TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL INORGANIC CHEMISTRY

PERIODIC TABLE
1. Which of the following statement is not correct 7. An element whose IUPAC name is ununtrium
23 (UUT) belongs to :-
(1) s-block (2) p-block
A
(3) d-block (4) ƒ-block
B
8. If Zeff of sodium is 'x' then Zeff of calcium is :-
C
(1) x + 0.35 (2) x + 0.65
(1) Atomic no. of A, B, C are 40,57, 105 resp. (3) x – 0.35 (4) x – 0.65
(2) Group no of A, B, C are IV B, III B and 9. Lanthanoid contraction will not have any
V B respectively influence when we compare size of :-
(3) Period no of A, B, C are, 4th, 5th and 6th resp. (1) Zr & Hf (2) Y & La (3) Mo & W (4) Tc & Re
(4) C is a radioactive element
10. In which one of the following pairs the
2. Which of the following is not correctly matched
radius of the second species is greater than
(1) d-block element : (n – 1)d 1–10 ns0–2
that of the first ?
(2) p-block element : ns2 np1–6
(1) O–2 , N–3 (2) Na, Mg
(3) s-block element : (n – 2)f° (n–1)d° ns1–2
(3) Al, Be (4) Li+, Be+2
(4) Representative elements : ns1–2 np1–5
3. The elements which are radioactive and had 11. Pair of smallest and largest species among
been named after the names of planets are :- Mg, Al, Mg+2, Al+3 is :-
(1) Hg (2) Np (3) Pu (4) Ra (1) Mg+2 , Mg (2) Al+3, Mg
4. Which of the following statement is not correct (3) Mg+2, Al (4) Al+3 , Al
(1) Noble gases have a different number of 12. Which two are closest to one another in size ?
outermost electrons than their group (1) Li+ and Na+ (2) Be+2 and Mg+2
number (3) Be+2 and Li+ (4) Li+ and Mg+2
(2) In the sixth period the orbitals being filled 13. In which pair the first atom or ion is not larger
are 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p than the second :-
(3) The second transition series contains the (1) N, F (2) Cl–, Cl (3) O, S (4) Fe2+, Fe3+
elements from Y to Cd. 14. Incorrect order of radius is :-
(4) O–2 has the same no. of e–s in its outermost
(1) Sr+2 < Rb+ < Br– < Se–2
as well as penultimate shell
(2) Nb+5 < Zr+4 < Y+3
5. Which of the following statement is not correct
(3) Co > Co+2 > Co+3 > Co+4
(1) Tc and Pm are not found in nature
(4) Ba+2 < Cs+ < Se–2 < As–3
(2) Element having ns2 np5 configuration are
placed in the column before the extreme 15. Which one of the following statements is
right in the P.T. incorrect ?
(3) Most of the man made element occurs in (1) Greater is nuclear charge, greater is the
the actinide series electron gain enthalpy
(4) The 3d - transition series contains elements (2) Nitrogen has almost zero electron affinity
having atomic number from 21 to 29 (3) Electron gain enthalpy decreases from
6. Which of the following is not correctly matched fluorine to iodine in the group
(1) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 ® Transition element (4) Chlorine has highest electron gain enthalpy
(2) [Rn] 5f14 6d1 7s2 ® Inner transition element 16. Which of the following properties among
(3) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p6 7s2 ® Representative halogens decrease(s) from fluorine to iodine ?
element (1) Electronegativity (2) Bond energy
(4) [Xe] 4f 5d 6s ® d-block element
14 2 2
(3) Ionisation energy (4) (1) & (3) both

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 TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
17. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? 24. If I.E. of Na, Mg and Si are respectively 496, 737
(1) The second ionization energy of sulphur is & 786 kJ mol– The IE of Al in KJ mol–1 is :-
greater than that of chlorine (1) 575 (2) 760 (3) 390 (4) 1120
(2) The third ionization energy of phosphorus 25. Which one of the following statements is
is greater than that of magnesium incorrect in relation to ionization enthalpy?
(3) The first ionization energy of aluminium is (1) Ionization enthalpy increases for each
approx equal as that of gallium successive electron.
(4) The second ionization energy for boron is (2) The greatest increase in ionization enthalpy
greater than that of carbon is experienced on removal of electron from
18. The correct values of ionization enthalpies (in core noble gas configuration.
kJ mol–1) of Si, P, Cl and S respectively are :- (3) End of valence electrons is marked by a big
(1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256 jump in ionization enthalpy.
