GENERAL BIOLOGY

LONG EXAM IN CELL BIOLOGY

1. Viruses infect cells and replicate themselves by using various enzymes and cellular components of their
host cell. Could you apply the same postulates of cell theory to viral replication?

A. No, viruses do not strictly adhere to cell theory because they are not living organisms.
B. Yes, viruses strictly adhere to cell theory because an individual virus is a singular cellular unit.
C. Yes, viruses strictly adhere to cell theory because from one virus directly arises another virus.
D. No, viruses do not strictly adhere to cell theory because viruses do not directly come from other viruses;
they require a host cell to replicate.

2. A scientist discovers a new microscopic organism that appears to have a different cellular structure than
known cells. What postulate of the cell theory might this discovery challenge?

A. The fourth postulate – cells can vary in size and shape.

B. The first postulate – all living organisms are composed of cells.
C. The third postulate – cells can only arise from pre-existing cells.
D. The second postulate – cells are the basic units of structure and function in living organisms.

3. Which postulate of the cell theory implies that all cellular life on Earth shares a common ancestor?

A. The fourth postulate - cells can vary in size and shape.

B. The first postulate - all living organisms are composed of cells.
C. The third postulate - cells can only arise from pre-existing cells.
D. The second postulate - cells are the basic units of structure and function in living organisms.

4.Which of the following is NOT a part of the first postulate of the cell theory?

A. Cells are the basic units of life.

B. Cells are capable of locomotion.
C. All cells are enclosed by a plasma membrane.
D. The activity of an organism depends on the collective activities of its cells.

5 .Which of the following idea is supported by the second postulate of the cell theory?

A. Cells are the smallest unit of life.

B. All cells have the same size and shape.
C. Cells can perform a wide range of specialized functions.
D. New cells can only be formed through asexual reproduction.

6. What is the significance of the third postulate of the cell theory?

A. It addresses the origin of new cells.

B. It outlines the functions of cell organelles.
C. It explains the structure of DNA within cells.
D. It emphasizes the importance of mitochondria in cellular respiration.
7. Which of the following statements best summarizes Louis Pasteur's experiment that definitively
disproved spontaneous generation?

A. "Life can only arise from complex organic compounds.“

B. "Life can arise spontaneously under the right conditions.“
C. "Microorganisms only develop from preexisting microorganisms.“
D. "Spontaneous generation occurs under both controlled and uncontrolled conditions."

8. What does the abiogenesis theory propose?

A. Life has always existed.

B. Life originated from pre-existing cells.
C. Life originated from non-living matter.
D. Life originated from extraterrestrial sources.
9.Which scientist proposed that all plants are composed of cells, marking a crucial step in the development
of the cell theory?

A. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek

B. Matthias Schleiden
C. Robert Hooke
D. Theodor Schwann

10.Who is known for his extensive work on microorganisms and was the first to observe and describe
single-celled organisms, such as bacteria and protozoa?

A. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek

B. Matthias Schleiden
C. Robert Hooke
D. Theodor Schwann

11.A biologist is studying a cell under a microscope and notices an unusually large number of lysosomes in
the cytoplasm. What inference can be drawn from this observation?

A. The cell is actively dividing.

B. The cell is synthesizing proteins.
C. The cell is digesting cellular waste materials.
D. The cell is converting light energy into chemical energy.

12.If a mutation occurs in a gene within the nucleus, how might it affect the overall function of the cell?

A. It will have no effect on the cell's function.

B. It will only affect the shape and size of the cell.
C. It may lead to the loss of cell membrane integrity.
D. It can alter the production of specific proteins and influence cell activities.

13.If a cell undergoes apoptosis (programmed cell death), what would happen to the nucleus?

A. The nucleus divides into multiple smaller nuclei.

B. The nucleus enlarges and becomes more prominent.
C. The nucleus replicates to produce more genetic material.
D. The nuclear envelope disintegrates, and DNA is fragmented.
14.Which of the following statements best describes the role of the cell membrane in maintaining cellular
homeostasis or stable environment within the cell

A. The cell membrane only controls the entry of nutrients into the cell.
B. The cell membrane allows all substances to freely enter and exit the cell.
C. The cell membrane prevents any substances from entering or leaving the cell.
D. The cell membrane selectively regulates the passage of substances into and out of the cell.

15.A scientist is studying a cell type that requires a lot of energy for its normal function. Upon examination,
they find that this cell type has an unusually high number of mitochondria. What is a likely reason for this
observation?

A. The cell type is actively dividing.

B. The cell type is undergoing apoptosis.
C. The cell type is involved in immune response.
D. The cell type requires a lot of ATP for its function.

16.Imagine a scenario where a cell is exposed to a toxin that specifically targets and damages the smooth
endoplasmic reticulum. What impact would this toxin likely have on the cell's ability to generate energy?

A. Energy production would stop entirely.

B. Energy production would remain unaffected.
C. Energy production would increase due to stress response.
D. Energy production would decrease due to impaired lipid metabolism.

17.A cell biologist is studying the RER in two different types of cells: muscle cells and liver cells. They
observe that the RER in muscle cells is less developed compared to the RER in liver cells. What could be a
possible explanation for this difference?

A. Liver cells lack the necessary ribosomes for RER function.

B. Muscle cells rely more on mitochondria for energy production.
C. Liver cells have a higher demand for protein synthesis than muscle cells.
D. Muscle cells primarily use smooth endoplasmic reticulum for protein synthesis.

18.During periods of intense physical activity, muscles require a significant amount of energy. Which of the
following is a likely response of mitochondria in muscle cells during such activity?

A. Increased ATP synthesis

B. Increased formation of mitochondria
C. Decreased oxidative phosphorylation
D. Increased production of reactive oxygen species (ROS)

19.In a laboratory experiment, a researcher is studying the Golgi apparatus's role in disease development.
They observe that a specific pathogen seems to target and disrupt the Golgi apparatus in host cells. What
implications might this have for the course of the disease?

A.The pathogen might block DNA replication.

B. Host cells would become resistant to the pathogen.
C. The pathogen might interfere with cellular respiration.
D. Protein transportation and secretion could be disrupted, affecting immune response.
20.Imagine a scenario in which a drug inhibits the activity of lysosomal enzymes. How might this affect the
cell's ability to respond to external threats such as bacterial infections?

A. It would enhance the cell's ability to fight infections.

B. It would have no effect on the cell's response to infections.
C. It would stimulate the lysosomes to produce more enzymes.
D. It would weaken the cell's ability to break down and remove bacterial invaders.

21.What is the significance of peroxisomes in detoxification processes within the cell?

A. They detoxify heavy metals.

B. They regulate cellular pH levels.
C. They neutralize acid within the cell.
D. They break down harmful molecules into less toxic forms.

22.A plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution wherein there is more fertilizer than water, causing it to
lose water and wilt. How do vacuoles contribute to this process?

A. Vacuoles actively pump water out of the cell.

B. Vacuoles absorb excess water to prevent bursting.
C. Vacuoles release water to maintain cell turgor pressure.
D. Vacuoles store ions to create a hypertonic environment.

23.If a cell has a mutation that impairs the function of its centrioles, which of the following processes is
most likely to be affected?

A. Cell division
B. Cellular respiration
C. DNA replication
D. Protein synthesis

24.What happens to a plant cell when its cell wall is damaged or compromised?

A. The cell loses its shape and structure.

B. The cell wall repairs itself automatically.
C. The cell becomes more resistant to pathogens.
D. The cell can no longer perform photosynthesis.

25.Which of the following statements best describes the role of the cytoplasm in maintaining cell
homeostasis?

A. It stores genetic information.

B. It controls cell movement and motility.
C. It regulates the cell's internal temperature.
D. It acts as a medium for chemical reactions and nutrient transport.

26.What is a key feature that distinguishes eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells?

A. Presence of ribosomes
B. Lack of genetic material
C. Presence of a plasma membrane
D. Presence of a membrane-bound nucleus.
27.Which cellular structure is common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A. Golgi apparatus
B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleus
D. Ribosomes

28.What is one major advantage of prokaryotic cells over eukaryotic cells?

A. Their ability to divide by binary fission

B. Their ability to replicate their DNA faster
C. Their ability to specialize and perform diverse functions
D. Their ability to survive in extreme environmental conditions

29.Which of the following statements is true regarding prokaryotic cells?

A. They have a nucleus.

B. They undergo meiosis for cell division.
C. They lack membrane-bound organelles.
D. They are typically larger than eukaryotic cells.

