Professional Documents
Culture Documents
EXAM PREPARATION
150-Q&AS FROM PMBOK 7TH ED. FOR PMP
EXAM
I wish you all the best for your PMP Certification Exam.
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QUESTIONS
Q1
Which name is given to the hierarchical decomposition
of the total scope of work to be carried out by the
project team to accomplish the project objectives and
create the required deliverables?
A. Work decomposition
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Hierarchical breakdown structure
D. Total work breakdown
Q2
The process of evaluating scenarios with the objective of
predicting their effects on project objectives is called?
A. Bar
B. Histogram
C. Velocity
D. Pie
Q4
A measure that appears to show some result but does not
provide useful information to support project decision-
making is called?
A. Variance analysis
B. Useless measure
C. Inconsequential metric
D. Vanity metric
Q5
The method for determining the cause and degree of
difference between the baseline and actual project
performance is called?
A. Difference analysis
B. Standard deviation
C. Variance analysis
D. Point of departure analysis
Q6
Which name refers to the project delivery support
structure that focuses on coaching teams, building skills
and capabilities throughout the organization, and
mentoring sponsors and project owners to be more
effective in those roles?
A. Coaching office
B. Value Delivery Office
C. Value Delivery system
D. Capability enhancement office
Q7
______________ is a short fixed period of time in
which work is to be completed.
A. Short time
B. Time period
C. Maximum time
D. Timebox
Q8
Which name refers to the chart that shows the accepted
deliverables over time?
A. Throughput chart
B. Velocity chart
C. Bar chart
D. X bar chart
Q9
________________ is a predetermined value of a
measurable project variable that represents a limit that
requires action to be taken if it is reached.
A. Upper limit
B. Midpoint
C. Threshold
D. Climax
Q10
___________________________ is a document that
describes deliverables that will be tested, tests that will
be conducted, and the processes that will be used in
testing.
A. Deliverable test
B. Testing processes
C. Test Plan
D. Project test
Q11
__________________________ is a document that
records the team values, agreements and operating
guidelines as well as establishes clear expectations
regarding acceptable behaviour by project team
members.
A. Team Charter
B. Team Guidelines
C. Team constitution
D. Team rules
Q12
Which name refers to the visual representation of the
progress of the planned work that allows everyone to
see the status of the tasks?
A. Visual board
B. Task Board
C. Team board
D. Task status
Q13
A method in which multiple team members focus
collectively on resolving a specific problem or task is
called?
A. Collective responsibility
B. Teamwork
C. Swarm
D. Collaboration
Q14
An advisory body of senior stakeholders who provide
direction and support for the project team and makes
decisions outside the project’s team authority is called?
A. Statement of work
B. Statement of progress
C. Status report
D. Deliverables
Q16
A component of the project management plan that
identifies the strategies and actions required to
promote productive involvement of stakeholders in
project’s decision-making and execution is called?
A. Stakeholder
B. Resource mobilizer
C. Sponsor
D. Project supporter
Q18
The analysis method to determine which individual project
risks or other sources of uncertainty have the most
potential impacts on project outcomes by correlating
variations in project outcomes with variations in elements
of a quantitative risk analysis model is called?
A. Simulation analysis
B. Correlation
C. Quantitative risk analysis
D. Sensitivity analysis
Q19
A graph that displays cumulative costs over a specified
period of time is called?
A. S –curve
B. X – Bar
C. Pie chart
D. Histogram
Q20
The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope
without adjustments to time, costs, and resources is
called?
Q22
__________________________ is type of project
schedule that focuses on iterative work and frequent
updates to the project plan. It’s a project planning
technique for projects that don’t offer all the data needed
to create a plan or schedule upfront?
A. Scenario planning
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Long term planning
D. Schedule planning
Q23
The process of discovering the root causes of problems
in order to identify appropriate solutions is called?
A. Problem identification
B. Solution analysis
C. Root cause analysis
D. Problem cause analysis
Q24
The planning tool that project managers use to visualize
project goals, activities, and assignments on a timeline
— typically with fixed start and end dates is called?
A. Visualize tool
B. Project schedule
C. Project path
D. Road map
Q25
_________________ is a strategic risk response
wherein a project team takes active steps to reduce the
probability or impact of a negative risk to a project
A. Risk mitigation
B. Risk reduction
C. Risk control
D. Risk retention
Q26
______________ is a risk management and control
strategy that is required to recognize the continuing and
increasing levels of risk by the higher level of
authorization.
A. Risk appetite
B. Risk escalation
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk transfer
Q27
Which of the following approach entails a situation
whereby the organization knows about the existence of
risks but accept the identified risk and does not take
any other action in order to reduce the risk because it
can accept its impact and the possible consequences?
A. Risk acceptance
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk-taking
D. Risk transfer
Q28
____________________ is a table that relates the
program/ project organization structure to the work
breakdown structure to ensure that each element of the
program/ project's scope of work is assigned to a
responsible organization or individual.
A. Responsibility schedule
B. Responsibility assignment matrix
C. Work allocation matrix
D. Work and responsibility allocation schedule
Q29
A description or declaration of what an
organization/project team wants to obtain or
accomplish upon the completion of a project is called?