(2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256 (4) Removal of electron from orbitals bearing
(3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999 lower n value is easier than from orbital
(4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256 having higher n value.
19. The second ionisation energy is maximum for : 26. IP1, IP2, IP3 , IP4 and IP5 for an element is 7.1,
(1) Boron (2) Beryllium 14.3, 34.5, 46.8 and 162.2 eV respectively then
(3) Magnesium (4) Aluminium element is :-
20. From the ground state, electronic configuration (1) Na (2) Si (3) F (4) Ca
of the elements given below, pick up the one 27. Which process required maximum energy :-
with highest value of second ionization energy : (1) Na(g) ® Na+(g) + e–
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (2) Al+3 (g) ® Al+4 (g) + e–
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (3) Al+2 (g) ® Al+3 (g) + e–
21. An elements has successive ionization (4) Na+(g) ® Na+2 (g) + e–
enthalpies as 940 (first), 2080, 3090, 4140, 28. To which of the following atom, the attachment
7030, 7870, 16000 and 19500 kJ mol –1 . To of electron is most difficult ?
which group of the periodic table does this (1) Radon (2) Nitrogen
element belong ? (3) Oxygen (4) Radium
(1) 14 (2) 15 29. The element having very high ionization
(3) 16 (4) 17 enthalpy but zero electron affinity is :-
22. The correct statements(s) among the following (1) H (2) F (3) He (4) Be
is/are :- 30. Which of the following statement is correct
(1) The first ionisation energy of calcium is regarding following process ?
more than first ionisation energy of galium
(i) Cl ¾¾¾ ® Cl–
E.A.
(ii) Cl– ¾¾®
I.E.
Cl
(2) The second ionisation energy of copper is
greater than that of potassium (iii) Cl ¾¾®I.E.
Cl+ (iv) Cl+ ¾¾®I.E.
Cl2+
(3) The third ionisation energy of Mg is greater (1) |I.E. of process (ii)|=| E.A. of process (i)|
than the third ionisation energy of Al (2) |I.E. of process (iii)|=| I.E. of process (ii)|
(4) The IE1 of Mg+ is less than the IE1 of Na+ (3) |I.E. of process (iv)|=| E.A. of process (i)|
23. Ionisation energy depends upon : (4) |I.E. of process (iv)|=| I.E. of process (iii)|
(1) Principal quantum number 31. Select equation having exothermic step:
(2) Azimuthal quantum number (1) S –(g) ¾® S 2– (g)
(3) Magnetic quantum number (2) Na+(g) + Cl –(g) ¾® NaCl(s)
(4) (1) & (2) both (3) N(g) ¾® N–(g)
(4) Al2+(g) ¾® Al3+(g)
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 TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
32. Electron affinity of : 36. Assertion :- The electron gain enthalpy of N is
+ve while that of P is –ve.
(1) carbon is greater than oxygen
Reason :- Smaller atomic size of N in which
(2) sulphur is lesser than oxygen there is a considerable electron-electron
(3) iodine is higher than bromine repulsion and hence the additional electron is not
(4) bromine is lesser than chlorine accepted easily.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
33. An atom with high electronegativity generally
has:- 37. Assertion :- The first ionization energy of Be
(1) tendency to form +ve ions is greater than that of B.
Reason :- 2p-orbital is lower in energy than
(2) high ionisation potential 2s-orbital.
(3) large atomic size (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(4) low electron affinity
MATCH THE COLUMN TYPE QUESTIONS
DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 34 TO 37
38. Column I Column II
These questions consist of two statements each,
printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering (A) Z = 102 (P) s-block
these Questions you are required to choose any (B) Z = 120 (Q) d-block
one of the following four responses. (C) Z = 107 (R) f-block
A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the (D) Z = 82 (S) p-block
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. 39. Column I Column II
B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but (A) Natural transuranic element (P) Na, Mg
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (B)Rare earth metals (Q)Be, Al
