Aakash Botany Study Package 3 Solutions

Chapter 9
Mineral Nutrition
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Methods to Study the Mineral Requirements of Plants)
1. Hydroponics refers to growing plants in
(1) Macronutrients culture medium (2) Water
(3) Solution of mineral nutrients (4) Soil
Sol. Answer (3)
Hydroponics is the technique of growing plants with their roots immersed in nutrient solution.
(Essential Mineral Elements)
2. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. criteria of essentiality of minerals.

(1) Element must be necessary for normal growth and reproduction
(2) Element must be replaceable by another element
(3) Disorders caused by the absence/deficiency of an element can be corrected only by adding that specific
element
(4) Element must be directly involved in plant metabolism
Sol. Answer (2)
Criteria of essentiality say that element must not be replacable by any another element and it must be
indespensable and should have a demonstratable function.
3. How many elements have been found to be essential for plants?

(1) 18 (2) 60 (3) 17 (4) 9
Sol. Answer (3)
Out of 60 elements found in protoplasm of plant, 17 are essential elements and 4 are beneficial, rest without
any reason or having very little function in some plants.
4. The concentration of elements such as carbon and nitrogen in plants is

(1) Above 10 millimole kg–1 of dry matter (2) Less than 10 millimole kg–1 of dry matter
(3) Equal to 10 millimole kg–1 of dry matter (4) Between 1–10 millimole kg–1 of dry matter
Sol. Answer (1)
Carbon and nitrogen are essential macronutrients, they are present in concentration, more than 10 m mole/
kg of dry matter, i.e., why macronutrients.
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456
2 Mineral Nutrition Solutions of Assignment
5. Which of the following is not essential for all plants?

(1) Mg (2) Co (3) Mo (4) Ni
Sol. Answer (2)
Co is the beneficial element.
6. A macronutrient is
(1) Manganese (2) Zinc (3) Iron (4) Magnesium
Sol. Answer (4)
Magnesium come under 17 essential elements in which 9 are macronutrients, and Mg is one of
macronutrients.
7. Select the odd one out from the following w.r.t. macronutrient.
(1) Nitrogen (2) Phosphorus (3) Iron (4) Sulphur
Sol. Answer (3)
Iron is a micronutrient.
8. Which of the following is a micronutrient?

(1) Ca (2) Mg (3) K (4) Ni
Sol. Answer (4)
Nickel comes under 8 micronutrients, rest are macronutrients.
9. Which of the following is not a beneficial element?

(1) Na (2) Co (3) K (4) Si
Sol. Answer (3)
"Rest are beneficial elements". K is essential macronutrient.
10. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. micronutrients.

(1) Become toxic in excess
(2) Involved in activation of enzymes
(3) Involved in building of protoplasmic constituents
(4) Concentration is less than 10 millimole kg–1 of dry matter
Sol. Answer (3)
N, P and S are protoplasmic elements as they form protoplasm along with C, H and O.
11. Major function of trace elements is to act as

(1) Constituent of hormones (2) Constituent of amino acids
(3) Constituent of chlorophyll (4) Cofactor of enzymes
Sol. Answer (4)
Trace elements are micronutrients included in functioning of enzymes.
N is constituent of amino acid and hormones.
Mg is constituent of chlorophyll.
Solutions of Assignment Mineral Nutrition 3
12. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Mn – Photolysis of water
(2) Ca – Synthesis of middle lamella
(3) P – Component of ATP
(4) Zn – Constituent of coenzyme A
Sol. Answer (4)
Zn activates alcohol dehydrogenase
Zn2+  Carboxylases
Sulphur is a constituent of coenzyme A.
13. Element present in middle lamella is

(1) Zn (2) Cu (3) Ca (4) K
Sol. Answer (3)
Ca and Mg form middle lamella.
Calcium Magnesium
pectate pectate
14. An element which helps in joining the subunits of ribosomes is

(1) Ca (2) Mg (3) K (4) S
Sol. Answer (2)
Magnesium concentration decides wheather two subunits of ribosomes will remain associated or separate.
2+
50 S Mg 50 S
30 S 30 S
15. Plants which are deficient in zinc will show reduction in the biosynthesis of
(1) Ethylene (2) Coenzyme A (3) Ferredoxin (4) Auxin
Sol. Answer (4)
Zn is used for auxin and tryptophan synthesis.
Fe for ferredoxin.
16. Which of the following groups of elements are mobile?

(1) N, P, K (2) Ca, Mg, S (3) Ca, S, Fe (4) Ca, N, P
Sol. Answer (1)
N, P & K are mobile elements i.e., they can be translocated to younger tissues.
17. The anion-cation balance in plant cells is due to essential element like
(1) Potassium (2) Calcium (3) Sodium (4) Iron
Sol. Answer (1)
Nitrate, Cl , K + , Sulphate maintain the osmotic balance.
K+ maintains turgidity of guard cells.
18. Which enzyme is activated by zinc?

(1) Nitrate reductase (2) Nitrogenase
(3) Alcohol dehydrogenase (4) Catalase
Sol. Answer (3)
Zn activates alcohol dehydrogenase. It is present in liver.
Hence, called LADH Alcohol dehydrogenase
Stabilize binding is a dehydrogenase enzyme, facilitate interconversion between

of substrates +
alcohols or ketones with reduction of NAD to NADH
19. A macronutrient which is component of all organic compounds but is not a mineral element is
(1) Fe (2) P (3) Mg (4) C
Sol. Answer (4)
C, H & O are considered as non-mineral elements because they are obtained from CO2 and H2O.
20. Component of nitrogenase and nitrate reductase is

(1) Mo (2) Mn (3) Co (4) N
Sol. Answer (1)
Nitrogenase is made up of two subunits.
Mo-Fe Fe
Bigger Smaller
21. An immobile element present in plant tissues is

(1) N (2) P (3) Ca (4) K
Sol. Answer (3)
Its deficiency first appear in younger leaves because it cannot be mobilised to younger leaves from older leaves.
22. The essential element that activates enzymes rubisco and pepco, also
(1) Needed in the activity of pyruvic acid decarboxylase
(2) Helps in carbohydrate translocation
(3) Essential for water splitting reactions
(4) Forms constituents of phytol tail of chlorophyll
Sol. Answer (1)
(1) It is required in activity of pyruvic acid decarboxylase Mg2+ ions are present in active site. This pyruvate
decarboxylase is used for catalyses  decarboxylation of pyruvic acid to an acetaldehyde and CO2.
(2) Mn2+ is essential for water splitting reaction.
(3) Boron helps in carbohydrate translocation.
23. All are the elements whose deficiency symptoms first appear in the older tissues, except
(1) Nitrogen (2) Calcium (3) Potassium (4) Magnesium
Sol. Answer (2)
Immobile element  deficiency first in young tissues.
N, K & Mg are mobile elements – deficiency first appears in older tissues.
24. Amino acids like methionine and cysteine contain
(1) Zn (2) S (3) B (4) Cl
Sol. Answer (2)
Methionine and cysteine are the only two amino acids which contain sulphur.
25. Which of the following is not a physiological role of potassium?

(1) Maintain anion-cation balance in cells (2) Maintain turgidity of cells
(3) Help in opening and closing of stomata (4) Synthesize auxins
Sol. Answer (4)
Zn is used for auxin synthesis. Other three works done by potassium.
26. An element involved in metabolism of urea is

(1) Na (2) Si (3) Ni (4) Zn
Sol. Answer (3)
Nickle is the component of enzyme urease.
27. Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves. It indicates that element is relatively
immobile. Which one of the following elemental deficiencies would show such symptoms?
(1) Ca (2) Mg (3) N (4) K
Sol. Answer (1)
Mg, N & K are mobile.
28. Plants absorb zinc as

(1) Zn (2) ZnSO4 (3) Zn2+ (4) Zn(NO3)2
Sol. Answer (3)
Absorption of zinc occurs in the form of Zn2+ ions.
29. Mineral present in cytochrome is commonly

(1) Fe (2) Mn (3) Mo (4) Mg
Sol. Answer (1)
Constituent of ferrodoxin and cytochromes.
30. An element essential for nitrogen metabolism is

(1) K (2) Mo (3) Mg (4) Mn
Sol. Answer (2)
Mo-Fe and Fe are two subunits of nitrogenase enzyme used for nitrogen fixation.
31. Boron takes part in

(1) Photosynthesis (2) Activation of enzymes involved in respiration
(3) Transport of carbohydrates through phloem (4) Nitrogen metabolism
Sol. Answer (3)
Potassium is for photosynthesis and activation of enzymes involved in respiration.
Mo for nitrogen metabolism.
32. Which group of micronutrients is required for mitochondrial and photosynthetic electron transport?
(1) Ca, K, Na (2) Cu, Fe (3) Co, Ni (4) N, P, K
Sol. Answer (2)
Cu used in complex IV  Cu+ to Cu2+
33. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
a. Potassium (i) Germination of pollen grains
b. Molybdenum (ii) Involved in synthesis of auxin
c. Boron (iii) Involved in stomatal movement
d. Zinc (iv) Constituent of ferredoxin
e. Sulphur (v) Component of nitrate reductase
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i), e(v) (2) a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(ii), e(iv)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), e(v) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(v), d(i), e(iv)
Sol. Answer (2)
Potassium helps in the opening and closing of stomata, Molybdenum in nitrogen fixation, Boron in germination
of pollen grains.
34. Death of leaf tissues in plants is caused by deficiency of

(1) Ca and Mg (2) Zn and S (3) Mo and S (4) Mo and C
Sol. Answer (1)
It is caused by Ca, Mg, Cu & K, known as necrosis.
35. Deficiency of which group of elements can cause inhibition of cell division in plants?
(1) N, K, S (2) Mg, Cu, P (3) Ca, Mg, Cu (4) N, K, Ca
Sol. Answer (1)
N, K & S causing stunted growth due to inhibition of cell division.
(Metabolism of Nitrogen)
36. Mark the correct sequence of steps for the development of root nodules in legumes
a. Formation of infection thread.
b. Division of cortical and pericyclic cells.
c. Curling of root hairs.
d. Leghaemoglobin synthesis.
(1) a, c, b, d (2) b, d, a, c (3) c, b, a, d (4) c, a, b, d
Sol. Answer (4)
First curling of root hairs
Formation of infectious thread
Division of cortical and pericycle cells
Leghaemoglobin synthesis for acting as oxygen scavanger

37. A prokaryote responsible for converting ammonia to nitrites is
(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Nitrobacter (3) Nitrocystis (4) Rhizobium
Sol. Answer (1)
Nitrosomonas
 2NO2  2H  2H2O  Energy
2NH3  3O2 
38. Conversion of NH3  NO2–  NO3– is called

(1) Ammonification (2) Nitrification (3) Denitrification (4) Biological N2-fixation
Sol. Answer (2)
Conversion of ammonia into nitrate is called nitrification.
39. The free living, aerobic and saprotrophic N2-fixing microbe is

(1) Azotobacter (2) Rhodospirillum (3) Rhizobium (4) Anabaena
Sol. Answer (1)
Azotobacter is a free living saprotrophic, aerobic bacteria.
40. Reaction carried out by N2 metabolising microbes include

I. 2NH3 + 3O2  2NO2– + 2H+ + 2H2O
II. 2NO2– + O2  2NO3–
Which of the following statements about these equations is not true?
(1) Step I is carried out by Nitrosomonas or Nitrococcus
(2) Step II is carried out by Nitrobacter
(3) Both steps I and II can be called nitrification
(4) Bacteria carrying out these steps are usually photoautotrophs
Sol. Answer (4)
Bacteria carrying out these steps may not be photoautotrophic.
41. How many ATP are required for the formation of one molecule of NH3 by the nitrogenase enzyme?
(1) Six (2) Eight (3) Twelve (4) Sixteen
Sol. Answer (2)
N2  8e   8H  16ATP  2NH3  H2  16ADP  16Pi
16  2NH3
8  1NH3
42. Non-symbiotic nitrogen fixing prokaryote is

(1) Frankia (2) Azotobacter (3) Acetobacter (4) Rhizobium
Sol. Answer (2)
Azotobacter is a free living, aerobic, saprophytic bacteria.
43. Amides are transported to the other parts of plant through

(1) Phloem (2) Xylem
(3) Parenchyma (4) Cyclosis and active transport
Sol. Answer (2)
The symbiotic Nitrogen-fixing prokaryotes release ammonia that, to avoid toxicity, must be rapidly converted
into organic forms in the root nodules before being transported to shoot via xylem e.g., amides, ureids.
44. Enzyme nitrogenase is

(1) A Cu-Fe protein (2) Found in prokaryotes only
(3) An O2 requiring enzyme (4) Essential to convert NO2– to NO3–
Sol. Answer (2)
Nitrogenase is found only in prokaryotes not in eukaryotes.
45. Function of leghaemoglobin during N2-fixation is

(1) To convert N2 to NH3 (2) To convert NH3 to N2
(3) To supply O2 for nitrogenase activity (4) To protect nitrogenase from oxygen
Sol. Answer (4)
LHb is used to protect nitrogenase from oxygen. Oxygen is a strong electron acceptor therefore, harmful for
nitrogenase.
46. The given equation refers to

N2 + 8e– + 8H+ + 16ATP
 2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi
(1) Ammonification (2) Nitrification (3) Denitrification (4) Nitrogen fixation
Sol. Answer (4)
Conversion of nitrogen into ammonia is known as nitrogen fixation.
47. Pigment leghaemoglobin is present in the roots of

(1) Maize (2) Rice (3) Alfalfa (4) Potato
Sol. Answer (3)
Alfalfa in its roots contains pigment leghaemoglobin.
48. Select the incorrect statement with respect to the biological nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium
(1) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning
(2) Nitrogenase is Mo-Fe protein
(3) Leg-haemoglobin is a pink-coloured pigment
(4) Nitrogenase helps to convert N2 gas into two molecules of ammonia
Sol. Answer (1)
Nitrogenase works in anaerobic condition.
49. The function of amides is all, except

(1) Part of functional proteins (2) Structural part of plant proteins
(3) Storage of excess nitrogen (4) Transport of nitrogen
Sol. Answer (1)
It is not the part of functional proteins.
50. Which of the following is an amide involved in nitrogen metabolism by plants?

(1) Glutamate (2) Cysteine (3) Serine (4) Asparagine
Sol. Answer (4)
Aspargine and glutamine is an amide involved in nitrogen metabolism by plants.
SECTION - B
(Methods to Study the Mineral Requirements of Plants)

1. Growing plants in a nutrient solution
(1) Involves use of chelating agent Na-EDTA to keep iron unavailable to plants
(2) Was first demonstrated by Arnon and Hoagland
(3) Also allows growth of algae in containers
(4) Requires prevention of reaction of light with roots
Sol. Answer (4)
Because in hydroponic we just wanted roots to be immersed in nutrient solution and want to grow them using
it.
(Essential Mineral Elements)
2. Which is not a criteria for essentiality of a mineral?

(1) Direct role in metabolism (2) Requirement is specific
(3) Deficiency causes hunger signs (4) Dispensible for growth
Sol. Answer (4)
It is indispensible for growth.
3. Which is not a true statement regarding macronutrients?

(1) Forms plant structure (2) Usually become toxic in excess
(3) No role in electron transfer (4) Develop osmotic potential
Sol. Answer (2)
No, they are not toxic in excess, micronutrients are toxic in excess.
4. Choose correct statement regarding micronutrients

(1) Become toxic in excess (2) Little role in protoplasmic structure
(3) No role in enzyme activation (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Micronutrients become toxic in excess and they have little role in protoplasmic structure. Therefore, both
(1) and (2).
5. Deficiency of which element causes deficiency of nitrogen

(1) Mo (2) K (3) Mn (4) S
Sol. Answer (1)
Deficiency of Mo causes deficiency of nitrogen if nitrate is 1° source of nitrogen and if plant depends on
symbiotic nitrogen fixation.
6. Minerals associated with redox reactions are

(1) N, Cu (2) Fe, Cu (3) Fe, K (4) Mn, Mo
Sol. Answer (2)
Fe, Cu, Zn, Ni & Mo are minerals associated with redox reactions.
7. Minerals which maintain cation - anion balance in cells are

(1) Cl, K (2) Fe, Cu (3) K, P (4) Ca, Fe
Sol. Answer (1)
K & Cl are maintain cation-anion balance.
8. Which of the following groups of elements are mobile?

(1) Fe, Ca, B (2) Cl, K (3) B, K, N (4) Ca, Mg, P
Sol. Answer (2)
N, P, K & Mg are mobile elements.
 Deficiency symptoms are first seen in mature part of the plant.
9. Which of the following elements are required for chlorophyll synthesis?

(1) Fe and Mg (2) Mo and Ca (3) Cu and Ca (4) Ca and K
Sol. Answer (1)
Fe and Mg
Mg present in ring of chlorophyll
10. If chloroplast is burnt, then which of the following is left?

(1) Magnesium (2) Manganese (3) Iron (4) Sulphur
Sol. Answer (1)
Magnesium is chleated in pyrrole ring.
11. Which is not a trace element?

(1) Mn (2) Cu (3) Mo (4) K
Sol. Answer (4)
Potassium is a macronutrient.
12. Find odd one (w.r.t. critical element)

(1) Nitrogen (2) Potassium (3) Nickel (4) Phosphorus
Sol. Answer (3)
The elements mostly deficient in soil is called as critical elements like N, P & K.
13. Silicon, Cobalt, Sodium and Selenium are

(1) Essential minerals (2) Required by higher plants
(3) Macronutrients (4) Trace elements
Sol. Answer (2)
Si, Co, Se & Na all beneficial elements.
They are required by higher plants.
14. Tryptophan synthesis, carboxylase activity and little leaf of plants are all associated with
(1) Zn (2) B (3) Ca (4) Cu
Sol. Answer (1)
These all are associated with Zn i.e., Tryptophan synthesis carboxylase activity and little leaf of plants.
15. Mineral which is part of CoA, Fd, thiamine and lipoic acid is :
(1) Mn (2) Fe (3) S (4) Ca
Sol. Answer (3)
It is used in synthesis of some vitamins, CoA and ferrodoxin and lipoic acid.
16. Hunger signs in plants are
(1) Symptoms due to lesser water absorption in plants
(2) Symptoms due to poor photosynthesis in plants
(3) Deficiency symptoms of mineral nutrients
(4) Symptoms due to excess water absorption in plants
Sol. Answer (3)
It occurs due to deficiency symptoms of mineral nutrients.
17. (a) Moderate decrease or increase of micronutrients causes deficiency and toxicity symptoms respectively.
(b) Excess of manganese causes toxicity of iron, calcium and molybdenum.
(c) A macronutrient is said to be toxic when present below a critical concentration.
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) Only (b) is correct
(3) (b) & (c) are correct (4) (a) & (c) are correct
Sol. Answer (1)
18. Essential elements are :

(1) Only micronutrients (2) Only macronutrients
(3) C, H, O & N only (4) Both macro and micronutrients
Sol. Answer (4)
Both macro and micronutrients.
(Mechanism of Absorption of Elements)
19. Movement of electrolytes through the roots is generally

(1) Against electro chemical gradient and require energy
(2) Along electro chemical gradient and does not require energy
(3) A passive process
(4) Dependent on aquaporins
Sol. Answer (1)
Movement of electrolytes through roots is generally against electro-chemical gradient and require energy.
Because, it is an active process.
20. Initial phase of ion uptake

(1) Is passive and apoplastic (2) Occurs through symplast
(3) Is active process (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (1)
Initial phase of ion uptake is a passive process and it is apoplastic, occurring through cell wall and intercel-
lular spaces.
(Translocation of Solutes)
21. The translocation of solute is

(1) Equal to the rate of translocation of water (2) Dependent on transpiration pull
(3) Through xylem vessel (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Translocation of solute i.e., minerals is by xylem through xylem vessels through transpiration pull.
(Soil as Reservoir of Essential Elements)
22. The process of conversion of 2NO3–  2NO2–  2NO  N2O  N2 is called ________ and is done by
(1) Nitrification, Nitrosomonas (2) Denitrification, Pseudomonas
(3) Nitrate assimilation, Nitrogenase (4) Ammonification, Bacillus
Sol. Answer (2)
2NO3 
 N2 is denitrification and it is caused by Pseudomonas denitrification.
(Metabolism of Nitrogen)
23. Process of nitrification and nitrate assimilation are

(1) Oxidation & reduction respectively (2) Reduction & oxidation respectively
(3) Both are oxidation (4) Both are reduction
Sol. Answer (1)
Oxidation and Reduction respectively.
NH3 NH–2 NH–3

–3 –5 –7
Oxidation
Reduction
24. Conversion of NO3  NO2  NH3 is called ______ and is catalysed by ______.
(1) Nitrate assimilation, nitrate and nitrite reductase (2) Nitrification, nitrate and nitrite reductase
(3) Ammonification, glutamate dehydrogenase (4) Denitrification, transaminase
Sol. Answer (1)
Nitrate reductase
NO3 NO2
Nitrogen
Nitrite reductase assimilation
NO2 NH3
25. Most common form of nitrogen uptake and usable forms for plants are respectively
(1) NO3–; NO2– (2) NH3 ; NO3– (3) NO3–; NH3 (4) NH3 ; NO2–
Sol. Answer (3)
NO3 is form in which nitrogen is mainly absorbed. NH3 is usable form for plants.
26. Which of the following is/are diazotrophs?

