 223. Any online 'demo' is-
(a) An interactive presentation
(c) Chatting (d) E–Calling
(b) An non-interactive presentation
RRB NTPC, (Shift -1) Online, 07.04.2016
(c) Not a sequential presentation
Ans : (b) Internet telephony software essentially (d) An active user interface
provides free telephone calls to anywhere in the world.
RRB NTPC, (Shift -2) Online, 19.04.2016
The full name of Internet is International network.
Internet telephony is also called IP telephony or Ans : (b) Any online 'demo' is an non-interactive
broadband telephony. presentation.
218. Match the following 224. What is not true with data conversion?
(a) Upgrading from one version to another
(a) Input device (p) ROM version
(b) Processing (q) Touch screen (b) Receiving data from a legacy system
device (c) Receiving data from another module
(c) Storage (r) Printer (d) It may use standard import program
device RRB NTPC, (Shift -3) Online, 19.04.2016
(d) Output device (s) Flash memory Ans : (a) Data conversion include,
(a) a-q, b-s, c-r, d-p (b) a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r Receiving data from a legacy system
(c) a-r, b-p, c-s, d-q (d) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s Receiving data from another module
RRB NTPC, (Shift -3) Online, 11.04.2016 It may use standard import program
Ans : (b) 225. Which of the following companies India born
(a) Input device (q) touch screen sundar pichai is the chief executive officer
(CEO) ?
(b) Processing device (p) ROM (a) Facebook (b) Google
(c) Storage device (s) Flash memory (c) Flipkart (d) Amazon
(d) Output device (r) Printer RRB NTPC, (Shift -3) Online, 22.04.2016

IT Literacy : Computer 438 YCT

Ans : (b) Sundar Pichai Rajan is the chief executive
officer (CEO) of Google company. He assumed this
post on 2 October 2015. Larry page appointed Sundar
Pichai as the CEO of a company called 'Google Search'
and himself became the CEO of parent company
Alphabet.
226. Who among the following invented laser ?
(a) Theodar Mayman (b) Denis Pepin
(c) William courten (d) Francis crick
RRB Gorakhpur ALP & Tech., 2006
Ans : (a) Laser was invented by Theodar Mayman in
1960. LASER is the short form of (Light Amplification
by Stimulated Emission of Radiation) which emits light
on the basis of optical amplification.
227. Does not use in LASER technology
(a) Barcode reading (b) Cutting and drilling
(c) Microwave oven (d) Physiotherapy
RRB NTPC, (Shift -1) Online, 26.04.2016
Ans : (c) Microwave oven does not use in LASER
technology.
228. A type of Internet account in which the
computer is not directly connected to the
Internet
(a) Shell account (b) Kernel account
(c) Server account (d) TCP/IP account
RRB Kolkata ALP, 2008
Ans : (a) A shell account is a user account on a remote
server, traditionally running under a unix operating
system, accessible to the shell via a command line
interface protocol such as SSH.
229. The property of identifying the rows of a table
in a wonderful way is called which key ?
(a) Primary (b) Candidates
(c) Mixed (d) Foreigner
RRB Allahabad ALP, 2010
Ans : (a) The column that uniquely identifies each
record in a database table is called a primary key. Its
value is different for each record available in the
database table.
230. Who introduced the concept of 'stored
programme'?
(a) John Von Neumann (b) Charles Babbage
(c) Blaise Pascal (d) John Matchley
RRB Allahabad ALP, 2008
Ans : (a) The concept of stored program was given by
John Von Neumann in 1940. He proposed that a
program could be stored electronically in a memory
device in binary-number format.
231. What is clickjacking ?
(a) A malicious technique designed to trick web
users into revealing confidential information
(b) A means of sending and receiving data in one
bit second
(c) A form of computer engineering
(d) A digital process used to display an image on
a monitor
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2006
IT Literacy : Computer 439
Ans : (a) Clickjacking is a malicious technique
designed to trick web users into revealing confidential
information.
Clickjacking is made up of two words : Click +
Hijacking i.e. hijacking a click. The term clickjacking
was first used by Grossman and Rover Hansen in 2008.
In clickjacking, HTML elements are made invisible and
the hacker inserts his malicious code in the invisible
HTML elements and when the user clicks on the page,
he gets trapped in the hacker's trap without knowing.
232. A group of wires through which data is
transmitted from one part of the computer to
another is called-
(a) Bus (b) Add on card
(c) Port (d) Channel
RRB Ajmer ALP, 2008
Ans : (a) A group of wires through which data is
transmitted from one part of the computer to another is
called bus.
233. What does C.R.M mean in the context of
software applications ?
(a) Customer Relatives Meet
(b) Channel Route Market
(c) Customer Relationship Management
(d) Customer Retention Manger
RRB Ajmer SSE, 2009
Ans : (c) CRM is an abbreviation of Customer
Relationship Management. It is a type of application
software in which the company practically plans and
researches how to improve the business. CRM software
is designed to compile information about customers
from different channels such as company website,
social media, telephone etc.
234. What is the new technology called, which
provides the ability to create an artificial world
and people start interacting in it ?
(a) Remote reality (b) Virtual reality
(c) Alternate reality (d) 3-D reality
Ans : (b) Virtual reality is a new technology that
provides the ability to create on artificial world in
which people can interact with each other.
235. If you use a font that is not supported by a
browser, then the original text-
(a) Displayed using 'Arial font only
(b) Will be displayed with a specific background
(c) Will be displayed in the default font
(d) Will not be displayed
RRB Secundrabad JE, 2009
Ans : (c) If we use such a font which is not supported
by the browser, then the original page will be displayed
in the default font only.
236. The full form of API is-
(a) Applied Program Intersection
(b) Application Process Interface
(c) Application Program Interface
(d) Application Program Interaction
RRB Secundrabad ALP, 2011
YCT
 Ans : (c) API is the short form of Application program
interface. It provides interface between two software.
API is a set of tools, protocols and routines, which
helps in creating application software.
237. Identify sequential access media
(a) Magnetic tape (b) Digital video disc
(c) Floppy disk (d) Optical disc
RRB Kolkata SSE, 2011
Ans : (a) Magnetic tape is a sequential access media
There is magnetic coating on it in which data is
recorded, it works on sequential order like A, B, C, D is
data. To go from A to D we have to pass through BC.
While DVD, FDD, optical disc can read data randomly.
238. Simulation is a process in which-
(a) Computer is used to control the process
(b) The computer collects data for later
processing
(c) Computer systems and programs are used to
produce action similar to the real physical
system
(d) Actual computer models are prepared at
cheap rates
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007
Ans : (c) Simulation is a process in which computer
systems and programs are used to simulate actions of a
real physical system.
239. What is the instrument for recording spoken
words in type called ?
(a) Dictaphone (b) Gramophone
(c) Audiophone (d) Microphone
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2009
Ans: (a) Dictaphone is a machine that transcribes
spoken words.
240. The full form of 'CAS' is ?
(a) Conditional Audio System
(b) Conditional Access System
(c) Complete Audio System
(d) Complete Access System
RRB Secundrabad ALP, 2011
Ans: (b) Through Conditional Access System (CAS)
the customer can watch the channels of his choice on
television broadcast
241. In the context of computer parts the term 'chip
jewellery' means
(a) A power fire virus
(b) Old junk computers of no use
(c) A processor with high capacity
(d) None of these
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007
Ans : (b) In the context of computer parts, the term
"chip jewellery" is used to describe an old computer
which has become very old and has no use.
242. A computer that is old and probably not
satisfactory, it is called that
(a) Ancient system (b) Historical system
(c) Age-old system (d) Legacy system
(e) Legal system
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2012
IT Literacy : Computer 440
Ans : (d) Legacy system is an old type of computer
which uses old technologies. It is an outdated computer.
Legacy systems are also known as legacy platforms.
243. S.M.S means-
(a) Swift mail system
(b) Short messaging service
(c) Short hand manual script
(d) Speed mail service
RRB Kolkata JE., 2012
Ans : (b) The full form of S.M.S is short messaging
service. Through the S.M.S. user transfer text from the
mobile.
244. On which network was the first S.M.S sent ?
(a) Airtel (b) Vodafone
(c) Verizone (d) Digicel
RRB NTPC, (Shift -1) Online, 18.04.2016
Ans : (b) On 3 December 1992 the world's first S.M.S
was sent by Vodafone network.
245. Who is considered the father of SMS.
(a) Jan Koum (b) Matti Makkonen
(c) Richard Jarvis (d) Steve Jobs
RRB NTPC, (Shift -1) Online, 29.04.2016
Ans : (b) Matti Makkonen is regarded as the father of
SMS technology via mobile networks.
246. In IT, associative memory is called as
(a) Virtual memory
(b) Cache memory
(c) Content addressable memory
(d) main memory
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2009
Ans : (c) In information technology associative memory
is called content addressable memory. It is a type of
computer memory which is used in searching high
speed applications. When any information is saved in a
certain place or is obtained from a certain place, the
place where that information remains safe is called
associative memory.
247. Which of the following is used to protect in
computer system, in the absence of more
complete protection schemes?
(a) digital certificate (b) digital signature
(c) passwords (d) tokens
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2007
Ans : (c) To protect confidential document in computer
system, Passwords are used as complete security
measures. A password is a series of secret words and
symbols that are used to provide proof of identity by
accessing a resource currently it is used during the login
process in a secure computer operating system, mobile
phone, cable TV, decoder etc. Other option include
digital certificate - electrone document, digital signature
- electronic verification and token related to a series of
bits.
YCT
248. Which technology is used in sunlab java car to 253. In television broadcasting picture messages are
keep your car network connected to the outside transmitted by-
world ? (a) Amplitude modulation
(a) Embedded (b) Spam (b) Frequency modulation
(c) Smart screen (d) Access point (c) Phase modulation
RRB Ajmer ALP & Tech., 2009 (d) Angle modulation
Ans : (d) Modern cars have more and more computers RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2011
most of which run on Java programming, to audit and
Ans : (a) In television broadcasting picture messages
control every aspect of driving, such as the access
are transmitted by amplitude modulation.
points used to keep your car connected to the outside
world. 254. An electronic device that can accept data,
249. What is the waste generated when the process data and produce output and store the
functionality of personal computers ends ? results for future use is called-
(a) PC-waste (b) Physical waste (a) Input (b) Computer
(c) Computer waste (d) E-waste (c) Software (d) Hardware
RRB Kolkata ALP & Tech., 2011 RRB Secundrabad JE, 2009
Ans : (d) The waste generated after the functionality of RRB Allahabad ALP, 2008
personal computers is over, so it called E-waste. Ans : (b) A computer is an electronic device that
250. The tag line “Do no Evil” is owned by accepts data, processes data, produces output, and stores
(a) Yahoo (b) Bing the results for future use.
(c) Google (d) Start page 255. The main parts of computer are-
RRB Ajmer ALP & Tech., 2007 (a) 6 (b) 7
Ans : (c) "Do No Evil" is Google's unofficial tag line, (c) 8 (d) 9
which the company later changed to "You can make RRB Allahabad ALP 2012
money without doing evil". This tag line was used by RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2011
Google for its service "Make Business Decision". Ans : (a) The main parts of a computer are-
251. What is Cc ? 1. CPU (Central Processing Unit)
(a) Computer language 2. Input devices (e.g. keyboard, mouse, scanner etc)
(b) Business language 3. Output devices (e.g. printer, monitor, speaker)
(c) Code of Agriculture 4. Memory unit (e.g- RAM)
(d) Sending a copy of the e-mail to more than 5. Secondary storage
one person 6. Communication device
RRB Kolkata ASM., 2012
256. Who among the following brought the world's
Ans : (d) Cc (Carbon copy) is used to send a mail to first laptop computer to the market ?
more than one person for information. The person (a) Hewlett Packard
receiving the e-mail at the address mentioned in the Cc
(b) Epson
box can know that the said e-mail has been sent to other
addresses beside him. (c) Laplink Traveling Software Inc.
(d) Microsoft
252. The process of mixing AF signal and RF wave
is known as– RRB Kolkata ASM, 2009
(a) modulation Ans : (b) Epson launched the world's first laptop
(b) demodulation computer in the market. It came in 1981 under the
(c) oscillation name of Epson Hx-20. It was equipped with 68
(d) amplification keyboards and rechargeable nickel cadmium batteries.
(RRB JE Bhopal Paper II (Shift-II), 26.08.2015) 257. A portable personal computer small enough to
Ans : (a) The process of mixing AF signal and RF wave be held on your lap is called ?
is known as modulation. Before transmitting away from (a) Notebook computer
the earth, the sound wave is converted into an electrical (b) P.D.A
signal with the help of a microphone, because the lower (c) Mainframe computer
the frequency of the sound wave, the more time it takes (d) Workstation
to transmit. RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2011
IT Literacy : Computer 441 YCT
 Ans : (a) A notebook computer is a portable computer Ans : (c) In the hexadecimal number system, 0 to 15 i.e.
with the convenience of keeping it on the lap. It is a 16 digits are used. It contains number 0-9 and letters A-
miniaturized version of a laptop computer, specially F. Hexadecimal numbers are represented in binary by a
designed to access network while on the move. Its set of four digits.
processing capacity is less than that of a laptop. On this
we can do almost all the computer work.
258. Which of the following is correct in order from
largest to smallest ?
So (431)10 = (1AF)16
(a) TB-MB-GB-KB (b) GB-TB-MB-KB
(c) TB-GB-KB-MB (d) TB-GB-MB-KB 261. In OSI network architecture, the routing is
performed by
(e) None of these
(a) Network layer (b) Data link layer
RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2009 (c) Transport layer (d) None of these
Ans : (d) RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2012
Bit = 0 or 1 Ans : (a) The 3rd Layer of the OSI model is the
8 bit = 1 byte network layer in which routing facilities are provided.
1024 bytes = 1 kilo byte • Routing means selecting the best path from given
1024 kilo byte = 1 Mega byte paths.
1024 Mega byte = 1 Giga byte • BGP, OSPF, RIP, EIGRP etc are the Routing
1024 Giga byte = 1 Tera byte protocol.
1024 Tera byte = 1 Peta byte
1024 Peta byte = 1 Exa byte
1024 Exa byte = 1 Zetta byte
1024 Zetta byte = 1 Yotta byte
259. Which of the following expressions represents
logical AND gate?
(a) A+B (b) A/B
(c) A>B (d) A.B
(RRB JE Bhopal Paper II (Shift-II), 26.08.2015)
Ans : (d) AND gate is a device which has two or more
input signals and only one output signal. An AND gate
with two input signals A and B and one output signal Y
is shown as follows.

Its boolean expression is A.B = Y which is read as A

262. Which graphical objects that represent
AND B equals Y.
commonly used application?
For AND gate (a) GUI (b) Driver
Y = A.B (c) Windows (d) Application
For Two input (e) Icon
RRB Ajmer ASM, 2009
Ans. (e) Icon is a graphical object that represents a file
or program on your monitor.
There are different types of icons in computer desktop
like-
1. System icon- The left side of the screen is created
automatically by windows during installation.
For OR gate- Y = A + B 2. Shortcut icon- There is an arrow in their lower left
For NOT gate-Y = A corner. It provides easy access to some object like a
260. (431)10 is the hexadecimal form of 10 program, document or printer etc.
(a) ABF (b) 2CB 3. Folder and document icon- This is a non system
(c) 1AF (d) 5BD icon. In which there are no arrows, they explain the
object for which they are made.
RRB Secundrabad ASM, 2012
IT Literacy : Computer 442 YCT
06.
Environment Education
 World Environment Protection Day-26 November
6.1 Environment : An Introduction
 International Mountain Day - 11 December
Environment- An environment is everything that is
around us, which includes both living and non-living  World Energy Day - 14 December
things such as soil, water, animals and plants, which  International Biodiversity Day - 22 May
adopt themselves to their surroundings.  Rajiv Gandhi Akshaya Urja Diwas - 20 August
The word 'Environment' is derived from the French  Wildlife Week - 2 to 8 October
word "Environ" which means "surrounding".
 World Wild Life Day- 3 March
Components of Environment and Environmental
Factors-  Global Recycle Day - 18 March
(1) Physical or Abiotic components-  Anniversary of the Chipko Andolan - 26 March
 Atmosphere- The earth is surrounded by gaseous  World Population Day - 11 July
layer that make up the atmosphere.  World Soil Day - 5 December
 Water- Water is the only naturally occurring Ecomark- It is a certification mark issued by the
inorganic liquid on earth that serves as a resource, Bureau of Indian standards (BIS) for products which
ecosystem, or habitat. are ecologically safe. It is issued by the Ministry of
 Soil - Soil is the topmost layer of the earth's crust, Environment and Forest.
which is made up of minerals and partially Environmental Awards
decomposed organic matter. Country Award Sponsor Notes
(2) Biotic Components- International Global 500 United Environmental
 Plant- Plants are the most important organic Nations Achievements of
Environment individuals and
components, because plants produce organic Programme organizations all
substances which are consumed by the plants around the world
themselves. They are autotrophs. India Indira Gandhi Ministry of Who have made
 Organism- An organism refers to a living thing that Paryavaran Environment, significant
has an organized structure, can react to stimuli, Puraskar Forest and contributions
Climate towards protecting
reproduce, grow, adapt, and maintain homeostasis. change the environment
 Microorganism- An organism that is so small, it India Indira Ministry of Who have done
can only be viewed under a microscope. It can be Priyadarshini Environment, pioneering and
bacteria, fungi, archaea. (does not include viruses Vrikshamitra Forest and exemplary work in
Award Climate the field of
and prions). They are also known as decomposers. change forestation and
(3) Energy component - wasteland
development
 Light- It is a type of electromagnetic radiation that
International Forest Hero United Who have devoted
allows the human eye to see or make objects visible. Award Nations their lives in
Sun is the ultimate source of energy directly or protecting forests.
indirectly for almost all living beings on the earth. India Himalayan Himalayan Exceptional
Green Welfare service in the field
Environmental Dates Awards Organization of environmental
 World Wetlands Conservation Day - 2 February Kashmir conservation and
development.
 World Forestry Day - 21 March India Rajiv Gandhi Ministry of Industrial units that
 World Water Day - 22 March Paryavaran Environment make a significant
Puraskar and forest contribution
 International Earth Day - 22 April towards the
development of
 World Environment Day - 5 June new technologies
 World Ground Water Day - 10 June that prevent
environmental
 International day for the preservation of the pollution.
Ozone layer - 16 September India Mahavriksha Indian science Preserving and
puraskar technology protecting trees of
 World Animal Day- 4 October and notified species
 National Bird Day - 12 November innovation,
Government
 World Toilet Day - 19 November of India.

Environment Education 443 YCT

 Previous Years Question
1. Environment means - different can be established between them. The
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002 meaning of environmental pollution is-degradation of
(a) The natural world of land, water, air, plants and the quality of the environment at the local level only by
animals that exist around them. human actions, while environmental degradation
means-degradation and degradation of quality of the
(b) The sum total of all the conditions that
environment at the local, regional and global levels by
surround a person at a point of time.
human actions and natural process for example-
(c) Interacting system of physical, biological and volcanic eruption, earthquake, elevation and
cultural elements which are inter linked. subsidence of landmass, folding and faulting,
(d) All of the above atmosphere storms (such as typhoon, hurricane,
Ans. (d) : Environment is the sum total of all those tornado etc.), Hood and drought, outbreak of forest
conditions and influences, which affect the fire due to natural causes, natural lightning discharge,
development and life of a group of organisms. hailstorm snowfall, excessive snowfall, geological
Environment includes air, water and land. along with erosion, landslides etc. are the natural factors by which
this, inter-relationships between humans, other living environmental degradation starts due to disturbance in
beings, plants, micro-organisms and their properties are the ecosystems at the terrestrial and regional levels.
also included in dynamic form. Hence, environment Hence, all the given options are correct.
refers to all the three options given in the question.
(Important facts)
2. What is the environment made of ? Ecology was used for the first time
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er., – By Ernst Haeckel
01.12.2002 Origin of species was written by
(a) From biological components – Charles Darwin
(b) From geomorphic components Who developed the concept of natural selection
(c) From inorganic components – Charles Darwin
(d) All of the above Cloud seeding occurs
Ans. (d) : Environment is an indivisible whole and is –By a mixture of Carbon dioxide and iodine
made up environmental functional systems consisting Which river's water has been given the name of
Green soup
of physical, biological and cultural elements.
Environment is the place where we live consist of air, –Yamuna River
water, land, animals, plants and the micro-organisms. 4. Which one of the following is the most suitable
It is nature's gift that helps in nourishing life on earth. and appropriate method from the point of view
3. Environmental degradation means – of healthy environment?
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG &
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section
Design 11.06.2006
Eng. 23.03.2003 (a) Burning of plastic wastes to keep the
(a) Completer degradation of environmental environment clean
properties. (b) Burning of dry and fallen leaves in a garden or
(b) Bringing opposite changes through human open place
activities. (c) Treatment of domestic sewage before
(c) Ecological imbalance as a result of ecological discharge
variation (d) Use of chemical fertilizers in agricultural fields
(d) All of the above Ans. (c) : From the point of view of a healthy
Ans. (d) : Generally environmental pollution and environment treating domestic sewage before releasing
environmental degradation are considered synonyms it is the most appropriate method. That's why there is a
because both are related to the degradation of the need to filter and release the sewage generated from the
quality of the environment. But on the basis of their urbon complexes situated on the banks of rives Ganga
factors and the area and scale of their influence, a through STP.

Environment Education 444 YCT

5. World Environment Day is celebrated on – World Animal Day – October 30
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil) National Bird Day – 5 January
29.06.2008 World Toilet Day – November 19
st
(a) December 1 World Environment Protection Day – November 26
(b) June 5th National Energy Conservation Day, World Energy-
(c) November 14th Day –14 December
(d) August 15th International Mountain Day – December 11
Ans. (b) : Question wise the following days are as World Ground Water Day – 22 March
follows – Dedicated day to the continuous war against
December 1st World AIDS Day desertification and drought – June 17
June 5th World Environment Day/World Rajiv Gandhi Renewable Energy Day – August 20
Filariasis 8. The 'Global 500' awards are given to –
th
November 14 World Children Day/World RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer
Diabetes day
(Civil), 26.02.2012
6. Which of the following day is celebrated on 5th (a) To Control Population
June
(b) For Campaign against terrorism
RRB Bangalore Section Engineer
(c) For environmental protection
(Civil) 01.02.2009
(d) For campaign against drugs
(a) World AIDS Day
(b) World Environment Day Ans. (c) An international award named 'Global-500' is
(c) International Ozone Day given for the excellent work done for environmental
(d) National Science Day protection. The award was instituted in 1987 by the
United Nations Environment Program (UNEP). The
Ans. (b) : World Environment Day is celebrated on 5
following Indian awards related to environment are -
June. World AIDS Day is celebrated on 1 December
and International Ozone Day 16 September and Pitambarpant National Award given since 1978 for
National Science Day on 28 February. outstanding contribution in environmental science.
7. Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is given for Indira Gandhi Environmental Award (1987), Rajiv
the best contribution– Gandhi Environment Award (1993), Mahavriksha
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Electrical) , Award (1993 - 94) etc. are awards related to
15.03.2009 environment.
(a) Afforestation and conservation of follow land 9. The basis of Indira Gandhi Environment Award
(b) In clean technology and development given every year is
(c) In wildlife conservation RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012
(a) Meaningful contribution in the field of
(d) In writing a Hindi book on environment
environment
Ans. (b) : The Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award was
(b) Outstanding contribution in the field of
instituted in 1993. This award is given for clean
technology and development. forestation
(c) Outstanding contribution to the development of
(Environmental Day) barren land
World Wetlands Conservation Day – February 2 (d) Exemplary work in the field of conservation and
World Foresty Day – March 21 research of wildlife.
World Water Day – March 22
Ans. (a) : The Indira Gandhi Environment Award ,
International Earth Day – April 22
given every year, is given to an organization or
World Environment Day – June 5
individual who has made a significant contribution in
International Day for Disaster Reduction – October 14
the field of environment. This award was established
International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone
in 1987.
Layer – September 16

Environment Education 445 YCT

10. 'Eco Mark' is given to those Indian products 14. Which factor is most important in determining
which– the impact of anthropogenic activates on the
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.), environment?
26.02.2012 RRB Bhubaneshwar App. Electrical , 19.08.2001
(a) be pure and unadulterated
(b) be protein -rich
(c) be friendly towards the environment
(d) be economically viable
Ans. (c) : Eco Mark is used for those Indian products
whose production has not caused damage to the
environment, that is friendly towards the environment.
This certificate is being given by the Bureau of Indian
Standards (BIS) since the year 1991. It's logo are
earthen pots.
11. to identify eco-friendly consumer products, the
government has started –
RRB Jammu Section Eng. (Mech,
Elec/Elect./Telecom), 2013
(a) Agmark
(b) Ecomark
(c) ISI mark
(d) Water mark
Ans. (b) : For the purpose of distinct identification of
eco-friendly consumer goods, the system of
'Ecomark' label has been adopted. Bureau of Indian
Standards/Directorate of Marks and Inspection is the
main agency to implement this scheme.
12. The world Environment facility was started in –
DMRC Civil Engineering, 07.09.2014
(a) 1985
(b) 1989
(c) 1991
(d) 1994
Ans. (c) The World Environment facility was started
in October 1991 with the cooperation of 183 countries.
it provides a platform to solve global environment
problems and promote sustainable development.
13. E.V.S. Abbreviation is used in sense of ………….
DMRC Electronics Engineering, 21.09.2014
(a) Environmental science
(b) Environmental sources
(c) Environmental studies
(d) Environmental skills
Ans. (c) : E.V.S. the abbreviation is used in the sense Watershed development approach. Under this scheme,
of Environmental studies.
Environment Education
(a) Population, per capita wealth and technology
used to exploit the resources.
(b) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest
cover.
(c) Population, forest cover and per capita land
availability.
(d) Population, per capita wealth, per capita land
availability.
Ans. (a) : Environment is the collective unit of all
those physical, chemical and biological factors that
affect any living organism or ecological population
and determine their form, life and survival. In general
sense, it is a unit made up of a set of all biological and
a biotic elements, facts, processes and events affecting
our lives. It pervades all around us and every event of
our life takes place within it and we also affect this
environment with all our actions. Thus there is also a
relationship of interdependence between an organism
and its environment.
From micro-organisms to insects, all living beings and
trees and plants come in the biological components of
the environment and along with it all the biological
activities and processes related to them. Abiotic
components include non-living elements and processes
associated with them, such as rocks, mountains, rivers,
elements of air and climate etc.
15. Which one of the following approaches is the most
comprehensive approach to the problem of
human- environment ambivalence?
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III,
20.11.2005
(a) Natural resource conservation approach
(b) Urbon-industrial growth oriented approach
(c) Growth oriented approach to rural agriculture
(d) Watershed Development Approach
Ans. (d) : The problem of human environment
interaction's that when humans exploit the resources
present in the environment, as a result of which the
problem is born. To prevent this problem, many plans
and strategies are being made by humans. Like-
water can be used judiciously.
446 YCT
 (1) Tundra-
6.2 Biosphere and Biome  Type - Arctic Tundra (high latitudes), Alphine tundra
Biosphere- The biosphere is defined as the region on, (high altitudes)
above, and below the earth's surface where life exists.  Climate - Arctic, arid
Parts of the biosphere-  Growing season - very short
 Lithosphere- It is the term for solid portion of the
 Soil quality - Very poor
earth.
 Very low biotic diversity
 Atmosphere- The earth is surrounding by gaseous
layer that make up the atmosphere.  World's coldest biome
 Hydrosphere- The vast volume of water that make  500 to 700 North latitude
up the majority of the earth's surface.  Dry & little rain fall
 Long winter, short summer
 Permafrost - Permanently
 Plants- No trees, mosses, grasses, lichens and
herbaceous etc.
 Animals - insects, birds (summer only), no
amphibians or reptiles, mammals such as rodents,
arctic foxes, polar bears, caribou (summer only)
mountain goats etc.
(2) Desert-
• Climate- temperate or tropical, arid
• Growing season - varies
Biotic Community- It is the group of organisms that • Soil quality- very poor,
live together and interact with each other within an • Biodiversity - none / very low.
environment or habitat. It is also called as a 'biota' or • Receive less than 250mm rainfall annually
'biocoenosis'. • Found around 300 to 500 latitude, called mid-latitudes
Community Characteristics- • Deserts are cold (Gobi) or hot (Sahara, Thar)
 A group of people  A definite locality according to temperature.
 Community Sentiment  Neutrality • Plants- Organ pipe cactus, sage plants, mesquite
 Permanence  Similarity virtually no plants etc.
 Total organized social life  A particular name • Animals- Insects, reptiles (snake & Lizards), camels,
 Size of community rodent (rat), birds and coyotes etc.
Species Diversity- It is defined as the number of (3) Grassland -
different species present in an ecosystem and relative Other name - savanna
abundance of each of those species.  Mid-latitude (25-550)
Keystone Species- Species that in fluence its  Limited annual rainfall (25 - 75cm)
community by creating, modifying or maintain physical  Soil quality - Excellent
habitat for itself and other species.  Semi - arid climate
Keystone species is an organism that helps hold the
system together.  Poor vegetation growth dominated by grasses.
Other Important Species For Ecosystem  Type- Tropical and Temperate
Foundation Species- The foundation species are  This biome are mainly between a forest and a desert.
species that have a strong role in structuring a  Growing season - Low or medium
community or maintaining a habitat. Ex. corals.  Biodiversity- Low or medium
Umbrella Species- Umbrella species are species that  Plants- Grasses, scattered clumps of trees
are selected for conservation-related decisions because  Animals- Insects, reptile (snake), and birds,
the conservation and protection of these species mammals such as zebras, giraffe antelopes, lions,
indirectly affect the conservation and protection of
etc.
other species within their ecosystem. Ex. Grizzly bear
(4) Deciduous forests-
(Threatened), Spotted owl (new threatened).
Indicator species- An organism whose presence,  Other name hardwood forest, broadleaf forest.
absence or abundance reflects a specific environmental  Mid - Latitude
condition. Ex. Escherichia coli.  Climate- semi-humid, temperate
Biome- A biome is a community of plants and animals  (76 - 127 cm) average rainfall per year
that is found in a large geographic area. In other words,
 Growing season- Good
all the major ecosystem on earth including plants and
animals are called biome.  Bio diversity - high
Environment Education 447 YCT
  Plants- Broadleaf deciduous trees such as beeches,
oak and hickory, maple, etc.
 Animals - Insects, amphibians, reptiles and birds,
mammals such as squirrels, foxes, deer, black bears
and wolves etc.
 Tropical deciduous (monsoon forests) are found in
large parts of India, northern Australia and Central
America. While temperate deciduous forests are
found in eastern China, northern New Zealand and
western Europe.
(5) Boreal forest-
 Other name - Taiga, northern coniferous forest
 Climate - semi-arid, subarctic
 Growing season is short
 Soil quality - poor, lack of nutrients
 Biodiversity - low
 It is also found in some parts of southern hemisphere
tundra, such as New Zealand
 Plants - conifers such as cedar, spruce, pine and fir,
mosses etc.
 Animals - Insects, birds (mainly in summer), no
amphibian mammals such as rodents, rabbits,
moose, caribou (winter only) etc.
(6) Tropical Rain Forests-
 Evergreen forests.
 Located between 230- 550 latitude
 No dry season, all year rainy season
 200 - 250 cm of rainfall per year
 Rainforests turn CO2 into O2 and reduces the green
house effect
 Provide source of medicines
 Rainforest layer-
(i) Emergent layer- has tallest tree appx. 200 feet
above the forest floor.
(ii) Canopy layer- The height of trees in this layer
ranges from 35 to 40 meters.
(iii) Understory layer - Receive little sunshine
(iv) Forest Floor- Very Dark, with little sunlight
(almost 2 percent).
 Plants- Goliath water lily, heliconia, Cacao, Passion
fruit flower, coffee plant, monkey Brush vines,
orchid etc.
 Animal - Monkey, blue morpho butterfly, Okapi,
Brown-throated three -toed sloth, jaguar, capybara,
toucan and poison dart frog etc.
 Soil quality - highly acidic (poor quality)
 Biodiversity - high
 Growing season - year-round (dry and wet season)

Previous Years Question

1. Oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur (a) Otter - Turtle - Shark (b) Shark -Turtle - Otter
released while burning fossil fuels are –––––––. (c) Turtle -Shark - Otter (d) Shark -Otter - Turtle
(a) Acidic oxides (b) Silver oxides RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II,
(c) Alkaline oxides (d) Copper oxides 22.01.2006
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III Ans. (b) : Shark- Scientists beleive that sharks came
Ans : (a) Oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur, into existence around 400 million years ago. It is
which are released on burning fossil fuels, are acidic beleived that they descended from a small leaf -
oxides. These cause acid rain which affects are water shaped fist that had no eyes, bones on fish.
and soil resources. Turtle-is beleived to have existed for 250 million
2. Substances that are broken down by biological years. They are among the longest - living land
processes are said to be animals in the world.
(a) Bio degradable (b) Non-recyclable Otters-are beleived to have existed on earth for the past 23
million years. They have evolved significantly and have
(c) Recyclable (d) Non-biodegradable gone through many adaptations to survive till this time.
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III Hence, Shark- Turtle - Otter is the correct sequence.
Ans : (a) Substances that are broken down by 5. A sustainable biotic group in an ecosystem is
biological processes bacteria and other micro- called –
organisms are called biodegradable. Example: All (a) Ecotone (b) Succession
living plants and animals, vegetables, jute and fruits. (c) Climax (d) Simple
3. Fossil fuels are –––––––– sources of energy. RRB Kolkata Apprentice Supervisors, 14.10.2001
(a) Air (b) Solar
Ans. (a) : In ecology, sustainable bio-groups are called
(c) Renewable (d) Non-Renewable
transects or ecotones. Ecotone is a transitional or very
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-III wide area between two biome, in which animals and
Ans : (d) Fossil fuel is a non-renewable and non- plants of both biomes are found. Sequencing or
renewable source of energy. Coal, oil and natural gas succession is called that, in which the place of one
are all primary energy sources of fossil fuels. biological community is taken by another biological
4. From the point of view of evolution in living community over time. while in the peak stage or climax,
beings, which one of the following is the correct the succession of one species by another slows down with
sequence of evolution? time and gradually the species acquires a definite form.
Environment Education 448 YCT
6. With reference to the evolution of organisms, 11. The limit on the number of organisms in a given
which one of the following sequence is correct area that the environment can support is called –
(a) Octopus → Dolphin → Shark Jaipur Metro Rail, 02.12.2012
(a) Population (b) Carrying capacity
(b) Pangolin → Turtle → Falcon
(c) Pyramid of numbers of bio-mass
(c) Salamander → Pythan → Kangaroo (d) None of the above
(d) Frog → Crab → Prawn Ans. (b) The limit on the number of species that an
RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P.Way), 20.02.2000 environment can support in a given area is called the
Ans. (c) : the correct sequence in the context of evolution carrying capacity. While population is the number of
people living in a unit area and biomass is the quantity
of organisms is → Salamander → Pythan → Kangaroo of organisms present in a particular area.
7. A time-varying gradual change in the intensity 12. Which of the following is of organic origin?
of a region is called – (a) Coral (b) Emerald
(a) biome (b) indexing (c) Ruby (d) Topaz
(c) nutritional (d) peak stage DMRC Maintainer (Fitter) , 20.07.2014
Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Train Operators’, Ans. (a) : Coral are small aquatic creatures and the
14.09.2003 process of biological nutrition operates smoothly in
Ans. (b) : A time-varying gradual change in the them. They are very sensitive from the point of view of
intensity of a region is called indexing. ecology and at present global warming, is having an
To monitor the change in landscap, and to relate these adverse effect on them. The organic matter in coral
to ecological processes, we need robust and skeleton is typically considered to be a 50m that is
reproducible method for quantifying the changes in produced by the coral polyp and that plays an active
landscape pattern. role in crystal nucleation and growth.
8. The' Man and Biosphere Programme' (MAB)was 13. In which one of the following layers of the
started by UNESCO in – atmosphere is the concentration of ions high?
(a) Stratosphere (b) Exosphere
(a) 1970 (b) 1972
(c) Thermosphere (d) Troposphere
(c) 1971 (d) 1991
DMRC Station Controller, 27.07.2014
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent,
Ans. (c): The height of the outer atmosphere is between
21.11.2004
80-640 km. There is an excess of electrically charged
Ans. (c) : The 'Man and Biosphere Programme' was particles in it and the temperature starts increasing with the
stated by UNESCO in the Year 1971 to establish a increase in height. The concentration of ions is high in
sustainable relationship between humans and the this layer. Radio waves of frequency D-Layer, E-Layer, F-
environment. Layer, G-Layer etc. are reflected from this layer of the
9. The biosphere reserve is a conservation area of atmosphere. As a result of which the facilities of radio,
(a) The grassland (b) Agricultural production television, telephone and radar etc. are available on the
earth. Communication satellites are located in this circle.
(c) Atmospheric balance (d) Genetic variation
DMRC Station Controller, 09.09.2007 14. Which is the most abundant gas in the
atmosphere on the basis of percentage?
Ans. (d) : Biosphere reserves are multipurpose areas that (a) Nitrogen (b) Oxygen
maintain genetic diversity in terrestrial and coastal (c) Hydrogen (d) Carbon-dioxide
ecosystems. So far 18 Biosphere Reserves have been RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 09.11.1997
established in our country. Out of these 18 Biosphere Ans. (a):According to the volume, the mixture of
Reserves, 10 are recognized on the UNESCO World different gases in the atmosphere is as follows- Nitrogen
Network Biosphere Reserves. 78.07%, Oxygen 20.93%, Carbon dioxide .03%.
10. Which one of the following is the correct 15. Eskimos build their houses 'igloo' out of snow
sequence of steps in biological succession? what is the reason for this?
(a) Nudation, Establishment, Reaction, Stabilization (a) Ice does not allows cold air and water to enter
(b) The air present between the walls of ice
stripping
prevents the heat inside from escaping
(b) Nudation, Stripping, Establishment, Reaction, (c) Ice is available free of cost, other ingredients
Stabilization will cost more
(c) Installation, Nudation, Stripping, Reaction, (d) Ice is available only in the polar regions.
Stabilization RRB Ajmer (Tech.), 25.01.1998
(d) Stabilization, Reaction, Stripping, Nudation,
Ans. (b) : Eskimos are tribes living in the polar regions
Establishment.
who build their houses from snow, their houses are
DMRC Customer Relations Ass., 22.07.2012 called igloo's. Eskimos build houses out of snow
Ans. (b) : The correct sequence of steps of biological because the air present between the walls of snow
succession world be as follows. Nudation, Stripping, prevents the heat inside from going out, due to which
Establishment, Reaction, Stabilization. the house feels warm inside.
Environment Education 449 YCT

6.3 Ecology and Ecosystem
Ecology- Ecology is the science under which all living
beings and their inter-relationship between the physical
environment are studies.
 The term 'Ecology' was first used by Ernst Haeckel in
1869. The nomenclature 'Oecology' created by
Haeckel, is formed from two words of Greek language,
in which Oikos (Living place) and logus (study). Later
on, Oecology name to be called ecology.
Ecosystem - The set of all the components of the
biosphere, which are involved in interaction, is called
ecosystem. An ecosystem is a functional unit of nature
that includes complex interactions between its biotic
and abiotic components.
 The term ' ecosystem' was first used by A.G
Tansley.
Abiotic Factor- Abiotic factors are the non-living parts
of the environment that have a major influence on living
organisms. It include water, sunlight, oxygen, soil,
temperature, humidity, weather and more.
Biotic Component- Biotic factor are living component
in an ecosystem. It consists of all living organism and
physico-chemical components.
The biotic factor has been classified into 3 groups-
(i) Produces
(ii) Consumers
(iii) Decomposers
(1) Producers or Autotrophs-
 Produce their own food by using sunlight by the
process of photosynthesis.
 Ex. Plants, green Algae.
Environment Education 450
Characteristic of Ecosystem-
 It is a structured and well organized system.
 Natural resource system
 The productivity of an ecosystem depends on the
availability of energy in it.
 Different type of ecosystem are powered by energy.
 It is an open system in which there is continuous
input and output of materials and energy.
 On the basis of size, it can be divided into several
parts-
Ecological niche- The ecological niche describes how a
species interacts within an ecosystem. The niche of a
species depends on both abiotic and biotic factors, they
allow different species to live togather.
(2) Consumers-
 These organisms depends on producers for their
foods.
Ex. Human (usually animals)
(i) Primary consumer (Herbivores)
Plant eater, Ex. a cow
(ii) Secondary consumer (Carnivores)
Meat eaters, Ex. a Lion and omnivores.
(iii) Tertiary consumer (Omnivores)
Plant and animal eaters, ex. human or birds.
(3) Decomposer or saprophyte (Detritivores)-
 Consume, decompose dead and decaying matter.
 organism like bacteria and fungi.
YCT
 Type of Ecosystem-
There are 2 types of ecosystem:
Terrestrial
Terrestrial Ecosystem-
Terrestrial ecosystem are exclusively land based
ecosystems. They are as follows.
(i) Forest Ecosystem- A forest ecosystem consists of
several plants, particularly trees, animals and
micro-organisms. They help in maintaining the
temperature of earth and are the major carbon sink.
(ii) Grassland Ecosystem- In grassland, the vegetation
is dominated by grasses and herbs.
(iii) Tundra Ecosystem- Tundra ecosystems are devoid
of trees and are found in cold climates or where
rainfall is scarce. These are covered with snow for
most of the year.
(iv) Desert Ecosystem- These are regions with little
rainfall and scarce vegetation. The days are hot,
and the nights are cold.
(2)Aquatic Ecosystem- Aquatic ecosystems are
ecosystems present in a body of water. They are as
follows.
(i) Freshwater Ecosystem- The freshwater ecosystem
is an aquatic ecosystem that includes lakes, ponds,
rivers, streams and wetlands. These have no salt
content in contrast with the marine ecosystem.
Previous Years Question
1. ––––– is the physiological adjustment by an
organism to environmental change.
(a) Bioaccumulation (b) Bioremediation
(c) Acclimation (d) Cogeneration
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (c) Physiological adjustments made by an organism to
environmental changes are called acclimation.
Acclimation - The adjustment of human body to suit
the climate with respect to temperature, altitude,
humidity, ph, light etc.
2. Which one of the following is the best description
of the term 'ecosystem'?
RRB Ajmer (Tech.), 01.03.1998
Environment Education 451
 Terrestrial Ecosystem
 Aquatic Ecosystem
(ii) Marine Ecosystem- The marine ecosystem
includes sea and oceans. These have a more
substantial salt content and greater biodiversity in
comparison to the freshwater ecosystem.
Problems of terrestrial Ecosystem-
 Conversion of forest land into agricultural land
 Shifting or jhum cultivation.
 Conversion of forest into pastures.
 Demand for firewood
 Demand for industrial and commercial wood
 Forest fire
 Urbanization and develop project.
 Diseases in forests.
 Increase in desertification because of some natural
reason, scarce water resources, drought and high
biotic pressure.
Problems of Aquatic Ecosystem-
 Eutrophication (Natural and manmade)
 Water bloom/Algal Bloom
(a) A community of organisms interacting with
each other
(b) That part of the earth which is inhabited by
living organisms
(c) The community of organisms together with the
environment in which they live
(d) Flora and Fauna of a geographical area.
Ans. (c) : The term of ecosystem was first used by
A.G. Tansley in 1935. According to him, there is a
reciprocal relationship between the organisms of the
biotic community of any place and the abiotic
environment found around them and both of them
influence each other.
YCT
 • The composition, function of the organisms of the Establishes relationship between biotic and abiotic
communities and the interrelationship with their components – Decomposer
environment is called ecosystem. Which noun is given to the amount of non-living
3. Which of the following is not correct about matter in any ecosystem at a given time?
ecosystem? – Standing state
RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 11.04.1999 In which direction does energy flow in the food
(a) It contains both abiotic and biotic components chain – in the same
(b) It has its own productivity direction
(c) It is a closed ecosystem Establishes relationships among all the organisms
of an entire community – Food
(d) It is a natural resource system
web
Ans. (c) : Ernst Haeckel (Zoologist) used the word In which of the following, the flow of energy
ecology in 1869. Biotic- abiotic components in passes through many paths even though it is in the
ecosystem, nutrient level, energy , geochemical cycle, same direction? – In food
photosynthesis, food chain, food web, productivity, web
sustainability, plant kingdom, fauna, biome,
Energy is a unit of measurement in ecology.
environmental degradation, imbalance, natural
disasters, pollution and environmental management are – Heat
studied. an ecosystem is an open system. A functional unit of nature is – Ecosystem
• Ecosystem is an integration of all living and non- What name was given by Carl Mobius and Forbes
living factors of the environment . to the concept of ecosystem?
An ecosystem is normally an open system with a – Respectively biocoenosis and microcosm.
continuous but variable influx and loss of material and 5. What is studied in ecology is –
energy. RRB Bangalore (Tech.), 22.08.1999
4. Ecology is the study of the interrelationships (a) Earth (b) Environment
among the following – (c) Space (d) Sky
RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 29.06.1999 Ans. (b) : In ecology, the mutual relationship of
(a) Organism and environment organisms with their environment are studied. The
(b) man and forest living community of animals and plants in an area as
(c) soil and water well as the abiotic components of the environment
(d) husband and wife such as soil, air, water are called ecosystems.

Ans. (a) : The German biologist Ernst Haeckal (1869) 6. Which of the following is not a biotic component
coined the term ecology. According to him, the study of an ecosystem?
of mutual relationship between the environment and RRB Bangalore (Tech.), 22.08.1999
the living community is called ecology. (a) Vegetation (b) Bacteria
(c) Animal (d) Air
Exam points
Who first used the term 'ecosystem'? Ans. (d) : Air is not a biotic component of the
ecosystem. Air is an abiotic factor, which are the non-
– A.G. Tansley living physical and chemical elements in the
Respiration is. – Reducing agent ecosystem.
In which light color does photosynthesis 7. Who among the following used the term 'Deep
– Red and Blue Ecology,' for the first time?
In the process of photosynthesis CO2 and H2O are RRB Kolkata (Tech.), 29.08.1999
respectively. (a) E.P. Odum (b) C. Raunkiaer
– Reduction and Oxidation (c) F. E. Clements (d) Arne Naess
Which quality is found in all consumers? Ans. (d) : The term deep ecology was first used by
– Host properties Arne Naess.
What are secondary producers? •It is a movement and philosophy meaning to protect
– Host consumer animals nature on its own sake.
Those animals which get their food by hunting 8. The concept of ecosystem is credited to –
other animals are called – Predators RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P. Way), 20.02.2000
Some animals are both vegetarian and non- (a) A. H. Strahler (b) A. G. Tansley
vegetarian, they are called – Universal (c) C. C. Park (d) F. R. Fosberg
Environment Education 452 YCT
 Ans. (b) : The credit for the concept of ecosystem is Tamil Nadu Point Calimere Wildlife and bird
given by A. G. Tansley. Santuary
Ecosystem refers to the habitat environment where Tripura Rudrasagar Lake
biotic components and abiotic components
continuously interact. The basic reason for this Manipur Loktak Lake (included in the
attraction is the flow of food energy within the biotic Montreux record)
community. It is an open system which keeps on Uttar Pradesh Upper Ganges River (Brijghat to
changing due to ecological and human interference. Narora)
9. The concept of ecological niche was propounded West Bengal East Kolkata Wetlands
by – Madhya Pradesh Bhoj Wetland
RRB Mahendrughat (Patna) Diesel Driver,
18.02.2001 Gujarat Nal Sarovar Bird Sanctuary (latest
addition)
(a) Grinnels (b) Darwin
(c) E. P. Odum (d) C. C. Park 11. Which of the following is an artificial ecosystem?
Ans. (a) : The concept of ecological niche was first RRB Mumbai Electrical/Diesel Drivers’,
given by Grinnels (1971).It is an inclusive term that 03.06.2001
involves not only the physical space occupied by an (a) Paddy Field (b) Forest
organism but also its functional role in the community. (c) Grassland (d) Lake
10. The Ramsar Convention was related to the Ans. (a) :Paddy field is an artifical ecosystem. These
conservation of – ecosystems are created by humans for commercial or
RRB Mahendrughat (Patna) Diesel Drivers’, other purposes. It is made to mimic a natural
11.11.2001 ecosystem but often is less complex and with a very
(a) Biofules (b) Forests low genetic diversity.
(c) Wetlands (d) Dry lands 12. Which lake of Rajasthan has been included in
Ans. (c) : In 1971 there was a multipurpose the list of Ramsar wetlands?
agreements for the protection of water-logged land or RRB Gorakhpur Diesel Ass. Diesel Drivers’,
wetlands, which is known as the Ramsar Convention 14.04.2002
(Iran). India joined it in 1982 and a program is being (a) Jaisamand Lake (b) Anasagar Lake
run by the (Ministry of Environment and Forests) since (c) Rajsamand Lake (d) Sambhar Lake
1987 for their protection. A total of 26 wetlands have
Ans. (d) : World-class organizations that conserve
been selected for conservation in 15 states under this wetlands made a list of water bodies meeting the world-
programme. class standards in the Ramsar convention, in which two
26 wetland areas of India under Ramsar sites-Sambhar Lake and Keoladeo National Park are
Convention located in Rajasthan.
Jammu & Kashmir Wular Lake, Hokersar Wetland, 13. Which one of the following is a source of
Surinsar-Mansar Lake methane emissions to the atmosphere ?
Himachal Pradesh Chandra Taal Wetland, Pong dam RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
Lake, Renuka wetland (smallest (a) Automatic vehicle vaccume tune
wetland of India). (b) Industrial chimney
Punjab Harike Lake (Artificial wetland, (c) Mining
created from Sutlej River), Kanjli (d) Wet land
Lake, Ropar Lake Ans. (d) : Methane gas emissions are mainly from
Kerala Ashtamudi, Sasthamkotta, wetlands such as rice fields, livestock lands and
Vembanad Wetlands (Largest seepage into natural gas system. It accounts for 11%
wetlands in India) of the greenhouse gas emissions.
Rajasthan Sambhar Lake, Keoladeo National 14. Which one of the following ecological regions of
Park (included in Montreux record) India is not correctly matched?
RRB Ranchi Assistant Drivers’, 09.01.2003
Odisha Chilka Lake, Bhitarkanika
(a) South Western ghat ─ Moist forest
Mangroves
(b) Terai Duar ─ Broad leaf forests
Andhra Pradesh Kolleru Lake
(c) Rann of Kutch ─ Grasslands
Assam Deepor beel (d) Eastern Deccan Plateau ─ Moist forest
Environment Education 453 YCT
 Ans. (d) : The correct match is as follows –
(1) South Western ghat – Moist forest
(2) Terai Duar – Broad leaf forests
(3) Rann of Kutch – Grasslands
(4) Eastern Deccan Plateau – Dry Mangrove forest
15. Which of the following trees is not eco-friendly?
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section
Engineer, 23.03.2003
(a) Acacia (b) Eucalyptus
(c) Neem (d) Peepal
Ans. (b) : Eucalyptus trees is not ecofriendly. It
depletes the nutrients and moisture reserves of the soil
and inhibits the undergrowth due to allelopathic
properties.
16. Which of the following forests is known as the
'lungs of the planet earth'?
Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Train Operators’,
14.09.2003
(a) Taiga forest (b) Tundra forest
(c) Amazon rain forest
(d) Rain forests of Northeast India
Ans. (c) : The Amazon rain forest is known as the
lungs of the planet Earth. It produces about 20% of the
world's oxygen. Due to being very wide, it would have
contained a large part of carbon dioxide in itself.
Therefore, it is also called 'Carbon sink'.
17. Phreatophytes are found in deserts, i.e. plants in
which –
RRB Ranchi Diesel/Electric Assitant (Driver),
21.09.2003
(a) There is storage of fat (20 -30mg) in the leaves.
(b) Long (20–30 ft.) taproot is there
(c) Small (2-3mm.) or spiny leaves are there
(d) Succulent stem (100– 200 mm. thick)
Ans. (b) : Phreatophytes are found in the
desert.Phreatophytes are a long- rooted plant that
absorbs its water from the water table or the soil above
it.
Ex- Welwitschia, Alfalfa.
18. The tropical evergreen rainforest biome provides
favorable environmental conditions for the
growth of flora and fauna. Which of the following Ans. (c) : The correct sequence in order of decreasing
statements is not correct in this regard?
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent, lakes, oceans.
21.11.2004
22. Which of the following pairs is correctly
(a) It receives rainfall throughout the year and
maintains high temperature.
(b) This biome is also called mega-thermal biome
(c) The evergreen rain-forest biome is spread
between 10° N and 10° S latitude.
(d) The maximum development of this biome has
taken place in central and southern California
and in the northwestern regions of Africa.
Environment Education
Ans. (d): The tropical evergreen forest or evergreen
rain forest biome provides optimal conditions for the
growth and development of plants and animals because
of high rainfall and high temperatures throughout the
year. For this reason it is also called optimum biome.
The tropical evergreen biome is called the megathermal
biome because of the presence of high temperatures
throughout the year. Evergreen rain forest biome is
spread between 100N 10° South latitudes. Its maximum
development extends is found in Amazon Basin, Congo
Basin and Indonesian region.
19. Kanha National Park is related to which one of
the geographical areas?
RRB Kolkata Diesel/Electrical Ass., 06.02.2005
(a) Tropical evergreen forest
(b) Tropical forest
(c) Tropical Dry forest
(d) Tropical moist forest
Ans. (c) : Kanha National Park belongs to tropical dry
forest. It is one of the tiger reserves of India and the
largest national park of Madhya Pradesh.
20. 'Nepenthes' is a plant that eats small creatures
like frogs, insects and rats by trapping them
inside. This plant is found in our country.
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III ,
20.11.2005
(a) Meghalaya (b) Assam
(c) Odisha (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (a) : 'Nepenthes' is a plant that eats small
creatures like frogs, insects, spiders, and rats trapped
inside it. It is found in Meghalaya.
• Nepenthes is a insectivorous plant which eat insect
to fulfill nitrogen deficiency.
Nepenthes khasiana is a endangered species.
21. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of them in the order of decreasing
productivity of Ecosystem?
RRB Secunderabad Technical-III (Electrical),
11.12.2005
(a) Ocean, Lake, Grassland, Mangrove
(b) Mangrove, Ocean, Grassland, Lake
(c) Mangrove, Grassland, Lake, Ocean
(d) Ocean, Mangrove, lake, Grassland
productivity of ecosystem is mangroves, grasslands,
matched?
RRB Secunderabad Technical-III (Electrical),
11.12.2005
(a) Mountain – Most stable ecosystem
(b) Abiotic components – Bacteria
(c) Green plants – Ecosystem
(d) Rainfall – Global warming
454 YCT
 Ans. (c): The concept of 'ecosystem' was first (a) Arctic and Greenland ice sheets
proposed by A. G. Tansley in 1935. The green plants (b) Amazon rain forest
are involved in producing food for the consumers, (c) Taiga
serving as the primary producers of the ecosystem. (d) Indian monsoon
23. Which one of the following ecosystems is spread Ans. (a) The most fragile ecosystem that will be first
over the largest area of the earth? affected by global warming is the Arctic and
RRB Allahabad Junior Engineer-II Greenland ice sheet. Due to global warming, ice will
[Mechanical, DSL (C&W)], 08.01.2006 melt and it will increase the sea levels, which will lead
(a) Desert (b) Grasslands to higher storm surges and more coastal flooding, etc.
(c) Maintains (d) Marine 28. Which one of the following terms describes not
only the physical space occupied by an organism,
Ans. (d) : Marine ecosystem is spread over the
but also its functional role in the community of
largest area of the earth. They are usually
organisms?
characterized by the presence of salt content. Besides,
marine ecosystems have distinctive flora and fauna, DMRC Station Controller, 09.09.2007
which support greater biodiversity than freshwater (a) Ecotone (b) Ecological niche
ecosystem. (c) Accommodation (d) Residential area
24. The most stable ecosystem is – Ans. (b) : Ecological niche is the term that describes
RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006 not only the physical space occupied by an organism,
but also its functional role in the community of
(a) Forest (b) Grassland
organisms. Ecological niche is the position of a
(c) Desert (d) Oceanic species within an ecosystem, describing both the range
Ans. (d) : The most stable ecosystems is ocean of conditions necessary for the existence of species.
because it remains unchanged over the long time. They 29. "Ecology is sustainable economy" is the slogan
have been constant throughout the long history of the of which movement?
planet.
RRB Patna Technical Eng., 27.07.2008
25. Which of the following is the most important (a) Epica movement
factor in coral bleaching? (b) Narmada rescue movement
RRB Chennai Technical (Eng.), 15.04.2007 (c) Chipko movement
(a) coral reef mining (d) None of the above
(b) outbreak of coral diseases
Ans. (c) : "Ecology is sustainable economy", this is
(c) deposition of sediments in sea water the slogan of the chipko movement. It occured in the
(d) Global warming year 1973. It was a women's movements towards the
Ans. (d) : Global is the most significant factor in coral conservation of trees.
bleaching. 30. The unit of measurement of ecological footprint
The coral bleaching occurs when corals lose their is:
vibrant colours and turns white due to the rise in the RRB Allahabad Ass. Loco Pilot, 03.08.2008
normal temperature of sea water. When water is too (a) Global hectare (b) Nanometer
warm, corals will expel the algae living in their tissues (c) Hops cubic foot (d) Cubin tone
causing the coral to turn completely white.
Ans. (a) : Ecological footprint is the minimum amount
26. Which of the following functions deteriorates of land required to make human life fully sustainable.
the ecological balance? The unit of measurement of it is in global hectare.
RRB Bangalore Technical (Eng.), 22.04.2007
31. Who among the following has such an acute sense
(a) Wood Cutting (b) Social forestry of hearing that he can differentiate between the
(c) Van Mahotsav (d) Afforestation sound of leaves rustling in the wind and the
Ans. (a) : Wood cutting deteriorates the functions of sound of an animal working on the grass?
the ecological balance. as continuous deforestation and RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section
soil erosion cause mass destruction of wildlife, disrupt Eng. (Mechanical), 04.01.2009
ecological balance. (a) Tiger (b) Vulture
27. Which of the following is one of the most fragile (c) Silkworm (d) Dog
ecosystems that will be affected first by global Ans. (a) : A tiger's sense of hearing is so sharp that it
warming? can make out the difference between the rustling of
RRB Secundrabad Technical (Eng.), 20.05.2007 leaves and the sound of an animal moving on the grass.