Assertion. (C)Diagonally related elements (R) Ce, Pr
C. If Assertion is True, but the Reason is False.
(D)Typical elements (S) Np,Pu
D. If both Assertion & Reason are False.
34. Assertion :- Cr belongs to 4th period. 40. Column-I Column-II
Reason :- Cr atom contains 4 shells. (A) Electron affinity (P) Depends upon
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D effective nuclear
35. Assertion :- First electron affinity of all elements charge
is positive. (B) Ionisation (Q) Depends upon
Reason :- Successive electron affinity of all potential shielding
elements is negative. constant
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(C) Electronegativity (R) Depends upon
half filled and
fully filled
electronic
configuration
ANSW ER KEY
Q u e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A ns 3 4 2 ,3 4 4 1 2 2 2 1
Q u e. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A ns 2 4 3 4 3 4 2 3 1 2
Q u e. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A ns 3 1 ,3 ,4 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 1
Q u e. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
A ns 2 4 2 1 4 1 3
Q u e. 38 39 40
A ns. A -R ; B -P ; C -Q ; D -S A -S ; B -R ; C -Q ; D -P A -P ,Q , R ; B - P , Q , R ; C -P , Q

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 TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Which of the following statements is not correct 7. Which of the following statement is correct:-
from the point of view of molecular orbital? As the S-character of a hybrid orbital decreases
(1) Be2 is not a stable molecule (1) The bond angle decreases
(2) He2 is not stable but He2+ is expected to exist (2) The bond strength increases
(3) The bond length decreases
(3) Bond strength of N2 is maximum amongst
the homonuclear diatomic molecules (4) Size of orbital decreases
(4) The order of energies of molecular orbitals 8. Incorrect order of bond angle is :-
in F 2 molecule is p2 px = p2py < s2 pz (1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3
2. Two hybrid orbitals have a bond angle of 120º. (2) H2 O > H2 S > H2Se
The percentage of p character in the hybrid (3) BCl3 > AlCl3 > GaCl3
orbital is nearly:- (4) NO2 + > NO2 > NO2 –
(1) 25% (2) 33% 9. Which property of dimethyl ether is more than
(3) 50% (4) 66% water :-
3. The energy of BMO is less than combining (1) Dielectric constant (2) Boiling point
atomic orbital because :-
(3) Bond angle (4) Dipole moment
(1) Molecular orbital are more asymmetrical
than atomic orbital. 10. Correct order of Bond angle is
(2) Molecular orbitals are near to nucleus than (1) NO2 + < NO2 < NO2 –
atomic orbitals. (2) BeCl2 > BF3 < CF4
(3) Probability of finding the electron in BMO (3) NH4 + > NH3 > NH2 –
is less than atomic orbital.
(4) OF2 > OCl2 > OBr2
(4) Probability of finding the electron in BMO
is more than atomic orbital. 11. In which pair both are not isostructural :-
4. A molecule XY2 contains two s, two p bond (1) BH4 – & AlH4 – (2) NH4+ & PH4 +
and one lone pair of electron in the valence (3) PCl6 – & SiCl6–2 (4) BCl4– & ICl4 –
shell of X. The arrangement of lone pair as well 12. Which of the following set do not have sp3 d
as bond pair is : hybridization
(1) Square pyramidal (1) PF4 – & BrF 3 (2) ICl2+ & SF 4
(2) Linear
(3) XeF 2 & I3 – (4) AsF4 – & SCl4
(3) Trigonal planar
13. Select in which both have sea-saw shape-
(4) Unpredictable
(1) XeO2F 2, SiF4 (2) XeO2F 2 , IO2 F2 --
5. The molecule which contain s bonds p bonds
and lone pairs in 1 : 1 : 1 ratio :- (3) TeCl 4, ICl 4-- (4) BrO3F, XeOF 2
(1) C2 N2 (Cynogen) 14. In which type of molecule, the dipole moment
(2) C6H 6 (Benzene) may be nonzero (L ® Lone pair) :-
(3) C(CN) 4 (Tetracyano methane) (1) AB 2L 2 (2) AB 2L 3
(4) C3O2 (Carbon suboxide) (3) AB 4L 2 (4) AB 4
6. In CO 2 , SO 2 , SiO 2 each central atom is 15. Which of the following molecule / ion is planar
covalently bonded with :- as well as polar :
(1) 2,2,4 oxygen atoms respectively (1) PCl3
(2) 2,2,2 oxygen atoms respectively (2) SF 4