(1) Rhizobium and Azotobacter (2) Frankia and Klebsiella
(3) Anabaena and Nostoc (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Franka, Klebsiella, Anabaena and Nostoc, these all are diazotrophs i.e., organisms
that fix atmospheric nitrogen into usable form.
27. Which is not true for nitrogenase enzyme in root nodules in legumes?
(1) Synthesized by nif genes of Rhizobium (2) Site of reduction of N2 into NH3
(3) It is a Mo-F protein (4) Resistant to O2 conc.
Sol. Answer (4)
It is not resistant to oxygen concentration.
Oxygen concentration is toxic to Nitrogenase enzyme.
28. Leghemoglobin is found in which one of the following organisms?
(1) Anthoceros (2) Aulosira (3) Nostoc (4) Groundnut
Sol. Answer (4)
Leghemoglobin is found in groundnut.
29. How many electron and protons are required to fix a dinitrogen?
(1) 32 each (2) 8 each (3) 16 each (4) 4 each
Sol. Answer (2)
8e– each.
N2 + 8e– + 8H+ + 16 ATP  2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16 Pi
30. Cycas and Azolla plants are associated with
(1) Bacillus (2) Klebsiella (3) Anabaena (4) Rhizobium
Sol. Answer (3)
Cycas and Azolla plants are associated with Anabaena.
31. Select the correct statements from the given

(a) Nitrogenase is a heterodimeric protein.
(b) Root hairs curl by action of nitrogenase and plant ‘nod factors’.
(c) During symbiotic N2 fixation ATP is provided by legume plant
(1) (b), (c) (2) (a), (c) (3) only (c) (4) (a), (b)
Sol. Answer (2)
Nitrogenase is a heterodimeric dimer and during symbiotic nitrogen fixation ATP are provided by legume plant.
But root hair curling is not caused by nitrogenase.
32. Nitrogenase enzyme found in root nodules in legumes contains

(1) Mo, Mn, S (2) Co, Mo, Ca (3) Mo, Fe, S (4) Mo, B, S
Sol. Answer (3)
Mo, Fe, S (Present as cofactor)
33. The amino acid which plays a central role in nitrogen metabolism is/are
(1) Glutamic acid (2) -ketoglutaric acid
(3) Aspartic acid (4) Double aminated keto acids
Sol. Answer (1)
It is the primary amino acid through which other amino acids are formed through transamination
34. Transported and storage form of nitrogen in plants are

(1) Amides (2) Polypeptides (3) Amino acids (4) -ketoglutaric acids
Sol. Answer (1)
Amides and ureids are transported through xylem.
35. Ureides are preferred forms for storage and transport of nitrogen in
(1) Triticum aestivum (2) Solanum nigrum (3) Glycine max (4) Allium cepa
Sol. Answer (3)
Glycine i.e., Soyabean
Others are Kidney pea, Peanut, Souther pea.
SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants? [NEET-2018]

(1) Ferric (2) Ferrous
(3) Both ferric and ferrous (4) Free element
Sol. Answer (1*)
Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric ions. (According to NCERT)
*Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)
2. Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells? [NEET-2018]
(1) Magnesium (2) Sodium (3) Calcium (4) Potassium
Sol. Answer (4)
Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of cells.
3. Which is essential for the growth of root tip? [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Zn (2) Fe (3) Ca (4) Mn
Sol. Answer (3)
Calcium is required by dividing and differentiating cells.
4. In which of the following all three are macronutrients? [NEET-2016]

(1) Nitrogen, sulphur, phosphorus (2) Boron, zinc, manganese
(3) Iron, copper, molybdenum (4) Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
Sol. Answer (1)
Nitrogen, sulphur, phosphorus are macronutrients.
5. During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation of nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning is prevented by :

[Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Cytochrome (2) Leghaemoglobin (3) Xanthophyll (4) Carotene
Sol. Answer (2)
6. Minerals known to be required in large amounts for plant growth include [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc (2) Phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium
(3) Calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper (4) Potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron
Sol. Answer (2)
Macronutrients are required in large amounts for plant growth.
7. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Senescent leaves (2) Young leaves (3) Roots (4) Buds
Sol. Answer (1)
Nitrogen and potassium are mobile elements.
8. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is: [NEET-2013]
(1) Ammonia (2) NO3 (3) Glutamate (4) NO2
Sol. Answer (1)
Ammonia is the first stable product of nitrogen-fixation.
9. Which one of the following is wrong statement? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Phosphorus is a constituent of cell membranes, certain nucleic acids and all proteins
(2) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chemoautotrophs
(3) Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing nitrogen in free-living state also
(4) Root nodule forming nitrogen fixers live as aerobes under free-living conditions
Sol. Answer (1)
Phosphorus is not constituent of all proteins.
10. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Potassium – Readily mobilization (2) Bakane of rice seedings – F.Skoog
(3) Passive transport of nutrients – ATP (4) Apoplast – Plasmodesmata
Sol. Answer (1)
11. For its action, nitrogenase requires [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

2+
(1) High input of energy (2) Light (3) Mn (4) Super oxygen radicals
Sol. Answer (1)
Nitrogenase is an enzyme which catalyses nitrogen-fixation reaction have sites, that facilitate high energy free
electrons.
12. Best defined function of Manganese in green plants is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Nitrogen fixation (2) Water absorption (3) Photolysis of water (4) Calvin cycle
Sol. Answer (3)
Mn is used in photolysis of water.
13. Nitrifying bacteria [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen (2) Oxidize ammonia to nitrates
(3) Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds (4) Convert proteins into ammonia
Sol. Answer (2)
Oxidises ammonia to nitrate
– –
NH3 NO2 NO3
Nitrification
14. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Expression of nif gene (2) Inhibition of nitrogenase activity
(3) Oxygen removal (4) Nodule differentiation
Sol. Answer (3)
Leghaemoglobin acts as oxygen scavenger.
15. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Sulphur (2) Phosphorus (3) Calcium (4) Potassium
Sol. Answer (3)
Ca is not a mobile element.
16. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont is found in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Pisum (2) Alnus (3) Cycas (4) Cicer
Sol. Answer (3)
Bacteria Anabaena is autotroph and found in symbiotic association with non-leguminous plants. like Cycas,
Azolla.
17. Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Anabaena (2) Glomus (3) Rhizobium (4) Frankia
Sol. Answer (2)
18. Which one of the following is essential for photolysis of water? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Copper (2) Boron (3) Manganese (4) Zinc
Sol. Answer (3)
Mn is essential for photolysis of water.
19. Which one of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants while the remaining three are?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Cadmium (2) Phosphorus (3) Iron (4) Manganese
Sol. Answer (1)
Cadmium is not an essential element. It does not come under 17 essential elements.
20. Leguminous plants are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen through the process of symbiotic nitrogen fixation.
Which one of the following statements is not correct during this process of nitrogen fixation?
(1) Leghaemoglobin scavenges oxygen and is pinkish in colour
(2) Nodules act as sites for nitrogen fixation
(3) The enzyme nitrogenase catalyses the conversion of atmospheric N2 to NH3
(4) Nitrogenase is insensitive to oxygen
Sol. Answer (4)
Nitrogen is sensitive to oxygen, thus leghaemoglobin acts as oxygen sacavenger.
21. An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Molybdenum (2) Copper (3) Manganese (4) Zinc
Sol. Answer (1)
Mo is an element which plays role is nitrogen fixation
Mo-Fe
Nitrogenase
Fe
22. The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Frankia (2) Rhizobium (3) Azospirillum (4) Oscillatoria
Sol. Answer (3)
Oscillatoria is a common nitrogen fixer in paddy fields.
23. Which one of the following is not a micronutrient? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Boron (2) Molybdenum (3) Magnesium (4) Zinc
Sol. Answer (3)
Mg is a macronutrient.
24. One of the free-living, anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Azotobacter (2) Beijernickia (3) Rhodospirillum (4) Rhizobium
Sol. Answer (3)
Rhodospirullum is an anaerobic, free living photosynthetic bacteria.
25. Manganese is required in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Plant cell wall formation (2) Photolysis of water during photosynthesis
(3) Chlorophyll synthesis (4) Nucleic acid synthesis
Sol. Answer (2)
Mn is required for photolysis of water.
26. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Azorhizobium (2) Bradyhizobium (3) Clostridium (4) Frankia
Sol. Answer (4)
Franka causes nitrogen-fixation in Alnus.
27. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing microorganism?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Cicer arietinum (2) Casuarina equisetifolia (3) Crotalaria juncea (4) Cycas revolute
Sol. Answer (2)
Frankia involved in nitrogen fixation in Casuarina and Alnus.
28. Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?
(1) Ca (2) Mn (3) Zn (4) Cu
Sol. Answer (1)
It is a macronutrients.
29. Which one of the following statements is correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
(2) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.
(3) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants.
(4) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and potassium for
plant nutrition in soil.
Sol. Answer (2)
Excess growth of living organism in water bodies due to fertilizers are called eutrophication.
30. A plant requires magnesium for : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Cell wall development (2) Holding cells together (3) Protein synthesis (4) Chlorophyll synthesis
Sol. Answer (4)
Mg required for chlorophyll synthesis.
31. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon,
hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Calcium and phosphorous (2) Phosphorus and sulphur
(3) Sulphur and magnesium (4) Magnesium and sodium
Sol. Answer (1)
32. Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and productivity in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Pulse crops (2) Cereals (3) Fibre crops (4) Oilseed crops
Sol. Answer (4)
33. The deficiencies of micro-nutrients, not only affects growth of plants but also vital functions such as
photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron flow. Among the list given below, which group of three elements
shall affect most, both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron transport? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Cu, Mn, Fe (2) Co, Ni, Mo (3) Mn, Co, Ca (4) Ca, X, Na
Sol. Answer (1)
Cu Mn Fe
Complex IV Photolysis Activates

of water enzymes
34. Which of the following elements is a constituent of biotin?
(1) Sulphur (2) Magnesium (3) Calcium (4) Phosphorus
Sol. Answer (1)
Sulphur is a constituent of Co-A, vitamins like thiamine and biotin and ferredoxin.
35. Which one of the following elements is almost non-essential for plants?
(1) Zn (2) Na (3) Ca (4) Mo
Sol. Answer (2)
Na is almost non-essential because required in micro amount.
36. Plants take zinc in the form of

(1) ZnSO4 (2) Zn++ (3) ZnO (4) Zn
Sol. Answer (2)
It is absorbed in the form of Zn2+ ions.
37. Element necessary for the middle lamella is

(1) Ca (2) Zn (3) K (4) Cu
Sol. Answer (1)
Ca is necessary for middle lamella. Calcium pectate forms this middle lamella.
38. Boron in green plants assists in

(1) Activation of enzymes (2) Acting as enzyme co-factor
(3) Photosynthesis (4) Sugar transport
Sol. Answer (4)
39. The most abundant element present in the plants is

(1) Carbon (2) Nitrogen (3) Manganese (4) Iron
Sol. Answer (1)
C, H & O are the framework elements.
40. Necrosis in crops is due to the deficiency of
(1) Ca, K, S and Mo (2) N, K, S and Mo (3) N, S, Fe and Zn (4) Mg, S, Mn and Ca
Sol. Answer (1)
Necrosis in crops is due to deficiency of Ca, K, S, & Mo.
41. Which of the following is not caused by deficiency of mineral nutrition?

(1) Etiolation (2) Shortening of internode (3) Necrosis (4) Chlorosis
Sol. Answer (1)
Yellowing of leaf due to absence of light is called etiolation.
42. When the plants are grown in magnesium deficient but urea rich soil, the symptoms expressed are
(1) Yellowish leaves (2) Colourless petiole (3) Dark green leaves (4) Shoot apex die
Sol. Answer (1)
Mg deficiency causes chlorosis.
43. The major portion of the dry weight of plants comprises of
(1) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium (2) Calcium, magnesium and sulphur
(3) Carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen (4) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
Sol. Answer (4)
Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen are framework elements form 94% of dry weight of plants.
44. Grey spots of oat are caused by deficiency of
(1) Cu (2) Zn (3) Mn (4) Fe
Sol. Answer (3)
Grey spot of oat are caused by deficiency of Mn.
45. Study the cycle shown below and select the option which gives correct words for all the four blanks A, B, C
and D.
Atmospheric N2
Biological Industrial Electrical A

N2 fixation N2 fixation N2 fixation
NH3 NO2 NO–3

Soil ‘N’ Pool
B (Uptake)
Decaying biomass C
Options:
(1) A – Nitrification B – Ammonification (2) A – Denitrification B – Ammonification
C– Animals D – Plants C – Plants D – Animals
(3) A – Nitrification B – Denitrification (4) A – Denitrification B – Nitrification
C– Animals D – Plants C– Plants D – Animals
Sol. Answer (2)
46. Which two distinct microbial processes are responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen as dinitrogen gas (N2)
to the atmosphere?
(1) Anaerobic ammonium oxidation, and denitrification
(2) Aerobic nitrate oxidation, and nitrite reduction
(3) Decomposition of organic nitrogen, and conversion of dinitrogen to ammonium compounds
(4) Enteric fermentation in cattle, and nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes
Sol. Answer (1)
NO3 
 N2 
 Dentrification
NH3  NO2  NO3 i.e., Oxidation
47. Nitrifying bacteria

(1) Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen (2) Oxidize ammonia to nitrates
(3) Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds (4) Convert proteins into ammonia
Sol. Answer (2)
Oxidises ammonia to nitrate
– –
NH3 NO2 NO3
Nitrification
48. Passive absorption of minerals depend on

(1) Temperature (2) Temperature and metabolic inhibitor
(3) Metabolic inhibitor (4) Auxin
Sol. Answer (1)
Passive absorption of mineral depends on temperature
49. In root nodules of legumes, leg-haemoglobin is important because it

(1) Transports oxygen to the root nodule (2) Acts as an oxygen scavenger
(3) Provides energy to the nitrogen fixing bacterium (4) Acts as a catalyst in transamination
Sol. Answer (2)
LHb acts as an oxygen scavenger.
50. Leghemoglobin is
(1) An oxygen carrier in human blood (2) A protein used as food supplement
(3) An oxygen scavenger in root nodules (4) A plant protein with high lysine content
Sol. Answer (3)
LHb is oxygen scavanger in root nodules.
51. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Legumes fix nitrogen only through the specialized bacteria that live in their roots
(2) Legumes fix nitrogen independently of the specialized bacteria that live in their roots
(3) Legumes fix nitrogen only through specialized bacteria that live in their leaves
(4) Legumes are incapable of fixing nitrogen
Sol. Answer (1)
Legumes fix nitrogen only through specialised bacteria that live in their roots. (Bacteroids)
52. Enzyme first used for nitrogen fixation

(1) Nitrogenase (2) Nitroreductase (3) Transferase (4) Transaminase
Sol. Answer (1)
Nitrogenase enzyme helps in the conversion of nitrogen into ammonia i.e., nitrogen fixation.
53. Which one of the following mineral elements play an important role in biological nitrogen fixation ?
(1) Copper (2) Manganese (3) Zinc (4) Molybdenum
Sol. Answer (4)
Mo-Fe
Nitrogenase
Fe
54. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association with the water fern Azolla
is
(1) Tolypothrix (2) Chlorella (3) Nostoc (4) Anabaena
Sol. Answer (4)
Anabaena is a filamentous autotroph which found in symbiotic association with non legumes plants like
Cycas and Azolla
55. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzyme are inactivated, then there will be no
(1) Fixation of nitrogen in legumes (2) Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
(3) Conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes (4) Conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil
Sol. Answer (1)
No fixation of nitrogen in legume because it occurs through nitrogenase enzyme.
56. Roots of which plant contains a red pigment which have affinity for oxygen?
(1) Carrot (2) Soyabean (3) Mustard (4) Radish
Sol. Answer (2)
In legumes, root nodule contains a red or pink pigment called as leghaemoglobin. It is an O2 scavenger.
SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Some mineral nutrients are essential.
R : They can be synthesized by the plants.
Sol. Answer (3)
First statement is right i.e., 17 essential elements are there, but second statement is wrong because these
are not synthesized in the plant body but they are absorbed as mineral nutrients from soil, atmosphere etc.
2. A : Bacteria enters only the polyploid cells of root cortex.

R : These cells provide cytokinins to bacteria, that promotes bacteria cell division.
Sol. Answer (3)
Bacterial cell enters only polyploid cells of root cortex and bacterial cells also provide/produce cytokinin that
induces polyploidy.
3. A : Chelating agents used in improving availability of some minerals in soil are actually electron acceptors.
R : They increase solubility of some minerals in acidic soils.
Sol. Answer (4)
The agent which keeps metal in the soluble state is called chelating agents.
4. A : N, P, K are called critical elements.

R : They become deficient easily in soil due to leaching and higher requirement.
Sol. Answer (1)
N, P, K are critical elements because they are deficient in soil.
5. A : Influx of ions into inner space of cells is an active process.

R : Ions are available for free exchange in free space.
Sol. Answer (2)
Inward moment of ions is called influx but ions available for exchange is not reason.
6. A : Manganese toxicity cause brown spots, chlorotic veins and inhibition of calcium translocation to shoot apex.
R : Toxic effects may be due to direct excess of micronutrients or its interference in the absorption and
functioning of other nutrients.
Sol. Answer (1)
Manganese toxicity is induce the deficiency of Fe, Mg and Ca.
7. A : Jar for nutrient solution culture contains a split cover with holes which hold a bent tube for aeration.
R : Regular aeration of culture solution is necessary for proper growth and activities of roots.
Sol. Answer (1)
Aeration tube help in aeration which is necessary for proper growth.
8. A : All the diverse minerals element found in plants are not essential for them.
R : Some plants accumulate heavy and toxic minerals such as gold and selenium from the soil.
Sol. Answer (2)
There 60 found in protoplasm but not all are essential. Also this is true that some plants accumulate
radioactive isotopes when growing in near by areas like nuclear plants.
9. A : Ammonia is oxidised first to nitrate then to nitrite by the action of Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
respectively.
R : Nitrite thus formed is absorbed by leaves.
Sol. Answer (4)
Nitrate formed is absorbed by plants and transported to leaves where reduced to form ammonia.
10. A : Soyabean export the fixed nitrogen as ureides.

R : Amides contain excess nitrogen and they are transported via phloem sieve tubes.
Sol. Answer (3)
Transport occurs through xylem.

Chapter 10
Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Introduction)
1. Which equation represents the process of photosynthesis most adequately?

Sunlight Sunlight
(1) C6H12O6  6O2 
Chlorophyll
 6CO2  6H2O (2) 6CO2  6H2O 
Chlorophyll
 C6H12O6  6O2
Sunlight Sunlight
(3) CO2  H2O 
Chlorophyll
 CH2O  O2 (4) 6CO 2  12H2O   C 6H12O 6  6O 2  6H2O
Chlorophyll
Sol. Answer (4)

During photosynthesis, green plants synthesized glucose from CO2 and H2O, in this process oxygen evolved
as by-product.
(Importance of Photosynthesis)
2. Choose incorrect w.r.t. photosynthesis
(1) It is a physico-chemical process
(2) Oxygen is evolved as a by-product in all photosynthetic organisms
(3) Occurs in unicellular and multicellular photoautotrophs
(4) Anabolic and reductive process
Sol. Answer (2)
In some bacteria, H2S is used instead of H2O. So O2 is not released.
(What do we know?)
3. Moll’s half leaf experiment was done to show _____ was required for photosynthesis.
(1) H2O (2) Chlorophyll (3) Light (4) CO2
Sol. Answer (4)
In this experiment, half leaf was enclosed in a test tube containing KOH (which absorbs CO2), half leaf was
in air. When two halves were tested for starch, leaf in air showed the +ve test not other part, which shows
CO2 is required for photosynthesis.
(Historical account – Early experiments)
4. A milestone contribution to the understanding of photosynthesis was made by Cornelius van Niel, which was
based on the studies of
(1) Bacteria (2) Alga (3) Angiospermic plant (4) Lower plant
24 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Solutions of Assignment
Sol. Answer (1)

Van Niel studied purple and green sulphur bacteria and showed, O2 evolved from H2O and not from CO2.
12H2O  6CO2  C6H12O6  6H2O  6O2
5. The essential role of air in the growth of green plants was revealed by
(1) Priestley (2) Van Niel (3) Blackmann (4) Emerson
Sol. Answer (1)
Role of air in the growth of green plants is experimently proved by Priestley.
6. Curve showing the effectiveness of different wavelength of light in photosynthesis was first given by Engelmann
using all, except
(1) Filamentous green alga Cladophora (2) Unicellular green alga Chlorella
(3) Suspension of aerobic bacteria (4) Prism to split the light in its components
Sol. Answer (2)
Hill used chlorella for proving that photosynthesis completed in two phase i.e., light and dark phase.
(Where does photosynthesis take place?)
7. Grana present in chloroplast refers to

(1) Stroma lamellae (2) Stacks of quantasomes
(3) Stacks of thylakoids (4) Double membranous envelope
Sol. Answer (3)
GRANA  Stacks of thylakoids
(Photosynthetic units/Pigment systems)
8. Photosystem is composed of
(1) Light harvesting complex (2) Reaction centre
(3) Accessory pigments (4) More than one is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
PS has LHC I or II, Reaction Centre, Accessory pigments.
9. In the chloroplast, the stroma lamellae lack the

(1) PS I, NADP reductase (2) PS II, PS I
(3) NADP reductase enzyme, P700 (4) NADP reductase, PS II
Sol. Answer (4)
PS II and NADP reductase absent in the stromo lamellae of the chloroplast.
(The Electron Transport)
10. The movement of electrons as per Z-scheme in light reaction is

(1) From low to high energy level (2) Uphill in redox potential scale
(3) Downhill in redox potential scale (4) Both (2) & (3)
Solutions of Assignment Photosynthesis in Higher Plants 25
Sol. Answer (4)
It can occur uphill / downhill in redox potential scale.
11. The assimilatory power produced during light reaction in green algae is
(1) ATP, NADPH + H+ (2) NAD+
(3) NADP (4) ATP & NADH
Sol. Answer (1)
Light reaction gives two assimilatory product.
(i) ATP (ii) NADPH + H+
12. The protons formed by splitting of water are released in the

(1) Lumen of the thylakoids (2) Outer side of the membrane
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Stroma of chloroplast
Sol. Answer (1)
When a photon of light strikes the reaction centre of PS II, it emites an electron. Two H2O molecules bind
to an enzyme at reaction centre and enzyme splits the water and H+ are released in the lumen and also O2
is produced.
13. The oxygen liberated during the photosynthesis comes from

(1) CO2 (2) Water
(3) Photosynthetic enzymes (4) Carbohydrates
Sol. Answer (2)
H2O  H  O2
When a photon of light strikes the reaction centre of PS II, it emites an electron. Two H2O molecules bind
to an enzyme at reaction centre and enzyme splits the water and H+ are released in the lumen and also O2
is produced.
14. Chemiosmotic hypothesis for generation of ATP during light reaction was first explained by
(1) Hill (2) Arnold
(3) P. Mitchell (4) Van Niel
Sol. Answer (3)
Chemiosmotic theory for ATP synthesis was proposed by P.Mitchell.
15. The photosystem connected with splitting of water is

(1) PS II (2) PS I (3) Carotenoid (4) P700
Sol. Answer (1)
Photolysis of H2O occurs at PS II.
16. NADPH is generated through

(1) Anaerobic respiration (2) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation (4) Glycolysis
Sol. Answer (3)
PS I reduces NADP+ to NADPH in the stroma by action NADP reductase enzyme.
17. Read the following statements:

(a) F0 part of ATPase is associated with breakdown of proton gradient.
(b) A H-carrier contributes in creation of proton gradient.
(c) Movement of electrons in ETS is coupled to pumping of protons into the lumen.
(d) Formation of NADPH + H+ is related with the creation of proton gradient.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three
Sol. Answer (3)
+
H +
NADP
Cyt
PS b&f PS NADPH
II I
Lumen
+ +
Thylakoid H H
membrane F0
ATP synthesis Storma

F1
ADP ATP
18. How many components listed below are part of cyclic ETS?
P700 , P680 , NADP reductase, Hydrogen carrier,
PS I, Water Splitting Complex, PS II
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Five (4) Four
Sol. Answer (2)
P700, PSI, Hydrogen carrier.
(Where are ATP and NADPH used?)
19. The CO2 acceptor in C3 plants is

(1) RuBP (2) PGA (3) PEP (4) OAA
Sol. Answer (1)
In C3 plants, CO2 acceptor is Ribulose 1-5, bi-phosphate.
20. In C3 plants, first stable product of CO2 fixation is

(1) 3-PGA (2) Starch (3) OAA (4) Pyruvate
Sol. Answer (1)
Primary acceptor
Carboxylation
1 2
CO2 + H2O
RUBP RuBisCo
6C
Dismutase R
E
× 3 PGA 3
C3 Cycle (Ist2stable D
product)
2ATP U
C
2NADPH
ADP T
2 × 3 PGAL 4
I
ATP DHAP 5 O
N
Glucose
21. Which among the following is not a step in Calvin cycle?
(1) Carboxylation (2) Reduction
(3) Photophosphorylation (4) Regeneration
Sol. Answer (3)
Photophosphorylation is the step of light reaction.
22. The enzyme responsible for carboxylation reaction (CO2 fixation) in C3 plants is
(1) RuBP oxygenase (2) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(3) RuBP carboxylase (4) PEP carboxylase
Sol. Answer (3)
In C3 plant carboxylation reaction is catalysed by enzyme RuBP carboxylase.
23. Regeneration of four molecules of RuBP in C3 cycle requires the expenditure of _____ ATP.
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
Sol. Answer (2)
For 1 molecule of RUBP  1ATP
For 4 molecule of RUBP  4ATP
24. The enzyme RuBP carboxylase

(1) Activity occurs in C3 and C4 plants (2) It present in inner thylakoid membrane
(3) Is low temperature sensitive enzyme (4) Shows greater affinity for O2 than for CO2
Sol. Answer (1)
RUBP carboxylase is used in both plants.
(The C4 Pathway)
25. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the C4 plants?
(1) They show kranz anatomy
(2) Decarboxylation process occurs in bundle sheath cells
(3) Granal chloroplast is present in bundle sheath cells.
(4) PEPcase enzyme activity occurs in mesophyll cells
Sol. Answer (3)
In Bundle sheath cells agranal chloroplast present.
26. In C4 plants, first stable product of CO2 fixation is

(1) OAA (2) RuBP (3) 3-PGA (4) Malic Acid
Sol. Answer (1)
Oxalo acetic acid is first stable product in C4 plants.
27. In C4 plants, sugar is produced in

(1) Bundle sheath cells (2) Mesophyll cells
(3) Palisade leaf cells (4) Spongy mesophyll
Sol. Answer (1)
In C4 plants sugar synthesized in bundle sheath cell.
28. The C4 and C3 plants differ from each other in

(1) Type of pigments involved in photosynthesis
(2) The primary acceptor of CO2 during carbon fixation
(3) Type of end products of photosynthesis
(4) Number of NADPH that are consumed during the starch synthesis process
Sol. Answer (2)
In C3 plant primary CO2 accepter is RUBP white in C4 plant it is PEP.
29. Which one of the following is a C4 plant?

(1) Papaya (2) Potato (3) Maize (4) Pea
Sol. Answer (3)
Maize is a C4 plant.
30. The CO2 fixation during the Hatch and Slack pathway occurs in
(1) Large thick walled cells (2) Mesophyll cells
(3) Vascular bundles (4) Bundle sheath cell cytoplasm
Sol. Answer (2)
C4 pathway occurs in mesophyll cells.
31. ‘Kranz’ anatomy of leaves is found in

(1) C4 plants (2) C3 plants (3) CAM plants (4) All plants
Sol. Answer (1)
Kranz anatomy is shown by C4 plants.
32. The enzyme required for the CO2 fixation in the C4 cycle is
(1) PEP carboxylase (2) RuBP oxygenase (3) RuBP carboxylase (4) PGA dehydrogenase
Sol. Answer (1)
In mesophyll cell, PEP carboxylase required for CO2 fixation.
33. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the C4 plants?

(1) The carbon fixation is catalysed by PEP carboxylase
(2) Mesophyll cells lack the RuBisCO enzyme
(3) Photorespiration is absent
(4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
In C4 plants, RuBisCO enzyme absent in mesophyll cell, PEP carboxylase present in mesophyll cell.
34. RuBisCO in C4 plants shows minimum oxygenase activity due to

(1) Abundance of RuBisCO (2) Formation of C4 acid
(3) Decarboxylation of C4 acid (4) Cyclic photophosphorylation
Sol. Answer (3)
Due to decarboxylation of C4 acid, CO2 evolved in Bundle sheath cell.
35. The primary acceptor of CO2 in C4 plants is
(1) RuBP (2) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
(3) OAA (4) Malic acid
Sol. Answer (2)
In mesophyll cell of C4 plant primary acceptor of CO2 is PEP.
36. PEPcase and RuBisCO in C4 plants are present respectively in

(1) Cytoplasm and thylakoids (2) Stroma and cytoplasm
(3) Stroma and thylakoids (4) Cytoplasm and stroma
Sol. Answer (4)
PEPcase in cytoplasm and RuBisCO in the stroma.
37. Plants like sugarcane show high productivity and high efficiency of CO2 fixation, because of
(1) Absence of photorespiration (2) EMP pathway
(3) Calvin cycle (4) TCA cycle
Sol. Answer (1)
Photorespiration is a wasteful process decrease efficiency of C3 plants but absent in C4 plants.
38. Choose the correct sequence of steps involved in C4 cycle.

(1) CO2 fixation  Regeneration  Transport
(2) CO2 fixation  Recarboxylation  Decarboxylation
(3) Transport  Regeneration  CO2 fixation
(4) CO2 fixation  Transport  Decarboxylation
Sol. Answer (4)
CO2 fixation occurs first of all in mesophyll cell then transport into bundle sheath cell, where decarboxylation
takes place.
(Photorespiration)
39. A wasteful process which involves oxidation of organic compounds in plants in presence of light is called
(1) Photorespiration (2) PCR Cycle (3) Hill’s reaction (4) Bioluminiscence
Sol. Answer (1)
Photorespiration reduces the rate of photosynthesis.
40. Identify the incorrect match.

(1) Regeneration of PEP – Mesophyll cells
(2) RuBP oxygenase activity – Chloroplast
(3) Photorespiratory loss of CO2 – Cytoplasm
(4) Decarboxylation in C4 pathway – Bundle sheath cell
Sol. Answer (3)
It is initiated in chloroplast  Peroxisome - Mitochondria.
(Factors affecting Photosynthesis)
41. Law of limiting factor was given in

(1) 1950 (2) 1905 (3) 1920 (4) 1915
Sol. Answer (2)
Given by Blackman’s
42. Which of the following would rarely be a limiting factor for photosynthesis?
(1) Chlorophyll (2) Light (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Temperature
Sol. Answer (2)
Available from sunlight, required in least amount.
43. The CO2 concentration at which C4 plants show saturation is about
(1) 360 ppm (2) 380 ppm (3) 450 ppm (4) 500 ppm
Sol. Answer (1)
In C4 plants CO2 compensation point is 360 ppm.
44. Linear relationship exists between incident light and rate of CO2 fixation at/in
(1) High light intensity (2) Low light intensity
(3) Dense forests (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Rate of photosynthesis increases at high CO2 concentration and high light intensities.
45. Choose the correct labelling for given figure

Rate of photosynthesis
Light Intensity
(1) D-Saturation point, E-Maximum photosynthesis (2) A-Achieved at high light intensity
(3) D-10% of total sunlight, E-Compensation point (4) A-Light saturation at 10% of total sunlight
Sol. Answer (1)
D-Saturation point  Because after this point there is no increase.

E-Maximum photosynthesis  Max. value.
Rate of photosynthesis
h
SECTION - B
(Importance of Photosynthesis)
1. The bulk fixation of carbon through photosynthesis, takes place in
(1) Crop plants (2) Tropical rain forests (3) Ocean (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (3)
Large number of phytoplankton present and occupied large area.
(What do we know?)
2. Essentiality of CO2 in photosynthesis can be demonstrated using

(1) Moll’s half leaf experiment (2) Ganong screen
(3) Inverted funnel experiment (4) KOH solution
Sol. Answer (1)
In this experiment, half leaf was enclosed in a test tube containing KOH (which absorbs CO2), half leaf was
in air. When two halves were tested for starch, leaf in air showed the test positive not other part, which shows
CO2 is required for photosynthesis.
(Historical account – Early experiments)
3. If a photosynthesising plant releases oxygen, containing more than normal amount of 18O, it is concluded that
the plant has been supplied with
(1) C6H12O6 containing 18O (2) H2O containing 18O
(3) CO2 containing 18O (4) Oxygen in the form of ozone

Sol. Answer (2)
O2 released is from H2O not from CO2.
(Photosynthetic Pigments)
4. Choose the correct statement

(1) Chlorophyll-a is soluble in petroleum ether and shows maximum absorption peak at 453 nm and 642 nm
(2) In chlorophyll-b, –CH3 replaces –CHO at 3–C of chlorophyll-a
(3) Chlorophyll-b is soluble in methyl alcohol and shows maximum absorption peak in 429 nm and 660 nm
(4) For biosynthesis of chlorophyll, raw materials required are succinyl Co-A and glycine
Sol. Answer (4)
Chlorophyll-a is soluble in petroleum ether and shows maximum absorption peak at 465 nm and 665 nm while
chlorophyll-b is soluble in methyl alcohol and shows maximum absorption peak at 450 and 640 nm. In
chlorophyll-b, CHO replaces CH3 at 3 C-Chl-a.
(The Electron Transport)
5. The first step in photosynthesis is

(1) Excitation of chlorophyll by light (2) Ionisation of water
(3) ATP synthesis (4) Production of assimilatory power
Sol. Answer (1)
During light reaction the first step is excitation of chlorophyll molecules.
6. Electric charge separation or quantum conversion occurs at

(1) Antenna molecules (2) Thylakoid membrane (3) Reaction centre (4) Stroma
Sol. Answer (3)
It is involved in "Quantum conversion" where energy of light is converted to chemical energy possessed by
emited electron.
7. Minerals involved in photooxidation of water are

(1) Mn, Cl, Ca (2) Mg, Fe, Mn (3) Mn, Fe, Ca (4) N, P, K
Sol. Answer (1)
Oxygen evolving complex i.e., OEC.
8. Z-scheme in thylakoid membrane of plants is concerned with

(1) Reduction of NAD+ (2) Reduction of CO2 (3) Electron transfer (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Z-scheme is related with pathway of electron during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
9. Absorption of radiant energy causes

(1) Reduction of chlorophyll (2) Oxidation of chlorophyll
(3) Absorption of CO2 (4) Oxidation of CO2
Sol. Answer (2)
Chlorophyll a which is present in LHC get oxidised.
10. Cyclic photophosphorylation releases

(1) ATP and NADPH2 (2) ATP, NADPH2 and oxygen
(3) ATP only (4) NADPH2 only
Sol. Answer (3)
Cyclic phosphorylation, cycled e– many times, and through ETS converts ADP to ATP.
11. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation

(1) ATP is synthesised only (2) Last electron donor is ferredoxin
(3) NADP reductase activity requires H+ from stroma (4) There is involvement of PS-I only
Sol. Answer (3)
NADP  H 
 NADPH
12. Select the correct match

Column-I Column-II
a. OEC (i) Primary e– acceptor
b. NADP reductase (ii) Photolysis of H2O
c. Succinyl CoA (iii) Outer surface of thylakoid membrane
d. Phaeophytin (iv) Chlorophyll synthesis
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Sol. Answer (1)
Photolysis of water occurs by OEC, NADP reductase present on the outer surface of thylakoid chlorophyll
synthesized by succinyl CoA.
13. Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c, d) correctly identified.
+
H +
(c) NADP
NADPH
(a)
+ +
H H +
+
H
H
(b)
(d)
Options (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Photosystem-II Thylakoid membrane Photosystem-I ATP synthetase
(2) Photosystem-I Thylakoid membrane Photosystem-II F1
(3) Photosystem-I Inner chloroplast membrane Photosystem-II F0
(4) Photosystem-II Thylakoid membrane Cytochrome b & f F1
Sol. Answer (2)

+
NADP
Cyt
PS b&f PS NADPH
II I
Lumen
+ +
Thylakoid H H
membrane F0
ATP synthesis Storma
F1
ADP ATP
14. Which is not true regarding cyclic electron transfer system (ETS) in thylakoid membrane of higher plants?
(1) Operates at low light intensity (2) Only PS I is involved
(3) Act as a back up for ATP synthesis (4) External electron donor is required
Sol. Answer (4)
No, PS II donates electron.
15. ATP synthesis in chloroplast and mitochondria is due to proton gradient across the membrane. Select correct
statement w.r.t. ATP formation in chloroplast
(a) Proton accumulates in lumen of thylakoid
(b) Splitting of water occurs on inner side of membrane
(c) Proton accumulates in stroma side of chloroplast
(d) NADP reductase is located on stroma side of membrane
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct (2) Only (b) and (c) are correct
(3) Only (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Proton accumulates in lumen of thylakoid.
(Where are ATP and NADPH used?)
16. C3 cycle (reductive pentose phosphate cycle) is basically a

(1) CO2 reduction cycle (2) CO2 oxidising cycle
(3) Photochemical reaction (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
It occurs during reduction of CO2 into glucose.
17. To reduce 1 CO2 in C3 cycle, assimilatory power needed is

(1) 3ATP, 2NADPH + H+ (2) 2ATP, 3NADPH + H+
(3) 5ATP, 2NADPH + H+ (4) 6.5 ATP, 2NADPH + H+
Sol. Answer (1)
1 CO2 requires 3ATP, 2NADPH + H+
18. CO2 acceptor, and carboxylating enzyme in C3 plants are respectively

(1) PEP, PEPCO (2) RuBP, RUBISCO (3) OAA, RUBISCO (4) 3 PGA, RUBISCO
Sol. Answer (2)
RuBP is CO2 acceptor and enzyme is RUBISCO.
19. The methodology, which has been most useful for investigating the Calvin cycle, is
(1) Radioactive isotope technique (2) Inverted funnel experiment
(3) Half leaf experiment (4) Flash light experimental technique
Sol. Answer (1)
14
C. radioactive used in algal photosynthesis studies.
20. Select the correct option for photosynthesis in C3-plants.

(1) Bifunctional nature of PEPcase enzyme
(2) Regeneration of each RUBP requires 6 ATP
(3) First stable product of Calvin cycle undergoes phosphorylation in dark reaction
(4) Optimum temperature is 30–40°C
Sol. Answer (3)
2  3PGA 
2 ATP  2ADP
 2  3 PGAL
(The C4 Pathway)
21. Sorghum and sugarcane plants show saturation at about

(1) 50% of full sunlight (2) 10% of full sunlight
(3) 360 ppm of CO2 (4) 500 ppm of CO2
Sol. Answer (3)
Both sugarcane and Sorghum are C4 plants.
22. CO2 concentrating steps are found in

(1) Rice (2) Sugarcane (3) Wheat (4) Tomato
Sol. Answer (2)
Due to dissociation of malic acid.
23. Kranz anatomy is concerned with
(1) Having peripheral reticulum in chloroplast of bundle sheath
(2) Presence of distinct bundle sheath surrounded by concentric ring of mesophyll cells
(3) Dimorphic chloroplast
(4) Large vacuole in mesophyll cells
Sol. Answer (2)
Bundle sheath is surrounded by mesophyll cells in the plants having Kranz anatomy.
24. In C4 plants, mesophyll cells and bundle sheath cells are specialised to perform respectively
(1) Light reaction and dark reaction (2) Dark reaction and light reaction
(3) Light reaction and photorespiration (4) Photorespiration and dark reaction
Sol. Answer (1)
C4  Light reaction
C3  Dark reaction
25. Agranal chloroplasts are found in

(1) Mesophyll of pea leaves (2) Bundle sheath of mango leaves
(3) Mesophyll of maize leaves (4) Bundle sheath of sugarcane leaves
Sol. Answer (4)
In Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants for e.g., sugarcane.
26. Find odd one (w.r.t. double carboxylation)

(1) Zea mays (2) Sugarcane (3) Pisum sativum (4) Sorghum
Sol. Answer (3)
Pisum Sativum  C3 plant
27. Photosynthesis of maize plant differ from wheat plant in

(1) Number of ATP required per CO2 fixation (2) Having spatial separation in both carboxylations
(3) Having PEPcase activity (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Maize is C4 plant.
Wheat is C3 plant.
28. In C4 plants, the bundle sheath cells

(1) Have thin walls to facilitate gaseous exchange (2) Have large intercellular spaces
(3) Are rich in PEP carboxylase (4) Have a high density of chloroplasts
Sol. Answer (4)
Due to presence of Kranz anatomy.
29. C4 plants are less efficient at low temperature due to

(1) Low O2 affinity of PEPcase (2) Cold sensitivity of PEP synthetase enzyme
(3) Reduced rate of decarboxylation of organic acids (4) High energy requirement for CO2 fixation
Sol. Answer (2)
 Optimum temp. is 30 – 40°C
30. C4 plants can tolerate saline conditions due to

(1) Occurrence of organic acids (2) Absence of photorespiration
(3) Presence of PEP synthetase enzyme (4) Presence of PEP carboxylase enzyme
Sol. Answer (1)
It tolerates due to accumulation of organic acids.
31. Which group of plants are not benefitted by CO2 fertilisation effect?
(1) Plants requiring 3 ATP per CO2 fixation (2) Plants with Kranz anatomy
(3) Plants having high rate of photorespiration (4) Plants having single carboxylation
Sol. Answer (2)
C4 plants have low CO2 compensation point and presence of organic acid in bundle sheath cells.
32. Identify the reaction for which the C4 plants require some extra ATP molecules in comparison to C3 plants
(1) Conversion of PEP to OAA (2) Conversion of Pyruvate to PEP
(3) Conversion of Malate to Oxaloacetate (4) Conversion of PEP to Malate
Sol. Answer (2)
During conversion of pyruvate to PEP.
(Photorespiration)
33. In photorespiration, release of CO2 occurs in

(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast (3) Peroxisomes (4) Glyoxisome
Sol. Answer (1)
CO2 release in mitochondria.
34. Photorespiration occurs

(1) During day time
(2) In C3 plants
(3) In co-operation with chloroplasts, peroxisomes and mitochondria
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Photorespiration occurs during presence of light in C3 plants.
35. During photorespiration, phosphorylation as well as oxidation both occurs in

(1) Centrosome (2) Peroxisome (3) Mitochondria (4) Chloroplast
Sol. Answer (4)
Phosphorylation and oxidation occur in the chloroplast during photorespiration.
SECTION - C
1. Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis? [NEET-2018]
(1) ATP (2) NADH (3) Oxygen (4) NADPH
Sol. Answer (2)
ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light reaction, while NADH is a product of respiration process.
2. Phosphonol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in [NEET-2017]
(1) C3 plants (2) C4 plants (3) C2 plants (4) C3 and C4 plants
Sol. Answer (2)
PEP is 3C compound which serves as primary CO2 acceptor in the mesophyll cell cytoplasm of C4 plants
like maize, sugarcane, Sorghum etc.
3. With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct?
[NEET-2017]
(1) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight
(2) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
(3) C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much lower
temperature optimum
(4) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 - enriched atmosphere for higher yield
Sol. Answer (3)
In C3 plants photosynthesis is decreased at higher temperature due to increased photorespiration.
C4 plants have higher temperature optimum because of the presence of pyruvate phosphate dikinase enzyme,
which is sensitive to low temperature.
4. The process which makes major difference between C3 and C4 plants is [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Glycolysis (2) Calvin cycle (3) Photorespiration (4) Respiration
Sol. Answer (3)
Photorespiration is present in C3 plants but absent in C4 plants.
5. A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of
photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following
physiological groups would you assign this plant? [NEET-2016]
(1) Nitrogen fixer (2) C3 (3) C4 (4) CAM
Sol. Answer (3)
C4 plants are special, they tolerate higher temperatures, they lack photorespiration and have greater productivity
of biomass.
6. Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of [NEET-2016]
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation
(2) Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport
(3) Two photosystems operating simultaneously
(4) Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
Sol. Answer (3)
Emerson performed photosynthetic experiment on chlorella. He provided monochromatic light of more than 680
nm and observed decrease in rate of photosynthesis known as red drop.
Later he provided synchronised light of 680 nm and 700 nm and observed increase in rate of photosynthesis,
known as enhancement effect.
This experiment led to discovery of two photosystems. - PS II and PS I.
7. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in [NEET-2016]

(1) Antennae complex (2) Stroma
(3) Lumen of thylakoids (4) Inter membrane space
Sol. Answer (3)
Proton concentration is higher in the lumen of thylakoid due to photolysis of water, H+ pumping and NADP
reductase activity in stroma.
8. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from water molecules. Which one of the following pairs of
elements is involved in this reaction? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Magnesium and Chlorine (2) Manganese and Chlorine
(3) Manganese and Potassium (4) Magnesium and Molybdenum
Sol. Answer (2)
9. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Rhodospirillum (2) Spirogyra (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Ulva
Sol. Answer (1)
10. A process that makes important difference between C3 and C4 plants is AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Photosynthesis (2) Photorespiration (3) Transpiration (4) Glycolysis
Sol. Answer (2)
It affects C3 plants
11. The correct sequence of cell organelles during photorespiration is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Chloroplast, – mitochondria, – peroxisome
(2) Chloroplast, – vacuole, – peroxisome
(3) Chloroplast, – Golgibodies, – mitochondria
(4) Chloroplast, – Rough endoplasmic reticulum, – Dictyosomes
Sol. Answer (1)
Photorespiration completed in three cell organells i.e., chloroplast, peroxysome and mitochondria.
12. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts
(2) Thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts
(3) Thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts
(4) Thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts
Sol. Answer (4)
In C4 plants bundle sheath cells are characterised by presence of thick walls, without intercellular space and
having large numbers of chloroplast.
13. CAM helps the plants in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Reproduction (2) Conserving water (3) Secondary growth (4) Disease resistance
Sol. Answer (2)
Plants are extreme xerophytes.
14. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Alga (2) Bryophyte (3) Gymnosperm (4) Angiosperm
Sol. Answer (1)
Melvin calvin used radioactive 14C in algal photosynthesis studies.
15. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants due to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Lower rate of photorespiration
(2) Higher leaf area
(3) Presence of larger number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells
(4) Presence of thin cuticle
Sol. Answer (3)
Large number of chloroplast present in C4 plants.
16. Read the following four statements, a, b, c and d and select the right option having both correct statements.
Statements:
a. Z scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI only.
b. Only PS I is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation.
c. Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP and NADPH2
d. Stroma lamellae lack PS II as well as NADP.
Options : [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) B and D (2) A and B (3) B and C (4) C and D
Sol. Answer (1)
(A) is wrong because Z schemes requires PS II also (C) is wrong as NADP reductase is not there in cyclic
phosphorylation.
17. Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of the leaves of [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Potato (2) Wheat (3) Sugarcane (4) Mustard
Sol. Answer (3)
C4 plants, bundle sheath cells  Kranz anatomy.
18. Study the pathway given below :

Atmospheric CO2
Mesophyll Plasma
cell membrane
Cell wall
Phosphoenol
HCO3– pyruvate
A C
C4 acid C3 acid
Plasmo-
desmata
Bundle
sheath
cell
Transport Transport
Fixation by
Calvin cycle
C4 acid
CO2
B C3 acid
In which of the following options correct words for all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated ?
A B C
(1) Decarboxylation Reduction Regeneration
(2) Fixation Transamination Regeneration
(3) Fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration
(4) Carboxylation Decarboxylation Reduction
Sol. Answer (3)

Fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration
A B C
OAA Pyruvate PEP
19. Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Oscillatoria (2) Rhodospirillum (3) Chlorobium (4) Chromatium
Sol. Answer (1)
Oscillatoria  Example of oxygenic photosynthesis, others are anoxygenic.
20. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) ATP and NADPH (2) ATP, NADPH and O2 (3) ATP (4) NADPH
Sol. Answer (3)
ATP form during cyclic photophosphorylation.
21. Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant contains: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Light-dependent reaction enzymes (2) Ribosomes
(3) Chlorophyll (4) Light-independent reaction enzymes
Sol. Answer (2)
22. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than C3 plants because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) They have more chloroplasts
(2) The CO2 compensation point is more
(3) CO2 generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase
(4) The CO2 efflux is not prevented
Sol. Answer (1)
Having large number of chloroplast and absence of photorespiration.
23. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis during CO2 fixation occurs in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Guard cells (2) Epidermal cells (3) Mesophyll cells (4) Bundle sheath
Sol. Answer (3)
PEP  OAA  Malic acid in mesophyll cells.
24. Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II are accepted first by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Ferredoxin (2) Cytochrome - b (3) Cytochrome - f (4) Quinone
Sol. Answer (4)
PS II  Quinone
25. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is:
(1) Quinone (2) Cytochrome (3) Iron-sulphur protein (4) Ferredoxin
Sol. Answer (1)
26. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of:
(1) Epidermis (2) Mesophyll (3) Bundle sheath (4) Phloem
Sol. Answer (2)
In mesophyll cells, CO2 reacts with PEP and form malic acids.
27. In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Ferredoxin (2) Cytochrome (3) Plastocyanin (4) An iron-sulphur protein
Sol. Answer (4)
Fe-S Complex
+
NADP NADPH
Cyt b6 NADP reductase

C
Y
Cyt f C
PQ L Ferredoxin
Plastocyanin I (2Fe-2S)
C
Pheophytin FeS complex
(4Fe-4S)
P680 P700
Light PS II Light PS I
Non-cyclic phosphorylation
Z-scheme
28. During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria
(2) Stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
(3) Grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
(4) Stroma of chloroplasts
Sol. Answer (2)
O2
Chloroplast RUBP RuBisCo
Phosphoglycolate + PGA
29. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because :
(1) Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2 fixation products
(2) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase
(3) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells
(4) RuBisCO in C4 plants has higher affinity for CO2
Sol. Answer (2)
The primary acceptor of CO2 is PEP, catalysed by PEP carboxylase.
30. As compared to a C3 plant, how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for net production of one
molecule of hexose sugar by C4 plants : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 0 (4) 12
Sol. Answer (4)
31. Photosynthetic Active Radiation (PAR) has the following range of wavelengths : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) 400 - 700 nm (2) 450 - 950 nm (3) 340 - 450 nm (4) 500 - 600 nm
Sol. Answer (1)
During photosynthesis PAR is 400-700 nm.
32. Chlorophyll-a molecule at its carbon atom 3 of the pyrrole ring II has one of the following
(1) Carboxylic group (2) Magnesium (3) Aldehyde group (4) Methyl group
Sol. Answer (4)
In the pyrrole ring II at 3 position there is methyl group.
33. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of the higher
plants?
(1) Blue and green (2) Green and red (3) Red and violet (4) Violet and blue
Sol. Answer (4)
Carotenoids absorbed middle part of visible spectrum mainly violet and blue light.
34. During light reaction of photosynthesis, which of the following phenomenon is observed during cyclic
phosphorylation as well as non-cyclic phosphorylation?
(1) Release of O2 (2) Formation of ATP
(3) Formation of NADPH (4) Involvement of PS I & PS II pigment systems
Sol. Answer (2)
ATP synthesized in both cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
35. NADPH2 is generated through

(1) Photosystem II (2) Anaerobic respiration (3) Glycolysis (4) Photosystem I
Sol. Answer (4)
+
NADP NADPH
NADP reductase
Cyt b6 C
Y
Cyt f C
PQ L Ferredoxin
Plastocyanin I (2Fe-2S)
C
Pheophytin FeS complex
(4Fe-4S)
P680 P700
Light PS II Light PS I
Non-cyclic phosphorylation
Z-scheme
36. The first step for initiation of photosynthesis will be

(1) Photolysis of water
(2) Excitement of chlorophyll molecules due to absorption of light
(3) ATP formation
(4) Glucose formation
Sol. Answer (2)
During light reaction first of all excitation of chlorophyll molecules occurs due to absorption of light.
37. Which pigment system is inactivated in red drop?

(1) PS-I and PS-II (2) PS-I (3) PS-II (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
PS-II, because its reaction centre is P680.
38. In photosynthesis, energy from light reaction to dark reaction is transferred in the form of
(1) ADP (2) ATP (3) RuDP (4) Chlorophyll
Sol. Answer (2)
In light reaction, light energy is converted into ATP.
39. Which of the following absorb light energy for photosynthesis?

(1) Chlorophyll (2) Water molecule (3) O2 (4) RuBP
Sol. Answer (1)
Light energy absorbed by photosynthetic pigments. i.e., chlorophyll
40. How many electrons, protons and photons are involved in the lysis of water to evolve one molecule of oxygen?
(1) 4e–, 4H+ & 4 photons (2) 4e–, 4H+ & 8 photons (3) 2e–, 2H+ & 8 photons (4) 2e–, 2H+ & 4 photons
Sol. Answer (2)
2H2O 
8 Photons
 4H  O2  4e
41. The primary acceptor, during CO2 fixation in C3 plants, is

(1) Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) (2) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate (RuDP)
(3) Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA) (4) Ribulose monophosphate (RMP)
Sol. Answer (2)
In C3 plants, CO2 acceptor is RuDP.
42. What will be the number of Calvin cycles to generate one molecule of hexose?
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 4 (4) 6
Sol. Answer (4)
In one cycle, one molecule of CO2 reduced.
DHAP RUBP
Carbon compound
So six cycle will be required for one hexose.
43. For assimilation of one CO2 molecule, the energy required in form of ATP and NADPH2 are
(1) 2 ATP and 2 NADPH2 (2) 5 ATP and 3 NADPH2
(3) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH2 (4) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2
Sol. Answer (3)
In C3 plants, 3 ATP and 2 NADPH2 required during fixation of one CO2.
44. Which one of the following represents photophosphorylation ?
Light energy Light energy

(1) ADP  AMP     ATP (2) ADP  Inorganic PO 4     ATP
Light energy
(3) ADP  Inorganic PO 4  ATP (4) AMP  Inorganic PO 4     ATP
Sol. Answer (2)

Photophosphorylation means synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.
45. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is
(1) Malic acid (2) Oxaloacetic acid
(3) 3-phosphoglyceric acid (4) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
Sol. Answer (3)
3 PGA is first stable product in C3 plants.
46. Bundle sheath cells

(1) Are rich in RuBisCo (2) Are rich in PEP carboxylase
(3) Lack RuBisCo (4) Lack both RuBisCo and PEP carboxylase
Sol. Answer (1)
Bundle sheath cells are rich in RuBisCo.
Here C3 cycles occur.
47. Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched with its three characteristics?
(1) Pea : C3 pathway, Endospermic seed, Vexillary aestivation
(2) Tomato : Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry
(3) Onion : Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation
(4) Maize : C3 pathway, Closed vascular bundles, Scutellum
Sol. Answer (4)
Maize is a C4 plant having closed vascular bundles i.e., cambium absent.
48. Presence of bundle sheath is a characteristic of

(1) Xerophytic plants (2) Members of the grass family
(3) C4 plants (4) C3 plants
Sol. Answer (3)
Distinct bundle sheath present in C4 plants.
49. In C4 plants, the bundle sheath cells

(1) Have thin walls to facilitate gaseous exchange (2) Have large intercellular spaces
(3) Are rich in PEP carboxylase (4) Have a high density of chloroplasts
Sol. Answer (4)
Large number of chloroplast present in bundle sheath cells of C4 plants.
50. The CO2 fixation during C4 pathway occurs in the chloroplast of

(1) Guard cells (2) Bundle sheath cells (3) Mesophyll cells (4) Spongy parenchyma
Sol. Answer (3)
C4 pathway occurs in the mesophyll cells.
51. In C4 plants, CO2 fixation is done by

(1) Sclerenchyma (2) Chlorenchyma and hypodermis
(3) Mesophyll cells (4) Guard cells
Sol. Answer (3)
In C4 plants, start in mesophyll cells.
52. In C4 plants, CO2 combines with

(1) Phosphoenol pyruvate
(2) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(3) Phosphoglyceric acid
(4) Ribulose monophosphate
Sol. Answer (1)
CO 2
PEP OAA Malic acid
53. Which is the first CO2 acceptor enzyme in C4 plants?

(1) RuDP carboxylase (2) Phosphoric acid
(3) RuBisCo (4) PEP carboxylase
Sol. Answer (4)
PEP carboxylase in the mesophyll cells.
54. Which pair is wrong?

(1) C3-Maize
(2) C4-Kranz anatomy
(3) Calvin cycle-PGA
(4) Hatch and Slack cycle – OAA
Sol. Answer (1)
Maize is C4 plant.
55. In sugarcane plant, 14CO is fixed in malic acid. Which of the enzyme that fixes CO2?
2
(1) Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase

(2) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase
(3) Ribulose phosphate kinase
(4) Fructose phosphatase
Sol. Answer (2)
PEP carboxylase
56. Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration ?

(1) Ist oxidation in chloroplast
(2) It occurs in day time only
(3) It is a characteristic of C4 plants
(4) It is a characteristic of C3 plants
Sol. Answer (3)
Photorespiration is characteristic of C3 plants.
57. ‘The law of limiting factors’ was proposed by

(1) Leibig (2) Hatch and Slack (3) Blackman (4) Arnon
Sol. Answer (3)
Blackman proposed the law of limiting factor.
58. Maximum absorption of light occurs in the region of

(1) 1000 - 1200 nm (2) 1500 – 2000 nm (3) 400 - 700 nm (4) 700 – 900 nm
Sol. Answer (3)
PAR → visible region, 400 – 700 nm
59. The rate of photosynthesis is higher in
(1) Very high light (2) Continuous light (3) Red light (4) Green light
Sol. Answer (3)
Maximum photosynthesis occurs in red light.
60. Plants adapted to low light intensity have

(1) Larger photosynthetic unit size than the sun plants
(2) Higher rate of CO2 fixation than the sun plants
(3) More extended root system
(4) Leaves modified to spines
Sol. Answer (1)
Number of chlorophyll molecules increases to compensate low light intensity.
SECTION - D
1. A : In C4 plants, chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells are granal.
R : PS II is mostly found in appressed part of granum.
Sol. Answer (4)
In Bundle sheath cells PS II absent which implies agranal chloroplast.
2. A : Dark reactions of photosynthesis are temperature controlled processes.

R : Most of the reactions are enzymatic in nature.
Sol. Answer (1)
Enzyme reactions are controlled by temperature.
3. A : Dark acidification occurs in CAM plants.

R : Organic acids are decarboxylated during night.
Sol. Answer (3)
Dark acidification is reaction occurs in Night and organic acid like malic acid is decarboxylated during day.
4. A : Assimilatory power in photosynthesis is generated in ETS occuring in thylakoid membrane.

R : They are needed for CO2 reduction and RuBP regeneration.
Sol. Answer (2)
ATP produced is required for carrying out different metabolic activities, biosynthetic reaction taking place in
stroma, responsible for fixation of CO2 and synthesis of sugar.
5. A : Light harvesting complexes (LHC) on thylakoid membrane broaden the range of light absorption.
R : They transfer e– to reaction centre.
Sol. Answer (3)
Antenna molecules transfer electron to Reaction Centre.
6. A : For every CO2 molecule entering C3 cycle, three molecules of ATP and two NADPH are required.
R : Cyclic photophosphorylation takes place to meet the difference in number of ATP.
Sol. Answer (2)
Cyclic photophosphorylation is needed to meet difference in number of ATP but no correlation with Ist
statement.
7. A : Carotenoids protect plant from excessive heat and prevent photooxidation of chlorophyll.
R : Carotenoids enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming light to be utilised for photosynthesis.
Sol. Answer (2)
Carotenoids provide protection to chlorophyll from nascent oxygen.
8. A : Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis depend directly on presence of light.

R : Both ATP and NADPH are not essential for assimilation of CO2 to carbohydrates.
Sol. Answer (4)
Dark reaction is not depend directly on the light. ATP and NADPH is essential for CO2 fixation.
9. A : Most of the photosynthesis takes place in the blue and red region of spectrum.
R : Action spectrum shows the amount of energy of different wavelength of light absorbed by pigments.
Sol. Answer (3)
Action spectrum depicts the magnitude of a response of biological system to light as function of wavelength.
For e.g.,  action spectrum of photosynthesis can be constructed from measurements of O2 evolution at
different wavelengths.
10. A : Tropical plants are more efficient in CO2 utilization.

R : C3 plants ensure that RuBisCO functions as carboxylase minimising oxygenase activity.
Sol. Answer (2)
At high CO2 concentration RuBisCO enzyme acts as carboxylase enzyme.

Chapter 11
Respiration in Plants
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Introduction)
1. Breakdown of complex molecules to yield energy takes place in
(1) Cytoplasm and mitochondria (2) Chloroplast
(3) Cytoplasm and plastids (4) Mitochondria and chloroplast
Sol. Answer (1)
Cytoplasm and mitochondria  in eukaryotes
Glycolysis in cytoplasm
Kreb cycle in mitochondria
2. Respiration involves breaking of_______ bonds of complex compounds through oxidation within the cells, leading
to release of considerable amount of energy.
(1) C — C (2) C — O (3) C — H (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
C — C bonds of glucose break during respiration.
3. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

(1) Respiration is purely a catabolic process
(2) Reduction of food results in the release of energy
(3) Chemical energy is broken down during respiration to release energy
(4) Fungi can make their own food and derive the energy by respiration
Sol. Answer (3)
Energy release during respiration due to breaking of chemical bonds.
4. Respiration is seen in
(1) Non green cells only
(2) Non green cells in light only
(3) All living cells both during day and night
(4) All cells, except the photosynthetic cells during day
Sol. Answer (3)
Respiration is continuous process occurs in all the living cells.
50 Respiration in Plants Solutions of Assignment
5. The compounds that are subjected to biological oxidation are called _______ in which ______ is the most
common.
(1) Respiratory substrate, carbohydrate (2) Respiratory substance, protein
(3) Respiratory organic substances, fats (4) Respiratory substrate, protein
Sol. Answer (1)
Carbohydrate is most prefreable respiratory substrate.
6. Which of the following substances can undergo oxidation and release energy?
(1) Inorganic acids (2) Organic food (3) Organic acid (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Organic food and organic acid undergoes a catabolic process to release energy.
(Do Plants Breathe?)
7. Choose the incorrect option for why plants can get along without respiratory organs as plants, unlike animals,
have no specialized organs for gaseous exchange.
(1) Respiration rate is faster than animals in roots, stems and leaves
(2) O2 released during photosynthesis is utilized for respiration
(3) Loose packing of parenchyma cells in leaves, stems and roots facilitates respiration
(4) There is very little transport of gases from one plant part to another
Sol. Answer (1)
In plants, respiration rate is slower than animals.
8. In floating respiration substrate used is/are

(1) Carbohydrate only (2) Fat and carbohydrate
(3) Fat and protein (4) Carbohydrate and protein
Sol. Answer (2)
When respiratory substrate is fat and carbohydrate, known as floating respiration.
9. Those organism which cannot use oxygen for growth and are even harmed by its presence, are known as
(1) Obligate aerobes (2) Aerotolerant anaerobes
(3) Facultative anaerobes (4) Obligate anaerobes
Sol. Answer (4)
These are organism which cannot live in O2 presence.
10. Facultative anaerobes

(1) Cannot use oxygen for growth and are even harmed by it
(2) Cannot use oxygen for growth, but tolerate the presence of it
(3) Are aerobes which can grow without oxygen
(4) Die when given aerobic condition
Sol. Answer (3)
Are aerobes which can live without oxygen i.e., they are not strictly anaerobic
11. What are the products of aerobic respiration?

(1) O2, H2O and energy (2) CO2 and energy only
(3) CO2, H2O and energy (4) H2O and CO2 only
Sol. Answer (3)
C6H12O6  6O2  6CO2  6H2O  686 kcal

Solutions of Assignment Respiration in Plants 51
12. Maximum energy can be obtained from oxidation of which respiratory substrate
(1) Fat (2) Proteins (3) Carbohydrates (4) Organic acid
Sol. Answer (1)
Maximum energy present in fats.
(Glycolysis)
13. Common step of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration are

(1) EMP pathway (2) Tricarboxylic acid cycle
(3) Acetyl CoA formation (4) Citric acid cycle
Sol. Answer (1)
i.e., Glycolysis, after that fate of pyruvic acid is decided.
14. Which of the following pathway was given by Embden, Meyerhof and Parnas?
(1) Glycolysis (2) Acetyl CoA formation step
(3) Krebs cycle (4) Pentose phosphate pathway
Sol. Answer (1)
Embden, Meyerhoff and Parnas i.e., EMP pathway
15. Glycolysis occurs in

(1) All living cells (2) Only eukaryotic cells (3) Nerve cells (4) Only muscle cells
Sol. Answer (1)
All living cells in the cytoplasm.
16. All are true about glycolysis, except

(1) Oxygen independent pathway
(2) It produces one pyruvic acid molecule from each glucose
(3) It occurs in the cytoplasm of cell
(4) It can operate by using both glucose and fructose
Sol. Answer (2)
No - One pyruvic acid from half molecule of glucose / we can say two pyruvic acid from one molecule of
glucose.
17. In EMP pathway, hexose sugar splits into two molecules of triose sugar by the catalytic activity of
(1) Phosphofructokinase (2) Aldolase (3) Dehydrogenase (4) Transphosphorylase
Sol. Answer (2)
Aldolase
Glucos e 
 G  6  P 
 F  6  P 
 F  1, 6  P  Triose phosphate.
 2 Molecule
18. Interconversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate is catalysed by which enzyme?

(1) Phosphotriose isomerase (2) Phosphohexose isomerase
(3) Phosphoglyceromutase (4) Triose kinase
Sol. Answer (1)
Phosphotriose

Triose phosphate
Triose phosphate
Isomerase
(G  3 P) (DHAP)
19. Reducing power NADH + H+ is produced during conversion step of glycolysis.

(1) 3-phosphoglyceric acid to 2-phosphoglycerate
(2) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid
(3) 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol pyrurvate
(4) Phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvic acid
Sol. Answer (2)
Glucose
ATP
Hexokinase
ADP
G–6–P
Phosphofructokinase
F–6–P
ATP
phosphofructokinase
ADP
F – 1, 6 – bP
Aldolase
phosphotriose
G–3–P DHAP
2× NAD
+ isomerase
PGAL dehydrogenase
NADPH (1, 3 bisphos acid)
Triose bisphosphate
2ADP (1, 3 - PGA)
Transphosphorilation
2ATP
Triose bisphosphate
(3 – PGA)
Mutase
2 – PGA
Enolase
PEP
ADP Pyruvate
Kinase
ATP
Pyruvic acid
20. Which enzyme of glycolysis is also called as pacemaker enzyme?
(1) Hexokinase
(2) Enolase
(3) Phosphofructokinase
(4) Pyruvate kinase
Sol. Answer (3)
Phosphofructokinase is called pacemaker enzyme.
21. During cellular respiration, number of ATP used during conversion of glucose into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
Sol. Answer (2)
Glucose G–6–P F–6–P F – 1, 6 – bisP
ATP ADP ADP ATP
(Fermentation)
22. Choose correct option w.r.t. anaerobic respiration
(1) The first oxidation step occur in mitochondria
(2) All reactions occur in the cytoplasm
(3) They require oxygen only at one step
(4) First step of eaction occur in cytoplasm then in mitochondria
Sol. Answer (2)
If aerobic  It requires mitochondria. else all will occur in cytoplasm.
23. Products of anaerobic respiration are
(1) Ethyl alcohol and lactic acid only (2) Ethyl alcohol and CO2 and metabolic H2O
(3) Ethyl alcohol, metabolic H2O, CO2 and lactic acid (4) Ethyl alcohol, CO2 or lactic acid
Sol. Answer (4)

C2 H5OH + CO2 + Energy
c n
oli ntatio
l coh e
a rm O
Fe 2
Pyruvic acid C3H6O3 + Energy.
Lactic acid
Lactic acid
24. End product of anaerobic respiration is
(1) Phosphoglyceric acid (2) Pyruvic acid
(3) Lactic acid (4) Glyceraldehyde phosphate
Sol. Answer (3)
During anaerobic respiration, the end product is ethyl alcohol, lactic acid etc.
25. After glycolysis, first step of ethyl alcohol fermentation requires
(1) Dehydrogenation (2) Decarboxylation (3) FAD reduction (4) Mn+2 acceptance
Sol. Answer (2)

Pyruvic acid
2CH3CO COOH 2CH3CHO + 2CO2
decarboxylase
Pyruvic acid
26. Concentration of alcohol in a sugar solution inoculated with yeast after which yeast gets killed is
(1) 13% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 20%
Sol. Answer (1)
Yeast posion themselves to death when concentration of alcohol reaches about 13%.
27. Cramps are formed during vigorous exercise, it is due to production of _____ in muscles.
(1) Acetyl coenzyme A (2) Ethyl alcohol (3) Lactic acid (4) Acetic acid
Sol. Answer (3)
During vigorous exercise, O2 , anaerobic pathway is adopted by cell, produces lactic acid.
28. Identify the product marked by (i) & (ii) in the following pathway
3-phosphoglyceric acid (ii)

+
NAD
+
NADH + H
(i) Pyruvate
(1) (i) 2-phosphoglycerate; (ii) Acetyl CoA (2) (i) Phosphoenol pyruvate; (ii) Ethyl alcohol
(3) (i) Phosphoenol pyruvate; (ii) Citric acid (4) (i) Phosphoenol pyruvate; (ii) Acetyl CoA
Sol. Answer (2)
Pathway of anaerobic respiration.
(Aerobic Respiration)
29. Which enzyme is required for the following conversion ?

Pyruvic acid + CoA + NAD+  Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH + H+
(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (2) Phosphoglucomutase
(3) Pyruvate oxidase (4) Pyruvate carboxylase
Sol. Answer (1)
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex enzyme.
30. Number of acetyl CoA formed from one molecule of glucose is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
Sol. Answer (2)
One Glucose 2 Pyruvic acid
Pyruvic dehydrogenase
2 Acety-CoA
31. Connecting link between glycolysis and TCA cycle is
(1) Link reaction (2) EMP pathway (3) ETC (4) Citric acid cycle
Sol. Answer (1)

Link reaction or transition reaction is connecting link between glycolysis and TCA cycle.
32. How many carbon atoms are present in Acetyl CoA?
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3
Sol. Answer (1)
O S CoA
C
CH3
33. Which of the following product is formed by Krebs cycle?
(1) Acetyl CoA (2) ADP (3) ATP (4) NAD+
Sol. Answer (3)
ATP and NADH are formed by Krebs cycle.
34. Citric acid is formed in Krebs cycle by the combination of oxaloacetate with
(1) OAA (2) Acetyl CoA
(3) Malic acid (4) Pyruvic acid
Sol. Answer (2)
OAA + Acetyl CoA  Citric acid
35. The enzymes of Krebs cycle where NADH + H+ are produced are
(1) Isocitrate dehydrogenase, succinate dehydrogenase and malic dehydrogenase
(2) Succinate thiokinase, succinate dehydrogenase and aconitase
(3) Isocitrate dehydrogenase, -ketoglutaric dehydrogenase, malic dehydrogenase
(4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase, -ketoglutaric dehydrogenase and succinate dehydrogenase
Sol. Answer (3)

Acetyl – coA H2O
+ (2C) Citrate synthase
NADPH OAA
NAD
(4C) Citric acid
Malic (6C)
H2O Aconitase Fe2+
dehydrogenase
Malic acid K Cis-Aconitic acid
R (6C) 2+
H2O Fumerase H2O Aconitase Fe
E
B Isocitrate
Fumeric acid (6C)
2+
FADH2 Succinate C NAD isocitrate Mn
dehydrogenase Y NADPH
+ dehydrogenase
FAD
Succinic Acid C Oxalosuccinic acid
GTP succinate L (6C)
CoA GDP thiokinase E CO2

H2O Succinyl-CoA + -Ketoglutaric acid
4(C) NAD NADPH (5C)
CO2 -Ketoglutaric CoA

dehydrogenase
36. How many molecules of CO2 are released during two turns of Krebs cycle?
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3
Sol. Answer (3)
Acetyl – coA H2O
NADPH OAA
NAD
(4C) Citric acid
Malic (6C)
H2O Aconitase Fe2+
dehydrogenase
R (6C) 2+
E
B Isocitrate
Fumeric acid (6C)
FADH2 Succinate C NAD isocitrate Mn2+
dehydrogenase Y + dehydrogenase
FAD NADPH
CO
CoA GDP thiokinase E 2

4(C) NAD NADPH (5C)

dehydrogenase
Since two CO2 in one turn thus 4 CO2 in two turn.
37. What is the net gain in a Krebs cycle?

(1) 1 FADH2, 2 NADH2 and 1 ATP (2) 2 FADH2, 2 NADH2 and 2 ATP
(3) 1 FADH2, 3 NADH2 and 1 ATP (4) 1 FADH2, 6 NADH2 and 2 ATP
Sol. Answer (3)
In one turn of Krebs cycle 3NADH2, 1ATP and 1FADH2 are produced.
38. Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the formation of

(1) FADH2  FAD (2) FAD  FADH2
(3) NAD  NADH + H+ (4) NADH + H+ FADH2
Sol. Answer (2)
Succinate dehydrogenase
FAD  FADH2
39. Where does ETS occur in our body?

(1) Cytoplasm (2) Mitochondrial matrix
(3) Inner mitochondrial membrane (4) Outer mitochondrial membrane
Sol. Answer (3)
ETS occurs in inner membrane of mitochondria.
40. How many complexes are involved in electron transport in mitochondria?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5
Sol. Answer (3)
Complex-I, Complex-II, Complex-III, Complex-IV
41. Complex which transfers electrons of FADH2 to ETS is
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV

Sol. Answer (2)
Electrons from FADH2 to ETS are transferred by Complex II
42. Last acceptor of electrons is _____ in ETS which give electrons to oxygen.
(1) Cyt c1 (2) Cyt c (3) Cyt a – a3 (4) Cyt bc1
Sol. Answer (3)
Complex-IV (Cytochrome C oxidase)  Contains two copper centers.
(CuA and CuB) and cytochrome a and Cyt a3.
43. Ubiquinone receives reducing equivalents from

(1) NAD+ (2) FADH2 (3) NADH + H+ (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
FADH2 and NADH + H+ i.e., electron from complex-I and II reaches to ubiquinone.
44. Mobile electron carrier in ETS in mitochondrial membrane is

(1) Complex I (2) Cyt c (3) Cyt a – a3 (4) Cyt bc1
Sol. Answer (2)
Cyt c is mobile electron carrier in ETS.
45. Protons for the formation of ATP first pass from

(1) F0 part (2) F1 head piece (3) Cyt c (4) Complex II
Sol. Answer (1)
Outer ATP
side
2H+
F0 F1 Inner
membrane
Inner part
ADP Pi
mitochondiral
membrane Matrix
46. How many ATP molecules are formed by oxidative phosphorylation from NADH produced during single Krebs
cycle?
(1) 6 (2) 18 (3) 30 (4) 9
Sol. Answer (4)
1 NADPH  3 ATP
3 NADPH  9 ATP
47. The efficiency of aerobic respiration is approximately

(1) 50% (2) 45% (3) 90% (4) 30%
Sol. Answer (2)
38  8.1
 100  45%  One glucose
686
38 ATP  8.1 kcal

One glucose stores – 686 kcal molecule
(Amphibolic Pathway)
48. Total energy obtained from 38 ATP is _____ kJ.

(1) 1298 (2) 1398 (3) 1292 (4) 1392
Sol. Answer (3)
38 ATP = 1292 kJ
1 ATP = 34 kJ/mol.
38 ATP = 34 × 38 = 1292 kJ/mol.
49. Intermediate common to proteins and carbohydrate oxidation is

(1) Pyruvate (2) Glycerol (3) Oxaloacetate (4) Succinate
Sol. Answer (1)
Glycerol form as a intermediate during protein and carbohydrate oxidation.
(Respiratory Quotient)
50. Which of these has R.Q. value more than one?

(1) Fat (2) Protein (3) Carbohydrate (4) Organic acids
Sol. Answer (4)
RQ value of malic acid – 1.33
Oxalic acid  4
SECTION - B
(Glycolysis)
1. Which of the given enzymes of glycolysis is required at the beginning of process?
(1) Hexokinase (2) Aldolase (3) Isomerase (4) Mutase

Sol. Answer (1)
Hexokinase
Glucos e  G  6  P
2. Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate in respiration requires
(1) Hexokinase (2) Enolase
(3) Phosphofructokinase (4) Pyruvate kinase
Sol. Answer (3)
Phosphofructokinase
F  6  P 
 F  1, 6  bP
3. How many redox equivalents are removed from two molecules of 3-PGAL?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2
Sol. Answer (2)
Two from each 3-PGAL, thus total four from two molecule of 3-PGAL.
(Fermentation)
4. Select the statement which is not related to fermentation

(1) It accounts for only a partial breakdown of glucose
(2) It gives only 2ATP as net for glucose degradation upto pyruvic acid
(3) NADH is oxidized slowly as compared to aerobic respiration
(4) ETS gives 11ATP for each Krebs cycle
Sol. Answer (4)
It is related to Kreb cycle not fermentation.
5. First step of ethyl alcohol fermentation requires

(1) Dehydrogenation (2) Decarboxylation (3) FMN (4) Zn2+
Sol. Answer (2)
Pyruvate
decarboxylase
complex
2CH3COCOOH 2CH3CHO + 2CO2
Decarboxylation
6. In alcohol fermentation, _____ of energy in glycose in released and not all of it is trapped as high energy bonds of
ATP.
(1) Less than 1% (2) More than 10%
(3) Less than 7% (4) More than 40%
Sol. Answer (3)
Net gain in alcoholic fermentation is 2 ATP.
(Aerobic Respiration)
7. Primary acceptor of TCA cycle is

(1) OAA (2) Acetyl CoA (3) Citric acid (4) Pyruvic acid
Sol. Answer (1)
OAA + Acetyl CoA  Citric acid
8. In TCA cycle, how many reduced coenzymes are produced from one Acetyl CoA?
(1) 3 NADH2, 1 FADH2 (2) 2 NADH2, 1 FADH2 (3) 4 NADH2, 2 FADH2 (4) 5 NADH2, 1 FADH2
Sol. Answer (1)

Acetyl – coA H2O
NADH OAA
NAD
(4C) Citric acid
Malic (6C)
H2O Aconitase Fe2+
dehydrogenase
R (6C) 2+
E
B Isocitrate
Fumeric acid (6C)
FAD NADH
CO2
CoA GDP thiokinase E
4(C) NAD NADH (5C)

dehydrogenase
9. 5C intermediate molecule in TCA cycle is

(1) Citric acid (2) Succinyl CoA (3) -ketoglutaric acid (4) Fumaric acid
Sol. Answer (3)
5C present in -ketoglutaric acid.
10. Number of total ATP generated in TCA cycle per Acetyl CoA molecule is
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 24
Sol. Answer (2)
1 NADH  3 ATP  × 3  9 ATP
1 FADH2  2 ATP  2 ATP
1 GTP / ATP  1 ATP
12 ATP
11. Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA occurs when

(1) Succinic acid changes to fumaric acid (2) Fumaric acid changes to malic acid
(3) Succinyl CoA changes to succinic acid (4) Oxalosuccinic acid changes to -ketoglutaric acid
Sol. Answer (3)
Acetyl – coA H2O
NADPH OAA
NAD
(4C) Citric acid
Malic (6C)
H2O Aconitase Fe2+
dehydrogenase
R (6C) 2+
E
B Isocitrate
Fumeric acid (6C)
FAD NADPH
CO
CoA GDP thiokinase E 2

4(C) NAD NADPH (5C)

dehydrogenase
12. Mineral activator needed for the enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase of TCA cycle is
(1) Fe (2) Mg (3) Mn (4) Cu
Sol. Answer (3)
Mn acts as activator by enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase.
13. Fumarase enzyme converts

(1) Succinic acid to malic acid (2) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
(3) Fumaric acid to malic acid (4) Fumaric acid to citric acid
Sol. Answer (3)
14. Substrate level phosphorylation does not occur in which of the following reaction of aerobic respiration?
(1) 1, 3-diPGA  3-PGA (2) 3-PGA  2-PGA
(3) PEP Pyruvate (4) Succinyl CoA  Succinic acid
Sol. Answer (2)
Substrate level phosphorylation  Direct transfer of a phosphate group from a substrate molecule to ADP to
form ATP.
There is no such transfer from 3PGA – 2PGA. In the phosphate group reshuffling is done here from
3rd position to 2nd position.
15. A Krebs cycle intermediate as raw material for chlorophyll production is synthesised after
(1) Condensation (2) Substrate level phosphorylation
(3) Hydration (4) Oxidative decarboxylation
Sol. Answer (4)
-Ketoglutaric acid Succinyl Co-A
Raw material for chlorophyll synthesis
16. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Krebs cycle

(1) Occurs in cytoplasm and mitochondria in the absence of O2
(2) Favoured by coenzyme NADP+
(3) Intermediate products contain four, five and six carbon atoms
(4) Substrate molecule is a 3C compound
Sol. Answer (3)
4, 5, 6 carbon atomes in intermediate product.
For e.g.,  Malic acid (4C), Oxalosuccinic acid (6C), -Ketoglutaric acid (5C).
17. Connecting link between respiration (TCA cycle) and protein synthesis is
(1) Citric acid (2) -ketoglutaric acid (3) Succinic acid (4) Fumaric acid
Sol. Answer (2)
Raw material for amino acid synthesis.
18. The correct sequence in Krebs cycle is

(1) Oxaloacetic acid -ketoglutaric acid  Isocitric acid
(2) Oxaloacetic acid  Isocitric acid  -ketoglutaric acid
(3) -ketoglutaric acid  Isocitric acid  Oxaloacetic acid
(4) Isocitric acid  -ketoglutaric acid  Oxaloacetic acid
Sol. Answer (4)
In Krebs cycle citric acid converted into -ketoglutaric acid then oxaloacetic acid.
19. ATP generated by 1 NADH2 and 1 FADH2 are respectively

(1) 3, 2 (2) 2, 3 (3) 3, 5 (4) 5, 3
Sol. Answer (1)
20. The complex concerned with oxidative phosphorylation in inner mitochondrial membrane is
(1) Complex IV (2) Complex V (3) Complex III (4) Complex II
Sol. Answer (2)
ATP synthase
21. Mobile electrons carriers in ETS in mitochondrial membrane are

(1) PQ, PC (2) CoQ, Cyt c (3) PQ, Cyt c (4) PC, CoQ
Sol. Answer (2)
CoQ and Cyt c are mobile electro carriers.
22. Total number of ATP produced through ETS only from one molecule of 3-phosphoglycerate in aerobic respiration is
(1) 14 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 16
Sol. Answer (1)
1 molecule of 3 PGA 1 molecule of pyruvic acid
releases Link reaction and Kreb cycle
+
4 NADPH
& 1 FADH2
These molecules will enter ETS and produces ATP.
+ at most
Now, 1 NADPH 3 ATP × 4 12
1 FADPH2 2 ATP × 1 2
14 ATP
23. Slow oxidation of NADH occurs in

(1) Fermentation (2) Aerobic respiration
(3) Dicarboxylic acid cycle (4) PPP
Sol. Answer (1)
Lactic acid fermentation.
24. Which one of the following is incorrect statement for mitochondrial ETC and oxidative phosphorylation?
(1) Enzyme complex I accepts electrons and H+ from NADH and FADH2
(2) Passage of protons through the channel is coupled to the catalytic site of the F1 for ATP production
(3) Cytochrome-c is a mobile protein attached to outer surface of inner membrane
(4) 6H+ passes through F0 from intermembrane space to the matrix down the electrochemical proton gradient to
produce 3ATP
Sol. Answer (1)
Complex I  (NADH Dehydrogenase)  it accepts only from NADPH. Complex II receives it from FADH2.
25. NADH2 generated in glycolysis produces ATP in ETS in presence of O2. In absence of O2, this NADH2
functions as
(1) Oxidising agent (2) Phosphorylating agent (3) Reducing agent (4) Carboxylating agent
Sol. Answer (3)
Act as reducing agent in absence of O2.
26. A false statement regarding cytochrome c-oxidase complex in ETS in mitochondria is

(1) Receives electrons directly from ubiquinone
(2) Capable of reducing O2
(3) Extend across the thickness of inner mitochondrial membrane
(4) Contains Fe & Cu both
Sol. Answer (1)
Receives electrons directly from ubiquinone via cyt bc1 to cyt c.
i.e., UQ  cyt bc1  cyt c
27. In prokaryotic cells, number of ATP generated from one glucose molecule is
(1) 36 (2) 38 (3) 34 (4) 32
Sol. Answer (2)
38 ATP produced from one molecule of glucose.
28. Mark the incorrect statement.

(1) Breaking of C – C bonds of complex organic molecules by oxidation cells leading to the release of a lot of
energy is called cellular respiration
(2) Initial stage of cellular respiration takes place in cytoplasm
(3) Incomplete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving three molecules
of CO2
(4) TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with OAA and H2O to yield citric acid
Sol. Answer (3)
Incomplete oxidation results in alcoholic/ Lactic acid fermentation.
29. Transfer of yeast cells from anaerobic to aerobic condition will

(1) Decrease sugar breakdown (2) Decrease CO2 evolution
(3) Increase CO2 evolution (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Decrease sugar breakdown and decrease CO2 evolution.
30. Inhibition of sugar breakdown due to the presence of O2 under anaerobic condition is called
(1) Pasteur effect (2) Warburg effect (3) Crabtree effect (4) Kutusky effect
Sol. Answer (1)
In anaerobic respiration, rate of respiration decreases in the presence of oxygen, known as Pasteur effect.
31. Common molecule formed from all food stuffs during aerobic respiration is
(1) Glucose (2) PGAL (3) Pyruvic acid (4) Acetyl CoA
Sol. Answer (4)
All the food stuffs converted into Acetyl CoA because Kreb's cycle starts from Acetyl CoA.
32. From the oxidation of one molecule of palmitic acid (fatty acid), the number of ATP molecules gained as net
are
(1) 131 (2) 129
(3) 38 (4) 142
Sol. Answer (2)
Palmitic acid  C16H32O2.
C6H32O2  8 CH3CoSCoA + 7 FADH2 + 7 NADH + 7 H+
8 CH3Co.S.CoA  16 CO2 + 8 FADH2 + 24 NADH + 8 – P + 24 H+
Sum : C16H32O2  16 CO2 + 15 FADH2 + 31 NADH + 8 – P + 31H+
15 FADH2 15 × 2 ATP = 30
2 ATP’s are consumed in process to form acyl CoA
31 NADH 31 × 3 ATP = 93  129 net yield.
8 ATP Substance level = 8
phosphorylation
131
33. Location of SDH enzyme of Krebs cycle in plants is

(1) Plasma membrane (2) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Matrix
Sol. Answer (2)
Succinate dehydrogenase present on inner mitochondrial membrane.
(Respiratory Quotient)
34. The value of RQ when the respiratory substances are poor in oxygen is
(1) Zero (2) Infinity
(3) Greater than one (4) Less than one
Sol. Answer (4)
Less than one e.g., in fats and proteins.
35. Arrange the RQ value of following respiratory substrates in ascending order

(a) C4H6O5
(b) C6H12O6
(c) C18H36O2
(d) Succulents (night)
(1) (c), (b), (d) & (a) (2) (d), (c), (b) & (a)
(3) (b), (c), (a) & (d) (4) (c), (b), (a) & (d)
Sol. Answer (2)
Succulents > C18H36O2 > C6H12O6 > C4H6O5
SECTION - C
1. Which of these statements is incorrect? [NEET-2018]
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix
(2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(3) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane
(4) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms
Sol. Answer (3)
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner mitochondrial membrane.
2. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration? [NEET-2018]
(1) It functions as an enzyme.
(2) It functions as an electron carrier.
(3) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.
(4) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
Sol. Answer (2)
In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron carrier.
3. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle? [NEET-2017]
(1) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+
(2) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is reduced to FADH2
(3) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
(4) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid
Sol. Answer (4)
Krebs cycle starts with condensation of acetyl CoA (2C) with oxaloacetic acid (4C) to form citric acid (6C).
4. Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and
proteins? [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Glucose-6-phosphate (2) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
(3) Pyruvic acid (4) Acetyl CoA
Sol. Answer (4)
Acetyl CoA is common to fat, carbohydrate and protein catabolism.
5. Oxidative phosphorylation is [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

(1) Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a substrate to ADP
(2) Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
(3) Addition of phosphate group to ATP
(4) Formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation
Sol. Answer (4)
Oxidative phosphorylation uses energy of oxidation-reduction of substrate to generate ATP.
6. Cytochromes are found in [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Lysosomes
(2) Matrix of mitochondria
(3) Outer wall of mitochondria
(4) Cristae of mitochondria
Sol. Answer (4)
Cytochromes involved in ETS, present on the cristae of mitochondria.
7. In which one of the following processes CO2 is not released? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Aerobic respiration in plants
(2) Aerobic respiration in animals
(3) Alcoholic fermentation
(4) Lactate fermentation
Sol. Answer (4)
CO2 not evolved during Lactic acid fermentation.
8. Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?
[NEET-2013]
(1) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (2) Pyruvic acid
(3) Acetyl CoA (4) Glucose-6-phosphate
Sol. Answer (3)
Acetyl CoA form, from all the food stuffs.
9. The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows
represent net reactants or products
1 5 910
glucose Pathway A 2 6
Pathway B 7 Pathway C 11
4 8 12
3
Arrows numbered 4,8 and 12 can all be [NEET-2013]
(1) ATP (2) H2O (3) FAD+ or FADH2 (4) NADH
Sol. Answer (1)
Pathway - A  Glycolysis
Pathway - B  Kreb 4/8/12  ATP
Pathway - C  ETS 2  Pyruvic acid
9, 10  FADH2 , NADH
3  NADH
10. Read the following four statements (A-D)
(A) Both, photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation involve uphill transport of protons across the
membrane
(B) In dicot stems, a new cambium originates from cells of pericycle at the time of secondary growth
(C) Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia are polyandrous
(D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in free-living state also in soil
How many of the above statements are right? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
Sol. Answer (1)
A and D, because in dicot stem cambium not arise from pericycle. In Gloriosa - epiphylous, while in Petunia
- epipetalous.
11. The energy releasing metabolic process in whichsubstrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor
is called [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Photorespiration (2) Glycolysis (3) Fermentation (4) Aerobic respiration
Sol. Answer (3)
During fermentation, substrate oxidised without an external electron acceptor.
12. Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Parabolic (2) Amphibolic (3) Anabolic (4) Catabolic
Sol. Answer (2)
i.e., both catabolism and anabolism.
13. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Malate (2) Malonate (3) Oxaloacetate (4) - ketoglutarate
Sol. Answer (2)
14. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
is formed because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) There is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondiral membrane toward adenosine diphosphate
(ADP)
(2) High energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins
(3) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space
(4) A proton gradient forms across the inner membrane
Sol. Answer (4)
Due to accumulation of protons, proton gradient form across the inner membrane.
15. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of:
(1) Nucleic acids (2) ATP in small stepwise units
(3) ATP in one large oxidation reaction (4) Sugars
Sol. Answer (2)
All cell are in need of energy obtained from ATP.
16. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner
mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is:
(1) Succinate dehydrogenase (2) Lactate dehydrogenase
(3) Isocitrate dehydrogenase (4) Malate dehydrogenase
Sol. Answer (1)
Succinate dehydrogenase present on inner mitochondrial membrane.
17. How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete
oxidation of one mole of glucose to CO2 and H2O yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical energy available in
the high energy phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Two (2) Thirty (3) Fifty seven (4) One
Sol. Answer (3)
For maximum ATP, we take efficiency 100%
686
x  57.1 i.e., 57 ATP molecules
12
18. During which stage in the complete oxidation of glucose are the greatest number of ATP molecules formed
from ADP? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co-A (2) Electron transport chain
(3) Glycolysis (4) Krebs cycle
Sol. Answer (2)
ETS
10 NADH & 1 FADH2 enters ETS
10 × 3 2×2
30 4 for one molecule of glucose

Total  34/36
34 or 32 from ETS
19. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on :
(1) Proton gradient (2) Accumulation of K ions
(3) Accumulation of Na ions (4) Membrane potential
Sol. Answer (1)
20. Glycolysis
(1) Takes place in the mitochondria
(2) Produces no ATP
(3) Has no connection with electron transport chain
(4) Reduces two molecules of NAD+ for every glucose molecule processed
Sol. Answer (4)
Glucose
ATP
Hexokinase
ADP
G–6–P
Phosphofructokinase
F–6–P
ATP
phosphofructokinase
ADP
F – 1, 6 – bP
Aldolase
phosphotriose
G–3–P DHAP
2× NAD
+ isomerase
PGAL dehydrogenase
NADPH (1, 3 bisphos acid)
Triose bisphosphate
2ADP (1, 3 - PGA)
Transphosphorilation
2ATP
Triose bisphosphate
(3 – PGA)
Dismutase
2 – PGA
Enolase
PEP
ADP Pyruvate
Kinase
ATP
Pyruvic acid
21. The first phase in the breakdown of glucose, in animal cell, is

(1) Fermentation (2) Krebs cycle (3) Glycolysis (4) E.T.S.
Sol. Answer (3)
Glycolysis is first phase in both plants and animals.
22. At the end of glycolysis, six carbon compound ultimately changes into
(1) Ethyl alcohol (2) Acetyl Co-A (3) Pyruvic acid (4) ATP
Sol. Answer (3)
One molecule of glucose  Two molecule of Pyruvic acid.
23. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by

(1) ATP (2) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(3) NAD+ (4) Molecular oxygen
Sol. Answer (3)
NAD + 2e– + 2H+  NADH + H+
24. The organism used for alcohol fermentation, is

(1) Aspergillus (2) Saccharomyces (3) Pseudomonas (4) Penicillium
Sol. Answer (2)
Saccharomyces i.e., Yeast
25. Which of the following products are obtained by anaerobic respiration from yeast?
(1) Beer and wine (2) Alcohols (3) CO2 (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Beer, wine, alcohols and CO2.
26. The end products of fermentation are

(1) O2 and C2H5OH (2) CO2 and acetaldehyde
(3) CO2 and O2 (4) CO2 and C2H5OH
Sol. Answer (4)
Alcoholic fermentation
Pyruvate decarboxylase
2CH3COCOOH 
 2CH3CHO  2CO2
Alcohol
2CH3CHO  2NADH  2H 
dehydrogenase
 2C2H5OH  2NAD
27. During the formation of bread, it becomes porous due to release of CO2 by the action of
(1) Yeast (2) Bacteria (3) Virus (4) Protozoans
Sol. Answer (1)
Yeast causes fermentation.
28. In alcohol fermentation

(1) Triose phosphate is the electron donor while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor
(2) Triose phosphate is the electron donor while pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor
(3) There is no electron donor
(4) Oxygen is the electron acceptor
Sol. Answer (1)
Pyruvate decarboxylase
2CH3COCOOH 
 2CH3CHO  2CO2
Alcohol
2CH3CHO  2NADH  H 
dehydrogenase
2C2H5OH  2NAD
29. Dough kept overnight in warm weather becomes soft and spongy because of
(1) Absorption of carbon dioxide from atmosphere (2) Fermentation
(3) Cohesion (4) Osmosis
Sol. Answer (2)
During fermentation, CO2 evolved.
30. In Krebs cycle, the FAD participates as electron acceptor during the conversion of
(1) Fumaric acid to malic acid (2) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
(3) Succinyl CoA to succinic acid (4) -ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA
Sol. Answer (2)
Acetyl – coA H2O

NADPH OAA
NAD
(4C) Citric acid
Malic (6C)
H2O Aconitase Fe2+
dehydrogenase
R (6C) 2+
E
B Isocitrate
Fumeric acid (6C)
FAD NADPH
CoA CO
GDP thiokinase E 2
4(C) NAD NADPH (5C)

dehydrogenase
31. Which of the following is the key intermediate compound linking glycolysis to the Krebs cycle?
(1) Malic acid (2) Acetyl CoA (3) NADH (4) ATP
Sol. Answer (2)
Pyruvic acid 
 from glycolysis
Pyruvic acid 

Link reaction
Acetyl  CoA
Acetyl CoA 
 Enters Krebcycle
32. In which one of the following do the two names refer to one and the same thing ?
(1) Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle (2) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle
(3) Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle (4) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle
Sol. Answer (2)

TCA and Citric acid cycle
other names for Kreb’s cycle.

TCA  because many intermediate have 3 carboxyl groups.
CAC  because of formation of citric acid in the first step of cycle.

Kreb  Scientist Hans Kreb who first elucidated it in flight muscles of pigeon.
33. In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the
(1) Intermembrane space (2) Matrix
(3) Outer membrane (4) Inner membrane
Sol. Answer (1)
Proton accumulate between outer and inner membrane.
34. The ultimate respiratory substrate, yielding maximum number of ATP molecules, is
(1) Glycogen (2) Ketogenic amino acid
(3) Glucose (4) Amylose
Sol. Answer (3)
Glucose is the ultimate respiratory substrate.
35. When one molecule of ATP is disintegrated, the amount of energy liberated is
(1) 1.8 kcal (2) 38 kcal (3) 8.15 kcal (4) 4.5 kcal
Sol. Answer (3)
1 ATP  8.15 kcal
36. The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP synthesis is

(1) Cyt. b, c, a3, a (2) Cyt. c, b, a, a3 (3) Cyt. a3, a, b, c (4) Cyt. b, c, a, a3
Sol. Answer (4)
Electron transfer from Cyt b to Cyt c then Cyt a and Cyt a3.
37. The mechanism of ATP formation both in chloroplast and mitochondria is explained by
(1) Chemiosmotic theory (2) Munch’s hypothesis (mass flow model)
(3) Relay pump theory of Godlewski (4) Cholodny-Went’s model
Sol. Answer (1)
ATP synthesis explained by P.Mitchel through chemiosmotic theory.
38. Net gain of ATP molecules, during aerobic respiration, in heart cells is
(1) 40 molecules (2) 48 molecules
(3) 36 molecules (4) 38 molecules
Sol. Answer (4)
Malate Aspartate shuttle
39. How many ATP molecules will be produced in muscles by aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 36 (4) 34
Sol. Answer (3)
Glycerol – 3 Phosphate shuttle
40. Plants, but not animals, can convert fatty acids to sugars by a series of reactions called
(1) Photosynthesis (2) Krebs cycle (3) Glycolysis (4) Glyoxylate cycle
Sol. Answer (4)
Glyoxysome present in plants for glyoxylate cycle.
41. Pasteurization is a process, which means heating of drinks. It is carried out, at what temperature and for
how much duration?
(1) 70°C and 60 minutes (2) 80°C and 30 minutes
(3) 120°C and 60 minutes (4) 60-70°C and 30 minutes
Sol. Answer (4)
Pasteurization occurs at 60–70 °C for 30 minutes.
SECTION - D
1. A : 2, 4 DNP is an uncoupling agent of ETS.

R : It is soluble in lipids.
Sol. Answer (2)
2 : 4 DNP allows electron transport but prevent ATP synthesis i.e., un coupler.
2. A : In PPP (HMS), complete oxidation of one glucose molecule would produce 6CO2 molecules and 12 NADPH2
molecules.
R : It occurs in cytoplasm and chloroplast, in presence of O2.
Sol. Answer (2)
In PPP, 12 NADPH2 produced at the place of NADH2.
3. A : RQ of maturing fatty seeds is > 1.

R : Fats are preferred energy fuels.
Sol. Answer (3)
Glucose is preferred energy fuel
4. A : In cellular respiratory ETS electron movement is a downhill journey.

R : Electrons move from high redox potential to low redox potential.
Sol. Answer (3)
Electrons move from low to high redox potential.
5. A : Succinyl CoA is the precursor of pyrrole group containing compounds.

R : Succinyl CoA is an intermediate of TCA cycle.
Sol. Answer (2)
Succinyl CoA is the precursor of chlorophyll.
6. A : Fat breakdown yields fatty acids and glycerol.
R : Glycerol enters glycolysis through serine formation.
Sol. Answer (3)
Fats Fatty acids and DHAP

glycerol
Acetyl CoA Pyruvic acid G–3–P
Krebs cycle
7. A : Four ATP molecules are produced directly during glycolysis.
R : Substrate level phosphorylation occurs at two steps for a glucose broken down in mitochondrial matrix.
Sol. Answer (3)
Substrate level phosphorylation occurs during Kreb cycle at one step only.
8. A : Fermentation stops when alcohol in sugar solution is about 13%.

R : Saccharomyces cerevisiae are killed and zymase in not formed.
Sol. Answer (1)
Yeast poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 13 %.
9. A : Cytochrome c is the peripheral protein.

R : It is found attached on the perimitochondrial space side of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Sol. Answer (1)
Cyt c is a peripheral protein because it found attached on perimitochondrial space side of inner mitochondrial
membrane.
10. A : Tricarboxylic acid cycle is an amphibolic pathway.
R : A number of TCA cycle intermediates are used in various catabolic reactions only.
Sol. Answer (3)
TCA intermediates are not used in various catabolic reaction only. But in anabolic reactions also. TCA is
amphibolic because them is catabolism and anabolism.

Chapter 12
Plant Growth and Development
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Growth)
1. Which of the following structures show unlimited growth in plants?
(1) Leaves (2) Flowers (3) Fruits (4) Roots
Sol. Answer (4)
Roots, stems show continuous, indeterminate growth due to presence of apical meristem.
Leaves, fruits, flowers show closed, determinate growth due to intercalary meristem.
2. Growth of an organ is defined as

(1) Infinite increase in size (2) Irreversible increase in size
(3) Reversible increase in size (4) Infinite and reversible increase in size
Sol. Answer (2)
Organs show limited growth and growth is irreversible.
3. Which type of cells have the capacity of self perpetuation?

(1) Meristematic cells (2) Companion cells (3) Sieve cells (4) Parenchyma cells
Sol. Answer (1)
These cells are in state of continuous division i.e, they are capable of self perpetuation, have power to
continue indefinitely through division.
4. Plant growth is unique in being

(1) Closed (2) Unlimited (3) Diffuse (4) Limited
Sol. Answer (2)
Plants show indeterminate or unlimited growth, throughout their, life. Hence, we say that plant growth is unique
in being unlimited.
5. Increase in the girth of plant is known as/done by

(1) Primary growth (2) Apical meristem (3) Intercalary meristem (4) Secondary growth
Sol. Answer (4)
Increase in girth is secondary growth.
Increase in height is primary growth.
76 Plant Growth and Development Solutions of Assignment
6. Which parameter is used to measure the growth in flat organs like leaves?
(1) Increase in dry weight (2) Increase in cell size
(3) Increase in surface area (4) Increase in length
Sol. Answer (3)
The parameter is used for measuring growth in flat organs like leaves are surface area.
7. Which of the following is difficult to measure directly?
(1) Increase in protoplasm content (2) Increase in surface area
(3) Increase in dry weight (4) Increase in volume
Sol. Answer (1)
Increase in protoplasm content is difficult to measure, while surface area, volume and dry weight measurement
are easy.
8. Deposition of new materials inside the cell wall of cells starts in
(1) Meristematic phase (2) Reproductive phase (3) Maturation phase (4) Elongation phase
Sol. Answer (4)
During this phase cell elongates due to deposition of new materials inside cell wall of cell.
9. Which phase of a sigmoid curve explains the initial phase of growth when growth rate is very slow?
(1) Log phase (2) Lag phase (3) Stationary phase (4) Maturation phase
Sol. Answer (2)
Starting or initial phase.
10. ______ curve is obtained for cells in culture.
(1) J-shaped (2) Linear (3) V-shaped (4) S-shaped
Sol. Answer (4)
S-shaped curve.
Stationary
Growth
Exponential
Lag
Time
11. A Leaf of 20 cm2 grows 5 cm2 per hour and B Leaf of 25 cm2 grows 5 cm2 per hour
The relative growth rate of leaf A and B respectively is
(1) 25% and 20% (2) 20% and 25% (3) 50% and 100% (4) 25% and 50%
Solutions of Assignment Plant Growth and Development 77
Sol. Answer (1)
25% & 20%
5 5 Growth per unit time

 100  100 Relative growth rate =  100
20 25 Intial size
25% 20%
12. What happens to the growth of roots during water logging conditions?
(1) Growth is accelerated (2) Growth is inhibited
(3) Growth remains constant (4) First growth is accelerated and then stops
Sol. Answer (2)
Oxygen deficiency occurs due to water logging, thus growth is inhibited.
13. Which of the following is not a function of water in plants?

(1) It is responsible for cell elongation (2) It maintains the turgidity of cells
(3) It acts as a source of energy (4) It provides medium for enzymatic activities
Sol. Answer (3)
It is not producing energy. It helps in maintaining turgidity, cell elongation and in enzymatic activities.
14. Which abiotic factor is not essential for early growth of the plant but growth is sustained only in its presence?
(1) Water (2) Oxygen (3) Nutrients (4) Light
Sol. Answer (4)
Abiotic means non-living. Light is not required for early growth but growth will continue only in its presence.
Water, nutrients, oxygen are required for early growth.
15. Which factor determines the direction of movement of main root and stem?
(1) Oxygen (2) Gravity (3) Temperature (4) Nutrients
Sol. Answer (2)
Root is positive geotropic while stem is negative geotropic.

(Differentiation, Dedifferentiation and Redifferentiation)
16. Examples of lateral meristems are
(1) Phellogen and collenchyma (2) Vascular cambium and phellem
(3) Vascular cambium and cork cambium (4) Xylem and cork cambium
Sol. Answer (3)
These are structures which appear later in the life of a plant.
17. Tracheids do not collapse under extreme tension due to the presence of
(1) Strong, elastic lignocellulosic secondary cell wall (2) Thick, cellulosic primary cell wall
(3) Thin, elastic, cellulosic primary cell wall (4) Thick, hard suberised secondary cell wall
Sol. Answer (1)

Because tracheids have made themselves strong, elastic etc by process of differentiation i.e., specialised for
particular function.
18. Cork, secondary cortex and secondary xylem are formed through
(1) Dedifferentiation (2) Redifferentiation (3) Differentiation (4) Obliteration
Sol. Answer (2)
Cork, secondary cortex and secondary xylem all are secondary structure formed from dedifferentiated cell by
redifferentiation and are responsible for secondary growth.
19. Which of the following is formed after dedifferentiation?

(1) Secondary phloem (2) Secondary cortex
(3) Parenchyma (4) Interfascicular vascular cambium
Sol. Answer (4)
(Development)
20. The ability of a plant to follow different pathways and produce different structures in response to environment
is known as
(1) Heterophylly (2) Plasticity (3) Efficiency index (4) Vernalisation
Sol. Answer (2)
21. Heterophylly means

(1) The appearance of different forms of leaves on the same plant species
(2) The appearance of same form of leaves on different plants
(3) The appearance of same form of flowers on different plants
(4) The appearance of different forms of fruits on the same plant
Sol. Answer (1)
Presence of more than one type of leaves on the same plant is called heterophylly.
(Plant Growth Regulators)
22. Plant growth regulators (PGRs) are

(1) Simple organic substances of different chemical composition
(2) Complex organic substances of different chemical composition
(3) Simple and complex organic substances of same chemical composition
(4) Small organic substances of same chemical composition
Sol. Answer (1)
PGRs are simple organic substances of different chemical composition.
23. Which type of phytohormone is made up of indole compounds?

(1) Zeatin (2) ABA (3) Auxin (4) Gibberellins
Sol. Answer (3)
Indole 3-acetic acid - IAA
Indole butyric acid - IBA
24. Two synthetic auxins are
(1) IAA and IBA (2) 2, 4-D and NAA (3) IAA and NAA (4) 2, 4-D and IBA
Sol. Answer (2)
2, 4-D i.e., 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
NAA i.e., Napthalene acetic acid are produced artificially.
25. Which phytohormone promotes falling of old leaves whereas inhibits falling of young leaves?
(1) ABA (2) Cytokinin (3) GA (4) Auxin
Sol. Answer (4)
Auxin hormone prevent falling of young leaves but promotes falling of old leaves.
26. Which auxins are used in diluted form to produce parthenocarpic fruits?
(1) IAA and IBA (2) 2, 4-D and IBA (3) NAA and GA (4) 2, 4-D and IAA
Sol. Answer (1)
IAA and IBA used in parthenocarpy.
Parthenocarpic i.e., seedless fruits are produced by using diluted form of IAA and IBA e.g., tomato.
27. Which of the following auxin is widely used as weedicide?

(1) IAA (2) IBA (3) 2, 4-D (4) NAA
Sol. Answer (3)
It is used to remove unwanted weeds/plants, having broad leaves.
28. Which of the following is not a function of gibberellic acid?

(1) Bolting (2) Delayed senescence (3) Seed germination (4) Ripening
Sol. Answer (4)
Ethylene do ripening
29. Apical dominance is stimulated by auxin whereas it is inhibited by

(1) Ethylene (2) ABA (3) Gibberellic acid (4) Cytokinin
Sol. Answer (4)
Cytokinine is antagonistic to auxin.
30. Phytohormones responsible for cell division in callus are ______ and ______.
(1) ABA and cytokinin (2) Gibberellin and ethylene
(3) Auxin and cytokinin (4) Ethylene and cytokinin
Sol. Answer (3)
Auxin stimulates root formation and cytokinin promotes shoot formation during morphogenesis.
31. Which phytohormone is synthesised in ripened fruits?

(1) ABA (2) Auxin (3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene
Sol. Answer (4)
It causes ripening of fruits.
32. Which of the following is incorrect about ethylene?

(1) Promotes root hair formation
(2) It is natural and derivative of carotenoids
(3) It increases the number of female flowers
(4) It causes synchronisation of flowering and fruit set in pineapples
Sol. Answer (2)

Ethylene synthesized from methionine.
33. Select a correct match
(1) GA3 – Early seed production in conifers. (2) Cytokinin – Synchronise fruit set in pineapples.
(3) Auxin – Overcomes senescence. (4) Ethylene – Seed maturation and development
Sol. Answer (1)
In conifers, GA3 induced the early seed production.
34. Which of the following phytohormone is a derivative of carotenoids?
(1) Auxin (2) ABA (3) Ethylene (4) Cytokinin

Sol. Answer (2)
ABA - It is derivative of carotenoids, precursor of ABA is violaxanthin.
35. Match the following (Column - I with Column II)

Column I Column II
a. Ethephon (i) GA
b. Terpene (ii) Ethylene
c. Zeatin (iii) Natural auxin
d. IAA (iv) Cytokinin
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Sol. Answer (2)
Ethephon (source of ethylene)  Ethylene
Terpene  GA (derivative of terpenes)
Zeatin  Cytokinin
I AA  Natural auxin
36. Match the following (Column - I with Column II)

Column I Column II
a. Weedicide (i) GA3
b. Bolting (ii) Cytokinin
c. Thinning of cotton (iii) Ethylene
d. Lateral shoot growth (iv) 2, 4-D
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (2)
Weedicide  Auxin i.e., 2, 4, D
Bolting  GA
Thining of cotton  Ethylene
Lateral shoot growth  Cytokinin (Stimulate shoot formation)

37. Dormancy of seeds is broken by ethylene whereas it is induced by
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Auxin (3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellic acid
Sol. Answer (1)
Dormancy of seeds is induced by abscisic acid.
38. The plant hormone which closes the stomata in stressful conditions is
(1) Cytokinin (2) GA (3) Auxin (4) ABA
Sol. Answer (4)
To prevent transpiration in stressfull condition.
39. Both ethylene and ABA are responsible for

(1) Promoting the abscission of leaves and fruits (2) Inducing dormancy of seeds
(3) Stimulation of apical dominance (4) Ripening
Sol. Answer (1)
Ethylene and ABA causing shedding of leaves and fruits, flowers.
40. _________ is a period when growth and development is temporarily stopped.

(1) Dormancy (2) Abscission (3) Senescence (4) Vernalisation
Sol. Answer (1)
It is the condition of seed when it is unable to germinate inspite of availability of all environmental condition
suitable for germination.
(Photoperiodism)
41. Florigen results in conversion of

(1) Reproductive bud  Vegetative bud (2) Shoot apex  Flowering bud
(3) Root apex  Reproductive bud (4) Vegetative bud  Lateral shoot
Sol. Answer (2)
Florigen is a hormonal substance responsible for flowering, it migrates from leaves to shoot apices for inducing
flowering.
42. Which type of plants can blossom throughout the year?

(1) Long day plants (2) Short-long day plants (3) Short-day plants (4) Day neutral plants
Sol. Answer (4)
Day neutral plants i.e., no correlation between exposure to light and flower production.
43. Which of the following is an example of short day plant?

(1) Tobacco (2) Sugarbeet (3) Wheat (4) Radish
Sol. Answer (1)
Tobacco is a short day plant.
44. Most of the winter flowering plants belong to

(1) Short long day plants (2) Long day plants (3) Short day plants (4) Day neutral plants
Sol. Answer (3)
As sunlight duration is less during winters.
45. Cucumber and tomato are the examples of

(1) Day neutral plants (2) Short day plants (3) Long day plants (4) Long short day plants
Sol. Answer (1)
In cucumber and tomato flowering occurs throughout year i.e., day neutral plants.
46. The site of preception of light in plants for flowering is

(1) Stems (2) Roots (3) Leaves (4) Fruits
Sol. Answer (3)
During flowering stimulus recevied by leaves.
47. The hormonal substance which migrates from leaves to shoot apices to induce flowering is
(1) Dormin (2) Zeatin (3) Kinetin (4) Florigen
Sol. Answer (4)
Florigen is a hypothetical hormone.
(Vernalisation)
48. Some plants like sugarbeet and cabbage required low temperature for flowering. This phenomenon is called
(1) Photoperiodism (2) Parthenocarpy (3) Vernalisation (4) Abscission
Sol. Answer (3)
Low temperature treatment given to seeds to induce flowering.
49. Which of the following is incorrect about vernalisation?

(1) It prevents precocious reproductive development (2) It is observed in winter variety of wheat
(3) Flowering is stimulated by low temperature (4) It is the resting stage of seeds
Sol. Answer (4)
Vernalization is not the resting stage of seeds.
50. During vernalisation, the stimulus of low temperature is perceived by

(1) Stem apex (2) Leaves (3) Roots (4) Bark
Sol. Answer (1)
During vernalisation, the stimulus of low temperature is perceived by shoot apex of the plants.
SECTION - B
(Growth)
1. Growth in plant organs is
(1) Qualitative and extrinsic (2) Quantitative and intrinsic
(3) Qualitative and intrinsic (4) Quantitative and extrinsic
Sol. Answer (2)
Organs made up different tissues inside the plant body.
2. The growth in plants differs from growth in animals in

(1) Being localized and indefinite (2) Being indefinite
(3) Having indefinite lifespan (4) Having definite lifespan
Sol. Answer (1)
Growth in plant is unlimited, indeterminate and indefinite.
3. Find out the correct statement(s).
(a) Growth in plants is internal/intrinsic and open ended
(b) Formation of cellular materials is called real or protoplasmic growth
(c) Plant growth is diffused only during the early embryonic stage
(1) Only (a) & (b) (2) (b) only (3) Only (b) & (c) (4) (a), (b) & (c)
Sol. Answer (4)
(Differentiation, Dedifferentiation and Redifferentiation)
4. Find odd one w.r.t. differentiation

(1) Loss of nucleus in sieve (2) Death of protoplasm in tracheary elements
(3) Callus formation (4) Lignification in vessels
Sol. Answer (3)
Mass of undifferentiated cells.
5. Which of the given is/are examples of differentiation?

(1) Loss of nucleus and perforations in some sieve tube members
(2) Lignin deposition in tracheids and vessels
(3) Differential wall thickening in guard cells
(4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Permanent change in structure, biochemistry, size and physiology of cell is called differentiation.
(Development)
6. Larkspur, Ranunculus and cotton plants are similar in the presence of
(1) Developmental heterophylly (2) Plasticity
(3) Environmental heterophylly (4) Homospory
Sol. Answer (2)
Plasticity : Ability of plant to follow different pathways in response to environment to form different kinds of
structures.
(Plant Growth Regulators)
7. If an etiolated stem could be first saturated with auxin by spraying and then exposed to a streak of light from
one side, it will
(1) Bend towards the light (2) Bend away from the light
(3) Grow straight upwards (4) Be prevented from growing
Sol. Answer (1)
Auxin causes phototropic response.
8. Which is not a physiological effect of auxins?

(1) Cell elongation (2) Development of parthenocarpic fruits
(3) Prevention of abscission of leaves and fruits (4) Reversal of genetic dwarfism
Sol. Answer (4)

It is shown by Gibberellins.
9. The direction of the transport of auxins is

(1) Polar in basipetal (2) Polar in acropetal
(3) Through xylem (4) Through phloem
Sol. Answer (1)
Auxin movement is polar, it is basipetal in stem.
10. Pruning of tea plants is done to discard the effects of

(1) GA3 (2) Auxin (3) Cytokinin (4) ABA
Sol. Answer (2)
To get rid of apical dominance we do trimming of tea plant.
11. Which of the following hormone is weak organic acid having unsaturated ring structures and derived from amino
acid?
(1) Cytokinin (2) Auxin (3) Gibberellins (4) Ethylene
Sol. Answer (2)
Tryptophan is the amino acid from which auxin is derived.
12. Specific property attributed to GA is

(1) Shortening of genetically tall plants (2) Elongation of genetically dwarf plants
(3) Rooting of stem cuttings (4) Promotion of leaf and fruit fall
Sol. Answer (2)
Gibberellines promote the internodal elongation
13. The plant hormone which is basic in nature?

(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellins (3) Cytokinin (4) Abscisic acid
Sol. Answer (3)
Cytokinin is basic in nature while auxin, gibberelliness and abscisic acid are acidic in nature.
14. Delay of senescence or Richmond Lang effect is a physiological effect of

(1) IAA (2) CK (3) GA (4) C2H4
Sol. Answer (2)
Richmond-Lang effect  A dramatic effect of cytokinins to postpone senescence in plant tissues.
15. Shelf life of vegetables and cut flowers can be increased by commercial application of
(1) Cytokinin (2) AMO1618 (3) Cyclocel (4) Phosphon-D
Sol. Answer (1)
Cytokinin acts as overcoming of senescence.
16. The phytohormone combination which is the key regulator of cell differentiation and morphogenesis is
(1) Cytokinin & IAA (2) IAA & ABA (3) IAA & GA3 (4) Cytokinin & Gibberellin
Sol. Answer (1)
Auxin and Cytokinin hormones help in morphogenesis.
17. Cytokinins are said to be antiageing hormone because they delay the senescence by
(1) Controlling mobilisation of resources (2) Controlling protein synthesis
(3) Decreased morphogenesis and high respiration (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Cytokinin helps in delay of senescence by mobilisation of resources and control of protein synthesis.
18. Number of female flowers can be increased by application of

(1) IAA (2) C2H4 (3) CK (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
IAA, C2H4, CK all increases the number of female flowers.
19. Triple response is shown by hormone

(1) Ethylene (2) CK (3) 2, 4-D (4) GA3
Sol. Answer (1)
Triple response include inhibition of elongation, promotion of lateral growth and swelling.
20. CH2 = CH2 is mainly responsible for

(1) Formation of internode (2) Formation of nodes
(3) Ripening of fruits (4) Formation of internodes
Sol. Answer (3)
Ethylene is helpful in ripening of fruits.
21. The hormone which can replace long days and low temperature requirement for flowering in some plants is
(1) Gibberellin (2) Cytokinin (3) Vernalin (4) Ethylene
Sol. Answer (1)
Gibberelline hormone acts as substitute of vernalisation.
22. Gibberellin mediate amylase formation during germination of cereal grains is inhibited by
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Ethylene (3) Gibberellins (4) Cytokinins
Sol. Answer (1)
Abscisic acid is antagonistic to gibberelline.
23. Select an incorrect match

(1) Tryptophan - Auxin
(2) Methionine - Ethylene
(3) tRNA - Cytokinin
(4) Violaxanthin - GA3
Sol. Answer (4)
GA3 —— Acetyl CoA
24. Which is not true for abscisic acid?

(1) Acts as antitranspirant (2) Synthesized in chloroplast from carotenoids
(3) Increases stress tolerance in plants (4) Induces epinasty of leaves and flowers
Sol. Answer (4)
Epinasty induces by ethylene.
25. Which hormone stimulates the closure of stomata in the epidermis and increases the tolerance of plants to
various kinds of stresses?
(1) ABA (2) Cytokinin (3) GA3 (4) Auxin
Sol. Answer (1)

It acts as antitranspirant.
26. Match the following

Column I Column II
a. Auxin (i) Root hair formation
b. Cytokinin (ii) Seed development
c. Ethylene (iii) Xylem differentiation
d. ABA (iv) Nutrient mobilisation
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
Sol. Answer (4)
27. Condition of suspended growth due to external environmental conditions is called

(1) Dormancy (2) Rest (3) Quiescence (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
It is the condition of a seed when it is unable to germinate because conditions for germination are not
available.
28. Seed dormancy in tomato seeds is due to

(1) Impermeable seed coat (2) Immature embryo
(3) Presence of ferulic acid in pulp (4) Abscisic acid in pulp
Sol. Answer (3)
In tomato, seed dormancy occurs due to presence of ferulic acid in pulp.
29. Which of the given event does not happen during seed germination?
(1) Emergence of radicle (2) Increase in rate of respiration
(3) Hydrolysis of stored polysaccharides and proteins (4) Photosynthesis by cotyledons
Sol. Answer (4)
Photosynthesis absent in cotyledons.
(Photoperiodism)
30. For flowering, critical dark period should always be exceeded in

(1) Long day plants (2) Short day plants (3) Day neutral plants (4) All type of plants
Sol. Answer (2)
They require light below critical light / photoperiod.
31. Which of the following statements does not characterize photoperiodism?
(1) Mediated by florigen hormone
(2) Conversion of shoot apex into reproductive apex
(3) Red light is stimulatory in SDP, LDP and DNP for flowering
(4) Photoperiodic stimulus is perceived by mature leaf
Sol. Answer (3)
Photoperiodic induction : The photoperiod-regulated process that occurs in the leaves resulting in the trans-
mission of floral stimulus to shoot apex is collectively as photoperiodic induction. Number of photoperiodic
induction varies from plants to plants. i.e., duration of light and dark period.
32. Hypothetical 'florigen' could be produced prematurely in long day plant by exposing it to
(1) Shortening light period (2) Red light during night
(3) Extending dark period (4) Far red light
Sol. Answer (2)
Pfr
Since for long day plants  1 . Now day length does not have direct effect on buds but it causes leaves
Pr
to mature a hormone that moves from leaves to buds i.e., florigen in presence of red light Pr converted into
P fr .
33. All given statements are correct w.r.t. photoperiodism, except

(1) Discovered by Garner and Allard in a variety of tobacco
(2) Stimulus is received by young leaves
(3) Florigen is the hypothetical hormone produced in response to stimulus
(4) Florigen is transported to bud through phloem
Sol. Answer (2)
Very young leaves and senescent leaves are often infective or at least less effective than mature leaves.
34. Which of the following pair is mismatched?

(1) Triticum aestivum - LDP (2) Zea mays - DNP
(3) Glycine max - SDP (4) Raphanus sativus - SLDP
Sol. Answer (4)
Radish is LDP.
(Vernalisation)
35. Which is not a requirement of vernalisation?

(1) Aerobic condition (2) Moisture (3) Low temperature (4) Differentiated tissues
Sol. Answer (4)
Vernalisation occurs at meristematic tissue.
SECTION - C
1. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of [NEET-2017]
(1) Cytokinins (2) Ethylene (3) Auxins (4) Gibberellic acid
Sol. Answer (3)
Auxins prevent premature leaf and fruit fall.
NAA prevents fruit drop in tomato; 2,4-D prevents fruit drop in Citrus.
2. You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs
of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots? [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) IAA and gibberellin (2) Auxin and cytokinin
(3) Auxin and abscisic acid (4) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
Sol. Answer (2)
Auxins and cytokinin induce development of root and shoot in a culture medium (respectively).
3. Phytochrome is a [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

(1) Flavoprotein (2) Glycoprotein (3) Lipoprotein (4) Chromoprotein
Sol. Answer (4)
Photochrome is a blue-green pigment which absorb red and far red light. It is a coloured protein i.e.
chromoprotein.
4. The avena curvature is used for bioassay of [NEET-2016]
(1) Ethylene (2) ABA (3) GA3 (4) IAA
Sol. Answer (4)
Bioassay - It is a quantitative and qualitative test used to determine the nature and function of a biochemical by
using living material e.g., Avena curvature test used as bioassay for auxins.
5. Auxin can be bioassayed by [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Lettuce hypocotyl elongation (2) Avena coleoptile curvature
(3) Hydroponics (4) Potometer
Sol. Answer (2)
6. Typical growth curve in plants is [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Parabolic (2) Sigmoid (3) Linear (4) Stair-steps shaped
Sol. Answer (2)
In plants typical growth curve is sigmoid.
7. What causes a green plant exposed to the light on only one side, to bend toward the source of light as it
grows? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating greater cell elongation there
(2) Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis
(3) Green plants seek light because they are phototropic
(4) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to grow faster
Sol. Answer (1)
Auxin accumulated towards dark side and increase cell elongation, then bending occurs.
8. A few normal seedings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become white-
coloured like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Mutated (2) Embolised (3) Etiolated (4) Defoliated
Sol. Answer (3)
Yellowing of leaves due to absence of light is known as etiolation.
9. Which one of the following growth regulators is known as stress hormone? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Abscissic acid (2) Ethylene (3) GA3 (4) Indole acetic acid
Sol. Answer (1)
Synthesis of abscisic acid stimulated by drought and other adverse condition, thus it is called stress hormone.
10. Dr.F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a
bending when placed on one side of freshly - cut coleoptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment?
[AIPMT-2014]
(1) It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin
(2) It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth-promoting substances
(3) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin
(4) It demonstrated polar movement of auxins
Sol. Answer (2)
Growth Auxin 
Growth Auxin 
11. During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by [NEET-2013]

(1) Cytokinin (2) ABA (3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene
Sol. Answer (3)
GA
Embryo   Aleurone layer   - Amylase, Proteases

Seed germinates  ATP  Sugar  Starchy endosperm
12. Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what do the temperature and light control in the plants?
(1) Apical dominance (2) Flowering (3) Closure of stomata (4) Fruit elongation
Sol. Answer (2)
In the presence of light, florigen migrates from shoot to buds for inducing flowers.
13. Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Zeatin (2) Ethylene (3) ABA (4) IAA
Sol. Answer (3)
ABA is Anti GA.
i.e., ABA works opposite to GA.
14. Vernalisation stimulates flowering in [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

(1) Zamikand (2) Turmeric (3) Carrot (4) Ginger
Sol. Answer (3)
Vernalisation occurs in annual and biennial plants like wheat, cabbage, carrot etc.
15. Photoperiodism was first characterised in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Cotton (2) Tobacco (3) Potato (4) Tomato
Sol. Answer (2)
By Garner and Allard  Found that they can flower only if plants were exposed to number of short days.
16. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin (3) Phytochrome (4) Cytokinins
Sol. Answer (1)
Auxin move from illuminated site to dark site.
17. Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Thermotaxis (2) Thigmotaxis (3) Thigmonasty (4) Thigmotropism
Sol. Answer (4)
18. One of the commonly used plant growth hormone is tea plantations is [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Ethylene (2) Abscisic acid (3) Zeatin (4) Indole-3-acetic acid
Sol. Answer (3)
19. Root development is promoted by [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) Abscisic acid (2) Auxin (3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene
Sol. Answer (4)
Root development is a function of ethylene.
20. One of the synthetic auxin is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) IAA (2) GA (3) IBA (4) NAA
Sol. Answer (4)
21. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Indole-3-acetic acid (2) Gibberellic acid (3) Abscisic acid (4) Indole butyric acid
Sol. Answer (3)
Abscisic acid acts as derivative of carotenoids.
22. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is
indicated in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Floral parts (2) Vessels and tracheid differentiation
(3) Leaf abscission (4) Annual plants
Sol. Answer (3)
Ageing  Shedding
23. Importance of day length in flowering of plants was first shown in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Petunia (2) Lemna (3) Tobacco (4) Cotton
Sol. Answer (3)
Photoperiodism observed in tobacco by Garner and Allard.
24. “Foolish Seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) IAA (2) GA (3) ABA (4) 2, 4 – D
Sol. Answer (2)
First this hormone was discovered in rice seedling, in which some plants were tall and some were dwarf, due
to fungi Gibberella fujikuroi and called this disease "Bakane" (foolish seedling disease).
25. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is type of: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Autonomic movement of growth (2) Autonomic movement of locomotion
(3) Autonomic movement of variation (4) Paratonic movement of growth
Sol. Answer (1)
Autonomic movement of growth  A Plant movement that results from internal growth changes and is
independent of changes in external environment.
26. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) IAA – Cell wall elongation (2) Abscissic acid – Stomatal closure
(3) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall (4) Cytokinin – Cell division
Sol. Answer (3)
ABA promotes abscission.
27. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) 660 nm (2) 720 nm (3) 620 nm (4) 640 nm
Sol. Answer (1)
660 nm

Pr
Pfr
730 nm
28. How does pruning help in making the hedge dense? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock
(2) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance
(3) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning
(4) It releases wound hormones
Sol. Answer (2)
29. Treatment of seed at low temperature under moist conditions to break its dormancy is called :
(1) Scarification (2) Vernalization (3) Chelation (4) Stratification
Sol. Answer (4)
Low temperature treatment of seed for germination is called stratification.
30. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) -amylase (2) Lipase (3) Protease (4) Invertase
Sol. Answer (1)
31. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause
decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield?
(1) Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll
(2) Frequent irrigation of the crop
(3) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins along with a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer
(4) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5-trichlorophenoxy acetic
acid
Sol. Answer (3)
Cytokinin will delay senescence, promotes cell division and fertilizers will make the soil fertile.
32. The ability of the venus flytrap to capture insects is due to : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Chemical stimulation by the prey
(2) A passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant
(3) Specialized “muscle-like” cells
(4) Rapid turgor pressure changes
Sol. Answer (4)
33. The pineapple which under natural conditions is difficult to blossom has been made to produce fruits throughout
the year by application of
(1) IAA, IBA (2) NAA, 2, 4-D (3) Phenyl acetic acid (4) Cytokinin
Sol. Answer (2)
Auxin induces flowering in pineapple and litchi
34. If the growing plant is decapitated, then

(1) Its growth stops (2) Leaves become yellow and fall down
(3) Axillary buds are inactivated (4) Axillary buds are activated
Sol. Answer (4)
Due to presence of auxin at tip axillary bud are unable to develop into leaves, i.e., apical dominance but if
we remove tip then they can develop.
35. The movement of auxin is largely

(1) Centripetal (2) Basipetal (3) Acropetal (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (2)
From tip to base.
36. 2, 4-D is an effective

(1) Rodenticide (2) Wormicide (3) Fungicide (4) Weedicide
Sol. Answer (4)
2, 4-D is an auxin used to remove unwanted plants with crops.
37. Which one among the following chemicals is used for causing defoliation of forest trees?
(1) Malic hydrazide (2) 2, 4-D (3) AMO-1618 (4) Phosphon D
Sol. Answer (2)
2, 4-D is used as weedicides.
38. If the apical bud has been removed then we observe

(1) More lateral branches (2) More adventitious buds
(3) Plant growth stops (4) Flowering stops
Sol. Answer (1)
Loss of apical dominance.
39. Which of the following prevents the fall of fruits?

(1) GA3 (2) NAA (3) Ethylene (4) Zeatin
Sol. Answer (2)
Auxin prevents abscision.
40. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin (3) Ethylene (4) Abscissic acid
Sol. Answer (1)
Precursor : Tryptophan require Zn2+ for its synthesis.
41. The maximum growth rate occurs in

(1) Stationary phase (2) Senescent phase (3) Lag phase (4) Exponential phase
Sol. Answer (4)
The growth rate is maximum in exponential phase.
42. Gibberellic acid induces flower

(1) In short day plants under long day conditions (2) In day-neutral plants under dark conditions
(3) In some gymnospermic plants only (4) In long day plants under short day conditions
Sol. Answer (4)
GB
Florigen
Anthesin
Under short day condition GB will be deficient but anthesin is sufficient, so if we provide GB then it
induces flower.
43. Which breaks dormancy of potato tuber?

(1) Gibberellin (2) IAA (3) ABA (4) Zeatin
Sol. Answer (1)
Gibberellin breaks the dormancy and promote germination.
44. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to
(1) Indole acetic acid (2) Cytokinins (3) Gibberellins (4) Ethylene
Sol. Answer (3)
Shows process of bolting, causes stem elongation in rosette plants.
45. Natural cytokinins are synthesized in tissues that are

(1) Senescent (2) Dividing rapidly (3) Storing food material (4) Differentiating
Sol. Answer (2)
Cytokinins are synthesized in rapidly dividing cells.
46. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by

(1) High auxin : cytokinin ratio (2) High cytokinin : auxin ratio
(3) High gibberellin : auxin ratio (4) High gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
Sol. Answer (2)
Auxin
 1 
 Root
Cytokinin
CY
 1 
 Shoot
Auxin
47. Coconut milk factor is
(1) Auxin (2) A Gibberellin (3) Abscissic acid (4) Cytokinin
Sol. Answer (4)
Coconut milk also has cytokinin.
48. Which combination of gases is suitable for fruit ripening?

(1) 80% CH4 and 20% CO2 (2) 80% CO2 and 20% O2
(3) 80% C2H4 and 20% CO2 (4) 80% CO2 and 20% CH2
Sol. Answer (3)
Ethylene causes fruits ripening
49. Which hormone is responsible for fruit ripening?

(1) Ethylene (2) Auxin (3) Ethyl chloride (4) Cytokinin
Sol. Answer (1)
Ethylene is fruit ripening hormone.
50. ABA is involved in

(1) Shoot elongation (2) Increased cell division (3) Dormancy of seeds (4) Root elongation
Sol. Answer (3)
ABA is growth inhibitor.
51. Hormone responsible for senescence

(1) ABA (2) Auxin (3) GA (4) Cytokinin
Sol. Answer (1)
Growth inhibiting hormone.
52. By which action a seed coat becomes permeable to water?

(1) Scarification (2) Stratification (3) Vernalization (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Removal of seed coat or weakening of seed coat is called scarification.
53. The response of different organisms to the environmental rhythms of light and darkness is called
(1) Vernalization (2) Photoperiodism (3) Phototaxis (4) Phototropism
Sol. Answer (2)
The effect of light duration for flowering is known as photoperiodism.
54. Which plant is LDP?
(1) Tobacco (2) Glycine max (3) Mirabilis jalapa (4) Spinach
Sol. Answer (4)
Spinach is long day plants.
55. Proteinaceous pigment which control the activities concerned with light
(1) Phytochrome (2) Chlorophyll (3) Anthocyanin (4) Carotenoids
Sol. Answer (1)
Phytochrome is the photoreceptor pigment.
56. One set of the plant was grown at 12 hours day and 12 hours night period cycles and it flowered while in
the other set night phase was interrupted by flash of light and it did not produce flower. Under which one of
the following categories will you place other set of plant?
(1) Long day (2) Darkness neutral (3) Day neutral (4) Short day
Sol. Answer (4)
Short day plant are actually long night plant, when night phase was interrupted by flash of light, it did not
produce flower.
57. What will be the effect on phytochrome in a plant subjected to continuous red light?
(1) Phytochrome synthesis will increase (2) Level of phytochrome will decrease
(3) Phytochrome will be destroyed (4) First (2) then (1)
Sol. Answer (4)
In continuous red light Pr gets converted to Pfr i.e., Pr level decreasing, at same time Pfr synthesis increases.
58. The pigment, that absorbs red and far red light in plants, is
(1) Phytochrome (2) Carotene (3) Xanthophyll (4) Cytochrome
Sol. Answer (1)
Red light

Pr
Pfr
Far red light
59. Phytochrome becomes active in

(1) Red light (2) Green light (3) Blue light (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Red light

Pr Pfr
60. The viability of seeds is tested by

(1) Safranin (2) 2, 6 dichlorophenol indophenols
(3) 2, 3, 5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride (4) DMSO
Sol. Answer (3)
2, 3, 5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride is a white salt which gives a colourless solution in water. In living cells,
it gets hydrated to red formazan. Accordingly the red staining of seed endosperm or embryo indicate viability
of seed.
61. The twinning of tendrils around a support is a good example of

(1) Phototropism (2) Chemotropism (3) Nastic movements (4) Thigmotropism
Sol. Answer (4)
It is growth with respect to touch, enables roots to grow around obstacles and is responsible for ability of shoots
of climbing plants to wrap around other structures for support.
62. The closing and opening of the leaves of Mimosa pudica is due to
(1) Seismonastic movement (2) Chemonastic movement
(3) Thermonastic movement (4) Hydrotropic movement
Sol. Answer (1)
Seismonastic movement
Diffused movement
Response to non-directional shock stimulus; e.g., when lightly struck / shaken.
SECTION - D
1. A : If a plant is kept horizontally, auxin accumulates on lower surface.

R : Displacement of statoliths and other cell organelles to lower surface modifies the translocation pattern of
auxin.
Sol. Answer (1)
At tip of each root there are cells that contain membrane bound starch grain called statoliths  Gravity sensor
in plants.
2. A : Only bud, or embryo can be vernalized.

R : Vernalization requires dividing cells.
Sol. Answer (1)
Bud, embryo has dividing cells.
3. A : Phytochrome, a protein, has regulatory function.

R : Various morphogenetic processes are regulated by it.
Sol. Answer (1)
Phytochrome is a protein, regulates. Flowering in short day and long day plants.
4. A : Auxins treatment cause acidification of cellwall and help in cell elongation.
R : Loosening of cell wall microfibrils occurs.
Sol. Answer (1)

Auxin makes Cell wall Acidic
Elongation of cell Enzyme (Epansin)
New cell material diluted (low pH)
Looser up Cellulose breaks H-bonds

network
5. A : Cytokinins are anti ageing hormones.
R : They cause changes in osmotic potential by increasing the volume of mature cells.
Sol. Answer (2)
Cytokinins delay the senescence i.e., antiageing hormone and increase the mobilisation of elements.
6. A : Gibberellic acid increases the yield of malt from barley grain.

R : Gibberellins stimulate the synthesis of amylase, protease and other hydrolytic enzymes for mobilisation of
reserve food.
Sol. Answer (1)
(Malt)
Embryo GA
Aleurone layer Beer Maltose
Enzyms
Hydrolytic enzymes Starchy endosperm
( - amylase)
Seed germination ATP Sugar
7. A : 2, 4-D is widely used by farmers in agricultural and horticultural practices.

R : Flowering in most plants can be initiated by using high concentration of Auxin.
Sol. Answer (3)
2, 4D  to remove weeds.
Florigen  flowers
8. A : Cytokinin along with the auxin are required for morphogenesis.

R : More cytokinin to auxin ratio promote root initiation during micropropagation.
Sol. Answer (3)
Cytokin
ratio promotes shots and roots.
Auxin
Cytokin Auxin
 1  Shoot,  1  Root
Auxin Cytokin
9. A : Seeds do not sprout when ABA is overcome by Gibberellins.

R : GA inhibits protein and RNA synthesis.
Sol. Answer (4)
Seeds/buds sprout only when ABA is overcome by gibberellins. ABA inhibits protein and RNA synthesis.
10. A : Soyabean and sugarbeet flower when they are exposed to a photoperiod shorter than critical period.
R : Most of winter flowering plants are LDP.
Sol. Answer (4)
Soyabean  Short day plant.
Sugerbeet – Long day plant.
Winter flowers – SDP.


Aakash Botany Study Package 3 Solutions

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Aakash Botany Study Package 3 Solutions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Chapter 9

2. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. criteria of essentiality of minerals.

3. How many elements have been found to be essential for plants?

4. The concentration of elements such as carbon and nitrogen in plants is

5. Which of the following is not essential for all plants?

8. Which of the following is a micronutrient?

9. Which of the following is not a beneficial element?

10. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. micronutrients.

11. Major function of trace elements is to act as

13. Element present in middle lamella is

Ca and Mg form middle lamella.

14. An element which helps in joining the subunits of ribosomes is

16. Which of the following groups of elements are mobile?

Nitrate, Cl , K + , Sulphate maintain the osmotic balance.

K+ maintains turgidity of guard cells.

18. Which enzyme is activated by zinc?

Stabilize binding is a dehydrogenase enzyme, facilitate interconversion between

20. Component of nitrogenase and nitrate reductase is

21. An immobile element present in plant tissues is

25. Which of the following is not a physiological role of potassium?

26. An element involved in metabolism of urea is

28. Plants absorb zinc as

29. Mineral present in cytochrome is commonly

30. An element essential for nitrogen metabolism is

31. Boron takes part in

34. Death of leaf tissues in plants is caused by deficiency of

Formation of infectious thread

Division of cortical and pericycle cells

Leghaemoglobin synthesis for acting as oxygen scavanger

38. Conversion of NH3  NO2–  NO3– is called

39. The free living, aerobic and saprotrophic N2-fixing microbe is

40. Reaction carried out by N2 metabolising microbes include

N2  8e   8H  16ATP  2NH3  H2  16ADP  16Pi

42. Non-symbiotic nitrogen fixing prokaryote is

43. Amides are transported to the other parts of plant through

44. Enzyme nitrogenase is

45. Function of leghaemoglobin during N2-fixation is

46. The given equation refers to

47. Pigment leghaemoglobin is present in the roots of

49. The function of amides is all, except

50. Which of the following is an amide involved in nitrogen metabolism by plants?

(Methods to Study the Mineral Requirements of Plants)

2. Which is not a criteria for essentiality of a mineral?

3. Which is not a true statement regarding macronutrients?

4. Choose correct statement regarding micronutrients

5. Deficiency of which element causes deficiency of nitrogen

6. Minerals associated with redox reactions are

7. Minerals which maintain cation - anion balance in cells are

8. Which of the following groups of elements are mobile?

9. Which of the following elements are required for chlorophyll synthesis?

10. If chloroplast is burnt, then which of the following is left?

11. Which is not a trace element?

12. Find odd one (w.r.t. critical element)

13. Silicon, Cobalt, Sodium and Selenium are

18. Essential elements are :

19. Movement of electrolytes through the roots is generally

20. Initial phase of ion uptake

21. The translocation of solute is

(Soil as Reservoir of Essential Elements)

23. Process of nitrification and nitrate assimilation are

NH3 NH–2 NH–3

26. Which of the following is/are diazotrophs?

31. Select the correct statements from the given

32. Nitrogenase enzyme found in root nodules in legumes contains