Environment Education 455 YCT

 Types of food chain-
6.4 Functions and transmission of
(1) Grazing food chain- The grazing food chain is a
substances in ecosystem type of food chain in which energy at the lowest
Introduction- trophic level is acquired via photosynthesis.
 Ecosystem is a chain of interactions between Ex.
organisms and their environment. Grass/plants→Grasshoppers→Mice→Snake→Eagles
 Ecosystem function are exchange of energy and (2) Detritus food chain- Detritus food chain is the type
nutrients in the food chain. of food chain that starts with dead organic material.
Source of Energy- Ex. Dead leaves → Woodlouse → Blackbird.
The sun is called the ultimate source of energy because Food web-
it is the primary source of energy on the earth. With the  A food web consists of all the food chains in a single
help of solar energy, all green plants (producers)
ecosystem.
produce food by the process of photosynthesis.
 The fundamental purpose of food webs is to describe
Ecological Productivity-
feeding relationship among species in a community.
Ecological productivity refers to the primary fixation of
solar energy by plants and the subsequent use of that  Food webs can be constructed to describe the species
fixed energy by plant eating herbivores, animal eating interactions.
carnivores, and the detrivores that feed upon dead
biomass.
Net primary production (NPP) = Gross primary
production (GPP) – amount of energy lost by
respiration.
Trophic level- The various steps in a food chain or
ecological pyramid, at which the transfer of food (or
energy) takes place from one organism to another is
known as trophic levels.
Food chain- Group of organisms linked in order of the
food they eat, from producers to consumer and from
prey, predators, scavenger and decomposer.
The four trophic level in this food chain are-
(i) Producers
(ii) Primary consumer
(iii) Secondary consumer
(iv) Tertiary consumer

Bioaccumulation-
Bioaccumulation is defined as the increase of
contaminant concentrations in aquatic animals
following uptake from the ambient environmental
medium.

Environment Education 456 YCT

Biomagnifications-
Biomagnifications is the accumulation of a chemical by
an organism from water and food exposure that results
in a concentration that is greater than would have
resulted from water exposure only and thus greater than
expected from equilibrium.
(ii) Pyramid of numbers - inverted- In inverted
pyramid, the number and biomass of organisms at
first trophic levels of producers is lowest.
 This type of pyramid can be seen in the forest.

2. Pyramid of Biomass- Biomass pyramid is the

graphical representation that determines the
relationship between the factors such as number or
biomass of different trophic level.
 The biomass pyramid can be of two types:
(i) Pyramid of Biomass-Upward- An Upward
pyramid is where the mass of producers is higher
than that of consumers.
 Upward biomass pyramid is exist in most terrestrial
ecosystem.
Ecological Pyramid- An ecological pyramid is a
graphical representation showing the relationship
between different organisms in an ecosystem.
 It shows the flow of energy at different trophic
levels in an ecosystem-
1. Pyramid of numbers
2. Pyramid of biomass
3. Pyramid of energy
1. Pyramid of Number- It is a graphical
representation that shows the number of organisms
at each trophic level.
 The pyramid of numbers was proposed by Charles
(ii) Pyramid of Biomass - Inverted- An inverted
Elton in 1927.
pyramid is where the mass of producers is lower
 Number pyramid are of both upward and inverted than that of consumers.
types
 Inverted biomass pyramid exist in oceans, pond or
(i) Pyramid of numbers-upward- In upright lake ecosystem.
pyramid, the number and biomass of the organisms
which are at first tropic level of producer is high.
 This type of pyramid can be seen in the grassland
and pond ecosystem.

Environment Education 457 YCT

 3. Pyramid of Energy- An energy pyramid is a
graphical representation of the energy found within
the trophic levels of an ecosystem.
 It is the only type of ecological pyramid, which is
always upright.
 Both biotic and abiotic components are involved in
this change.
 There are two types of sequencing-
(i) Primary succession
(ii) Secondary succession
(i) Primary succession-
 Primary succession happens when a new patch of
land is created or exposed for the first time (without
previous life, or a barren habitat).
 During primary succession, organisms must start
from scratch.
 This can happen, for ex, when lava cools and creates
new rocks, or when a glacier retreats and exposes
rocks without any soil.
 It takes more time as compared to secondary succession
as the soil formation process takes place first.

Energy flow- Energy flow in ecosystem refers to the

flow of power that occurs along a food chain.
 Only about 1% of the solar energy reaching the earth
is used photosynthesis. The process of formation of
biological tissues in various organism is called
biosynthesis.
 In fact, the process of biosynthesis represents the
conversion of solar energy or light energy into
chemical energy.
 On the contrary, the process of decomposition and
decomposition of organic substances is called
biodegradation.
 Energy is always transferred from one trophic level
to another in an ecosystem.

(ii) Secondary succession- Secondary succession happens

when the existing vegetation and soil from a site.
 Many different kinds of disturbances, such as fire,
flooding, wind storms, and human, activities etc. can
initiate secondary succession.
 The stage of Ecological succession include the
following - Nudation, Invasion, Competition and
Co-action, Reaction and climax or stabilization.

Ecological succession- The process by which

communities of plant and animal species found in an
area change over time to another community or are
replaced by other communities is called ecological
succession.
Environment Education 458 YCT
Succession in Aquatic Ecosystem-(Hydrarch)- Aquatic Commensalis (+) (0) One species is
succession is a series of stages involving the gradual m benefited and other
infilling of a shallow lake or pond with sediments. species is
 It is composed of following stages: unaffected. Ex.
The sucker fish
- Phytoplankton stage.
remains attached
-Rooted submerged stage.
to the surface of
- floating stage. the shark.
- reed - swamp stage. Mutualism (+) (+) Both species
- sedge - mead stage. benefited Ex.
- woodland stage. Lichen, where
Biotic interaction- Biotic interaction refers to the fungus provides
relationship among organisms. They can be intraspecific protection to the
or interspecific. algae and the algae
provide food to the
Type of Fir Second Effect of fungus.
interaction st species interaction
Ecological efficiency- The efficiency in which
spe
organisms obtain their food into biomass and make it
cies
available for other higher level of nutrition is called
Amensalism (-) (0) One species ecological efficiency.
remains at a
disadvantage while Energy used in biomass production at trophic level
Ecological efficiency = ×100
the other species Energy used in biomss production at pre - trophic level
remains Transmission of substances- The creation of living
ineffective. Ex . beings depends on the flow of energy and circulation of
Penicillium nutrients within the ecosystem. In the biosphere,
tongues and atmosphere, hydrosphere and lithosphere, various biotic
bacteria. and a biotic elements circulate through different cycles in
Predation (+) (-) One species is such a way that the gross mass of these elements remains
benefited i.e, almost the same and these elements are always available
hunter and the for the consumption of biological communities.
other species Biogeochemical cycle- The movement of nutrients and
(prey)is harmed. important minor and major elements from biotic to
Ex. Deer hunting abiotic or from abiotic to biotic components determines
by Lion the flow of nutrients in the ecosystem. This is commonly
called the biogeochemical cycle.
Parasitism (+) (-) One species is
benefited and the  The movement of nutrients through the various
other species is components of an ecosystem is called nutrient
harmed. Ex. cycling. Nutrient cycle is also called biogeochemical
Immortelle cycle.
growing on
another plant.
Neutralism (0) (0) Do not affect each
other.
Competition (-) (-) Both species are
affected. Ex. The
problem of food,
housing, such as
the lack of rats will
affect both the cat
and the snake.

Environment Education 459 YCT

 Types of Nutrient Cycles-
1. Gaseous cycle- In this the storage is either in air or
sea (by evaporation). Under this, there is storage of
nitrogen, oxygen, carbon and water.
2. Sedimentary cycle- In this the storage takes place
on the earth's crust. Under this there is storage of
elements like iron, calcium, phosphorus, sulphur.
1. Gaseous cycle-
(i) Water cycle (H2O Cycle) - The water cycle also
known as hydrologic or hydrological cycle, shows
the continuous movement of water within the earth
and atmosphere. It is a complex system that includes (iii) Nitrogen cycle- Nitrogen cycle is a biogeochemical
many different processes. Liquid water evaporates
into water vapor, condenses to form clouds, and
precipitates back to earth in the form of rain and
snow.
(ii) Carbon cycle- Carbon cycle shows the movement
of carbon in elemental and combined state on earth.
 Carbon present in the atmosphere is absorbed by
plants for photosynthesis.
 These plants are then consumed by animals and
carbon gets bioaccumulated into their bodies.
 These animals and plants eventually die, and upon
decomposing, carbon is released back into the
atmosphere.
 Some of the carbon that is not released back into the
atmosphere eventually become fossil fuels.
 These fossil fuels are then used for manmade
activities, which pump more carbon back into the
atmosphere.
Environment Education
process through which nitrogen is converted into
many form, consecutively passing from the
atmosphere to the soil to organism and back into the
atmosphere. It involves several processes such as
nitrogen fixation, nitrification, denitrification, decay
and putrefaction
.
Nitrogen fixation- Nitrogen fixation is the essential
biological process and the initial stage of the nitrogen
cycle. In this process, nitrogen in the atmosphere is
converted into ammonia (another form of nitrogen) or
related nitrogenous compounds (nitrates, nitrites) by
certain bacterial species like Rhizobium, Azotobacter
etc and by other natural phenomena.
Ammonification- Ammonification occurs when a
plant or animal dies or excretes waste. Decomposers,
such as bacteria and fungi, first break down the proteins
in the organic matter. This releases ammonia, which
dissolves with water in the soil. Ammonia then
combines with a hydrogen ion to create ammonium.
Nitrification- The process of conversion of ammonia or
reduced nitrogen compounds into the easily absorbable
form of nitrogen that is nitrates and nitrites. It is an
aerobic process. Chemoautotrophic bacteria play a major
role in this process. First, the ammonia is converted into
nitrite by the process of oxidation.
460 YCT
Denitrification- The process of conversion of nitrates the health of microbes inhabiting the soil, but is
and nitrites into the gaseous form of nitrogen is called gradually depleted from the soil overtime.
denitrification. It is mostly converted to nitrogen and
nitrous oxide. Bacteria participating in this reaction
Pseudumonas and Thiobacillus .
(iv) Oxygen cycle- The oxygen cycle is an essential
biogeochemical cycle to maintain the concentration
and level of oxygen in the atmosphere. It begins
with the process of photosynthesis in the presence of
sunlight, releases oxygen back into the atmosphere,
which humans and animals breathe in oxygen and
breathe out carbon dioxide, and again linking back
to the plants.

(ii) Sulphur cycle- The sulfur cycle describes the

movement of sulfur through the geosphere and
biosphere. Sulphur is released from rocks through
weathering, and then passed up the food chain and
assimilated by plant and animals, and released when they
decompose.

2. Sedimentary cycle- The sedimentary cycle is

defined as the weathering of existing rock. The most
important geological processes that lead to the
creation of sedimentary rocks are erosion,
weathering, dissolution, precipitation, and
lithification.
(i) Phosphorus cycle- The phosphorus cycle is the
process by which phosphorus moves through the
lithosphere for plant and animal growth, as well as

Previous Years Question

1. Reservoirs with low nutrient concentration are –
RRB Bangalore Section Eng. (Civil), 01.02.2009
(a) Velanchal region
(b) The undernourished area
(c) Neritanchali area
(d) The nether region
Ans. (d) : Reservoirs with low nutrient concentration
are neither region, because it is the part of
oligotrophication, which have the process of depletion,
or reduction in rates of nutrient cycling in aquatic
ecosystem.
2. What is the 10 percent rule related to?
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Electrical),
15.03.2009
(a) Transfer of energy in the form of food from one
trophic level to another.
Environment Education
(b) Transfer of heat from one substance to another.
(c) Movement of birds from one zone to another.
(d) Movement of water from one zone to another
(e) None of these
Ans. (a) : The ten percent rule was given by Raymond
Lindeman in 1942. According to this rule, only ten
percent of energy can reach from one trophic level to
another trophic level in the form of food. For example,
if the grasslands get 1000 joules of energy from the
sun, then the deer eating it gets only 100 joules of
energy. The same process continues from lower
trophic level to higher trophic level.
3. Approximately what percentage of energy does a
trophic level get from its previous level?
RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-III, 30.01.2011
(a) 1³ (b) 10³
(c) 20³ (d) 30³
461 YCT
Ans. (b): Each trophic level in an ecosystem receives 7. The first trophic level comes under-
about 10% of the energy from its previous level. There RRB Customer Relations Ass. , 22.07.2012
is a great loss of energy at each level in the food chain,
(a) Herbivorous (b) Carnivores
an animal in a food chain only transmits 10 percent of
the amount of energy. It receives 90% of the potential (c) omnivores (d) Green plants
energy is lost as heat. Therefore, the further one goes in Ans. (d) : Green plants (producers) in the ecosystem
the food chain, the less energy is available. The take energy directly from the sun and convert it into
principle of 10% was given by Lindeman. food. Such plants are the very basic or first food level
4. Which of the following forms the food chain? (First Trophic Level) of the food pyramid. Aphids are
RRB Chennai Section Eng., 12.02.2012 the second food level, feeding on green plants and being
(a) Grass→Wheat→Mango the primary consumers. At the top of the food pyramid
(b) Grass→Goat→Man are a small number of carnivorous animals, which form
the third food level. Living beings use energy in this
(c) Goat→Crow→Elephant
sequence and the flow of energy from the base to the
(d) Grass→fish→Goat top of the ecosystem is in this way.
(e) None of the above 8. The primary source of energy in the ecosystem
Ans. (b) : In the above statements, the food chain is is–
formed by grass-goat-man. Grass is classified as a Jaipur Metro Rail, 02.12.2012
producer and is eaten by goat (primary consumers), (a) Heat released in fermentation
while goat can be eaten by humans (omnivores). In (b) Sugars preserved in plants
fact, food chains show the food dependence of
(c) Solar energy
different organisms on each other.
(d) None of the above.
5. Which one of the following statements is not
correct? Ans. (c) : Sun is the primary source of energy in the
ecosystem. The process of photosynthesis takes place
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Civil), 26.02.2012
only with the energy of the sun. Therefore, solar
(a) In a food chain, trophic dynamics refers to the energy is the primary source.
transfer of energy from one trophic level of
another. 9. ………….are primary producers.
(b) In the deeper parts of the oceans, primary DMRC Maintainer (Fitter), 20.07.2014
production is almost zero. (a) Autotroph (b) Omnivorous
(c) Primary consumers are called autotrophs. (c) Vegetarian (d) Both b and c
(d) The decomposers are called saprophytes Ans. (a) : Primary producers or autotrophic components
Ans. (c) : Primary consumers are animals or birds that include green plants, they make their own food by the
are herbivores. Trophic movement in a food chain process of photosynthesis, primary consumers include
refers to the transfer of energy from one trophic level those animals which depend on the primary producer
to another, Primary production remains almost zero in i.e. green plants for their food, they are herbivores,
the deeper parts of the oceans. The decomposers are secondary consumers include both carnivores and
called saprophytes. omnivorous animals.
6. Which are the productive components among the 10. What does Ecological Footprint represent?
biotic components of the ecosystem? DMRC Station Controller, 27.07.2014
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Mech.), (a) Are of productive land and water to meet
26.02.2012 resource requirement.
(a) Cow (b) Peacock (b) Energy consumption.
(c) Tiger (d) Green Plants (c) Per capita CO2
Ans. (d) : The German scientist Haeckel used the term (d) Forest area
ecology in 1866 for the science in which the Ans. (a) : Ecological footprint refers to the productive
relationship between organisms (plants and animals) land and water area required to meet resource
and their environment is studied. Green plants are the requirements.
productive components of the biotic components of the For the first time, a zoologist named 'Ernst Haeckel'
ecosystem. Green plants make their own food by the used the word Ecology in the form of "Oekologie" in
method of photosynthesis using sunlight. 1866. This word is made up of two Greek words oikas

Environment Education 462 YCT

 = House and Lagos = Study. It is called 'Ecology' one class of organisms to another class of organisms
Under this, the effect of the habitat of living beings are called trophic levels. Food and energy are
(plants and animals) or the effect of the environment transferred from one group of organisms to another
on them is studied. group of organisms in a chain manner. These chains
German biologist 'Ernst Haeckel' also has the credit are called food chains. Nutritional levels and food
for first defining ecology and studying it in detail. chain can be explained by the following examples –
According to him-'The study of the mutual relocations Green plants synthesis food energy-Grazing animals
between the environment and the organism-community (Such as cow, goat, rabbit, deer etc.) get energy from
is called ecology'. plants by grazing of grasses etc. In this way energy is
transferred from the green plants to the grazing -animal
11. Chlorinated hydrocarbon pesticide are sprayed
and carnivorous gets energy from grazing animals. The
on a food crop. The order of the food chain is:
carnivorous animals (such as lions, leopards, bears,
Food crops - rodents - snakes - eagles-In which of
snakes, lizards, frog etc.) eat the herbivores and take
the following will the highest concentration of
food. In this way, food energy is transferred from
pesticide accumulate in this food chain?
herbivorous animals to carnivorous animals-
DMRC Junior Engineer (Electrical), 03.08.2014 Omnivorous animals (such as humans) take their food
(a) Food crop (b) Rodent by eating green plants (vegetables, and food grains)
(c) Snake (d) Eagles and herbivorous (meat and milk etc). In this way food
Ans. (d) : The concentration of pesticide in the final energy is transferred from green plants and
consumer will be maximum. To a large extent, this is herbivorous animals to omnivorous animals.
also the reason for the decreasing number of vultures
15. After DDT is introduced into the ecosystem,
and eagles. which one of the following organisms will likely
12. Humans are in the food chain: show its maximum concentration?
DMRC Civil Engineering, 07.09.2014 DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 18.02.2017
(a) A producer (a) Grasshopper (b) Lamb
(b) Primary consumers only (c) Snake (d) Cattle
(c) Secondary consumers only Ans. (c) : After DDT is introduced into the ecosystem,
(d) Primary and secondary consumers the concentration of DDT in the food chain will be
lowest at the first level, higher at the second level and
Ans. (d) : In the food Chain, humans are both primary highest at the third level. Since the snake is a tertiary
and secondary consumers because they are omnivores. consumers, the concentration of DDT will be highest
13. The source of energy for omnivores is – in the snake.
DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 21.09.2014 16. Based on the estimation of DDT concentration in
(a) Primary producer and primary consumer the aquatic environment, the level of pollution in
(b) Primary consumer and secondary consumer the food chain increases in the following
(c) Primary producers and consumers, carnivores sequence–
(d) Primary producers, carnivores and decomposers. DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 06.03.2016
Ans. (c) : Omnivores are a consumer classification in (a) Bird, fish, Snail, water plant
food chain. It means one who eats everything. It needs (b) Water plant, Snail, Fish, Bird
energy requirements, from chemical nutrients obtained (c) Snail, water plant, Fish, Bird
from both plants and animals. (d) Snail, Fish, Bird, water plant
14. The highest nutritional level is achieved in the Ans. (b) : Based on the estimation of DDT
ecosystem– concentration in the aquatic environment, the level of
DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 21.09.2014 pollution in the food chain increases in the following
(a) Vegetarian (b) Non-vegetarian sequence. Water flow in the sequence of water plant-
(c) Decomposer (d) Omnivores snail-fish-bird. Therefore, the Government of India has
Ans. (d) : In the ecosystem ,food is organized in a banned the use of DDT, considering it as a harmful
nutritional hierarchy. This dietary nutrition is chemical. This process is called biomagnifications in
accomplished at many levels. Thus, those levels or which toxic substances are stored in the tissues of
points through which food energy is transferred from organisms. Its sequence is from low level to high level.

Environment Education 463 YCT

17. What is the cycling of elements in an ecosystem 20. The energy pyramid in of energy in the
called? ecosystem.
RRB Bhopal Diesel Driver, 24.11.1996 RRB Gorakhpur Assistant Diesel Driver,
(a) Chemical cycle 21.10.2001
(b) Bio-geochemical cycle (a) Reverse (b) Logiform
(c) Geological cycle (c) Curve (d) Straight
(d) Geochemical cycle Ans. (d) : The energy pyramid in an ecosystem is
Ans. (b) : The flow of elements such as water, energy always straight. In such a pyramid, the energy at each
and other nutrients in the ecosystem is called trophic level gradually decreases because the animals of
biogeochemical cycle. Carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle, each trophic level give only 10% the energy to the next
phosphorous cycle etc. are prominent in this. These trophic level. 90% of the energy is consumed from all
cycles affect the biomass and productivity in the the remaining nutritional levels.
ecosystem. 21. Which of the following converts solar energy
into chemical energy most efficiently
18. Arsenic present in ground water can be partially
removed RRB Mahendrughat (Patna) Diesel Driver,
11.11.2001
RRB Kolkata Trainee Assistant Driver,
(a) Chlorella (b) Tiger
15.07.2001
(c) Earthworm (d) Kaskutt
(a) Along with the removal of iron by
precipitation/coagulation method, if iron is also Ans. (a) : Chlorella efficiently converts solar energy
present in the water. into chemical energy. Chlorella has an efficiency of 8%
(b) By boiling, even though iron is absent in water, in converting solar energy into chemical energy.
chlorella is a species (genus) of algae. Chlorella mainly
(c) By UV-treatment.
used by astronauts can get protein rich food, water and
(d) By filtration, even though iron is absent in oxygen. These algae reproduce quickly and make food
water. using carbon dioxide. After consuming CO2, they
Ans. (a) : Arsenic removal is done on the basis of release pure oxygen. These algae use substances
arsenic and iron toxicity in ground water. Water that produced from urine and fasces as a source of nitrogen
contains more than 50 parts per billion arsenic and for protein synthesis.
more than one milligram per liter of iron is not 22. Which of the following organisms produces its
considered potable water, arsenic present in such food from inorganic substances?
ground water can be practically removed by
RRB Secunderabad Diesel Driver, 18.11.2001
precipitation/coagulation method along with removal
of iron, if iron is also present in the water,. The most (a) Ant (b) Virus
affected city of India is Kolkata. The concentration of (c) Rubber plant (d) Mushroom
arsenic oxide or arsenic in the underground water is Ans. (c) : The rubber plant producers its food from
high inorganic substances. Hence, options (c) in the question
19. The most important role of solar energy is – is correct. It is note that rubber trees are found in
RRB Secunderabad Diesel Driver, 01.06.1997 equatorial evergreen forests. Rubber is tropical plant.
(a) The carbon cycle 23. This plant has leaves which are used as a
(b) The Oxygen cycle vegetable, Oil is obtained from its seeds, this is
plant of ?
(c) The Nitrogen cycle
RRB Gorakhpur Diesel Assistant Driver,
(d) The water cycle
14.04.2002
Ans. (b) : The most important role of solar energy is
(a) Spinach (b) Coconut
that of the oxygen cycle. Oxygen is dissolved in the
atmosphere in the form of gas. Animals take oxygen (c) Cabbage (d) mustard
and release CO2, which plants take and convert into Ans. (d) : When the mustard plant is small, its leaves
oxygen in the presence of the sun by the process of are used as a vegetable and when it grows big, they
photosynthesis, due to which the balance is maintained. are used to extract oil from it seeds.

Environment Education 464 YCT


6.5 Environment Pollution
Pollution–
• The undesirable change in the physical, chemical
and biological characteristics of the abiotic
components of the environment (air, water and soil)
that have a negative impact on life and life-based
systems is called pollution.
Pollutants– A pollutant is a dangerous substance that is
released into the environment.
Pollutants are divided on different basis–
1. On the basis of source of origin, Pollutants are
divided into two parts-
(i) Natural pollutants
(ii) Man-made pollutants
2. On the basis of state, Pollutants are divided into three
types-
(i) Solid Particulate Pollutants– Dust particles,
industrial waste etc.
(ii) Liquid Pollutants– Water containing ammonia, urea
nitrate etc.
(iii) Gaseous Pollutants– Various pollutant gases like
SO2, CO2, NO2 etc.
3. On the basis of form, Pollutants are divided into two
parts-
(i) Primary Pollutants– They spread pollution only by
remaining in their original form in nature. Like- DDT,
Plastic, CO, CO2 etc.
(ii) Secondary Pollutants– These are formed by the
interaction of primary pollutants. Ex- Peroxyacetyl
Nitrate (PAN).
4. On the basis of the Nature of disposal, There are two
types of pollutants-
(i) Biodegradable Pollutants– These include domestic
waste, excreta, sewage, etc. which are decomposed by
microbial action.
(ii) Non-biodegradable Pollutants– These pollutants
are not decomposed by microbial activities. Plastics,
heavy metals, radioactive elements, lead DDT etc. come
under this category.
Air Pollution– Air is mixture of various gases that
surround the earth in the form of a cover, this cover is
called the atmosphere. It is composed of 78% nitrogen,
21% oxygen, 0.93 argon, 0.03% carbon dioxide. Apart
from this gases like neon, krypton, helium, hydrogen,
ozone etc are also present in small quantities in the
atmosphere.
• When the amount of one or more pollutants in the
atmosphere so high that the quality of air
deteriorates and it is harmful to the biological
community, then it is called air pollution.
■ Type of Air Pollution–
1. On the basis of origin, they are divided into two
major types-
Environment 465
(i) Natural Pollution– These pollutants emerge from
natural sources or natural activities. Ex- Pollen
grains and volcanic eruptions and gases released
from decomposition of organic matter, such as SO2,
nitrogen oxides (NO), from forest fires and oceans.
They do not cause serious harm.
(ii) Man-made Pollutants– This includes pollutants
released from factories, kitchens, automatic vehicles
etc.
2. On the basis of their nature, they are divided into
two categories-
(i) Gaseous Pollution– These includes the following
pollutants-
• Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons etc
Produced by the combustion of fossil fuels.
• Chloro-fluorocarbons released from aerosol cans
and refrigeration systems.
• Compounds of sulfur released from the combustion
of fossil fuel containing sulphur, such as: SO2, SO3
etc
• Chlorine released from bleaching of cotton clothes
and other chemical activities.
• Nitrogen compounds- NO, N2O, NO2, NO3.
(ii) Particulate pollutants– The main source of
pariculate pollutants are vehicle exhaust, thermal
plants, oil refineries, construction work etc. These
pollutants are harmful to the lungs and respiratory
process and also reduces the visibility effect. Ex- Fly
ash & other metal particles.
■ Other Pollutants–
Aerosole– An aerosol is a collection of microscopic
particles, (1-10µ) solid or liquid, suspended in a gas. In
the context of air pollution, an aerosol refers to fine
particular matter, that is larger than a molecule, but small
enough to remain suspended in the atmosphere for at
least several hours.
Ex- smoke and automobile exhaust, dust, flame, fog.
Photo Chemical Smog– It is a mixture of pollutants that
are formed when nitrogen oxides and volatile organic
compound (VOCs) react to sunlight, creating a brown
haze above cities.
• Effect of Photochemical smog on humans–
Respiratory diseases (asthma, coughing and
bronchiolities), cardiovascular disease, neurological
disorders, cancer, infant health, low birth weight,
eye irritation and breathing difficulties etc.
Fly Ash–
• Fly ash pollution is caused by thermal power plants.
• Fly ash can have different chemical makeup
depending on where the coal was mined.
• Fly ash is a pollutant, and it contains acidic toxic
and radioactive matter. This ash can contain lead,
arsenic, mercury, cadmium and uranium.
YCT
Suspended Pariculate Matter– SPM are fine solid or
liquids that are distributed in the air as a result of
activities such as combustion processes, industrial
operations or natural sources (Like volcanic eruptions).
• This complex mixture contains organic and
inorganic particles such as dust, pollen soot, smoke
and liquid droplets.
Indoor/Household Air Pollution– Most indoor air
pollution comes from sources that release gases or
particles into the air. Things such as building materials
and air fresheners give off pollution constantly. Other
sources such as tobacco smoke and wood-burning stoves
also cause indoor pollution.
• The effect of indoor air pollution can be life
threatening.
• The global death toll is 4.1 million due to indoor air
pollution, as published in major recent studies.
Effects of Air Pollution– Air pollution affects not only
humans but also the environment.
• Effects on Humans– Clean air is essential for
human health. Air pollutions affects the respiratory
system, nervous system, lungs and blood circulation
system. Various diseases, such as skin diseases,
respiratory diseases, asthma, insomnia, tiredness
headache, T.B. bronchitis, villinosic etc. are caused
by polluted air.
• Effects on Flora and Fauna– Air pollution has
direct and indirect effects on vegetation. Various
activities of plants are affected by acid rain.,
depletion of ozone layer, oxides of sulfur and
nitrogen etc. Air pollution has a negative effect on
aquatic and terrestrial organism.
Bhopal Gas Tragedy:
• On the night of December 2-3, 1984, water
containing catalysts entered into tank number E610
of union carbide corporation (Pesticide factory) at
Bhopal.
• Due to this, about forty tons of toxic methyl
isocyanate gas slowly came out and spread all over
the city and within a few hours thousands of people
died.
• This gas polluted drinking water, soil, water of
ponds and reservoirs and badly affected fetuses,
newborns, pregnant woman, old people etc.
• Methyl isocyanate [MIC-CH3NCO]– It is a
colourless tear inducing, flammable gas which is
extremely toxic. It is used for the production of
carbonate insecticides.
Acid Rain– The atmosphere receives oxides of sulfur
and nitrogen from natural and man-made sources. Some
of these oxide are deposited back on the surface as dry
deposits. Precipitation, which contains sulfate, nitrate,
ammonium and hydrogen ions, falls on land as acid rain.
Environment 466
• Acid rain affects both aquatic and terrestrial
organisms. It also damages buildings and
monuments. The biological and chemical properties
of soil are seriously affected by acid rain. Acid rain
affects trees and shrubs in many ways, as a result of
which their growth is stunted.
• Effects on Ozone Layer– Man-made processes due
to which molecules like chlorine, bromine, etc are
emitted into the atmosphere, and these cause ozone
destruction. The substances that destroy ozone are
mainly Chloroflorocarbons (CFCs)
Hydrochloroflorocarbons (HCFCs), Carbon
tetrachloride (CCl4) etc.
• Environmental Impact– There is a lack of
phytoplankton in the aquatic ecosystem, which
adversely affects this ecosystem. The developmental
process of plants is affected. Ultraviolet radiation
affects terrestrial and aquatic biogeochemical cycles.
• Effects on Climate and Weather– An increase in
the concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere will increase the greenhouse effect of
the atmosphere. This will increase the temperature
of the earth's surface, due to which the ice will melt
and the sea water level will rise which will
submerge many areas. Higher temperature rise will
increase desertification and drought. This will
adversely affect local weather changes, rainfall,
temperature, wind speed.
Measures to prevent air pollution–
(i) Vehicular emission control–
• Use of efficient engines
• Using good quality automobile fuel
• Using lead-free petrol
• Use catalytic converter (exhaust emission
control device)
• Vehicle maintenance
• Optimize home deliveries
• Use efficient lawn and gardening equipment
• Turning off the engine at the traffic light
• Under CAFÉ norms, corporate average CO2
emission are mandated to be less than 130
gm/km per phase I (till 2022) and less than 113
gm/km per phase II (post- 2022).
• Using public transports and environments
friendly vehicles like bicycle to cover short
distances.
• Awareness programs should be conducted.
Water Pollution– Water pollution occurs when harmful
substances- often chemicals or microorganisms
contaminate a water bodies (stream, river, lake, ocean,
aquifers, reservoirs and ground water).
YCT
 Causes of Water Pollution–
• Mixing of domestic and industrial wastes in water
bodies.
• Water containing fertilizers and weeds used in
agriculture gets mixed in the river.
• Oil spills.
• Chemicals containing radioactive elements reaching
the aquatic system.
• Discharge of high temperature water coming out of
the electric power station into the water source.
• Use of river water for bathing and washing clothes.
Effects of water pollution– Deteriorating water quality
is damaging the environment health conditions and the
global economy.
• Biological Oxygen demand (BOD)– The indicator
that measures the organic pollution found in water
exceeds a certain threshold.
• Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the parameter
to measure the organic pollution in sewage water
and other water bodies.
• The amount of oxygen required by bacteria while
stabilizing decomposable organic matter under
aerobic condition.
• Destruction of biodiversity– water pollution
depletes aquatic ecosystems and triggers unbridled
prolife ration of phytoplankton in lakes-
eutrophication.
• Contamination of the food chain– Fishing in
polluted waters and the use of waste water for
livestock farming and agriculture can introduce
toxin into foods which are harmful to our health
when eaten.
• Disease– Typhoid, Giardiasis, Amoebiasis,
Ascariasis, Hookworm, Diarrhea, Hepatitis,
Respiratory infections, Liver damage and even
Cancer, kidney damage, Neurological Problems,
Reproductive and endocrine damage, Thyroid
system disorders, Malaria, Rashes, Earaches, Pink
eyes etc.
• Infant mortality– According to the UN diarrheal
diseases linked to lack of hygiene causes the death
of about 1,000 children a day world wide.
Control of Water Pollution–
• Use the minimum amount of detergent and/or bleach
when you are washing clothes or dishes, use only
Phosphate free soaps and detergents.
• Minimize the use of pesticides, herbicides,
fertilizers.
• Do not dispose of these chemicals, motor oil or other
automotive fluids into the sanitary sewer or storm
sewer systems.
• Dispose of waste properly.
• Conserve as much water as possible.
Environment 467
• Avoid using plastic.
• Help clean up litter in water filled areas.
• Avoid throwing waste into the river.
• Waste water treatment.
• The sewage should not be discharged directly into
the rivers.
• Dead human and animal bodies should not be
thrown into rivers.
Marine Pollution– Marine Pollution is a combination of
chemicals and trash, into the marine environment.
Causes of Marine Pollution–
• Non Point source Pollution (runoff)
• International discharge
• Oil spills
• Littering
• Ocean mining
Effects of marine pollution–
• Harmful to marine organisms
• Depletion of oxygen in seawater
• A teat to human health (contaminated seafood)
• Loss of wildlife population
• Reduce these economic opportunities.
Sound Pollution–
• The general/normal voice produced by an object is
called sound. When the intensity of sound is high
and not interesting to the listener, it is called noise.
• Noise pollution is the condition of disturbance and
restlessness in the human class due to high intensity
sound i.e. unwanted noise, such as noise of
industries, noise of vehicles etc.
• The decibel (dB) unit has been set to measure the
intensity of sound.
• The WHO has set the maximum level of noise at
45dB.
Effects of Noise Pollution on Animals &
Environment–
• Wild animals suffer chronic stress fertility problems
and change their migration routes in response to
noise.
• Research shows noise causes confined animals pain,
fear and cognitive problems.
• Noise pollution increase the risk of death by altering
prey-predator behavior (avoidance or detection) may
interfere with navigation.
• Also affects the reproductive behaviour.
• Problems related to noise include stress related
illnesses, high blood pressure, speech interference,
hearing loss, sleep disruption and lost productivity.
• It may cause temporary or permanent hearing loss in
humans as well as animals.
YCT
Laws to Control Noise Pollution– In India, noise Treatment of solid waste–
pollution is included in air pollution itself. The air • Landfill
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was
• Incineration
amended in 1987 to include 'noise pollutants' under the
definition of 'air pollutants'. • Waste compaction
Using section 6 of the environment (Protection) Act, • Biogas generation
1986 the noise pollution (Regulation and control) Rules, • Composting
2000 have been passed. • Vermicomposting
• Section 268 and section 290 of the Indian Penal • Further Reading
code can be used for its control considering noise • Ocean dumping
pollutants as criminal.
• The 3R's - Reduce Reuse Recycle
Radioactive Pollution– The radioactive pollution is
defined as the physical pollution of living organism and
their environment as a result of release of radioactive
substances into the environment during nuclear
explosions and testing of nuclear weapons, nuclear
weapon production and decommissioning, mining of
radioactive ores, handling and disposal of radioactive
waste and accident at nuclear power plants.
Thermal Pollution– Thermal pollution is the discharge Soil Pollution– Soil refers to the contamination of solid
of heated water into water bodies. The main contributors with anomalous can concentrations of toxic substances.
to thermal heat pollution are thermal or nuclear power It is a serious environmental concern since it harbous
plants: industrial effluents, sewage effluents; and many health hazards.
biochemical activity. Causes of Soil Pollution–
Solid Waste– Municipal solid waste (MSW) includes all • Use of chemicals
items from home and businesses that people no longer • Soil erosion
have any use for. These wastes are commonly called
• Saline water
trash or garbage and include item such as food, paper.
plastics, textiles, leather, wood, glass, metals, sanitary • Urban waste
waste in septic tanks and other wastes. • Industrial waste
Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2016– • Underground waste
• No person should throw, burn or bury the solid • Radioactive waste
waste generated by him, on streets, open public • Acid rain
space outside, his premises or in the drain, or water
• waste from mining
bodies.
• Leakage of toxins
• Generator will have to pay 'user fee' to waste
collector and 'spot fine' for littering and Non- Effects of Soil Pollution–
segragation. • Damage to health
• Reduce the volume of solid waste stream through • Poorer harvests
the implementation of waste reduction and recycling • climate change.
programs. • Water and air pollution
Effect of solid waste on human health & • Population displacement
Environment–
• Species extinction
• Littering in environment
• Desertification
• Effect on human health (cholera & vector borne
• Economic impact
disease such as malarial and dengue)
Measures to Prevent Soil Pollution–
• Pests that spread disease
• There should be limited use of fertilizers and
• Environmental issue
insecticides instead of organic fertilizers should be
• Toxic gas emission used.
• Effects on animal present on land and in water • Waste should be disposed properly.
• Obstruction of drains • D.D.T. and other harmful chemical should be
• Loss of biodiversity banned.
• It causes all type of pollution: air, soil and water. • Use of bioremediation technique.