(3) 2, 4, 4 oxygen atoms respectively (3) ClF3
(4) 4,4,4 oxygen atoms respectively (4) None of these

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 TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
16. Which of the following species is non polar 26. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is not present
with presence of polar bond and lone pair of in :-
electron on central atom. (1) Urea
(1) CO2 (2) SF 4 (3) XeF 4 (4) CF 4 (2) Chloral hydrate
17. Total no. of vacant orbitals in valence shell of (3) o-nitro phenol
sulphur when it undergoes formation of SF4:- (4) o-fluoro phenol
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 27. Dispersion force is present between :-
18. Correct order of extent of overlapping is :- (1) Polar + Polar molecules
(1) 2s – 2s > 2p – 2p > 2s – 2p (2) Nonpolar + Non-polar molecules
(2) 1s – 1s > 2p – 2p > 2s – 2p
(3) Polar + Nonpolar molecules
(3) 1s – 1s < 2s – 2s < 3s – 3s
(4) All of these
(4) 3s – 3s > 3s – 3p > 3p – 3p
28. Among the following VWF are maximum in :-
19. Which one formed in IInd excited state :-
(1) HBr (2) LiBr
(1) PCl5 (2) SH6
(3) LiCl (4) AgBr
(3) SO3 (4) IF 7
29. How many compounds show conductivity
20. Dative Bond is present in :-
HCl(aq), HCl molten, AlCl 3 molten, AlF 3
(1) KI3 (2) KNO2
molten, Graphite, Na(s) AlCl3(aq)
(3) KHF 2 (4) All
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 3
21. Which of the following element never form
compound in ground state :- 30. The correct expected order of decreasing lattice
energy is :-
(1) N (2) B (3) C (4) P
22. Which of the following pair have same (1) CaO > MgBr2 > CsI
hybridisation :- (2) MgBr2 > CaO > CsI
(1) ClO4 – & ClO2 – (3) CsI > MgBr2 > CaO
(2) SF4 & CCl4 (4) CsI > CaO > MgBr2
(3) BF 3 & NF 3 31. In which of the following set do all the three
(4) CO2 & SO2 compounds have bonds that are mainly ionic:-
23. Which orbital is not involved in the formation (1) NaCl, NCl3, CCl4
of PCl5 molecule :- (2) CsBr, BaBr2, SrO
(1) s (2) dz2 (3) CsF, BF3, NH3
(3) dx 2 –y 2 (4) Pz (4) Al2O3, CaO, SO2
24. Shape of molecule having 4-bond pair and one
32. Which of the following order is incorrect :-
lone pair is :-
(1) Ionic character = MCl < MCl2 < MCl3
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal
(2) T-Shape (2) Polarizibility = F- < Cl– < Br– < I–
(3) See-saw (3) Polarising power = Na+ < Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Al+3
(4) Square planar (4) Covalent character = LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI
25. Which of the following molecules has both pp- 33. Which is the correct decreasing order of
pp and pp-dp bonds covalent nature :-
(1) XeO2F 2 (1) SiCl4 > AlCl3 > ZnCl2 > CaCl2 > MgCl2
(2) SO2Cl2 (2) SiCl4 > AlCl3 > MgCl2 > CaCl2 > ZnCl2
(3) SO3
(3) ZnCl2 > SiCl4 > AlCl3 > MgCl2 > CaCl2
(4) XeO3
(4) SiCl4 > AlCl3 > ZnCl2 > MgCl2 > CaCl2

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 TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
34. Which of the following order is not correct :- DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 38 TO 40
(1) CrO < Cr2O3 < CrO3 (covalent character) These questions consist of two statements each,
printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
(2) ZnO(Philospherwool) > ZnS(Zinc blend) these Questions you are required to choose any
(ionic character) one of the following four responses.
(3) BeCl2 > MgCl2 > CaCl2 > SrCl2 > BaCl2 A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(ionic character)
Assertion.
(4) KCl < AgCl (covalent character) B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason. is not a correct explanation of the
35. Which of the following order is incorrect for
Assertion.
thermal stability :-
C. If Assertion is True, but the Reason is False.
(1) NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3 D. If both Assertion & Reason are False.
(2) NaF < MgF2 < AlF3 38. Assertion :- H2SO4 is more viscous than water.
(3) HF < HCl < HBr < HI Reason :- In H 2 SO 4 , sulphur has highest
oxidation state.