A. Project target
B. Project objective
C. Project vision statement
D. Project declaration
Q30
This project management tool visualizes the sequential
and logical relationship between tasks in a project setting.
Which one is it?
A. Project scope
B. Project path
C. Project network
D. Project schedule network diagram
Q31
The assessment of the status of a project, at a
particular point in time, is called?
Q32
______________ is an early sample, model, or release of
a product built to test a concept or process.
A. Testing
B. Prototype
C. Sample
D. Initializing project
Q33
Which one of the following is not a constituent of the
Project Management Process Group
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Motivation
Q34
_____________________ includes the steps required for
project managers to successfully manage a project from
start to finish.
A. Project lead
B. Project guidelines
C. Project life cycle
D. Project review
Q35
The calendar that identifies working days and shifts
that are available for scheduled activities is called?
A. Project schedule
B. Program calendar
C. Resource calendar
D. Project calendar
Q36
The grid for mapping the probability of occurrence of each
risk and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs
is called?
A. Program Schedule
B. Prioritization Schema
C. Portfolio Prioritization
D. Prioritization Matrix
Q38
The scatter diagram that plots efforts against value so as to
classify items by priority is called?
A. Prioritization scheme
B. Priority schedule
C. Prioritization matrix
D. Priority scatter diagram
Q39
The development approach in which the project scope,
time, and cost are determined in the early phases of
the life cycle is called?
A. Early approach
B. Baseline approach
C. Onset approach
D. Predictive approach
Q40
The review at the end of a phase in which a decision is
made to continue to the next phase, to continue with
modification, or to end a project or a program is called?
A. Phase Gate
B. Phase decision
C. Decisive Phase
D. Formative evaluation
Q41
___________________________ is a component of
the project plan and it sets out the scope, budget and
schedule of a project or portions of a project.
Q42
An estimating method in which an algorithm is used to
calculate cost or duration based on historical data and
project parameters is called?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Algorithm estimate
C. Cost estimating
D. Historical data estimating
Q43
The hierarchical representation of the project
organization, which illustrates the relationship
between project activities and the organizational units
that will perform those activities is called?
A. Organizational structure
B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Project structure
D. Organizational process assets
Q44
A sequence of activities connected by logical relationships
in a project schedule network diagram is called?
A. Project path
B. Program flow
C. Network path
D. Project schedule
Q45
The method used to estimate cost or duration by
applying an average or a weighted average of
optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates when
there is uncertainty with the individual activity
estimates is called?
A. Multipoint estimating
B. Parametric estimating
C. Pessimistic approach
D. Multi attributes estimation
Q46
The visualization chart for tracking moods or reactions to
identify areas for improvement is called?
A. Visualization chart
B. Mood chart
C. Reactions chart
D. Improvement charts
Q47
___________________ is a model used to predict the
probability of different outcomes when the
intervention of random variables is present
A. Probabilistic model
B. Predicting model
C. Monte Carlo simulation
D. Multi-point estimating
Q48
_____________ is a significant point or event in a project,
program or portfolio
A. Break-even point
B. DuPont
C. Metric
D. Milestone
Q49
The schedule that presents milestones with planned
dates is called?
A. Milestone schedule
B. Project schedule
C. Program schedule
D. Milestone table
Q50
________________________ is a relationship that is
contractually required or inherent in the nature of the
work.
A. Methodology
B. Metric
C. Mandatory dependency
D. Inherent relationship
Q51
___________________ is an amount of the contract
budget set aside by the project manager at the
beginning of a project to account for risks
A. Management reserve
B. Surplus
C. Provision for cost
D. Contingency reserve
Q52
______________ involves whether to manufacture a
product in-house or to purchase it from a third party.
A. Life cycle
B. Project life cycle
C. Life cycle assessment
D. Impact analysis
Q54
_______________ is a checklist of all the criteria required
to be met so that an agile deliverable can be considered
ready for customer use after a sprint is over.
A. Definition of done
B. Project delivery
C. Handover sheet
D. Development approach
Q55
____________________ is a document in which
project team records their valuable project experience.
Q56
_______________ is a formal brief that describes your
project in its entirety — including what the objectives are,
how it will be carried out, who the stakeholders are, high-
level risks among others
A. Project brief
B. Project charter
C. Project summary
D. Project management plan
Q57
The time between a customer request and the actual
delivery is called?
A. Waiting time
B. Work time
C. Completion time
D. Lead time
Q58
The diagram that shows the trend over time of the average
lead time of the items completed in work is called?
A. Trend chart
B. Lead time chart
C. Project lead
D. Work break down structure
Q59
____________________ is the concept of deferring a
decision to allow the team to consider multiple options
until the cost of further delay would exceed the
benefit.
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Multi-decision strategy
C. Last responsible moment
D. Deferred decision
Q60
The amount of time whereby a successor project activity
will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity is
called?
A. Lead time
B. Lag
C. Delay
D. Predecessor Lax
Q61
The visualization tool that shows work in progress to
help identify bottlenecks and over commitments,
thereby allowing the team to optimize the workflow is
called?
A. Iteration plan
B. Kanban Board
C. Work in progress sheet
D. Log
Q62
The time-boxed cycle of development of a product or
deliverable in which all of the work that is needed to
deliver value is discussed is called?
A. Value analysis
B. Value management
C. Iteration
D. Lag
Q63
The project document where information about issues
is recorded and monitored is called?
A. Issue register
B. Project calendar
C. Issue book
D. Issue Log
Q64
The relationship between two or more projects activities is
called?
A. Internal dependency
B. Internal similarity
C. Mutually inclusiveness
D. External dependency
Q65
_______________________ is generally when a
project is formally approved and assigned a project
manager.
Q66
The visible physical display that provides information to
the rest of the organization, enabling timely knowledge
sharing is called?
A. Information radiator
B. Information point
C. Information zone
D. Influence diagram
Q67
The graphical representation of situations showing
causal influences, time ordering of events, and other
relationships among variables and other outcomes is
called?
A. Critical path
B. Influence diagram
C. Situational analysis
D. Causal – effect analysis
Q68
A chart that begins with high-level information that is
progressively decomposed into lower levels of details is
called?
A. Centralized chart
B. Bar chart
C. Hierarchy chart
D. Organizational chart
Q69
______________ is a stacked bar chart that contains
project tasks on a vertical axis and timelines that
represent task duration on a horizontal axis.
A. Bar chart
B. Pie chart
C. Histogram
D. Gantt chart
Q70
___________________ is a technique where activities that
would have been performed sequentially using the
original schedule are performed in parallel.
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Quickening
D. Simultaneous implementation
Q71
The relationship between project activities and non-
project activities is called?
A. Internal dependency
B. Symbiotic relationship
C. External dependency
D. External relationship
Q72
The type of activity where the length of time required to
complete the activity remains constant regardless of the
number of people or resources assigned to the activity is
called?
A. Fixed duration
B. Fixed period
C. Fixed cost
D. Rigid projects
Q73
The expected cost to finish all the remaining project
work at any given point in time is known as?
A. Estimate at completion
B. Estimate to complete
C. Calculated total estimate
D. Final cost
Q74
A quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome
of a variable, such as projects costs, resources, efforts,
and durations is called?
A. Effort
B. Value
C. Estimate
D. Assessment
Q75
A large, related body of work intended to hierarchically
organize a set of requirements and deliver specific
business outcomes is called?
A. Epic
B. Body of knowledge
C. Core Objectives
D. Organization structure
Q76
________________________ include all policies,
practices, procedures, and legislation that exist both
inside and outside of the organization that will impact the
way you manage a project.
A. External factors
B. Internal factors
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Remote factors
Q77
The analysis method that uses a set of measures
associated with scope, schedule, and cost to determine
the cost and schedule performance of a project is
called?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Project analysis
C. Project appraisal
D. Earned value analysis
Q78
________________ is the total time that it takes to
complete a project measured in workdays, hours or weeks
A. Duration
B. Time Length
C. Period
D. Span
Q79
Which of the following is an example of a collection of
practices for creating a smooth flow of deliverables by
improving collaboration between development and
operations staff?
A. Organizational culture
B Organization structure
C. DevOps
D. Philosophical attributes
Q80
The approach used to develop the best suited product,
service, or result, such as predictive, iterative, agile, or a
hybrid model is called.
A. Product approach
B. Service approach
C. Development approach
D. Multi-attribute approach
Q81
The tangible or intangible good or service produced as
a result of a project that is intended to be delivered to
customers are termed as?
A. Deliverables
B. Results
C. Outcomes
D. Final product
Q82
The agreed-upon set of items that must be completed
before a project or user story can be considered complete
are termed as?
A. Crucial items
B. Definition of done
C. Vital components
D. Key items
Q83
__________________ allow project leaders to easily
compare different courses of action against each other
and evaluate the risks, probabilities of success, and
potential benefits associated with each.
A. Risk analysis
B. Environmental analysis
C. SWOT analysis
D. Decision tree analysis
Q84
A set of charts and graphs showing progress or
performance against important measures of the project is
known as?
A. Dashboard
B. Graph sets
C. Histograms
D. Pie charts
Q85
A diagram that shows the average cycle time of the
work items completed over time is called?
Q86
A chart indicating features completed over time, features
in other states of development, and those in the backlog is
called?
A. Cycle time
B. Lag
C. Lead time
D. Critical path
Q89
A measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources
expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost is
known as?
A. Cost variance
B. Cost efficiency
C. Cost performance index
D. Cost- reimbursable contract
Q90
All costs incurred over the life of a product by investment
in preventing non-conformance to requirements, appraisal
of the product or service for conformance to requirements,
and failure to meet requirements are known as?
A. Cost of non-conformance
B. Cost of quality
C. Cost of compliance
D. Cost of appraisal
Q91
________________is a component of a project or
program management plan that describes how costs
will be planned, structured, and controlled.
A. Budget
B. Cost rationalization plan
C. Cost management plan
D. Cost structuring
Q92
The financial analysis method used to determine the
benefits provided by a project against its cost is referred
to as?
A. Simulation analysis
B. Critical path method
C. Risk assessment
D. Cost-benefit analysis
Q93
________________ is the budget that has been
approved for the project, broken down into a list of
salaries, materials, equipment, and more. It's the sum
of the cost estimates for all the tasks on your project
schedule.
A. Cost baseline
B. Total cost
C. Cost estimate
D. Itemised budget
Q94
______________ are used to determine whether or not
a process is stable or has predictable performance.
They identify upper and lower control limits to
determine the acceptable range of test results.
A. Pareto charts
B. X – Bar Chart
C. Control chart
D. Pie chart
Q95
Time or money allocated in the schedule or cost
baseline for known risks with active response strategies
is termed as?
A. Miscellaneous
B. Contingency reserve
C. Provision for risks
D. Bad debts
Q96
____________ is an fall-back option in the event or an
occurrence that could affect the execution of the
project, which may be accounted for with a reserve.
A. Conformance
B. Contingency
C. Constraint
D. Hardship
Q97
________________ is a characteristic of a project or a
program or its environment that is difficult to manage
due to human behaviour, system behaviour, and
ambiguity.
A. Complexity
B. Difficulty
C. Bottlenecks
D. Challenges
Q98
A component of a project, program, or portfolio
management plan that describes how, when and by whom
information about the project will be administered and
disseminated is known as?
A. Dissemination plan
B. Communication hierarchy
C. Communication administration
D. Communications management plan
Q99
The process (es) performed to formally complete or
close a project, phase or contract is known as?
Q100
A comprehensive list of changes submitted during the
project and their current status is known as?
A. Change list
B. Change Log
C. Amendments
D. Changes made
Q101
A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing,
evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to
the project, and for recording and communicating such
decisions is known as?
A. Review board
B. Amendment committee
C. Change Control Board
D. Decisive team
Q102
__________________ is a rhythm of activities conducted
throughout an agile project.
A. Project pattern
B. Cadence
C. Workflow
D. Work distribution
Q103
A graphical representation of the work remaining in a
timebox or the work completed toward the release of a
product or project deliverable is known as?
A. Pareto chart
B. Burn chart
C. Flow chart
D. Scatter diagram
Q104
____________________ is the approved version of a
work product, schedule, or cost estimate used as a
basis for comparison to actual results.
A. Approved work
B. Point of reference
C. Baseline
D. Benchmark
Q105
_____________ is an ordered list of work to be done
before the start of an iteration cycle in an agile project
A. In-tray
B. Pending job
C. To do list
D. Backlog
Q106
A project document used to record all assumptions and
constraints throughout the project is known as?
A. Assumption log
B. Backlog
C. Constraint log
D. Assumption list
Q107
An _______________ is a template, document, model
or project deliverable produced as part of the project
execution
A. Output
B. Results
C. Artifact
D. Product
Q108
A method for estimating the duration or cost of an activity
or a project using historical data from a similar activity or
project is known as?
A. Historical estimation
B. Benchmarking
C. Past data
D. Analogous estimation
Q109
The process of classifying items into similar categories
or collections on the basis of their likeness is known
as?
A. Similarity grouping
B. Affinity grouping
C. Categorization
D. Grouping
Q110
A diagram that shows a large number of ideas classified
into groups for review and analysis is known as?
A. Affinity diagram
B. Multi ideas diagram
C. Network diagram
D. Cause-effect diagram
Q111
A set of conditions that are required to be met before
deliverables are accepted are known as?
A. Requirements
B. Acceptance criteria
C. Bare minimum
D. Basic requirements
Q112
Within the quality management system ____________ is
an assessment of correctness of collected data vs. target?
A. Quality
B. Accuracy
C. Reliability
D. Precision
Q113
_____________________ is a document that includes
all the scheduled activities that are part of a project
A. Activity log
B. Activity database
C. Activity list
D. Activity book
Q114
The realized cost incurred for the work performed on an
activity during a specific time period is known as?
A. Total cost
B. Variable cost
C. Earned value
D. Actual cost
Q115
_______________ in project management is a
systematic and structured approach in which you
gradually improve your decisions and processes, based
on the outcomes of the decisions made in the earlier
stages of the project.
A. Adaptive approach
B. Focused approach
C. Flexible approach
D. Consultative approach
Q116
______________________ Methodology is a way to
manage a project by breaking it up into several cycles.
It involves constant collaboration with stakeholders
and continuous improvement at every stage
A. The consultative
B. The project breakdown
C. The Agile
D. The continuous improvement
Q117
Progressive elaboration of the content in the backlog
and (re) prioritization of it to identify the work that can
be accomplished in an upcoming iteration is known as?
A. Backlog refinement
B. Backlog update
C. Backlog elaboration
D. Backlog adjustment
Q118
Supporting documentation outlining the details used in
establishing project estimates such as assumptions,
constraints, level of details, ranges, and confidence
levels is known as?
A. Supporting documents
B. Foundational information
C. Basis of estimates
D. Original sources
Q119
A ________________ captures the total projected
costs needed to complete a project over a defined
period of time.
A. Project team
B. Project manager
C. Project budget
D. Project work breakdown structure
Q120
A value proposition for a project to be chartered that
may include financial and non-financial benefits,
economic feasibility etc. is known as?
A. Business proposal
B. Business case
C. Business appraisal
D. Business value
Q121
A set of procedures that describes how modifications to
the project deliverables and documentation are
managed and controlled is known as?
A. Change log
B. Change request
C. Change agent
D. Change control system
Q122
_____________________ is a contract that allows the
seller to be reimbursed for the costs of performing the
work and earn an additional amount for excellent
performance.
A. Resourceful relationship
B. Discretionary dependency
C. Mutually inclusive relationship
D. Independent relationship
Q124
The measure of work performed, expressed in terms of
the budget authorized for that work is known as?
A. Earned value
B. Cost benchmarking
C. Effort
D. Work-budget ratio
Q125
The knowledge that can be codified using symbols such
as words, numbers, and pictures is known as?
A. Tacit knowledge
B. Explicit knowledge
C. Implicit knowledge
D. Factual knowledge
Q126
A set of related requirements or functionalities that
provides value to a project are called?
A. Features
B. Performance
C. Aesthetics
D. Perceived quality
Q127
The measure of how efficiently work moves through a
given process or framework is known as?
A. Movement
B. Workflow
C. Forecast
D. Function point
Q128
__________________________ is a type of contract
wherein the buyer pays the reseller a fixed price that
has already been decided on basis of commodity prices
(steel, oil etc.) and is stipulated in the contract.
A. Combination
B. Hybrid approach
C. Multi-attribute approach
D. Binary approach
Q130
The skills required by a project manager which enable
him/her the ability to establish and maintain
relationships with other people is known as?
A. Technical skills
B. Writing skills
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Oratory skills
Q131
A detailed plan for the current iteration for an agile
based project is known as?
A. Project plan
B. Organization plan
C. Iteration plan
D. Current iteration
Q132
A gathering of team members and other key
stakeholders at the outset of a project to formally set
expectations, gain a common understanding, and
commence work is known as?
A. Initial meeting
B. Opening meeting
C. Stakeholders meeting
D. Kick-off meeting
Q133
A one-page template designed to communicate a
business plan with key stakeholders in an efficient and
effective manner is known as?
Q134
Which name refers to the high-level overview of the
goals, deliverables, and processes for the project?
A. Project update
B. Project narration
C. Project communication
D. Project brief
Q135
The term that describes the knowledge and best
practices within the profession of project management
is known as?
A. PMO
B. PMBOK-6
C. PMBOK
D. PMBOK-7
Q136
The degree to which a set of inherent project
characteristics fulfills requirements is termed as?
A. goodness
B. performance
C. quality
D. features
Q137
A hierarchical representation of potential sources of
risks is known as?
A. Risk structure
B. Risk breakdown structure
C. Risk levels
D. Risk concentration
Q138
__________________ is a risk response strategy
whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat
to a third party, together with ownership of the
response.
A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk retention
C. Risk control
D. Risk transfer
Q139
A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts
to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its
impact is known as?
A. Risk retention
B. Risk transfer
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk minimization
Q140
______________________ is a precise statement of
the needs to be satisfied and the essential
characteristics that are required to meet those.
A. Need assessment
B. Need register
C. Essential characteristics
D. Specifications
Q141
An estimating method in which subject matter experts
go through multiple rounds of producing estimates
individually, with a team discussion after each round
until consensus is reached is called?
Q142
Activities that consume resources and time without adding
value to the project are termed as?
A. Waste
B. Dormant
C. Irrelevant
D. Negligible
Q143
The measure of the productivity rate of the project
team with respect to the produced, validated and
accepted deliverables is known as?
A. Velocity
B. Productivity rate
C. Validation rate
D. Success rate
Q144
________________ is a mathematical technique that
uses historical results to predict future outcome
A. Historical analysis
B. Predicting
C. Foretelling
D. Trend analysis
Q145
Which one of the following is not part of the Triple
bottom line approach?
Q146
___________________ help project managers in
reviewing the status collected from the team members.
They help the project managers in assessing what has
been accomplished to date and compare them with the
planned activities
A. Review meeting
B. Team meeting
C. Status meeting
D. Completion meeting
Q147
The tool that documents desired and monitors actual
engagement levels of stakeholders to help identify
potential gaps in the involvement of stakeholders is
known as?
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
C. Stakeholder register
D. Stakeholder participation
Q148
A graph that shows the relationship between two variables
and tries to ascertain coorelation between the two is
known as?
A. Network diagram
B. Scatter diagram
C. Histogram
D. Bar graph
Q149
Project factors affecting the project outcome or
deliverables that are considered to be true, real, or
certain without empirical proof or demonstration are
termed as:
A. Assumptions
B. Reality
C. Factual
D. Imagined factors
Q150
________________ meeting is an opportunity for the project
team to discuss a project’s progress at a high level. These
meetings last for a few minutes and allow each contributor to
report on their accomplishments since the last meeting & also
ask for help-needed to tackle impediments.
