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NCERT-Chemistry

PERIODIC TABLE
1. The elements which forms the bridge between active 8. Lanthanoid & Actinoid placed in IIIB group :-
metal of s-block & least reactive metal of group 13 (1) Their property are differ
& 14 are known as (2) Their general property are similar
(1) Typical element (2) bridge element (3) In periodic table similar property elements should
(3) Normal elements (4) Transitional elements be placed in same group
2. The study of actinoid are more complicated than (4) they have generally 3 e– in valence shell
lanthanoid. due to
9. In which of the following species all the atomic
(1) Most of the actinoid are present in nature for
orbitals are fully filled according to Aufbau's principle
few seconds
(1) Cu+ (2) Zn+2

EN
(2) The Quantity of actinoid are obtained in
(3) Kr (4) All of the above
nanograms
10. Select the group in which the two species have same
(3) Actionoid shows more no.of oxidation states than
value of radius.
Lanthanoid
(1) Cl35, Cl37 (2) Zr, Hf
(4) All of the above
(3) Al, Ga (4) All of the above
3. Reactivity of elements in the period on moving form
11. The size of following species is affected by
left to right
H1 D2 T3
(1) Decreases
(2) increases (1) Nuclear charge & atomic mass
(2) Valence principal quantum number
(3) First decreases than increases
(4) First increases than decreases (3) electron electron interaction
4. Reactivity of s-block metals increases on moving (4) Name of the factor because their size is same
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down the group. What about halogen's. reactivity 12. Which of the following statement is correct
on moving down the group (1) I.P1 of Mg < I.P1 of Al
(1) Increases (2) I.P3 of Mg > I.P2 of Na
(2) Decreases (3) I.P1 of Mg > I.P2 of Na
(3) First Increases than decreases (4) I.P2 of Mg > I.P2 of Al
(4) First decreases than increases 13. In Lithum 2s electron experience the force of
5. The model to classify the elements proposed by the attraction exerted by nucleus is
scientists before the discovery of electron were based (1) equal to the actual charge of +3
on. (2) more than the actual charge of +3
(1) Atomic No. (2) No. of Nucleon (3) less than the actual charge of +3
A

(3) Isotopes (4) Atomic volume (4) Can't predict

6. The name of the element having atomic no. 104 14. Which of the following is not a measurable quantity
is/are (1) Ionization potential (2) Atomic radii
(1) Rutherfordium (2) Unnilquadium (3) Electron Affinity (4) Electronegativity
(3) Kurchatovium (4) All of the above
15. An element 'A' has 3 electron in outermost shell and
7. The no. of elements present in each period is equal to
'B' has 6 electron in outermost shell. Formula of the
(1) Twice the atomic orbitals available in the energy
compound formed by the combination of these two.
level in which electron filled.
(2) No. of atomic orbital available in energy level. (1) A2B3 (2) A3B2
(3) 2n2 (3) A6B3 (4) A2B
(4) None of the above

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NCERT-Chemistry
16. Valency of which of the following element is not equal 19. Correct increasing order of acidic character is :-
to the valence electron (1) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < Cs2O
(1) Na (2) Mg (2) Cs2O < Na2O < MgO < Al2O3
(3) C (4) O (3) Na2O < MgO < Al2O3 < Ca2O
st
17. Which of the following configurtion has minimum 1 I.P. (4) None of these
2 1 2 2 2
(1) 1s 2s (2) 1s 2s 2p 20. Which of the following configuration belongs to
10 2 5 14 10 2 5
(3) 36[Kr] 4d 5s 5p (4) 54[Xe] 4f 5d 6s 6p s-block elements
18. Which of the following configuration has maximum (1) 1s22s22p6 3s23p63d10 4s1
value of E.A. (2) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
(1) 1s22s22p4 (2) 1s2, 2s1

EN
(3) both (1) and (2)
10 1 2 2 6 2 4
(3) 36[Kr] 4d 5s (4) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p (4) None of the above
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A

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 4 3 2 2 4 1 4 4 4 4 2 3 4 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 1 4 2 2

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NCERT-Chemistry

CHEMICAL BONDING
1. Which of the following can be extracted into ether– 9. CO2 is linear but H2O is bent, because–
(1) NaCl (2) LiCl (1) CO2 is polar, H2O is not
(3) KCl (4) None (2) H2O is polar, CO2 is not
2. Select the pairs for which dipole moment of first (3) Carbon has low E.N than 'H'
species is greater than second– (4) Carbon can form double bond with 'O'
(1) NH3 , NF3 10. If 'X'-axis is internuclear axis, which of the following
(2) BF3 , BCl3 orbitals will not form a ' ' bond–
(3) trans-but-2-ene, cis-but-2-ene (1) 1s & 1s (2) 1s & 2px