(4) Li2SO4 < Na2SO4 < K2SO4 < Rb2SO4 < Cs2SO4
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
36. Which of the following solubility order is not 39. Assertion :- There is no compound which is
correct :- 100% covalent.
(1) MgF2 < MgCl2 < MgBr2 < MgI2 Reason :- Instantaneous dipole- induced dipole
intraction is responsible for some ionic
(2) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2
character in nonpolar molecules.
(3) Li2O < Na2O < K2O < Rb2O < Cs2O (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(4) CsF < CsCl < CsBr < CsI 40. Assertion :- Zn is more polarising than Mg+2.
+2

37. The fluoride which is most soluble in water :- Reason :- A pseudo inert gas configuration
Zn+2 has high Zeff. Then inert gas configuration
(1) CaF 2 (2) BaF 2 of Mg+2
(3) SrF2 (4) BeF 2 (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 4 4 4 3 4 1 1 3 3 3 4 2 2 1 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 3 2 2 3 1 2 1 3 3 3 1 4 4 2 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 2 1 4 3 3 4 4 2 1 1

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 TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
s-BLOCK ELEMENT
1. Which of the following compound has ionic 8. The reducing power of a metal depends on
bond, p-bond co-ordinate bond and covalent various factors. Suggest which makes Li, the
bond :- strongest reducing agent in aqueous solution?
(1) HNO2 (2) NaNO3 (1) sublimation enthalpy
(3) KNO2 (4) MgSO4 (2) ionisation enthalpy
2. Which show highest lattice energy :- (3) hydration energy
(1) CsI (2) MgO (4) electron gain enthalpy
(3) CaS (4) NaF
9. Which of the metal carbonates is most stable?
3. Melting point order is not correct is :-
(1) MgCO3 (2) CaCO3
(1) Na2O < MgO < Al2O3
(3) SrCO3 (4) BaCO3
(2) NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3
10. Which of the following halides has the
(3) LiCl > NaCl > KCl > RbCl maximum covalent character?
(4) NaCl > AgCl (1) LiI (2) NaI (3) KI (4) CsI
4. The pair with more ionic nature and less mpt 11. For alkali metals, which one of the following
respectively among lithium halides :- trends is incorrect?
(1) LiF, LiI (1) Hydration energy : Li+ > Na+ > K+ >Rb+
(2) LiCl, LiF (2) Ionisation energy : Li > Na > K > Rb
(3) LiBr, LiI (3) Density : Li < Na < K < Rb
(4) LiF, LiCl (4) Atomic size : Li < Na < K < Rb
5. Which of the following will be most covalent:- 12. Among the following, the paramagnetic
(1) NaCl (2) Na2S compound is
(3) MgCl2 (4) MgS (1) Na2O2 (2) O3
6. Which of the following compounds on thermal (3) Na2O (4) KO2
decomposition yields a basic as well as acidic 13. Which of the following is not true as compared
oxides? with alkaline earth metals?
(1) KClO3 (1) Alkali metals are more reactive
(2) NaNO3 (2) Alkali metals are more electropositive
(3) K2CO3 (3)Alkali metals have stronger metallic bonding
(4) MgCO3 (4) Alkali metals are stronger reducing agents
7. Which of the following equilibria would have 14. Identify the correct statement
highest value of Kp at a common temperature:-
(1) Gypsum is not a natural product
(1) BeCO3 ƒ BeO+CO2 (2) Plaster of Paris is obtained by hydration of
(2) SrCO3 ƒ SrO +CO2 gypsum
(3) CaCO3 ƒ CaO+CO2 (3) The percentage of calcium is lower in
(4) BaCO3 ƒ BaO+CO2 gypsum than in plaster of Paris
(4) Dead plaster is found in nature
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 TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
15. Ionic mobility of Li+ is less than Na+ and K+ 17. The alkali earth metal with least density value
because is
(1) ionisation potential of lithium is small (1) Mg (2) Be (3) Ba (4) Ca
+
(2) charge density of Li is high 18. Assertion :- NaNO3 is an ionic compound.
(3) high hydration tendency of Li+ Reason :- There is no covalent bond in NaNO3
(4) Li+ keeps two electrons (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
16. A piece of magnesium ribbon was heated to 19. Assertion :- NO 2 is evolved at 1000°C
redness in an atmosphere of nitrogen and on temperature from Mg(NO 3 ) 2 than from
cooling water was added the gas evolved was Ba(NO 3)2 on heating.