A. Weekly meeting
B. Monthly meeting
C. Daily standup meeting
D. Quick meeting
ANSWERS
A1
Option B: A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a visual,
hierarchical, and deliverable-oriented deconstruction of
a project. It is a helpful diagram for project managers
because it allows them to break down their project scope
and visualize all the tasks required to complete their
projects
A2
Option A: What-if scenario analysis is used to explore and
compare various plan and schedule alternatives based on
changing conditions. It can be applied in the primary
project phases to try out scenarios and optimize your plan.
During execution, it is an important tool used to predict
the consequence of any event (late delivery, etc.)
A4
Option D: Vanity metrics are statistics that look spectacular
on the surface but don't necessarily translate to any
meaningful business results. Examples include the number
of social media followers or the number of views on a
promotional video
A6
Option B: VDO provides a clear vision of how to make
value tangible inside your organization—and more
importantly, how to do so with the teams and capabilities
that already exist
A8
Option A: Throughput Run Chart displays the throughput of
your team for a specific time frame. The horizontal axis
represents a timeline, while the vertical axis shows your
throughput. Each bar consists of colored sections
representing the type of completed work
https://bit.ly/3NYwmZ9
https://bit.ly/3KoPPA7
A10
Option C: A Test Plan refers to a detailed document that
catalogs the test strategy, objectives, schedule,
estimations, deadlines, and the resources required for
completing that particular project
A12
Option B: Task boards are a tool for project management –
Any business or person, whether they have a few tasks or
many, will benefit from a task board. A task board stores
information on various tasks in one place so it is easier to
manage
A14
Option D: Members include experts, authority figures, and
senior stakeholders in a project or organization. As a
result, they have a significant stake in how each project is
managed. Thus, key concerns for steering committees are
the direction, scope, budget, timeliness, and methods
used
A16
Option B: The stakeholder engagement plan allows the
project manager to devise a systematic approach to ensure
expectations, decisions, risk/issues and project progress
information is delivered to the right person at the right
time with the most efficient and effective level of
information.
A18
Option D: Project sensitivity is a holistic evaluation of how
likely it is that a project will succeed through data-driven
forecasting. It also identifies risks, quantifies their impact,
and separates high-risk tasks from low ones.
A20
Option B: Scope creep (sometimes known as “requirement
creep” or even “feature creep”) refers to how a project’s
requirements tend to increase over a project lifecycle,
e.g., what once started as a single deliverable becomes
five; or a product that began with three essential features,
now must have ten; or midway through a project, the
customer's needs change, prompting a reassessment of
the project requirements.
A22
Option B: Rolling Wave Planning is the process of project
planning in waves as the project proceeds and later details
become clearer. Work to be done in the near term is
based on high-level assumptions; also, high-level
milestones are set. As the project progresses, the risks,
assumptions, and milestones originally identified become
more defined and reliable
A24
Option D: A project roadmap is a graphical, high-level
overview of the project's goals and deliverables presented
on a timeline. Unlike the project plan, where details are
fleshed out, the roadmap should be simple and free of
minutiae. This makes the project roadmap a useful tool for
managing stakeholder expectations, as well as for
communicating plans and coordinating resources with
other teams.
https://bit.ly/3KsVNjh
https://bit.ly/3JqcRFe
A26
Option B: Recently an additional risk response strategy has
been defined, which we can use if we identify a risk that
does not affect our objectives, but that could affect some
other part of the organization. In these cases, it is
important that the risk is passed on to the right owner to
ensure that it is recognized, understood, and managed
appropriately. The risk response strategy that achieves this
aim is Escalate.
A30
Option D: Project schedule network diagrams show the
order in which activities should be scheduled to address
logical relationships between these activities.
A32
Option B: Prototypes are project management tools that
are used in getting early feedback that is related to the
project requirements. This is done by providing a working
model of the product even before building it.
A34
Option C: A Project Management life cycle is a five-step
framework planned to assist project managers in
completing projects successfully.
A36
Option A: Probability and Impact Matrix is a grid for
mapping the probability of occurrence of each risk and its
impact on project objectives if that risk occurs
A38
Option C: A prioritization matrix is a tool used for
determining the most important issues or solutions. This
tool can be used for any prioritization activity. In a Six
Sigma project, it can be used for filtering or prioritizing
either causes or solutions.
A40
Option A: A phase-gate process is a project management
technique in which an initiative or project is divided into
distinct stages or phases, separated by decision points. At
each gate, continuation is decided by a manager, steering
committee, or governance board.
A42
Option A: Parametric estimating is a statistical and
accuracy-based technique for calculating the time, cost,
and resources needed for project success. Combining
historical and statistical data, parametric estimating uses
the relationship between variables to deliver accurate
estimations.
A44
Option C: The Network path is a sequence of activities
connected by logical relationships in a project schedule
network diagram
A46
Option B: Mood chart is a tool that is used to keep a
record of a person's mood at regular intervals
A48
Option D: A milestone is a specific point within a project’s
life cycle used to measure the progress toward the
ultimate goal. Milestones in project management are used
as signal posts for a project's start or end date, external
reviews or input, budget checks, submission of a major
deliverable, etc.
A50
Option C: Mandatory dependency refers to a relationship
that is inherent in the nature of work. This means that the
tasks are contractually required therefore no other tasks
should be implemented until the needs of the mandatory
tasks are satisfied
A52
Option A: The make or buy decision involves whether to
manufacture a product in-house or to purchase it from a
third party. The outcome of this analysis should be a
decision that maximizes the long-term financial outcome
for a company
A55
Option A: Lessons learned register is a project artifact. It is
generally classified among log and register artifacts. It is
likely to be used as a part of the project work performance
domain. However, its usage is unlimited in project
management in the tailored processes of planning
performance domain, or measurement performance
domain. If it is necessary it will be helpful in almost all
performance domains.
A57
Option D: In project management lead time is the time it
takes to complete a task or a set of interdependent tasks.
The lead of the entire project would be the overall
duration of the critical path for the project. Lead time is
also the saved time by starting an activity before its
predecessor is completed.
A59
Option C: Last Responsible Moment is a strategy of not
making a premature decision but instead delaying
commitment and keeping important and irreversible
decisions open until the cost of not making a decision
becomes greater than the cost of making a decision is
called?
A61
Option B: A kanban board is an agile project management
tool designed to help visualize work, limit work-in-
progress, and maximize efficiency (or flow). It can help
both Agile and DevOps teams establish order in their daily
work.
A63
Option D: An issue log in project management is critical for
keeping track of problems that might affect the deadline,
budget, or even team morale for a project. Additionally,
creating a register using a project management issue log
template will allow a project manager to visualize the
problems at a glance to ensure the quick resolution of the
listed issues
A65
Option D: The initiating process group is generally when a
project is formally approved and assigned a project
manager. The group includes two primary processes:
developing the project charter and identifying the project
stakeholders.
A67
Option B: The influence diagram refers to a particular tool
used by the project team that is comprised of a chart,
diagram, or other exclusive graphical representation of a
number of situations that depict and display all particular
influences on the project and or the particular project
management activity
A69
Option D: A Gantt chart, commonly used in project
management, is one of the most popular and useful ways
of showing activities (tasks or events) displayed against
time. On the left of the chart is a list of the activities and
along the top is a suitable time scale. Each activity is
represented by a bar; the position and length of the bar
reflect the start date, duration, and end date of the
activity. This allows you to see it at a glance.
A71
Option C: External dependency is the relationship
between project activities and non-project activities
A73
Option B: Estimate To Complete (ETC) is an estimation of
funds required to complete the remaining work in a
project. It is an important Earned Value Management
(EVM) metric, which is used for forecasting the money
needed for the remaining project work.
A75
Option A: An epic is a large body of work that can be
broken down into a number of smaller stories, or
sometimes called “Issues” in Jira. Epics often encompass
multiple teams, on multiple projects, and can even be
tracked on multiple boards.
A77
Option D: Earned Value Analysis (EVA) is a method that
allows the project manager to measure the amount of
work actually performed on a project beyond the basic
review of cost and schedule reports. EVA provides a
method that permits the project to be measured by the
progress achieved.
A79
Option C: A compound of development (Dev) and
operations (Ops), DevOps is the union of people,
processes, and technology to continually provide value to
customers by creating a smooth flow of deliverables.
A81
Option A: Project deliverables refer to all of the outputs—
tangible or intangible—that are submitted within the
scope of a project. While the term may initially bring to
mind the final outputs that get submitted at the end of a
project, it actually refers to any project-related output
submitted during any of the project phases.
A83
Option D: A decision tree is a diagram that determines the
potential results of a series of choices and clearly lays
them out. By using a decision tree, project managers can
easily compare different courses of action. For each
course, decision tree analysis evaluates the chance of
success as well as the risks and predicts the benefits.
A85
Option B: Cycle Time Chart is a diagram that shows the
average cycle time of the work items completed over time
Suggested additional reading on the cycle time chart
https://bit.ly/35UpFWQ
https://bit.ly/3DZvGy3
A86
Option C: The cumulative flow diagram (also known as
CFD) is one of the most advanced Kanban and Agile
analytics charts. It provides a concise visualization of the
three most important metrics of your flow: Cycle time,
Throughput, Work in progress
A87
Option A: The critical path method (CPM) is a technique
where you identify tasks that are necessary for project
completion and determine scheduling flexibilities. A
critical path in project management is the longest
sequence of activities that must be finished on time in
order for the entire project to be complete
A89
Option C: The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is a method
for calculating the cost efficiency and financial
effectiveness of a specific project through the following
formula: CPI = earned value (EV) / actual cost (AC). A CPI
ratio with a value higher than 1 indicates that a project is
performing well budget-wise.
A91
Option C: A cost management plan is a document that
helps you map and control a budget. It enables project
managers to estimate their costs, allocate resources to the
right areas, and control overall spending. Cost
management plans keep all project costs in one place,
including direct and indirect costs.
A93
Option A: The project cost baseline is the aggregate level
cost estimates for each WBS element + contingency
reserve. 'Total cost' of the project includes management
reserve as well, but that's not part of the cost baseline.
A95
Option B: A contingency reserve is retained earnings that
have been set aside to guard against possible future
losses. A contingency reserve is needed in situations
where a business occasionally suffers significant losses
and needs reserves to offset those losses. This is part of
the project cost baseline.
A97
Option A: Complexity affects the modelling, evaluation,
and control of projects and the objectives of time, cost,
quality, and safety. Complexity can also affect the
selection of an appropriate project organization form and
the project management arrangement including the
expertise and experience requirements of project
managers.
A101
Option C: The phrase change review board (also known by
the acronym CCB) refers to any group of individuals within
a project team or project group who are responsible for
making the ultimate decision as to when and if any
particular changes are to be made in regards to work
products or schedule events
A103
Option B: A burn chart (burn up or burn down chart) is a
graphical representation of work left to do versus time.
The outstanding work (or backlog) is often on the vertical
axis, with time along the horizontal.
A105
Option D: A sprint/iteration backlog is a prioritized and
structured list of deliverables that are a part of the scope
of a project. It is often a complete list that breaks down
work that needs to be completed.
A109
Option B: Affinity grouping can be used as a collaborative
prioritization activity. It works by having your group of
participants brainstorm ideas and opportunities on Post-It
Notes. The team then works to put the sticky notes into
groups of similar items. Once the groups are created, the
team votes on the groups to rank them.
A111
Option B: Acceptance criteria represent a specific and
defined list of conditions that need to be met before a
project can be considered completed and the project
deliverables are accepted by the client.
A115
Option A: Adaptive project management is a structured and
systematic process that allows you to gradually improve
your decisions and practices, by learning from outcomes of
the decisions that you took at previous stages in the
project. As the name suggests, the project management
process changes and adapts to the needs of the
organization, ultimately boosting business value.
A117
Option A: Backlog refinement (formerly known as backlog
grooming) is when the product owner and some, or all, of
the rest of the team review items on the backlog to ensure
the backlog contains the appropriate items, that they are
prioritized, and that the items at the top of the backlog are
ready for delivery.
A119
Option C: A project budget is the total projected costs
needed to complete a project over a defined period. It's
used to estimate what the costs of the project will be for
every phase of the project. The project budget will include
such things as labor costs, material procurement costs,
and operating costs
A121
Option D: Project management change control is the
system a team uses to make major changes to a previously
approved project. This can include budget additions and
subtractions, deadlines or goalposts, and even new hiring
as project needs evolve over time.
A123
Option B: A discretionary dependency is one that isn't
based on a "have to", but on a "recommendation". These
decisions are usually based upon best practices, business
knowledge, etc. The concept of LEAD in network path
diagrams could only be applied for activities linked with
discretionary dependency
A125
Option B: Explicit knowledge (also expressive knowledge)
is the knowledge that can be readily articulated, codified,
stored, and accessed. It can be easily transmitted to
others. Most forms of explicit knowledge can be stored in
certain media.
A127
Option B: A project management workflow is a carefully
planned sequence of the tasks and activities you need to
do to complete a specific project. Having a clear order of
tasks in a project management workflow helps projects get
done more efficiently and effectively. They save time,
improve results, and increase collaboration.
A129
Option B: Hybrid approach is a combination of two or
more agile and non-agile elements having a non-agile end
result
A131
Option C: The iteration plan represents the lowest and
most detailed layer of planning. An individual iteration
plan will be created for each iteration in the project. The
main purpose of the iteration plan is to lay out how the
team will achieve the stated objectives for the given
iteration.
A133
Option A: Lean start-up canvas is a one-page template
designed to communicate a business plan with key
stakeholders in an efficient and effective manner
A135
Option C: The Project Management Body of Knowledge is a
set of standard terminology and guidelines for project
management. The body of knowledge evolves over time
and is presented in A Guide to the Project Management
Body of Knowledge, a book whose seventh edition was
released in 2021
A137
Option B: A risk breakdown structure, or RBS for short, is a
hierarchical chart that breaks down project risks starting
with higher-level categories and continuing down into sub-
levels of risk.
A139
Option C: Risk avoidance is the act of taking some sort of
action or putting plans in place that will greatly reduce the
likelihood of the risk event even happening, not just reducing
its impact. Planning to accept a risk and working on reducing
it's impact is called risk minimization/mitigation.
A141
Option B: The Wideband Delphi estimation method is a
consensus-based technique for estimating effort.
A143
Option A: Within Agile Project Management, Velocity
specifically defines what a team should be able to achieve
during a sprint. This is decided by reflecting on the past
three sprint cycles, in order to determine the predicted
velocity going forward in future sprints.
A145
Option D: The phrase "the triple bottom line" was first
coined in 1994 by John Elkington. He highlighted that
companies should be preparing three different bottom
lines. One is the profit and loss account. The second is the
bottom line of a company's "people account". The third is
the bottom line of the company's "planet" account.
A147
Option B: A stakeholder’s engagement assessment matrix
is a model which a project manager uses to judge
stakeholders’ current level of engagement with a project It
is a critical planning & monitoring tool while managing
stakeholder during a project.
A149
Option A: According to the Project Management Institute,
an assumption is any project factor that is considered to
be true, real, or certain without empirical proof or
demonstration. Realistically speaking, it’s impossible to
plan a project without making a few assumptions. The key
is knowing how to spot those assumptions and putting
safeguards in place so that if any assumption is proven
false, the impact on project delivery will be minimal.