Environment 468 YCT

• Proper disposal of industrial waste.
• Tree plantation
• Use of 3R's and 4R's techniques
• Use of technique to prevent soil erosion.
Bioremediation– Bioremediation is a biotechnical
process, which abates or cleans up contamination. It is a
type of waste management technique which involves the
use of organisms to remove or utilize the pollutants from
a polluted area.
Benefits of Bioremediation–
• It is an eco-friendly technology.
Previous Years Question
1. Which of the following gases is a highly
poisonous, odorless, tasteless and colourless
gas?
(a) Nitrogen dioxide (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Methane (d) Carbon monoxide
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (d) Carbon monoxide is a highly poisonous,
odorless, colorless, tasteless and highly soluble in water
along with that heavy as air and Flammable gas. It
burns with blue flame. The chemical formula of Carbon
monoxide is CO.
2. Which of the following gases is a colourless,
flammable, and highly toxic gas?
(a) Arsine (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Methane (d) Nitrogen oxide
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (a) : Arsine is an inorganic compound whose
chemical formula is AsH3. It is a colorless, flammable
and highly toxic gas. Arsine is used in the
semiconductor, metal refinery industries, and as a
doping agent in crystal manufacturing.
3. _______ are a subset of air pollution that refers
to the tiny particles suspended everywhere in
our atmosphere.
(a) Humus (b) Genomes
(c) Aerosols (d) Loam
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (c) Aerosols are a subset of air pollution which
refers to the tiny particles that are ubiquitous in our
atmosphere.
•An aerosol is a collection of microscopic particles,
solid or liquid, suspended in a gas.
4. Biological oxygen demand (BOD) is a standard
parameter for?
RRB Ranchi Assistant Driver’s, 09.01.2003
Environment 469
• With the help of this technique, a wide range of
contaminants can be completely eliminated.
• With its help the targeted pollutants can be
eliminated.
• This technique is relatively less expensive.
Disadvantages of Bioremediation–
• This technology is capable of decomposing only
those pollutants which are biodegradable.
• This technique takes longer than other treatments.
• It is very difficult to implement this technology in a
wide area.
(a) To measure the level of oxygen in the blood.
(b) To calculate the oxygen levels in forest
ecosystem.
(c) To measurement of pollution in aquatic
ecosystem.
(d) Assessment of oxygen levels in high altitude
areas.
Ans. (c) : Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a
standard parameter used to measure pollution in aquatic
ecosystem. Its high level indicates the decrease in the
amount of dissolved oxygen in the water, that is, it
indicates highly polluted water.
5. Which one of the following air pollutants
combines with the hemoglobin of human blood
and reduces its ability to carry oxygen, causing
asphyxiation and many even lead to death?
RRB Chandigarh Diesel/Electric Assistant,
25.05.2003
(a) Chlorofluorocarbon (b) Fly ash
(c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide
Ans. (c) : Carbon monoxide is released as a result of
incomplete combustion of fuels used in automobiles,
furnaces and various types of industries. Carbon
monoxide is a very harmful gas. It combines with the
hemoglobin of the blood to form acarboxyhemoglobin
of the blood to form a carboxyhemoglobin bond. Which
is 300 times more powerful than oxyhemoglobin due to
which it stops the transport of oxygen. Thus, carbon
monoxide reduces the amount of hemoglobin available
to transport oxygen, causing headache, dizziness,
fatigue and can even lead to death.
Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) – CFC's are very
dangerous for the environment because they deplete the
ozone layer, due to which ozone holes are formed.
Fly ash – Fly ash is produced due to combustion of
solid materials. Fly ash contains silica, aluminum, iron
oxide, calcium, magnesium and other toxic metals like
As, Co, Cu etc. Fly ash not only pollutes air and water
but also causes respiratory problems.
YCT
Sulphur dioxide – Sulphur dioxide is very harmful
gas. Its presence in the air causes respiratory diseases,
heart diseases, blockage in throat, burning sensation in
the eyes etc. It is also a cause of acid rain. Acid rain has
harmful effects on plants, animals and causes corrosion
in buildings, marble structures, fabrics, paper, leather
etc.
6. Which one of the following is not a mechanical
method of preventing air pollution?
RRB Kolkata Diesel/Electrical Assistant,
06.02.2005 10. What is caused by the height of 'supersonic' Jet?
(a) bag filter (b) Cyclone collector
(c) Cyclone separator (d) Cyclone divider
Ans. (d) : Mechanical method of air pollution
prevention is -bag filter, cyclone collector, cyclone
separator but cyclone divider is not a mechanical
method of air pollution prevention.
7. Which one of the following is not related to air
pollution?
RRB Allahabad Assistant Loco Pilot,
03.08.2008 Ist
(a) Smog (b) Acid rain
(c) Eutrophication (d) Asbestosis
Ans. (c) : Eutrophication is related to water pollution.
Increase in the concentration of inorganic and organic
nutrients in water is called eutrophication. Excess of
nutrients in water also affects the organisms, it
increases the productivity of water. Due to this, aquatic dioxide, carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide and sulfur
plants like algae etc. grow more and cover the surface
of the water also, they use most of the oxygen in water
for respiration, as a result of which there is a lack of
oxygen in the water for other animals and they start
dying.
8. Combustion of coal, petrol, diesel etc. is the basic
source of –
RRB Allahabad Assistant Loco Pilot,
03.08.2008 IInd
(a) Water pollution (b) Land pollution
(c) Air pollution (d) Noise pollution
Ans. (c) : According to the question, combustion of
Coal, Petrol and Diesel in a large quantities, gradually
increases the amount of air pollution.
9. The biggest source of air pollution in big cities of
India is –
RRB Ahmedabad Assistant Loco Pilot, 05.04.2009
(a) Thermal power sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Municipal solid waste
(d) Transport sector
Environment
Ans. (d) : The biggest source of air pollution in big
cities of India is the transport sector. Where, there is an
undesirable change in the quantity and ratio of gases
due to human or natural reasons or apart from these
gases, some other toxic gases or particulate matter are
found in the air, then it is called air pollution. Due to
excessive use of petroleum products due to transport
sector in big cities of India, various gases and smoke
are produced which is the biggest factor of air
pollution.
RRB Chandigarh Assistant Loco Pilot, 03.01.2010
(a) Pollution in air
(b) Eye diseases
(c) Obstruction of ozone layer
(d) None of these
Ans. (c) : The aerosol substance emitted from
supersonic jets destroys the ozone layer, it's causes
disruption in the ozone layer.
11. Which of the following is an inorganic gaseous
pollutant of air
RRB Trivandrum (Technical), 09.11.1997
(a) Hydrogen cyanide (b) Hydrogen sulphide
(c) Methane (d) Phosgene
Ans. (b) : Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S) is an inorganic
gaseous pollutant of air. Apart from this, carbon
dioxide gases are also inorganic gaseous pollutants.
• Hydrogen is used to produce heavy water for nuclear
power plants.
12. The most important source of indoor air
pollutant is –
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide (d) Radon gas
(e) None of the above
RRB Ajmer (Technical), 25.01.1998
Ans. (d) : The most important of indoor air pollution is
radon gas. It is found in high concentrations in indoor
environments, such as homes and workplaces.
Radon is a colorless, odorless, radioactive inert gas.
There is a possibility of this gas causing lung cancer
and blood cancer.
13. Nowadays, the amount of concentration of CO2 in
the atmosphere in ppm is approximately –
RRB Ajmer (Technical), 01.03.1998
(a) 250 (b) 300
(c) 360 (d) 400
(e) 460
470 YCT
Ans. (c): The concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere
during the period in question was 360 in ppm. It is
increasing at a rate of 2.0 ppm/year and has reached
400 ppm (Parts per million) according to the latest
scientific data (as of May, 2013).
Note- According to recent data, 2023- 421 ppm.
14. Arrange the following fuels in the decreasing
order of air pollution caused by burning of one
kilogram of each of them
RRB Ajmer (Technical), 01.03.1998
(a) CNG, Petrol, Diesel (b) Diesel, Petrol, CNG
(c) Petrol, Diesel, CNG (d) Diesel, CNG, Petrol
Ans. (b) : The pollution assessment of fuels depends
on the amount of carbon dioxide emitted by them on
combustion. In which the emission of carbon dioxide
is less, it is a pure fuel. The approximate CO2 per liter
of diesel fuel is 2.68 kg, and for petrol it is
approximately 2.31kg. Less harmful gases are emitted
during combustion in CNG.
15. Which of the following is not a gaseous air
pollutant?
20.
RRB Trivandrum (Technical), 11.04.1999
(a) Oxide of Sulphur (b) Oxides of Nitrogen
(c) Hydrocarbon (d) Smoke
Ans. (d) : Oxides of sulphur, oxides of nitrogen and
hydrocarbon are gaseous air pollutants. Whereas smoke
is a particulate air pollutant.
16. Which of the following is not an air pollutant in
general?
RRB Trivandrum (Technical), 29.06.1999
(a) CO (b) CO2
(c) Hydrogen (d) SO2
Ans. (b) : CO2 is not an air pollutant at normal levels.
Because it is produced naturally by humans and animals
as a byproduct of metabolic activities. The normal 21.
amount of CO2 in the atmosphere is 0.04% But due to
the continuous use of fossil fuels for transportation and
industry, the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere is
continuously increasing.
17. The main factor for photochemical smog is –
RRB Bangalore (Technical), 22.08.1999
(a) SO2 (b) NO2
(c) O3 (d) CO
Ans. (b) : NO2 (Nitrogen dioxide) is a dark brown gas
that spreads in the atmosphere and forms photochemical
smog. The 44% amount of the nitrogen dioxide present
in the atmosphere is produced only by means of
transport.
Environment
18. In the study of pollution, what does SPM refer
to?
RRB Bhopal (Technical), 21.11.1999
(a) Sulphur Phosphorous matter
(b) Sulphur particulate matter
(c) Solid particulate matter
(d) Suspended particulate matter.
Ans. (d) : Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM), are fine
dust particles whose size is 30 times smaller than a hair,
these dust particles directly reach the lungs when
inhaled and prove to be harmful to the body.
19. Which one of the following gases is mostly
released from landfills in urban area.
RRB Bhubaneshwar (Technical), 03.06.2001
(a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen
(c) Meathane (d) Oxygen
Ans. (c) : In urban areas, most of the methane and
carbon dioxide gas in released from the garbage fillings
areas (landfill). Both of these are important greenhouse
gases. Methane itself is a flammable gas.
Major source of pollution in urban areas is due
to nitrogen oxides (NO2).
RRB Chennai Technician (Engineering),
15.04.2007
(a) Road transport
(b) Commercial sector
(c) Energy used in industries
(d) Power plant
Ans. (a) : Road Transport – Oxides of nitrogen are
produced by burning of mineral oils and coal. Due to
the high concentration of nitric oxide in the human
body, he suffers from many diseases, such as
inflammation of the gums, bleeding, pneumonia, lung
cancer etc.
Identify the air pollutants in urban areas which
cause irritation to human eyes and repiratory
tract.
RRB Bangalore Technical (Engineering),
22.04.2007
(a) Particulate matter (b) oxide of nitrogen
(c) Surface ozone (d) Carbon monoxide
Ans. (c) : Surface ozone reacts with hydrocarbons in
sunlight such as carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides,
carbon dioxide, nitrogen dioxide to produce many
secondary pollutants such as surface ozone,
formaldehyde and PAN. Due to which irritation in the
eyes and nose of man and irritation in the throat as
well as causes respiratory problems.
471 YCT
22. Which of the following pollutants can cause 3. Nitrogen oxide
cancer in humans?
RRB Secundreabad Technical (Engineering), (N2O)
20.05.2007 4.
Hydrofluro carbon
(a) Mercury (b) Glass (HFCs)
(c) Ozone (d) Insecticide
Ans. (d) : Pesticides can cause cancer in humans.
Indiscriminate use of pesticides can lead to various
health and environmental problems. Unsafe handling
and misuse of hazardous pesticides can have toxic
effects on farmers and farm workers who spray them.
Being in contact with them for a long time can cause
permanent diseases like heart and lung related, nervous
system, skin diseases and fetal deformities, abortion,
decrease in sperm count etc.
23. Which gaseous pollutant from anthropogenic
source are chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's (in the
air?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Patna) Paper 2001
(a) Cement industry (b) Fertilizer industry
(c) Foam industry (d) Insecticide industry Ans. (b) :The major precursor of winter smog are NOx
Ans. (c) : Main sources of production of
chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's) – A.C., refrigerator,
themocol foam, sofa set.
24. Which pollutant causes irritation in the eyes.
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Gorakhpur) Paper 2001
(a) sulphur dioxide (b) Ozone
(c) PAN (d) Nitrus oxide
Ans. (c) : PAN is the main source of difficulty and
irritation of the eyes. Peroxyacylnitrates are present in
photochemical smog. These are products of nitrates and
are released into the atmosphere as toxic pollutants
through chemical reactions.
25. Which of the following polluting substances is not
emitted from the transport sector?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Gorakhpur) Paper 2002
(a) Oxide of nitrogen
(b) Chlorofluorocarbon
(c) Carbon mono-oxide
(d) Polly Aromatichydrocarbon
Ans. (b) : The polluting gas chlorofluorocarbons
(CFCs) are not emitted from the transport sector. This
gas is widely used as refrigerator, AC, sofa, foam and
propellant (in aerosol use) and solvent and is also Ans. (d) : The amount of sulphur dioxide (SO2) gas
emitted by these plants.
6 Green House Gases
1. Carbon dioxide It is produced by burning of
(CO2) fuel (Coal, oil, petroleum)
and forest fires.
2. Methane (CH4) It is caused by oil seepage
and animal husbandry.
Environment
It comes out when fields
and fuel are burnt
Increase in temperature due
to waste materials generated
by industrial activities.
5. Per fluro carbon By aluminum electronics
materials
6. Sulphur Combustion of sulphur
containing fuel which is the
hexafluoride
cause of acid rain.
26. The major precursors of winter smog are:
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Kolkata) Paper 2002
(a) N2O and hydrocarbons
(b) NOX and hydrocarbons
(c) SO2 and hydrocarbons
(d) SO2 and ozone
and hydrocarbons. During the cold winter months,
consumption of coal and other fossil fuels to heat
homes increases. Winter smog is formed due to
combustion emission by coal and similar fuels.
27. The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel
source in India is:
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Mumbai/Bhopal) Paper 2003
(a) By coal
(b) By burning
(c) Burning of garbage
(d) By vegetable waste products
Ans. (b) : Combustion is the major source of
pollutants from fuel sources in India as it emits more
CO2. The biggest source of fuel source pollutants is
burning, which accounts for 75% of all pollution.
28. Acid rain occurs due to the following pollution in
the environment–
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ranchi) Paper 2003
(a) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(c) Ozone and Carbon dioxide
(d) Nitrus oxide and sulphur dioxide
increases in the atmosphere of industrial cities. This
gas dissolves in water vapor of the atmosphere and
forms sulfuric acid (H2SO4). This acid falls on the
ground with rain. This is called acid rain. The first acid
rain occurred in Sweden in 1972. Acid rain is a
phenomenon that results from the deposition of humid
dilute acids. When acidic gases pass through the
atmosphere, a number of chemical changes take place
simultaneously.
472 YCT
29. Which country has the most acid rain? 33.
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ranchi) Paper 2003
(a) China (b) Japan
(c) Norvey (d) U.S.A
Ans. (c) : Scandinavian courtiers (Iceland's, Sweden,
Norway, Denmark) generally receive more acid rain.
Therefore, acid rains is more than Norway. Acid rain is
caused by Sulphur dioxide.
30. The main component of acid rain are:
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bengaluru) Paper 2004
(a) H2SO4 and HNO3 (b) NaOH and KOH
(c) Na2CO3 and K2CO3 (d) NaCI and KCI
Ans. (a) : Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur are mostly
produced from combustion of petrol diesel. These gases
come back to the earth in the form of acid, sulphuric
acid (H2SO4) and nitric acid (HNO3) along with water
droplets present in the atmosphere. This is called acid 34. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh
rain. These gases remain present in the form of clouds
and fog even when there is no rain. Generally, 60-90%
acidity in the atmosphere is due to H2SO4 and 30-40%
is due to HNO3.
31. The inorganic pollutants that contaminate
undergrounds water are –
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Trivandrum) Paper 2004
(a) Bacteria (b) Algae
(c) Arsenic (d) Virus
Ans. (c) : Arsenic is an inorganic substance that
contaminates groundwater. It remains mixed in the
vapors of the volcano, in the sea and in many mineral
waters.
32. Which one of the following would result if
household sewage is continuously discharged
into a stream in large quantities?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ahmadabad) Paper 2004
(a) Increase in algae bloom in stream water
(b) Increase in the temperature level of stream
water
(c) Decrease in carbon dioxide level of stream
water
(d) Decrease in dissolved oxygen level of stream
water
Ans. (d) : Water is colorless liquid. Its chemical
formula is H2O. Its density is maximum at 4°C. Its
freezing point is 0° Celsius and boiling point 100°
Celsius. Water pollution causes abundance of algae in
water and this causes lack of oxygen. Therefore, if
domestic sewage is continuously discharged into the
stream (rives) in large quantities so the level of
dissolved oxygen in the stream water will reduce.
Environment
Which of the following is the biggest source of
water pollution in major rive in India?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Kolkata) Paper 2005
(a) Untreated sewage
(b) Agricultural water flow
(c) Untreated small scale industries
(d) Religious customs
Ans. (a) : The biggest cause of water pollution in
major rives in India is untreated sewage which is
discharged directly into the rivers from hospitals, city
drains, etc. Domestic and public sewage mainly
consists of food waste, water used in household and
water used in toilets. Many types of bacteria, yeast,
fungus and eggs of helminths, viruses are found in its
pollution elements. An Indian family throws about 50
kg of garbage in a week
water bodies is
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ajmer) Paper 2005
(a) Flow from urban areas
(b) Flow from agricultural forms
(c) Sewage effluent
(d) Industrial water effluent
Ans. (c) : Sewage effluent is the primary source of
organic pollution in fresth water bodies. Domestic and
public sewage mainly consists of food waste, water
used in homes and water used in toilets. Many types of
bacteria, yeast, fungi and eggs of helminths viruses are
found in its pollutants. Inorganic impurities such as
dye, minerals, salts and sands are present. Micro-
organisms oxidize them into CO2 and water. As a
result, the level of dissolved oxygen in the water
decreases. due to which the water gets polluted.
35. The 'Minamata disaster' in Japan was due to
whose pollution
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ranchi) Paper 2005
(a) Glass (b) Mercury
(c) Cadmium (d) Zinc
Ans. (b) : Minamata- This disease is caused by the
toxic effect of mercury (Hg) in the human body, which
results in disability or death. The initial symptom of
Minamata disease is Numbness of lips, limbs and
dengue, Apart from this, there is also blurred vision.
Eventually the disease destroys the brain, leading to
death. This disease first came to light in 1950. The root
cause of this disease was the plastic industry of Japan
which was established in 1905 in Japan. The by-product
of this industry was the bleach (bi-product), mercury
which used to mix in sea water. Gradually this mercury
473 YCT
got stored in the body of sea creatures, later dogs, cats, Ans. (d) : According to the world health organization,
birds who ate sea creatures, fish became victims of 45 decibels of sound is the best for humans. WHO has
disability and finally death, then when humans eat fish considered sound above 75 decibels to be harmful to
etc. Also became victims of disability and death. human health. Thus, an ordinary human can hear a
36. The concentration of total liquefied solids in sound of maximum intensity up to 130 decibels, but a
drinking water should not exceed the following: person can become deaf in a sound of more than 85
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Mumbai) Paper 2006 decibels and a person with a sound of 150 decibels can
make a person mad.
(a) 500 mg/L (b) 400 mg/L
(c) 300 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L 40. Which of the following causes maximum noise
pollution?
Ans. (a) : According to the World Health Organization
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Allahabad) Paper 2007
(WHO), TDS (Total Dissolved Solids) of drinking
water shows the concentration of inorganic substances (a) Heavy truck traffic (b) Election meetings
present in it. TDS level of good drinking water should (c) Pop-music (d) Jet flight
be 300 mg/L and pure water should be 300 – 600 mg/L Ans. (d) : Jet flight causes maximum noise pollution.
and normal water should be 600 – 900 mg/L. Sound source Sound produce
37. Which pesticide is being used less due to (Decibel)
environmental problems? 1. Heavy truck traffic 80 dB
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Patna) Paper 2007 2. Jet engine 120 dB
(a) Gammaxene (b) D. D. T. 3. Orchestra 100 dB
(c) B.H.C. (d) D. M.T. 41. Green muffler –
Ans. (b): D.D.T. (Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloroethane) RRB Asst. Locopilot (Kolkata) Paper 2008
was the first modern insecticide which was used against (a) Techology to reduce air pollution
malaria, but later i.e. after 1950, it started being used as
(b) afforestation method
an agricultural insecticide. But due to its non-
biodegradable nature, its gets saturated in the (c) planting trees along roads to reduce roise
environment. pollution
Hence, it is regarded as a non-biodegradable pollutant. (d) vibration reduction process
These pollutants mix with the soil and affect plants and Ans. (c) : Green plants are planted to control noise
crops. Its effect falls on animals and relatively larger pollution. Because they have the ability to absorb
animals. sound and plants that control noise pollution are
called' green mufflers'.
Therefore we started decreasing the use of DDT.
42. In which of the following ranges is the human ear
38. Which of the following is not a source of pollution most sensitive?
in soil?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Secunderabad) Paper 2008
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bengaluru) Paper 2007 (a) 1-2 kilohartz (b) 100-500 Hartz
(a) Transport sector (c) 10-12 kilohartz (d) 2-5 kilohartz
(b) Agricultural sector
Ans. (d) : Human ear is most sensitive in 2-5 kHz
(c) Thermal power plant
43. Which unit is used to measure the loudness of
(d) Hydro power plant
voice from the following units?
Ans. (d) : In hydropower plant, electricity is generated RRB Asst. Locopilot (Allahabad) Paper 2008
from the energy of falling or flowing water. It is a
(a) desibel (b) Harts
renewable source of energy and protects scarce fuel
resources. It is pollution free and hence environment (c) Phone (d) Watt/m2
friendly, it does not cause any kind of pollution. Ans. (a) : "Decibel" is the unit which is used to
39. Sound above what level (in decibels) is called measure the loudness of the voice.
hazardous noise pollution? 44. Human-caused environmental pollution is called–
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ranchi) Paper 2007 RRB Asst. Locopilot (Chandigarh) Paper 2008
(a) 30 dB (b) 40 dB (a) Parasite (b) Antibiotic
(c) 60 dB (d) 80 dB (c) Humeline (d) Anthropogenic

Environment 474 YCT

 Ans. (d) : The undesirable changes in the physical,
chemical and biological characteristics of the abiotic
components of the environment (air, water and soil)
which have a negative impact on life are called
pollution. Chemical and biological wastes introduced
into the environment by human activities are called
anthropogenic pollutants.
Hence, it is clear that pollution generated by humans is
called anthropogenic pollution.
45. Which of the following is a biodegradable
pollutant?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Muzaffarpur) Paper 2009
(a) Sewage (b) Asbestos
(c) Plastic (d) Polythene
Ans. (a) : Such pollutants which get decomposed into
simple, harmless elements in rapture over time by
micro-organisms like bacteria etc. are called
biodegradable pollutants. Some examples of
biodegradable pollutants are domestic waste (garbage),
urine and fasces, sewage etc. While asbestos, plastic,
polythene are examples of non-biodegradable
pollutants.
46. Euro norms have been made –
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Mumbai) Paper 2009
(a) To control the speed of vehicles.
(b) For size classification of vehicles.
(c) To control hazardous gases emitted from
vehicles. 50. the most non toxic metal pollutant is exhaust from
(d) To tell the power of the engine.
Ans. (c) : The standards set by the countries of the
European community to control pollution and
hazardous gases caused by smoke emitted from
vehicles are called Euro standards. Euro-I norms are
more liberal than Euro-II norms. There are three types
of pollutants in Euro-I and four types of pollutants in
Euro-II. These are carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons and
nitrous oxide, volatile emissions and particulates. The
dust related norms are only for diesel vehicles falling
under Euro-II. These four polluting elements have
been measured in the unit of 'gram per kilometer'. Use
of unleaded fuel is mandatory in both Euro-I and Euro-
II countries. In both, the vehicle 'durability' is fixed at
80 thousand kilometers.
47. Which of the following fuel produces minimum
environmental pollution?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Gorakhpur) Paper 2009
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Power Alcohol
(c) Petrol
(d) Compressed Natural Gas (C.N.G)
Environment
Ans.(a): Hydrogen fuel produces minimal
environmental pollution. Combustion of hydrogen fuel
produces water and heat as by- products which can be
recycled.
48. Excessive use of fertilizer causes:
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Jammu-Srinagar) Paper 2010
(a) Soil pollution (b) Water pollution
(c) Air pollution (d) All of the above
Ans. (d) : Excessive use of fertilizer causes pollution
of soil, water and air. Fertilizers are used in the soil.
Crops are irrigated on the soil, as a result of which
these pollutants reach the air due to evaporation.
Therefore, excessive use of fertilizers causes pollution
of all three types of soil, water and air.
49. The most polluted city of India is
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Secunderabad) Paper 2010
(a) Ankleshwar (b) Lucknow
(c) Ludhiana (d) Raipur
Ans. (a) : Among the three most polluted cities of
India, Ankleshwar is on the first place, Vapi which is
IInd state of Gujarat and Ghaziabad city of Uttar
Pradesh which is adjacent to Delhi is the third most
polluted city. But according to the latest data of the
year 2016, the order of top three polluted cities of
India is as follows–
(1). Vapi, (2). Ghaziabad, (3). Ankleshwar
automatic vehicles.
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Mumbai) Paper 2012
(a) Copper (b) Lead
(c) Cadmium (d) Mercury
Ans. (b) : The most non-toxic metal pollutant emitted
from automobiles is lead. When its quantity exceeds
0.2 ppm in human blood, anemia and kidney diseases
occur. If its quantity in children becomes 0.6 pmm,
then human life is in danger.
51. Which of the following is biodegradable?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Chandigarh) Paper 2012
(a) Plastic (b) Polythene
(c) Mercury (d) Rubber
Ans. (d) : Natural rubber is biodegradable. It is made
from the sap or rubber sap of trees and vines. Rubber is
obtained from the sap of large trees. Most of the rubber
is obtained from Hevea brasiliensis. It grows in the
Amazon Rivers forests of America and is now grown
in Trovancore, Cochin, Mysore, Malabar, Durg and
Salem in India. The amount of dry rubber in rubber is
about 32 percent. It is elastic and transparent. Its
refractive Index is '5219'. Due to the action of bacteria,
its color becomes yellow and blue spots appear.
475 YCT
52. Which of the following is identified and measured
in 'pollution test' of motor cars at a service
station?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bengaluru) Paper 2012
(a) Lead and carbon particles
(b) Oxide of nitrogen and sulphur
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Carbon dioxide
Ans. (a) : Lead and carbon particles are the main
substances that pollute the atmosphere through vehicle
exhaust. Its quantity is checked at service stations.
53. Which one of the following commodity groups
includes biodegradable commodities
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bhubaneswar) Paper 2012
(a) Paper, grass, glass
(b) Wood, flower, iron scraper
(c) Sewage, Plastic, leather
(d) Cow dung, paddy straw, vegetable waste
Ans. (d) : Biodegradable things are those things which gas tragedy. It was a U.S.A company.
can be easily decomposed by micro-organisms like Methyl isocynate gas leaked from pesticide plant in
bacteria, fungi etc. Among the given options, cow dung, Bhopal.
paddy husk, vegetable waste are biodegradable items. 57. Which of the following is a pollution indicator
The biodegradation time period for some items is as
follows –
1. Paper towel – 2 – 4 weeks
2. Cardboard box – 2 months
3. Cotton gloves – 1 – 5 months
4. Wool gloves – 1 year
5. Plywood – 1–3 year
54. In which climate does photo-chemical smog
occur?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bilaspur) Paper 2012
(a) Cold and humid climate
(b) Warm, arid and infertile
(c) Cold, dry and hot climate
(d) Warm and humid climate
Ans. (b) : Photochemical smog occurs in warm-arid
and infertile climates, i.e., more in urban areas where
greater amounts of sunlight are received. This is due to
the photochemical reaction between nitrogen oxides,
hydrocarbon and other constituents of polluted air
producing photochemical oxidants, which is stimulated
by light. The main components of photochemical smog
and ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) and (NOx). This
is often called brown air where solar radiation is
denser.
55. Which one of the following is not biodegradable?
RRB Asst. Locopilot/technician (Ahmedabad)
Paper 2014
Environment
(a) Woolen mat (b) silver foil
(c) Leather bag (d) Jute basket
Ans. (b) : Woolen mat, leather bag and jute basket are
biodegradable. Whereas polythene, silver foil etc. are
not biodegradable. It take hundreds of years for their
degradation.
56. The gas that was released during the Bhopal gas
tragedy was –
RRB Asst. Locopilot/technician (Ranchi)
Paper 2014
(a) Methyl isothiocyanate
(b) Ethyl isothiocyanate
(c) Methyl isocyanate
(d) Ethyl isocyanate
Ans. (c) : Methyl isocynate was released in Bhopal (in
1984), the capital of Madhya Pradesh, due to which
lakhs of people were affected. This is called Bhopal
plant?
RRB Asst. Locopilot/technician (Kolkata)
Paper 2014
(a) Algae (b) Fungus
(c) Lichen (d) Fern
Ans. (c) : Lichen is Thallophyta type of vegetation,
which is made up of both fungi and Algae. The term
lichen was first used by the Greek philosopher
Theophrastus. Lichen are indicators of air pollution.
Where air pollution is high, they do not grow there.
58. In which one of the following places does 'blood
rain' occur?
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
(a) Italy (b) France
(c) Canada (d) Spain
Ans. (a) : Blood rain occurs in Italy. This rain is
caused by the local wind called siracco. This wind is
known by different names in different countries. This
wind is extremely humid or quite dry as it passes
through the Sahara Desert through North Africa, Sicily
and southern Italy. It carries with it red colored sand
which starts falling with rainfall in Italy. This type of
rain is called bloody rain.
59. The polluted atmosphere is cleaned by which of
the following?
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er.,
01.12.2002
476 YCT
 (a) Oxygen (b) Rain 63. Which of the following is the most dangerous
(c) Nitrogen (d) Air radioactive pollutant?
Ans. (b): The pollution-free atmosphere, which RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil),
includes dust, smoke and other harmful substances, is 26.02.2012
cleaned by rain. (a) Phosphorus -32 (b) Sulphur - 35
60. Which of the following pair is not correctly (c) Strontium-90 (d) Calcium-40
matched: Ans. (c) : All the above elements are radioactive, but
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section Eng. Strontium-90 is a very dangerous radioactive
23.03.2003 contaminant, it's half-life is 28.8 years. It is used in
(a) Ozone depletion - Chloro fluorocarbons medicine and industries, but in case of a nuclear bomb
(b) Acid rain – Nitric acid or accident, its effect falls on a very large area.
(c) Rocket fuel – Kerosene 64. Which of the following is a secondary air
(d) Greenhouse effect-Kerosene oil pollutant –
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.),
Ans. (c) : The fuel used in rockets is called propellant.
it is of two types – 26.02.2012
(i) Liquid propellant – This includes alcohol, liquid (a) CO2 (b) Fogg
hydrogen, liquid ammonia, hydrogen etc. (c) Glass (d) Formaldehyde
(ii) solid propellant- It is a mixture of oxidizing and Ans. (d) : A primary air pollutant is emitted directly
reducing substances present in solid state at normal into the atmosphere from a source. Whereas secondary
temperature. This mixture contains different solid pollutants are not emitted directly into the atmosphere
hydrocarbons as fuel and chlorate, nitrate etc. as
like the above. These react with other pollutants
reducing agents.
(primary pollutants) in the environment to form a
61. Which of the following is used in the synthesis of pollutants.
polythene?
65. Which of the following rivers of India is called
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil)
29.06.2008 'Biological Desert' ?
(a) Methane (b) Ethane DMRC Junior Engineer (Electronics),
(c) Propane (d) Butane 03.08.2014
Ans. (b) : Polythene is obtained as a result of (a) Noyal (b) Damodar
polymerization of ethane of high temperature and high (c) Bhiwani (d) Bhadar
pressure. It 'n' molecules of ethylene participate in the Ans. (b) : Due to the water pollution prevalent in
polymerization then polythene is formed as a result of Damodar river, it is called biological Desert. It is the
the following reaction – most polluted rivers of India. It has become a 'biological
High temp.
nCH2 = CH2  → CH2 – CH2 desert' in the 300 km long stretch between Giridih and
Durgapur. Damodar river is also known as Sorrow of
62. If water pollution continues at the current rate
Bengal.
then eventually
RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012 66. What produces maximum soot?
(a) The water cycle will stop RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III,
(b) Precipitation will stop 20.11.2005
(c) Oxygen molecules will become unavailable to (a) Petrol vehicle (b) C.N.G. vehicle
the water plants (c) Diesel vehicle (d) Thermal Power plant
(d) Nitrate will become unavailable to water plants. Ans. (d) : Most of the soot comes from thermal power
Ans. (c) : It dissolved minerals, organic, inorganic plants. After power plants, diesel vehicles produce the
substances and gases accumulate in water in more most soot.
quantities then required or such harmful substances 67. Which of the following pairs of specific types of
dissolve in water, which are not naturally found in hospital waste is not correct?
water, then such water is called polluted water. It water RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006
pollution by various human activities continues at the (a) Plastic (9 - 12)% (b) Metal (1 - 2)%
present place, not only will a situation become
(c) Clay(8 - 10)% (d) Biodegradable (5-40)%
dangerous for the existence of human life, but the
oxygen molecules dissolved in water will also become Ans. (c) : According to the specific pair of hospital's
unavailable for aquatic plants. waste, clay (8-10)% are not the correct pair.

Environment 477 YCT

6.6 Biodiversity and its Conservation
Biodiversity– Biodiversity is all the different kinds of
life you'll find in one area - the variety of animals, plants,
fungi and even microorganisms like bacteria that make
up our natural world. Each of these species and organism
work together in ecosystem, like an intricate web, to
maintain balance and support life.
Types of Biodiversity–
1. Genetic diversity– Genetic diversity is the
biological variation that occurs with species. It
makes it possible for species to adapt when the
environment changes. Genetic diversity is
particularly important under rapid environmental
change.
Ex.- Different breeds of dogs, different varieties of
rose flower.
• The total genetic diversity in a species or its
population is called gene pool.
2. Species Diversity– Species diversity is defined as
the number of different species present in an
ecosystem and relative abundance of each of those
species.
• Diversity is greatest when all the species present are
equally abundant in the area.
3. Community or Ecosystem Diversity– The
diversity found between the animals and plants of
one community and the animals and plants of
another community is called community diversity or
ecosystem diversity.
• Community diversity is due to change in habitat,
type of niches and ecological processes, such as
nutrition cycles, food chains and energy flows.
Measurement of Biodiversity– Biodiversity is
measured by the following three methods :
1. α-diversity– Alpha diversity refers to diversity on a
local scale, describing the species diversity
(richness) within a functional community. For
example, alpha diversity describes the observed
species diversity within a defined plot or ecological
unit, such as a pond, a field, or a patch of forest.
2. β-diversity– Beta diversity describes the amount of
differentiation between species communities. Unlike
the other levels of species diversity, the exact
interpretation and quantification of beta diversity
varies substantially across studies.
Originally, beta diversity was defined as the ratio
between gamma and alpha diversity (β = γ/α).
3. γ-diversity– Gamma diversity describes the overall
species diversity across communities within a larger
geographic area. It is often summarized across
biogeography of political units, such as ecoregions
or countries.
Environment Education 478
• Gamma diversity is the product of α and β diversity
components.
γ = α×β
• Gamma diversity can be expressed on the basis of
abundance of species and component of
communities as follows–
r = S1+S2–C
Where,
S1 = Total recorded number of species in the first
community.
S2 = Total recorded number of species in the second
community.
C = Total common species in both communities.
Gradient of Biodiversity–The difference in the number
of species in latitudes from high altitudes to low latitudes
and in mountainous areas from top to bottom is called
the gradient of biodiversity.
• Number of species increase in area with favorable
environment.
Importance of Biodiversity–
• Biodiversity is essential for the processes that
support all life on earth, including humans.
• Human obtains food, fuel, shelter and medicine from
biodiversity.
• Healthy soil is diverse.
• Biodiversity is vital for healthy plants and animals.
• Biodiversity protects medicinal plants.
• Less biodiversity means more zoonotic disease.
• Biodiversity keeps the planet liveable.
• Biodiversity supports our ecosystem.
Treats to Biodiversity–
• Climate change
• Habitat loss and degradation
• Pollution
• Invasive species
• Overexploitation of species and epidemics
Biodiversity Conservation Measures– Two methods
are used for biodiversity conservation–
1. In-situ conservation
2. Ex-situ conservation
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In-situ conservation– In-situ conservation is the process
of preserving a threatened plant or animal species in its
natural habitat.
National park– It is a kind of in-situ conservation of
wildlife. The national parks are the protected regions
where no interference from humans takes place except
for educational and research purposes.
• The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 empowers the
States to declare any natural ecosystem rich in
biodiversity as a National Park.
• India has a total of 94 National Parks based on the
2005 survey. According to national wildlife
Database, the total number of National Parks has
increased to 105 as of May 2019.
Wildlife Sanctuaries– According to the Wildlife Act,
1972, where there is sufficient biological, geological,
abundance of fauna, flora, etc. then that area is declared a
Wildlife Sanctuary. There are 551 Wildlife Sanctuaries
in India as of May 2019.
Bird Sanctuaries– An area of land in which birds are
protected and encouraged to breed. Further, it promotes
the survival and rehabilitation of these birds.
Community Reserves and Conservation Reserves–
Community Reserves and Conservation Reserves were
added by the 2002 Amendment to the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972. Conservation Reserves and
Community Reserves in India are terms denoting
protected areas of India which typically act as buffer
zones or connectors and migration corridors between
established National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries and
Reserved and Protected Forests of India.
Sacred Groves of India– Scared groves are areas that
are protected because of people's faith and their natural
attachment. According to the IUCN, sacred groves are a
form of natural worship. Under this, forests of natural
and cultural importance, natural vegetation etc are
conserved. This area is dedicated to the local folk
culture. They are found in the north-east Himalayan
region, Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, Coastal areas,
Central Plateu and Western desert regions of India.
Ex-situ Conservation– Ex-situ conservation means the
conservation of species outside their natural habitats. It
involves the transfer of genetic material away from the
location where it is found.
Botanical Garden– It is a kind of ex-situ conservation
as the plants are conserved away from their natural
habitat.
• It preserve those plants which are endangered.
• It help us to study different types of plants and used
for scientific research.
Important botanical Garden of India–
Lalbagh, Jawaharlal Nehru botanical garden, Jhansi
botanical garden, Narendra Narayan Park, Government
botanical garden etc.
Zoo– Under the ex-situ conservation method, in zoo rare
and endangered species of animals, birds and creatures
Environment Education 479
are kept in an artificial habitat are away from their
natural habitat. Here, large and biodiversity important
animals are kept and conserved. Zoos ensure increase in
the reproduction rate of endangered animals.
• The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) was established
under the Indian wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 for
the conservation and care of animals. Its main work
is to manage zoological park.
Gene Bank–
• Gene banks are a type of biorepository which
preserve genetic material.
• A collection of seed plants, tissue culture etc. are
potentially useful species, especially species
containing genes of significance to the breeding of
crops.
• Plant genetic material in a gene bank is preserved at-
196º Celsius in Liquid Nitrogen as mature seed (dry)
or tissue (meristems).
• In animals, the freezing of sperm and eggs in
zoological freezers.
Cryopreservation– Cryopreservation is a process that
maintains biological samples in a state of suspended
animation at cryogenic temperature for any considerable
period and is used to preserve the fine structure of cells.
National Biosphere Reserve Programme– The
Biosphere Reserve Programme was launched by
UNESCO in 1971 under its "Man and Biosphere
Programme" (MAB). In India, it was launched in the
year 1986.
• Under this a network of protected areas has been
prepared for the conservation of biodiversity, in
which 105 National Parks, 551 Wildlife Sanctuaries,
18 biosphere reserves, 50 Tiger Reserves and 32
Elephant Reserve Centers have been created.
• India's rich biodiversity has given a variety of
culture and ethnic diversity.
Biosphere Reserve in India– There are 18 biosphere
reserve in India.
• Cold Desert, Himanchal Pradesh
• Nanda Devi, Uttarakhand
• Khangchendzonga, Sikkim
• Dehang-Debang, Arunanchal Pradesh
• Manas, Assam
• Dibru-Saikhowa, Assam
• Nokrek, Meghalaya
• Panna, Madhya Pradesh
• Pachamarhi, Madhya Pradesh
• Achanakmar-Amarkantak, MP-Chhattisgarh
• Kachchh, Gujrat (Largest Area)
• Similipal, Odisha
• Sundarban, West Bengal
• Seshachalam, Andhara Pradesh
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• Agasthyamalai, Karnataka-Tamilnadu-Kerala
• Nilgiri, Tamilnadu-Kerala
• Gulf of Mannar, Tamilnadu
• Great Nicobar, Andaman & Nicobar Island
Biodiversity Hotspots– Biodiversity hotspots are
regions that contain a high level of species diversity,
many endemic species (species not found anywhere else
in the world) and a significant number of threatened or
endangered species.
Biodiversity hotspot in India– India is a country with
immense biodiversity. Due to the greater variation in the
environmental conditions of its different areas, more
diversity is seen in fauna and flora.
There are a total of 36 hotspot regions in world, 4 of
them are located in India:
• The Himalayan Region
• Indo-Burma Region
• Western Ghats
• Sundaland Region
Himalayan Hotspot–
• The eastern Himalayan hotspot region is spread over
the North-eastern part of India, South central and
eastern Nepal and Bhutan.
• Due to excessive rainfall, evergreen forests are
found here. Due to favorable conditions in terms of
rainfall and temperature, abundance of endemic
species of fauna, trees and flora is found here.
• Due to the confluence of different biogeography
regions, the Himalayan mountains are very rich in
terms of biodiversity.
• Of the estimated 10,000 species of plants in the
Himalayan hotspot, about 3,160 are endemic, as are
71 genera. The largest family of flowering plants in
the hotspot is the Orchidaceous with 750 species.
• The hotspot support globally significant populations
of several large mammals-including the endangered
tiger and Asian elephant along with smaller
mammals and birds.
Indo-Burma Hotspot–
• The area includes portions of Eastern India
(including the Andaman and Nicobar Islands) the
eastern part of Bangladesh, South most China, most
of Myanmar, most of Thailand and all of Cambodia,
Laos and Vietnam.
• The hotspot is surrounded by heavily forested areas,
but due to environmental imbalance and human
encroachment, these forests areas are shrinking.
• Many primate species like monkeys, langurs and
gibbons are found in this area and fresh water turtle
species are found in large numbers.
• Ginger is an endemic species of this region and
many species of birds are found here. The
endangered white eared Night Heron, gray crowned
Crocias and orange necked partridge species are
Environment Education 480
endemic here, which are now on the verge of
extinction.
The Western Ghats Hotspot Region–
• This hotspot area extends to the highlands of south-
west India.
• The Western Ghats of India are mostly mountainous
region.
• Due to excessive rainfall, rain forests and moist
deciduous forests are found here.
• Due to the favorable conditions for the development
of flora and fauna, abundance of biodiversity is
found here.
• About 6,000 species of plants are found here. Large
population resides in this area.
• Some special species, such as Asian elephant,
Nilgiri tahr, Indian tiger, Lion-tailed monkey, Gaint
squirrel are also found here.
• Sundaland Hotspot– The sundaland hotspot region
extends to the western part of the Indo-Malayan
archipelago located in Southeast Asia. The United
Nations declared the Sundaland hotspot area a
World Biosphere Reserve in 2013.
• Very important fauna and flora are found in this area
from natural point of view.
• Special species like coral, whale, dugong, turtle,
crocodile, fish etc. are found.
• Biodiversity is being greatly affected due to over
exploitation of marine resources.
Hope-spot–
• A 'hope-spot' is an area of the ocean where
important marine flora and fauna require special
protection under water.
• The concept of hope-spots was proposed in 2009 by
renowned American marine scientist Dr. Sylvial
Earle in collaboration with the International Union
for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) under 'Mission
blue'.
• With the addition of 14 new hope-spots in
September 2016, the total number of hope-spots is
76 at present.
• Under Mission Blue, a target has been set to
conserve 20% of marine area by the year 2020.
Efforts are being made for the conservation of
animals in India– In 1973, conservation efforts were
started to save the species of important animals that are
getting extinct in India. Under this, fast disappearing
species are being conserved by creating protected areas.
• Project tiger
• Global tiger forum
• Project Elephant (Hathi mere saathi campaign &
Elephant corridor)
• Ganges dolphin
• Sea Turtle Project
• Vultures conservation project
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 Previous Years Question
1. Which of the following is more important from
the ecological point of view, being a good link
between the Eastern Ghats and the Western
Ghats?
RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P.Way), 20.02.2000
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) Nagarhole National park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
Ans. (a) : From the ecological point of view,
Satyamangalam Tiger Reserve is a good link between
the Eastern Ghats and the western Ghats.
Satyamangalm Tiger Reserve is the largest wildlife
santuary in Tamilnadu.
2. If you want to see alligators in their natural
habitat which of the following is the best place to
visit?
RRB Kolkata Apprentice Supervisors, 14.10.2001
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroove
(b) Chambal River
(c) Pulicate Lake
(d) Deepor Beel
Ans. (b) : Most of the gharials mentioned in the
category of critically endangered by IUCN are found in
Chambal and Girwa river in India. Therefore, if we
want to see crocodiles in their natural habitat then it
would be most appropriate to go to the banks of
Chambal.
3. The most important aspect of biodiversity is –
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent,
21.11.2004
(a) Food
(b) Medicine
(c) Industrial use
(d) Discharge of ecosystem
Ans. (d) : Biodiversity refers to the variety of animals,
plants, fungi live together and form nature.
Biodiversity term was first used in 1986 by Walter. G.
Rosen. The basic reason for the discharge of the
ecosystem is biodiversity.
4. Who of the following first used the word
biodiverstiy?
DMRC Station Controller, 09.09.2007
(a) C. J. Barrow
(b) De Kastri
(c) Walter G. Rosen
(d) D. R. Batish
Ans. (c) : Biodiversity refers to the variety of animals,
plants, fungi live together and form nature.
Environment Education
• The term 'Biodiversity' was coined by Walter G.
Rosen for the first time in 1985.
5. Biodiversity changes –
DMRC Customer Relations Ass., 22.07.2012
(a) Moves towards the equator.
(b) Decreases towards the equator
(c) Remains the same on earth
(d) Moves towards the poles.
Ans. (a) : Biodiversity increases towards the equator.
The reason for this is the equatorial climate. It has a
favourable climate rich in nutrients and sunlight that
promotes the development of microhabitats.
6. 'Biodiversity' is –
Jaipur Metro Rail , 02.12.2012
(a) The sum of entire species, entire genes and
entire ecosystems
(b) Diversity of plants
(c) Diversity of animals
(d) Sum of cultural environment.
Ans. (a) : The diversity of living beings (plants and
animals) present in an ecosystem is defined as bio
diversity.
7. In which of the following regions of India the
'Great Indian Hornbill' are most likely to be
found in its natural habitat?
RRB Ajmer (Tech.), 25.01.1998
(a) Sandy desert of north-western India
(b) Higher Himalayan region of Jammu and
Kashmir
(c) Salt Kutch region of western Gujarat
(d) Western Ghats
Ans. (d) : The Western Ghats range starts from the
border of Gujarat and Maharashtra, passes through Goa,
Karnataka, Tamilnadu and Kerala and ends in Kanya
Kumari 1600 kms. This World Heritage Site is home to
84 amphibian species, 16 bird species, 7 mammals and
1600 endemic flower species which are not found
anywhere else in the world. Great Indian Hornbill
(Mahan Dhanesh) is prominent among the bird species
here. It is noteworthy that 9 species is long and curved
downwards and usually there is a long bulge above the
upper beak, hence the name hornbill.
8. When is biodiversity day celebrated?/
DMRC Maintainer (Fitter) , 20.07.2014
(a) 29 December
(b) 27 June
(c) 28 February
(d) January
481 YCT
 Ans. (a) : Biodiversity Day is celebrated by the United • Hotspot is a region that contain high level of species
Nations on 22 May, while many countries of the world diversity, many endemic species and a significatnt
celebrate Biodiversity Day on 29 December. It is number of endangered species.
noteworthy that on 29 December, 1993 the convention 13. Maximum bio-diversity is found in –
on Biological Diversity came into force. RRB Kolkata (Tech.), 29.08.1999
9. 'Project Tiger' was started in India- (a) Tundra
RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 11.04.1999 (b) Coniferous forest
(a) in 1970 (c) Tropical rain forests
(b) In 1973 (d) Temperate forests
(c) in 1981 Ans. (c) : Maximum biodiversity is found in tropical
(d) in 1984 rain forests. The tropical rain forest is mainly spread
Ans. (b) : The government of India started the Project around the equator. Warm climate and optimum
Tiger in 1973 to protect the tiger population. This conditions for the growth and development of plants
schemes are being implemented on a large scale in the and animals are found in the equatorial region. Most
country. bio-diversity is found in the silent valley located in the
10. Gavialis (Gharial) is found in abandance in– state of Kerala, India. It is 12 km from Palakkad
RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 29.06.1999 district or Kerala.
(a) in Ganga 14. Which of the following areas in India is
(b) in Godavari considered a 'hot spot' in terms of biodiversity?
(c) in Krishna RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P. Way), 20.02.2000
(d) in Kaveri (a) Andaman and Nicobar Inslands
Ans. (a) : Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus) is one of the (b) Gangetic plain
two extant members of the Gavialis family. It is also (c) Central India
called fish eating crocodile. It is a crocodile-like reptile (d) None of the above
which has long but narrow teeth. It is an almost extinct Ans. (a) : In terms of biodiversity, the 'Andaman and
species. Gharial is the longest of the living species of Nicobar Islands' area in India is considered a 'Hot spot'
crocodiles, measuring 3.5 to 4.5m (11 to 15 feet). It is where various biological diversities are present. The
found in abundance in the river Ganga. Andaman and Nicobar Islands group is part of the
11. Operation Kachhapa is an NGO initiative for Myanmar India border area.
the protection of? 15. (With reference to environment) The 'hot spots'
RRB Bangalore (Tech.), 22.08.1999 found in India are.
(a) Hawksbill turtle RRB Mahendrughat (Patna) Diesel Driver,
(b) Olive Ridley sea turtle 18.02.2001
(c) Green turtle (a) Eastern Ghats, Western Ghats
(d) Leatherback turtle (b) Vindhya Mountain Range, Eastern Ghats
Ans. (b) : Operation Kachhapa is an NGO initiative (c) Eastern Himalayan Range, Western Ghats
for the conservation of the Olive Ridley sea turtle. It is (d) Shivalik range, Eastern Ghats
known that mass nesting of endangered species of Ans. (c) : Officially, out of 36 biodiversity hotspots of
Olive Ridley sea turtle was started in the second week the world, four are located in India, namely the
of march, 2015 near Rushikulya river in Ganjam Himalayas, Western Ghats, Indo-Burma area and
district of Odisha. Sundaland.
12. Which one of the following is not a 'Bio 16. Where is Biodiversity relatively rich?
diversity Hotspot RRB Kolkata Trainee Assistant Drivers’,
RRB Bhopal (Tech.), 21.11.1999 15.07.2001
(a) Himalayas (a) In tropical regions
(b) Vindhya (b) In polar regions
(c) North-Eastern India (c) In temperate regions
(d) Western Ghats (d) In the oceans
Ans. (b) : Biodiversity hotspots are found not only in Ans. (a) : Biodiversity is relatively richest in tropical
tropical regions but also in high latitude regions. The regions, whereas most permanent biodiversity is found
four biodiversity hotspots in India are the Eastern in the oceans. The abundance of animal and plant
Himalaya's, the Western Ghats and the central species found in a natural region is called biodiversity.
Myanmar-India border and Sundaland.
Environment Education 482 YCT
17. Maximum biodiversity is found in – 21. 'Red Data Book' is related to–
RRB Bhubaneshwar App. Elec. Signal RRB Secunderabad Diesel Drivers’, 18.11.2001
Maintainer, 19.08.2001 (a) Facts about Biodiversity
(a) In Kashmir valley (b) From animals suffering from the danger of
(b) In the silent valley extinction
(c) In surma valley (c) through tree plantation
(d) in the valley of flowers (d) Poaching of wild animals by smugglers
Ans. (b) : The red data book is related to the animals
Ans. (b) : Maximum biodiversity is found in Silent
facing the threat of extinction. There is an organization
Valley. It is located near the Palakkad district of called 'International Union for Conservation of
Kerala. It is situated at the heart of the Nilgiri hills. Nature,' in Switzerland which works on research
18. The 'Gadgil Committee Report' and the related to wildlife. In 1963 , Red Data Book has been
'Kasturirangan Committee Report' sometimes issued by the organization in relation to endangered
seen in the news, are related to – rare animals and plants. The number of endangered
RRB Kolkata Apprentice Supervisors, 14.10.2001 species.
(a) Constitutional reforms 22. Organization related to 'Red Data Book' or 'Red
(b) Ganga Action plan List'
(c) By connecting rivers RRB Gorakhpur Diesel Ass. Diesel Drivers’,
(d) From the protection of the Western Ghats 14.04.2002
Ans. (d) : Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel RRB Asst. Locopilot (Chandigarh) Paper-2008
(WGEEP) is also called the Madhav Gadgil Committee (a) UTES (b) IUCN
(c) IBWC (d) WWF
its report was submitted to the Government of India on
31 August 2011. Ans. (b) : Red data book is a public document that is
created for endandangered species. There is an
• Kasturirangan committee was high-level working
organization called 'International Union for
group on the Western Ghats to examins the Gadgil
Conservation of Nature,' in Switzerland which works
Committee report in a holistic and multidisciplinary on research related to wildlife. In 1963 , Red Data
fashion. It recommended a ban on mining, quarying and Book has been issued by the organization in relation
minning, new polluting industries. to endangered rare animals and plants. The number of
19. Which of the following is not a site for in-situ endangered species.
method for plant conservation? 23. Biodiversity Act passed by the Indian parliament
RRB Gorakhpur Ass. Diesel Drivers’, 21.10.2001 to be done-
(a) Biosphere reserve RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
(b) Botanical gardens (a) In may 200
(c) National park (b) In December 2002
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries (c) In January 2004
Ans. (b) : Botanical gardens do not come under the in (d) In October 2008
situ method for plant conservation, whereas biosphere Ans. (b) : The biodiversity act was passed by the India
reserves, national parks, wildlife sanctuaries are parliament on December11, 2002.
included. • It is an act to provide conservation of Biological
• Botanical garden is a garden with a documented deversity and provide mechanism for equitable sharing
collection of living plants for the purpose of scientific of benefits arising out of the use of traditional
research. biological resources and knowledge.
20. Maintenance of genetic diversity in National
24. The main reason for the decline of biodiversity is –
Parks is maintained by
RRB Ranchi Assitant Drivers’, 09.01.2003
RRB Mahendrughat (Patna) Diesel Drivers’,
11.11.2001 (a) Residential Pollution
(a) by in-situ conservation (b) Inclusion of foreign species
(b) by ex-situ conservation (c) Over exploitation
(c) by gene pool (d) Natural habitat destruction
(d) None of the above Ans. (d) : The main reasons for the decline of
Ans. (a) : The genetic diversity in national park is biodiversity are degradation of natural habitats,
maintained by in-situ conservation. It is the excessive exploitation of natural resources, decreasing
conservation of ecosystem and natural habitats and the density of forest areas, industrialization and
maintenance and recovery of viable populations of unscientific mining along with illegal hunting and
species in their natural surrounding. smuggling etc.

Environment Education 483 YCT

25. The Himalayan mountain region is extremely
diverse in terms of species diversity. Which of the
following reason is true for this condition?
RRB Chandigarh Diesel/Electric Ass., 25.05.2003
(a) There is more rainfall here which promotes
abundant vegetation growth and also aquatic life
gives.
(b) It is a confluence of different biogeographical
regions
(c) Foreigners and Invasive species do not enter this
area.
(d) There is less interference from human here
Ans. (b) : The Himalayan Mountains form the natural
and political boundary of the Indian subcontinent. It is
due to the geographical location of the Himalayas that
the Indian subcontinent has developed a distinct region
from the rest of Asia. The Himalayan mountain region
is extremely rich in terms of species diversity. The
main reason for this is that it is a confluence of
different biogeographic regions.
26. 'Brahma Kamal' is found naturally in-
Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Train Operators’ ,
14.09.2003
(a) From Kaziranga forests
(b) In Nilgiri forests
(c) In the silent valley
(d) In the valley of flowers
Ans. (d) : 'Brahma Kamal' is found in the valley of
flowers which is situated in Pithoragarh district of
Uttarakhand. It is a low lying Himalayan valley and
has an alpine temperate climate. This flower bloom
after sunset and occurs only once a year.
27. Mangrove vegetation is more widespread in
India.
RRB Ranchi Diesel/Electric Assitant (Driver),
21.09.2003
(a) In Malabar coast
(b) Sundarbans
(c) In Rann of Kutch
(d) Coastal Odisha
Ans. (b) : The largest mangrove vegetation in India is
found in Sundarbans(West Bengal). According to
Forest Status Report-2013 of India's, top five
mangrove vegetation states are as follows -
(1) West Bengal - 2097 square km.
(2) Gujarat - 1103 square km.
(3) Andaman and Nicobar - 604 square km
(4) Andhra Pradesh - 352 square km.
(5) Odissa - 213 square km.
Environment Education 484
28. All tigers of Sundarban are –
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent,
21.11.2004
(a) good swimmer
(b) Cannibals
(c) Fish and aquatic herbivore
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d) : All the tigers of Sundarbans are good
swimmers, cannibals and fish and aquatic life eaters.
29. "A person who has been living in the forest for
at least 25 years they have rights over that
forest land and the things that grow in it. "By
whom has this mandate been given?/
RRB Kolkata Diesel/Electrical Ass., 06.02.2005
(a) Land Acquisition Act, 1894
(b) Constitution(Scheduled castes) order
(amendment Bill, 2012
(c) Indian Forest Act, 1927
(d) Right to Forest Act, 2007
Ans. (d) : A person who has been living in a forest for
at least 25 years has a right on that forest land and on
the things produced in it, as recognized by the Right to
Forest Act, 2007. It recognizes the forest rights and
occupations in the forest land of the scheduled tribes
and other traditional dwellers who have been residing
in the forests for generations.
30. Which of the following places in our country is
cold desert?
RRB Secunderabad Technical-III (Electrical),
11.12.2005
(a) Jaisalmer (b) Ladakh
(c) Meghalaya (d) Darjeeling
Ans. (b) : Ladakh gets very little rainfall and high
snowcapped mountains So, Ladakh is called the cold
desert of India. Ladakh is located in the Indian state of
Jammu and Kashmir.
31. "Desert Oak" is the name of a tree whose roots
go deep into the ground until they reach water.
The depth of the roots of these tree is about 30
times the height of this tree. Where is this tree
found?
RRB Secunderabad Technical-III (Electrical),
11.12.2005
(a) Abu Dhabi (b) Australia
(c) Russia (d) Rajasthan
Ans. (b) : 'Desert Oak' is found in Australia. Its
scientific Name is Allocasuarina decaisneana.
• The Desert oak is a slow growing tree found in
deepsand, young desert oak resembles christmas tree
and canopy in mature stage.
YCT
6.7 Various National and
International Organizations and
Conferences related to
Environment Protection
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP):-
The United Nation Environment programme is
responsible for coordinating responses to environmental
issues within the United Nations system.
 It was established by Maurice strong, its first
director after the Union Nations Conference on the
Human Environment is Stockholm in June 1972. Its
headquarters is in Nairobi (Kenya).
 It has been formed to create International
frameworks for the management of various
environmental programs and organizations.
 Global - 500 Award (established in the year 1987)
is also given by this organization for efforts related
to environment.
 World Environment Day, celebrated every year on
5 June, is organized by UNEP, who decision was
taken in Stockholm conference, 1972 itself.
International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN)- IUCN is the world's oldest and largest global
environmental network, founded in October 1948. It was
also known as 'words conservation Union'. Its
headquarter in Gland, Switzerland, near Geneva. IUCN
has both Governmental Organizations and Non-
Governmental Organizations as its member.
IUCN's mission and vision-
 IUCN strives to develop practical solutions to most
environmental and development challenges.
 To influence and support societies around the world
to conserve biodiversity and ensure that the use of
natural resources is equitable and sustainable.
 Conservation of biodiversity i.e. preventing plants
and animals from becoming extinct and protecting
natural areas from destruction is main work of
IUCN.
Therefore, it releases a list of endangered animals,
which is called 'Red Data Book'.
 IUCN also works on four other areas-
Climate change
Sustainable energy
Livelihood
Green economy.
 IUCN deals with issues related to environment and
biodiversity. As such IUCN is not a part of the UN.
Environment Education 485
World Wildlife Fund - WWF
 The World Wide Fund for Nature is an
international Non-governmental Organization,
formed as a charitable trust in 1967 in Morges and
Switzerland.
 It is the world's largest independent conservation
Organization, Its slogan is 'For a living planet'.
 Currently, much of its work focuses on the
conservation of three biodiversity- rich biomes,
which include forests, freshwater ecosystems,
ocean and coasts. It also focuses on endangered
species, climate change and population.
 Be aware that a worldwide movement called 'Earth
Hour' is organized by the world wide fund for
Nature to bring awareness about climate change
and the need to save the earth. Participants around
the world switch off the electricity for 1 hour from
8:30 pm to 9:30 pm every year on the last Saturday
of March.
CITES (The Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora)-
 CITES is an International agreement between
governments signed in 1973. Its aim is to ensure
that international trade in specimens of wild
animals and plants does not threaten the survival of
the species.
 India is a CITES party since 1976.
 The CITES provide for a system based on the
exchange of export and import permits and
certificates.
Convention on the conservation of Migratory Species
of Wild Animals - CMS
 The CMS Secretariat is provided and administered
by the United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP)
 The Convention on migratory species (CMS), also
known as the Bonn Convention is an environmental
treaty of the United Nations that provides a global
platform for the conservation and sustainable use of
terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory animals and
their habitats.
 India is party to it since 1983.
Coalition Against Wildlife Trafficking (CAWT) -
The Coalition Against Wildlife Trafficking (CAWT) was
established in 2005 by the U.S. State department as a
voluntary coalition of governments and organizations
that aims to end the illegal trade wildlife products.
 CAWT currently includes six governments and
thirteen international NGOs.
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 The term "wildlife trafficking" refers to the animals  TRAFFIC operates as a programme division of
and their derivates that are illegally acquired, WWF India, based in New Delhi since 1991.
transported and distributed.  TRAFFIC was established in 1976 by WWF and
 India is a part of this coalition since 2006. IUCN.
The International Tropical Timber Organization  TRAFFIC's goal is to increase the sustainable
(ITTO)- benefits of reducing the pressure on biodiversity
The ITTO is an intergovernmental organization from illegal and unsustainable wildlife trade.
promoting the sustainable management and Bird Life International-
conservation of tropical forests and the expansion  Bird Life International is a global partnership of
and diversification of international trade in tropical non-governmental organization that strives to
timber from sustainably managed and legally conserve birds and their habitats.
harvested forests.  The group's headquarters are located in Cambridge,
 India is a member of ITTO. England.
International Water Management Institute (IWMI)  Bird Life International's priorities include
 IWMI is a CGIAR Research Center and leads the preventing extinction of bird species, identifying
and safe guarding important sites for birds
CGIAR Research Program on Water, Land and
maintaining and restoring key bird habitats, and
Ecosystem (WLE).
empowering conservationists worldwide.
 IWMI targets water and land management
World Nature Organization (WNO)-
challenges faced by poor communities in The World Nature Organization (WNO) is dedicated to
developing countries, and through this contributes the protection of the environment at international level.
towards the achievement of the Sustainable Its main focus is on energy efficiency, climate
Development Goals (SDGS) of reducing poverty protection, sustainable development and a sustainable
and hunger and maintaining a sustainable energy supply. It is located in Geneva. The motto of
environment WNO is "Think globally, act locally"
 Headquartered in Colombo, Sri Lanka, with  WNO is a permanent platform that unites various
regional offices across Asia and Africa. governments and organizations to establish a
United Nations Forum on Forest (UNFF)- balance between environment and development.
 The United Nations Forum on Forests is a high- World Watch Institute- WWI-
level intergovernmental policy forum.  The World Watch Institute was globally focused
 The main objective of the UNFF is to promote the Environmental Research Organization based in
Washington, D.C. founded by Lester R. Brown.
management, conservation and sustainable
development of all types of forests and to  Through research and outreach that inspire action
strengthen long-term political commitment to this the world watch institute works to accelerate the
end. transition to a sustainable world that meets human
needs.
 The UNFF was established in 2000.
World Resources Institute (WRI)-
 To promote the ' Rio Declaration', forest principles,
 The World Resources Institute is a global research
Agenda 21 and policies of various International
non-profit organization established in 1982 with
Panels on Forests (IPF) related to forest funding from the Mac Arthur foundation under the
conservation and sustainable development. leadership of James Gustave Speth. Its headquarter
 The UNFF is a forum with universal membership, is Washington, D.C. United States.
which includes all member states of the United  WRI promote environmentally sound and socially
Nations. equitable development.
The WildLife Trade Monitoring Network,  Ani Dasgupta is President and CEO of WRI and
(TRAFFIC)– Elizabeth Cook serves as the Vice President.
 TRAFFIC, the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, World Conservation Monitoring Centre (WCMC)-
is a global non- governmental organistion  The UN Environment Programme World
monitoring the trade in wild animals and plants that Conservation Monitoring Centre (UNEP- WCMC)
focuses an biodiversity and sustainable is a non-profit organization, based in Cambridge in
development. the United Kingdom.
Environment Education 486 YCT
 The UNEP -WCMC is a collaboration centre of UN
environment programme, since 2000, and has
responsibility for biodiversity assessment and
support to policy development and implementation.
Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF)-
 The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) is a
global partnership of governments, businesses, civil
society, and indigenous peoples focused on
reducing emissions form deforestation and forest
degradation, forest carbon stock conservation, the
sustainable management of forest and the
enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing
countries, activities commonly referred to as
REDD+.
 Launched in 2008, the FCPF now works with 47
developing countries across, Africa, Asia, and Latin
America and the Caribbean, along with 17 donors
that have made contributions and commitments
totaling $1.3 billion.
The FCPF supports REDD+ efforts through two
separate but complementary funds.
 The FCPF Readiness Fund - current funding: $ 400
million
 The FCPF carbon fund - current funding: $ 900
million
Forest Investment Programme (FIP)
The Forest Investment Program (FIP) is a targeted
programme of the Strategic Climate Fund (SCF) within
the Climate Investment Funds (CIF). The FIP supports
developing countries, efforts to Reduce Deforestation
and Forest Degradation (REDD) and promotes
sustainable forest management that leads to emission,
reduction and the protection of carbon reservoirs. It
works towards this goal by providing scaled- up
financing to developing countries for readiness reforms
and public and private investments, identified through
national REDD readiness. The FIP is active in 23
countries.
Wildlife Conservation Society (WCS)-
 The Wildlife Conservation Society is a non-
governmental organization headquartered at the
Bronx Zoo in New York City, that aims to conserve
the world's largest wild places in 14 priority
regions. Founded in 1895 as the New York
Zoological Society (NYZS), the organization is now
lead by president and CEO Monica P. Medina in
2023.
 WCS saves wildlife and wild places world wide
through science, conservation action, education and
inspiring people to value nature.
Environment Education 487
Wetlands International-
 Wetlands International is a global not-for- profit
organization, dedicated to the conservation and
restoration of wetlands, It conserves rivers, lakes
marshes, and other form of water bodies.
 In 1996, Wetlands. International is established with
its headquarteres in Wageningen, the Netherlands.
Greenpeace-
 Greenpeace is an independent global campaigning
network founded in Canada in 1971 by Irving stowe
and Dorothy stowe. Its goal is to "ensure the ability
of the earth to nurture life in all its diversity" and
focuses its campaigning on worldwide issues such
as climate change, deforestation, overfishing and
anti-nuclear issues etc.
 The network comprises 26 independent
national/regional organization in over 55 countries
across Europe, the Americas, Africa, Asia,
Australia and the pacific, as well as a coordinating
body, Greenpeace international based in
Amsterdam, the Netherlands.
Environmental Performance Index (EPI)-
 The EPI is an international ranking system that
measures the environmental health and
sustainability of countries. The EPI, a biennial
Index, was started in 2002 as Environmental
Sustainability Index by the World Economic
Forum.
 It is prepared by Yale University and Columbia
University in collaboration with the World
Economic forum.
 The Climate Change Performance Index 2023
report was released recently and India secured 8th
position in the index which is 2 position up from the
last edition.
Environmental Democracy Index (EDI)-
 EDI was developed by the Access initiative and
WRI in collaboration with partners around the
world. The index evaluates 70 countries, across 75
legal indicators, based on objective and
internationally recognized standards established by
the United Nations Environment Programmes
(UNEP) Bali guidelines.
 India has ranked 24th out of 70 countries in the first
environmental Democracy index 2015 that is
topped by Lithuania and evaluates nations'
programme.
Stockholm Convention On POP-
 Stockholm convention (also known as Stockholm
declaration) is a global treaty signed in 22 May,
2001 by the Conference of Plenipotentiaries in
YCT
 Stockholm (Sweden) and came into effect on 17th
May 2004. It is a global treaty to protect health and
the environment form POPs.
Persistent Organic Pollutants I - POP-
 POPs are toxic chemicals that adversely effect
human health and the environment around the
world. Because they can be transported by wind and
water, most POPs generated in one country can and
do affect people and wildlife far from where they
are used and released.
Basel Convention-
 The Basel Convention is a multilateral
environmental agreement. This convention is an
international treaty governing the control of
transboundary movements of hazardous waste and
their disposal. The Basel Convention prohibits the
transfer of hazardous waste from developed
Previous Years Question
1. Safety boots or shoes must be worn in
designated areas to protect your ....... from
falling objects.
(a) feet (b) head
(c) ear (d) eye
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (a) Safety boots protect the feet from workplace
hazards and discomforts. These protect our feet by
accident, from slipping, chemicals etc.
2. Whenever the noise level exceeds the standard
exposure to noise, ___ protection should be
taken first.
(a) Eyes
(b) Ears
4.
(c) Head
(d) Leg
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (b) Whenever the noise level exceeds the
standard exposure to noise, hearing protection should
come first.
3. The United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an International
treaty formed by
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bangalore) Paper-2002
(a) Done at the United Nations Conference on the
Human Environment in Stockholm in 1972
(b) Done in the United Nations Conference on
environment and development in Rio de janerio
in 1992
Environment Education
countries to developing countries and least
developed countries (LSCs).
The treaty was signed on March 22, 1989, but came
into effect from May 1922. It is a partner program
of UNEP. India signed it on March 15, 1990 and
implemented it on September 22, 1992.
Goals and Provisions-
 To promote good environment by reducing
hazardous waste and properly managing its
disposal.
 Preventing the transfer of hazardous waste other
than waste disposal management.
 Creating a regulatory system for transfers.
 187 Countries have participated in the Basel
Convention. However, USA has not yet
implemented it despite signing it.
(c) Made at the World Summit on sustainable
development in Johannesburg in 2002
(d) United Nations Climate Change Conference,
Copenhagen, 2009
Ans. (b) : A legally binding agreement was ratified at
the 1992 Rio Conference, also known as the Earth
Summit. This is called the Biodiversity Convention
Declaration. Its provisions have been made effective
from December 1993. In accordance, with the
principles of Conservation and Sustainable
Development in the provisions, use of biological
resources by traditional methods and emphasis has
been laid on encouraging the conservation of genetic
resources.
'Agenda-21' is related to which area ?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ranchi) Paper-2003
(a) Sustainable development
(b) Nuclear disarmament
(c) Patent protection
(d) Agricultural supplies
Ans. (a) : 'Agenda-21' is a plan of the United Nations
Organization related to 'sustainable development'.
5. 'Rio+20' is an abbreviation for ?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Gorakhpur) Paper-2003
(a) Millennium development goal
(b) United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development
(c) Earth summit
(d) Post-2015 development agenda
488 YCT
Ans. (b): 'Rio+20' is the abbreviation of United Nations (c) Nagpur
Conference on Sustainable Development. (d) In New Delhi
6. Earth summit + 5 was held in: Ans. (c) : National Environmental Engineering
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ranchi) Paper-2003 Research Institute (NEERI) is located in Nagpur. It is a
(a) in 2005 (b) in 2000 science research institute that was created by the
(c) in 1999 (d) in 1997 Government of India in 1958.

Ans. (d) : Earth summit +5 was held in New York
(U.S.A) in 1997. The countries involved in this have
committed to implement Agenda-21, a comprehensive
executive plan for sustainable development. It was
called to evaluate the steps taken in this direction.
7. In India, which of the following acts provides
protection to living beings ?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Trivandrum) Paper-2004 Ans. (b) : Poverty reduction is not related to
(a) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
(b) Forest life Protection Act, 1982
(c) Environment Protection Act, 1996
(d) West Bengal Wildlife Protection Act 1959
Ans. (a) : The Wildlife Protection Act 1972 provides
protection to wild animals. Under this, provision has impact.
been made for establishment and notification of
national parks and sanctuaries.
8. Environment (Protection) Act passed in India
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ajmer) Paper-2004
(a) in 1981 (b) in 1986
(c) in 1995 (d) in 2000
Ans. (b) : The Environment Protection Act in India
was passed in March 1986, which came into force in
entire country from November 19, 1986. It should be
noted that this act was brought into existence
immediately after the Bhopal gas tragedy.
9. 'Chipko' movement is related to-
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ahmedabad) Paper-2004 natural resources.
(a) Plant protection
(b) From bagh project
(c) From gharial project
(d) Through plant breeding
Ans. (a) : Chipko movement took place in Chamoli
district of then Uttar Pradesh in 1973. This movement
was started to protest against the cutting of trees.
In the year 1987,this movement was awarded with
Right Livelihood Award.
11. Which one of the following is not related to
environmental protection ?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ranchi) Paper-2005
(a) Sustainable development
(b) Reducing poverty
(c) Air conditioning
(d) Use of paper bags
environmental protection. The remaining three options,
sustainable development, air conditioning and use of
paper bags are directly related to environmental
protection out of which air conditioning has a negative
impact on the environment and sustainable
development and the use of paper bags have a positive
12. Sustainable development is a phenomenon of
inter-generational sensitivity with respect to the
use of
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Guwahati) Paper-2006
(a) Natural Resources
(b) Physical Resources
(c) Industrial Resources
(d) Social Resources
Ans. (a) : Sustainable development is a development
that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet
their own needs. Sustainable development is a matter
of intergenerational sensibility regarding the use of
13. When is world earth day celebrated ?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Kolkata) Paper-2006
(a) 22 April (b) 22 March
(c) 07 April (d) 07 March
Ans. (a) : 22 April - World Earth Day
22 March - World Water Day
07 April - World Health Day
07 March- Jan Aushadhi diwas

10. National Environment Engineering Research 14. Who started the 'Green Army' for environmental
protection did ?
Institute (NEERI) is located at-
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Mumbai) Paper-2006
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Kolkata) Paper-2005
(a) Japan (b) China
(a) In Bangalore
(c) Australia (d) Egypt
(b) In Hyderabad
Environment Education 489 YCT
Ans. (c): Australia has formed 'Green Army' for (C) The scheduled tribes (iii) 1972
environmental protection. and other traditional
forest dwellers
15. By what other name is the Environment (Recognition of
Protection Act (EPA) known ? Forest Rights)
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Malda) Paper-2006 (D) Forest conservation (iv) 1988
(a) Umbrella legislation Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(b) Happy stick RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bangalore) Paper-2007
(c) Environmental legislation (a) (A)–(iii), (B)–(i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iv)
(d) Eco-protection rules (b) (A)–(iv), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii), (D)–(i)
Ans. (a) : The Environment Protection Act 1986 (c) (A)–(i), (B)–(iv), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iii)
(E.P.A) is known as the umbrella legislation. (d) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iii), (C)–(iv), (D)–(i)
16. Green index has been developed by ? Ans. (a) :
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Gorakhpur) Paper-2006 Concerns of Ecology Year of passing of law
(a) Environmental and socially sustainable (A) Wildlife protection (i) 1972
development division of the world bank (B) Environmental protection (ii) 1986
(b) United Nations Environment Program (C) The scheduled tribes and other (iii) 2013
(c) United Nations Development Program traditional forest dwellers
(d) Kyoto protocol (Recognition of Forest Rights)
Ans. (b) : United Nations Environment Program (D) Forest conservation (iv) 1988
(UNEP) has developed a new index for assessing 19. Indian institute of ecology and environment is
wealth which is called 'Green Index'. 'Per capita located at :
wealth' is measured on the basis of Green Index. Under RRB Asst. Locopilot (Kolkata) Paper-2008
this, the following are include natural resources, (a) New Delhi
physical or produced resources and human resources (b) Mumbai
on this basis, the per capita income of each country is (c) Kolkata
determined. (d) Thiruvananthapuram
17. What is 'Green peace' ?
Ans. (a) : Indian institute of ecology and environment
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Patna) Paper-2007 is located in New Delhi. It was established in the year
(a) An agriculture related institution 1980 by the Government of India.
(b) An international peacekeeping force 20. Indian Botanical Research Institute is located-
(c) An international organization of RRB Asst. Locopilot (Secunderabad) Paper-2008
environmental advocates (a) Kanpur (b) Dhampur
(d) None of the above (c) Rampur (d) Lucknow
Ans. (c) : 'Green peace' is an international Ans. (d) : Indian Botanical Research Institute is
environmental organization, which was established in located in Lucknow.
Canada in 1971. This organization is called 'Rainbow 21. Which of the following fuels is currently
warrior' for environmental protection on earth uses the considered eco-friendly ?
ship. RRB Asst. Locopilot (Allahabad) Paper-2008
18. Read the list of the concerns of ecology in India (a) Diesel
and the years of laws passed regarding them. (b) Petrol
Concerns of Ecology Year of passing (c) Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)
of law (d) Compressed Natural Gas
(A) Wildlife protection (i) 1986 Ans. (d) : CNG or compressed natural gas is methane
(B) Environmental (ii) 2013 gas stored at high pressure, which produces relatively
protection less harmful gases.

Environment Education 490 YCT

22. Wildlife institute of India is located Ans. (d): Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bhubaneswar) Paper-2009 Heritage was established in 1984 in New Delhi. It's
(a) In Almora main objective is to conserve and spread awareness
(b) In Dehradun about heritage in India.
(c) Bhopal 26. What is Kyoto protocol related to ?
(d) In Guwahati RRB Asst. Locopilot (Secunderabad) Paper-2010
(a) Ozone depletion
Ans. (b) : Wildlife institute of India is located in
(b) Hazardous waste
Dehradun. It was established in 1982.
(c) Climate change
23. Vanmahotsav week is celebrated in Uttar
(d) Nuclear energy
Pradesh-
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Mumbai) Paper-2009 Ans. (c) : The Kyoto protocol is an international treaty
(a) 8th July to 15th July under the United Nations Co-operation on Climate
Change, which bans the emissions of green house
(b) 16th July to 22nd July
gases by industrialized countries. This treaty was
(c) 1st July to 7th July signed in December 1997 and came into force in
(d) 23rd July to 30th July February 2005.
Ans. (c) : Vanmahotsav week is celebrated every year • 183 countries have expressed their consent to this
from 1st July to 7th July in Uttar Pradesh. Its purpose is treaty. Under the Kyoto protocol, countries have
to encourage people to plant trees. agreed to reduce greenhouse gas emission by 5.2%
compared to 1990 levels.
24. National Disaster Management Authority works
under which ministry of the centre ? 27. What is Nagoya protocol (protocol) related to ?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Chennai) Paper-2015 RRB Asst. Locopilot (Mumbai) Paper-2012
(a) Environment (a) Climate change
(b) Ozone depletion
(b) Water resources
(c) Hazardous waste
(c) Home Affairs (d) Bio-diversity
(d) Defence Ans. (d) : Nagoya protocol is a global agreement that
Ans. (c) : National Disaster Management Ministry implements the access and benefit-sharing obligations
(NDMA), works under the ministry of Home Affairs. of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
Prime minister of India, the chairman of the institute is International environmental conventions and
one of 42 members in the institute. It is a body in which treaties
eminent scholars, scientists and doctors apart from this,
Conference Year Decision
various nodal ministries of the government of India and
1. International 1972 Establishment of the
state governments and secretaries of departments and
Human United Nations
national level scientific research and heads of technical
Environment Environment
organizations participates. Conference Programme, efforts to
25. INTACH is known for its contribution to the (Stockholm reduce conflicts
cultural heritage of the country. Full name of conference: between development
INTACH is- Environment of and environment in
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Jammu and Kashmir) Paper- Magna Carta) relation to human
2010 development and
(a) International Trust for Art and Cultural environment.
heritage Implementation of
(b) International Trust for Art and Cultural administrative and
Heritage legislative efforts.
(c) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage Decision to celebrate
(d) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural 'World Environment
Day' on 5th June.
Heritage
Environment Education 491 YCT
 2. Helsinki 1975 The marine + 10 conference) Agreement on the
Conference environment for establishment of the
security (Earth-2 world solidarity fund
3. London 1975 The disposal of wastes conference)
Conference in the sea was to be
prohibited 13. Montreal 2005 Reduce greenhouse
conference gas emissions by
4. European 1979 Focused species developed countries to
Convention on conservation 1990 levels by 2012
Conservation of
Wildlife and 14. Bali conference 2007 Refers to a long-term
Natural Habitats plan for combating
climate change, which
5. Vienna 1985 Protection of ozone includes a long-term
convention layer objective of reducing
emissions.
6. Montreal 1987 The first international
Conference agreement to protect 15. Copenhagen 2009 Developed and
the ozone layer took Summit industrialized nations
place on 16 September drastically cut green
(the Montreal house gas emission by
Protocol) in 1987. 2020. Concept of low
carbon economy.
7. Rio Conference 1992 International
(Earth Summit) cooperation for 16. Cancun 2010 It was decided to set
conference up a green climate
environmental
fund
development 'Agenda-
21' approval of birth of
17. Durban 2011 Concept of green
the United Nations
conference (cop- climate fund under
Framework on
17) Durban platform.
Climate Change
(UNFCC)
18. Doha conference 2012 Efforts to reduce
(CoP) pollution under clean
8. Nairobi 1997 Effective development
Declaration implementation of mechanism (CDM)
international treaties
19. Legacy 2013 Agreed to create green
9. Kyoto 1997 Identification of green conference climate fund
convention house gasses reduce (CoP-19)
(Kyoto protocol) global warming by 5%
from 1990 levels 20. Lima conference 2014 World countries
(CoP-20) approve commitments
10. Malmo 2000 Role of private sector to eliminate
Declaration in environmental greenhouse gas
protection emissions by 2070.

11. Infoterra Dublin 2000 Dissemination of 21. Paris conference 2015 Approval on the use of
environmental (CoP-21) green technology.
information
Rio + 20 conference 2012- 20 years after the first
12. Johannesburg 2002 Special emphasis on earth summit 1992, the earth summit was held in
conference (Rio sustainable Rio-de- Janeiro, Brazil, which was named Rio 20
development summit its theme was green economy.

Environment Education 492 YCT

 28. Which of the following is not included in the 8
Nagoya Protocol goals under the climate action plan of the
Came in to force on 12 October 2014, the 90th day government of India ?
after the Nagoya protocol received its 50th RRB Asst. Locopilot (Chandigarh) Paper-2012
ratification. The Cop-11 was organized in (a) Solar power
Hyderabad in October 2012.
(b) Waste energy
Efforts were made by India to bring this protocol (c) Afforestation
into force. The Nagoya protocol was ratified by
(d) Nuclear energy
India on 9 October 2012.
Ans. (d) : 8 goals under the climate action plan of the
The entry Nagoya protocol will give practical Government of India the goal is as follows-
effect to the provisions of the convention of
(1) Solar energy
Biological diversity.
(2) Increasing energy efficiency
India has been a victim of theft of its genetic
(3) Sustainable development
resources and their associated traditional
(4) Water conservation
knowledge which are patented in other countries is
done (Patent done on Neem Turmeric). (5) Himalayan ecosystem
(6) Green India make sustainable
As a domestic effort to prevent theft of biological
resources. 'Biodiversity Act, 2002' implemented in (7) Sustainable agriculture
India. The Nagoya protocol will complement (8) Strategic platform of knowledge for climate change
India's domestic efforts. 29. What is meant by the slogan "A tree for every
In the year 2010 was declared by the United Nations child" made from?
General Assembly as the international year of RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bangalore) Paper-2012
biodiversity and the decade 2011-2020 as the United (a) Social forestry program
Nations biodiversity decade. (b) Clean air program
(c) Soil conservation program
Paris agreement (d) Environmental protection program

In the Climate Change Conference held from
November 30 to December 11, 2015 in Paris, the
capital of France, 196 nations of the world finally
accepted an agreement.
Earlier, the first agreement was made in Kyoto in
1997, which has not taken legal form due to the
influence of developed countries.
At the CoP-20 held in Lima in 2014, all countries
aimed to make national commitments to reduce their
green house gas emissions. By 2014, the Earth's
temperature has increased by 1 degree Celsius, have
on estimate that by 2100 there will be an increase of
two degrees.
If the agreement made in Paris takes the form of law,
then all the countries bio fuel (petrol, diesel, coal,
based electricity production) has to be stopped, latest
green technology has to be used in industries. A
ceremony to sign the agreement will be held in New
York on April 2, 2016.
Ans. (d) : The slogan "A tree for each child" refers to
an Environmental Protection Program. Specifically, it
involves reforestation. Many environmental
organisations borrow this idea for their reforestation
education programmes.
30. Globally every year the human development
report is published:
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bhubaneswar) Paper-2012
(a) by U.N.D.P
(b) by W.T.O
(c) by I.M.F
(d) by the world bank
Ans. (a) : The Human Development Report (HDR) is
an annual Human Development Index report published
by the Human Development Report Office of the
United Nations Development Programme UNDP. The
first HDR was launched in 1990 by the Pakistani
economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel Laureate
Amartya Sen.

Environment Education 493 YCT

 .Nation River Conservation Plan–
6.8 Water Conservation
• The Ministry of Environment and Forest and climate
Water conservation is the practice of using water change (MoEFCC) National river conservation plan
efficiently to reduce unnecessary water usage, thereby
(NRCP) aims to protect rivers from pollution and
minimizing its wastage.
enhance water quality.
It includes all steps then to preserve water bodies,
freshwater sources, and our daily requirements without • It included cleanup efforts in 96 communities along
polluting or wasting them. the contaminated sections of 18 rivers located
Importance of water conservation- through 10 states.
 According to fresh water, water conservation is • It presently covers 38 rivers in 178 towns spread
important because fresh clean water is limited over 20 states.
resource, as well as a costly are. Ganga Action Plan (GAP)-
 Water conservation is necessary to keep water pure • The central government started the river pollution
and clean while also protecting the environment. abatement programme with the launching of the
 Water protects the ecosystem and wildlife. Ganga Action plan in the year 1986.
 Move over, conserving water also saves energy. • The GAP was launched on 14 Jan 1986 by then
 We must learn how to avoid keeping water pollution Prime Minister Shri Rajiv Gandhi to improve the
because everyone depends on it for survival. quality of water of river Ganga by removing toxic
Government efforts to control water pollution. materials and chemicals from the river.
Various Programmes have been launched by the • GAP's first phase began in Jan 1986 and ended in
government of India for the conservation and protection March 2000.
of rivers and water bodies in the country.
• The GAP Phase-I cost a total of Rs 452 crores to
S.r. Programme Launched
complete.
Number Year
1 National River 1995 • The Yamuna and Gomti Action Plan were adopted
Conservation plan as part of GAP Phase II in April 1993.
(NRCP) • Lack of data on the water use and waste water
2. National lake 1954-55 generation ensured that the plans failed miserably.
conservation plan Government's stand to control Industrial Pollution–
(NLCP). According to the provisions of the water (prevention &
3. Atal Mission for 2015 control of pollution) Act of 1974 and the Environment
Rejuvenation and Urban (Protection) Act of 1986, Industrial units must install
Transformation effluent treatment plants (ETPs) and treat their effluents
(AMRUT). to meet specified environmental standards before
4. Smart Cities Mission. 2015 discharging into rivers and other bodies of water.
5. Mahatma Gandhi 2005 Namami Gange Programme– Namami Gange
National Rural Programme is an Integrated Conservation Mission,
Employment Guarantee
approved as a Flagship Programme by the Union
scheme (MGNREGS)
Government of India in June 2014 with a budget outlay
6. Repair, Renovation and 2005
of Rs. 20,000 crore to accomplish the twin objectives of
Restoration (RRR)
effective abatement of pollution, conservation and
schemes
rejuvenation of National River Ganga.

Previous Years Question

1. B.O.D in river Ganga most commonly found in-
RRB Assistant Loco pilot (Bilaspur) 2012
(a) Between Haridwar and Kanpur
(b) Between Kanpur and Allahabad
(c) Between Allahabad and Patna
(d) Between Patna and Hajipur
Ans. (b) : The most abundance of BOD is found
between Kanpur - Allahabad (Prayagraj) in the Ganga
River, Because Kanpur has a large number of tanneries
chemical plants, textile mills, Slaughter houses,
hospitals etc. Which dump their untreated waste into
the Ganga.

Environment 494 YCT

 • Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in the river (a) 1990 (b) 1974
Ganga is commonly found in areas with high levels of (c) 1981 (d) None of above
organic pollution. This pollution often originates from Ans. (b) : The main aim of act was to maintain the
domestric sewage, industrial effluents and agricultural
cleanliness of water bodies. The central pollution
run off.
control board of India was formed as a statutory
2. The Central Ganga Authority (CGA) was set up to
organization in September 1974 under the water
clean the polluted areas of the river Ganga and to
analyze the quality of its water. Cities which have (Prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1974. It
two main centers for water quality analysis, they provides technical services to the ministry of
are- environment and forests under the provisions of the
RRB Assistant Loco pilot (Ahmedabad) /Technicians environment protection act, 1986.
2014 Thus, in 1974 the water pollution control Act was
(a) Kanpur and Varanasi enacted in India.
(b) Kanpur and Allahabad Acts Year
(c) Rishikesh and Varanasi Indian Forest Act 1927
(d) Rishikesh and Patna Forest Conservation Act 1980
Ans. (c) : The Central Ganga Authority (CGA) was Noise pollution 2000
constituted in june 1985. The main objective of (Regulation and control )
establishing 'Central Ganga Authority' is to clean the rules
polluted areas of river Ganga and to analyze the quality of Wild Life conservation 1972
its water. Two main centers have been set up in Rishikesh Act
and Varanasi to analyze the quality of Ganga water.
Comparative analysis of water quality is done through Biological Diversity Act 2002
these centres. 5. An example of 'lentic habital' in a fresh water
• To oversee the 'Ganga Action Plan' the Gol Constituted community is
the Central Ganga Authority under the Chairmanship of RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi in 1985. (a) Pond and Swamp
• National Mission for clean Ganga (NMCG) It was (b) Waterfall and River
registered as a society on 12th Aug 2011 under the (c) Pond and River
Societies Registration Act 1860. It acted as the
(d) All of the above
implementation arm of the National Ganga River Basin
Authority (NGRBA). Ans. (a) : Pond and Swamp an example of 'lentic
3. Sun's rays are maximum in clean sea waters can habital' in a fresh water community.
it go deep ? • A lentic ecosystem entails a body of standing water,
RRB Assistant Loco pilot (Kolkata)/Technicians ranging from ditches, seeps, ponds, seasonal pools,
basin marshes and lakes.
2014
• The term lentic (Form the Latin lentus, meaning slow
(a) 200 m (b) 400 m
or motionless), refers to standing waters such as Lakes
(c) 600 m (d) 800 m
and Ponds (lacustrine), or Swamps and Marshes
Ans. (a) : Sun's rays reach a maximum of 200 m in (paludal).
clean sea water can go deep.
6. Eutrophication occurs in reservoirs-
• Sunlight entering the water may travel about 1,000
meters (3,280 feet) into the ocean under the right RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er.,
conditions, but there is rarely any significant light 01.12.2002
beyond 200 meters (656 feet). Only a small amount of (a) Due to lack of oxygen
light penetrates beyond this depth. (b) Due to excessive growth of algae or algal
4. In which year was the water pollution prevention bloom
and control act implement ? (c) Due to excess of nitrogenous nutrients and
RRB Assistant Loco pilot (Siliguri)/Technicians orthophosphate
2014 (d) Due to immersion of idols in water bodies
Environment 495 YCT
 Ans. (c): Increase in the concentration of inorganic Ans. (b): Due to water pollution prevalent in Damodar
and organic nutrients in water is called eutrophication. river, it is called biological desert. It is the most polluted
Excess of nutrients in water also affects the organisms, river of India- 300 km between Giridih (Jharkhand) and
Durgapur (West Bengal). In the long way, It has
due to this, aquatic plants, algae etc. Grow more and remained as a "biological desert' significantly, the
cover the surface of the water and also they use most Damodar river is also known as the sorrow of Bengal.
of the oxygen in the water for respiration, due to which
10. Which one of the following legislations does not
the oxygen in the water decrease. There is a shortage deal with the protection of the environment ?
and other living beings start dying. Therefore,
RRB Thiruvananthpuram Section Eng
eutrophication in water bodies is due to the depletion
(Mechanical) 04.01.2009
of nitrogenous nutrients and orthophosphate. It is
(a) Water (cess) act, 1977
caused due to excess water whereas it results in algae
bloom. (b) Forest (conservation) Act, 1980
(c) Pubic liability insurance act, 1991
7. By which process does alum purify dirty water ?
(d) Port laws amendment act, 1997
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section Eng.
Ans. (a) : The Water (cess) act, 1977 related to water
23.03.2003
and irrigation and not protection of environment
(a) absorption (b) Adsorption whereas the other three are related to the protection of
(c) Coagulation (d) Dialysis the environment.
Ans. (c) : Alum purifies dirty water by 11. Which of the following anthropogenic activities
coagulation.Because of the high charge on the accounts for more than two-thirds (2/3) of global
aluminium ion (Al+3) It helps the small particles of water consumption is liable ?
suspended solids to group together until they are of RRB Bangalore Section Engineer (Civil)
such large size that they sink and can be removed. The 01.02.2009
chemical name of alum is potassium aluminium (a) Agriculture
sulfate, and its chemical formula is (b) Electricity generation from water
K2SO4Al2(SO4)324H2O. It is a colorless, crystalline (c) Industry
substance. It is used in the purification of water, In the (d) Consumption by household and municipal
dyeing of leather etc, in slopping the bleeding
Ans. (a) : Agriculture has a vast impact on the earth
secretion.
over two thirds of human water use for agriculture.
8. By which process can sea water be converted Accounting for the total quantity of water used by
into pure water can ? humans, 70 percent is consumed in agriculture sector,
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG & 20 percent in industry and 10 percent in domestic
Design 11.06.2006 works.
(a) Perspiration 12. The following are the reasons for the scarcity of
(b) Buoyancy drinking water in the coastal region of Tamil
(c) Electrical separation Nadu:
(d) Reverse osmosis RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Electrical) ,
15.03.2009
Ans. (d) : Sea water can be converted into pure water
(a) Conversion of large amount of water into vapor
by reverse osmosis.
(b) Ingress of sea water due to sunami
• In this process a solvent passes through a porous
(c) Lowering of underground water level by tubel
membrane in the direction opposite to that for natural
(d) Seepage of salt water on the sea coast
osmosis.
Ans. (d) : The reason for the scarcity of drinking water
9. Which of the following rivers of India is called
in the coastal region of Tamil Nadu is the seepage of
'Biological desert'? salt water on the sea coast and it receives less rainfall
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil) as compared to other coastal areas of the state. The
29.06.2008 climate of this state is monsoon dependent and many
(a) Noyal (b) Damodar areas are prone to drought. The average annual
(c) Bhiwani (d) Bhadar precipitation in the state is 945 mm.

Environment 496 YCT


6.9 Green House Gases and their
effects
Green house Gases- Greenhouse Gases (also known as
GHGs) are gases in the earth's atmosphere that trap heat.
During the day, the sunshine's through the atmosphere,
warming the earth's surface. At night the earth's surface
cools, releasing heat back into air. But some of the heat
is trapped by the greenhouses gases in the atmosphere.
Type of green house gases-
Several major green house gases that result from human
activity are included in U.S and international estimates of
greenhouse gas emissions.
 Carbon dioxide (CO2)
 Methane (CH4)
 Nitrous oxide (N2O)
 Industrial gases-
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
Sulfur hexafluoride (SF6)
Nitrogen trifluoride (NF3)
Other green house gases not counted in international
greenhouse gas inventories are water vapor and ozone.
Source of greenhouse gases- (According to year 2020)
Globally, the primary source of greenhouse gas
emissions are electricity and heat (32%), agriculture
(12.3%) transportation (15.3%), Industrial process
(6.6%) and manufacturing (13.1%).
Energy production of all types accounts for 72% of all
emissions.
Causes of Greenhouse effect-
The major causes of the greenhouse effect are-
 Burning of fossil fuels-
Fossil fuels are an important part of our lives. They are
widely used in transportation and to produce electricity.
Burning of fossil fuels carbon dioxide.
 Deforestation -
Plants and trees take in carbon dioxide and release
oxygen. Due to the cutting of trees, is a considerable
increase in the greenhouse gases which increases the
earth's temperature.
 Farming-
Nitrous oxide used in fertilizers is one of the contributors
to the greenhouse effect in the atmosphere.
 Industrial waste and landfills-
The industries and factories produce harmful gases
which are released in the atmosphere. Landfills also
release carbon dioxide and methane that adds to the
greenhouse gases.
Environment 497
Effects of Greenhouse Gases-
The man effects of increased greenhouse gases are:
(i) Global warming-
It is the phenomenon of a gradual increase in the average
temperature of the Earth's atmosphere. The main cause
for this environmental issue is the increased volumes of
greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide and methane
released by the burring of fossil fuel, emissions from
vehicles, industries and other human activities.
(ii)Depletion ozone Layer-
Ozone Layer protects the earth from harmful ultraviolet
rays from the sun. It is found in the upper regions of
stratosphere. The depletion of the ozone layer result in
the entry of the harmful UV rays to the earth's surface
that might lead to skin cancer and can also change the
climate drastically.
The major cause of this phenomenon is the accumulation
of natural greenhouse gases including chlorofluro
carbons , carbon dioxide, etc.
(iii) Smog and Air pollution-
Smog is formed by the combination of smoke and fog. It
can be caused both by natural means and man-made
activities.
In general, smog is generally formed by the
accumulation of more greenhouse gases including
nitrogen and sulfur oxides.
The major contributors to the formation of smog are
automobile and industrial emissions, agricultural fires,
natural forest fires and the reaction of these chemicals
among themselves.
(iv) Acidification of water Bodies-
Increase in the total amount of greenhouse gases in the
air has turned most of the world's water bodies acidic.
The greenhouse gases mix with the rainwater and fall as
acid rain. This leads to the acidification of water bodies.
Also, the rainwater carries the contaminants along with it
and falls into the river, streams and lakes there by
causing their acidification.
(v) As greenhouse gas emissions blanket the Earth, they
trap the sun's heat. This lead to global warming and
climate change.
(vi) As greenhouse gases trap more energy from the sun,
the oceans are observing more heat, resulting in an
increase in sea surface temperatures and rising lever.
(vii)Runaway Greenhouse Effect-
This phenomenon occurs when the planet absorbs more
radiation than it can radiate back. Thus, the heat last
from the earth's surface is less and the temperature of the
planet keeps rising. Scientists believe that this
phenomenon took place on the surface of venus billions
of years ago.
YCT
 Solution for reducing Greenhouse effect-
 The habit of reusing and recycling things is important
to combat with global warming. We should stop burning
fossil fuels, wasting electricity, using excessive
automobiles and deforestation.
 Greenhouse gas emissions can be reduced by making
power on- site with renewable and other climate friendly
energy resources. Examples include roof top solar
panels, solar water heating, fuel cells powered by natural
gas or renewable hydrogen, and geothermal energy.
Previous Years Question
1. Who among the following scientists discovered
radium, a radioactive element?
(a) Amedeo Avogadro
(b) Marie Curie
(c) Louis Pastuer
(d) Leonhard Euler
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (b) : The radioactive element radium, was jointly
discovered by Pierre and Marie Curie in December
1898. Radium is a chemical element which is
represented by Ra and its atomic number is 88.
2. _______ affects the atoms in living cells and
thereby damages their genetic material (DNA).
(a) Benzene vapours
(b) Ionising radiation
(c) Chloroform
(d) Chlorinated water
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (b) : Ionising radiation affects the atoms in living
cells and thus damages their genetic material (DNA).
Ionising radiation can affect atoms in living things, so it
poses a health risk by damaging tissue and DNA in
genes. When cells are exposed to Ionising radiation,
damage to living cells may result from direct action or
through indirect action.
3. Which of the following gases in NOT a major
greenhouse gas that causes climate change?
(a) Carbon dioxide 5.
(b) Methane
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Nitrous oxide
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (c) : Green house gases are responsible for
changes in the atmosphere or climate of the planet and
for global warming. Among these, the maximum
emissions are of gases like carbon dioxide, nitrous
oxide, methane, chlorofluorocarbon, vapour, ozone etc.
Environment 498
Plant a tree- Trees absorb carbon dioxide and give off
oxygen. A single tree will absorb approximately one ton
of carbon dioxide its lifetime.
 We can reduce emissions by sniffing to alternative
technologies that either don't need gasoline (lile bicycles
and electric cars).
 Using public transportation, carpooling, biking, and
walking leads to fewer vehicles on the road and less
greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
 Refuse single use plastic
These gases are often emitted from equipment of use
such as air conditioners, refrigerators, scooters, that
causes climate change.
4. Green house effect means-
RRB Allahabad Junior Engineer-II
[Mechanical, DSL (C&W)], 08.01.2006
(a) Increase in the temperature of the atmosphere
due to condensation of green house gases in the
atmosphere.
(b) Production of vegetables and flowers in
Increased temperature
(c) Production of food crops in glass houses
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a) : Due to excessive or unbalanced increase of
some special gases, such as carbon dioxide, methane,
sulfur dioxide etc, in the atmosphere, the 'terrestrial
radiation' converted by the earth starts to be completely
absorbed by these gases, due to which the atmospheric
temperature of the earth rises. This unwanted increase
in temperature is called 'green house effect'. In fact the
above mentioned gases act like a blanket which
prevents the heat from going out is noted in cold
regions. Cultivation of fruits, flowers, vegetables, etc
is done in glass chambers in this technique, in which
solar radiation enters and increases the temperature of
the chambers, but these rays can not go back again.
Green House effect is process of-
RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006
(a) In which uniform temperature is obtained for
growing plants
(b) In which atmospheric carbon-dioxide absorbs
infrared radiation increases./
(c) In which barren mountains or hills are made
green.
(d) In which the color of deep water appears
green.
YCT
Ans. (b): The main reason behind global warming is (a) An area rich in coal mines
carbon dioxide gas which is called green house gas. These (b) Reduction in CO2 emissions amount by a
gases also include methane and nitrous oxide. All these country
gases absorb heat from the atmosphere. This happens in (c) Use of carbon in manufacturing industries
the same way as the glass in a 'green house' does not allow (d) The amount of greenhouse gases produced by
the hot air contained within it to escape. This is known as our everyday activities
'greenhouse effect'. Ans. (d) : "Carbon-Foot print" - Means the total
6. Which of the following gas groups contributes to amount of carbon emitted by an entity, or an individual.
the "green house effect"? This emission is in the form of carbon dioxide or green
RRB Kolkata Technical-III, 20.08.2006 house gases. The name carbon foot print is derived from
ecological foot print meaning, the amount of
(a) Ammonia and ozone
greenhouse gases produced by everyday activities.
(b) Carbon monoxide and sulfur dioxide
10. Which of the following gases is not a green house
(c) Carbon tetrafluoride and nitrous oxide
gas?
(d) Carbon dioxide and methane
DMRC Station Controller, 09.09.2007
Ans. (d) : The gases that contribute to the "greenhouse (a) CO2 (b) CH4
effect" are primarily carbon dioxide and methane. (c) NO2 (d) O2
These gases along with water vapour, trap heat from
Ans. (d) : Greenhouse gases are those gases present in
the sun in the earth's atmosphere, creating a warming
the atmosphere which absorb and emit radiation in the
effect. The main reason for carbon dioxide emission in
range of thermal infrared radiation found in the earth's
the atmosphere is the use of oil, coal and natural gas as
atmosphere. The main greenhouse gases released are
fuel and burning of trees for industry and
water vapour, carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4)
desertification is going.
and Nitrous oxide (NO2).
7. Carbon dioxide is called a greenhouse gas Oxygen is not a greenhouse gas.
because
11. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
RRB Chennai Technical (Eng.), 15.04.2007
DMRC Secunderabad Section Eng. (Civil),
(a) Its concentration is always higher than the
29.06.2008
concentration of other gases.
(a) Methane
(b) It is used in photosynthesis.
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) It absorbs infrared radiation
(c) Chloro fluoro carbon
(d) It emits visible radiation
(d) Hydrogen
Ans. (c) : Carbon dioxide is called greenhouse gas
Ans. (d) : Increasing harmful gas in the atmosphere-
because it has the ability to trap heat by absorbing and
carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, carbon monoxide, sulfur
re-emitting infrared radiation in the earth's dioxide, methane, chlorofluoro carbons etc are
atmosphere. This property of CO2 helps to maintain a increasing the temperature of the earth drastically in
comfortable and warm temperature on earth. the upper surface of the atmosphere. This is called
8. Which one of the following gases is mostly green house effect. Hydrogen gas is not responsible for
released from landfills in urban areas ? the greenhouse effect.
RRB Bangalore Technical (Eng.), 22.04.2007 12. Green house effect occurs :
(a) Nitrogen RRB Allahabad Ass. Loco Pilot, 03.08.2008
(b) Hydrogen (a) CO (b) NO
(c) Methane (c) CO 2 (d) NO2
(d) Oxygen Ans. (c) : Green house effect is caused by CO2. Carbon
Ans. (c) : The gas emitted from landfills in urban areas dioxide is present in the troposphere under normal
is methane (CH4). It is the global greenhouse effect conditions, the earth's heat and energy balance is
maintained at normal concentration of CO2, but high
ranges from 4-9%.
concentration of CO2 prevents the heat returning from
9. What is meant by the term 'carbon foot print? the earth, due to which the earth's temperature starts
RRB Secundrabad Technical (Eng.), 20.05.2007 increasing. This is called greenhouse effect. The thick
Environment 499 YCT
layer of CO2 acts like the glass of a green house. It According to IPCC report, 10 glaciers of India will
allows sunlight to pass through it but the heat is not melt due to increase in CO2 in the next 30 years.
allowed to radiate outside. Therefore, due to the layer of
CO2 in the atmosphere, the entire earth is like a big
green house. Apart from CO2, methane and water
vapour are called heat insulators or green house gas.
13. Which of the following gases are most
important for the greenhouse effect ?
RRB Bangalore Section Eng. (Civil), 01.02.2009
(a) Carbon dioxide, methane, chlorine, nitric
oxide
(b) Nitric oxide, methane, ethane, chlorofluoro
carbons
(c) Carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide,
water vapour
(d) Carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide, methane , Ans. (a) : Due to global warming, the pH value of sea
water vapour
Ans. (c) : Green house effect is a natural process by which is the increase in carbon dioxide (CO2) in the
some gases present in the atmosphere of a planet or atmosphere. About 30 to 40% of the carbon dioxide
satellite help in making the temperature of the atmosphere
relatively higher. This includes carbon dioxide, methane,
nitrous oxide water vapour etc.
14. The relative contribution of carbon dioxide
(CO2), nitrous oxide (N2O),
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) and methane
(CH4) gases towards global warming is
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Electrical),
15.03.2009
(a) CO2 > CFC > CH4 > N2O
(b) CO2 > CH4 > CFC > N2O
(c) CO2 > CH4 > N2O > CFC
(d) CO2 > N2O > CH4 > CFC
Ans. (b) : The decreasing order of relative contribution
of carbon dioxide (CO2) nitrous oxide (N2O),
chlorofluorocarbon (CFCs) and methane (CH4) gases
towards global warming is as follows–
CO2 > CH4 > CFC > N2O
15. Which of the following gases is more responsible
for global warming?
RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-III , 30.01.2011
(a) Nitrogen (b) Methane
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Carbon monoxide
Ans. (c) : Green house gases (CO2, NO2, water
vapour, methane and ozone) are responsible for global
warming. But among these, the most harmful is CO2
(carbon dioxide) because it traps the infrared radiation
in the atmosphere coming from the earth's surface.
Environment
16. It has been reported that due to global warming
the pH value of seawater is continuously
decreasing.
RRB Chennai Section Eng., 12.02.2012
(a) There is relatively more uptake of CO2 by sea
water
(b) There is relatively different uptake of CO2 by
sea water
(c) There is relatively more uptake of atmospheric
nitrogen by sea water
(d) Relatively less uptake of atmospheric nitrogen
by sea water
water is continuously decreasing. The reason for this
released in the atmosphere by human activities which
is reaching sea water through rivers.
17. Which one of the following is responsible for
the spread of water in the ocean?
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Civil),
26.02.2012
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Sulfur dioxide
Ans. (a) : Carbon dioxide is formed by combining two
atoms of oxygen and one atom of carbon. It remains in
gaseous state at normal temperature and pressure. Its
solubility in water at 250C is 1.45 g/litre. Hence, it is
clear that CO2 is responsible for the expansion of water
in the ocean.
18. What is the main role of green house gas,
which contributes to Increasing the
temperature of the earth's surface.
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Mech.),
26.02.2012
(a) Incoming solar radiation and outgoing
infrared radiation, both is permeable to.
(b) Blocks both incoming solar radiation and
outgoing infrared
(c) Allows outgoing infrared radiation to pass
through but blocks incoming solar radiation.
(d) Allows the Incoming sunrays to pass through
but blocks outgoing infrared radiation.
500 YCT
 Ans. (d): Green house gas (carbon dioxide) 22. Which one of the following is a source of
contributes to increasing the temperature of the earth's methane emission into the atmosphere?
surface because these gases are transparent to short DMRC Civil Engineering, 07.09.2014
radiation coming from the sun. Whereas they prevent (a) Automatic vehicle vacuum exhaust
the Earth's radiation from going out due to which the (b) Industrial chimney
average temperature of the atmosphere increases. (c) Mining
19. The emission of which one of the following green (d) Wetland
house gases is entirely anthropogenic? Ans. (d) : Methane gas is emitted mainly from
RRB Customer Relations Ass. , 22.07.2012 wetlands such as rice fields, livestock lands and
(a) Chlorofluorocarbon leakage in natural gas systems. It accounts for 11% of
(b) Methane greenhouse emissions.
(c) Nitrous oxide 23. In which of the following greenhouse gases
(d) Hydrogen sulphide remains in the atmosphere for the shortest time
possible?
Ans. (a) : The most important anthropogenic factor
DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 21.09.2014
affecting the climate is the increasing concentration of
(a) Chlorofluorocarbon
green house gases in the atmosphere due to which CFC
(Chlorofluorocarbon) are completely produced by (b) Carbon dioxide
humans. It is emitted from airplanes, AC, Refrigerator (c) Methane
is related to cold storage, firefighting equipment etc. (d) Nitrous oxide
which are directly related to humans. Ans. (c) : Green house gas methane (CH4) remains in
20. Which of the following is correctly matched. the atmosphere for the shortest time because its molar
mass is less than that of other gases. The molar mass of
DMRC Maintainer (Fitter), 20.07.2014
methane is 16.04g/mol and that of CO2 is 44.01g/mol
(a) Acid Rain - NO and N2O is 44.013 g/mol, whereas chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Yellowing of leaves-N2 are organic compounds of chlorine and fluorine.
(c) Greenhouse effect-CO 24. What mainly increases sea level?
(d) Hole in the ozone layer-Chlorinated DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 21.09.2014
hydrocarbon compounds (a) Due to heavy rainfall
Ans. (d) : Ozone layer is affected when carbon (b) Due to melting of glaciers
accumulates in the stratosphere. It is formed by HFCs (c) Due to undersea volcano
(Hydrofluorocarbons) and HCFCs (d) Due to expansion of sea level
(hydrochlorofluorocarbons). Carbon tetrachloride,
Ans. (b) : The main reason for the rise in sea level is
halogen gases and methyl chloroform also deplete
the melting of glaciers. The snow accumulated on the
ozone. mountains is called glacier. When glaciers melt, the
21. Which of the following gases is not a green solid ice transforms into liquid water, which then joins
house gas? the vast oceans. This additional water influx leads to a
DMRC Station Controller, 27.07.2014 rise in sea level.
(a) Methane 25. Which of the following greenhouse gases does not
(b) Carbon Monoxide cause ozone pollution in the tropospheres?
(c) Nitrous oxide (N2O) DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 06.03.2016
(d) Water vapor (a) Methane
(b) Carbon monoxide
Ans. (b) : Any gases which have 3 or more atoms
present in a molecule like water vapor H2O etc. absorbs (c) Nitrogen oxides (NOX)
infrared absorption and therefore called greenhouse (d) Water Vapor
gases. Green house gases increase the temperature in the Ans. (b) : Greenhouse gases which are responsible for
atmosphere by absorbing heat radiation. Carbon ozone pollution in the troposphere-
monoxide is not green house gas in the above given Water vapor – 36–72%
options. Carbon dioxide – 9–26%
Environment 501 YCT
 Methane – 4–9%
Ozone – 3–7%
Apart from this, there is nitrous oxide and
chlorofluorocarbon.
Carbon monoxide does not cause ozone pollution in
the troposphere.
26. Which country has the highest emission of
greenhouse gases contribution, which one is it?
DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 07.09.2014
(a) China (b) India
(c) Japan
(d) United states of America
Ans. (a) : According to the latest data of the year
2014-15 in the world, the top carbon producing
countries /union of countries are as follows–
1. China - 30%
2. America -15%
3. European Union - 9%
4. India - 7%.
Therefore, at present, china is the country with the highest hydrocarbons in sunlight to produce ozone, which can
emission of green house.
27. India's share in the world's greenhouse gases is–
DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 21.07.2013 following elements-
(a) 1% (b) 2%
(c) 3% (d) 5%
Ans. (d) : Emission of green house gases by India
during the period under question were 5%. But
currently (Year 2014-15), India's contribution in the
production of green house gases has become 7%, and it
is in fifth place after China (30%), America (15%),
European Union (9%).
28. The largest green house gas leak in US history
occurred in February 2016. Which gas was that?
RRB Secunderabad Diesel Driver, 01.06.1997
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) Chlorofluorocarbon
(d) Nitrous oxide
Ans. (b) : The largest green house gas leak in US
history occurred in Los Angles in February 2016. A
large amount of methane gas was leaked, which greatly
affected the atmosphere of Los Angles causing heavy
damage. The gas was leaking for 112 days.
29. Which is correct in terms of total CO2 emission
from a country Identify the sequence.
RRB Secunderabad Diesel Driver, 18.02.2001
Environment
(a) U.S.A > China > India > Russia
(b) China > U.S.A. > India > Russia
(c) China > U.S.A. > Russia > India
(d) U.S.A > China > Russia > India
Ans. (b) : This sequence is based on the emission
report of 2014, in which China is placed in first
position, America (U.S.A.) in second, India in third
and Russia in fourth.
30. Smog in indian cities mainly involves–
RRB Mumbai Electrical/Diesel Driver, 03.06.2001
(a) Oxides of sulfur
(b) Oxides of nitrogen and unburned hydrocarbons
(c) Carbon monoxide and S.P.M.
(d) Oxide of sulfur and Ozone
Ans. (b) : Smog in indian cities mainly consists of
oxides of nitrogen and unburned hydrocarbons. It is a
specific type of air pollution .
It is formed when nitrogen dioxide , which is primarily
caused by industrial and road pollution , reacts with
be then mixed with particles and thus leading to the
formation of smog. This air pollution includes the
1. Aldehydes
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN)
4. Trapospheric Ozone
5. Volatile organic compounds
31. Methane is a very powerful green house gas. It is
converted into carbon dioxide to reduce its
overall impact on global warming. By what
name is this process known?
RRB Gorakhpur Assistant Diesel Driver, 21.10.2001
(a) Flaring
(b) Ceiling
(c) Blocking
(d) Incidence
Ans. (c) : Methane is a very strong green house gas.
To reduce its overall impact on global warming.
Methane is mixed with chlorine containing
compounds such as methyl chlorides, chloroform,
carbon tetrachloride. Its complete burning produces
carbon dioxide and water. For this, the process of
combustion by flame (illumination) is adopted. At
least with 20% methane, the process of flame
(illumination) occurs more effectively.
This process is called as blocking.
502 YCT

6.10 Climate Change and its related
organizations and conferences
Climate- Climate is the average weather condition in
a given area over a longer period of time.
Climate elements- A climate data element is a
measured parameter which helps to specify the
climate of a specific location or region, such as
precipitation, temperature, wind speed and humidity.
Climate change- Climate change is the significant
variation of average weather conditions becoming,
for ex. warmer, wetter or drier-over several decades
or longer. It is the longer-term trend that
differentiates climate change from natural weather
variability.
Climate change indicators- The climate has
changed many times since origin of the Earth.
Evidence of climate changes that have occurred in
Earth’s past are called climate change indicators.
Factors affecting climate change-
• Heat-trapping greenhouse gases and the Earth’s
climate.
• Greenhouse gases
• Reflectivity or absorption of the Sun’s energy
• Change in the Earth’s Orbit and Rotation.
• Variations in solar activity.
• Change in the Earth’s reflectivity.
• Volcanic Activity
• Changes in Naturally occurring CO2
concentrations
Effect of Climate Change-
• Effects on agriculture- Climate change can disrupt
food availability, reduce access to food, and
affect food quality.
Ex.- Projected increases in temperatures, changes
in precipitation patterns, changes in extreme
weather events, and reductions in water
availability may all result in reduced agricultural
productivity.
• Effects on human health- The health effects of
climate change include respiratory and heart
diseases, pest-related diseases like Lyme disease
and West Nile virus, water and food related
illnesses, and injuries and deaths.
Climate change affects the social and
environmental determinants of health-clean air,
safe drinking water sufficient food and secure
shelter.
Environment Education 503
• Effects on wildlife and ecosystems-Climate
change is causing significant changes in the
migration patterns of many species. Migration is a
complex and highly coordinated process that is
driven by a range of environmental cues, such as
change in temperature, day length and food
availability.
• Effects on biodiversity- Many impacts of
climate change including drought, bushfires,
storms, ocean acidification, sea level rise and
global warming- affect biodiversity. Loss of
biodiversity can lead to land degradation, affects
the water supply and changes in farming
productivity.
• Effects on environment- Climate change is
already having visible effects on the world. The
earth is warming, rainfall patterns are changing,
and sea level are rising. These changes can
increase the risk of heat waves, floods, droughts,
and fires.
Strategies to Mitigate Climate Change- Mitigating
climate change means reducing the flow of heat-
trapping greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. This
involves cutting greenhouse gases from main sources
such as power plants, factories, cars and farms.
Forests, oceans, and soil also absorb and store these
gases, and are an important part of the solution.
A successful mitigation pathway will involve
combinations of these strategies:
• Renewable energy-Biomass Energy, Hydropower,
Wind Power, Geothermal Energy, Solar Energy
• Nuclear Energy
• Energy Efficiency and Conservation-Buildings,
transportation, industry.
• Carbon capture and storage
• Land Use-Forest, Soil and Agriculture
• Waste Management-Solid waste, food waste,
recycling
• Social Innovation
Organisations & Conventions Related to Climate
Change
For the first time, after various countries of the
world paid alteration to environmental issues, the
United Nations organized the United Nations
Conference on the Human Environment in
Stockholm in 1972.
The Earth Summit was organized by UNEP in the
Brazilian city, Rio de Janeiro in 1992 to celebrate
the 20th anniversary of the first Global Human
Environment Conference (Stockholm Conference).
Its official name is United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED).
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• Some new documents issued by this Conference-
Rio Declaration on Environment and
Development
Agenda- 21 (related to sustainable development)
Forest principles
Framework Convention on climate change
Convention on Bio-diversity
Rio-Earth Summit 1992 also adopted the
convention to prevent Desertification.
Thus, this Summit gave birth to the 3 sister Rio
Conventions-
1. Framework Convention on climate change- Its
objective was to prevent dangerous human
interference with the climate change.
2. Convention on Bio-Diversity- In the 1980s, UNEP
members prepared a detailed draft on action related
to the conservation of biodiversity. This draft was
placed before various countries for signing in the
1992 Earth Summit. This signed draft was called the
international Agreement for “Convention on
Biological Diversity.”
3. Convention to Combat Desertification- In 1977
UNCOD (United Nations Conference on
Desertification) adopted a PACD (Plan of Action to
Combat Desertification). Despite these efforts,
UNEP concluded that, with the exception of some
local success the problem of land degradation in
arid, sub-arid and dry-sub-humid regions has only
worsened.
UN Framework Convention on Climate change –
UNFCCC
This was the first multilateral convention on climate
change. Countries associated with the 1992 convention
joined the UNFCCC to work together to prevent the
increase in average global temperature and combat its
impacts. This convention came into force from march
21, 1994. At present its (membership) is close to
universal. The 198 countries that have ratified the
convention, are called ‘Parties to the Convention’ while
165 countries become signatories to this framework.
Kyoto Protocol:
The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement
linked to the UNFCCC that commits parties to
internationally binding emission reduction targets.
This protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan on
December 11, 1997 but it become operational from
February 16, 2005.
Detailed rules related to the implementation of this
protocol were adopted at COP17 in
Marrakesh(Morocco) 2001, hence it is also called
Marrakesh Accords.
Environment Education 504
• Recognizing that all countries, but industrialized
countries, are primarily responsible for the high
level of greenhouse gases present in the atmosphere
as a result of their industrial activities over 150
years, the protocol adopted the principle of “
common but differentiated responsibilities” (CBDR)
placed a heavy burden of responsibility on
developed countries.
• The first commitment period of the Protocol began
in 2008 and ended in 2012. The second commitment
period of this protocol began on January 1, 2013 and
ended on December 31, 2020.
Bali Conference 2007-
After the 2007 UNFCCC (COP-13/MOP-3) held on
the Indonesian island of Bali in December of that
year, the Bali Action Plan or Bali Roadmap was
announced. COP 13 established on Ad Hoc working
group on Long-Term Cooperative Action that shall
hold its first meeting by April 2005 and complete its
work in 2009.
Government classified the scheme into 5 main
categories-
1. Shared vision
2. Mitigation
3. Adaptation
4. Technology
5. Financing
Ad Hoc Working Group- The Ad Hoc Working Group
(AWG) on Long-Term Cooperation (LCA) or AWG-
LCA was established to conduct work under the Bali
Action Plan.
The central function of the AWG-LCA was to set
emissions reduction commitments for industrialized
nations after the end of the Kyoto Protocol’s first
commitment period in 2012.
Bali Action Plan-
Relating to developing countries, the Bali Action Plan
specifically focuses on adoption and climate resilience-
building activities, and stresses the need to support the
most vulnerable countries.
Copenhagen Conference, 2009-
In 2009, the 15th session of COP was held in
Copenhagen, Demark. It was also the 10th
conference of Ad-hoc working Group for Further
commitment of Annex-1 Parties under the Kyoto
protocol (WWG-KP) and the 8th session of the AWG
LCA. The Copenhagen climate change conference
elevated climate change policy to the highest
political level.
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 It resulted in the Copenhagen Accord, which made it
plain that political action was intended to limit
carbon emission and address climate change in the
short and long terms.
Cancun Climate change conference, 2010.
The 2010 United Nations Climate change
conference was held in Cancun, Mexico from 29
November to 10 December 2010. The conference is
officially referred to as the 16th session of the
conference of the parties (COP 16) to the UNFCCC
and the 6th session of conference of the parties
serving as the meeting of the parties (CMP6) to the
Kyoto protocol.
Cancun Agreement– The Cancun Agreement were a
set of significant decision by the international
community to address the long-term challenge of
climate change collectively and comprehensively over
time, and to take concrete action immediately to speed
up the global response to it.
Objectives– Encourage the cooperation of all nations in
lowering these emission in accordance with each
nation's unique responsibilities and capacity to do so.
Establish clear goals and a time table for during so in
order to keep the increase in the average world
temperature below two degrees.
Durban Conference 2011– In 2011, The cop-17
conference under UNFCCC was held in Durban.
This was the second major conference of its kind.
The conference progressed in a very balanced
manner, discussing the implementation of the
convention and the Kyoto protocol, the Bali action
plan and the Cancun Agreement.
In main outcomes, include an important decision by
parties to adopt a universal legal agreement on
climate change by 2015 at the earliest. It has been
also said that this legal agreement will be established
by 2020.
According to this agreement, all developed and
developing countries agree to fulfill their obligations
to reduce GHG emission in this convention.
The ADP (Ad Hoc working Group an the Durban
platform enhanced Action) was established at this
conference to develop this legal instrument.
ADP (Agricultural Development Program)– The
ADP is a subsidiary body that was established by
decision (COP-17) in December 2011. The
mandated of the ADP is to develop a protocol,
another legal instrument or an agreed outcome with
legal force under the convention applicable to all
parties.
Environment Education 505
Doha Conference 2012– The COP-17 was held in
Doha, Qatar from 20 November to 8 December 2012
under the auspices of UNFCCC.
The main objectives of the negotiations in Doha
were to adopt the second commitment period of the
Kyoto protocol and complete the work of the AWG-
KP; to complete the work of the AWG-LCA; and to
advance negotiations under ADP.
Kyoto Protocol Amendment– In December 2012,
after First commitment period of the protocol ended,
parties to the Kyoto protocol met in Doha, Qatar, to
adopt an amendment to the original Kyoto
agreement. This called Doha Amendment added
new emission redacting targets for the second
commitment period from 1 January 2013 to 31
December 2020.
Warsaw Convention-2013– The United Nations
climate change conference, COP-19 or CMP-9 was
held in Warsaw, Poland from 11 to 23 November
2013. The conference delegates continue the
negotiations towards a global climate agreement.
Agreement– An important achievement of this
conference was that participating countries resolved the
impasse in negotiations and decided on a from fork to
prepare a universal legal treaty by 2015. Although this
did not meet the EU's original expectations, it was
acceptable to most developing countries.
Governments decided to prepare the intended
Nationally Determined contribution (INDC)
domestically so that is word be ready before December
2015 In this, decision were taken on the following
issues–
• Taking forward the Durban platform
• Green Climate Fund
• Long term Finance
• Warsaw Frame work for REDD+
• Warsaw International Mechanism for Damage and
Loss
Warsaw framework REDD+: REDD+ (or REDD-
plus) refers to ''reducing emissions from deforestation
and forest degradation in developing countries and
enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing
countries.
• The Warsaw frame work for REDD+ has mobilized
significant resources for REDD+ implementation,
including for capacity - building, technical
assistance, demonstration activities and results based
finance.
Difference between REDD and REDD+: REDD is the
abbreviation for reducing emissions from deforestation
and forest degradation' while REDD+ is ''the role of
conservation sustainable management of forests and
enhancement for forest carbon stocks in developing
countries.''
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Global Environment Facility-GEF– The Global
Environment Facility (GEF), established on the eve of
the 1992 Rio Earth summit, is a catalyst for action on
the environment and much more. Through its strategic
investment, the GEF works with partners to tackle the
planet's biggest environmental issues.
• The GEP is an international funding mechanism,
approving hundreds of millions of dollars in grants
each year to address the most urgent environmental
problems facing humanity, including climate
change, biodiversity loss, ozone depletion and
degradation of the Worlds Ocean and international
water bodies.
Lima Conference-2014:
The 2014, UNFCCC COP-20 (CMP 10) was held in
Lima, Peru from 1 to 14 December. The conference
delegates held negotiations towards a global climate
agreement.
The overarching goal of the conference was to
reduce greenhouse gas emissions (GHGs) to limit
the global temperature increase to 2 degrees Celsius
above current levels.
COP 20 adopted the “Lima call for climate change”
which furthered progress on the negotiations toward
the Paris agreement.
This conference seek to reduce greenhouse gas
emissions by 30% until 2030.
Paris Conference – 2015
The 2015 United Nations climate change
conference, COP 21 or CMP 11 was held in Paris,
France, From 30 Nov. to 12 Dec 2015.
The Conference negotiated the Paris Agreement, a
global agreement on the reduction of climate
change. The next of which represented a consensus
of the representatives of the 196 attending parties.
On 22 April 2016 (Earth Day), 174 countries signed
the agreement in New York.
According to the organizing committee at the outset
of the talk, the expected key result was an agreement
to set a goal of limiting global warming to ''well
below 2oC'' Celsius compared to pre industrial
levels.
In the adopted version of Paris Agreement, the
parties will also pursue efforts to limit the
temperature increase to 1.5oC. The 1.5oC goal will
requires zero emissions sometimes between 2030
and 2050, according to some scientists.
Marakesh Cop-22, 2016– The 2016 United
National Climate change conference was held in
Marakesh, Morocco, from 7 to 18 Nov. 2016. The
conference incorporated the twenty-second
conference of the parties (COP 22), the twelth
meeting of the parties to the Kyoto protocol (CMP
12), and the first meeting of the parties to the Paris
agreement (CMA1).
Environment Education 506
• The purpose of the conference was to discuss and
implement plans about combating climate change
and to (demonstrate) to the world that the
implementation of the Paris agreement is underway.
Portico plants work together to come up with global
solution to climate change.
• The Marrakesh Action Plan introduced a unique
commitment mechanism : On a voluntary basis, each
partner country could pledge to implement one or
more of the 23 action defined in the cooperation
programme.
Outcomes of COP 22 –
• Adaptation of African Agriculture (AAA)
• International Solar Alliance (ISA)
• 2050 Pathway Platform
• Mission innovation
Climate Vulnerable Forum (CVF)– This is a cluster
of countries that are most susceptible to climate impact.
Since 2009, it has been in existence. In COP-22-
Marakesh, the number of nations on the platform
reached 48 and gathering got a great deal of
consideration. They said they would endeavour to attain
400% renewable energy production between 2030 and
2050.
Bonn COP -23, 2017– The 2017 United Nations
Climate change conference (COP 23) was held at
UN Campus in Bonn, Germany, during 6-17
November 2017. The conference incorporated the
23rd conference of the parties to the United Nations
Framework Convention on climate change
(UNFCCC) the 13th meeting of the parties for the
Kyoto protocol (CMP 13) and the 2nd session of the
first meeting of parties for the parties agreement
(CMP 1 - 2).
• The ultimate objective of the convention is to
stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations at a level
that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic (human
induced) interference with the climate system.
Katowice COP - 24, 2018– The 2018 United
Nations climate change conference, more commonly
referred to as the Katowice climate change
conference or COP 24, was held between 2-15
December 2018 in Katowice, Poland. The
conference was held in international congress centre.
It was also incorporated the 14th meeting of the
parties for the Kyoto protocol (CMP 14)
The COP 24 aimed to bring a set of rules to
implement the Paris Agreement.
Outcome of COP 24– COP 24 parties settled on most
of the elements of the rulebook for putting the Paris
agreement into practice.
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It agreed detailed rules for the implementation of the
Paris agreement, with the exception of rules on market
mechanisms, a subject on which international
negotiations will continue throughout 2019.
Madrid COP 25, 2019– The 2019 United nations
climate Chang conference. COP 25 was held in
Madrid, Spain, from 2 to 13. 13 December 2019.
The conference incorporated the 25th COP to the
NFCCC, the CMP 15 and CMA2.
• COP 25 aimed to develop guidelines on how
international carbon markets will work (Article 6 of
the Paris agreement). Other focus areas were
adaptation to climate impacts, loss and damage
suffered by developing nations due to climate
change, and finance for decarburization.
• There things have been made clear at COP 25–
Firstly, the global climate process and the pains
Agreement are still alive despite the setbacks and
predications of its demise.
• Secondly, there is a growing disconnect between
what is required to address climate change and what
many government are offering to do.
• Thirdly, climate policies are starting to diverge with
a clear direction being set in certain parts of the
word.
Global climate change Alliance (GCCA)– GCCA is
on initiative of the European Union. Its overall
objective is to build a new alliance on climate change
between the European Union and the poor developing
countries that are most affected and that have the least
capacity to deal with climate change.
Climate and Clear Air Coalition– The climate and
clear Air Coalition is a partnership of over 160
Previous Years Question
1. From which language is the word 'climate'
taken?
RRB Mahendrughat (Patna) Diesel Driver,
11.11.2001
(a) English (b) Latin
(c) Greek (d) German
(e) Japanese
Ans. (c) : The word 'Climate' is taken from Greek
language, whose Hindi version is 'Jalvayu'. The word
climate is used to express the condition of the
environment of a place. This word is very close to
'weather' but there is some difference between climate
and weather. Climate is used only for large periods of
time for large areas, whereas weather is used only for
relatively short periods of time and for small place.
2. The concept of carbon credit originated from
which of the following.
RRB Chandigarh Diesel/Electric Assistant,
25.05.2003
Environment Education 507
governments and organizations committed to reducing
short-lived climate pollutants.
• It was launched by the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP) and six countries– Bangladesh,
Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden and United states-
on 16 February 2012.
Green Finance– A sustainable or responsible finance
that effectively finance projects with environmental
benefits, such as reducing greenhouse gas emission,
improving energy efficiency or enhancing the circular
economy.
Green Accounting– Green Accounting, also known as
environmental accounting or sustainable accounting is a
system of accounting that takes into account the
economic, environmental and social costs and benefits
of business activities. Below are three different types of
Green accounting.
• Environmental Management Accounting (EMA)
• Environmental Financial Accounting (EFA)
• Environmental National Accounting (ENA)
Green Index– The World Bank's Environmentally
Sustainable Development Division has developed green
Index. Under this, different values are given to its three
components– produced goods, natural resources and
human resources and on the basis of this the per pacita
income of each country is determined.
Green GNP– It is the amount of per capita national
wealth that can be achieved in a given period by
keeping the natural wealth of the country constant. Its
evaluation takes place every 10 years.
(a) Earth Summit, Rio-de-Janeiro
(b) Kyoto protocol
(c) Montreal Protocol
(d) G-8 Summit, Heiligendam
Ans. (b) : The concept of carbon credit originated
from the Kyoto protocol. The United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) came into existence in 1992 at the
initiative of the United Nations to deal with the
challenge of global warming. It began negotiations to
draft an international agreement to address the threats
of climate change. As a result in Kyoto city of Japan.
The Kyoto protocol was adopted at the third UNFCCC
conference in December 1997. It is a binding
agreement that requires countries participating in the
treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emission by 5.2%
between 2008 and 2012 to bring their green house gas
YCT
 emission down to 1990 levels. Carbon credit is a credit
received by a government enterprise or individual for
reducing emission of carbon dioxide and other
greenhouse gases from the atmosphere through carbon
reduction measures.
3. Which among the following is a cryogenic
indicator of climate change?
RRB Ranchi Diesel/Electric Assistant, 21.09.2003
(a) Ice core
(b) Fossilized Pollen
(c) Tree ring growth
(d) Evaporite deposits
Ans. (a) : Cryogenic indicator of climate change is
obtained from the melting of Ice cores.
4. In which of the following Economic surveys was
the new chapter of 'Sustainable Development'
and climate change added for the first time?
RRB Kolkata Diesel/Electrical Assistant, Ans. (d) : Many factors are responsible for climate
06.02.2005 change. There are three types of pollution– Water
(a) 2004–05 (b) 2011–12
(c) 2012–13 (d) 2013–14
Ans. (b) : A new chapter of 'Sustainable Development
and Climate Change' was added for the first time in the
Economic survey of 2011-12.
5. India's first National Action Plan on Climate molecule of ozone is capable of destroying one lakh
Change was published in.
RRB Allahabad Assistant Loco Pilot,
03.08.2008 IInd
(a) In 2008 AD
(b) In 2012 AD
(c) In 2014 AD
(d) In 2015 AD
Ans. (a) : India's first National Action Plan on Climate
Change was announced on 30 June 2008 by the Prime
Minister Manmohan Singh. One of its goals is 'Green
India Mission', under which the forest area in India has
to be increased from 20% to 33% in 10 years.
6. Which one of the following is not included in greenhouse gas emissions. USA and Asutralia has not
the eight mission of India's National Climate accepted the Kyoto protocol.
change Action plan?
RRB Ahmedabad Assistant Loco Pilot,
05.04.2009
(a) Solar power
(b) Chainization
(c) Nuclear force
(d) Waste to energy conversion
Ans. (c) : The National Action Plan on Climate
Change proposed on June 30, 2008 focused on eight
priority National Global Mission–
(1) Solar energy (2) Increasing energy efficiency (3)
Sustainable development (4) Water conservation, (5)
Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (6) Sustainable
agriculture, (7) Green India (8) Political platform of
knowledge for climate change.
Environment Education
7. Which is not an indicator of climate change?
RRB Chandigarh Assistant Loco Pilot, 03.01.2010
(a) Vegetation Indicators (b) Glacial Indicator
(c) Diffractive Indicator (d) Long term change
Ans. (d) : Long term change is not an indicator of
climate change. It will include a decrease in sea ice
and an increase in permafrost thawing, heavy
precipitation and decreased water resources in semi-
arid regions.
8. Climate change is mainly due to the following –
RRB Ajmer (Technicl), 25.01.1998
RRB Allahabad Assistant Loco Pilot,
03.08.2008 Ist
(a) Greenhouse gas
(b) Depletion of ozone layer
(c) Pollution
(d) All of above
pollution, air pollution and noise pollution. These
pollution cause damage to the environment is some
wary or the other. Due to this pollution, gases like
CFC, Carbon Monoxide, methane etc in the
atmosphere are considered responsible for global
warming. These gases damage ozone C.F.C. one
molecules of ozone.
9. Which of the following groups of industrialized
countries has not accepted the Kyoto protocol?
RRB Ajmer (Technical), 01.03.1998
(a) India and China
(b) United States and Australia
(c) France and China
(d) United kingdom and France
Ans. (b) : The Kyoto protocol was an international
treaty which extended the 1992 United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) that commits state parties to reduce
10. Climate change resulting in the rise of
temperature may benefit which of the countries/
regions
RRB Trivandrum (Technical), 11.04.1999
(a) South Africa
(b) East Indies Islands Including Java, Sumatra and
Borneo
(c) West coast of South America
(d) Russia and Northern Europe
Ans. (d) : The climate change resulting in the rise of
temperature may benefit Russia and Northern Europe
as they are in colder region they can derive more
potential benefits from climate change. More access to
energy resources that are currently difficult to extract
because of hostile, freezing climates.
508 YCT

6.11 International Efforts for ozone
depletion and control
Ozone→ Ozone is an odorless, colorless gas made up of
three oxygen molecules (O3) and is a natural part of the
environment. It occurs 60th in the earth's supper
atmosphere or stratosphere and at ground level in the
lower atmosphere, or troposphere.
Ozone layer→ The ozone layer is the common term for
the high concentration of ozone that is found in the
stratosphere around 15-30 km above the earth's surface.
It covers the entire planet and protects life on earth by
absorbing harmful ultraviolet-B (UV-B) radiation from
the sun.
Why UV-B radiation bad→ Prolonged exposure to
UVB radiation is linked to skin cancer, genetic damage
and Immune system suppression in humans and animals,
and lower yielding agricultural crops.
Ozone Depletion→ Ozone layer depletion is the gradual
thinning of the earth's ozone layer in the upper
atmosphere caused due to the release of chemical
compounds containing gaseous bromine or chlorine from
industries or other human activities.
How Ozone Depletion Occurs:
■ When chlorine and bromine atoms come into contact
with ozone in the stratosphere, they destroy ozone
molecules. One chlorine atom can destroy over
100,000 ozone molecules before it is removed from
the stratosphere.
Environment Education 509
■ Some compounds release chlorine or bromine when
they are exposed to intense UV light in the
stratosphere these compounds contribute to ozone
depletion and are called ozone depleting substances
(ODS).
■ ODS that release chlorine include chlorofluorocarbons
(CFCs), Hydrochlorofluorocabon (HCFCs), carbon
tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform.
■ The ODS are emitted at the earth's surface, they are
eventually carried into the stratosphere.
■ The natural process, such as large volcanic eruptions,
can have an indirect effect on ozone levels, with the
production of tiny particles called Aerosols.
■ These aerosols increase chlorine's effectiveness at
destroying ozone. The aerosols in the stratosphere
create a surface an which CFC-based chlorine can
destroy ozone. The effect from volcanoes is short
lived.
■ This severe depletion creates the so-called ozone
hole that can be seen in image of Antarctic ozone,
made using satellite observations.
■ Although ozone losses are less radical in the
Northern Hemisphere, significant thinning of the
Hemisphere, significant thinning of the ozone layer is
also observed over the Arctic and even over
continental Europe.
Effect:–
■ Effect an human health→ Ozone layer depletion
increases the amount of UVB that reaches the Earth's
surface. Laboratory and epidemiological studies
demonstrate that UVB causes non-melanoma skin
cancer and plays major role in malignant melanoma
development. In addition, UVB has been linked to
the development of cataracts, a clouding.
■ Effects on environment→ When plants come in
direct contact with UVB rays it affects the photo
synthesis rate, growth, and flowering of a plant. The
whole first also effect if it gets direct exposure to UV
rays.
■ Effect on marine ecosystem→ Planktons are the
most abundant food present in the aquatic ecosystem
food chain. UVB rays directly affected the plankton
which affects the aquatic food chain directly.
■ Exposure to solar UVB radiation has been shown to
affect both orientation and motility in phytoplankton
resulting in reduced survival rates for these
organisms.
■ Scientists have demonstrated a direct reduction in
phytoplankton production due to ozone depletion
related increases in UVB.
■ UVB radiation has been found to cause damage to
early development stages of fish, shrimp, crab,
amphibians, and other marine animals.
■ The most severe effects are decreased reproductive
capacity and impaired larval development.
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 Effect on Biochemical cycle:–
■ Increases in UVB radiation could affect terrestrial
and aquatic biogeochemical cycles, thus altering both
sources and sinks of green house and chemically
important trace gases.
■ These potential changes would contribute to
biosphere-atmosphere feedbacks that mitigate or
amplify the atmospheric concentrations of these
gases.
Control of ozone layer Depletion:–
■ Buy air-conditioning and refrigeration equipment that
do not use HCFCs as refrigerant.
■ Every individual can help reduce ozone layer
depletion by taking public transportation, buying
recycled products, conserving electricity, etc.
■ Spreading public awareness about the causes,
impacts, and controlling measures of ozone layer
depletion.
■ Buy aerosol products that do not use HCFCs or CFCs
as propellants.
■ Conduct regular inspection and maintenance of air
conditioning and refrigeration appliances to prevent
and minimize refrigerant leakage.
■ When motor vehicle air conditioners need servicing,
make sure that the refrigerants are properly recovered
and recycled instead of being vented to the
atmosphere.
Ozone protection→ World governments agreed in
the late 1980s to protect the earth's ozone layer by
phasing out ozone-depleting substances emitted by
human activities.
International efforts:-
The Montreal protocol:– In 1987, to address the
destruction of the ozone layer, the international
communities established the Montreal protocol on
ozone depleting substance.
■ It was the first international treaty to be signed by all
countries of the world and is considered the greatest
environmental united nations.
■ The Montreal protocol's objective is to cut down the
depleting substances, in order to reduce their
presence in the atmosphere and thus protect the
earth's ozone layer.
■ Under the original protocol agreement (1987),
developed country were required to begin phasing out
CFCs in 1993 and active 20% reduction relative to
1986 consumption levels by 1994 and 50% reduction
by 1998.
■ Additionally, developed countries were required to
freeze their production and consumption of halons
relative to their 1986 levels.
■ Further, the parties to the Montreal protocol have
amended the protocol to the enable.
■ The control of new chemical and the creation of a
financial mechanism to enable developing countries
to comply.
Environment Education 510
Amendments to the Montreal protocol:–
■ The London Amendment (1990)→ Changed the
ODS emission schedule be requiring the complete
phaseout of CFCs, halons, and carbon tetrachloride
2000 in developed countries and by 2010 in
developing countries.
■ Methyl chloroform was also added to the list of
controlled ODSs, with phaseout in developed
countries targeted in 2005, and in 2015 for
developing countries.
■ The Copenhagen Amendment (1992)→ Significantly
accelerated the phaseout of ODSs and incorporated an
hydrochlorofluorocorbons (HCFC) phaseout for
developed countries, beginning in 2004. Under this
agreement, CFCs, halons, carbon tetrachloride, and
methyl chloroform were targeted for complete phaseout
in 1996 in developed countries. Methyl bromide
consumption of methyl bromide was capped at 1991
levels.
■ The Montreal Amendment (1997)→ The phase-out
of HCFCs in developing countries, as well as the
phase-out of methyl bromide in developed and
developing countries in 2005 and 2015, respectively.
■ The Beijing Amendment→ Include tightened
controls on the production and trade of HCFCs.
Bromochloromethane was added to the list of
controlled substances with phase-out targeted for
2004.
■ The Kigali Amendment (2016)→ Extended control
to phase down the production and consumption of
hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) because these substances
were adopted by industries in moving away from
ozone depleting substances and they are potent green
house gases damaging to the earth's climate.
■ The Vienna Convention→
■ Adopted in 1985, the Vienna convention for the
protection of the ozone layer is the precursor to the
Montreal protocol.
■ The Vienna Convention did not required countries to
take concrete actions to control ozone depleting
substances.
■ In accordance with the provisions of the convention,
the countries of the world agreed the Montreal
protocol an substances that deplete the ozone layer
under the convention, to advance that goal.
Ozone protection : India:– The government of India
has entrusted the work relating to the ozone layer
protection and implementation of the Montreal
protocol on substances the ozone layer to the ministry
of Environment, Forest and climate change (MoEF&
CC)
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■ The ministry has established an Empowered steering
committee (ESC) chaired by secretary (EF & CC)
which is supported by two standing committee viz.
Technology and finance standing committee (TFSC).
■ The ministry has set up on ozone cell as a National
ozone unite (NOU) to render necessary services for
effective and timely implementation of the Montreal
protocol and its ODS phase out program in India.
■ India has prepared a detailed country program (CP)
in 1993 for the phase-out of ODSs.
India had proactively phased out the production and
consumption of CFCs except use in metered dose
inhalers (MDIs) used for treatment of Asthma and
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
ailments for 1st August 2008.
■ India has also completely phased out production and
consumption of CTC and halons as of 1st January
2010.
■ HCFC phase-out management plan (HPMP) – stage-
1st.
→ Foam manufacturing sector.
→ Refrigeration and Air-conditioning servicing sector.
■ HCFC phase-out management plan (HPMP)- stage
IInd.
■ In India, nearly 50% of the consumption of ozone
depleting chemicals in the country was attributable to
HCFC-14lb in the foam sector.
■ In the year 2020, India has successfully achieved the
complete phase-out of Hydrochlorofluorocarbon
(HCFC)–14lb.

Previous Years Question

1. Which of the following classes of chemicals can
damage the ozone layer
(a) Antimicrobials
(b) Aromatic compounds
(c) Phenols
(d) Chlorofluorocarbons
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (d) Chlorofluorocarbon is responsible for the
depletion of the ozone layer. The ozone layer is a thin 4.
layer of the atmosphere, which resides in the
stratosphere. Ozone gas protects from ultraviolet rays.
2. Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is
a product of ......... molecule.
(a) UV radiation acting on Nitrogen
(b) UV radiation acting on Hydrogen
(c) UV radiation acting on Oxygen
(d) UV radiation acting on Helium
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (c) : Ozone present in the higher levels of the
atmosphere is the product of the effect of ultraviolet
(UV) radiation on oxygen. The product of reaction of
ultraviolet radiations with O2 molecule is ozone present
in the stratosphere. Ultraviolet radiation disintegrates
molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms. These
oxygen atoms combine with molecular oxygen to form
ozone.
UV
5.
O 2 ( g ) → O(g) + O (g)
O ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) ⇌ O3 ( g )
(Ozone gas)
3. The level of ozone in the stratosphere is
regulated naturally by-
RRB Bangalore (Technical), 22.08.1999
Environment Education 511
(a) By Nitrous oxide
(b) By Nitrogen dioxide
(c) By CFC
(d) By water vapor
Ans. (b) : The level of ozone in the stratosphere is
naturally regulated by nitrogen dioxide. While nitrous
oxide, CFC and water vapor is mainly responsible for
the depletion of the ozone layer.
Which of the following is a unit for measuring the
thickness of the ozone layer of the atmosphere?
RRB Bhopal (Technical), 21.11.1999
(a) Not (b) Dobson
(c) Pows (d) Maxwell
Ans. (b) : Measuring the thickness of the ozone layer
in the atmosphere by dobson unit. one dobson unit
being equivalent to a layer of pure ozone 0.01mm thick
at standard temperature and pressure.
• Ozone gas is a counterpart of oxygen. It is found in
less quantity in the atmosphere at higher altitudes. It
absorbs some of the strong ultraviolet radiation coming
from the sun.
• Apart from gases, water vapor and dust particles are
also present in the atmosphere. Ozone gas is found in
the stratosphere. The altitude temperature of this
region increases at the rate of 5ºC per km.
The ozone layer present in the atmosphere
absorbs-
RRB Bhubaneshwar (Technical), 03.06.2001
(a) Cosmic rays
(b) Infrared rays
(c) Ultraviolet rays
(d) All radiations
YCT
 Ans. (c): The stratosphere is located above the 8. Where are the ozone hole most pronounced?
troposphere. Its height is 50km from the ground Till RRB Bangalore Technical (Engineering),
then. In the lower part of this division i.e. 20km. the 22.04.2007
temperature increases gradually with increasing height. (a) Equator
The reason for this is that ozone gas is present here (b) Tropic of cancer
which absorbs the ultraviolet rays of the sun. Ozone
(c) Capricorn
(O3) is a gas made of three atoms of oxygen whereas
(d) Poles
ordinary oxygen is made up of two atoms. 20km to 35
km from the density of ozone layer is high 4P to the Ans. (d) : Due to extreme dryness in the stratosphere
height of, hence it is also called ozone layer, Due to located at the poles, the formation of clouds is relatively
halogenated gases like Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC). less here as compared to the equator. Polar clouds, apart
This division has suffered a lot. Speed of air in this from being made up of water and nitric acid, provide a
ozone is horizontal. surface for ice and ozone dissolution on these clouds, as
well as activate in active Cl2. As a result, ozone
6. Montreal protocol protects which of the following depletion accelerates at the poles.
Related ?
9. Which of the following teams of scientists first
RRB Secunderabad Technician-III(Electrical) , discovered the ozone hole over Antarctica?
11.12.2005 RRB Secundreabad Technical (Engineering),
(a) Green house gases 20.05.2007
(b) Acid rain (a) Russian team
(c) Ozone layer (b) German team
(d) Endangered species (c) American team
Ans. (c) : Under the direction of the united Nations, 33 (d) The British team
countries signed an agreement in Montreal (Canada) Ans. (d) : British scientists named Joseph Farman,
on September 16, 1987 to resolved the problem arising Brian Gardiner and Jonathan Shanklin first discovered
from the ozone hole. This was the first International the ozone hole over Antarctica.
agreement for ozone protection. It was decided in this 10. In whose Industrial production, ozone depleting
conference. That the production and use of gases are not emitted?
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), which destroy ozone, RRB Patna Technical Exam, 27.07.2008
should be limited. Developing countries are facing
(a) Perfume
serious problems related to ozone layer depleting CFC
arrangements were made to provide International loans (b) Body spray
to develop alternatives to chemicals and ozone (c) Foam mattresses
compatible technologies 16 September is celebrated as (d) Modern refrigerator
ozone day.
Ans. (d) : Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC), a chemical
7. The formation of ozone hole is mostly- substance, damages the ozone layer. It is emitted from
RRB Kolkata (Technician-III), 20.08.2006 refrigerators, foams, perfumes, body sprays etc. Foam
(a) Over India in a natural substance. Modern refrigerators do not
(b) Over Africa emit ozone depleting gases.
(c) Over Antarctica 11. 'Ozone layer preservation Day' is celebrated?
(d) Over Europe RRB Asst. Locopilot (Mumbai) 2001
Ans. (c) : Ozone (O3) is a gas formed from three atoms (a) 16 September
of oxygen, which is found in very small quantity (b) 5 June
(0.02%) in the atmosphere. The main man-made (c) 23 March
causes of ozone layer depletion are chlorofluorocarbon (d) 21 April
(CFC) compounds, excess amount of halogens
chlorine, fluorine, bromine and nitrogen oxides in the Ans. (a) : Ozone layer preservation Day- 16
atmosphere. There chemicals react with the ozone gas September, world environment Day- 5 June, Martyrs
of the ozone layer and decompose the ozone in the day (Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, Rajguru) -23 march, civil
oxygen, which causes ozone layer depletion. These service day-21 April.
chemical groups are mainly responsible for the 12. What does the ozone layer protect the Earth
creation of the 'ozone hole' which is maximum over from?
Antarctica. RRB Asst. Locopilot (Secunderabad) Paper-2001
Environment Education 512 YCT
 (a) Meteorite
(b) Space and other radiation
(c) Harmful air
(d) Space debris
Ans. (b) : Ozone gas is found in the stratosphere,
which is called ozone layer.
• The ozone layer primarily protects the Earth from
harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun by
absorbing a significant portion of it, preventing it from
reaching the earth's surface. The radiation can cause
various health issues and harm to the environment. It
does not protect against meteorites, harmful air, or
space debris.
13. The ozone layer in the Earth's atmosphere is
important for living organisms because it-
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Kolkata)
Paper-2002
(a) Prevent the entry of ultraviolet rays
(b) Prevents the entry of X-rays.
(c) Maintains the oxygen level on Earth.
(d) Prevents acid rain on Earth
Ans. (a) : The ozone layer in the earth's atmosphere in
important for living organisms because it prevents the
entry of ultraviolet rays. It is noteworthy that the ozone
layer is located in the stratosphere of the atmosphere.
CFC gas is fatal for the ozone layer.
14. Which one of the following in responsible for
the formation of 'ozone holes' in the
stratosphere?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bangalore, Gorakhpur)
Paper-2002
RRB Chennai Technician (Engineering)
15.04.2007
(a) Benzopyrine
(b) Hydrocarbon
(c) Chlorofluorocarbon
(d) UV radiation
Ans. (c) : The main factor in the formation of 'ozone
hole' in the stratosphere is chlorine (Cl). It produces
chlorofluorocarbon (CFC), hydrofluorocarbon (HFC),
halogens, carbon tetrachloride, It is caused by chemicals
like methyl chloroform and methyl bromide. According
to scientists, one molecule of chlorine can break
millions of molecules. The problem of hole in the ozone
layer has arises due to refrigerator, air conditioning
scanners, atmospherically emitted nitrogen oxides etc.
To stop the growing hole in the ozone layer, an in
International conference was organized in Montreal
(Canada) in 1987. Still, proper success has not been
achieved in this field yet. The problem is becoming
more serious. Blindness of sheep in Chile, extinction of
plankton grass in Antarctica, etc is the effect of ozone
hole.
Environment Education 513
15. Which of the following is the emission source of
possible formation of surface ozone as a
pollutant?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Mumbai, Bhopal)
Paper-2003
(a) Transport sector
(b) Refrigeration and air conditioning
(c) Wetlands
(d) Fertilizer
Ans. (b) : Possible formation of surface ozone as a
pollutant (Eventual Formation) is the emission source.
The gases used as refrigerant in refrigerators and air
conditioners are aerosol sprays, foaming agents etc.
chlorofluorocarbons whose trade name is Freon. It is a
major ozone depleting gas.
16. Which is the source of chlorofluoro carbons?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ranchi) Paper-2003
(a) Thermal power plant
(b) Automatic vehicle
(c) Refrigeration and air conditioning
(d) Fertilizer
Ans. (c) : Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)- These are
chlorine, fluorine and carbon is a simple compound of
elements. Spanks, air conditioners, refrigerators, foam,
plastics, fire extinguishers (halogen gas) and cosmetics.
Due to emission of CFC from materials etc and their
reaching into the atmosphere, depletion of stratospheric
ozone gas and layer starts. As a result, the ultraviolet
rays of the sun start reaching the earth's surface in large
quantities, due to which the temperature increases. Due
to this, many types of environmental changes start
occurring and the chances of skin cancer increases in
fair skinned people.
17. What produces surface ozone?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Chandigarh) Paper-2003
(a) Transport sector
(b) Cement plant
(c) Textile Industry
(d) Chemical industry
Ans. (a) : Ozone layer- Ozone layer is a layer of the
Earth's atmosphere in which the concentration of
ozone gas is relatively high. It is represented by the
symbol O3. This layer absorbs 93-99 percent of the
sun's light- frequency ultraviolet light, which is
harmful to life on Earth more than 91 percent of ozone
in the Earth's atmosphere is present here. The main
sources of man-made emissions of O3 are
transportation and Industry.
• It occurs mainly in the lower part of the stratosphere,
about 10 km above the Earth's surface 50km from
although its thickness varies depending on the season
and geography.
• The ozone layer was discovered in 1913 by French
physicists Charles Fabry and Henri Buisson. Its
properties were studies in detail by British.
YCT

6.12 Forest, wildlife and its
conservations
Forest :-
A forest can be defined as a region with a high
density of trees.
Forest is the habitat for a variety of living being
including plants, animals and micro-organisms.
Forest Biome - Forest can be divided into 5 main
categories, depending an the types of tress found
in them.
(1) Coniferous Forest :- As the name suggests, the
trees found in these forests mainly consists of
cone bearing trees like the space, pine, fir and
hemlock. These are found mostly in the North
America, Asia and Europe.
(2) Deciduous Forest : - The trees of forests are
broadleaved and are shed between late summer to
early autumn. The leaves are usually green but
later acquires yellow, red and orange colors
gradually. These forest found in America, Western
and Central Europe, and Northeast Asia where the
winters are cold and summers are warm.
(3) Mixed Forest : - Deciduous and coniferous trees
as both types constitute mixed forests, which are
mostly found in mountainous areas. These are
found almost every part of the world.
(4) Mediterranean Forests :- They are also called
scrublands as its temperature is suitable for short
oaks and pines to grow. The Mediterranean forest
contains a wide variety of wild flowers and insect-
eating birds. This forest is also termed as
"Maquis".
(5) Tropical Rainforest :- These forests are situated
in the areas with not temperatures like South
America, Africa, Asia and Australia. Thus they
are called tropical and due to continuous rainfall
throughout the year, they are called Rainforests. It
is a habitat for various insects, colorful birds and
mammals.
Importance of forests :-
• Forest cover third of the Earths landmass.
• Forest perform vital functions around the world.
• Around 1.6 billion people-including more than
2,000 indigenous cultures depend on forests for
their livelihood.
• Forest are the most biologically-diverse
ecosystems on land.
• Forest are home to more than 80% of the
terrestrial species of animals, plants and insects.
• Forest provide shelter, jobs and security for
forest dependent communities.
• Forest play key role in our battle in adapting to
and mitigating climate change.
Environment Education 514
• Forest contribute to the balance of oxygen,
carbon dioxide and humidity in the air.
• Forests protect watersheds, which supply 75%
of freshwater worldwide.
• Forest provide priceless ecological, economic,
social and health benefits.
Function of forest:-
• It performs very important function 60th to human
and to nature.
• They are habitat to millions of plants, animals and
wild life.
• They recycle rain water.
• They remove pollutants from air.
• They control water quality.
• They moderate temperature and prevent soil
erosion.
Use of forest:-
• Commercial uses
• Ecological uses
Commercial uses:-
• Wood-used as fuel.
• Supply wood for various industries- Raw
materials as pulp, furniture timber etc.
• Many plants-medicines.
• Minor forest products- gum, dyes, resins.
• Supply variety of animal products - Honey, Ivory,
horns etc.
• Many forest lands are used for - Mining, grazing,
for dams and recreation.
Ecological use:- Forest provides number of
environmental services.
• Production of Oxygen:- Photosynthesis produces
large amount of oxygen which is essential for life.
• Reducing global warming:- Carbon dioxide is
one of the main greenhouse gases. It is absorbed
by plant for photosynthesis. Therefore, the
problem of global warming caused by CO2 is
reduced.
• Soil conservation:- Roots of trees bind the soil
tightly and prevent soil erosion, they also act as
wind breaks.
• Regulation of hydrological cycle:- Watershed in
forest act like giant sponges and slowly release the
water for recharge of spring.
• Pollution moderators:- Forest can absorb many
toxic gases and noises and help in preventing air
and noise pollution.
• Wild life habitat:- Forest is the home of millions
of wild animals and plants.
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• Soil-improvement:- The fertility of the soil •
increases due to the humus which is formed by the
• Forest management and sustainable growth.
decay of forest litter.
• Control of climate:- Transpiration of plants
increases the atmospheric humidity which affects
rainfall and cools the atmosphere.
Deficiency of forest:- In India the minimum area
of forest required to maintain good ecological
balance is about 33% of total area. But present it
is only about 12% so over exploitation of forest
material occurs.
Deforestation :- Deforestation can be defined as
the large-scale removal of tress from forests for
the facilitation of human activities.
Consequences of deforestation:-
• Economic loss
• Destructs the habitat of various species.
• Increases the rate of global warming.
• Degradation of soil and acceleration of the rate of
soil erosion.
• Break the nutrient cycle.
• It is serious environmental concern since it can
result in the loss of biodiversity. • Maintain Balance in the conservation :- On
• Damage to natural habitats.
• Disturbances in the water cycle.
• Increase in temperature and pollution level.
• Increase in the greenhouse gases in
atmosphere.
• Deforestation causes imbalance of O2 and CO2 in
the atmosphere.
Conservation of Forest :- Knowing all these •
things get to know how important forests are in
our life. The depletion in the green cover of the
earth's surface needs to be controlled,
deforestation needs to be reduced. Let us figure
out some ways by which we can conserve the
forest-
• Education and awareness programs must be
conducted. • The governments of different countries form
• Steps should be taken by the government to
discourage the migration of people into islands
from mainland. • They also ensure immediate actions if anyone
• Strict implementation of law of
conservation Act.
• Regulated and planned deforestation.
• Reforestation.
• Control on forest fires.
Environment Education
Proper utilization of forest products.
Wild Life :- They animals that grow or live in the
wild without any human interference are also
known as wildlife.
Animals who live in a wild environment can be
called wild animals, which are also referred to as
"wildlife" in the modern world.
Example - Fox, Eagles, Bull, Bear, Crocodile,
Wild cat, Tiger, Snakes etc.
Wildlife conservation :- Wildlife conservation
can be defined as preventing wildlife from uneven
killing and poaching.
• Wildlife conservation is very important to
maintain the food chain and ecosystem balance.
• If all tigers get hunted for skins, then the court of
deer's increases drastically.
• Along with this, if humans kill all the hens for
meat, then there would be no source of eggs. So
wildlife conservation is necessary to maintain the
population of animals on Earth to maintain their
role in the ecosystem and food chain.
Importance of wildlife conservation :-
earth, all living beings are interconnected to each
other. Whether a lion or a human, every organism
plays a significant role in the ecosystem. Wildlife
conservation aims to maintain this interconnected
ecosystem between different species.
the
• Maintain Natural Habitat :- Along with
protecting animals the maintenance of natural
habitat is the secondary goal of wildlife
conservation.
Maintains The Food Chain :- In the food chain,
all living organisms are interrelated. If any single
organism is removed from the food chain, it will
disrupt the food chain.
Steps for promoting wildlife conservation :-
The different measures taken for promoting
wildlife conservation.
different laws for restricting the hunting of
animals.
attempts such on act.
forest
• Many natural Sanctuaries are built to preserve
natural parks and sanctuaries provide habitats to
endangered animals breed.
• Wildlife conservation protects natural habitats
from pollution and other human activities.
515 YCT
• Pollution may a ruin the natural environment of • Periyar National Park, kerala.
animals.
• Jim Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand.
• The governments of many countries prohibited
• Bandhavgarh National Park Madhya Pradesh.
industrial work near the forest.
• Manas Wildlife sanctuary, Assam.
• Government of many countries have restricted or
even banned hunting. Total Wildlife Centauries in India :- There are 567
existing wildlife sanctuaries in India covering an a
Wildlife Sanctuaries :- Wildlife sanctuaries are
area of 122,564.86 km2, which is 3.73% of the
areas where endangered animals are kept so as net
geographical area of the country. Another 218
to get extinct. In these areas, any human
sanctuaries are proposed in the protected area
interference is prohibited. They play a major role
network report covering an area of 16,829 km2.
in wildlife conservations.
Top Wildlife Sanctuaries in the world :-
Importance of wildlife sanctuaries :- Wildlife
sanctuaries provide a natural habitat for animals to • Lone Pine Koala sanctuary, Australia for
breed easily. In this way, they help protect the preserving Kangaroos, platypus, and birds.
planet's natural environment. Endangered animals • Serengeti National Park, Tanzania for wildebeets,
like giant panda, tigers, whooping, cranes, Asian zebras and gazelles.
elephant and so forth live in these wildlife
sanctuaries. • Noah's Ark, USA : for preserving bears tigers and
lions.
The some wildlife sanctuaries in India :-
• Northeast Greenland National park (The
• Ranthambore National park, Rajasthan, (largest
worldbiggest wildlife sanctuary).
National park)
• Komodo National Park Indonesia famous for the
• Kaziranga National Park, Assam.
world's largest lizard.

Previous Years Question

1. The minimum recommended land area for forest reason is the conversion of forests and pasture areas
cover to maintain appropriate ecological balance into agricultural land. Increasing industrialization and
in India is- urbanization are other reasons.
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ranchi) Paper-2003 3. Which of the following is related to the
(a) 25% (b) 33% preservation of environmental balance?
(c) 43% (d) 53% (1) Forest policy
Ans. (b) : According to the new forest policy of 1988, it (2) Environment (protection)Act, 1986
is necessary to have 33% forest on the land to maintain (3) Industrial policy
the above mentioned ecological balance in India.
According to the Indian state forest Report (ISFR)-2019 (4) Education policy
reveals that indi's forest cover is 24.56% of the land
Select the correct answer using the code give
mass.
below:
2. The main reason for forest degradation is-
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Trivandrum)
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ajmer) Paper-2004
Paper-2004
(a) Development of roads
Code :
(b) River valley projects
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Industrial development
(d) Agricultural development (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All four

Ans. (d) : Due to the increasing pressure of human Ans. (d) : Forest policy and Environment protection
population on natural resources in the last two Act, 1986 are directly related to environment balance,
centuries, there has been rapid destruction of forests. while Industrial policy and education policy of view of
There are considered to be 8 reason for this. The main environment balance. Thus all four are correct.

Environment Education 516 YCT

4. When was the forest conservation Act passed in 8.
India?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ajmer) Paper-2004
(a) 1978 (b) 1979
(c) 1980 (d) 1981
Ans. (c) : The central Government has passed the
forest conservation Act in 1980 and implemented it,
according to which no forest land can be converted
into agricultural land without the permission of the
government.
5. Soil erosion can be prevented by
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ahmedabad) Paper-2004
(a) Due to heavy rain
(b) Destruction of forests
(c) Through afforestation
(d) Trespassing
Ans. (c) : Planting trees, growing vegetation,
especially bushes with deep roots, preventing animals
from grazing, building small dams on rivers, crop
rotation, restricting shifting cultivation, crop plowing
in sloping areas, hilly areas. Soil erosion can be
prevented by terraced forming, plowing at right angles
to the wind direction etc.
6. Which one of the following does not help in
maintaining ecological balance?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Kolkata) Paper-2005 10. Kaziranga is famous for what?
(a) Cutting of forests
(b) Afforestation
(c) Rain water management
(d) Biosphere Reserve
Ans. (a) : Afforestation, rainfall, water management
and conservation of biosphere reserves are helpful in
maintaining the balance of the environment, but
cutting of forests is not at all acceptable in this context.
7. Sagarmatha National park has been established
to conserve the ecosystem of which mountain
peak?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Mumbai) Paper-2005
(a) Kangchenjunga
(b) Mount Everest
(c) Annapurna
(d) Dholavira
Ans. (b) : Sagarmatha National park is located in Solu
Khumbu district (Nepal) on Mount Everest. Its area is
124,4000 hectares. It was included in the list of world
Heritage sites by UNESCO in 1979.
Environment Education
Most of the wildlife protected areas of India are
surrounded by-
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ajmer) Paper-2005
(a) From dense forests
(b) From river and lakes
(c) From human settlements
(d) From mountains and hills
Ans. (a) : Most of the wildlife protected areas in India
are surrounded by dense forests. These areas are
strategically located within or near dense forest regions
to provide a natural habitat and sanctuary for various
wildlife species. The dense forests offer essential
cover, resources and protection for the animals,
helping to preserve India’s rich biodiversity and
promote conservation efforts.
9. The one-horned rhinoceros is found in the following
states-
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ranchi) Paper-2005
(a) Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura
(b) West Bengal and Assam
(c) Arunachal Pradesh and Assam
(d) West Bengal and Tripura
Ans. (b) : The one-horned rhinoceros is found in the
state of Assam (Kaziranga and manas sanctuary) and
West Bengal.
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Guwahati) Paper-2006
(a) Rhino ceros (b) Tiger
(c) Bird (d) Lion
Ans. (a) : Kaziranga National park located in Assam.
That is famous for Rhinoceros. One-horned rhinoceros,
wild boar and buffalo are found in Kaziranga National
park. Tiger reserves include Sariska, Kanha, Dudhwa,
Corbett, Simlipal, Pilibhit etc.
11. Symbol of world wildlife fund.
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Mumbai) Paper-2006
(a) Polar bear
(b) White bear
(c) Red panda
(d) Cheetah
Ans. (c) : The Red panda is the symbol of the world
wildlife fund. The world wildlife fund was established
in the year 1961 as a subsidiary organization in
Switzer land. This organization monitors the care of
wildlife at the international level and provides
financial assistance of various countries and agencies
in meeting their maintenance standards.
517 YCT
12. Giant panda is the mascot of which of the 16. Which one of the following is not a tiger reserve
following famous organizations? project in India?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Malda) Paper-2006
(a) World wildlife fund or world wide fund for
Nature (WWF)
(b) International union for conservation of Nature
and natural Resources (IUCN)
(c) United Nations Education, Science and Culture
organization (UNESCO)
(d) United Nations Environment Program (UNEP)
Ans. (a) : The giant panda is the mascot of the world
wildlife fund or world wide fund for nature (WWF).
The headquarter of WWF is located in Gland
(Switzerland). It was established on 29 April 1961.
13. Which of the following is the highest altitude zoo
in the world?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Patna) Paper-2007
(a) Shayann mountain zoo
(b) Pandit G.B.Pant High Tungta zoo
(c) Himalayan Zoological parks, Gangtok
(d) Padmaja Naidu Himalayan zoo
Ans. (d) : Padmaja Naidu Himalayan zoological park is
located in Darjeeling (West Bengal). It is the highest
zoo in India at 7153 feet (2150 meters). Pandit G.B
Pant High Tungta zoo is located in Nainital
(Uttarakhand). The Himalayan zoological park (2100m)
(6800 feet) is located in Gangtok (Sikkim). The
Shayann Mountain zoo is located in Kolairedy
(Cheyenoe) USA. It's height is 2100 meters (6800 feet).
14. International 'Tiger Day' is celebrated on-
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bangalore) Paper-2007
(a) 24th July (b) 29th July
(c) 20th July (d) 25th July
Ans. (b) : International Tiger day is celebrated on 29th
July. The Tiger conference held in Saint petersburg
(Russia) in 2010, it was decided to celebrate
International Tiger day every year on 29th July.
15. Indian wildlife institute is located at-
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Ranchi) Paper-2007
(a) New Delhi (b) Shimal
(c) Dehradun (d) Bhopal
Ans. (c) : Indian wildlife institute is situated in
Dehradun (Uttarakhand state). It is known that the
work of wildlife research in India is done by the above
Mentioned Institute and Salim Ali center for
ornithology and Natural History, Coimbatore (Tamil
Nadu).
Environment Education
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Secunderabad) Paper-2008
(a) Dudhwa (b) Chilka
(c) Kanha (d) Manas
Ans. (b) : Chilika Lake is the largest brackish water
lagoon in Asia and second largest coastal lagoon in the
world, spread over the Puri, Khordha and Ganjam
Districts of Odisha State on the east coast of India, at
the mouth of the Daya River, flowing into the Bay of
Bengal, Covering an area of over 1100 square
kilometers.
17. World wildlife Day is celebrated on-
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Chandigarh) Paper-2008
(a) 3rd March (b) 22thMarch
(c) 28 th March (d) 7 th April
Ans. (a) : 3rd March is celebrated as world wildlife
day. While March 22ts is celebrated as world water day
and April 7ts as world Health day.
18. Where among the following is a protected
mangrove area?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Muzaffarpur) Paper-2009
(a) Eastern Ghat (b) Western Ghat
(c) Goa (d) Chandra tal
Ans. (c) : An extensive mangrove area of 178 hectares
in Goa has been declared a protected area under the
Indian forest Act, 1927. Mangroves are forests that
growing in the saline water of beaches in tropical and
sub-tropical areas, which, along with being protectors
of biodiversity, act as an important link between the
sea and the coast and protect the coast from strong
waves.
19. Where was the 3rd Turtle festival organized in
February 2015 to create awareness among the
Public about the endangered species of turtles?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Gorakhpur) Paper-2009
(a) Hajong Lake, Assam
(b) Chilka Lake, Odisha
(c) Loktak Lake, Manipur
(d) Umiam Lake, Meghalaya
Ans. (a) : In February 2015, the 3rd Turtle festival was
organized at Hajong Lake in Assam to create
awareness among the public about the endangered
species of turtles.
518 YCT
20. Which one of the following is correct?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bhopal) Paper-2010
(a) Gundi National Park is known for Tiger
Reserve.
(b) Nadfa National park is for the conservation of
lions.
(c) Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve
(d) The Rann of kutch is a wild donkey sanctuary
Ans. (d) : Namdapha (Nadfa) National park is a Tiger
Reserve located in Arunachal Pradesh, arrangements
have been made for the protection of tigers. Gir is said
to be the home of Asiatic lions. Gundi National park is
located in Tamil Nadu which is not included in the
Tiger Reserve. JaldaPara national Park is located in
West Bengal. This is not biosphere reserve. The Rann
of Kutch is a wild donkey sanctuary.
21. Which one of the following is the main them of
Chipko movement started by Sunderlal
Bahuguna in 1973?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Chennai) Paper-2015
(a) Conservation of river-water
(b) Conservation of birds
(c) Conservation of cheetahs
(d) Conservation of forests
Ans. (d) : The main theme of the Chipko movement
started by Sunderlal Bahuguna in 1973 is the
conservation of forests. A similar movement is active in
South India, whose name is APPIKO movement. Which
was led by Pandurang Hegde.
22. Plantation of which of the following types of trees
is encouraged in Social forestry?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Jammu and Kashmir)
Paper-2010
(a) Fruit producer
(b) Fodder producer
(c) Fuel producer
(d) Multipurpose ones
Ans. (d) : Social forestry is afforestation on the land percentage of land under forests is 88.93% in
of society by the society for the society, National
Agriculture commission started social forestry scheme
in 1976. Which has the following objectives-
1. Expanding the area of greenery and maintaining 27. What type of forests are 'Sundarbans'?
ecological balance.
2. Production of eucalyptus for firewood and acacia
for fodder.
3. Syjan and rayon for paper and pulp.
4. Arjun trees for matchbox industry.
5. Mulberry for silk and comi for oil.
Environment Education
23. Which of the following drugs has been recently
reported responsible for the decline in population
of vultures?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Secunderabad) Paper-2010
(a) Aspirin (b) Chloroquine
(c) Diclofenac sodium (d) Penicillin
Ans. (c) : Diclofenac sodium is used as a pain reliever
for animals. An important reason for the extinction of
vultures in the Indian Subcontinent by the use of
painkiller drug called Diclofenac. The drug controller
general of India has banned the use of this pain
reliever.
24. World's wild animals are founds in India-
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bhubaneswar) Paper-2012
(a) 5 percent (b) 2 percent
(c) 6 percent (d) 4 percent
Ans. (a) : India is one of the 12 most biodiverse
countries in the world. At present there are 105
National parks, 532 wildlife Sanctuaries in India.
Madhya Pradesh has the maximum number of 11
National Parks in India. 5 percent of the world's wild
animals live in India.
25. When was the elephant project started in India?
RRB Asst. Locopilot (Bilaspur) Paper-2012
(a) 1968 (b) 1970
(c) 1992 (d) 1974
Ans. (c) : In1992 the elephant conservation project
was started under the name 'Gajatme'. presently the
project is running in 16 states. The first elephant poject
started in the country is being built in Jharkhand.
26. Which state of India has the highest percentage
of forest land under forests?
RRB Asst. Locopilot/Technician (Ahmedabad)
Paper-2014
(a) Mizoram (b) Meghalaya
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans. (a) : The highest percentage of land under forests
is in Mizoram while the lowest is in Haryana. The
Mizoram, 80.30% in Arunachal Pradesh, 76.76% in
Meghalaya, 26.40% in Himachal Pradesh and 3.58% in
Haryana.
RRB Asst. Locopilot/Technician (Ranchi)
Paper-2014
(a) Tidal forest
(b) Monsoon forest
(c) Tropical ever green forest
(d) Temperate evergreen forest
519 YCT
 Ans. (a): Mangrove vegetation is mainly found in
tropical tidal, marshes, creks, coastal lagoons and back
lakes in India, their maximum extent is found in the
Ganga-Brahmaputra delta. Due to the abundance of
Sundari trees here, it is called sundarbans.
28. The Deodar grows very-
RRB Asst. Locopilot/Technician (Kolkata) Paper-
2014
(a) In Meghalaya
(b) In the Western Ghats
(c) In the Eastern Himalayas
(d) In the western Himalayas
Ans. (d) : Deodar is a tall conical tree with a straight
trunk whose leaves are long and somewhat rounded
and whose wood is strong but light and fragrant. Their
origin is the western Himalayan Mountains and the
Mediterranean region.
29. Of the following, which type of forests is found in
the highest percentage in India? 33.
RRB Asst. Locopilot/Technician (Siliguri) Paper-2014
(a) Tropical deciduous
(b) Savanna and desert vegetation
(c) Equatorial evergreen
(d) Coniferous and pine
Ans. (a) : In India, tropical deciduous or monsoon
forests account for 80 percent of the total forests,
equatorial evergreen forests account for 12 percent,
and conifers and pine trees account for 4 percent.
30. Ebony and mahogany trees are related to:
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002 evergreen forests are found between the altitude range
(a) From angled forests
(b) From deciduous forests
(c) From tropical monsoon forests
(d) From tropical evergreen forests
Ans. (d) : The main trees found in tropical evergreen
forests are Rubber, Mahogany, Ebony, wild mango,
Sal, Nahar, Gurjan, Tulsar, Toon, Palm, Bamboo. Due
to high rainfall, there forests remain evergreen. Due to
competition among trees to get sunlight, the height of Ans. (c) : Tribal women of Lahaul district of Himachal
trees increases by 40-60 meters.
31. Which of the following is not an example of a
polycyclic landscape?
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical Er.,
01.12.2002
(a) Apleshiyan high land (b) Chhotanagpur plateau
(c) Sundarban (d) Macal series
Environment Education
Ans. (d): Due to disruption and innovation in the water
erosion cycle and emplementation of multiple erosion
cycles in a region, the topography of that region
becomes complex by the formation of many new
landforms. This type of topography is called
polycyclic, the main ones among them are
topographic, anomaly, valley within the valley or
multi-storey valley, couplets, elevated plains, undercut
meander, nickpoint.
32. Which one of the following is not a tree of the
Himalayan forests?
RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section Eng.
23.03.2003
(a) Ebony (Abanus) (b) Indian Bhoorj
(c) Sprus (d) White willow
Ans. (a) : Indian Birch (Indian Bhoorj), Sprus, white
Willow, Cinnamon Amush, Dilennia and oak are the
trees of Himalayan forests Ebony is not a tree of the
Himalayan Forests. But it is a tree of western ghats of
India. It is used in furniture, building etc.
In the Eastern Himalayas, Sub-tropical broad-leaf
forests are generally found in-
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG &
Design 11.06.2006
(a) Between 500 to 1000 meters altitude Range
(b) Between 750 to 1000 meters altitude Range
(c) Between 1000 to 2000 meters altitude Range
(d) Between 2000 to 2500 meter altitude Range
Ans. (c) : Sub-tropical broad-leaf forests are found at
an altitude of 1200 to 2400 meters in the region of
125cm rainfall in the Eastern Himalayas. Eastern
Himalayas receive more rainfall then western
Himalayas. In the eastern Himalayas, temperate
of 2000 to 2500 meters.
34. Tribal women of a district of which of the
following states first announced a social boycott
against tree cutters?
RRB Secunderabad Section Engineer (Civil)
29.06.2008
(a) Chhathisgarh (b) Uttarakhand
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
Pradesh announced social boycott against tree cutters.
35. Which is the first country in the world to ban
deforestation?
RRB Thiruvananthpuram Section Eng
(Mechanical) 04.01.2009
(a) New Zealand (b) Germany
(c) Norway (d) Poland
520 YCT
Ans. (c): Norway is the first country in the world to ban
deforestation. Norway is a polar country, To save its
country from pollution, Norway has prohibited
deforestation. Norway are said to be the country of
midnight.
36. The great Indian Bustard, which is an
endangered bird species, is found in which of
the following states of India now a days?
(c) Their ability to adjust the temperature, moisture,
organic matter and reflectivity of earth and air.
(d) Their contribution to the Earth's biodiversity.
Ans. (a) : The major contribution of tropical rain
forests is to biodiversity, carbon absorption and
prevention of global warming. These forests do not
directly contribute to the depletion of the ozone layer.

RRB Chennai Section Engineer, 12.02.2012 40. 'Chipko' movement was first started by:
(a) Haryana (b) Punjab DMRC Electronics Engineering, 21.09.2014
(c) Karnataka (d) Odisha (a) By Arudhanti Roy
Ans. (c) : The Great Indian Bustard (Godavan) is the (b) By Medha Patkar
state bird of Rajasthan. Its scientific name is (Choriotis (c) By Bhatt
Nigriceps) or (Ardeotis Nigriceps). It is found in the
(d) By Sundar Lal Bahgura
desert park Sorsan (Baran) of Jaisalmer and shokalia
area of Ajmer. This bird is very shy and it is its nature Ans. (d) : Sunderlal Bahuguna is the leader of the
to live in dense grass. Jaisalmer's sevan grass is suitable Chipko movement. Due to the Chipko movement, they
for this. The Godavan was declared the state bird in became famous in the world as "Vrikshamitra."
1981. This bird is famous by the nicknames of Sohan
bird and Sharmila bird. The existence of Godavan is 41. Where is the great Indian Sohan bird (Great
currently in danger and only a small number of them are Indian Bustard bird) found?
left. That is, it is on the verge of extinction. The RRB Bhubaneshwar App. Electrical , 19.08.2001
government is trying to protect this animal. Nowadays
this bird is also found in Karnataka state of India. (a) Thar Desert of Rajasthan
(b) Coastal areas of India
37. Which of the following animals has its front
teeth always growing? They keep (c) Malabar Coast
bitting/gnawing on objects to prevent the teeth (d) Delta region
from getting to long.
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Mech.), Ans. (a) : The great Indian Sohan bird is found in the
Thar Desert. This bird is listed as critically endangered
26.02.2012 by the IUCN. Their conservation plan is being run by
(a) Termite (b) Squirrels the Rajasthan government.
(c) Lizard (d) Rat 42. In which state are the largest trees found in the
Ans. (b) : Squirrels keep bitting/grawing on objects to world?
prevent their teeth from getting too long. RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III,
38. Which of the following birds can rotate its neck 20.11.2005
back to a great extent? (a) Equatorial region (b) Temperate region
RRB Jammu Section Eng. (Mech, Elec/Elect. (c) Monsoon region (d) Mediterranean region
/Telecom), 2013
Ans. (a) : The largest trees of the world are found in
(a) Owl (b) Crow the equatorial region. Due to year-round rainfall and
(c) Cuckoo (d) Maina humid climate, the trees here are tall and evergreen.
Ans. (a) : An owl is a night bird with fewer cones and 43. Deforestation in recent decades has resulted in
more rods in the retina. Therefore it can see well at the following:
night but not during the day. its ears become very RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006
sensitive at night.
(a) Soil erosion (b) Landslides
39. Which one of the following is not an issue of
global concern regarding the loss of tropical (c) Loss of biodiversity (d) All of the above
forests? Ans. (d) : Deforestation has caused a lot of damage to
DMRC Civil Engineering, 07.09.2014 the environment. Continuous illegal harvesting for
years has affected human life and has also given rise to
(a) Their ability to absorb chemicals that contribute unbalanced weather cycle. Deforestation is causing
to the depletion of surface ozone soil erosion, landslides, loss of biodiversity and the
(b) Their role in maintaining the balance between amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is also
increasing.
oxygen and carbon of the earth
Environment Education 521 YCT
6.13. Sanctuary and biosphere
reserve
Sanctuary:-
• Sanctuaries are naturally occurring areas that are
meant to protect the endangered species from
hunting, poaching and predation. Here the animals
are not breed for commercial purposes. It provides a
safe, healthy and secured refugee to all the wild
animals.
• A sanctuary is a protected place or area with natural
environment having optimum Conditions and
protection for wild animals.
• A sanctuary is established by notification of the state
Forest Department and can be abolished by similar
procedure.
• In historically, a sanctuary is the holiest of holy
places, in biology, sanctuaries are naturally
occurring areas where endangered living species are
protected from.
Importance of sanctuaries:-
• These sanctuaries help in the conservation of various
species of animals.
• They help in the maintenance of the ecological
balance.
• They help in the protection of the environment.
• They help in the propagation of various species of
animals.
• The wildlife Sanctuaries are established to protect
the endangered species.
Step taken for protection of wildly Sanctuaries:–
• The wildlife of protection Act 1972 with an
amendment in 2006, criminalizes the act of cruelty
towards animals, advocating harsh punishment for
the act of hunting or poaching of animals.
• The Bombay Natural history society started in 1883.
is still actively involved in preservation and
research of wildlife.
• In December, 2005, the National Tiger Conservation
Authority was established to give a new lease of life
to the Tiger Project in India, preserving the
dwindling number of tigers and their ecosystem.
• The modern wildlife sanctuaries are closely guarded
with hi-tech surveillance systems like CCTVs and
intruder alarms.
• The government at both- state and central levels-
have been instrumental in setting up national parks
and wildlife sanctuaries to protect the animals from
any kind of abuse.
Environment Education
Ecotourism:-
Many sanctuaries are involved in ecotourism they
offer accommodation, tour guides, nature walks, etc.
Education and public use:-
• The sanctuaries that are created an public land are
involved in public use along with the conservation
of biodiversity.
Example:- Golf courses, picnic areas, lakes for
boating and swimming.
• That a sanctuary is one of the finest ways of
preserving the endangered species.
Sanctuaries in India:–
• The first sanctuary in the world was established in
1872 in India.
• The wildlife sanctuaries of India are classified as
IUCN category is covered areas. As of February
2023, 567 wildlife Sanctuaries were set up in India
covering 122,564,86 Km2 or 3.73% of the Country's
total land area.
Some names of Indian sanctuary: -
• Kaziranga National Park – Assam
• Manas National Park - Assam (The first sanctuary)
• Panna National Park – Madhya Pradesh.
• Gir Forest National Park – Gujarat.
• Sundarbans National Park – West Bengal.
• Sariska Tiger Reserve - Rajasthan
• Jim Corbett National Park – Uttarakhand
• Kanha National Park – Madhya Pradesh
• Dudhwa National Park – Uttar Pradesh
• Bandipur National Park – Karnataka
• Palamau National Park – Jharkhand
• Hazaribagh National Park – Jharkhand
• Chandraprabha National Park – Uttar Pradesh
• Tumgabhadra National Park – Karnataka
• Ranthambore Sanctuary – Rajasthan
• Chilika National Park – Odisha
• Indira Gandhi National Park – Tamil Nadu
• Kanha Kisli National Park – Madhya Pradesh
• Nagarhole National Park – Karnataka
• Dachigam National Park – Jammu-Kashmir
• Hemis National Park – Jammu-Kashmir
• Dampa Sanctuary – Mizoram
• Ghana National Park – Rajasthan
• Kuno National Park – Madhya Pradesh
• Dalma National Park – Jharkhand
World sanctuary:-
• There are now more than 1600 wildlife sanctuary
and national parks around the world.
• Northeast Greenland National park is the largest of
its kind in the world.
522 YCT
 Biosphere:-
The biosphere is that part of the Earth where living
things thrive and live. The portions or regions where
organisms are found are collectively called the
biosphere thus. It can also be said that the biosphere
is, the sum of all the ecosystems as earth.
The Biosphere Reserve:–
The Biosphere Reserve is a large protected area for
the conservation of wildlife, plant and animal
resource, and traditional tribal life in this area.
• A biosphere reserve contributes to the preservation
of a region's biodiversity and culture.
• The government established rules methods, and
policies to protect and conserve biodiversity, as well
as created protected areas such as wildlife
sanctuaries, national park, biosphere reserves, and so
on.
• Plantation, cultivation, grazing, tree cutting, hunting,
and poaching are all strictly prohibited.
• In India, the government has established 18
Biosphere reserves to protect large areas of natural
habitat. These areas are provided with buffer zones
that are open to certain economic uses. Not only are
the flora and fauna protected, but so are the people
who live in these areas.
• The Man and Biosphere Reserve program identify
Biosphere Reserve to UNESCO launched his
programme in 1971.
• This demonstrates the achievement of a sustainable
balance between natural ecosystem conservation and
biodiversity.
• The most common terrestrial and coastal ecosystem
on the planet.
• That exhibit takes a live approach and works in
harmony with nature.
Importance of Biosphere:-
• Development:- Associating with the reserves will
result in overall economic cultural, and social
growth.
• Restoration:- Any damaged ecosystem and habitats
are repaired properly.
• Land use planning:- Various group of people work
together to find comprehensive land management
solutions.
• Healthy Ecosystems:- Natural problems such as
soil erosion, water springs and soil quality should be
monitored and protected on a regular basis.
Environment Education 523
Education and Research:– Information about
conserving, restoring, and developing ecosystems is
provided, as well as steps to recreate landscapes
affected by human activities.
Man and Biosphere Reserve Programme:-
• The United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP) established the Man and Biosphere Reserve
programme to protect and manage natural forest
reserves around the world.
• Certain areas with natural high forests are
designated as natural biosphere serves under this
programme.
• In areas, free movement is restricted, and various
scientific research programmers are carried out to
learn about and understand the condition of the
reserves rich flora and fauna.
• The following are the goals of the man and
biosphere reserve programme, keep representative
ecosystem samples.
• Provide appropriate long-term management of living
resources.
• Long-term in-situ genetic diversity conservation.
• Encourage international cooperation.
• Make educational and training opportunities
available.
Zone of Biosphere Reserve
The biosphere reserve is differentiated into 3 zones.
Core zone:-
• Human intervention is strictly prohibited in this
legally protected area.
• The data from these areas aids in determining the
sustainability of activity and the preservation of
environmental quality in the surrounding areas.
• It is the most pristine ecosystem on the planet.
• A core zone is a protected regions, like a National
park and sanctuary.
YCT
 Buffer Zone
• The buffer zone is the area Surrounding the core
zone.
• This category also includes activities that aid in the
management of natural vegetation, agricultural land,
fisheries, or forests in order to improve production
quality, which are permitted to reduce its effect on
the core zone.
• Research and educational activities are to be
encouraged.
Transition zone:
• It is the outermost part of the biosphere reserve. It is
the zone of cooperation where human ventures and
conservation are done in harmony.
• It includes settlements, croplands, managed forests
and areas for intensive recreation and other
economic uses characteristics of the region.
• The degraded area is returned to its natural state as a
result of these activities.
Function of Biosphere Reserve:-
Conservation :-
• Along with the wildlife, culture and customs of
tribals are also protected.
• Managing Biosphere Reserve's Genetic resources,
endemic species, ecosystems, and landscapes.
• It may prevent man-animal conflict.
Development :-
• Promoting economic and human growth that is
sustainable on a sociocultural and ecological level. It
seeks to strengthen the three pillars of sustainable
development and protection of the environment.
Logistic Support :-
• Promoting research activities environmental
education, training and monitoring in the context of
local, national and International conservation and
sustainable development.
National program of Biosphere Reserves :-
• The Program of Biosphere Reserve was initiated by
UNISCO in 1971.
• The purpose of the formation of the biosphere
reserve is to conserve in situ all forms of life, along
with its support system, in its totality, so that it could
serve as a referral system for monitoring and
evaluating changes in neutral ecosystems.
• The first biosphere reserve of the world was
established in 1979, since then the network of
biosphere reserve has increased across the world.
Environment Education
There are 18 biosphere Reserves in India:
1. Cold Desert- Himanchal Pradesh
2. Nanda Devi-Uttarakhand
3. Kanchenjunga-Sikkim
4. Dehang-Debang-Arunachal Pradesh
5. Manas -Assam
6. Dibru - Saikhowa - Assam
7. Panna - Madhya Pradesh
8. Nokrek-Meghalaya
9. Achanakmar-Amarkantak - Madhya Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh
10. Kachchh- Gujarat (Largest Area)
11. Similipal-Odisa
12. Sundarban- West Bengal
13. Seshachalam- Andhra Pradesh
14. Agasthyamala-Karnataka-Tamil Nadu-Kerala
15. Nilgiri -Tamil Nadu-Kerala (First to be included)
16. Gulf of Mannar-Tamil Nadu
17. Great Nicobar-Andaman and Nicobar Island
18. Pachmarhi -Madhya Pradesh
International Status of Biosphere Reserve:-
• UNESCO has introduced the designation 'Biosphere
Reserve' for natural areas to minimize conflict
between development and conservation.
• The biosphere reserve are nominated by national
government which meets a minimal set of criteria
under the Man and Biosphere Reserve program of
UNESCO.
• There are currently 738 biosphere reserves in 134
countries, including 22 transboundary sites.
• There are total 12 biosphere reserves of India which
have been recognized internationally under Man and
Biosphere Reserve program:
1. Nilgiri (First to be included)
2. Gulf of Mannar
3. Sunderban
4. Nanda Devi
5. Nokrek
6. Pachmarhi
7. Similipal
8. Achanakmar-Amarkantak
9. Great Nikobar
10. Agasthyamala
11.Kanchenjunga (Added under Man and Biosphere
reserve program in 2018).
12. Panna-Madhya Pradesh (The latest included BR)
524 YCT
 Previous Years Question
1. Recently, some lions were proposed to be shifted 5. Read the list of national parks and the wild
from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which animals kept in them for conservation-
one of the following sites? National Park Wild animals
RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P.Way), 20.02.2000 (A) Bandipur (i) Tiger Sanctuary
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(B) Kaziranga (ii) Elephant Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Sundarban (iii) Single Horned Rhino
(d) Sariska National Park
Sanctuary
Ans. (b) : Recently, the decision to translocate the
endangered Asiatic Lions from their natural habitat in (D) Simlipal (iv) Biosphere and Tiger
Gujarat to Kuno Palpur Sanctuary (Madhya Pradesh) Sanctuaries
was given by the expert committee in March, 2018 for Which one of the following is correctly matched?
the conservation of the endangered Asiatic Lions as the Jaipur Metro Rail , 02.12.2012
conditions there are not suitable for the Asiatic lions as (a) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii)
mentioned above. (b) (A)–(i), (B)–(iii), (C)–(iv), (D)–(ii)
2. Which of the following is an important strategy (c) (A)–(iv), (B)–(i), (C)–(iii), (D)–(ii)
for the conservation of biodiversity?
(d) (A)–(iii), (B)–(i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iv)
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent,
21.11.2004 Ans. (b) :National Park Wild animal
(a) Biosphere (A) Bandipur (Karnataka) Tiger Sanctuary
(b) Botanical Gardens (B) Kaziranga (Assam) Single Horned
(c) National Parks Rhino Sanctuary
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries (C) Sundarban (W. Bengal) Biosphere and Tiger
Ans. (a) : Biodiversity is a natural process which Sanctuary
depends on some characteristics like genetic variation, (D) Simlipal (Odisha) Elephant Sanctuary
species variation, temporal variation, ecosystem It is to be known that no activity is allowed in the
variation. Biosphere reserves are an important strategy national park areas for harvesting, grazing and any
for the conservation of biodiversity. activity that harms the National Park.
3. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
6. Which of the following pair is not correctly
DMRC Station Controller, 09.09.2007 matched?
National Park State DMRC Maintainer (Fitter) , 20.07.2014
(a) Bandipur Karnataka Tiger reserve area State
(b) Raja Ji Uttarakhand (a) Buxa – Bihar
(c) Simlipal Odisha (b) Dampa – Mizoram
(d) Pin Valley Jammu & Kashmir (c) Nameri – Assam
Ans. (d) : Pin Valley National Park is national park in (d) Namdapha – Arunchal Pradesh
the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh,
Ans. (a) : Presently there are 54 tiger reserves in the
India. It was declared a park in 1987.
country, some of them are :-
4. Which of the following pair is correctly matched? Buxa - West Bengal
DMRC Customer Relations Ass., 22.07.2012 Dampa - Mizoram
(a) Similipal – Assam Nameri - Assam
(b) Nokrek – Meghalaya Namdapha - Arunchal Pradesh
(c) Dihang Dibang – Sikkim Manas - Assam
(d) Agastyamalai – Karnataka Corbett - Uttarakhand
Kanha - Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (b) : Nokrek and Balaphakaram National Park
Sundarbans - West Bengal
are in Meghalaya, Simlipal, Bhitarkanika etc. National
Ranthambore - Rajasthan
Parks are in Odisha, Dihang-Dibang, Namdapha,
Similipal - Odisha
Mavlig etc are in the state of Arunachal Pradesh and
Agastyamalai is in the state of Tamil Nadu. Panna - Madhya Pradesh

Environment Education 525 YCT

 Anamalai - Tamil Nadu (a) In biosphere reserves
Kaziranga - Assam (b) In national parks
Mudumalai - Tamil Nadu (c) In wetlands declared in the Ramsar convention
Pilibhit - Uttar Pradesh (d) In wildlife sanctuaries
Raja Ji - Uttarakhand Ans. (b) : Local people are not allowed to collect and
Ramgarh - Rajasthan use biomass in reserved areas in the national parks of
Satpura - Madhya Pradesh India. National 'wildlife action plans' was started in
Pench - Madhya Pradesh India in 1983. Cutting, grazing and any activities that
Mundanthurai - Tamil Nadu cause damage to the habitat are not allowed in the park
Dudhwa - Uttar Pradesh areas while there are some exemptions in the
Ranipur - Uttar Pradesh (New 2022) sanctuary.
7. Bakhira-Bird sanctuary is located at- 10. It is the first national park of India.
DMRC Station Controller, 27.07.2014 RRB Ajmer (Tech.), 01.03.1998
(a) Basti (b) Faizabad (a) Nanda Devi National Park
(c) Gonda (d) Unnao (b) Jim Corbett National Park
Ans. (a):Bird Sanctuary - Districts of Uttar Pradesh (c) Rajaji Nationl Park
(d) Kanha National Park
1. Nawabganj Bird Bihar – Unnao
Ans. (b) : Jim Corbett National Park is a glorious
2. Bakhira – Basti (presently Sant
animal sanctuary. It is 1318.54 square km in the valley
Kabir city) of Ramganga, is settled in. Jim Corbett Tiger reserve
3. Samaspur – Raebareli area of 821.95 square km is also included under this.
4. Sandi – Hardoi This park is expanding in Nainital district of Kumaon.
5. Saman – Mainpuri 11. The Government of India has established some
6. Okhla Bird Sanctuary – Guatam Buddh Nagar biosphere protected areas in the country. Which
of the following areas was established first?
7. Lakh Bahosi Bird
RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 11.04.1999
Sanctuary – Kannuj
(a) Gulf of Mannar
8. Parvati Arga – Gonda (b) Sundarban
9. Vijay Sagar – Mahoba (c) Nilgiri
10. Patna Bird sanctuary – Etah (d) Nanda devi
11. Surha tal – Ballia Ans. (c) : Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was first established
in India under the biosphere program started by UNESCO
12. Soor Sarovar – Agra
in 1971. So far, a total of 18 biosphere reserve have been
8. The most important strategy for conservation of established in the country, Nilgiri, Sundarban, gulf of
traditional life of man along with bio-diversity Mannar and Nanda devi Biosphere reserve areas have
lies in establishing which one of the following? been recognized by UNESCO on the world network.
RRB RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-II , 30.01.2011 12. Which one of the following statement is not
(a) Biosphere reserve correct about biosphere reserve?
(b) Botanical gardens RRB Bangalore (Tech.), 22.08.1999
(c) National Parks (a) In 1973, UNESCO started a worldwide
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries program on man and the biosphere
(b) Biosphere reserves encourage research on
Ans. (a) : In the context of conservation of ecological conservation(c) Nanda Devi
biodiversity, the concept of biosphere reserve first Biosphere Reserve is situated in Madhya
emerged under the man and Biosphere reserve was Pradesh.
identified in 1976. Out of the 18 biosphere reserves (d) Biosphere reserve are multi-purpose protected
established so far by the government of India, areas for preserving genetic diversity in
UNESCO has included 10 in the world network of ecosystems.
biosphere reserves. Ans. (c) : Biosphere reserve encourage research on
9. In which of the following categories of reserved ecological conservation. In 1973 UNESCO launched a
areas of India, local people are not allowed to world-wide program on man and the biosphere. Nanda
collect and utilize biomass? Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in Chamoli district,
RRB Trivandrum (Tech.), 09.11.1997 in the state of Uttarakhand.
Environment Education 526 YCT
13. Select the one which has been declared a ''World Simlipal – Odisha
Heritage Site'' in the list given below– Achanakmar-Amarkantak – Chhattisgarh
RRB Kolkata (Tech.), 29.08.1999 Great Nicobar – Great Nicobar
(a) Corbett National Park Agastyamalai – Kerala and Tamil-
(b) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve Nadu
(c) Raja Ji National Park Khangchendzonga – Sikkim
(d) Gir forest Panna – Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (b) : Nanda Devi Biosphere reserve (1988 (2020) (New)
Uttarakhand) is included in the World Heritage Site. Rann of Kutch is not included in the list of UNESCO's
Following are the World Heritage Sites in India- biosphere reserves.
Venue Name Concerned state 15. How many World Heritage Sites in India have
Ajanta caves – Maharashtra been notified by UNESCO as of July 2016?
Elephanta caves – Maharashtra RRB Mahendrughat (Patna) Diesel Driver,
18.02.2001
Ellora caves – Maharashtra
(a) 37 (b) 36
(c) 35 (d) 34
Taj Mahal – Uttar Pradesh Ans. (c) : As of July 2016, UNESCO has notified to a
Old Goa churches, convents – Goa total of 35 World Heritage site India. Three new Indian
Khajuraho Group of temples – Madhya Pradesh site (Nalanda Mahavihar Capital garden and
Kangchenjunga National Park) were included in the
Mugal city, Fatehpur Sikri – Uttar Pradesh
World Heritage Site during the 40th annual session of
Qutub Minar – Delhi UNESCO's World Heritage committee held in Istanbul
Nilgir Railway – Tamil Nadu (Turkey) (July 10-17, 2016)
Buddhist memorial, Sanchi – Madhya Pradesh India currently has a total of 40, UNESCO World
Mahabodhi Temple group – Gaya (Bihar) Heritage Sites.
Keoladev National Park – Rajasthan Sl. World Heritage site Related state Year
Memorial group, No.
Mahabalipuram – Tamil Nadu 1. Agra fort Uttar Pradesh 1983
Memorial group, Pattadakal – Karnataka 2. Taj Mahal Uttar Pradesh 1983
Hampi group of memorial – Karnataka 3. Ajanta caves Maharashtra 1983
Brihadeshwara Temple, 4. Ellora caves Maharashtra 1983
Thanjavur – Tamil Nadu 5. Konark suntemple Odisha 1984
Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminal 6. Memorial Mahabalipurm Tamil-Nadu 1984
Railway Station – Maharashtra 7. Kaziranga National Park Assam 1985
Flower valley – Uttarakhand 8. Manas National Park Assam 1985
Champaner fort – Gujarat 9. Keoladeo National Park Rajasthan 1985
14. Which one of the following is not in the list of 10. Memorial of Hampi Karnataka 1986
UNESCO's Biosphere reserve? 11. Memorial group of Madhya Pradesh 1986
RRB Bhopal (Tech.), 21.11.1999 Khajuraho
(a) Sundarban 12. Fatehpur Sikari Uttar Pradesh 1986
(b) Gulf of Mannar 13. Churches and Convents Goa 1986
(c) Rann of Kutch 14. Gulf of Elephanta Maharashtra 1987
(d) Nilgiri 15. Sundarban National Park West Bengal 1987
Ans. (c) : Out of 18 biosphere of India, 12 biospheres 16. Memorial group of Karnataka 1987
have been protected by UNESCO. They are like this. Pattadakal
Nilgiri – Tamil Nadu 17. Chola temple Tamil Nadu 1987
Gulf of Mannar – Tamil Nadu 18. Nanda Devi and valley of Uttarakhand 1988
flower
Sundarban – West Bengal
19. Buddhistic monument of Madhya Pradesh 1989
Nanda Devi – Uttarakhand
Sanchi
Pachmarhi – Madhya Pradesh
20. Humayuh's Tomb Delhi 1993
Nokrek – Meghalaya
Environment Education 527 YCT
 21. Qutub Minar and its Delhi 1993 Ans. (b): The Great Himalayan National Park is in the
monuments Kullu region of Himachal Pradesh. It was established
2
22. Mahabodhi Temple of Bihar 2002 in 1984. It is spread over 1171 km area. In 2014,
Bodh Gaya UNESCO gave is a place in the World Heritage list.
23. Bhimbetaka caves Madhya Pradesh 2003 19. Which of the following National Park is known as
24. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharashtra 2004 'World Natural Heritage'?
Terminal RRB Bhubaneshwar App. Elec. Signal
25. Champaner-Pavagadh Gujarat 2004 Maintainer, 19.08.2001
Archaeological Park (a) Ranthambore National Park, Sawai Madhopur
26. Red fort Delhi 2007 (b) Keoladeo National Park, Ghana
27. Jantar Mantar, Jaipur Rajasthan 2010 (c) Desert National Park, Jaisalmer
28. Estern ghats Maharashtra, 2012 (d) Tal chhapar sanctuary, churu
Goa, Tamil- Ans. (b) : The Keoladeo Ghana Bird Sanctuary, located
Nadu, Karnataka, near Bharatpur city in Rajasthan, has been declared a
and Kerala protected area by including it under 'World Natural
16. Which of the following National Parks of India Heritage'. This sanctuary has been called 'Paradise of
was declared a World Heritage Site by birds'. Ranthambore National Park located in Sawai
UNESCO in July, 2016? Madhopur district is the first National Park of Rajasthan.
RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P. Way), 20.02.2000 The Desert National Park is located in Jaisalmer. Tal
Chhapar Sanctuary is a located in the Churu district of
(a) Kaziranga National Park
Rajasthan.
(b) Kangchenjunga National Park
20. Which one of the following is not a UNESCO
(c) Corebtt National Park designated World Heritage Site?
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park RRB Kolkata Apprentice Supervisors,
Ans. (b) : As of July 2016, UNESCO has notified to a 14.10.2001
total of 35 World Heritage site India. Three new Indian (a) Kaziranga National Park
site (Nalanda Mahavihar, Capital garden and (b) Keoladeo National Park
Kangchenjunga National Park) were included in the (c) Manas Wildlife Park
World Heritage Site during the 40th annual session of (d) Bandipur National Park
UNESCO's World Heritage committee held in Istanbul Ans. (*) : Bandipur National Park– This park is
(Turkey) (July 10-17, 2016). located in the State of Karnataka in South India. It
17. Which one of the following is the largest was established as a tiger reserve in 1974 under
biosphere reserve of India certified by UNESCO project Tiger. At one time it was the private hunting
(in terms of area) ? reserve of the Maharaja of Mysore State.
RRB Bhubaneshwar (Tech.), 03.06.2001 Note : In 2012, Bandipur National Park was named a
(a) Neelgiri UNESCO world Heritage Site.
(b) Nanda Devi 21. India's sixteenth biosphere reserve 'cold Desert'
(c) Sundarban is located in-
(d) Gulf of Mannar RRB Gorakhpur Ass. Diesel Drivers,
21.10.2001
Ans. (d) : The largest fund of India certified by
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
UNESCO is as follows-
(b) Himachal Pradesh
Gulf of Mannar 10500 km2 1989 (c) Jammu and Kashmir
Sundarban 9630 km2 1989 (d) Uttarakhand
Nanda Devi 5860.69 km2 1988
Ans. (b) : There are a total of 18 biosphere reserve
Neelgiri 5520 km2 1986 areas in India which are as follows-
18. The Great Himalayan National Park, declared a Sl. Name of State Year of
UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located in– No. Biosphere Establishment
RRB Kolkata Trainee Assistant Drivers, Reserve Centre
15.07.2001 1. Neelgiri Tamil Nadu 1986
(a) Uttarakhand 2. Nanda Devi Uttarakhand 1988
(b) Himachal Pradesh 3. Nokrek Meghalaya 1988
(c) Jammu-Kashmir 4. Great Nicobar Andaman Nicobar 1989
(d) Nagaland Islands

Environment Education 528 YCT

5. Gulf of Mannar Tamil Nadu 1989 Ans. (b) : Keibul Lamjao National Park was
6. Manas Assam 1989 established in the year 1977 it is 40 square km. spread
7. Sundarban West Bengal 1989 over an area of Loktak Lake. It is located in
8. Simlipal Odisha 1994 Vishnupur District of Manipur. This is the only park of
9. Dibru-Saikhowa Assam 1997 its kind in the World.
10. Dihang-Dibang Arunachal Pradesh 1998 24. How many such National Parks are there in India
11. Pachmarhi Madhya Pradesh 1999 today which have been created to protect the wild
12. Khangchendzonga Sikkim 2000 animals of the country?
13. Agastyamalai Kerala and Tamil 2001 RRB Secunderabad Diesel Drivers, 18.11.2001
Nadu (a) 39 (b) 49
14. Achanakmar- Madhya Pradesh 2005 (c) 59 (d) 69
Amarkantak Ans. (d) : Since the question is form in 1993, the
15. Kachchh Gujarat 2008 answer in that question is (d) but according to the latest
16. Cold Desert Himanchal 2009 statistics, today there are 106 National places in India
Pradesh which has been created to protect the animals of the
17. Seshachalam Hills Andhra Pradesh 2010 country.
18. Panna Madhya Pradesh 2011
25. Among the following states choose the state
22. Consider the following sanctuaries of India :
which has the largest number of wild life
1. Periyar
Sanctuaries (National Parks and Sanctuaries)-
2. Dachigam
RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
3. Sariska
(a) Uttar Pradesh
4. Kanha (b) Rajasthan
Which one of the following is the correct (c) Madhya Pradesh
sequence of the locations of the above
(d) West Bengal
mentioned animal sanctuaries from South to
Ans. (c) : Currently, the state of Madhya Pradesh in
North?
India has the largest number of wildlife Sanctuaries
RRB Mahendrughat (Patna) Diesel Drivers,
(National Parks and Sanctuaries).
11.11.2001
(a) 1–4–2–3 (b) 4–1–3–2 26. Nokrek reserve biosphere is located?
(c) 1–4–3–2 (d) 3–1–4–2 RRB Ranchi Assitant Drivers’, 09.01.2003
(a) In Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c) :
(b) In Odisha
Periyar National Park – Kerala
(c) In Assam
Kanha National Park – Madhya Pradesh
(d) In Meghalaya
Sariska National Park – Rajasthan
Ans. (d) : Nokrek National Park is a west Garo Hills
Dachigram National Park – Jammu & Kashmir district of Meghalaya, about 12 km from biosphere
Hence, the correct order of the above mentioned reserve Tura is located at a distance. Nokrek is the
wildlife sanctuaries from South to North is Periyar- highest point of the Garo Hills. And many types of
Kanha-Sariska-Dachigram. wild species are found here including elephant and
Hoolock gibbon. A very rare species of citrus indica is
23. Which one of the following National Parks is found in Nokrek National Park, whose name is
unique in that is fosters rich biodiversity due to Memang Narang.
the presence of a scamp containing floating 27. Which of the following is located in
vegetation? Chhattisgarh?
RRB Gorakhpur Diesel Ass. Diesel Drivers’, RRB Bhopal & Mumbai Apprentice Section
14.04.2002 Engineer, 23.03.2003
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park (a) Anshi National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park (b) Betla National Park
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park (c) Indravati National Park
(d) Sultanpur National Park (d) Gugamal National Park
Environment Education 529 YCT
Ans. (c): The National Parks mentioned in the question According to the time when this question was asked,
and their locations are as follows :- the correct answer option would have been (d).
National Park State 32. In which one of the following National Parks the
Indravati National Park – Chhattisgarh climate changes from tropical to subtropical
Anshi National Park – Karnataka temperate and arctic ?
Betla National Park – Jharkhand RRB Secunderabad Technical-III (Electrical),
Gugamal National Park – Maharashtra 11.12.2005
28. Marine National Park is located (a) Khangchendzonga National Park
RRB Kolkata Chemical & Metallurgical (b) Nanda Devi National Park
Engineer, 01.12.2002 (c) Neora National Park
(a) In the Gulf of Kutch (d) Namdapha National Park
(b) In Sundarban Ans. (d) : Namdapha National Park is located in
(c) In Chilka Lake Arunachal Pradesh where climate changes from tropical
(d) No where in the above to subtropical temperate and arctic.
Ans. (a) : Marine National Park is located in the Gulf 33. Kanha National Park is related to which one of
of Kutch (Jamnagar) in Gujarat. Established in 1982, the following biogeographical regions?
this park is spread over 162 square km. RRB Secunderabad Technical-III (Electrical),
29. Which of the following is not matched? - 11.12.2005
RRB Chandigarh Diesel/Electric Ass., 25.05.2003 (a) Tropical moist forest
Biosphere Reserve Area State (b) Hot semi-desert
(a) Simlipal – Odisha (c) Tropical dry forest
(b) Nokrek – Meghalaya (d) Tropical
(c) Agatsyamalai – Kerala Ans. (c) : Kanha National Park is spread over an area of
(d) Khangchendzonga –Himachal Pradesh 940 square kilometers in the Maikal chain of hills of
Ans. (d) : Madhya Pradesh.
Khangchendzonga – Sikkim The high forests situated on the slopes of Kanha are of
Similipal – Odisha tropical and moist dry deciduous forest.
Nokrak – Meghalaya 34. Asiatic lions are limited to-
Agastyamalai – Kerala RRB Allahabad Junior Engineer-II
30. Which of the following has been recently [Mechanical, DSL (C&W)], 08.01.2006
declared a 'Tiger Reserve'? (a) Jim Corbett National Park
RRB Ranchi Diesel/Electric Assitant (Driver), (b) Gir National Park
21.09.2003 (c) Dudhwa National Park
(a) Balpakaram National Park (d) Bandhavgarh National Park
(b) Rajaji National Park Ans. (b) : The Asiatic lion, due to its very low numbers,
(c) Betla National Park is listed in the IUCN Red Data Book. The Asiatic Lion is
(d) Kaziranga National Park now protected in Gir National Park (Gujarat) spread over
Ans. (b) : Rajaji National Park (Uttarakhand) has 1400 sq km in the Gir forest.
been recently declared as "Tiger Reserve". 35. Where is Sariska Tiger Reserve located?
31. It is the largest Cheetah habitat in India RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006
RRB Bangalore Material Superintendent, (a) West Bengal
21.11.2004 (b) Odisha
(a) In Andhra Pradesh (c) Assam
(b) In Karnataka (d) Rajasthan
(c) In Madhya Pradesh Ans. (d) : Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in Aravali
(d) In Tamil Nadu hills and forms a part of the Alwar district of Rajasthan.
Ans. (c) :India's largest Cheetah habitat is located in Sariska was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1955 and
Sheopur district (Kuno National Park) of Madhya was declared a Tiger reserve later in 1978, making it a
Pradesh. part of India's Project Tiger.

Environment Education 530 YCT

36. Which one of the following is also know as 'Top 39. Which of the following places is not among the
Slip'? biosphere reserves established so far?
RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG & DMRC Station Controller, 09.09.2007
Design, 11.06.2006 (a) Great Nicobar
(a) Similipal National Park (b) Sundarban
(b) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary (c) Nanda Devi
(c) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary (d) Gulf of kutch
(d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Ans. (d) : Gulf of Kutch is not in the biosphere
Park reserves established so far.
Ans. (d) :Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary (earlier 40. The Sanctuary of India in which the largest
called Annamalai Wildlife Sanctuary), widely known number of elephants is found is-
as 'Top Slip' is located in the Annamalai hills of Tamil
DMRC Secunderabad Section Eng. (Civil),
Nadu.
29.06.2008
Annamalai Wildlife Sanctuary was established in the
(a) Dudhawa (b) Kaziranga
year 1976.
(c) Manas (d) Nandadevi
In 1987, the name of this sanctuary was changed into
Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary. Ans. (b) : The highest number of elephants (1675) is
found in Kaziranga, Karbi Anglong reserve areas of
37. Which one of the following has the maximum Assam. Currently 50% of the world's elephants are
number of National Parks?
found in India.
RRB Bangalore Technical (Eng.), 22.04.2007
Elephants in Karnataka have seen an increase of 346,
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands moving from 6,049 in 2017 to 6, 395. Currently,
(b) Arunachal Pradesh marking the highest count in India, as per the Asian
(c) Assam Elephant Population and Demography Estimates,
(d) Meghalaya 2023.
Ans. (a) : There are a total of 9 National Parks in the 41. Rajiv Gandhi National Park is located at-
Andman and Nicobar Island. RRB Patna Technical Eng., 27.07.2008
• Current number of National park in respective states. (a) In Rajasthan
States Number of (b) In Madhya Pradesh
National Park (c) In Uttranchal
(d) In Karnataka
1. Andaman & Nicobar Island - 09
Ans. (d) : Nagarhole National Park is a also called
2. Arunachal Pradesh - 09
Rajiv Gandhi National Park. It is located in Mysore
3. Assam - 07 and Kandang district of Karnataka State. It was
4. Meghalaya - 02 brought under project Tiger in 1999. It has been also in
Note : When this question was asked, Andaman and the news due to human-wildlife conflict.
Nicobar had the highest number of National Park as per 42. Which of the following is a 'World Heritage'?
the given option. At that time the number of National RRB Allahabad Ass. Loco Pilot, 03.08.2008
Park in Arunachal Pradesh was only two.
(a) Nandadevi Biosphere Reserve
38. Which of the following is not a biosphere (b) Corbett National Park
reserve?
(c) Raja Ji National Park
RRB Secundrabad Technical (Eng.), 20.05.2007
(d) Gir Forest
(a) Agasthyamalai
Ans. (a) : In the year 1982, 630.33 square km area of
(b) Nallamala
Nanda Devi Area was declared as National Park.
(c) Nilgiri
Nanda Devi National Park came into existence on 12
(d) Panchmarhi
January, 1987 and was recognized as a World Heritage
Ans. (b) : Nallamala is not a biosphere reserve. It is
in the year 1992.
hill of Eastern Ghats which stretches over Kurnool
Mahabubnagar Guntur and Kadapa district of the state In the year 2004, it was included in UNESCO's world
of Andhra Pradesh. Network of Biosphere Reserves.

Environment Education 531 YCT

43. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary is located at- Ans. (d): Sundarban Tiger reserve is located in West
RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section Eng. Bengal, Cheeta, Deer, Wild bear, etc. are found here.
(Mechanical), 04.01.2009 Pichavaram, Vedatangal Bird Bihar is situated in Tamil
(a) In Jammu & Kashmir Nadu. Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the
(b) In Kerala state of Odisha, Alligator and Crocodile conservation
(c) In Sikkim and breeding centre is located here. The Vembanad lake
is located in the state of Kerala.
(d) In Tamil Nadu
48. Periyar wildlife sanctuary is located in which of
Ans. (b) : Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the following states?
Idukki district of Kerala. Chinnar, a forest area with RRB Customer Relations Ass. , 22.07.2012
thorny bushes and desert species is home of India's
RRB Kolkata Trainee Assistant Driver,
endangered giant brown squirrel.
15.07.2001
Now their total number is less than 200 left here. (a) Kerala (b) Tamil-Nadu
44. The highly-controversial 'Babli Project' is located (c) Karnataka (d) Telangana
in which of the following states?
Ans. (a) : Periyar wildlife sanctuary, spread over
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Electrical), Idukki and Pathanamthitta district of Kerala, was
15.03.2009 established in the year 1982.
(a) Andhra Pradesh
49. Which of the following pairs is not matched?
(b) Gujarat
Jaipur Metro Rail, 02.12.2012
(c) Madhya Pradesh (a) Bandipur National Park ─ Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra (b) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary ─ Assam
Ans. (d) : The highly controversial Babli Project is (c) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary ─ Kerala
located in Maharashtra. There is a dispute between (d) Similipal National Park ─ Madhya Pradesh
Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh on this.
Ans. (d) : Option (d) is not correctly matched.
45. Which of the following Tiger Reserves of India is Bandipur National Park – Karnataka
located in Mizoram? Manas Wildlife Sanctuary – Assam
RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-III , 30.01.2011 Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary – Kerala
(a) Melghat (b) Buxa Simlipal National Park – Odisha
(c) Dampa (d) Bhadra 51. 'Salim Ali National Park' is located in-
Ans. (c) : DMRC Junior Engineer (Electrical), 03.08.2014
Tiger reserve State (a) Maharashtra
Dampa Mizoram (b) Jammu and Kashmir
Melghat Satpuda Hills Range (c) Madhya Pradesh
Buxa West Bengal (d) Andhra Pradesh
Bhadra Karnataka Ans. (b) : Salim Ali National Park is also called City
46. Which of the following tiger reserves extends across two Forest National Park is located in Srinagar, Jammu and
states? Kashmir. Dachigram National Park is also in Jammu
and Kashmir it is famous for the white bear.
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Civil), 26.02.2012
52. Which of the following is the first National Park
(a) Kanha (b) Manas
of India?
(c) Pench (d) Sariska DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 21.09.2014
Ans. (c) : Pench Tiger Reserve is located in two states (a) Kanha National Park
Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. (b) Dudhwa National Park
47. Which one of the following is not matched? (c) Raja Ji National Park
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Mech.), (d) Corbett National Park
26.02.2012 Ans. (d) :Corbett Park is the first national park of
(a) Sundarban - West Bengal India, which was established in 1936 AD, earlier its
name was Hailey National Park.
(b) Bhitarkanika - Odisha
In 1957, the park was renamed as Corbett National
(c) Pichavaram - Tamil Nadu Park in memory of the great naturalist and eminent
(d) Vembanad - Karnataka conservationist, late Jim Corbett.
Environment Education 532 YCT
 The Park is spread over two districts, a major part of Ans. (b) :
the park with an area of 312.86 square kilometers falls Gir forest - Gujarat
in Pauri Garhwal district and the remaining 208.14 Bharatpur World Sanctuary - Rajasthan
square kilometers in Nainital district. Bandhavgarh Sanctuary - Madhya Pradesh
53. Manas Sanctuary in Assam is known for- Kaziranga Sanctuary - Assam
DMRC Civil Engineering, 07.09.2014 57. What is Kanha famous for?
(a) For bears DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 21.07.2013
(b) For tigers (a) National Park
(c) For elephants (b) National Sanctuary
(d) For birds (c) Park and Sanctuary
Ans. (b) : Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the (d) None
state of Assam, situated beneath the Bhutan-Himalaya Ans. (a) : Kanha National Park, which is located in
ranges. It is famous for a unique biodiversity and Mandla district and is spread over an area of 940
landscape. Manas was the first reserve to be included square km. It has been included under 'Project' Tiger
in the network of tiger reserves under Project Tiger in Scheme' since 1974.
1973. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary was marked as a
World Heritage site in 1985. Manas gained the status 58. The state of India which has maximum
of a biosphere reserve in 1989. It is spread over an area percentage fo its area under National park is-
of 2837 sq. km which extends from Dhansiri River in RRB Bhopal Diesel Driver, 24.11.1996
the east to Sankosh River in the west. (a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Tripura
54. Where is the residence of the Asiatic Babbar
lion? (c) Sikkim
DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 18.02.2017 (d) Bihar
(a) Gir forest (b) Kanha Ans. (c) : According to given option
(c) Corbet Park (d) Dudhwa In the Indian state of Sikkim the maximum percentage
of its area is under National Parks.
Ans. (a) : Gir National Park is located in Junagadh
(Gujarat), which is the habitat of the Asiatic lion. 59. Which of the following bio reserves of India is
Apart from the Asiatic lion, wild animals like Leopard, spread over the Garo Hills?
Sambar, Chital etc. are also found here. Kanha RRB Gorakhpur Assistant Diesel Driver,
National Park is located in Mandla district of Madhya 21.10.2001
Pradesh, Jim Corbett Park in Uttaranchal and Dudhwa RRB Secunderabad Diesel Driver, 01.06.1997
National Park is the only National Park of Uttar (a) Nokrek
Pradesh located in Lakhimpur Kheri Uttar Pradesh. (b) Agastymalai
55. Which of the following is not a tiger sanctuary? (c) Dihan Debang
DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 06.03.2016 (d) Nandadevi
(a) Kanha (b) Ranthambore Ans. (a) : Nokrek National Park was established in
(c) Kaziranga (d) Bandhavgarh 1968. It is located in 47.48 Square km. in west Garo
Hills district in the State of Meghalaya, India.
Ans. (c) : Kanha National Park (Madhya Pradesh),
Bandhavgarh National Park (Madhya Prdesh) and 60. Which of the following is a source of methane?
Ranthambore National Park (Rajasthan) are tiger RRB Secunderabad Diesel Driver, 18.11.2001
reserves, while Kaziranga National Park (Assam) is (a) Wetlands
famous for rhinos and elephants. (b) Foam Industry
(c) Thermal Power Plant
56. Match the following :
(d) Cement Industry
A. Gir forest 1. Rajasthan
B. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary 2. Madhya Pradesh Ans. (a) : Methane originates from the rotting of cow
dung and vegetation, from the anus of cuddling cattle
C. Bandhavgarh Sanctuary 3. Assam
and from farting, anaerobic situation in marshy and
D. Kaziranga Sanctuary 4. Gujarat wet lands. It happens due to concentration, of methane
DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 07.09.2014 in the stratosphere, water vapor increases which in a
A B C D A B C D greenhouse effect. Due to this, there is an increase in
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 4 1 2 3 temperatures in the lower atmosphere and on the
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 2 3 1 4 surface.

Environment Education 533 YCT

 Advantage of hydroelectricity -
6.14 Energy Resources
(i) It is renewable source of energy.
Energy -
(ii) Once the dams are constructed, electricity can be
Energy can be defined as the capacity to produce an
produced for many years or decades.
effect to do some work. Energy is one of the most
important building blocks for human life on earth and (iii) Hydroelectricity is non-polluting source of energy.
economic development of the country. The demand for (iv) Dams used for production of hydroelectricity, is
energy resources are increasing day by day in the
also used in irrigation purposes.
development of industries, transportation and agricultural
activities. Disadvantage of hydroelectricity -
Types of Energy Resources - (i) Loss of biodiversity.
On the basis of sources energy are classified into two (ii) Construction of dams is expensive.
categories, Renewable energy resource and non-
renewable energy resources. (iii) During drought condition electricity cannot be
produced by hydroelectricity plant.
(i) Renewable energy resources -
These energy resources are also known as non Solar Energy -
conventional energy resources, which can be regenerated It is also renewable energy resources. In this case we get
continuously. It can be used again and again in an electricity directly from the sun light, contains radiation
endless manner because these resources are available in like ultraviolet, visible and infrared etc. The earth surface
large amount. For example solar energy, wind energy, gets maximum energy when radiations strike at 900
bio fuels, hydroenergy, geothermal energy, wave and (vertical). India received 4 - 8 kWh of solar radiation per
tidal energy.
square meter per day which is equal to 5000 trillion kWh
(ii) Non renewable resources - per year.
These energy resources are also known as conventional
(traditional) energy resources. It can not be replenished
when these sources are exhausted because these
resources are present in limited amount and take a long
period of time to re-synthesize. Example - Nuclear
energy coal, petroleum, natural gas etc.
Alternative source of energy -
Hydroelectricity or Hydro energy -
It is a renewable energy resource. Electricity produced
from water is usually referred as hydroelectricity. In this
process dams are constructed for storage of water and
then water led down through tunnel to lower level which
rotates the turbine to produce mechanical energy.
• The produced mechanical energy can be converted into
electrical energy with the help of generator and again
transformed in alternating current through transformer.
• Once the electricity is produced it can be delivered to
homes, industries etc.
Method of harvesting solar energy -
• The output of energy produced by dams is totally
depends on the volume of water released or discharge (1) Photovoltaic cell - The term photovoltaic is
speed and vertical distance from where water fall or composed of two words, ‘photo’ means light and
vertical distance of water head. ‘voltaic’ means electric. Photovoltaic cell formed by the
semiconductor material like silicon. Photovoltaic cell is a
device which directly converts sunlight (photons) into
electricity.

Environment Education 534 YCT

(2) Solar water heater - Solar water heater consists of
collectors, insulated storage tank, interconnecting
pipeline in the flat/plot/home to capture the sunlight.
Small tube runs along the collector and carries water.
When sun light incident on the collector, then water
absorbs heat from collector, warm water stored into the
insulated storage tank.
Advantage of Solar energy -
(i) It is renewable source of energy.
(ii) Low cost of maintenance.
(iii) Solar energy is non polluting sources of energy.
Disadvantage of Solar energy - (b) Dry steam power plant -In this case underground
(i) Installation cost is high. steam is used to rotate turbine which drive generator to
(ii) Lots of space is needed to install the solar panels. produce electricity.
(iii) During cloudy days and winter season energy
production is lower.
Geo - thermal energy -
• In Geo-thermal the word ‘Geo’ means earth and
‘thermal’ means heat.
• Energy which is obtained from the earth's core is
geothermal energy.
• In earth's core geothermal energy is continuously
produced due to collision of tectonic plate and due to
decay of radioactive materials. Advantage of geothermal energy-
• When water injected into the earth, where water come (i) Low cost of maintenance.
in contact with hot rocks and produced steam, then (ii) It is also a renewable source of energy.
produce mechanical energy and these energy can be
(iii) Geothermal energy is advantageous over fossil
converted into electric energy with help of generator.
fuel.
(iv) Unlike solar cell, it works all day and night.
Disadvantage of geothermal energy -
(i) Underground hot water is necessary for
geothermal energy.
(ii) Installation cost is high.
(iii) Production efficiency is lower.
Wind Energy -
Wind is used to produce electricity by converting the
Type of Geothermal power plant -
kinetic energy of air in motion into electricity.
(a) Flash steam power plant - It takes high pressure hot
• In modern wind turbines, wind rotates the rotor blades,
water (around 1800C) from deep inside the earth and
which convert kinetic energy into rotational energy.
convert it to steam to drive generator turbines when the
steam condenses into water then it again injected back • This rotational energy is transferred by shaft to the
into the ground. Most geothermal power plants are flash generator, thereby producing electrical energy.
steam plants. • This energy is renewable energy.

Environment Education 535 YCT


Tidal energy -
Tidal Power or tidal energy is a form of hydropower that
converts energy derived from tides into useful forms
primarily electricity. The energy of tides coming in the
sea is converted into electrical power by installing
suitable turbines.
• This energy is renewable energy resources.
Biomass -
Biomass is a renewable energy resource, also known as
carbon natural or 'phytomass'. It is formed by the excreta
or waste materials of living organism and dead plants
and trees.
• In biomass, the energy from the sunlight is stored in the
form of cellulose, sugar, starch, lignin etc.
• The chemical energy released from these molecule
when they undergoes digestion or combustion because
chemical bonds between carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
are broken.
Environment Education 536
Energy generation from biomass -
(a) Combustion or burning is most common method to
obtain energy directly from biomass.
(b) Fermentation - In this process, biomass is converted
into alcohol in presence of bacterial yeast.
(c) Biomass gasification - In this process, biomass is
converted into combustible fuel like producer gas
(CO2 + H2) and small amount of methane through
incomplete combustion.
Advantage of biomass energy -
• It is also a renewable source of energy.
• Burning of alcohol or producer gas produce less
amount of pollutant gases.
• Biomass present in large amount.
• Help to reduce waste.
Disadvantage of biomass energy -
(i) Direct combustion of biomass generates pollutant
gases like fossil fuel.
(ii) Cause deforestation
(iii)Not efficient like fossil fuel.
Biogas:
It is formed by the bacterial degradation of biomass
under anaerobic condition. Biogas mainly contains
methane (50-70%), carbon dioxide and trace amount of
water, sulfur and hydrogen sulphide.
Biogas generation - The biogas generated by anaerobic
digestion of organic waste in biogas plant, mainly in
three steps : hydrolysis, acid formation and gas
production.
(I) Hydrolysis - In this step macromolecule like fats,
proteins, carbohydrates are broken down through
hydrolysis into fatty acids, amino acids and sugars
respectively.
(II) Acid formation -In this step fatty acids and amino
acids and sugars are fermented by acid producing
bacteria under anaerobic condition into acetic acid,
carbon, CO2 and H2.
(III) Gas Production - In this step, methanogenic
bacteria produce methane either by fermenting acetic
acid to form methane and carbon dioxide or by reduction
of carbon-dioxide into methane.
YCT
Advantage of biogas - Advantage of hydrogen energy-
• Produce organic waste. • Better energy to weight ratio.
• Burn without smoke. • Produce zero harmful gas.
• Renewable • Renewable
• Help to reduce waste. • High efficiency.
Disadvantage of biogas - Disadvantage of hydrogen energy -
• Methane is health hazardous. • Expensive to extract.
• Not efficient like fossil fuel. • Highly inflammable.
Hydrogen energy - • Hydrogen is difficult to store and transport.
Hydrogen is light in weight, most abundant chemical Nuclear Energy -
element of the earth, present in the form of hydro carbon, • In India, the foundation of atomic energy programme
hydrides, organic compounds, water etc. Hydrogen is a was laid down by Dr. Homi Jahangir Bhabha.
cleanest and renewable source of energy. • Nuclear energy is produced by the nuclear fusion
Technology for hydrogen generation - reaction, which start with decay of radioactive elements
like uranium, thorium, radium etc.
(i) Electrolysis of water - Electrolysis is a process in
which electricity is used to decompose water into (i) Nuclear Fission -
hydrogen and oxygen the cell is filled with pure water • Nuclear energy is produced by bombardment of slow
and two electrodes are connected with external power neutrons of thermal neutrons on heavy atom like
source. When a critical voltage is provided to electrodes uranium.
then electrodes start to produce hydrogen gas at cathode • On bombardment, Uranium gets excited and split into
and oxygen gas at anode by electrolysis. two medium weight nuclei and librate large amount of
At anode energy (more than 200 MeV of energy)
235
4 OH– ⇌ 2 H2O + O2 + 4e– 92 U + 10 n 
Fission
→ 144 89 1
56 Ba + 36 Kr 3 0 n + 200 Mev

At cathode • In above reaction large amount of neutrons are

+ –
2H (q) + 2e ⇌ H2 released. During fission reaction, these neutrons can be
used in chain reaction.
(ii) Steam methane reforming - In this process methane
gas is converted into hydrogen gas in presence of steam.
The process comprises three steps -
• First step, methane is mixed with steam and fed in
catalytic reactor, where methane is converted into carbon
monoxide and hydrogen.
• Second step, produce carbon monoxide fed in CO
catalytic converter, where CO convert into hydrogen and
carbon dioxide in presence of steam. (ii) Nuclear Fusion - Two lighter atoms like Deuterium
• Third step, carbon dioxide and other impurities are atom and Tritium atom combine at extremely high
removed from gas steam and only pure hydrogen gas temperature to form heavier nuclei helium atom and
remains left. release long amount of energy.
2 2 Fusion
Energy generation - 1 H + 1 H  → 24 He + energy
Fuel cell -
• In fuel cell, electricity produced by combination of
hydrogen with oxygen and only water and heat are
generated as by product.
• Fuel cell consists of two electrodes, cathode and anode.
• Hydrogen gases enter through anode, where catalyst
converts hydrogen molecule into hydrogen ions and
release electrons.
• The electrons go through the external circuit to produce
electricity and hydrogen ions migrate towards cathode,
where hydrogen ions combine with oxygen in presence
of electrons to produce water molecule.
Environment Education 537 YCT
(iii) Energy generation -
• During the nuclear reaction large amount of heat is
generated heat is used to create steam.
• Steam is used to rotate turbine to produce mechanical
energy, the produce mechanical energy can be converted
into electric energy with the help of generator.
Fossil Fuels -
Fossil energy source of nonrenewable energy resources it
include coal, petroleum and natural gas formed from the
remains of dead plants and animals.
(i) Coal - It is solid black combustible fuel, derive from
the remains of plant matter under high temperature and
pressure over millions of year.
• On the basis of formation, coal is classified into four
categories peat, lignite, bituminous, anthracite.
• High rank of coal formed under extremely high
temperature and pressure.
• From the annual report of Ministry of Coal,
Government of India, the coal production in all over
India during the session of 2019- 2020 up to December,
2019 was 480.04 million tonnes.
Energy generation - Coal power plant produces
electricity by burning of coal.
• When burned coal, large amount of heat released which • The term petroleum is derived from two Latin word
is used up by water to general high temperature and high “petra” means rock and “oleum” means oil.
pressure steam.
• Petroleum product have high calorific value is also
• Steam is used to rotate turbine which produce used a lubricating oil.
mechanical energy.
Previous Years Question
1. What is the term 'Domestic content Requirement' 2.
sometime seen in the news related to?
(a) Developing solar power production in our
country
(b) Granding licenses to foreign TV channels in our
country.
(c) Exporting the food products of our country to
other countries.
(d) Allowing foreign educational institutions to set
up their campuses in our country.
RRB Gorakhpur Diesel Assistant Driver,
14.04.2002
Ans. (a) : The term Domestic Content Requirement
(DCR), sometimes seen in the news, is related to the
development of solar power generation in our country.
Jawaharlal National Solar Mission (JNSM) was started
in the year 2010 to upgrade the solar energy sector in
India. It aims to target the generation of 100,000 MW of
grid-connected solar power capacity by 2022.
Environment Education 538
• The produce mechanical energy can be converted into
electric energy with help of generator.
Advantage of coal energy -
• Cheap source of energy
• Present abundantly
• It is inexpensive to convert coal in to energy.
Disadvantage of coal energy-
• Non renewable energy source
• Produce green house gases
• Due to mining of coal, natural habitats are destroyed.
(ii) Natural gases - Natural gas is cleanest fossil fuel
amongst all. Fossil fuel mainly contains methane (70 -
90%) and same amount of ethane, propane and butane.
• Natural gas is used to produced electricity in
transportation and also as a domestic fuel.
• Its calorific value is about12,500 kcal/kg.
(iii) Petroleum -
It is naturally occurring mixture of paraffin, olefin,
aromatic hydrocarbon with small amount of sulphur,
nitrogen.
Which of the following energy sources is the best
environment friendly?
(a) Petroleum products (b) Forest products
(c) Nuclear fission (d) Solar cells
RRB Ranchi Assistant Driver’s, 09.01.2003
Ans. (d) : Solar cells are the most environmentally
friendly energy sources. A device by which solar
energy is directly converted into electrical energy is
called solar cell. Silicon is used in its manufacturing.
At present, due to the increasing demands of solar
energy in space programs, solar cells are being
developed.
3. The environmental impacts that have to be
studied and resolved under nuclear power
projects are :
(a) Radioactive pollution of air, soil and water.
(b) Deforestation and loss of trees, plants and
animals.
(c) Disposal of radioactive waste
(d) All of the above
RRB Ranchi Assistant Driver’s, 09.01.2003
YCT
 Ans. (d) : While setting up nuclear power projects,
there is a need to keep in mind the leakage of
radioactive rays and radioactive elements because
leakage of these elements causes harm to plants and
animals. Tarapur atomic power plant-1 (TAPS-1) was
the first Nuclear power plant in India. This plant is
situated in Boisar, Maharastra.
4. India tested its first nuclear device
(a) On may 15, 1972 (b) On may 18, 1974
(c) On may 20, 1975 (d) On may 26, 1976
RRB Allahabad Assistant Loco Pilot, 2008
Ans. (b) : On may 18, 1974, India conducted it's first
indigenous test nuclear explosion in pokhran. It's code
name was 'smiling Buddha'. This test was conducted
for peaceful purposes, and conducted in a 'L' shaped
place at depth of 107 meters in the Thar desert located
in pokhran in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan. This
bomb was of 12 kiloton capacity. After the explosion,
a 10 meters deep and 47 meters of circumference was
formed. 24 years after the first nuclear test, nuclear
tests were conducted once again in pokhran in May
1998. During the tests named 'Shakti 98', five tests
were conducted on 11 May and 13 May. Three tests
were conducted on May 11, one of which was
equivalent to a 12 kiloton nuclear fission test
conducted in 1974. Two more nuclear tests were
conducted on 13 May.
5. The project for documentation of environmental 9. In the context of alternative source of energy,
degradation of the country since independence
and strategic development for it's regulation in
the next 50 years by Tata Energy Research
Institute, New Delhi is called-
(a) Green peace (b) Green India 2047
(c) Save India 2047 (d) Save the planet
RRB Ahmedabad Assistant Loco Pilot, 05.04.2009 from sugarcane bagasse additional capacity of about
Ans. (b) : The project launched by Tata Energy
Research Institute, New Delhi for mapping the
environment of the country since independence and
strategic development for it's regulation in the next 50 10. Which of the following can provide both power
years is called 'Green India 2047'.
6. Sea weeds are important source of which of the
following ?
(a) Sulfur (b) Chlorine
(c) Bromine (d) Iodine
RRB Chandigarh Assistant Loco Pilot, 03.01.2010 decomposition of any organic substance in the absence
Ans. (d) : Sea weeds are an important source of
Iodine. Fucus and Laminaria are two algae that are
high in Iodine Iodine is beneficial in goiter.
7. Which of the following is not a renewable compounds of nitrogen and phosphorus remain in the
resource?
(a) Energy of water (b) Energy of sun
Environment Education
(c) Energy of earth (d) None of the above
RRB Trivandrum (Technical), 09.11.1997
Ans. (d) : On the basic of application of energy
resource it has been divided into two categories-
1. Non-renewable
2. Renewable.
• Non-renewable energy such as coal, petroleum, gas
and nuclear based energy sources etc.
• Renewable energy sources such as photovoltaic
solar, thermal energy, wind energy, hydroelectric
energy, geothermal energy, biomass energy, tidal
energy and Ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC)
energy sources etc.
8. Which of the following is a bio-diesel plant ?
(a) Java grass (b) Ratanjot
(c) Guggul (d) Rosha grass
RRB Ajmer (Technical), 01.03.1998
Ans. (b) : The scientific name of Ratanjot is jatropha
curcas. The central government has decided to it's seed
oil is used as biodiesel. As a project operated in 8
states. This plant is also known as "Jangli arandi", can
generally flourish well even on dry, barren and sandy
lands. Its height ranges from 8 to 12 feet and these
plants start yielding seeds after 4 years. Their lifespan
is approximately 45 years.
ethanol, a viable bio-fuel, can be obtained from
which of the following ?
(a) Potato (b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane (d) Wheat
RRB Bangalore (Technical), 22.08.1999
Ans. (c) : Ethanol is a viable bio-fuel, can be obtained
130 MW has been created in the country through
biomass energy and technology to extract energy form
sugarcane bagasse in sugar mills.
and fertilizer?
(a) Nuclear plant (b) Thermal plant
(c) Biogas plant (d) Hydroelectric plant
RRB Kolkata (Technical), 29.08.1999
Ans. (c) : The gas produced by biological
of oxygen is called biogas. The main component of
bio-gas are methane (CH4) and carbon dioxide (CO2).
They contains about 65% methane and 35% carbon
dioxide. After the completion of biogas, many
residual material in the plant. Therefore the residual
materials are used as fertilizer.
539 YCT
11. Which of the following states of India has been
declared the country's first completely organic
state?
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Bihar
(c) Sikkim (d) Chhattisgarh
RRB Bhopal (Technical), 21.11.1999
Ans. (c) : On January 18 2016, Sikkim organic
festival 2016 was inaugurated by the prime minister in
Gangtok, the capital of Sikkim. and the chief minister
of Sikkim was also given a certificate regarding
Sikkim being a completely organic state. It is note that
Sikkim is the first such state in the country. Where all
the farming families of the state have completely
converted their agriculture into organic agriculture.
12. From what can renewable energy be obtained ?
(a) From fossils
(b) From disintegrating nuclear elements
(c) From biomass
(d) From natural gas
RRB Bhubaneshwar (Technical), 03.06.2001
Ans. (c) : Non-conventional energy is called renewable
energy. Such as wind energy, solar energy, ocean
energy, geothermal energy, biomass etc. The ministry
of renewable energy in India was formed in 1982.
13. Which of the following fossil fuels is the cleanest
fuel ?
(a) Coal (b) Petrol
(c) Natural gas (d) Diesel
RRB Secunderabad Technician-III(Electrical) ,
11.12.2005 16. As part of the national climate change policy the
Ans. (c) : Among coal, petrol, natural gas and diesel,
natural gas is the cleanest fuel because it's burning does
not cause pollution. Petroleum products come under
natural fuel. These are formed from fossil buried within
the earth.
14. The government aims to produce electricity from
biomass by 2022
(a) 50 G W (b) 25 G W
(c) 15 G W (d) 10 G W
RRB Kolkata (Technician-III), 20.08.2006
Ans. (d) : A target of 175 Gigawatt (GW) power
generation from renewable energy sources has been set
by 2022. In which the target is to obtain 100 GW from
solar energy, 60 GW from wind energy, 10 GW from
biomass and 5 GW from small hydropower sources.
15. Which of the following combinations represents a
renewable natural resource?
(a) Clean air, phosphates and biodiversity
(b) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
Environment Education
(c) Oil, forest and tide
(d) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
RRB Secundreabad Technical (Engineering),
20.05.2007
Ans. (b) : The following combination of fishes, fertile
soil and fresh water represented renewable resources.
Natural resources are those natural substances which
are generally considered valuable in their natural
origin. The value of a natural resource depends on how
much of the substance is available and the demand for
it. Natural resources there are two types-
(1) Renewable resources
(2) Non-Renewable resources
Renewable resources or new resources are those
resources whose reserves are replenished through
natural ecological processes. However if the
exploitation (use) of such resources by humans is
faster than the rate of their restoration, then these
resources cease to be renewable and they start
depleting.
According to the above definition, such resources
mostly include biological resources which are
transformed by biological process. For example,
human use of forest produce from a forest area is free.
Forest a renewable resource but if those forest produce
should be exploited at such a place that the rate of its
restoration exceeds. If it exceeds, the forest will start
decaying. Generally, renewable energy resources also
include renewable resources are included like solar
energy, wind energy, geothermal energy etc. But in
true sence this energy resource is renewable energy
resource and not renewable.
government of India plans to increase the
installed capacity of renewable energy to what
extent by 2030 ?
(a) 200 GW (b) 250 GW
(c) 350 GW (d) 175 GW
RRB Chennai Technician (Engineering),
15.04.2007
Ans. (c) : As part of the national climate change policy
the government of India plans to increase the installed
capacity of renewable energy to 350 GW by 2030.
Climate change refers to historical changes in the
patterns of average weather conditions, generally these
changes are studied by dividing the earth's history into
long periods. This change in climate condition can be
natural or human caused. Also as a result of the
activities of the greenhouse effect and global warming
are considered to be the result of human actions.
Which is the result of increase in the amount of carbon
dioxide etc. Gases emitted from industries by human in
the atmosphere after the industrial revolution.
540 YCT
17. The saying 'Tragedy of the commons' is in
reference to which of the following ?
(a) Sad incident related to loss caused due to
poisonous gas spread
(b) Sad condition of poor people
(c) Depletion of renewable free resources
(d) Climate change
RRB Patna Technical Exam, 27.07.2008
Ans. (c) : The concept of tragedy of the commons is
related to the depletion of renewable free resources. It
is based on the economic principles of Garrett Hardin.
This is an economic problem in which every person
tries to take the biggest benefit from the available
resources, due to which a problem arises in the demand
and supply of resources. If human exploit the freely
available resources faster than the rate of their
restoration then these resources no longer exist and
they start depleting.
18. The percentage of renewable energy sources in
electricity production in India is-
(a) 2-3% (b) 22-25%
(c) 10-12% (d) 1%
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Patna)-2001
Ans. (c) : The percentage of renewable energy sources
in electricity production in India was 10-12%. As of
October 31, 2016 the installed capacity of energy
production in India was 307.27 GW of which there is
46.33 GW of renewable energy which is 15% of the
total energy production is the percentage part. India
currently has total renewable energy capacity of 168.96
GW (as on 28th feb. 2023).
19. The second most important source contributing
to India's energy requirement after fossil fuel is-
(a) Solar energy (b) Nuclear energy
(c) Water energy (d) Wind energy
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Mumbai)-2001
Ans. (c) : Second most important source contributing to
India's energy requirement after fossil fuel is water 23. Which of the following non-conventional energy
energy. Water energy (hydropower) is used to produce
electricity.
The order of sectors getting the energy requirements in
India is as follows type is:
Fossil fuel (Thermal) > Hydropower Solar energy >
Wind energy > Nuclear energy.
20. Which of the following sources of energy is
available in India holds maximum possibility ?
(a) Solar energy (b) Vat (wind) energy
(c) Ocean thermal energy (d) Tidal energy
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Gorakhpur)-2001 Magma also heats rocks and underground layers of
Ans. (a) : Solar energy- Sunlight is available in most water which can be released through geysers, hot
of the month of the year in tropical and sub-tropical springs and stem vents all the geothermal energy
countries. Therefore in such countries, solar energy examples.
Environment Education
can be used instead of fossil fuels. In our country a
solar power plant has been installed in shirdi sai baba
dham located in Maharashtra. Due to which food is
prepared for several thousand people every day. Thus
in accessible countries, solar energy should be used
extensively in place of fossil fuels with minimum use
of traditional energy sources. The developed countries
should provide technical and economic assistance to
poor and developing countries to set up solar power
plants there because rising earth's temperature is a
(global warming) problem.
21. The correct order of sources of energy in terms of
share in India's power sector is :
(a) Thermal > Nuclear > Aqueous > Wind
(b) Thermal > Aqueous > Nuclear > Wind
(c) Aqueous > Nuclear > Thermal > Wind
(d) Nuclear > Aqueous > Wind > Thermal
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Secunderabad)-2001
Ans. (b) : Sector wise details of energy production in
India are as follows-
Thermal (67.0%), Aqueous (13.6%), renewable
energy (17.4%), and nuclear (2.1%). So the correct
order is Thermal > Aqueous > Nuclear > Wind.
22. Which of the following is the main element of bio-
gas?
(a) Methane and carbon dioxide
(b) Methane and nitric oxide
(c) Methane, hydrogen and nitric oxide
(d) Methane and sulphur dioxide
RRB Asst. Loco Pilot (Gorakhpur)-2002
Ans. (a) : The composition of Bio-gases are methane,
carbon dioxide, nitrogen, hydrogen sulphide etc
contribute to the chemical composition of bio-gas. But
mainly the concentration of CH4 and CO2 is highest in
it. On the basis of percentage, the CH4 (50-60%
approx), CO2 (38-34% approx), N2 (1-5% approx),
H2O (6% approx).
sources can be exploited with most economically?
RRB Assistant Locopilot (Kolkata)
Exam. 2002
(a) Solar (b) Wind
(c) Geothermal
(d) Marine thermal energy conversion
Ans. (c) : Geothermal energy- Geothermal energy is
obtained from the heat generated within the earth.
Below the earth's crust, which is made up of rocks and
water, there is a lager of hot molten rock called magma.
541 YCT
 ■ The author of book 'Nature of the environment' is
6.15. Miscellaneous - Andrew Gaudie
■ The study of mutual interaction of living organism ■ The first and only emperor in India who promoted
and environment is called - Ecology environmental protection - The Great Ashoka
■ Ecology is the study of relationships among the ■ For the protection of environment, 'Appiko
- Organism and environment Movement' was started from the following region in
■ All living things make on the Earth - Biome India
■ The study of synecology is - Biological community
- South India
■ Those plants which grow in sandy soil are called
■ On the lines of Chipko Movement, the movement
- Psammophyte
started in Karnataka under the leadership of
■ Edaphic factors are related to - Soil
Bhandurang Hegde, its name is - Appiko
■ The study of pedology is - Soil
■ The founder of the Chipko movement for
■ More or less number of species in an ecosystem are
environment in India is - Sunderlal Bahuguna
stabilized by - Predators
■ The most active sphere among the components of the
■ Where two main communities meet each other that
area is called - Ecotone environment is - Lithosphere
■ According to Odum, niches are ■ The second World Environment Conference, it is
- Micro housing/functional area called Rio-10 was held in
■ Biosphere includes - Johannesburg (South Africa)
- Atmosphere, hydrosphere and lithosphere ■ 'Appiko movement' is related to
■ The forms of environmental consciousness is - Mountainous region of Palvi and Nilgiris
- Regional, National and international ■ Saving the forests of the Western Ghats in Kerala is
■ The first world environment conference was related to - Silent valley movement
organized in the year - 1972 ■ Ultraviolet rays coming from the sun are prevented
■ Rio World Environment conference is considered to from reaching the Earth's surface by - Ozone layer
be - Earth conference ■ The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is
■ World water day is celebrated on - 22 March - Nitrogen
■ Wind speed is measured by - Anemometer ■ The percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is
■ First world Environment conference was held in - 21%
- Stockholm ■ Biological factor of the environment is
■ The importance of environmental studies is - Vegetation
- Rising pollution ■ How many countries are participated in the first
■ The Earth Summit was organized in World Environment Conference which was held at
- Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) 1992 Stockholm
■ The world wildlife fund was established in - 1961 - 119 countries
■ The main document of 'Rio conference' or 'Earth ■ The physical factor of the environment is
Conference' was - Water, air and soil
- Rio declaration and agenda 21, Biological ■ There is relation with geography, sociology and
science of - Environment studies
conservation convention and forest protection and
■ World Environment Day is celebrated of - 5 June
related to rising temperature in the environment.
■ Autecology is the study of
■ The woman of Khejrali village who had sacrificed her
- a species and environment
life fighting for the protection of the environment
■ United Nations Environment Program (UNEP)
- Amrita devi
Started in - June, 1972
■ The major movements launched for environmental ■ Chipko movement was started in - 1973
consciousness in India are
■ Silent valley is located in - Kerala
- Chipko movement, silent valley movement and■ Environment is - An open system
Narmada Bachao Andolan ■ The name of famous document to make the Earth
■ Narmada Bachao Andolon (NBA) is started by green again in the 21st century in the Rio Earth
- Medha Patekar (5 April 1961) Conference is - Agenda-21
■ Chipko movement was started from the following ■ the most abundant gas is the atmosphere after
district of Uttarakhand - Chamoli nitrogen and oxygen is - Argon
■ Biotic component of the environment is ■ Where interactions between organisms are occur
- Plants, animals and microorganisms. - Biosphere
Environment Education 542 YCT
■ The biosphere extends to the lower depths of the ■ The father of the word 'Ecology' was - Haeckel
ocean - 17 km ■ The group of gases around the Earth is called
■ The city of Kyoto is located in - Japan - Atmosphere
■ How many principles were established in the ■ The amount of Nitrogen is dry air is - 78%
Stockholm declaration 1972 - 26 ■ Which of the noble gases is not found in air - Radon
■ In June 1972, at the Human Environment Conference ■ If the vegetation (Plants) found on the Earth ends,
in Stockholm a document of activities related to then which gas will be lacking - Oxygen
environmental protection was prepared ■ Ecosystem concept was proposed by - A.G. Tansley
- Magna Carta of World Environment ■ Earth's largest ecosystem is - Biosphere
■ Where was it decided to celebrate the world ■ Among the biotic components of the ecosystem, the
environment day on June 5th. - Stockholm productive component is - Green plants
■ Most of the treaties signed in 'Rio Earth summit', ■ Who comes under the first trophic level
controversial treaty is - Bio conservation method - Green plant
■ How many countries are participated in the Kyoto ■ The source of renewable energy is - Solar energy
Summit - 159
■ Decade of sustainable energy for all is an initiative of
■ International Bio Program (IBP) was started in - 1964 - United Nations
■ The person who develops public awareness towards ■ The concept of energy crisis is
water conservation in the village of Alwar district of
- The danger of running out of fossil fuels like coal
Rajasthan is - Rajendra Singh
and petrol
■ The Plateau part of the World's surface is - 33%
■ The best source of power generation in India on the
■ Temperature, rainfall and humidity and wind are the basis of sustainability is - Hydroelectricity
elements of - Climate
■ The largest depositary of alternative energy is
■ Environmental education center is located at
- Solar energy
- Ahmedabad ■ Solar energy is produced by - Sun
■ Ministry of Environment and forests is located at
■ The best energy source to keep the environment clean
- New Delhi is - Solar cell
■ "The ecological sum of living beings is the ■ The inorganic pollutants that contaminating the
environment", this statement is related to - Fitting ground water are - Arsenic
■ Who was the German Biologist - Ernst Haeckel ■ Which industry debris cavses maximum chemical
■ Term 'Ecology' was proposed by - Haeckel (1869) pollution - Leather Industry
■ "The study of the structure and function of the ■ Smog is related to - Air pollution
ecosystem is called ecology." This statement is said ■ Biological oxygen demand (BOD) is a type of
by - Eugene Odum pollution index. It related to - Aquatic Ecosystem
■ Carbon dioxide gas in the atmosphere is - 0.03% ■ Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a standard
■ The branch of ecology on the basis of habitat is parameter for
- Forest, Grassland and Marine Ecology - To quantify pollution in aquatic ecosystems
■ Govind Ballabh Pant National Institute of Himalayan ■ An excess of BOD in a water area, it indicates that
Environment and development is located at
- Its water is being polluted by sewage
- Almora (Uttarakhand)
■ For the determination of water pollution in a river, the
■ Parklands are found in - South Africa amount of dissolved is measured with - Oxygen
■ World population control day is celebrated on
■ Minamata disease is caused by the dissolution of
- 11 July which metal in water - Mercury
■ World forest day is celebrated on - 21 March
■ Water borne diseases are - Diarrhea
■ Earth day is celebrated on - 22 April
■ The surface of the Earth is covered by
■ World Ozone day is celebrated on - 16 September
- Water and land
■ World food day is celebrated on - 16 October
■ Which disease can be caused by accumulated water
■ World animal day is celebrated on - 4th October
- Malaria
■ National Bird day is celebrated on - 5th January
■ The cause of air pollution is - Smoke
■ National Institute of oceanography is located at
■ The full form of CNG is - Compressed Natural Gas
- Panaji (Goa)
■ Which energy can be converted into electrical energy
■ The basic objective of the Chipko movement was
by solar cell - Light energy
- Avoid cutting trees
Environment Education 543 YCT
■ Air pollution can be reduced by - Plants Natural Resources
■ The factor of global warming is ■ The type of forests found in maximum quantity in
- Exhaust gases from vehicles India is - Tropical deciduous forest
■ CNG is used as a fuel in - Vehicles and industries ■ In which state of India, Jhumming agriculture causes
■ LPG is the short form of - Liquefied petroleum gas maximum damage to forest areas in India - Odisha
■ Biodiesel is prepared by - Jatropha ■ The grassland of 'Pampaz' are in - South America
■ The Non-polluting source of energy is - Solar energy ■ The grassland of 'Veld' is in - South Africa
■ The science of that studies the relationship between ■ The grassland of steppe is in - Eurasian
living organisms and their environment is called
■ The grassland of Savanna is in - South Africa
- Environment studies
■ The grassland of Prairie is in - North America
■ The symbol of development is considered as
■ National aquatic animal is - Ganges River dolphin
- Development of industrial plant
■ Dolphin sanctuary is from
■ What are the causes of extensive damage to the
environment - Dam construction, road - Sultanganj to Kahalgaon
construction, mining work ■ 4.5% of the total worlds energy come from - Coal
■ On the basis of structure, how many parts of the ■ 'Rukh Bhaila' movement was started in Rajasthan
natural environment is - Four from - Banswara
■ What percentage of the total area of the Earth is the ■ Food mineral is a - Salt
extension of land on the terrain - 29%■ According to the National Forest Policy, what is the
■ For living being, which element is considered as a percentage of the area should be forested? - 33%
most nutritional element - Nitrogen ■ The renewable resource is - Plant
■ Which part of the atmosphere layer absorbs ■ The decaying resource is - Minerals
ultraviolet rays - Ozone layer ■ The most harmful to renewable natural resources is
■ Due to which force the rain drops fall down
- Human
- Force of gravity
■ The movement started by Mrs. Ladki, a Bhil woman
■ The most of the micro organism in which type of
of Banswara district for forest development. This
environment do more reproduction
movement is known as - Rukh Bhaila Movement
- Humid environment
■ The non-metallic minerals on which Rajasthan has
■ The natural cycle of gas, creates organisms through
monopoly - Marble
many chemical reactions- - Nitrogen
■ In the world, the largest area under forest is
■ Work as scavengers in the biosphere is
- Latin America continent
- Decomposer
■ At present, the percentage of total area covered by
■ The purifier of Earth is - Bacteria and fungi
forest in India is - 24.62% (2021)
■ To save the environment, the Chipko movement is
■ the movement of soil from one place to another is
related to which state - Uttrakhand
called as - Soil Erosion
■ Van Mahotsav Day is celebrated on in our country
■ Indira Gandhi Canal project is run in the state of
During the 1st week of July i.e. from 1st 7 July
- Rajasthan
■ Decibel is the unit of measurement of - Sound
■ How many percentage of world's energy used on
■ The main reason for having day and night is India - 6.1%
- Earth rotating on its axis ■ The largest source of energy on earth is - Sun
■ The flow of energy in a food chain is ■ Operation flood is related to - Milk
- unidirectional ■ The national bird of our country is - Peacock
■ The primary source of energy in the ecosystem is ■ Siriska tiger projected is located at - Alwar
- Sun light■ The forests found near the equator are called
■ An example of an ecosystem is - Pond - Tropical rain forests
■ Which rays coming from the sun are blocked by the ■ The vegetation of a place mainly depends on - rain
Ozone layer. - Ultraviolet rays ■ Central Arid zone research Institute (CAZRI) is
■ Which two gases are spread over 99% of the situated - Jodhpur
atmosphere - Oxygen and Nitrogen ■ Desertification can be controlled by
■ The name of the lowest layer of the atmosphere is - Prohibition on cutting of desert vegetation,
- Troposhere conservation of moisture and development of dry
■ The inter connected group of the food chain is called agriculture and belt of trees should be
- Food web developed in the way of air
Environment Education 544 YCT
■ About what percentage of the world is desert ■ On what percentage of the Earth is water found
- 33% - 71%
■ Due to Jhum cultivation ■ Zawar Mines is situated in which district of Rajasthan
- Vegetation is cut and burned it. - Udaipur
■ A source of conventional energy - Geothermal ■ Non conventional source of energy is
■ Gobar gas mainly consist of - Methane - Solar energy, wind energy and Bio gas
■ The hydroelectric power station in Rajasthan is ■ The leading state in the production of lead and zinc is
- On chambal river, on Mahi river and on - Rajasthan
Jawahar Sagar Dam ■ Example of renewable resource is
■ The Natural resources are - Air, solar energy, soil
- Solar energy, wind, soil
■ The reason of less rainfall in Rajasthan is
■ Example of non renewable resource is
- Position of Aravalli
- Petroleum, Natural gas and copper
■ The suez canal connects
■ The natural resource is
- The Mediterranean sea and the Red sea
■ The largest ocean in the world is - Pacific ocean - Water, land and mineral resources
■ Bhakra dam is situated on - Satluj river ■ Tanga is - type of biome
■ Turpentine oil is obtained from - Pine tree ■ The forest region in the whole world is - 31%
■ What percentage of India is covered by mountains ■ The total area of forests in India is - 24.62% (2021)
- 30% ■ The most forested state in India is
■ India exports the most of - Manganese ore - Madhya Pradesh (Area wise)
■ India soils are deficient in the element - Nitrogen ■ Forests suffer the most due to
■ Cauvery water dispute is between - Deforestation for agricultural work
- Karnataka and Tamil Nadu ■ The impact of deforestation on the environment
■ Camel breeding centre in Rajasthan is located in - Recurrence of floods, adverse effect on the
- Bikaner climate and increase in soil erosion
■ The article on wild species that have disappeared in ■ What percentage of the entire hydrosphere is found in
the last thirty years is in the - Red Data Book pure form - 2.6%
■ The pH value of normal water is - 7.0 ■ The largest fresh water lake in the World is
■ Mathania solar power project is located in which - Chilka Lake
district of Rajasthan - Jodhpur
■ The Thar desert is located in - Rajasthan
■ The most suitable type of soil for the growth of plants
■ The country that consumes the most energy in the
is - Loamy soil
world is - USA
■ The land without nutrients remains fertile
■ The contribution of fossil fuel to the total energy of
- By the action of microbes
the world is - 52%
■ Environmental side effects of mining is
■ The effect of soil erosion is
- Forest destruction, landslide,
- Loss of soil fertility, reduction in vegetation
environmental imbalance
cover and loss of pasture
■ MAB is - Man and Biosphere
■ The problem found in desert areas are
■ A treeless biome is - Tundra
■ Which is a natural biome - Forest - Salinity, change in climate and exploitation
■ The coast between Kanyakumari to Goa is called of ground water
- Malabar coast ■ The protective function of importance of forests is
■ What percentage of the total irrigated land of India is - Protection from soil erosion, protection from
irrigated by canals - 41% landslides and protection from drought and flood.
■ The forest found in areas of 50 to 100 cm rainfall are - ■ The traditional method of storing rain water is
Dry forests - Ponds, tubewells and step wells
■ The forest research institute of India is located at ■ That river of India is famous for its flood
- Dehradun - Koshi river
■ The soil erosion can be prevent by - Forest ■ The harmful caused to the environment by mining is -
■ An example of molecular mineral are Reduction of forests, threat to wildlife and air
- Uranium, thorium and Monazite pollution from mining particles and dust.
■ The source of pollution free energy is ■ Measures to prevent damage cause by mining are
- Wind energy, solar energy, tidal energy - Backfilling of large pits, proper disposal of
■ Oil field is located in - Digboi debris, effective closure of unauthorized mines
Environment Education 545 YCT
■ Barsinghsar is situated in - Bikaner district ■ The area in which limited human activity is allowed
■ The type of soil erosion are in the reserve biosphere is - Buffer zone
- Wind, river and glacial erosion ■ The most important advantage of forests is
■ The loss resulting from soil erosion is - Wild animal and their products
- Extreme decrease in soil fertility, increase ■ Acidity of acidic soil can be reduced by
in flood and famine and expanse of desert - Dolomite or gypsum
■ The reason for the desert are ■ The main cause of soil erosion is - Deforestation
- Humus in the soil is negligible, the annual
rainfall is very less and the fertility of the Ecosystem
land is very low ■ Ecosystem consists of
■ The vegetation found in cold desert is - Biotic and abiotic components
- lichens and mosses ■ River is ecosystem of - Natural water and saline
■ Rajasthan energy development agency (REDA) was ■ The term 'ecosystem' was coined by -
established in - 1985 A.G Tansley(1935)
■ The reason for desertification are ■ The term 'Biocoenosis' was given by - Karl Mobius
- Excessive deforestation, harsh climatic ■ In a normal food chain, the links (positions) are found
conditions, in controlled pastoralism - Three or four
■ The creeping death of the soil is known as ■ The grazing food chain begins with - Autotrophically
- Soil erosion ■ The term 'ecological pyramid' was coined by
■ The types of soil erosion are - Charles Elton
- Sheet erosion, surface erosion and gully erosion ■ The type of ecological pyramid are - Three
■ The problem related to food problem is
■ Pyramid of straight shape are always obtained
- Decrease in availability of water and pollution,
- Bio energy
depletion of marine resources and energy crisis
■ Example of decomposers are - Bacteria and fungi
■ The direct effect of deforestation is
■ The smallest ecosystem created by humans is
- Shortage of forest products
- Aquarium
■ The importance of forests is - To stop soil erosion
■ The largest ecosystem is - Marine ecosystem
■ The benefits of organic agriculture are
■ The food level of an ecosystem is called
- Less expensive, land longer remains
- Trophic level
fertile till there is no soil pollution
■ In the food web - Many food chains remain isolated
■ The accumulation of salts on the soil is called
■ According to Odom the types of food chain are
- Salinization
- Two
■ The collection of irrigation water in the fields is
■ The producers are - Green plants
called - Water logging
■ Types of ecological pyramids are
■ What are used to destroy worms - Vermicides
- Pyramid of number, pyramid of biomass and
■ The most produced food grain in the world
pyramid of energy
- Rice
■ The main source of energy in the ecosystem is - Sun
■ The effect of deforestation are
■ Living components included
- Flood, drought and landslide
- Producers, consumers and decomposer
■ The national park is
■ The pond is - Natural ecosystem
- Areas that are reserved for the growth and
■ The position of man in the ecosystem is
development of wildlife
■ The endangered species are - Man is most important in this ecosystem
■ Algae in the ecosystem are - Producer
- Godavan and the unicorn, Asian donkey
■ For tree and grassland ecosystems, pyramid of
and male swamp deer (Barasingha)
biomass is - Always upright
■ The species which are threatened with extinction due
■ The grasslands of India are called - Savannah
to human activities are called - Endangered species
■ In the ecosystem, solar energy is conserved by
■ Mineral resource is - Non-renwable
■ Evergreen temperate forests are found in India - Producers
■ In a food chain, the largest number is that of
- Below 3500 m in the Eastern and
- Producers
Western Himalayas
■ The energy flows in the ecosystem is
■ The 'wildlife Act' implemented in India in - 1972
■ The biosphere reserve programme was established in - Producer→Herbivores
India, in - 1986 →Carnivorous→Decomposer

Environment Education 546 YCT

■ The more complex the food web the ecosystem will ■ How many levels of productive vegetation - Three
more - Stable ■ An examples of a terrestrial ecosystem are
■ British ecologist Charles Elton has suggested - Forest, grassland and desert ecosystem
ecological pyramids, their number is - Three ■ On the basis of biomass, savanna regions considered
■ In an ecosystem, the loss of energy in an energy level rich are found in - Africa
change is - 10% ■ Who helps in balancing the ecosystem
■ In the presence of Sun's light photosynthesis can be - Producer, decomposer and consumer
done by - Chlorophyll ■ Maximum number in pond's ecosystem is of
■ If all the plants disappear from this earth, then - Producers
- All living beings will die ■ Every food chain ends in - Decomposers
■ Green plants are the first link of any food chain ■ In the process of photosynthesis gas is taken from the
because atmosphere - CO2
■ The pyramid of biomass is
- They alone have a capacity to fix atmospheric
CO2 in the presence of sunlight - Sometimes straight and sometimes inverted
■ The famous India ecologist is - Ramdeo Misra
■ The types of geochemical cycle are
- Water cycle, gaseous cycle and sedimentary cycle Environmental Pollution
■ The example of a sedimentary cycle is ■ Pollution changes in
- Physical, chemical and biological properties
- Phosphorus cycle
■ The gas responsible for acid rain is - SO2 and NO2
■ An example of artificial ecosystem is - Water park
■ Photochemical smog is formed from - Ozone
■ An example of salt water ecosystem is - Sea
■ The government of India enacted the water pollution
■ The example of omnivores is - Human control and prevention act in - 1974
■ Who was introduced the idea of 'food chain' in the ■ DDT means - Dichloro diphenyl trichloro ethane
ecosystem - Charles Elton ■ Sound intensity is measured in - Desible
■ In any food chain, human is belongs to ■ The gas responsible for the greenhouse effect is
- Tertiary consumer - CFC, CO2, CH4
■ In the ecosystem occurs ■ The heat absorption capacity of CFC is more than
- Loss of both energy and minerals that of CO2 is - 20,000 times
■ On the basis of functionality the biological ■ The global temperature of the Earth is approximately -
components of the ecosystem have been divided into 14.9ºC (2020)
- Three categories ■ The structure of ozone is - O3
■ The types of ecosystems are - Two ■ The ozone layer blocks the rays coming from the Sun
■ The author of foundation of ecology is - Ultraviolet radiations
- Eugene odum ■ The diseases caused by ultraviolet radiations are
- Cataracts, Cancer, skin disease
■ India's place in the world in terms of diversity of
plants is - 10th ■ Where is the hole in the Ozone layer - Antarctica
■ Who is the responsible for Ozone depletion - CFC
■ Loss of energy at each trophic level is - 10%
■ CFC is used for
■ The maximum amount of energy in an ecosystem is
- Refrigerator, air conditioner and perfume spray
- At lowest level
■ Montreal protocol was conducted in - 16 Sep 1987
■ Pampas is a - grassland
■ In which country was the Kyoto Protocol (1997)
■ Each link or organism in the producer consumer
organized - Japan
system of the ecosystem is called - Trophic level
■ The concentration measurement unit of ozone gas is
■ the process by which plants make a food by getting
energy from the Sun is called - Photosynthesis - Dobson
■ The first trophic level in the food chain is ■ BOD is related to - Oxygen
- Green plants ■ Elnino is - Warm water flow
■ The types of mass consumer are - Three ■ Bhopal gas accident was happened in - 2 Dec, 1984
■ The energy flows in the desert chain - Sequentially ■ International center for environmental information is
located at - New York
■ The cold desert conditions are found in
■ The color of the Taj Mahal of Agra is yellow due to
- Siberian desert
- SO2
■ What percentage of the total area of India is arid land
■ Where and When did the two big incidents known as
- 12%
MIC and Chernobyl tragedy take place
■ Sewan Grass is a - Desert nutritious grass
- Bhopal 1984 and Ukraine 1986
Environment Education 547 YCT
■ The pollution is caused by the use of X-rays
- Radioactive pollution
■ The main source of soil pollution is
- Agricultural chemical
■ The threat to the Taj Mahal is
- Petroleum refinery plant
■ National Environmental Engineering Research
Institute (NEERI) is located at - Nagpur
■ The Air (Prevention and control of pollution) Act was
passed in India in - 1981
■ The ozone layer protects the Earth From
- Ultroviolet rays for the Sun
■ Example of non biodegradable pollutant is
- BHC (Benzene Hexachloride)
■ Amrita Devi Memorial Award is related to
- Forestry sector (wildlife protection)
■ Rivers can be prevented from thermal pollution by
- Preventing the discharge of not water from
thermal power plants into rivers
■ Example of biodegradable pollution is
- Human waste
■ Due to the effect of ultraviolet rays of the Sun in
Smog, serious pollutions are formed
- Ozone and PAN
■ What are used as fuel in buses running in Delhi
- CNG
■ CNG is - Source of energy
■ Example of non-degradable pollutant is - DDT
■ Lichens are indicator of the pollutant - SO2
■ An example of weedicide element is - 2, 4-D
■ Lichen and bryophyte plants started dying in the
forest near the industrial city. Due to the excess of
which pollutant this would have happened - SO2
■ The person who working in the coal mine get
- Black lung disease
■ Environmental pollution is related to - Asthma
■ Diseases caused by polluted water are
- Typhoid, Jaundice and dysentery
■ Sulfur dioxide and carbon monoxide are the factors of
- Air pollution
■ Decible the unit of measurement of noise pollution
was introduced by - Graham Bell
■ The acid that comes to the land in the form of acid
rain is - HNO2 and H2SO4
■ The best source of energy which never causes
pollution is - Solar energy
■ Per oxacetyl nitrate (PAN) is mainly
- Air pollutants
■ Plastic is also a pollutant because
- They are non-biodegradable
■ Who are the responsible for water pollution
- Sewage
■ The recently known source of pollution of ground
water is - land fill
Environment Education 548
■ Increases in temperature can lead to change in
- Glaciers will melt, coastal areas will submerge,
rainfall imbalance
■ Example of organic pollutant is
- Fung's bacteria, pollen grains of plants, bacteria
■ Natural disaster are - Earthquake, flood, draught
■ What was responsible for the minamata epidemic in
Japan in 1953
- Water pollution by mercury metal
■ Seismograph is - Seismometer
■ Earthquakes are studied by - Seismology
■ Earthquakes can be predicted by - Radon gas
■ The benefit from earthquake
- New sources of water emerge in mountainous
area, minerals are obtained from cracks in the
earth, submerged coastal land comes out of the
sea.
■ The region most affected by cyclones is - India
■ The way to reduce the intensity of flood is
- Stopping deforestation stopping cutting of trees,
in the catchment areas of rivers, stopping cutting
of trees on hill slopes
■ The divisions on the Richter scale are - 1 to 9
■ The main cause of flood are
- Heavy rainfall and cyclone
■ International decade for natural disaster reduction
was celebrated in UNESCO - During 1990 to 2000
■ Man made sources of pollutions are
- Industrial effluents, sewage thermal sources
■ The effect of air pollution are
- Effect on human health, effect on vegetation,
effect on animals and insects
■ The main pollution of water are
- Mercury, lead and zinc fluoride
■ The pH value of drinking water should be - 7 to 8.5
■ More than how many decibels the sound starts to
have an adverse effect on the hearing power - 80
■ Sulfur dioxide and carbon monoxide are the factors of
- Air pollution
■ The nature of pure water is - Neutral
■ The reason for the excess of respiratory diseases in
metropolitan cities is - Air pollution
■ Corrosion of buildings by acidic water is called
- Stone cancer
■ The main objective of the montreal protocol was
- Reduction of CO2
■ The way to reduce motor vehicle pollution is
- Improvement in the design of engines of motor
vehicles, use of refined fuels like CNG and LPG,
proper maintenance of motor vehicles
■ the effect of thermal pollution is
- Depletion of the protective layer of ozone gas,
increase in natural outbreaks, decrease in
atmospheric oxygen
YCT
■ When did scientists discover the ozone hole - 1998
■ The tropical cyclonic the united states in known as
- Hurricanes
■ The optimum temperature for plants is
- 25ºC to 30ºC
■ The main cause of thermal pollution is
- Ozone layer depletion, increase in CO2 from
human activities, increase in amount of
green house gases
■ The first nuclear test was conducted by - USA
■ An example of a degradable pollutant is
- Excrement, domestic waste, rotten
fruits and vegetables
■ An example of a non-degradable pollutant is
- Mercury compounds, DDT and Aldrin
■ Excess of which pollutant in water causes blue baby
syndrome in babies - Nitrate
■ Example of viral disease is
- Hepatitis, AIDS and Polio
■ Earthquake sensitive area in India is
- Himachal Pradesh
■ Richter scale was developed by the scientists of
which country - America
■ How many plates the Earth is made up of - 15
■ Which river is called the sorrow of Bengal
- Damodar River
■ Ozone is an - Inorganic gaseous air pollutant
■ Dahlia plant is an indicator of which air pollutant
- O3
■ The ozone layer is located is which layer of the
Earth's atmosphere - Stratosphere
■ Where did the international effort to stop pollution
take place in 1972 - Stockholm
■ Which chemotherapy is used in cancer disease - CO60
■ Neutron particles and γ, α, β rays are related to the
pollution of - Atom
■ Which chemical is banned - BHC
■ Algae bloom is responsible for the pollution of
- Water
■ Deformity of bones is due to - Fluorine
■ Who affects the food chain - lead
■ Eicchornia (Water hyacinth) will be polluted by
- Water
■ Ganga Action plan was started from - Varanasi
■ An international environmental organization, the first
president of green peace was - Mikhail Gorbachev
■ The percentage of ozone gas in the atmosphere is
- 0.000001%
■ The disease caused by air pollution to human is
- Asthma, cough and allergy
■ The most polluted city of the world is
- Lahore (Pakistan 2022)
■ India's most polluted city is - Bhiwadi (Rajasthan)
■ Hurricane 'sandy' hit which country - America
Environment Education
Environmental and social Issues
■ Successful efforts have been made for rural water
harvesting
- Relegan siddhi, Alwar and Sukhomajri
■ What is necessary for water conservation
- Proper use of water, control over
destruction of forests
■ Ralegan siddhi is related to - Anna Hazare
■ Water storage in alwar district is related to
- Rajendra singh
■ Tanka, Nadi, Khadin and Kundi etc are related to
- Clean water
■ Which country has the most dam in the world
- China
■ The approximate number of dams in India is
- 5334 (2019)
■ World commission on Dams was formed in - 1998
■ Tehri dam is situated at the confluence of rivers
- Bhagirathi and Bhilangna
■ Which environmentalist was related to Tehri Dam
- Sunderlal Bahuguna
■ 'Sardar Sarovar Project' is located on which river
- Narmada River
■ Bhakra Nangal Dam is located at - Sutlej River
■ The famous Hirakud Dam is situated at
- Mahanadi River
■ In India, environment protection Act was
implemented in - 1986
■ The government of India enacted the forest
conservation Act in - 1980
■ The National Wasteland Development Board
(NWDB) was established by the GOI in - 1985
■ CFC was invented in 1930-31 in which country
- USA
■ Green house effect term is given by - Joseph fourier
■ Earth's temperature has increased by 1ºC in the last
50 years, it is called - Global warming
■ Apart from carbon dioxide, which other gas is
responsible for temperature rise
- Methane, Nitrous oxide and CFC
■ Some methods of water conservation are
- Proper distribution system for water,
proper use of ground water, treatment of waste
water
■ What type of award has been awarded to Mr.
Rajendra singh in the year 2000 for working in the
rain water harvesting sector
- Ramon Magsaysay Award
■ The biggest problem in the construction of big dams
is - Resettlement of displaced person
■ The literal meaning of El-Nino is - little boy
■ Which pollution is responsible for the melting of ice
in the polar regions - thermal pollution
■ Acid rain is dangerous for - Soil fertility, pure water
549 YCT
■ Some examples of Green house gases are ■ Rawatbhata nuclear station in located at
- CO2, CH4, CFC - Chittorgarh (Rajasthan)
■ Chernobyl is famous for - Nuclear over exposure ■ The name of the miracle compound was given to
■ Who did not find a place in the Environment - CFC
protection Act 1986 ■ CFC is used for
- Ozone layer depletion, acid rain, - Air conditioning industries, plastic and
green house effect pharmaceutical industries, refrigeration industries
■ How many chapters and sections are there in the ■ The pH value is measured between - 0 to 14
environment (Protection) Act - 4 and 26 ■ The effects of global warming are
■ By which constitutional amendment the protection of - Lack of rain, change in climate, drought,
environment was prescribed as one of the famine and flood
fundamental duties of the citizens - 42th ■ Kyoto conference was held in the year - 1997
■ How many sections are in the air pollution Act - 54 ■ Some example of non-conventional source of energy
■ How many chapters are there in the air pollution Act are - hydro power, wind power and
-7 geothermal energy
■ How many sections and chapters are there in the wild ■ Which factors play a major role in the exploitation of
life (protection) Act, 1972 - 66 and 7 natural resources - Population explosion
■ The acid rain was first observed in ■ Biomass fuel/forms can be
- Manchester (England), in1852 - Solid, liquid and gaseous
■ The formula of methane gas is - CH4 ■ Which country is using the least amount of nuclear
■ What are the sources of water in India - Rain, surface energy - India
water and ground water ■ Non-renewable resources include
■ Which Indian monuments is affected by acid rain - Petroleum products
- Taj Mahal ■ The methods to raise the ground water level are
■ In which act the National park and sanctuary has been
- Harvest rainwater, draining the rainwater from
defined - Wildlife Protection Act
the roofs into the sock pit and taking out the soil
■ What is the biggest threat to the existence of living from the ponds and reservoirs and deepening
organisms on Earth - Radiation hazard
them
■ Chernobyl nuclear accident took place in
■ The method of treating and reusing waste water is
- Ukrain (In the former Saviet union) called - Recycling
, 26 April, 1986 ■ Among the many difficulties faced with the
■ The major environmental problems are construction of dams, the main one is
- Acid rain, global warming and green house effect - Social economic and cultural
■ World commission on Environment and development ■ Which section was related to environment included in
was established in - 1983
the India constitution in 1976 - 51-(A) g
■ Rajasthan's most prestigious forestry award is -
■ Environmental ethics means
Amrita Devi Memorial award
- Knowledge of best behavior with
■ The reason for increase in CFC are
- Cold storages and refrigerators environment by human
■ The reason for increase in methane is ■ The SI unit of radio activity is - Curie
- Due to rotting of sewage ■ Which elements are responsible for the depletion of
■ When an acid is dissolved in water, its pH value ozone layer - Aerosols foam
becomes - Less than 7 ■ The name of the scientist who was awarded the noble
■ When water becomes alkaline, its pH value is prize in 1945 for discovering the causes of ozone
depletion is - Sherwood Rowland
- More than 7
■ The term acid rain was coined by ■ The number of oxygen molecules in ozone is -3
- Robert Angus Smith ■ Where was the problem of acid rain first seen in 1958
■ The effects of acidic water are- Skin diseases and - Europe
allergies, decline in soil fertility, problem of stone ■ In the absence of green house gases, the maximum
cancer temperature of the Earth can be fall to - –20ºC
■ Ozone is formed of - Oxygen ■ Plants use carbon dioxide for the process of
■ World forestry day is celebrated every year on - Photosynthesis
- 21 March ■ Approximately what percentage of the total area in
■ Vienna conference was held in - 1985 the whole of India is wasted - 50%
■ In India, nuclear power plant is located in ■ The reason for the low proportion of land to man in
- Rawatbhata, Kalpakkam, Tarapur, etc India is - population explosion

Environment Education 550 YCT

■ The interaction between humans, other biological ■ Plant belongs to which type of category - Producer
elements and micro organisms and water, air and soil ■ Who is the author of 'the origin of species'
is called - Environment - Charles Darwin
■ To control air pollution the work done by the state ■ 'Wangari Maathai' is one of
board is - Kenya environmentalist and political activist
- To suggest for prevention of air pollution to the■ In what from does the energy coming out of the Sun
state government reach the Earth? - Radiation
■ According to the standards set by the water pollution ■ Atmospheric pressure is measured by - Barometer
prevention Board, the maximum amount of chlorine ■ Urbanization and industrialization are harmful for
in drinking water can be - 250 mg/litre - Balanced development, Environment and ecology
■ In which year the wildlife protection act was and conservation of biological diversity
amended ■ The word 'ecology' is derived from - Greek
- 1982, 1991, 2002 ■ Ecology means
■ Sanctuaries are declared - It deals with organisms plants and animals and
- Importance of Natural resources, modification of their study
geomorphologic, zoological and botanical ■ The upper layer of the earth which is capable of
resources supporting human life is called - Lithosphere
■ Rules for the protection of the environment which are ■ How much area of the Earth surface is covered by
necessary to be followed Hydrosphere - Approximate 70%
- Public awareness and public participation, ■ Which is the India's oldest conservation research
prevention of rapid growth of population, based NGO
compliance to flow in the river of faith - Bombay Natural History society (BNHS),
■ Organizations/programs working for environmental Mumbai
protection working at international level are ■ Example of non-renewable energy source is
- WWP, UNEP, MAB - Coal, petrolium natural gas
Very important question for examination ■ Burning coal releases into the environment
■ 'The decade of sustainable energy for all' is the - CO2 and Sulphur
initiative of - United Nations ■ Fossil fuels are mainly made up of - Carbon
■ Energy crisis means ■ Stockholm declaration, 1972 is related to
- Danger to running out of fossil fuels like - Environment Protection
coal and petrol ■ What is it called when wind or rain moves soil from
■ Which organic compound that are contaminated the one place to another - Soil Erosion
ground water - Arsenic ■ The lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere are the
■ Which dissolved amount is measured to determine area of study - Environmental study
the water pollution in the river - O2 ■ In which part of the atmosphere do we live
■ the largest producer and exporter of rubber in the - Troposphere
world is - Thailand ■ Example of renewable resources is - Water
■ The branch of agriculture that deals with the ■ Wind based power plant is installed in
cultivation of vegetables - Horticulture - Devgarh and Chittorgarh
■ The lowest layer of the atmosphere is known as ■ The layer of atmosphere closest to the Earth's surface
- Troposphere is - Troposphere
■ The total area of species of organisms, plant and ■ World Earth Day is celebrated on - 22 April
animals within which they are found is known as ■ Due to the destruction of forests
- Biota - Soil erosion occurs, rainfall decreases
■ Which types of forests are found in Uttar Pradesh the earth heats up
- Tropical rainforest ■ Fertility often decreases with - Intensive cultivation
■ The national center for coral reef research is located ■ The plants which are found in dry climate are
at - Dania Beach Florida - Xerophytes
■ Nagoya Protocol is related to - Biological Diversity ■ Humus is an important part of - Soil
■ Abiotic component is - Sunlight ■ Mica is a - Non-metallite mineral
■ Rabbit belongs to which type of category ■ Red Data Book has been prepared by
- Herbivorous - IUCN (International Union for
■ Producers in the ecosystem are known as - Grass conservation of Nature)
■ In photosynthesis oxygen is produced by - Water ■ The most harmful pollutant is
■ Photosynthesis pigments absorb - Direct radiation - Radioactive substances
Environment Education 551 YCT
■ Which gas is responsible for global warming - CO2 ■ The word used to change water from liquid to gas in
■ Which metal combination makes water poisonous known as - Evaporation
- Mercury and lead ■ The process by which water vapour release from the
■ Radioactive substance is - Uranium leaves of plants is called - Transpiration
■ Vermicompost food is prepared by - Earthwarms ■ The term that refers to the conversion of water vapour
into water is known - Rain
■ The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is - Vertical
■ The term related to the return of water to the Earth is
■ Terrestrial ecosystems include known as - Rain
- The forest, grasslands and deserts ■ Which pollutant is decomposed by micro organisms
■ Which bacteria is responsible for oxidizing ammonia and converted into a form that benefits aquatic life
to nitrate - Nitrosomonas - Biotic
■ In which sanctuary the blackbuck of Rajasthan is ■ Examples of gaseous pollutants are
situated - Tal chhapar, churu - Carbon monoxide, CO2 and SO2
■ Keoladeo national park is famous for-Bird sanctuary ■ Example of solid pollutants are
■ The article in the red data book is - Glass and plastic, Thermocol and plaster
- Endangered species of animals, plants and fungi of paris (POP)
■ Smog is mixture (blended) of - Smoke and fog ■ Recyling and rebuilding of the used material and
■ Acid rain is caused by - SO2 and NO2 selling it as a new item is called - Recycling
■ Air pollution can be caused by ■ The full form of IPCC is
- Due to industries, Automatic vehicles and - Intergovernmental Panel on climate change
combustion of wastes ■ London conference held in - 1990
■ Fluorosis disease is caused by ■ The water found on the surface of the earth in rivers,
- More than 1.5 ppm fluoride in water streams, lakes and low lands is known as
■ The main reason for water pollution is - Surface water
■ Solar power plant, wind mill, hydraulic power plant
- Industrial waste
and paper industry etc are based on
■ The Environmental protection act (EPA) came into
- Natural resources
force of - 1986
■ How many Earth's temperature has increased over the
■ Green house effect is happening due to past ten years due to the greenhouse effect
- infrared rays - 0.3 to 0.6ºC
■ Mangrove vegetation is found in India in ■ Excessive and irregular increase in the temperature of
- Sundarbans delta the Earth in due to
■ The full form of CFC is - Chlorofluoro Carbon - green house gases, Sun's rays not coming back
■ The full form of HIV is after colliding with the earth's surface
- Human immunodeficiency virus ■ The commercial source of energy is - Electricity
■ To maintain and proper use of natural resources is ■ The primary energy consumption in India is
called - conservation 1
- of the world
■ Ecosystem consists of 29
- living being, physical environment (land, water, ■ The biggest air pollutant is - CO
air) and energy source to make everything work ■ The number of spheres found on the Earth is -4
■ Natural or human-induced factors than directly or ■ Temperature of the Earth due to the Greenhouse
indirectly cause a change in an ecosystem is called as effect is - Increased
- Drivers ■ Under energy conservation act
■ A ....... driver, affects the ecosystem in a clear way - Setting building codes, setting energy
- Direct consumption rules and standards and
■ When such a things is found in the environment mandatory lebeling directly on equipment
which is harmful for humans and other animals and ■ The country that holds are largest share of global coal
living beings it is called - Pollution reserves - USA
■ Global warming, acid rain, smog and depletion of ■ The fifth largest country in the production of coal and
ozone etc are the symptoms of which pollution - Air lignite in the world is - India
■ Deficiency of oxygen in water due to excessive algac ■ The disease related to water pollution is
growth due to increase of pollutants in water is - Stomach, skin disease, food poisoning
known as - Eutrophication ■ Using less energy to do the same work is called
■ The water cycle is - Energy efficiency
- Circulation of water in a particular ecosystem ■ The sound of extreme intensity is called - Noise

Environment Education 552 YCT

■ The main purposes of water purifier are ■ The most damage to the forest was caused by the
- Deodorize, color correction and removal of - Cutting of trees by humans
dissolved gases in water ■ Air pollution is caused due to
■ Which is not an example of surface water - Mixing to smoke, ash, toxic gases etc in the air
- wells water ■ The tolerable volume of sound for an ordinary person
■ What works come under the environment protection is - 65 to 80 dB
act 1986 - Planning, researching and setting
■ Gas, vapour, dust particles, smoke mist etc are
quality standards indicators of - Chemical hazards
■ Unpleasant odour is removed from water by
■ What can be done by spraying pesticides and
- Aeration
removing diseased trees - Conservation of trees
■ Hunting meaning under wild life protection act are
■ Who should be given priority in water distribution
- Capturing, killing, poisoning and trapping
of any wild animal - To drinking water
■ In places where smoke and fog are common ■ The existence of natural resources are on the verge of
pollutants which amount is more in those places destruction because of this only
- CO2 - Economic development process, modernization,
■ The gas on earth which is harmful for life and population growth
beneficial for plant is - CO2 ■ How many geographical areas of our country are
■ Which domestic waste cannot be decomposed national parks and sanctuaries - 1.33% (2020)
- Plastic ■ The main point source of water pollution is
■ The impact of good environment are - Underground coal mines
- Chance of good health, prevention from ■ Reprocessing of discarded material into a new useful
disease, safety of human life product is called - Material recycling
■ What is the color of environmental protection ■ The conversion of water vapor to ice in the water
- Green cycle process is called - Deposition
■ Energy is obtained directly and indirectly from ■ The primary source of water is - Rain water
- Sun ■ The change of water vapour into droplets of water
■ Once the object in the pot is boiled, it is necessary
occurs by the process of - Condensation
that - Reduce the heat
■ What falls under the physical hazard groups
■ The main source of noise pollution is
- loudspeaker, vehicle, and machine - Noise, vibration and Radiation
■ The pollution caused by the activity of radioactive ■ The scientific study of the relationship between man
and nuclear substance is called - Radiation pollution and his work environment is called - Ergonomics
■ According to the forest policy of 1988 was passed ■ The name used for the word 'waste' is -
- Resolutions of joint forest management MUDA (Japanese term)

Previous Years Question

1. A_____is defined as something that can directly Ans : (d) Henry Cavendish discovered hydrogen gas in
cause cancer. This can be a chemical substance, 1766. He obtained it by the reaction of dilute sulphuric
a virus, or radiation. acid on iron and named it inflammable air. In 1883,
(a) Carcinogen (b) Cardiogen Lavoisier named it hydrogen, it burns with oxygen to
(c) Detritus (d) Cankerous
form water.
RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
3. _____radiation has limited penetration ability
Ans : (a) : Carcinogen is a substance which directly can
cause cancer. This could be a chemical substance, virus and is usually stopped by clothing.
or radiation. Such as asbestos, gamma rays and (a) Neutron (b) Beta
aflatoxin B1, which is produced by fungi growing on (c) Gamma (d) Alpha
stored grains and nuts etc. RRB ALP & Tech. 08.02.2019 Shift-I
2. Henry Cavendish discovered _______in 1766. Ans : (d) : Alpha radiation have low penetration power,
(a) Helium (b) Chlorine So, usually prevented by normal clothing. These rays
(c) Oxygen (d) Hydrogen are very short wavelength by placing a piece of paper
where it is coming out, they cannot penetrate it.
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Environment Education 553 YCT
4. Green and yellow vegetables in our diet mostly
provide us which element as food?
(a) Copper (b) Potassium
(c) Sodium (d) Zinc
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-I
Ans : (b) Green and yellow vegetable present in our
diet mostly provide us potassium in the form of food.
Symptoms of potassium deficiency include weakness
and fatigue, muscle, cramps and stiffness, tingling and
numbness difficulty in breathing etc.
5. Which element is mostly provided by grains,
nuts and chocolates in our diet?
(a) Zinc
(b) Iodine
(c) Chloride
(d) Copper
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (d) Copper element is mostly provided by grains
nuts, and chocolates in our diet.
• Minerals are needed for the proper growth and normal
functioning of body. It’s deficiency cause anemia, loss
of pigment of skin.
6. Breathing in about 900 parts of ______ in a
million parts of air for a short time causes
fatigue, dizziness, and headache.
(a) Asbestos particles
(b) Pesticides
(c) Chloroform
(d) Arsenic
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (c) Chloroform in one million particles of air for
a short period of time, breathing in the presence of
approximately 900 particles causes fatigue, dizziness
and headache.
7. What is the name of the scientist who
discovered bacteria?
(a) James Chadwick
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Eugene Goldstein
(d) A.V. Leeuwenhoek
RRB ALP & Tech. 23.01.2019 Shift-III
Ans : (d) Bacteria was discovered by A.V.
Leeuwenhoek. Bacteria are a group of microscopic
single cell organisms that are found in almost every
environment on earth from deep vents to deep sea vents
and live in large numbers even in the digestive system
of human.
8. ____ is the fiber remaining after the extraction
of the sugar - bearing juice from sugarcane
(a) Forage (b) Compost
(c) Cullet (d) Bagasse
RRB ALP & Tech. 21.01.2019 Shift-II
Environment Education 554
Ans: (d) :Bagasse is the fiber left after the extraction
the sugar-rich juice from sugarcane. It is used as a fuel
to produce heat, energy and electricity.
Compost- The substance obtained from decaying
matter.
Cullet- In the recycling process of cullet glass, the glass
that is crushed and remelted is called cullet.
9. Alexander Fleming is best known for the
discovery of :
(a) Proton
(b) Bacteria
(c) X-rays
(d) Penicillin
RRB ALP & Tech. 22.01.2019 Shift-II
Ans : (d) : Alexander Fleming invented antibiotic in
1928 and named Penicillin. The discovery of penicillin
revolutionized the treatment of bacteria-based diseases.
For this discovery, they received the Nobel Prize in
medicine in 1945.
10. India's Antarctic study center is located.
(a) South Gangotri
(b) In Gangotri
(c) In Goa
(d) In Maitri
RRB Chandigarh Section Engineer (Civil),
26.02.2012
Ans. (a) : India's Antarctic study center is located in
South Gangotri. This center was established on 25
May 1998 by Dr. P.C. Pandey did it with current
director "Rasik Ravindra". It works under the ministry
of geology of the government of India which directs
the programs related to the India Antarctic Program.
Presently India's Antarctic Research Institute name is
Maitri.
11. A new variety of Bt-Brinjal has been developed
through genetic engineering of brinjal. Its target
is -
(a) It has to be made insect-resistant
(b) To make it more tasty and nutrition's.
(c) It has to be made water-free
(d) Its main purpose is to increase life span
RRB Jammu Section Eng. (Mech, Elec/Elect./Telecom),
2013
Ans. (a) : A new variety of brinjal "Bt-brinjal" has
been developed through genetic engineering. The aim
is to make it pest control. Bt-brinjal through genetic
engineering. A new variety of brinjal has been
developed.
YCT
12. Which process of cultivation is helpful in Ans. (d) : To collect data on world temperatures, the
environment conservation- number of global atmospheric monitoring station is
(a) Organic Agriculture '28'. According to the question, global atmosphere
(b) Shifting Cultivation monitoring in Algeria, Brazil and Kenya. The station
(c) Cultivation of varieties of high has been established.
(d) Growing plants in glass house
16. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
DMRC Electronics Engineering, 21.09.2014
(a) Center of Bangalore
Ans. (a) : "Organic agriculture" practice is favorable
ecological science
for the environment. The remaining three option lead to
environmental degradation. (b) Indian wildlife Dehradun
• Organic farming is a method of agricultural Institute
production and its aimed to sustainable agricultural (c) Indian institute Ahmedabad
production in an eco-friendly pollution. forest
13. Which is the correct sequence of occurrence of management
the following in simulated primitive land (d) Govind vallabh Almora
conditions. Pant institute of
(a) Methane, hydrogen cyanide, nitrite, amino acid Himalyan
(b) Hydrogen cyanide, methane, nitrite, amino acid environment and
(c) Amino acid, nitrite, hydrogen cyanide, development
methane RRB Kolkata Apprentice Supervisors, 14.10.2001
(d) Nitrite, amino acid, methane, hydrogen Ans. (c) : Indian Institute of forest management was
cyanide established in Bhopal in 1984 in collaboration with the
RRB Bhubaneshwar App. Electrical , 19.08.2001 Indian institute of management, Ahmadabad.
Ans. (a) : Simple in primitive land conditions 17. Which of the following parameters is used to
simulated in earth. Complex organic compound measure the damage caused by hurricane.
gradually emerged from organic compound. In this (a) Saffir - Simpson Scale
sequence first methane gas was produced, then (b) Mercali Scale
hydrogen cyanide, nitrite and amino acids. It is known (c) Fujita Scale
that living beings first originated in water due to the (d) Richter Scale
combination of amino acids. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Train Operators,
14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly 14.09.2003
matched? Ans. (a) : Hurricane damage using the saffir -
(a) Biosphere Reserve Edward-Suess Simpson Scale measurement is done.
(b) Ecosystem A.P.D. Candolle • The Saffir- Simpson huricane wind scale is a 1 to 5
(c) Ecology A.G.Tansley rating based on a huricane sustained wind speed.
(d) Biodiversity Reiter
18. Hekistotherms are plants that grow.
RRB Allahabad Signal Maintainer-II, 22.01.2006
(a) In bright light
Ans. (a) : Correct Match- (b) At high temperature
Biosphere Reserve – Edward-Suess (c) At very low temperature
Ecosystem – A.G.Tansley (d) In very low light
Ecology – Ernst Hackel DMRC Station Controller, 09.09.2007
Biodiversity – Raymond F. Dasmann. Ans. (c) : These plants grow at very low temperatures
15. In which of the following countries has the global in places with marshy condition. Moss and lichen type
atmosphere monitoring station not been plants are mainly included in such plant. These are
established to correct data on world mainly found in Arctic and Antarctic regions.
temperatures. 19. It is necessary for sustainable development.
(a) In Algeria (a) Conservation of biological diversity
(b) In Brazil (b) Prevention and control of pollution
(c) In Kenya (c) Reducing poverty
(d) In India (d) All three of the above
RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P.Way), 20.02.2000 DMRC Customer Relations Ass., 22.07.2012
Environment Education 555 YCT
 Ans. (d): Conservation of biological diversity, 24. The number of agro-Ecological zones in India is -
prevention and control of pollution and eradication of (a) 16 (b) 21
poverty are all necessary for sustainable development. (c) 27 (d) 31
20. India's position in the sustainable development RRB Kolkata Supervisor (P. Way), 20.02.2000
Goals index announced in 2016 is. Ans. (b) : Soil and land use survey organization,
(a) 110th Nagpur has divided India into 6 major, 21 major and 60
(b) 115th sub-agro-ecological zones on the basis of medium level
(c) 120th geomorphic features, soil general, climate and five-
(d) 130th level growing season. Have divided this classification is
RRB Ajmer (Tech.), 25.01.1998 very useful from the point of view of agricultural
possibilities. India is divided into 15 agro-climatic
Ans. (a) : India was ranked 110th with a score of 48.4 in
the 'Sustainable Development Goals Index' released on regions.
20 july 2016. In this report by United Nations, Sweden 25. When is world wildlife day observed?
has got the first place (84.5 points) while the Central (a) On 3 March
African Republic (26.1 points) has got the last place. (b) On 22 March
21. What was the weather factor that caused (c) On 28 March
extraordinary cold in north India in the month of (d) On 7th April
January 2012. RRB Secunderabad Diesel Drivers’, 18.11.2001
(a) Deforestation Ans. (a) : 3 March is celebrated as world wildlife day
(b) Atmospheric pollution while 22 March is celebrated as world water day and 7th
(c) La Nina April is celebrated as world health day.
(d) El Nino 26. The goal of sustainable development is a
RRB Ajmer (Tech.), 01.03.1998 specific target to be achieved by which of the
Ans. (c) : Seasonal factor la-Nina in the month of following years.
January 2012 due to this there was extraordinary cold (a) 2022 (b) 2030
in north India. (c) 2040 (d) 2050
22. Which of the following crop groups is one in RRB Bhopal Section Engineer, 24.11.2002
which any crop be used as biofuel? Ans. (b) : The 70th United Nations Summit was held as
(a) Jatropha, Sugarcane, Palm a high level meeting of the United Nations general
(b) Lentils, beetroot, rapesed assembly in new York in September 2015. In this
(c) Soyabean, Maize, rapeseed conference the 2030 agenda for sustainable
(d) Sugarcane, corn, mustard development, a new framework for changing our
RRB Bangalore (Tech.), 22.08.1999 world, was adopted. In this 17 goals' and 169
Ans. (a) : Jatropha, sugarcane, palm and maize are objectives have been set for the next 15 years.
being used as jai. All the above mentioned crops are 27. Which of the following cities is most affected by
viable biofuel sources in the context of alternative urban smog in recent times?
sources. (a) Paris (b) London
• Jatropha curcus belongs to Euphorbiaceae family. It (c) Los Angeles (d) Beijing
is a multipurpose plant. It has high amount of oil
RRB Ranchi Assitant Drivers’, 09.01.2003
which can be converted into biodiesels.
23. What is the concept of sustainable development Ans. (d) : When the entire area gets covered due to the
related to?. smoke coming out from the vehicle and the visibility
(a) Consumption level gets reduced , it is called urban fog. The city of Beijing
is the capital of china, was greatly affected by this fog
(b) Exhaustible resources
in 2013.
(c) Social equality
(d) Intergenerational equality 28. Arrange the following books in the chronological
RRB Kolkata (Tech.), 29.08.1999 order of their publication using the code given
below.
Ans. (b) : The concept of sustainable development is (i) Limit us to growth
related to exhaustible resources. That is traditional
energy resources should be used on the condition that a (ii) Silent spring
clean and healthy environment is available to the future (iii) Our common future
generations. (iv) Resourceful meaning
Environment Education 556 YCT
 (a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) Ans. (c): S and P waves are related to earthquake. S
(b) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) waves travel at a speed of 2.54km/s 9000-14000 km/h
(c) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) while P waves travel at a speed of 4-8 km/s (14000-
(d) (i),(ii), (iii), (iv) 28000) km/h.
Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Train Operators’ , 32. Which of the following is not a natural disaster
14.09.2003 (a) Earthquake
Ans. (c) : (b) Tsunami
(i) Limit us to growth – 1972 (c) Flash flood
(ii) Silent spring – 1962 (d) Nuclear accident
(iii) Our common future – 1987 RRB Secunderabad Technical-III (Electrical),
(iv) Resource full meaning – 1984 11.12.2005
29. Increase in magnitude on the Richter scale in Ans. (d) : Earthquake, tsunami, sudden flood are
relation to earthquakes means. natural disasters where as nuclear accident is the
(a) Ten times increase in the amplitude of explosion of any nuclear objects made by man.
earthquakes waves Nuclear accident is such as the explosion of atomic
(b) Ten times increase in the energy of earthquakes bomb which took place in Hiroshima and Nagasaki in
wave Japan.
(c) Two times increase in the amplitude of 33. Ganga action plan was launched
earthquake wave (a) In 1986
(d) Two times increase in the energy of (b) In1988
earthquakes (c) In1990
waves (d) In1992
RRB Kolkata Diesel/Electrical Ass., 06.02.2005 RRB Allahabad Junior Engineer-II
Ans. (a) : In the context of earthquakes on increase of [Mechanical, DSL (C&W)], 08.01.2006
result 1 on the Richter scale means a tentimes increase Ans. (a) : Ganga Action Plan- To implement Ganga
in the amplitude of seismic waves. The Richter scale action plan (GAP) and to take forward policies and
was developed in 1935 by seismologists Charles Francis programmes the government of India under the
Richter and Beno Gutenberg chairmanship of the prime minister consisted the
30. Which of the following is a renewable natural Central Ganga Authority (CGA) in 1985 did the
don't have resources. government constituted Ganga project directorate
(a) Clean air (GPD) as a component of the environment department
(b) Fertile soil and June 1985 for the implementation of projects under
(c) Fresh water the direction and monitoring at CGA. Ganga action plan
(d) Salts (GAP) was launched in January 14,1986. It is worthy
RRB Ranchi Signal Maintainer Group-III , that the work of CGA established in 1985 for Ganga
20.11.2005 work formulating policies for the action of the plan
Ans. (d) : Renewable sources are those natural sources (GAP-1) of the scheme 261 schemes were made under
which will replenished by natural ecological processes. this it is know that Gap-1 was still in progress when
However it the exploitation of such resources by CGA the target was set to make the place free from
humans is faster than the rate of their restoration. then water pollution.
they cease to be renewable resources and they start 34. Volcanic eruption effect.
depleting. According to this definition such resources (a) To the atmosphere and hydrosphere
mostly include biological resources which are restored (b) The hydrosphere and biosphere
through biological process therefore in such a situation (c) The lithosphere biosphere and atmosphere
clean air, fertile soil and fresh water can be kept under (d) The lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere
renewable natural resources where as salt is not a RRB Kolkata Jr. Engineer-II Electrical/DRG &
renewable natural resource. Design, 11.06.2006
31. What are S and P waves related to Ans. (c) : Volcanic eruption effects the lithosphere,
(a) Flood (b) Wind energy biosphere and atmosphere. Volcanic is a crack or mouth
(c) Earthquake (d) Tidal energy present on the earth surface from which hot lava gas ash
RRB Secunderabad Technical-III (Electrical), etc. come out from the earth. In facts it is a rupture in
11.12.2005 the upper layer of the earth through which the

Environment Education 557 YCT

substances inside come out volcano is related to plate 38. Swamp is moist area which receives water from.
tectonics. (a) Near by water body
In geography volcanism is seen as a sudden (b) To become liquid
phenomenon and it is classified as a creative force in the (c) Only rain
formation of changes on the earths surface because it (d) Only sea
causes many land forms and other hand environmental DMRC Station Controller, 09.09.2007
geography they are studied as a natural disaster, because
it cause loss of ecosystem and life and property. Ans. (a) : Swamp is an area of land which is either due
to seasonal flooding or permanently major example of
35. Which natural disaster causes maximum damage permanent swamps in India are the teral swamps of
to property and life? Uttar Pradesh and the Sundarbans of West Bengal,
(a) Water disaster Kaziranga , National park in Asam becomes seasonal
(b) Hydro-seasonal outbreak swamp. When the Brahmputra River floods the water
(c) Geological disaster of a swamp that of a beautiful forest is situated on the
(d) Geochemical outbreak shore of the sea.
RRB Kolkata Technical-III, 20.08.2006 39. Which of the following states falls in the high risk
Ans. (b) : Hydro-seasonal impacts cause maximum zone from the point of view of earthquakes.
damage to property and life causes harm submergence (a) Central Indian high lands
may also results flood injuries and becomes the cause (b) Coastal region
of loss of life. It damage property and infrastructure (c) Himalayan region
destroys live and pollutes water and land. (d) Indian desert
36. What is affected by climate change DMRC Secunderabad Section Eng. (Civil),
1. Soil moisture 29.06.2008
2. Forest fire Ans. (c) : Earthquakes is a sudden release of energy
3. Biodiversity from the earth crust. It comes as a result of prediction
4. Underground water which generates seismic waves. Records of
Code earthquakes are kept with a seismo meter which is also
(a) 1 and 3 called seismograph. The moment magnituted of an
(b) 1, 2 and 3 earthquake is traditionally measured on the Richter
scale of an earthquake. It causes severe damage over
(c) 1, 3 and 4
large area. Intensity is measured on the developed
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 mercolliscate. According to the latest information of
RRB Chennai Technical (Eng.), 15.04.2007 the ministry of earth science India has been divided
Ans. (d) : Climate change affects soil moisture into four seismic zones. Zone III. Zone IV, Zones V. It
biodiversity and underground water. According to is known that earthquake zones I + II of India have
recent study 55 million people across the world died been combined together.
due to weather in 2009 this was the hottest year since 40. In which year the tsunami disaster was
1850. Agriculture experts Dr. M.S. Swaminathan say experienced in the Indian coastal areas.
that due to increase in temperature the wheat crop can (a) 2005 (b) 2004
suffer the most damage. 64 percent of India's (c) 2006 (d) 2007
population feeds itself from this crop in this form the RRB Patna Technical Eng., 27.07.2008
biggest threat is food security the problems of forest
fire in case of extreme temperature increase is as Ans. (b) : The word tsunami is a Japanese language
example of climate change. which means the waves coming on the coast that is due
to earthquake at the bottom of the sea. The sea wave
37. Which is the most frequently occurring natural flow forwards the coast in very large quantities and
disaster in India. very fast this cause a lab of destruction resulting in
(a) Earthquake (b) Flood loss of life and property. Tsunami disaster was
(c) Landslide (d) Volcano experienced in the Indian coastal area on December
RRB Bangalore Technical (Eng.), 22.04.2007 26, 2004 Nagapattinam district of Tamil Nadu state of
Ans. (b) : The most common natural disaster in India is India.
flood. Flood occur every year somewhere or the other in 41. Pure water attains maximum density at
India just last year in 2014 there was a severe flood in (a) –4ºC (b) 0ºC
Uttarakhand and Jammu and Kashmir which is caused (c) 4ºC (d) –2.5ºC
massive loss of life and property. RRB Allahabad Ass. Loco Pilot, 03.08.2008

Environment Education 558 YCT

Ans. (c): Water is a common chemical substance whose 45. Which of the following is necessary to avoid
molecule is made up of two hydrogen atom and one natural disaster is most suitable.
oxygen atom H2O. It is the basic of the life of all living (a) International aid
being. It attains maximum density at 4ºC. (b) Timely warning
Density - 999.97 Kg/m3 (c) Rehabilitation
Boiling point - 1000C (d) Community participation
RRB Chennai Section Eng., 12.02.2012
Molar mass - 18.01528 g/mol
Ans. (b) : The easiest way to prevent natural disaster
Formula - H 2O to give early warning. This can reduces the loss of life
Melting point - 0 0C property caused by disaster rescue. The remaining
Three point temperature- 0.01oC three option are post disaster survival measures.
42. Which of the following is not related to 46. What is the result of slums in metro Politian
earthquake cities
(a) Center (a) Migration from villages to cities
(b) Supercenter (b) Poverty in some areas of cities.
(c) Earthquake (c) Lack of design in cities
(d) Emerge/grow (d) Urban governance
RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Civil), 26.02.2012
RRB Thiruvananthapuram Section Eng.
(Mechanical), 04.01.2009 Ans. (a) : People from villages come to cities in search
of employment but due to lack of infrastructure in
Ans. (d) : Emergence and growth are not related to
cities people are forced to live in low cost slums. Due
earthquake it is related to volcano.
to continuous migration the number of slums is
43. Chemicals weathering of rocks depends on. increasing in cities. The government is facing many
(a) On high temperature problems due to their rehabilitation.
(b) On the effect of strong winds 47. The outbreak of Tsunami is due to
(c) On heavy rain (a) Mild earthquake and landslides in the ocean
(d) On snow cover (b) Heavy earthquake and landslides in the oceans
RRB Bangalore Section Eng. (Civil), 01.02.2009 (c) Heavy earthquake and landslides in the
Ans. (c) : Chemical weathering in rocks depends on mountain
many factor. First of all water (rain or other type of (d) Heavy earthquake and landslides in desert
water) affects the rate of leaching second the higher RRB Chandigarh Section Eng. (Mech.),
temperature. 26.02.2012
• Chemical weathering changes the molecular structure Ans. (b) : Heavy earthquake and landslide in the
of rocks and soil by carbonation process. oceans are the main reason for the outbreak of tsunami
44. The following natural cause maximum damage to in which immense sea water starts comming on the
humans is responsible for coastal areas and causes huge destruction.
(a) Earthquake 48. The fertility at the land of Mahanadi delta is
(b) Eruption of volcano greater than that of Godavari delta the reason for
(c) Snow Storm the decrease are
(d) Tsunami (a) Erosion of surface land due to Inundation
RRB Patna/Allahabad ESM-III , 30.01.2011 (b) Inundation of sea water on the land surface
Ans. (d) : Tsunami is a Japanese word which means (c) Traditional farming style
coming waves . Due to earthquake occurring at the (d) Exploitation of fertilizer land by soil
bottom of the sea, sea waves start coming to go as the DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 21.09.2014
waves reach shore 1 (at less depth) the height and Ans. (a) : The reason why the fertility of the land of
speed of the waves increase resulting in massive Mahanadi river delta is less than that of Godavari delta
destruction and damage to nearby coastal in 2004 the because it has the erosion surface land due to
tsunami generates in the Indian ocean affected total of inundation. According to the water erosion of river
11 countries including Nagapattinam district of Tamil Mahanadi comes at first place and Godavari comes at
Nadu state of India. seconds place.

Environment Education 559 YCT

49. What is the name of the workshop established by (a) Ronald Ross
the Government of India for research on (b) Charles Darwin
Antarctica. (c) Gregor Mendal
(a) Southern Gangotri (d) George Mistral
(b) Yamunotri RRB Secunderabad Diesel Driver, 18.02.2001
(c) North Gangotri Ans. (a) : Ronald Ross was a British physician and
(d) Any of these Nobel prize winner. He received the Noble Prize for
medicine in 1902. He received this award for his
DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 21.09.2014
research into the malaria parasite Plasmodium which
Ans. (a) : The name of the first workshop for research are transmited by mosquito.
on Antarctica by India was Dakshin Gangotri, then
54. From the following choose the group of diseases
another workshop was Bharti and the third established
which are caused by mosquitoes spread from:
workshop name is Matri.
(a) Malaria, Chikungunya
50. Various patterns (designs) on animal skin: (b) Dengue, Malaria, Chikungunya
(a) Due to hair on their skin (c) Malaria, Cholera, Intermittent fever
(b) Due to the climate in which they live (d) Malaria, Dengue, Cholera
(c) Indicate their physical strength RRB Mumbai Electrical/Diesel Driver, 03.06.2001
(d) Are caused by reflected light. Ans. (b) : Diseases spread by mosquitoes are dengue,
DMRC Mechanical Engineering, 21.07.2013 malaria.
Dengue -Is a tropical disease caused by the bite of
Ans. (a) : Various patterns on the skin of animals are
Aedes aegypti mosquitoes.
caused by the hair on their skin, like- tiger, giraffe, goat
Malaria- Is a vector- borne infections disease caused
etc.
by protozoa spread by parasites mosquitoes.
51. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Chikungunya- Chikangunya is a disease with long
the roots of the banyan tree? lasting joint pain. The age stage of this disease lasts
(a) Roots hang down from the branches only for 2 to 5 days but the joint pain lasts for a long
(b) It has root inside the ground time. It is cause by the bite of aedes mosquito.
(c) Roots store food 55. Which of the following is not a water borne
(d) Roots provide support to the tree like pillars. disease?
RRB Bhopal Diesel Driver, 24.11.1996 (a) Typhoid (b) Hepatitis
(c) Cholera (d) Dengue
Ans. (c) : The roots of banyan trees do not store food.
RRB Kolkata Trainee Assistant Driver,
Banyan tree root is called prop root which helps to support
15.07.2001
mainly branches of tree.
Ans. (d) : Typhoid, hepatitis, cholera etc. are water
52. Which of the following among all the animals
borne diseases. Dengue is caused by virus and spread
given below characteristic is found? by Culex fatigans and Aedes aegypti mosquitoes. The
Lizard, Sparrow, Turtle, Snake number of platelets in the blood of a patient suffering
(a) They lay eggs from dengue fever is goes lower.
(b) They are poisonous 56. Which of the following natural diseasters is not
(c) They can live both on land and in water hydro-seasonal?
(d) Their bodies are covered with scales (a) Avalanche
(b) Sea erosion
RRB Secunderabad Diesel Driver, 01.06.1997
(c) Tropical cyclone
Ans. (a) : Lizard, snake, sparrow, tortoise all lay eggs
(d) Tsunami
animals that lay eggs are called oviparous and those that
RRB Gorakhpur Assistant Diesel Driver,
give 5 babies are called viviparous.
21.10.2001
53. What is the name of the scientist who first peered Ans. (d) : Hydro-seasonal Natural Disaster are
inside the stomach of a mosquito and proved that Avalanche, sea erosion and tropical cyclone, whereas
malaria is speed by mosquitoes and for this tsunami is not a hydro-meteorological disaster. The
research he was given the noble prize in the field cause of tsunami is not seasonal activities but seismic
of medicine in December 1902. waves.
Environment Education 560 YCT