(1) ammonia (2) hydrogen Reason :- On moving down the group, size of
(3) nitrogen (4) oxygen metal ion increase so thermal stability increases.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 2 2 3 1 4 4 1 3 4 1 3 4 3 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19
Ans 1 4 3 1
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 TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
p-BLOCK ELEMENT
1. The main factor responsible for weak acidic 6. In the following reactions
nature of B-F bonds in BF 3 is :- 2X + B2H6®[BH2(X)2]+ [BH4]–
(1) High electronegativity of F The amine(s) X is / are
(2) Three centred two electron bonds in BF 3 (1) NH3
(3) pp - dp back bonding (2) CH 3NH2
(4) pp–pp back bonding (3) (CH3 )2 NH
2. BCl3 does not exist as dimer but BH3 exist as (4) (CH3 )3 N
dimer (B 2 H6 ) because :- 7. Solid CO2 is
(1) Chlorine is more electronegative than (1) Ionic solid
hydrogen (2) Covalent solid
(2) There is pp-pp back bonding BCl3 but BH3 (3) Molecular solid
does not contain such bonding (4) Metallic solid
(3) Large sized chlorine atoms do not fit 8. Which is the hybridization on the centre atom
between the small boron atoms whereas of SiO2 .
small sized hydrogen atoms get fitted (1) sp (2) sp2
betweeen boron atoms. (3) sp3 (4) sp3 d
(4) None of these 9. Which one of the following statements
3. Which of the following statements is true on the regarding BF 3 is not correct?
basis of back bonding ? (1) it is a Lewis acid
(1) Si-O bond is stronger than C–O bond (2) it is an ionic compound
(2) Dimethyl ether acts as a better lewis base (3) it is an electron deficient compound
but not disilyl ether (SiH3 -O-SiH 3 ) (4) it forms adducts
(3) (CH3 )3 C–O–H is less acidic than (CH3)Si-
10. Borazole, B 3N3 H6 , is related to benzene as
O-H
(1) isostructural
(4) All of these
(2) isoelectronic
4. Anhydrous AlCl 3 can be obtained by:
(3) both (1) and (2)
(1) Al(OH)3 + HCl
(4) none
(2) on heating of AlCl 3.6H2O
11. Na2 B4O 7.10H2 O is correctly represented by
(3) reductive chlorination of
(1) 2NaBO2 .Na2 B2 O 3 .10H 2 O
Al2O3(Al2O3 + 3C + 3Cl2)
(2) Na2 [B 4O 5 (OH)4 ].8H2 O
(4) All of these
(3) Na2[B 4 (H 2 O)4 O7 ].6H 2 O
5. Which of the following is incorrect for H3BO3
(1) It has a layer structure in which H3BO3 units (4) None of these
are joined by hydrogen bonds 12. The hybridization states of boron and nitrogen
(2) It is obtained by treating borax with conc. in borazole are respectively
H2SO4 (1) sp, sp
(3) It does not act as a proton donor but acts (2) sp, sp2
as an acid by accepting hydroxyl ions (3) sp2 , sp2
(4) None of these (4) sp2 , sp3

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 TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
13. Alumina is an ionic compound but insoluble 16. Three centred two electron bond is present in
in water because (1) NH3 (2) B2H 6
(1) its lattice energy is very high (3) BCl3 (4) AlCl3
(2) its hydration energy is very high 17. Correct order is
(3) both lattice energy & hydration energy are same (1)HOCl < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (Acidic nature)
(4) none of these (2) HF<HCl < HBr < HI (Acidic nature)
14. Carbon forms large number of compounds (3) CH4 < SiH4 < GeH4 < SnH4 (Reducing nature)
because it has
(4) All
(1) low electron affinity
18. Red lead is an example of a/an...oxide
(2) variable valency
(1) basic
(3) catenation property
(2) mixed
(4) no d-orbitals in valency shell
(3) super
15. Which does not exist?
(4) acidic
(1) [CF 6]2– (2) [SiF6]2–
(3) [GeF 6 ]2– (4) [SnF 6]2–

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 4 3 4 3 4 4 3 3 2 1 2 3 1 3 1
Que. 16 17 18
Ans 2 4 2
10 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical E