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TEST BOOKLET
POLITY TEST
TEST - I

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

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4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
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than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
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(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
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Q1. Statement-I : The Speaker of the Lok
Sabha has the authority to decide
whether a bill is a money bill or not.
Statement-II : Once the Speaker
certifies a bill as a money bill, the
decision is final and cannot be
challenged.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct
Q2. Statement-I : The Leader of the
Opposition in the Lok Sabha is a
statutorily recognized position.
Statement-II : The Speaker of the Lok
Sabha has the authority to recognize a
member as the Leader of the
Opposition.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct
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Q3. Statement-I : The term "Whip" in the
context of the Indian Parliament refers to
a person responsible for maintaining
discipline within a political party.
Statement-II : The concept of Whip is
mentioned in the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct
Q4. Statement-I : The Committee on Public
Undertakings (COPU) examines the
reports and accounts of government
companies.
Statement-II : The Chairman of the
Committee on Public Undertakings is
appointed by the President of India.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct
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Q5. Statement I : The Committee on
Empowerment of Women is a
parliamentary committee in India.
Statement-II : The Chairman of the
Committee on Empowerment of Women
is elected amongst its member
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct
Q6. Consider the following statements about
the All-India Services :
1. Officers of All India Services are
recruited and trained by the central
government but work for state
governments only.
2. They can be dismissed from service
only by the President.
3. Any disciplinary action (imposition of
penalties) against these officers can
only be taken by the State
government
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
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Q7. “WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having
solemnly resolved to constitute India
into a V W X Y Z and to secure to all its
citizens : JUSTICE, social, economic and
political; LIBERTY of thought, expression,
belief faith and worship; EQUALITY of
status and of opportunity: and to
promote among them all; FRATERNITY
assuring the dignity of the individual and
the unity and the integrity of the Nation.
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ do
hereby adopt, enact and give to
ourselves this Constitution.”
‘V W X Y Z’ stands for:
(a) Sovereign Socialist Secular
Democratic Federal
(b) Sovereign Socialist Secular
Democratic Republic
(c) Sovereign Socialist Liberal
Democratic Republic
(d) Sovereign Independent Secular
Democratic Republic
Q8. With reference to the 'Office of Whip' in
India, which of the following statements
is not correct?
(a) The Minister of Home Affairs is the
Chief Whip of the Government.
(b) The member who votes or abstains
from voting contrary to the whip of
the party runs the risk of losing his
seat in the House under the 52nd
Amendment of the Constitution.
(c) A whip cannot be issued for the
election of the Vice-President.
(d) The Chief Whip selects members to
serve on Select Committees of the
House.
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Q9. Which of the following statements is
correct regarding the passage of the
Budget in India?
(a) The expenses from the Public
Account of India fund can be made
only with Parliamentary
appropriation.
(b) No cut motion can be admitted for
the matter related to charged and
non-charged expenditure on the
Consolidated Fund of India.
(c) Cut motion if passed may lead to
resignation of the government.
(d) Rajya Sabha enjoys equal privilege
with Lok Sabha in voting on demand
for grants
Q10. Consider the following statements :
Statement I : In India, a majority of the
members of the Rajya Sabha are elected
by the elected members of the State
Legislatures.
Statement II : Members of the Rajya
Sabha elected by the State Legislative
Assemblies need to have their domicile
in the concerned state.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct
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Q11. With reference to Estimates Committee,
consider the following statements :
1. It examines the budget after it has
been voted by the Parliament.
2. One of its functions is to examine
whether the money is well laid out
within the limits of the policy implied
in the estimates.
3. It cannot question the policy laid
down by the Parliament.
4. CAG helps the Estimates Committee
for making estimates on request of
the speaker of Lok Sabha.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q12. Consider the following actions by Lok
Sabha
1. The passing of no-confidence motion
2. Passing a censure motion against
Government
3. Passing a cut motion
How many of the above actions can
result in the fall of a government?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q13. Consider the following statements with
reference to the motion of Point of
Order :
1. It can be raised by a member if the
House does not follow the normal
rules of procedure.
2. No debate is allowed on a point of
order.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q14. With reference to the Adjournment
Motion, consider the following
statement.
1. It can cover more than one matter of
public importance.
2. It needs the support of 50 members
to be admitted in Lok Sabha and 75
Members in Rajya Sabha
3. A question of privilege cannot be
raised in this motion
4. A matter under the adjudication of
court cannot be raised
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q15. Consider the following statements
1. All north-eastern states have only
one representative in Lok Sabha
except Assam.
2. Only two Union Territories have
representation in the Rajya Sabha.
3. The State of Gujarat has more
representatives in the Rajya Sabha
than the State of Tamil Nadu.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q16. Which of the following committees has
the maximum number in it?
(a) General Purpose Committee of Lok
Sabha
(b) Estimate Committee
(c) Committee on Subordinate
Legislation
(d) Committee of Privileges
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Q17. With reference to the powers of
Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the
following statements :
1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the
final interpreter of the Constitution of
India within the House.
2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
summons and presides over joint
sitting of both the Houses of
Parliament.
3. He can be removed from Office only
on a resolution of the House passed
by a majority of all the then
members of the House
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q18. Consider the following statements with
reference to Separation of powers
between Legislature and Judiciary:
1. No discussions shall take place in
Parliament with respect to the
conduct of any judge of the Supreme
Court in the discharge of his duties
except upon a motion for the
removal of the judge.
2. The validity of any proceedings in
Parliament shall not be called in
question on the ground of any
alleged irregularity of procedure.
3. No Member of Parliament shall be
liable to any proceedings in any
court in respect of anything said by
him in Parliament.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
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Q19. Consider the following statements : Q21. With reference to First Past the Post
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the only Election system, which of the following
President to have served two statements is/are correct?
consecutive terms. 1. A candidate needs to secure a
2. Since independence only one majority of votes under this system.
president has been elected 2. The representatives of multiple
unopposed. political parties can be elected in a
3. Shankar Dayal Sharma has the constituency.
distinction of having worked with 3. A party can get more proportion of
four Prime Ministers. seats than the proportion of votes in
Select the correct answer using the code legislature.
given below : How many of the statements given
(a) 1 and 2 only above are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Only one
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) Only two
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) All three
(d) None

Q20. Consider the following statements Q22. Statement-I : The Lok Sabha has the
regarding the Member of Parliament power to initiate the impeachment
Local Area Development Scheme process against the President of India.
(MPLADS) ? Statement-II : The impeachment of the
1. Members of Lok Sabha can President of India can only be based on
recommend works only within their violation of the Constitution.
Constituencies. Which one of the following is correct in
2. Members of Rajya Sabha can respect of the above statements?
recommend work anywhere in the (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
country. are correct and Statement-II is the
3. The funds released under the scheme correct explanation for Statement-I
are non-lapsable. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
How many of the statements given are correct and Statement-II is not
above are correct? the correct explanation for
(a) Only one Statement-1
(b) Only two (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
(c) All three II is incorrect
(d) None (d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct

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Q23. Which of the following reform(s) have
been made in elections to the Rajya
Sabha?
1. Domicile requirement of a candidate
has been removed.
2. Introduction of open ballot system
instead of secret ballot system.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q24. Which of the following statements with
regard to the Speaker, Lok Sabha is/are
correct?
1. The election of the Speaker of Lok
Sabha is conducted by the Election
Commission of India.
2. The Speaker on assuming his office is
not required to make and subscribe
oath or affirmation.
3. The Speaker does not exercise a
casting vote in case of equality of
votes.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?(PYQ CAPF)
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q25. Which of the following is NOT a
‘Directive Principle of State Policy’?
1. Free legal aid to poor
2. Public assistance in cases of
unemployment
3. Secure the participation of workers in
the management of industries
Choose the correct answer using the
codes below.
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) All are Directive Principles
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Q26. Which one of the following is NOT a
correct feature of a Money Bill?
(a) It can be introduced only in the Lok
Sabha
(b) A Deputy Speaker can also certify a
Money Bill in case of office of
Speaker falling vacant
(c) A Speaker's authority is final as to
whether a bill is Money Bill or not
(d) It can be referred to a joint
committee of the two Houses
Q27. Which one of the following statements
with regard to Maneka Gandhi vs. Union
of India case, 1978 is NOT correct?
(a) It was held that Article 19 and Article
21 are not watertight compartments.
(b) It was held that a law coming under
Article 21 may not satisfy the
requirements of Article 19.
(c) A fair trial eliminates the biases
against the accused in the trial.
(d) The right to life under Article 21 does
not include the right to die
Q28. The present relationship between the
President and the council of ministers is
governed by the provisions of :
(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 48th Amendment Act
(c) 54th Amendment Act
(d) 44th Amendment Act
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Q29. Which one of the following statements Q31. Consider the following bills
about ‘personal liberty’ is NOT correct? 1. The Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959
(CAPF PYQ) 2. The Banking Service Commission
(a) The state does not have the authority (Repeal) Bill, 1978
to deprive any person within the 3. The Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002
territory of India of his/ her liberty 4. The Land Acquisition Rehabilitation
without any rational basis. and Resettlement Act, 2013
(b) Basis of depriving a person of his/her How many of above bills the Lok Sabha
personal liberty must be in and the Rajya Sabha held joint sittings to
accordance with procedures resolve their differences?
established by law. (a) Only one
(c) Personal liberty can be secured by (b) Only two
the judicial writ of Habeas Corpus. (c) Only three
(d) The majority view of the Supreme (d) All four
Court in A. K. Gopalan vs. State of
Madras case invented due process of
law’. Q32. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Duration of the Rajya
Sabha :
1. The Rajya Sabha is a continuing
chamber.
2. The Constitution has fixed the term
of office of Members of the Rajya
Q30. Consider the following statements Sabha for six years.
relating to short notice questions asked 3. In the first batch of Rajya Sabha, the
in the Legislature President was empowered to decide
1. These relate to matters of urgent as to who should retire.
public importance and can be asked How many of the statements given
for oral answer at a notice less than above are NOT correct?
10 days. (a) Only one
2. Short notice questions can be (b) Only two
admissible if the Minister concerned (c) All three
agrees to answer to it. (d) None
3. Short notice questions are asked
during question hour.
Which of the statements given above are Q33. The Indian President’s veto power is a
correct? combination of :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 1. Pocket veto
(b) 1 and 2 2. Absolute veto
(c) 2 and 3 3. Suspensive veto
(d) 1 and 3 4. Qualified veto
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q34. Citizens’ ability to participate in the Q37. Which of the following can be
legislative process is fundamental to considered as accountability checks on
democracy. Consider the following Executive?
statements in this context : 1. Voting on Demands for Grants.
1. Legislation may be initiated by 2. Economy Cut and Token Cut.
stakeholders or from within the 3. Close scrutiny by Departmental
government. Standing Committees.
2. Public participation regarding draft 4. Post Budget auditing by the
bills is statutorily mandated in India. Comptroller and Auditor General of
Which of the statements given above India.
is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below :
(b) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q35. Directive Principles of State Policy help

in
1. Amplifying the Preamble
2. Guiding courts in Judicial review of
legislative and executive acts
3. Supplementing Fundamental Rights
of citizens
Choose the correct answer using the Q38. India adopted the Parliamentary form
codes below. of government because :
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. It is the most stable form of
(b) 2 and 3 only government.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. It avoids conflicts between the
(d) All of the above Legislature and Executive.
3. It offers greater scope for giving
representation to various sections,
interests and regions in the
Q36. Who among the following can dissolve government.
the Lok Sabha? Which of the statements given above
(a) President on the advice of the is/are correct?
Speaker of Lok Sabha (a) 1 only
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha on the advice (b) 1 and 2 only
of the President (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) President on the advice of the Prime (d) 1, 2 and 3
Minister of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha on the advice
of the Prime Minister of India

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Q39. Which one of the following statements
is correct?
(a) Under Article 21A of the Constitution
of India, the State shall provide free
and compulsory education to all
children up to the age of eleven
years.
(b) Every religious denomination has got
absolute power under Article 26 of
the Constitution of India to manage
its own affairs in matters of religion.
(c) Only religious and linguistic
minorities find mention in Article 30
of the Constitution of India in
reference to the right to establish
educational institutions of their
choice.
(d) Parliament cannot empower, even by
law, any court other than the
Supreme Court of India the power to
issue writs within local limits of its
jurisdiction.
Q40. By which one of the following
Constitutional Amendment Acts, was the
Article 21A (Right to Education) inserted
into the Constitution of India?
(a) 83rd Amendment Act
(b) 84th Amendment Act
(c) 85th Amendment Act
(d) 86th Amendment Act
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Q41. Consider the following statements
regarding the instruments used by the
Parliament to control the Executive:
1. In the Zero Hour, ministers are bound
to reply the questions asked by
members.
2. Half-an–hour discussions are done
on the matters of public importance.
3. Preparation and presentation of
budget for the approval of the
legislature is constitutional
obligation of the government.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q42. Which among the following is not the
strength or chief benefit of
Bicameralism?
(a) Second chambers check the first
chambers and prevent majoritarian
rule.
(b) It checks the powers of the executive.
(c) The second chambers can act as a
constitutional safeguard.
(d) It often acts as a check on
democratic rule, particularly when
their members are non-elected or
indirectly elected
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Q43. Consider the following statements :
1. The President or the Governor is not
answerable to any court for the
exercise and performance of the
powers and duties of his office.
2. No criminal proceedings shall be
instituted or continued against the
President or the Governor in any
court during his term of office.
3. No Member of Parliament shall be
liable to any proceedings in any
court in respect of anything said or
any vote given by him in Parliament.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q44. Which of the following statements
is/are correct regarding the working at
Union government?
1. Department of Economic Affairs is
responsible for preparing both the
budget and economic survey.
2. Union Territories of India are under
the direct control of Prime Minster
Office (PMO).
3. Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for
coordination and cooperation
among different departments and
ministries.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
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Q45. Article 19(1) of the Constitution of
India, as it stands amended, includes
which of the following?
1. Freedom of speech and expression
2. Assemble peaceably and without
arms
3. To acquire and dispose property
4. To move freely throughout the
territory of India
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q46. Which of the following statements with
regard to the Preamble to the
Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. Equality of status and equality of
opportunity find mention in the
Preamble.
2. The expression 'unity and integrity of
the Nation was not there in the
Preamble since the beginning.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q47. Statement-I : India has adopted the
parliamentary form of government.
Statement-II : The President is the
titular head of the state while the council
of ministers headed by the Prime
Minister is the real executive authority.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct
Q48. Which one of the following statements
is not correct?
(a) All executive actions of the
Government of India are taken in the
name of the President of India.
(b) The President of India appoints a
person as Attorney General of India
provided she/he is qualified to be a
Judge of the Supreme Court or a
High Court.
(c) The total number of Ministers in the
Council of Ministers cannot exceed
ten percent of the total number of
members of the House of People.
(d) The President of India is bound to act
as per the advice tendered by the
Council of Ministers
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Q49. Which of the following statements are
incorrect?
1. Appropriation Bill cannot be
amended while the Finance Bill can
be amended.
2. Finance Bill cannot be amended
while Appropriation Bill can be
amended.
3. Same procedure governs both the
Appropriation Bill and the Finance
Bill.
4. Appropriation Bill and the Finance
Bill are governed by different
procedures.
5. Appropriation Bill cannot be rejected
by the Rajya Sabha while Finance Bill
can be rejected by it.
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Q50. Which one of the following statements
about a Bill for Amendment of the
Constitution of India is not correct?
(a) It is governed by Article 368(2) of the
Constitution of India.
(b) Joint sitting can be resorted to for
passing a Bill Constitution of India.
amending the
(c) The State Legislatures cannot initiate
any Bill or proposals for amendment
of the Constitution of India.
(d) The previous sanction of the
President of India is not required for
introducing any Bill in the Parliament
for amendment of the Constitution
of India
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Q51. Which among the following is not a
condition for the disqualification of a
Member of Parliament?
(a) Voluntary acquisition of citizenship of
a foreign country
(b) Holding the office of the Chairperson
of the National Commission for
Women
(c) The Member abstains from voting in
the House without prior permission
(d) The Member holds the office of the
Chairman of the Board of Directors of
the National Coal Development
Corporation Ltd.
Q52. Which provision of the Constitution of
India provides that the President
shall not be answerable to any Court in
India for the exercise of powers of his
office?
(a) Article 53
(b) Article 74
(c) Article 361
(d) Article 363
Q53. Statement-I : In democracy, the
ultimate responsibility of administration
is to the people.
Statement-II : The democratic
government is based on the principle of
popular sovereignty.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct
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Q54. Which of the following statements are
correct?
1. Speaker may permit any Member to
address the House in his/her mother
tongue, if he/she cannot adequately
express in either Hindi or English.
2. Business of the Parliamentary
Committees is transacted either in
Hindi or in English.
3. The minutes of the Parliamentary
Committees are prepared invariably
in Hindi or English.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q55. The ministries of the Central
Government are created by
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Cabinet Secretariat
(d) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
Q56. Consider the following statements :
Statement I : Economic inequality
provides support to other forms of social
inequality such as differences of rank or
privilege.
Statement II : The Constitution of India
under provisions of Part IV provides for
elimination of inequality based on
incomes.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct
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Q57. In which one of the following social set
up, every individual is most likely to
experience “real freedom”?
(a) A society where the external
constraints on the individual are
absent.
(b) A society that enables one to pursue
one’s interests with reasonable
restrictions.
(c) A society that enables one to pursue
one’s interests with minimum
constraints.
(d) A society that allows the full
development of the individual’s
creativity, sensibilities and
capabilities.
Q58. With reference to the Cabinet
Committee on Parliamentary Affairs,
recently seen in the news, consider the
following statements :
1. It determines the date and duration
of Parliamentary sessions in India.
2. The Prime Minister of India acts as an
exofficio chairperson of the
committee.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q59. With reference to the Office of the Vice
President of India, consider the following
statements :
1. The Vice-President is elected by the
method of indirect election.
2. The Vice President succeeds to the
Presidency when it falls vacant and
remains in that office for the
expiration of the term of his/her
predecessor.
3. The eligibility conditions for election
to the office of Vice President are the
same as those of the President.
How many statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q60. With reference process of election of
President of India which one of the
following statements is not correct?
(a) A candidate who receives an
absolute majority of votes cast by the
Electoral College is declared the
President.
(b) The value of the votes of elected
members of the state assemblies is
calculated on the basis of the total
population of the state.
(c) Each member of the electoral college
is given only one ballot paper.
(d) Disputes in connection with election
of the President are inquired into and
decided by the Election Commission
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Q61. The Principle of collective responsibility Q64. Who among the following administers
implies that an oath to the President?
1. Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (a) Outgoing President
from office by passing a vote of no (b) Chief Justice of India
confidence. (c) Vice President
2. Each minister accepts and agrees to (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
share responsibility for all decisions
of the cabinet.
3. An order of the President for a public
act should be countersigned by all Q65. The President of India has the power to
the ministers withhold his/her assent in how many of
How many statements given above are the following cases?
correct? 1. Constitutional Amendment Bill
(a) Only one 2. Money Bill
(b) Only two 3. Bill of state legislature reserved for
(c) All three consideration of the President
(d) None 4. A resolution by Lok Sabha
disapproving continuation of
Emergency
Q62. The President of India can be removed Select the correct answer using the code
on the grounds of given below.
1. Violation of the Constitution (a) Only one
2. Conviction in Criminal Case (b) Only two
3. Conviction in civil offence (c) Only three
4. If declared insolvent by the court (d) All four
How many statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Q66. The Supreme Court of India enjoys
(c) Only three exclusive jurisdiction in how many of the
(d) All four following cases?
1. dispute between the Union and a
State
Q63. With reference to the President of India 2. Dispute between residents of two
and the President of the USA, which one different states
of the following statements is correct? 3. As the protector of Fundamental
(a) Like the US President the Indian Rights
President is both head of the state 4. Criminal cases involving heinous
and head of the Executive. crimes
(b) Both enjoy tenure of five years. Select the correct answer using the code
(c) The pocket of the Indian President is given below.
bigger than that of the American (a) Only one
President. (b) Only two
(d) Like in India in the USA, a person (c) Only three
cannot be elected to the office of the (d) All four
President more than twice.

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Q67. With reference to Supreme Court,
consider the following statements :
1. The power to increase the number of
judges in the Supreme Court of India
is vested in the President of India.
2. The Parliament has declared Delhi as
the seat of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above
is/are NOT correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q68. With reference to tenure of Supreme
Court Judges, consider the following
statements :
1. The Constitution has not fixed the
tenure of a judge of the Supreme
Court.
2. A Supreme Court Judge holds office
until he attains the age of 65 years.
3. The Constitution of India has not
prescribed any grounds for the
removal of a Judge of the Supreme
Court.
How many statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
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Q69. With reference to difference between
Supreme Court and High Court, consider
the following statements :
1. Unlike the High Court, there is no
minimum number of judges for the
Supreme Court.
2. The writ jurisdiction of a High Court
is wider than that of the Supreme
Court.
3. Unlike the High Court a
distinguished jurist in the opinion of
the President can be appointed as
the Judge of the Supreme Court.
How many statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q70. Consider the following
powers/Jurisdictions?
1. Advisory power
2. Power of doing complete justice in
any cause or matter pending before
the court
3. Power of court of record
4. Power to allow/refuse Special Leave
Petitions
How many of the above powers of the
Supreme Court are also conferred on a
High Court?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
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Q71. With reference to Conditions of office
of Judge of a High Court, consider the
following statements :
1. The Judge of the High Court can
resign his office by writing to the
Chief Justice of India.
2. A High Court Judge is transferred by
the Chief Justice of India after
consultation with the President.
3. The salaries, and pensions of the
judges of a high court are
determined from time to time by the
Parliament.
How many statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q72. With reference to Judge of High Court,
consider the following statements :
Statement I : A Judge of the High Court
holds his/her office during the pleasure
of the President.
Statement II : A judge of a high court
can be removed from his office only by
an order of the President.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct
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Q73. With reference to ‘Contempt of Court’
consider the following statements :
1. The expression ‘contempt of court’
has not been defined by the
Constitution.
2. Civil contempt means wilful
disobedience to any judgement.
3. Criminal contempt means the
publication of any matter or doing an
act which scandalises or lowers the
authority of a court.
How many statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q74. With reference to Indian Polity, term
term Judicial review is best defined as
(a) The power of the Judiciary to
question the wisdom of the
legislature.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to
pronounce upon the constitutionality
of laws and executive orders.
(c) The power to review its own
judgments/ judgments of the High
Court.
(d) The power to issue writs to the
executive for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights.
Q75. The Territorial Jurisdiction of how many
of the following High Court extends
to two or more states/Union Territories?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Guwahati
3. Bombay
4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
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Q76. The appointment, posting and
promotion of district judges in a state
are made by
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Chief Justice of High Court
(c) Governor of the state
(d) A Committee headed by the Chief
Minister
Q79. Which of the following is not the real
purpose of the Public Interest Litigation
(PIL)?
(a) Vindication of the rule of law
(b) Relaxation of the traditional rule of
‘locus standi’
(c) facilitating effective access to justice
to the socially and economically
weaker sections
(d) meaningful realisation of the
fundamental rights

Q77. Who among the following person’s are

eligible for getting free legal services aid
in India? Q80. How many among the following are
1. Women and Children granted rights of “Equality before the
2. Industrial Workmen law” under the provisions of the
3. All citizens above 65 years of age Constitution of India?
4. All persons having annual income 1. Foreigners
below 1 lakh 2. Registered Societies
How many statements given above are 3. Citizens
correct? 4. Any type of legal person
(a) Only one Select the correct answer using the code
(b) Only two given below.
(c) Only three (a) Only one
(d) All four (b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Q78. How many of the above authorities can Q81. Which of the following is not explicitly
organize 'Lok Adalats'? provided under the provisions of the
1. Panchayat Committees Constitution of India?
2. Taluk Legal Services Committee (a) Equality of opportunity for all citizens
3. District Authority in public employment
4. High Court Legal Services Committee (b) Right to respect to every person for
Select the correct answer using the code his/her private and family life
given below. (c) Right to form Co-operative Societies
(a) Only one (d) Right to free and compulsory
(b) Only two Education to all Children age age six
(c) Only three to fourteen
(d) All four

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Q82. Which one of the following categories Q84. How many of the following are
of Fundamental Rights incorporates regarded as the essential features of the
protection of persons from being "Rule of Law"?
prosecuted and punished for the same 1. Limitation of powers
offence more than once? 2. Equal subjection on of all citizens to
(a) Right against Exploitation ordinary law
(b) Right to Freedom 3. People's responsibility to the
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies Government
(d) Right to Equality 4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Q83. With reference to the writs issued by

the Courts in India, consider the Q85. How many of the following rights are
following statements : guaranteed by Article 29 of the Indian
Statement I : The Writ of Habeas corpus Constitution?
protects the right to life and personal 1. Right to protect and conserve
liberty guaranteed under Article 21 of language and culture
the Indian Constitution. 2. Right to establish and administer
Statement II : Habeas corpus can be educational institutions
issued by the courts to any authority 3. Right to Education in Mother tongue
which has detained a person without 4. Right against discrimination for
trial to produce him to the court for trial. admission in an educational
Which one of the following is correct in institution maintained by the State
respect of the above statements? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II given below.
are correct and Statement-II is the (a) Only one
correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Only two
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (c) Only three
are correct and Statement-II is not (d) All four
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect Q86. Payments from the Consolidated Fund
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but of India are authorised by the :
Statement-II is correct (a) MoneyBil
(b) Appropriation Act
(c) Finance Act
(d) Consolidated Fund Act

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Q87. Economic Justice' as an objective of the
Indian Constitution gets expressed in
(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental
Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive
Principles
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the
Directive Principles
(d) None of the above
Q88. Which among the following statements
about the power to change the basic
structure of the Constitution of India
is/are correct?
1. It falls outside the scope of the
amending powers of the Parliament.
2. It can be exercised by the people
through representatives in a
Constituent Assembly.
3. It falls within the constituent powers
of the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 and 3
Q89. With reference to institution of Lok
Adalat in India, consider the following
statements :
1. It has been given statutory status
under the Legal Services Authorities
Act, 1987.
2. A Lok Adalat can be organised by
both Supreme Court as well as High
Courts.
3. Every award made by a Lok Adalat
shall be final and binding on all the
parties to the dispute.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q90. If a person’s ‘Right to Vote’ is infringed,
what remedy does she/he have?
(a) Move the Supreme Court citing
violation of fundamental rights
(b) File a non-judicial petition with the
Election Commission of India
(c) File a case against the Chief Electoral
Officer of the State
(d) Move the High Court for
infringement of a constitutional right
Q91. What is that which best defines the idea
of ‘equality’ in a liberal democratic
society?
(a) Elimination of all forms of differences
(b) Opportunities enjoyed by the citizens
must not be pre-determined by birth
or social circumstance
(c) Equal resources allotted to all the
citizens irrespective of their socio
economic contribution
(d) Unrestricted access to all public and
private goods and services to all
citizens
Q92. Which of the following is NOT essential
to have and sustain a democracy?
(a) Protection of the fundamental rights
of all citizens
(b) Freedom to express views, freedom
to organise and freedom to protest
(c) Political equality of citizens
(d) A written constitution
Q93. India is republic' means
1. Government by the people and for
the people.
2. State has a elected President at the
head of State.
3. All offices including the office of the
President are open to all citizens.
(a) 1, 2 and 2
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
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Q94. Which one of the following statements
about the 'Delimitation Commission' are
correct?
1. Under Article 82 of the Indian
Constitution, Parliament enacts a
Delimitation Act.
2. Delimitation Commissions have been
set five times 1952, 1963, 1973, 2002
and 2008.
3. Function of the Delimitation
Commission is to provide equal
representation to equal segments of
a population.
4. The Delimitation is a high-power
body whose orders cannot be called
in question before any Court.
Select the correct code :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
Q95. Which one of the following statements
about 'Right to Property' is false?
(a) By omitting Article 19(1)(1) and 31 of
Indian Constitution by the 44th
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
the Right to Property has been
deleted from the list of Fundamental
Rights.
(b) Provision in Article 31(1) has, by the
44th Constitutional Amendment Act,
been transposed to a newly formed
Article 300 A.
(c) Article 300 A is in Chapter-III of Part
XXI of the Constitution.
(d) The Right to Property is now
considered to be not only a
Constitutional or Statutory Right but
also a Human Right.
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Q96. In the context of the Indian
Constitution, consider the following
statements regarding fundamental
duties :
1. Fundamental Duties are confined to
Indian citizens only.
2. Constitution does not provide any
legal sanctions against their
violation.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q97. Which one of the following statements
is correct about the Joint sitting of both
the Houses of Parliament ?
1. It is convened and presided over by
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. It is convened when both the Houses
disagree on Constitutional
Amendment bill.
3. It is convened when both the Houses
disagree on a money bill.
Select the correct code :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
Q98. Consider the following statements :
1. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
not a member of the house.
2. The Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha is elected by the members of
Rajya Sabha.
3. The proposal to remove the Vice
President is initiated only in the Rajya
Sabha.
Which of the statement/s given above
is/are correct ?
(a) All of the above
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
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Q99. Which one of the following is the
correct meaning of the term 'State', as
defined in Article 12 of the Constitution
of India?
(a) It refers only to the Government of
India.
(b) I It refers only to the Government of
India and the Parliament of India.
(c) It refers only to the Government of
India, Parliament of India, and
Governments and Legislatures of
each State.
(d) It refers to the Government of India,
Parliament of India, Governments
and Legislatures of each State, and all
local or other authorities within the
territory of India.

Q100. With reference to Rajya Sabha,

consider the following statements :
1. The nominated members of Rajya
Sabha have a right to vote in the
election of the Vice-President of
India.
2. The first nominated woman member
of the Rajya Sabha was Smt. Rukmini
Devi Arundale.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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