EN
(3) 2py and 2py (4) 1s and 2s
Cl OH
11. The Hybrid state of 'starred' carbon (*)
(4) ,
* HO
CH3 C
Cl OH (1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) sp3d
3. Dipole moment of a diatomic molecule is 1.2 D. If 12. Condition for Linear combination of Atomic orbitals
–8
its bond length is 1 ×10 cm, what fraction of charge according to M.O.T is–
exists on each atom– (1) Orbital must have same symmetry
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.3 (2) Orbitals must have same energy
4. Which one of the following specis does not exist– (3) Orbitals must overlap to maximum extent
(4) All
(1) He22 (2) He2 (3) He2 (4) Li2+
13. In PCl5, axial bonds are longer than equatorial
LL
5. The species having bond order different from that bonds because–
in 'CO' is–
(1) Equatorial bonds lie in same plane
– +
(1) NO (2) NO
(2) Axial bonds are repelled more by equatorial
–
(3) CN (4) N2 bonds
6. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is (3) Irregular electron distribution in 'P'
'3'. Which statement is true–
(4) There is bond angle of 120° between equatorial
(1) bond length is Unpredictable bonds.
+
(2) bond length in NO is greater than is NO 14 Which lewis dot structure for O2– ion is correct–
(3) bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO •• ••
2–
O O
××
××
A

(1) (2)
••
••

(4) bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO •• ••

7. The maximum No. of 90° angles between bp-bp of 2–

2– ××
•• ••
electrons is observed in– O• (4) •O• O
••
××

(3)
•

•• ××
3 2 3
(1) sp d Hybridisation (2) sp d Hybridisation
2
(3) dsp Hybridisation (4) dsp3 Hybridisation 15 Sodium and Chlorine atoms combines–
8. The shape of 'AsF5' according to V.S.E.P.R theory–
(1) to aquire electronic Configurtion of argon.
(1) Pentagonal Pyramidal (2) to aquire highest oxidation states.
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) by exchanging valence electrons.
(3) Square Pyramidal
(4) to complete their octets.
(4) Octahedral

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NCERT-Chemistry
16 The group valency of the elements generally equals to– 23 The Lewis theory does not account for the–
(1) Total number of electrons (1) cause of bond formation
(2) 8 minus, total numbers of electrons (2) Shape of molecules
(3) Number of valence electrons or 8 minus valence (3) Strength of chemical bond
electrons (4) All
(4) highers oxidation state of the elements 24 Stability of ionic crystal is mainly affected by–
17 In ammonium ion, bond in between ammonia (1) Lattice energy (2) EN
molecule and a proton is form by–
(3) IP (4) EA
(1) Complete transfer of electron from NH3 to H+
25 Bond enthalpy in H2 molecule is 435.8 KJ mole–1
(2) electrostatic attraction between NH4 & H+
where as bond enthalpy in N 2 molecule is
(3) equal contribution of electrons by NH3 & H+
946.0 KJ mole–1, because

EN
(4) One sided sharing of electrons
(1) H2 contains ionic bond where as N2 covalent.
18 The correct structure of CO and NO2 are–
(2) H2 does not have lone pair but N2 have.
•• •• •• ••
(1) C O ,O N O (3) Internuclear distance in H2 is larger than N2.
••
••

•• •• ••

••
– (4) H2 contains single bond where as N2 contains
•• ••
(2) O , O N O multiple bond.
••

C
••
••

•• ••
– 26 Isoelectronic molecules and molecular ions have–
•• • ••
(3) C O O N O
••

(1) Same bond energy

••
••
••

••
– (2) identical bond order
•• ••
(4) O , O O N
••
••

C (3) same charge on molecules

••
••

2
O (4) same bond length
19 Lewis structure of O 3 is drawn as 1 3: 27 Which among the following statements is wrong–
O O
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therefore formal charge on oxygen atoms are– (1) Resonance stabilizes the molecules
(1) 0, 0, 0 (2) 0, +1, –1 (2) Energy of resonance hybrid is more than the single
(3) 0, +1, +1 (4) –1, +1, –1 canonical structuire
20 Which among the following is diamagnetic molecule (3) Resonance averages the bond characteristics as
and follow octet rule– a whole.
(1) NO2 (2) ClO2 (3) CO2 (4) NO (4) The canonical form have no real existence.
21 Elements in and beyond the third period can expand 28 In polyatomic molecules dipole moment depend
their octet in the molecules like PF5, SF6 etc, because upon–
(1) they contain more than eight-electron in the (1) Individual dipole moment of bonds.
outermost shell.
(2) Spatial arrangment of various bonds.
(2) their atomic size is large.
A

(3) Vector sum of the dipole moments of various

(3) they have vacant (n – 1)d orbitals.
bonds.
(4) They have vacant nd orbitals.
(4) Geometry of molecules.
22 The ionic bond is form by–
29 Which of the following statement regarding NH3 and
(1) Complete transfer of electrons from cation to
anion NF3 is correct–
(2) Exchanging electrons in between metal and (1) NH 3 has pyramidal and, NF 3 has trigonal
nonmetal planer shape
(3) donation of electron pair from electro positive (2) bond angle in NH3 is smaller than NF3
to eletronegative element. (3) r e s u l t a n t d i p o l e m o m e n t o f N H 3 i s
(4) Complete transfer of 1, 2 or 3 electron from (4.90 ×10–30cm) and that of NF3 is (0.8 ×10–30 cm)
electropositive to electronegative element. (4) they both are sp2 hybridized.

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NCERT-Chemistry
30 The cations having same size and charge one having 33 Which among the following structure for ClF3 is most
(n – 1)d10ns0 configuration possess more polarising stable–
power, because is– •• F
(1) It is d-bolock element F

••
(1) Cl F (2) Cl F
(2) It has inert gas configuration F
F •• ••
(3) It has effective shielding of d-electrons F F
(4) it has more Zeff due to poor shielding of d-

••

••
electrons. (3) Cl F (4) Cl

••
••
31 According to VSEPR theory the pairs of electrons

••
F F F
tend to occupy such position in space that– 34 Considering x-axis as the internuclear axis, which
(1) Maximise repulsion and thus minimise distance out of the following will not form a sigma bond–
from one another. (1) 1s – 1s (2) 1s – 2px

EN
(2) minimise repulsion and thus maximise distance (3) 2px – 2px (4) 1s – 2py
from one another.
(3) maximise repulsion and thus maximise distance 35 In the reaction BF3 + NH3 F3B.NH3
from one another. (1) Bond angle F – B – F increase
(4) minimise repulsion and distance from one (2) HNHˆ bond anlge decrease
another. (3) regular geometry of BF3 changed
32 Which of the following molecule does not contains (4) regular geometry of NH3 changed.
bond angle of 90°– 36 The correct increasing order of bond order is–
(1) IF7 (2) SiCl4
(1) N2 < O2 < O2 < O2 (2) O2 O2 O2 N2
(3) XeF4 (4) PCl5

(3) O2 O2 O2 N2 (4) O2 N2 O2 O2
LL
A

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 4 2 2 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 4 2 2 3 4 4 4 1 4 2 2 3 3 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36
Ans. 2 2 3 4 3 2

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NCERT-Chemistry
s-BLOCK ELEMENTS
1. Which of the following gives H2O2 on hydrolysis– 11. On exposure to air, how many water molecules are
lost by washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O) :-
(1) Na2O (2) Na2O2
(1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 1 (4) 5
(3) KO2 (4) 2 & 3 both
12. In Downs cell KCl is added in NaCl to–
2. Which of the following is coloured–
(1) Lowers its melting point
(1) Li2O (2) Na2O2 (3) KO2 (4) Na2O
(2) Dissolve more of NaCl
3. Correct order of melting points & boiling point is–
(M = Alkali metal) (3) Increase Conductivity

EN
(1) MF > MBr > MI > MCl (4) Increase the dissociation

(2) MF > MCl > MBr > Ml 13. Sodium carbonate solution in H2O is alkaline due to–

(3) MI > MBr > MCI > MF (1) Hydrolysis of Na+

(4) MI > MBr > MF > MCl (2) Hydrolysis of CO23

4. Which of the following releases brown gas on (3) Hydrolysis of both Na+ and CO23
heating–
(4) None
(1) NaNO3 (2) LiNO3 (3) KNO3 (4) RbNO3
14. In Manufacture of NaOH, by product obtained is–
5. Which of the following does not exist in solid form–
(1) O2 (2) Cl2 (3) Na2CO3 (4) NaCl
(1) Na HCO3 (2) Ba(HCO3)2
15. Setting of plaster of paris involves–
LL
(3) KH CO3 (4) Rb HCO3
(1) Oxidation with atmospheric oxygen
6. Which of the following on heating releases a gas
(2) Combination with atmospheric CO2
which gives lime water test–
(3) Dehydration
(1) Li2SO4 (2) Na2SO4
(4) Hydration to yield another Hydrate
(3) K2SO4 (4) Rb2SO4
16. A metal 'M' readily form its sulphat MSO4. Which
7. Which of the following forms chlorobridged dimer
is water soluble. It form oxide MO which becomes
in vapour phase–
inert, on heating. It forms insoluble hydroxide which
(1) LiCl (2) BeCl2 (3) BaCl2 (4) MgCl2 is soluble in NaOH. The metal 'M' is–
A

8. Tendency to form halide hydrates is maximum in– (1) Mg (2) Ba

(1) MgCl2 (2) CaCl2 (3) SrCl2 (4) BaCl2 (3) Ca (4) Be

9. BeF2 is prepared by thermal decomposition of 17. In curing cement plaster. Water is sprinkled from

(1) BeCO3 (2) (NH4)2 BeF4 time to time. this helps in–

(3) BeF42 (4) BeSO4 (1) Hydrating sand and gravel mixed with cement

10. KHCO3 cannot be prepared by solvay's process due to– (2) Converting sand into silicate

(1) Unstability (2) High latlice energy (3) Developing interlocking needle like crystals of

(3) High solubility in water hydrated silicates

(4) High polarising power of K+ (4) Keeping it cool.

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NCERT-Chemistry
18. A sodium salt on treatment with the MgCl2 gives, 20. Which compound will liberate oxygen when react
white ppt only on heating, the anion of sodium salt
is– with H2O–
(1) HCO3 (2) CO23 (1) Na2O2 (2) KO2 (3) Na2O (4) Cs2O2
(3) NO3 (4) SO24 21. The compound formed upon combustion of sodium
19. Gypsum on heating at 120 – 130°C gives– metal in excess of air–
(1) Hemihydrate (2) Monohydrate (1) Na2O2 (2) NaO2 (3) NaOH (4) Na2SO4
(3) Dihydrates (4) Anhydrom salt

EN
LL
A

ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Ans. 4 3 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 3 2 1 2 2 4
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21

Ans. 4 3 1 1 2 1

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NCERT-Chemistry

p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
BORON FAMILY 9. Diborane reacts with ammonia initially it gives
1. Order of Relative stability of +1 oxidation state in B2H6.2NH3 which is formulated as–
Boron family (1) BH3 NH3 (2) [BH2(NH3)2]+ [BH4]–
(1) Al < Ga < In < T (3) [BH4]+ [BH2(NH3)2]– (4) B3N3H6
(3) Al > Ga > In < T 10. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding
(3) Al = Ga = In = T diborane

(4) Al < Ga > In < T (1) It is highly toxic gas

2. Which of the following species act as oxidising agent (2) It is Inflammable

(1) Al+3 (2) T +3 (3) It does not hydrolysed by water

(4) It act as lewis acid

EN
(3) In+3 (4) Ga+3
11. Al liberate H2 gas on dissolving it in
3. Trihalide of boron family act as lewis acid. What is
the order of lewis acidic strength (1) HCl (2) HNO3
(1) BCl3 < AlCl3 < GaCl3 (3) NaOH (4) 1 & 3 both
(2) BCl3 > AlCl3 > GaCl3 CARBON FAMILY
(3) BCl3 < AlCl3 > GaCl3 12. Elements of group 14
(4) BCl3 = AlCl3 = GaCl3 (1) exhibit oxidation state of +4 only
4. Which of the following oxide gives acidic solution in (2) exhibit oxidation state of +2 and +4
water (3) form M2– and M+4 ions
(1) B2O3 (2) Al2O3 (4) form M+2 and M+4 ions.
(3) Both (4) None 13. Normally SiO2 is almost non reactive due to
5. White fumes appears around the bottle of anhy. (1) Very high Si–O bond enthalpy
AlCl3. it is due to
LL
(2) Back bondig b/w Si & O atom
(1) Formation of Al(OH)3 (3) sp3 hybridistion of Si
(2) Dimerisation of AlCl3 (4) None of these
(3) Due to hydrolyses of AlCl3, give HCl gas 14. SiO2 is soluble in
(4) Due to absorption of moisture
(1) HNO3 (2) H2SO4 (3) HF (4) HCl
6. Borax dissolve in water to give
15. The chain length of silicones can be controlled by
(1) acidic solution (3) Basic solution
(1) (CH3)3 SiCl
(3) neutral solution (4) None
(2) Additon of Cu powder
7. In Borax bead test characterstic colour appears due
(3) Elevation of temprature
to formation of–
(4) None of these
(1) Metaborate of transition metals
A

16. Carbon monoxide does not act as

(2) Sodium Metaborate
(1) Reducing agent (2) Complexing agent
(3) Boron oxide
(3) Fuel (4) A basic oxide
(4) Boric anhydride
17. In graphite C – C bond length (141.5 pm) found
8. Which of the following statement is wrong about to be shorter than normal C – C bond length
orthoboric acid (154 pm) this anomaly occurs due to
(1) It has a layer structure (1) There is p -p bond delocalise within layer
(2) In it's structure BO3 units are bonded through (2) In Hexagonal layer structure C atom bonded
H–bond more compactly.
(3) Boric acid is tribasic acid (3) Hexagonal layers have weak vanderwal forces
(4) Open heating for long time if produces B2O3. among them.
(4) sp3 hybridisation of each carbon atom.

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NCERT-Chemistry
NITROGEN FAMILY 27. In the ostwald's process nitric acid is prepared by
18. Which of the following can form d -d bond with the catalytic oxidation of
transition metal. (1) N2 (2) NH3
(1) N(CH3)3 (2) P(C2H5)3 (3) N2O5 (4) NO2
(3) As(C6H5)3 (4) 2 & 3 both 28. Holme signal can be given by the using
19. Nitrogen form NX3 type trihalide most stable (1) CaC2 + CaCN2 (2) CaC2 + Ca3P2
trihalide is– (3) CaC2 + CaCO3 (4) Ca3P2 + CaCN2
(1) NF3 (2) NCl3 (3) NBr3 (4) NI3 OXYGEN FAMILY
20. BiH3 is strongest reducing agent among hydride of 29. What is the correct order of acidic nature
15th group element due to
(1) SO2 < SeO2 < TeO2
(1) Most ionic hydride
(2) SO2 > SeO2 > TeO2
(2) least bond dissociation enthalpy

EN
(3) SO2 = SeO2 = TeO2
(3) smallest bond angle
(4) SO2 < SeO2 > TeO2
(4) Highest boiling point
30. Which of the following oxide is different than other
21. PH 3 is no n-inflammable gas ,bu t becomes
(1) SO2 (2) Cl2O7
inflammable owing to the presence of
(3) Pb3O4 (4) CO2
(1) P2H4 (2) P4O10
31. For the estimation of O3, if allowed to react with
(3) NaH2PO2 (4) NaOH
excess of KI solution, this KI solution buffered with a
22. ˆ – N bond angle
In the gaseous state of HNO3 N – O (1) Borate buffer
is 102° what would be the arrgangement of HNO3 (2) NH4OH + NH4+ buffer
(1) Planar (2) Tetrahedral (3) CH3COOH + CH3COONa buffer
(3) Square planar (4) Distorted (4) All
23. PH3 is slightly soluble in water, the solution of PH 3 32. Which of the following form of sulpher is
in water decomposes in presence of light and give
LL
paramagnetic
(1) PH4 OH (2) H2 & P4 (red) (1) S3 (2) S6
(3) S2 (4) All of them
(3) P4O10 (4) P2H4 + energy
33. What are most favourable conditions for the
24. Which of the following oxoacid of phosphorus does
production of SO3 from SO2
not disproportionate
(1) High temp & low pressure
(1) H3PO2 (2) H3PO4
(2) low temp & high presure
(3) H3 PO3 (4) All
(3) low temp & low pressure
25. The electronegativity of N & Cl is almost equal but
N2 inert and Cl2 is reactive (4) High temp & high pressure

(1) Cl – Cl bond has very high bond dissociation HALOGEN FAMILY

A

energy 34. Interhalogen compounds are–

(2) N 2 molecule has very high bond dissociation (1) Ionic compound
energy (2) Coordinate compound
(3) Cl2 molecule is bigger in size (3) Molecular solid
(4) N has +ve electron gain enthalpy (4) Covalent compound
26. PCl3 is an oily colorless liquid, it hydrolysis in 35. In the oxyacids of chlorine Cl – O bond contains–
presence of mositure and produces–
(1) d – d bonding
(1) H3PO3 & HCl
(2) P -d bonding
(2) H3PO4 & HCl
(3) P -P bonding
(3) H3PO2 & H3PO3
(4) None
(4) H3PO3 & H3PO4

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NCERT-Chemistry
36. Which of the following oxide of chlorine uses for the 39. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding
bleaching of paper pulps & textiles– Noble gases–
(1) Cl2O (2) Cl2O6 (1) They are readily soluble in water
(2) Interatomic interaction in these element is weak
(3) Cl2O7 (4) ClO2
dispersion force
37. Three part of conc. HCl & one part of HNO3 are
(3) Inert gases have property of diffusing rubber glass etc.
mixed, aquaregia is formed, it is used to dissolve
(4) MP & B.P. of these element is quite lower
(1) Inert gases (2) Noble metals 40. Which of the following gas is uses in magnetic
(3) Alkali metal (4) All resonance imaging (MRI)
INERT GASES (1) Ni (2) Liq. He (3) Xe (4) Rn
38. Which of the following gas found in Pitchblende &
monazite mineral

EN
(1) Ar (2) Liquid He
(3) Kr (4) All
LL
A

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A ns. 1 2 2 1 3 2 1 3 2 3 4 2 1 3 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. 4 1 4 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. 1 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 2

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NCERT-Chemistry

HYDROGEN & ITS COMPOUNDS

1. Similarity of H with halogens is 10. Strong Intermolecular H-Bonding in water leads to
(1) Forms diatomic moleculaes (1) High heat of fusion
(2) form uninegative ions (2) High heat of vaporisation
(3) having one 'e' less to require stability (3) High freezing point
(4) All (4) All
2. If M.P. of Hydrogen is 13.96K then M.P. of 11. Which relation is true. regarding dielectric constant
deuterium will be ( o)
(1) 9.8 (2) 13.96 (3) 18.7 (4) not fixed
(1) oH o D2O (2) oH o D2O
3. A mixute of H2 and CO is known as 2O 2O

(1) water gas (2) Syn gas (3) oH

2O
o D2O (4) Data not known
(3) Synthesis gas (4) all 12. Crystalline form of water is–

EN
673K (1) Dry ice (2) Ice
4. Reaction COg + H2Og Fe
CO2 g + H2g is
(3) water liq at 4°C (4) supercooled water
known as
13. At low temp ice crystallises in
(1) water gas reaction (2) water gas shift reaction
(1) hexagonal form (2) Cubic form
(3) Uyenos reaction (4) eletrolyting method
(3) Both (4) None
5. dihydrogen is–
14. In clark method chemical used is
(1) water soluble (2) water insoluble
(1) NaOH (2) Na2CO3 (3) CaCO3 (4) Ca(OH)2
(3) sparingly soluble (4) Highly water soluble
6. hydrides like MgH2, B2H6 are known as 15. Calgon method is used to remove which type of
hardness of water–
(1) Nonstoichiometric compound
(1) temporary (2) permanent
(2) Interstitial compound
(3) Both (4) None
(3) Binary compound
16. Which substance is added as stabiliser in storage of
(4) Clathrates comounds H2O2
LL
7. CH4is a exaniple of– (1) dust (2) CaCl2 (3) Ca-silicates(4) Urea
(1) 'e' defficient - covalent hydride 17. Which method is suitable to remove both temporary
(2) 'e' sufficient - covalent hydride as well as permanent hardnens
(3) 'e' rich - covalnet hydride (1) Clarks method (2) calgon method
(4) 'e' sufficient - saline hydride (3) permutit method (4) 2 and 3 both
8. Term 'H-economy' means 18. Perhydrol is a aquated solution of
(1) low costing in preparation of H2 (1) Bleaching powder (2) ozone
(2) fuel efficiecy of H2 (3) KMnO4 (4) H2O2
(3) transprortation and stroage of energy in gas/liq H2 19. Not true about H2O2
form (1) Pale Blue lliquid
(4) Both 2, 3 (2) two-OH bonds lies in same plane
A

9. After ocean water major source of water is (3) act as both oxidant and reductant
(1) Ground water (4) stored in wax lined glass and kept in dark
(2) Atmospheric vapours 20. Mixture of hydrazine and H2O2 is a–
(3) Riverwater (1) antiseptic (2) insecticide
(4) Glacier & polar ice (3) Bleach (4) rocket fuel

ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 3 4 2 2 3 2 4 4 4 1 2 2 4 3
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 4 2 4

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NCERT-Chemistry

d & f-BLOCK ELEMENTS

1 Transition element is defined as one which has–
(1) Fully filled (n – 1) d subshell
(2) Incompletely filled nd subshell in ground or in
higher oxidation state
(3) Incompletely filled (n – 1) d subshell in ground
state
(4) Incompletely filled (n – 1) d subshell in ground
state or any one of its oxidation state
2 Zn, Cd and Hg are not regarded as transition
elecments on the basis of electronic configuration
7 Most common oxidation states are mathched below
with the elements Which one is mismatched ?
(1) Iron (+2, +3) (2) Chromium (+1, +2)
(3) Mangenese (+2, +7) (4) Titanium (+3, +4)
8 Which among the following statements is incorrect
(1) In d-block elements oxidation state differ by unity.
(2) In p-block metals oxidation state differ by two units.
(3) In a group of p-block lower oxidation states are
favoured by the heavier members.
(4) In a group of d-block higher oxidation states are

EN
because– favoured by the lighter member.
(1) they do not have electrons in d-subshell 9 Which among the following order of oxidising
(2) their d and s-subshells remain fully filled in ground character is correct–
and higher oxidation states (1) CrO3 > MoO3 (2) K2Cr2O7 > KMnO4
(3) their s-subshell remain incomplete in ground and (3) Fe(CO)5 > Mn(CO)5 (4) V2O3 > V2O5
ionic state 10 Which of the following transition element does not
(4) their penultimate shell remains completely filled exhibit variable oxidation state–
in ground and in higher oxidation state (1) Mercury (2) Scandium
3 In general melting point of transition elements in a (3) Copper (4) All of the above
series can be explained by following relation– 11 Which of the following configurations of 3d series
(1) Melting point atomic weight metals exhibits the largest number of oxidation
(2) Melting point no of unpaired valence electrons states–
LL
(3) Melting point Internuclear distance. (1) [Ar] 3d8 4s2 (2) [Ar] 3d10 4s1
1 (3) [Ar] 3d5 4s2 (4) [Ar] 3d7 4s2
(4) Melting point
atomic weight 12 Cr2+ is reducing in nature because–
4 In the series Sc to Zn the enthalpy of atomisation (1) In Cr2+, configuration changes from d4 to d3 to
of 'Zn' is the lowest because– acheive half filled t2g.
(1) Zn exist in molecular state (2) Cr2+ gain an electron to acheive d5 configuration
(2) In the crystal of Zn interatomic distance is small (3) Cr2+ give an electron to acheive d5 configuration
(3) IP of Zn is minimum in the series (4) In Cr2+ configuration changes from d4 to d3 to
(4) No 3d orbital involned in metallic bonding. acheive half filled d-subshell.
5 Which among the following orders of second IP is 13 The ability of fluorine to stabilize the highest oxidation
A

correct– states in CrF6, VF5 is due to–

(1) Mn > Cr (2) Zn > Cu (1) Oxidising property of higher oxidation states
(3) Na > Cu (4) Cr > K (2) higher lattice energy
6 Which among the following statement regarding IP (3) High bond enthalpy due to coralent character
is incorrect (4) Ability to form nultiple bond.
(1) IP1 of Mn is greater than its IP2 14 Highest stable Mn fluoride is MnF4 where as highest
(2) IP of Mn 2+
is greater than IP of Fe2+ Mn oxide is Mn2O7 due to–
(3) IP3 of Ni is greater than IP3 of Pt (1) O atom is smaller the F.
(4) IP of 3d series element increases from Sc to Zn (2) Oxygen has ability to form multiple bonds
in irregular manner. (3) Mn7+ does not exist
(4) F can not-stabilise higher oxidation states.

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NCERT-Chemistry
15 Which among the following order of oxidising power 21 Which of the following statement regarding
is correct– interstetial compounds is incorrect–
(1) CrO4 MoO4 WO4 (1) They are chemically inert
(2) VO2 Cr2O27 MnO 4 (2) They are soft and nonconductive

(3) CrO3 < MnO2 < Fe2O3 (3) They retain metallic conductivity

(4) Pb4+ < Sn+4 < C4+ (4) They have high melting point.

16 Which of the following compound decomposes on 22 Which among the following alloy does not contains
heating to give metal– copper–

(1) KNO3 (2) CaCO3 (1) Brass (2) Bronze

(3) ZnCO3 (4) AgNO3 (3) German Silver (4) Type metal

17 Which of the following pair of ions has same value 23 Alloys are formed by atoms with metallic radii that

EN
of "spin-only" magnetic moment are within about–

(1) Cu+, Cu2+ (2) Co3+, Fe2+ (1) 15 percent of each other

(3) Ti2+, V2+ (4) Sc2+, Zn+2 (2) 50 percent of each other

18 The magnetic moment of divalent ion in aqueous (3) 30 percent of each other
solution if its atomic number is 25 is – (4) 75 percent of each other
(1) 4.9 B.M (2) 5.92 BM 24 Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solution, due to–
(3) 3.8 B.M (4) 2.8 B.M (1) d10 configuration
19 In which of the following metal ion frequency of light (2) disproportionation
absorbed lies in visible region– (3) less charge
(1) Sc 3+
(2) Cu + (4) pseudo inert gas configuration
(3) Cd 2+ 3+
(4) Cr 25 Atomic radii of Zr (160 pm) and Hf (159 pm) is a
20 Whcih among the following pair is of interstetial consequence of–
LL
compounds – (1) Transition contraction
(1) SiH4, LiH (2) Fe3H, Mn4N (2) Inert pair effect
(3) Al4C3, SiC (4) TiCl4, MnO2 (3) poor shielding of 4f electrons
(4) Actinoide contraction
A

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

A ns. 4 4 2 4 3 1 2 4 1 2 3 1 2 2 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
A ns. 4 2 2 4 2 2 4 1 2 3

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NCERT-Chemistry

COORDINATION CHEMISTRY
1 Compound CoCl 3.4NH 3 is observed in two 9 Tetraammineaquachloridocobalt (III) chloride can
different colours green and violet but distinct exhibit–
properties they are– (1) Geometrical and optical isomerism
(1) Optical isomers
(2) Geometrical and ionisation isomerism
(2) geometrical isomers
(3) Optical and linkage isomerism
(3) Ionisation isomers
(4) Only geometrical isomerism
(4) coordination isomers
2 Which among the following statements is wrong– 10 Mercury tetrathiocyanato Cobaltate (III) is–

(1) Primary valences are ionisable (1) [Hg(SCN)2 Co(SCN)2]

EN
(2) Secondary valences are satisfied by the ligands (2) Co[Hg(CN)4]
(3) Primary valences are equals to coordination (3) Hg[Co(NCS)4]
number of centre metal ion
(4) Hg[Co(SCN)4]
(4) Primary valence are satisfied only by the anions
11 Complex which is used as anticancer is–
3 The complex having square planar shape is–
(1) [Ni(CN)4]4– (2) [Ni(CO)4] NH3 H2O Cl
(3) [Cd(CN)4]2–
(4) [PtCl4]2– Cl NH 3 Pt
(1) Pt (2)
4 Which of the following will give two mole of AgCl H2O Cl
Cl NH3
precipitated per mole of the compound with excess NH3
H3N Cl H3N Cl
AgNO3–
(3) Cu (4) Pt
(1) PtCl4. 2HCl (2) PtCl2. 2NH3
H3N Cl H3N Cl
(3) PtCl2. 2en (4) PtCl4. 5NH3
12 The complex
LL
5 Ligands which can ligate through two different
NH3
atoms is called– O2N NO2
(1) Flexidentate ligand (2) Bidentate ligand Co
(3) Chelating ligand (4) Ambidentate ligand H3N NO2
6 Which ligand on coordination with central metal ion, NH3
form maximum number of ring structures– is–
(1) Triphenyl phosphine (PPh3) (1) leavo-form (2) Facial-form
(2) diethylene triamine (dien) (3) cis-form (4) Meridional-form
(3) Triethylenetetraamine (trien) 13 Which type of isomerism exhibited by
(4) Acetylacetanate (acac) K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2] –
A

7 The heteroleptic complex is–

(1) Ionisation (2) Hydrate
(1) Cis-platin
(3) Geometrical (4) All
(2) Brown ring complex
14 The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr4]2– is 5.9
(3) Zeise salt
B.M. The correct statement about the complex is –
(4) All
8 The IUPAC n ame of t he complex (1) It has tetrahedral gemoetry

[Co(H2NCH2CH2NH2)3]2 (SO4)3 is– (2) Configuration is t2 g5 eg0

(1) Bis (triethylenediamine) cobalt (III) disulphate
(2) Tirs (ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) sulphate (3) Configuration is t2 g2 eg3
(3) Triethylene diamine dicobalt (II) sulphate
(4) It is low spin complex
(4) Tris (ethylenediamine) cobalt (II) trisulphate
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NCERT-Chemistry
15 Crystal field splitting in octahedral complex causes– 18 In zeise salt Pt to C2H4 bonding creats a synergic
(1) Stabilisation of eg energy set effect what is true regarding these two species–
(2) Lowering of energy of dxy, dyz, and dxz by (1) Pt is -acceptor as well as -donar
2/5 0
(2) Pt is -acceptor and -donar
(3) Pt is -donar and - acceptor
(3) Lowering of energy of d x2 y2
,d z2 by 3/5
0
(4) C2H4 is -donar and -acceptor
(4) increase in energy of t2g set
19 Pick out the false statement about analytical
16 In d4 configuration when 0
< P fourth electron applications of complex–
enters in – (1) Brown ring complex is formed during detection
(1) dxy orbital (2) t2g energy set of NO3 by acidified FeSO4.

EN
(3) dxz orbital (4) eg energy set (2) DMG is used to detect Ni2+ ion in the soution
17 For the same metal, and same ligands, the relation (3) EDTA is used to estimate hardness of water
in between and is– (4) K3[Fe(CN)6] is used to detect Fe3+ ion
t 0
20 Pick out the incorrect match among the following
9 3
(1) t 0 (2) t 0 (1) Vitamin B12 – the antipernicious anaemia factor
4 5
(2) [RhCl (PPh3)3] – Hydrogenation of alkenes
(3) t 0.45 0 (4) t 0.6 0
(3) [Ag (CN)2]– – Photography
(4) D- penicillamine & desferrioxime-B- To remove
excess of Cu and Fe from plant/animal system.
LL
A

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 4 3 4 3 4 2 4 4 4 4 3 1 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 4 4 3

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NCERT-Chemistry
METALLURGY
1. Which element exist in free state 10. Which method is suitable for seperation of ore from
(1) Hg (2) Fe (3) Au (4) Zn gangue, If ore is suitably soluble in some solvent.

2. Which statement is true (1) Leaching

(2) Poling
(1) All minerals are ore
(3) Cupellation
(2) beneficial part of ore is gangue
(4) Zone refining method
(3) Among metal Fe is most abundent
(4) Sphalerite is the sulphide ore of Zn 11. Vapour phase refining method is applicable on

3. Which one is not a ore of Iron (1) Ni (2) Ti (3) Zr (4) All

(1) Siderite (2) Iron pyrites 12. Column chromatogrophic seperation method is

EN
(3) Malachite (4) Magnetite based on

4. Suitable ore for extraction of Fe is– (1) Absorption (2) diffusion

(1) Oxide ore (2) Sulphide ore (3) evaporation (4) Adsorption

(3) Carbonate ore (4) all of these 13. Removal of different component from a adsorbent
is known as–
5. Match the following
1. Zincite P Sulphide ore (1) Leaching (2) Elusion

2. Malachite Q halide ore (3) Constant Boiling (4) Vapour phase refining
3. Horn silver R Oxide ore 14. Zinc is used for
4. Iron pyrities S Carbonate ore (1) Hardening of steel
(1) 1 – R; 2 – P; 3 – Q; 4–S (2) galvanising the iron
LL
(2) 1 – R; 2 – S; 3 – Q; 4–P
(3) Softening of iorn
(3) 1 – S; 2 – R; 3 – P; 4–Q
(4) galvanising of Hg
(4) 1 – Q; 2 – S; 3 – P; 4–R
15. In froath floatation method concentrated ore is
6. Removal of unwanted material from ore is known
obtained at
as –
(1) Bottom of container
(1) Dressing of ore (2) Benefaction of ore
(3) Concentration of ore (4) all of these (2) Skimmed off in form of upper layer

7. In magnetic seperation method which one is true (3) Mixed in water-oil mixture

(1) either ore is being attracted by magnetic field (4) Concentrated ore can't be obtained
(2) either gangue is being attracted by magnetic field 16. Malleable iron is
A

(3) Both
(1) Pig iron (2) Cast iron
(4) None
(3) spongy iron (4) wrought iron
8. In froth floatation method depresants are used for–
17. Which reaction shows formation of blistered copper.
(1) to enhance non wettability of mineral partiels
(2) to made suspension of ore with water (1) 2FeS + 3O2 2FeO + 2SO2
(3) to take forth upside
(4) to seperate two sulphide ore (2) 2Cu2S+3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2

9. Forth stabilizers is–

(3) 2Cu2O + Cu2S 6Cu + SO2
(1) NaCN (2) Xanthate
(4) Cu2O + C 2Cu + CO
(3) Cresol (4) pine oil

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NCERT-Chemistry
18. Reaction showing preparation of wrought Iron is– 21. Impurity present in mineral is known as
(1) Flux (2) Slag
(1) FeO + CO Fe + CO2
(3) gangue (4) All
(2) FeO + SiO2 FeSiO3 22. Autoreduetion process is used in metallurgy of
(1) Cu, Ag (2) Zn, Hg
(3) Fe3O4 + 4CO 3Fe + 4CO2
(3) Cu, Hg (4) Zn, Ag
(4) Fe2O3 + 3C 2Fe + 3CO
23. Bauxite is not purified by
19. If Na2CO3 is used to obtain alumina from Bauxite, (1) Halls process
process is known as–
(2) serpek method
(1) Halls method (2)Bayers method
(3) Baeyer process
(3) serpek method (4) Halls-Herroult method

EN
(4) Hoopes method
20. Which reaction is involved in extraction of Ag by
cyanide proces

(1) AgBr + Na2S2O3 Na3 [Ag(S2O3)2]

(2) AgCl + NH4OH [Ag(NH3)2] Cl

(3) Ag2S + NaCN Na[Ag(CN)2]

(4) None
LL
A

ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 4 3 1 2 4 3 4 3 1 4 4 2 2 2
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
Ans. 4 3 4 1 3 3 3 4

E 39 E

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