30.Why do eukaryotic cells have a more complex internal structured compared to prokaryotic cells?

A. They have capsules.

B. They have plasmids.
C. They have peptidoglycan cell walls.
D. They have membrane-bound organelles.

31.A patient has a chronic inflammatory condition affecting their digestive tract. Which type of epithelial
tissue is most likely to be damaged or disrupted in this case?

A. Ciliated columnar epithelium

B. Simple columnar epithelium
C. Simple cuboidal epithelium
D. Simple squamous epithelium32.

32.Which type of muscle tissue is under voluntary control and can be consciously contracted and relaxed?

A. Cardiac muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Striated muscle

33.How do nerve cells contribute to the body's ability to respond to external stimuli like pain or
discomfort?

A. By releasing substances to relieve the pain

B. By releasing hormones into the bloodstream
C. By transmitting electrical signals along their axons
D. By converting electrical signals to chemical signals
34.In which type of tissue are chondrocytes found?

A. Bone tissue
B. Cartilage tissue
C. Muscle tissue
D. Nervous tissue

35.What role do brown adipocytes primarily play in the body?

A. Blood clotting
B. Energy storage
C. Insulin production
D. Thermoregulation

36.A person's blood test reveals a significantly elevated white blood cell count. Which of the following
could be a potential cause for this condition?

A. Allergies
B. Bacterial infection
C. Dehydration
D. Iron deficiency

37.What is the function of glandular cells?

A. They protect the body from infections and foreign invaders.

B. They provide support, structure and cushion to various organs.
C. They receive and transmit information to and from the nervous system.
D. They produce and secrete substances such as hormones, enzymes and mucus.

38.How does the unique shape of red blood cells relate to their main function in the body?

A. It enhances their ability to transport nutrients.

B. It enables them to engulf and destroy pathogens.
C. It allows them to store more oxygen for long periods.
D. It facilitates efficient gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.

39.Secretory vesicles are involved in the transport of insulin (lowers blood sugar) in pancreatic cells. If
these vesicles malfunctioned, what would be the likely consequence for blood sugar regulation?

A. Blood sugar levels would increase.

B. Blood sugar levels would decrease.
C. Blood sugar levels would become erratic.
D. Blood sugar levels would remain unchanged.

40.How do tight junctions contribute to the selective permeability of epithelial tissues?

A. They allow for the unregulated flow of ions and water between cells.
B. They create small pores that allow the passage of most molecules.
C. They facilitate the exchange of large molecules between adjacent cells.
D. They form a continuous seal between cells, preventing the movement of most substances between cells.
41.A mouse skin cell containing 40 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. What would be formed after mitosis?

A. Two daughter nuclei, each with 20 chromosomes

B. Two daughter nuclei, each with 40 chromosomes
C. Four daughter nuclei, each with 20 chromosomes
D. Four daughter nuclei, each with 40 chromosomes

42.A partial hepatectomy (surgical removal of a section of the liver), is often performed to treat tumors or
other abnormal growths in the liver. Following a partial hepatectomy, resting liver cells re-enter the cell
cycle, duplicating until the excised portion of the liver has been regenerated. What would the liver cells do
after partial hepatectomy is done?

A. Exit mitosis and enter G1 phase

B. Exit meiosis and enter G1 phase
C. Exit G1 phase and enter G0 phase
D. Exit G0 phase and enter G1 phase

43.Which of the following statements is true?

A. Cells spend majority of the cell cycle in the interphase.

B. The amount of cellular DNA is halved during interphase.
C. The amount of cellular DNA remains constant throughout the cell.
D. Cells spend the same amount of time in M phase as they do in interphase.

44.Which of the following statements is true?

A. Cells spend majority of the cell cycle in the interphase.

B. The amount of cellular DNA is halved during interphase.
C. The amount of cellular DNA remains constant throughout the cell.
D. Cells spend the same amount of time in M phase as they do in interphase.

45.A student is examining a cell under a microscope. Based on his observations, the student proposes that
the cell is in interphase.
Which of the following pieces of evidence would best support the student’s claim?

A. A cleavage furrow has formed on the cell’s surface.

B. The genetic content of the cell exists as dispersed chromatin.
C. The mitotic spindle is fully assembled, with its poles at opposite ends of the cell.
D. Sister chromatids have separated and are moving toward opposite poles of the cell.

46.How many chromosomes and how many chromatids are shown in this picture?

A. 4 chromosomes, 4 chromatids
B. 4 chromosomes, 8 chromatids
C. 8 chromosomes, 4 chromatids
D. 8 chromosomes, 8 chromatids
47.What might explain the unusual pattern seen in this cell?

A. The cell is actually undergoing meiosis.

B. The cell made too many copies of its chromosomes.
C. During prophase, one of the chromosomes failed to condense.
D. During metaphase, one of the chromosomes failed to bind microtubules from both spindle poles.

48.How does a prolonged G1 phase impact the overall growth and division of a cell?

A. It accelerates cell division.

B. It leads to immediate cell apoptosis.
C. It has no effect on cell growth and division.
D. It allows for more time for cell growth and preparation for division

49.How does a prolonged G1 phase impact the overall growth and division of a cell?

A. It accelerates cell division.

B. It leads to immediate cell apoptosis.
C. It has no effect on cell growth and division.
D. It allows for more time for cell growth and preparation for division.

50.In cancer therapy, how do researchers make use of the weaknesses of cancer cells during the G2 phase
to develop specific treatments?

A. By promoting cell growth in G2 phase

B. By suppressing cell division during G2 phase
C. By stimulating cell cycle arrest in the G2 phase
D. By targeting DNA repair mechanisms specific to G2 phase

51.What would happen if a cell skipped the S phase and proceeded directly from the G1 phase to the G2
phase?

A. The cell would undergo apoptosis.

B. The cell would not be able to divide.
C. The cell would have incomplete chromosomes.
D. The cell would have double the amount of DNA.

52.Imagine a scenario where a cell lacks functional tumor suppressor genes. What is the likely
consequence at the G1 checkpoint?

A. The cell undergoes apoptosis.

B. The cell cycle proceeds normally.
C. The cell arrests in G1, preventing division.
D. The cell fails to arrest in G1, leading to uncontrolled division.

53.A cell has undergone DNA replication but has sustained significant DNA damage in the process. What is
the likely outcome at the G2 checkpoint?
 A. The cell will proceed to enter mitosis.
B. The cell will immediately undergo apoptosis.
C. The cell will enter the S phase again to correct the DNA damage.
D. The cell will be halted at the G2 checkpoint to repair the damage.

54.During cell division, a mutation occurs in a gene encoding a key protein involved in the spindle assembly
checkpoint. What is the most likely outcome of this mutation?

A. Increased apoptosis
B. Accelerated cell division
C. Enhanced DNA replication
D. Incorrect separation of chromosomes

55.If a mutation occurs that prevents the nuclear envelope from breaking down during prophase, what
would be the most likely consequence?

A. Chromosome condensation would be impaired.

B. The cell would skip mitosis and undergo apoptosis.
C. The cell would be unable to enter the S phase of the cell cycle.
D. The chromosomes would not be able to align properly at the metaphase plate.

56.During metaphase, chromosomes align at the cell's equator. What advantage does this alignment
provide during cell division?

A. Increases cell size

B. Triggers cell differentiation
C. Ensures proper DNA replication
D. Facilitates chromosome separation

57.In an experiment, researchers inhibit the activity of proteins responsible for the separation of sister
chromatids during anaphase. What would be the most likely result of this inhibition?

A. The cell would undergo apoptosis.

B. The cell would enter a prolonged metaphase.
C. The cell would undergo cytokinesis prematurely.
D. The cell would skip anaphase and proceed directly to telophase.

58.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of telophase in mitosis?

A. Cleavage furrow formation begins.

B. Chromosomes start to decondense.
C. The nuclear envelope begins to disappear.
D. Chromatids move toward opposite poles of the cell.

59.If a researcher wanted to study the molecular mechanisms underlying cytokinesis, which cellular
structures and processes should they focus on?
 A. The cell membrane and cell signaling
B. The contractile ring and cell pinching
C. The spindle fibers and DNA replication
D. The centrioles and chromosome segregation

60.Which of the following statements is true regarding cancer and the cell cycle?

A. Cancer is caused by a deficiency in cell cycle checkpoints.

B. Cancer cells are less prone to DNA damage than normal cells.
C. Cancer can result from mutations that disrupt cell cycle regulation.
D. Cancer cells always progress through the cell cycle more slowly than normal cells.

61.Why is it essential for skin cells to undergo mitosis regularly?

A. To form specialized cells like neurons

B. To generate genetic diversity in the body
C. To produce haploid cells for sexual reproduction
D. To produce identical daughter cells for growth and tissue repair

62.In agriculture, the process of tissue culture is used to propagate plants asexually. Which of the following
accurately describes the role of mitosis in tissue culture?

A. Mitosis is not involved in tissue culture.

B. Mitosis generates seeds for plant reproduction.
C. Mitosis helps create genetically identical plant clones.
D. Mitosis introduces genetic diversity among propagated plants.

63.What is the primary difference between meiosis I and meiosis II?

A. Meiosis I occurs in somatic cells, while meiosis II occurs in germ cells.

B. Meiosis I results in haploid cells, while meiosis II results in diploid cells.
C. Meiosis I involves homologous chromosomes, while meiosis II involves sister chromatids.
D. Meiosis I has prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase stages, while meiosis II has only two
stages.

64.During which stage of meiosis I do homologous chromosomes physically exchange genetic material
through a process called crossing-over?

A. Anaphase 1
B. Metaphase 1
C. Prophase 1
D. Telophase 1

65.Why is meiosis I considered a reduction division?

A. Because it reduces genetic diversity

B. Because it reduces the number of chromosomes in half
C. Because it reduces the number of chromatids in the cells
D. Because it reduces the number of cells produced compared to meiosis II

66.In a certain species, the diploid number of chromosomes is 12. During metaphase I of meiosis, how
many individual chromosomes are present at the cell equator?
 A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48

67.During anaphase I of meiosis, which of the following events occurs?

A. Haploid cells formed

B. Cytokinesis takes place
C. Sister chromatids separate
D. Homologous chromosomes separate

68.During telophase I, what is the condition of the sister chromatids?

A. They undergo replication.

B. They are still attached to each other.
C. They disintegrate and are eliminated.
D. They are separated and move to opposite poles.

69.What is the main difference between cytokinesis in mitosis and cytokinesis in meiosis I?

A. Cytokinesis in mitosis occurs after meiosis I.

B. Cytokinesis in mitosis divides the cell once, while cytokinesis in meiosis I divides the cell twice.
C. Cytokinesis in mitosis results in haploid daughter cells, while cytokinesis in meiosis I results in diploid
daughter cells.
D. Cytokinesis in mitosis separates sister chromatids, while cytokinesis in meiosis I separates homologous
chromosomes.

70.What happens when a crossover event occurs between two non-sister chromatids during meiosis I?

A. It results in genetic recombination.

B. The process of meiosis is disrupted.
C. It leads to the formation of identical daughter cells.
D. It directly leads to the formation of non-identical daughter cells.

71.How does the frequency of crossing over relate to the distance between two genes on a chromosome?

A. The closer the genes, the higher the frequency of crossing over.
B. There is no relationship between crossing over and gene distance.
C. The farther apart the genes, the higher the frequency of crossing over.
D. The frequency of crossing over is constant regardless of gene distance.

72.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prophase II?

A. Crossing over
B. Formation of spindle fibers
C. Nuclear envelope breakdown
D. Condensation of chromosomes

73.During metaphase II, how does the arrangement of chromosomes differ from metaphase I in meiosis?
 A. In metaphase II, chromosomes are in single file, while in metaphase I, they are in pairs.
B. In metaphase II, chromosomes are in pairs, while in metaphase I, they form tetrads.
C. There is no difference; chromosomes are arranged the same way in both metaphase I and II.
D. In metaphase II, chromosomes are in pairs, while in metaphase I, they are in single file.

74.Imagine a cell undergoing meiosis II where there is a mutation affecting the cohesion proteins
responsible for holding sister chromatids together. What is the expected result in this case?

A. Failure of sister chromatids to separate

A. Normal separation of sister chromatids
C. Non-disjunction of homologous chromosomes
D. Formation of haploid daughter cells with double the chromosome number

75.During telophase 2, which of the following events occurs?

A. Separation of sister chromatids

B. Separation of homologous chromosomes
C. Condensation of chromatin into chromosomes
D. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes