Physics - 10th Class - Lakhmir Singh Solutions (All Chapters)

Lakhmir Singh Solutions Class 10 Physics
Chapter 1 Electricity
Page No.5
Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. By what other name is the unit joule/coulomb called?
Answer:
The other name of the unit joule/coulomb is volt.
Volt is the SI unit of electric potential or of electromotive force. It is represented by the letter V. Volt is a
representation of the potential difference between the two points of a current-carrying wire of 1 ampere such that
when the power dissipates between these two points, it is equal to 1 watt.
Q2. Which of the following statements correctly defines a volt?

a) A volt is a joule per ampere
b) A volt is a joule per coulomb
Answer:
The correct statement that defined a volt is b) A volt is a joule per coulomb
Volt is a joule per coulomb because joule is a unit of work done while coulomb is a unit for the charge. The ratio
of work done to the charge is the definition of potential and volt is the unit of potential difference. Therefore, it
can be said that one joule per coulomb is equal to the unit of the potential difference which is also equal to one
volt.
(1 Joule)/(1Coulomb) = 1Volt
Q3. a) What do the letters p.d stand for?

b) Which device is used to measure p.d?
Answer:
a) p.d stands for potential difference
Potential difference is defined as the difference between the energy carried by the two points in the circuit.
Potential difference is also equal to the product of the amount of current and the resistance. Following is the
formula used for calculating potential difference:
V=I×R
Where,
• V is the voltage
• I is the current
• R is the resistance
b) Voltmeter is used for measuring p.d

An instrument that is used for measuring the voltage in volts is known as a voltmeter. Letter V is used for
representing voltmeter between the two terminals.
Q4. What is meant by saying that the electric potential at a point is 1 volt?
Answer:
The electric potential at a point is 1 volt means 1 joule of work is done in moving 1 unit of positive charge from
infinity to that particular point.
Q5. How much work is done when one-coulomb charge moves against a potential difference of 1 volt?
Answer:
Given,
Potential difference = 1V
Charge to be moved = 1C
To find,
Work done = ?
We know that the work done is given as:
Work done = Potential difference × Charge moved
= 1 × 1 = 1J
Therefore, 1J of work is done to move 1C charge with 1V potential difference.
Q6. What is the SI unit of potential difference?

Answer:
The SI unit of potential difference is volt. It is the difference of potential that one ampere of current is carried
against one-ohm resistance.
Q7. How much work is done in moving a charge of 2C across two points having a potential difference of
12V?
Answer:
Given,
Charge moved = 2C
To find,
Work done = ?
Work done = p.d × charge moved
= 12 × 2 = 24J
Therefore, 24J of work is done to move a charge of 2C with a potential difference of 12V.
Q8. What is the unit of electric charge?

Answer:
Coulomb is the unit of electric charge. Coulomb is defined as the charged that is transferred with the help of a
steady current of one ampere in one second.
Q9. Define one coulomb charge.

Answer:
One coulomb charge is defined as the quantity of charge that exerts a force of 9 × 10 Newton on a charge which
9
is placed at a distance of 1m from it.
Q10. Fill in the following blanks with suitable words:

a) Potential difference is measured in …………… by using a ……….. placed in …………… across a
component.
b) Copper is a good ……….. plastic is an …………….
Answer:
a) Volts, voltmeter, parallel
b) Conductor, insulator
Short Answer Type Questions

Q11. What is meant by conductors and insulators? Give two examples of conductors and two of insulators.
Answer:
Conductors are defined as the materials through which electric current can flow. Almost all the metals are
examples of conductors. Following are the examples of conductors:
Copper, silver
Insulators are defined as the materials through which electric current cannot flow. Non-metals are examples of
insulators. Following are the examples of insulators:
Plastic, cotton
Q12. Which of the following are conductors and which are insulators?
Sulphur, silver, copper, cotton, aluminium, air, nichrome, graphite, paper, porcelain, mercury, mica,
Bakelite, polythene, manganin
Answer:
Conductor: Silver, copper, aluminium, nichrome, graphite, mercury, manganin
Insulator: Sulphur, cotton, air, paper, porcelain, mica, Bakelite, polythene
Q13. What do you understand by the term “electric potential” at a point? What is the unit of electric
potential?
Answer:
The electric potential at a point is defined as the work done to move a unit positive charge from infinity to a
particular point. Volt is the unit of electric potential.
Q14. a) State the relation between potential difference, work done, and charge moved.
b) Calculate the work done in moving a charge of 4 Coulomb from a point at 220 Volts to another point at
230 Volt.
Answer:
a) Potential difference = (Work done)/(Charge moved)
b) Given,
V1 = 220V
V2 = 230V
Charge moved = 4C
Potential difference = ?
We know that potential difference is:
Potential difference = V2 – V1
= 230 – 220 = 10
Work done = Potential difference × charge moved
= 10 × 4 = 40J
Therefore, the work done is 40J to move charges.
Q15. a) Name a device that helps to measure the potential difference across a conductor.
b) How much energy is transferred by a 12V power supply to each coulomb of charge which it moves
around a circuit?
Answer:
a) Voltmeter
b) Given,
Charge moved = 1C
Work done = ?
Work done = Potential difference × Charge moved
= 12 × 1 = 12 Joules
Therefore, 12J work is done on a 1C charge.
Page No.6
Long Answer Type Questions

Q16. a) What do you understand by the term “potential difference”?
b) What is meant by saying that the potential difference between two points is 1 volt?
c) What is the potential difference between the terminals of a battery if 250 joules of work is required to
transfer 20 coulombs of charge from one terminal of battery to the other?
d) What is a voltmeter? How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure the potential difference
between two points. Explain with the help of a diagram.
e) State whether a voltmeter has a high resistance or a low resistance. Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
a) The amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to the other is defined as the
potential difference between the two points.
b) The potential difference between two points is 1 volt means 1 joule of work is done to move 1 coulomb of
electric charge from one point to another.
c) Given,
Work done = 250J
Charge moved = 20C
Potential difference = ?
We know that potential difference is given as:
Potential difference = (Work done)/(Charge moved)
= (250)/(20) = 12.5
Therefore, 12.5J of potential difference is required for moving 1 coulomb of charge when the work done is 250J.
d) A voltmeter is defined as the device that is used for measuring the potential difference between the two points
in an electric circuit. The voltmeter is usually connected parallel to the two points where the potential difference
needs to be measured.
e) The voltmeter has a high resistance because voltmeter needs to take a negligible amount of current from an
electric circuit.
Multiple Choice Questions

Q17. The work done in moving a unit charge across two points in an electric circuit is a measure of:
a) Current
b) Potential difference
c) Resistance
d) Power
Answer:
The correct option is b) Potential difference.
Potential difference is the measure of the work done in moving a unit charge across two points in an electric
circuit.
Q18. The device used for measuring potential difference is known as:
a) Potentiometer
b) Ammeter
c) Galvanometer
d) Voltmeter
Answer:
The correct option is d) Voltmeter
Voltmeter is the device that is used for measuring potential difference.
Q19. Which of the following units could be used to measure electric charge?
a) Ampere
b) Joule
c) Volt
d) Coulomb
Answer:
The correct option d) Coulomb
Coulomb is the unit that is used for measuring electric charge.
Q20. The unit for measuring potential difference is:

a) Watt
b) Ohm
c) Volt
d) kWh
Answer:
The correct option is c) Volt
Volt is the unit used for measuring the potential difference.
Q21. One coulomb charge is equivalent to the charge obtained in:

a) 2.6×10 electrons
19
b) 6.2×10 electrons
19
c) 2.65×10 electrons
18
d) 6.25×10 electrons
18
Answer:
The correct option is d) 6.25×10 electrons
18
There are 6.25×10 electrons in one coulomb charge.

18
High Order Thinking Skills

Q22. Three 2V cells are connected in series and used as battery in a circuit.
a) What is the p.d at the terminals of the battery?
b) How many joules of electric energy does 1C gain on passing through one cell and all the three cells?
Answer:
a) When three cells with 2 volts respectively are connected in series for the construction of the battery, then the
total potential difference between the terminals of the battery will be 6V.
b) For one cell:

Given,
Charge moved = 1C
Work done = ?
We know that work done is given as:
Work done = potential difference × charge moved
= 2 × 1 = 2J
Therefore, work done to move a charge of 1C with the potential difference of 2V is 2J.
For three cells:
Given,
Change moved = 1C
Work done = ?
= 6 × 1 = 6J
Therefore, to move 1C charge with a potential difference of 6V, the work done is 6J.
Q23. The atoms of copper contain electrons and the atoms of rubber also contain electrons. Then why does
copper conduct electricity but the rubber does not conduct electricity?
Answer:
The atoms of copper contain electrons and the atoms of rubber also contain electrons but copper conducts
electricity while rubber doesn’t conduct electricity because copper has free electrons that are held loosely to each
other by the nuclei of the atom. These freely available electrons are responsible for the conduction of electricity in
copper.
Whereas in rubber the electrons are under a strong influence of the nuclei of the atoms. There are no much free
electrons available for the conduction of electricity in the rubber. Therefore, the rubber doesn’t conduct
electricity.
Lakhmir Singh Physics Class 10 Solutions Page No.11

Q1. By what name is the physical quantity coulomb/second called?
Answer:
Ampere is the name that is used for the physical quantity coulomb/second.
It is defined as the elementary charge e with a value of 1.602 × 10 is expressed in unit C which is equal to A.s
-19
Q2. What is the flow of charge called?

Answer:
The flow of charge is called as an electric current.
Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of negative charges in the conductor. Or it can also be defined as the
continuous flow of electrons in an electric circuit.
Q3. What actually travels through the wires when you switch on a light?
Answer:
There is a flow of electrons in the wires when the light is switched on.
Q4. Which particles constitute the electric current in a metallic conductor?

Answer:
Electrons are the particles that constitute the electric current in a metallic conductor.
Q5. a) In which direction does conventional current flow around a circuit?

b) In which direction do electrons flow?
Answer:
a) The flow of conventional current takes place from the positive terminal of the batter to the negative terminal in
the outer circuit.
b) The direction in which electrons flow is from the negative terminal to the positive terminal in the battery. The
flow of electrons is usually in the opposite direction of the conventional current.
Q6. Which of the following equations shows the correct relationship between electrical units?
1A = 1C/s or 1C = 1A/s
Answer:
The correct is 1A = 1C/s
Q7. What is the unit of electric current?

Answer:
The unit of electric current is ampere.
Q8. a) How many milliamperes are there in 1 ampere?

b) How many microamperes are there in 1 ampere?
Answer:
a) Following is the milliamperes that are there in 1 ampere:
1 amp = 10 milliamp
3
b) Following is the microamperes that are there in 1 ampere:

1 amp = 10 micro amp
6
Q9. Which of the two is connected in series: ammeter or voltmeter?

Answer:
Out of ammeter and voltmeter, ammeter is connected in series.
Q10. Compare how an ammeter and a voltmeter are connected in a circuit?

Answer:
In an electric circuit, ammeter is connected in series while the voltmeter is connected in parallel.
Q11. What do the following symbols mean in circuit diagrams?
Answer:
a) The symbol in the above means variable resistance in the circuit diagram.
b) The symbol in the above means a closed plug key in the circuit diagram.
Q12. If 20C of charge pass a point in a circuit in 1s, what current is flowing?
Answer:
Given,
Charge moved, Q = 20C
Time taken, t = 1s
To find,
Current, I = ?
We know that the current is calculated as follows:
I = Q/t
Substituting the values, we get
I = 20/1 = 20A
Therefore, 20A current is required to move a charge of 20C in 1s time.
Q13. A current of 4A flows around a circuit for 10s. How much charge flows past a point in the circuit in
this time?
Answer:
Given,
Current, I = 4A
Time taken, t = 10s
To find,
Charge moved, Q = ?
We know that,
I = Q/t
Substituting the values in the above equation, we get
4 = Q/10
Q = 4×10 = 40C
Therefore, 40C charge is moved in 10s when the current flowing is 4A.
Q14. What is the current in a circuit if the charge passing each point is 20C in 40s?
Answer:
Given,
Time taken, t = 40s
To find,
Current, I = ?
We know that,
I = Q/t
Substituting the values in the above equation we get
I = 20/40 = 0.5A
Therefore, 0.5A is required for moving 20C charge in 40s.

a) A current is a flow of …….. for this to happen there must be a ………
b) Current is measured in ……….. using an ………….placed in ……..in a circuit.
Answer:
a) Electrons and closed
b) Amperes, ammeter, and series

Q16. a) Name a device which helps to maintain potential difference across a conductor (say a bulb).
b) If a potential difference of 10V causes a current of 2A to flow for 1 minute, how much energy is
transferred?
Answer:
a) The potential difference across a conductor is maintained with the help of a cell or a battery.
b) Given,
Potential difference = 10V,
Current, I = 2A
Time taken, t = 60s
We know that:
I = Q/t
So, Q = I×t
Substituting the values, we get
Q = 2 × 60 = 120
Therefore, charge moved is 120C
We also know that,
= 120 × 10
=1200J
Therefore, work done to move a charge of 120C is 1200J.
Q17. a) What is an electric current? What makes an electric current flow in a wire?
b) Define the unit of electric current.
Answer:
a) An electric current is defined as the flow of electric charges through a conductor such that the potential
difference between the two points in the conductor is responsible for the flow of electric current.
b) Ampere is the unit of electric current. It is defined as 1 coulomb of charge flowing through a cross-section of a
conductor in 1 second such that the electric current flowing through the conductor is 1 ampere.
Q18. What is an ammeter? How is it connected in a circuit? Draw a diagram to illustrate your answer.
Answer:
An ammeter is defined as a device that is used for measuring the flow of electric current. An ammeter is always
connected in series with the electric current through which the current needs to be measured. Following is the
illustration of the connection of ammeter in series with the electric circuit:
Q19. a) Write down the formula which relates electric charge, time, and electric current.
b) A radio set draws a current of 0.36A for 15 minutes. Calculate the amount of electric charge that flows
through the circuit.
Answer:
a) The relation between electric charge, time, and electric current is given as:
Current = (charge moved)/(time)
While work done = potential difference × charge moved
Therefore, above is the relation between electric, time, and electric current
b) Given,
Current, I = 0.36A
Time taken, t = 15 min = 900s
We know that,
Q=I×t
= 0.36 × 900
= 324C
Therefore, 324C charge flows through the circuit.
Q20. Why should the resistance of:

a) An ammeter be very small?
b) A voltmeter be very large?
Answer:
a) The resistance of an ammeter should be very small because the value of the current flowing through the circuit
remains unchanged.
b) The resistance of a voltmeter should be very large because the current that flows through the voltmeter should
be of negligible value.
Q21. Draw circuit symbols for

a) fixed resistance
b) variable resistance
c) a cell
d) a battery of three cells
e) an open switch
f) a closed switch
Answer:
Q22. What is a circuit diagram? Draw the labelled diagram of an electric circuit comprising of a cell, a
resistor, an ammeter, a voltmeter, and a closed switch or closed plug key. Which of the two has a large
resistance: an ammeter or a voltmeter?
Answer:
A circuit diagram is defined as a diagram which is used for indicating the different components in an electric
circuit and those that are connected with the help of electric symbols.
Also, a voltmeter will have a high resistance than an ammeter.
Q23. If the charge on an electron is 1.6 × 10 coulombs, how many electrons should pass through a
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conductor in 1 second to constitute 1 ampere current?

Answer:
Given,
Charge moved = 1.6 × 10 coulombs
-19
Current, I = 1A
Time taken, t = 1s
We know that,
I = Q/t
1 = Q/1
Q = 1C
We also know that when the charge is 1.6 × 10 coulombs, the number of electrons present is 1
-19
Therefore, when a charge of 1 coulomb is present, the number of electrons is given as:
(1)/( 1.6 × 10 ) = 0.625 × 10 = 6.25 × 10
-19 -19 18
Q24. The potential difference across a lamp is 12V. How many joules of electrical energy are changed into
heat and light when:
a) a charge of 1C passes through it?
b) a charge of 5C passes through it?
c) a current of 2A flows through it for 10s?
Answer:
Given,
a) Potential difference = (work done)/(charge moved)
= 12 × 1 = 12J
Therefore, 12J of electrical energy is converted into heat and light.
b) Work done = potential difference × charge moved

= 12 × 5 = 60J
c) I = Q/t
Q=I×t
= 2 × 10 = 20C
= 12 × 20 = 240J
Lakhmir Singh Physics Class 10 Solutions Page No.12
Q25. In 10s a charge of 25C leaves a battery and 200J of energy are delivered to an outside circuit as a
result.
a) What is the potential difference across the battery?
b) What current flows from the battery?
Answer:
Given,
Time taken, t = 10s
Energy delivered is work done = 200J
a) Potential difference = (work done)/(charge moved) = (200)/(25) = 8V
b) I = Q/t = 25/10 = 2.5A

Long Answer Type Question
Q26. a) Define electric current. What is the SI unit of electric current.
b) One coulomb of charge flows through any cross-section of a conductor in 1 second. What is the current
flowing through the conductor?
c) Which instrument is used to measure electric current? How should it be connected in a circuit?
d) What is the conventional direction of the flow of electric current? How does it differ from the direction
of flow of electrons?
e) A flash of lightning carries 10C of charge which flows for 0.01s. What is the current? If the voltage is
10MV, what is the energy?
Answer:
a) The flow of electric charges or electrons in a conductor such as a metal wire is known as electric current.
Ampere is the SI unit of electric charges.
b) The current flowing through the conductor when one coulomb of charge flows through any cross-section of a
conductor in 1 second is 1 ampere.
c) For the measurement of electric current, an ammeter is used which is connected in series in the circuit.
d) The direction of conventional direction of flow of electric current takes place from the positive terminal of a
battery to the negative terminal across the outer circuit. It is different from the direction of flow of electrons
because the electrons flow from the negative terminal to the positive terminal.
e) Given,
Time taken, t = 0.01s
We know that,
Current, I = Q/t = 10/0.01 = 1000A
Potential difference = Work done/ charge moved
Work done = potential difference × charge moved = 10 × 10 × 10 = 100 × 10 = 100MJ
6 6
Energy = work done = 100MJ

Q27. The other name of potential difference is
a) Ampereage
b) Waltage
c) Voltage
d) Potential energy
Answer:
The other name of potential difference is c) Voltage
Q28. Which statement/statements is/are correct?

a) An ammeter is connected in series in a circuit and a voltmeter is connected in parallel
b) An ammeter has a high resistance
c) A voltage has a low resistance
Answer:
The correct statement is a) An ammeter is connected in series in a circuit and a voltmeter is connected in parallel
Q29. Which unit could be used to measure current?

a) Watt
b) Coulomb
c) Volt
d) Ampere
Answer:
The correct option that could be used to measure current unit is d) Ampere
Q30. If the current through a flood lamp is 5A, what charge passes in 10 seconds?
a) 0.5C
b) 2C
c) 5C
d) 50C
Answer:
Given,
Current, I = 5A
Time taken, t = 10s
Charge moved, Q = ?
I = Q/t
Q=I×t
Q = 50C
Therefore, the correct option is d) 50C
Q31. If the amount of electric charge passing through a conductor in 10 minutes is 300C, the current
flowing is:
a) 30A
b) 0.3A
c) 0.5A
d) 5A
Answer:
Given,
Charge moved = 300C
Time taken = 10 mins
Current = ?
I = Q/t
Substituting, we get I = 0.5A
Therefore, the correct option is c) 0.5A

Q32. A student made an electric circuit shown here to measure the current through two lamps.
a) Are the lamps in series or parallel?
b) The student has made a mistake in this circuit. What is the mistake?
c) Draw a circuit diagram to show the correct way to connect the circuit. Use the proper circuit symbols in
your diagram.
Answer:
a) The lamps are arranged in series.
b) The mistake made by the student is that the ammeter is connected in parallel. It should be connected in series.
c)
Q33. Draw a circuit diagram to show how 3 bulbs can be lit from a battery so that 2 bulbs are controlled by
the same switch while the third bulb has its own switch.
Answer:
Q34. An electric heater is connected to the 230V mains supply. A current of 8A flows through the heater.
a) How much charge flows around the circuit each second?
b) How much energy is transferred to the heater each second?
Answer:
Given,
Current, I = 8A
a) I = Q/t
8 = Q/1
Q = 8 × 1 = 8C
Therefore, the charge flow around the circuit for every second is 8C.
b) We know that energy transferred = work done

Potential difference = work done/charge moved
230 = work done/8
Therefore, work done = 230 × 8 = 1840J
Q35. How many electrons are flowing per second past a point in a circuit in which there is a current of 5A?
Answer:
Given,
Current, I = 5A
Time taken, t = 1s
We know that,
I = Q/t
Q = I × t = 5 × 1 = 5C
Number of electrons present in 1.6 × 10 C = 1
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Number of electrons present in 5C = (5)/( 1.6 × 10 ) = 31.25 × 10 C

-19 18
Page No: 18

Q1. Name the law which relates the current in a conductor to the potential difference across its ends.
Answer:
The law that relates the current in a conductor to the potential difference across its ends is Ohm’s law.
Q2. Name the unit of electrical resistance and give its symbol.
Answer:
The unit of electrical resistance is Ohm. Following is the symbol of ohm: Ω
Q3. Name the physical quantity whose unit is “ohm”.
Answer:
The physical quantity whose unit is “ohm” is electric resistance.
Q4. What is the general name of the substances having infinitely high electrical resistance?
Answer:
Insulators are the substances that are having infinitely high electrical resistance.
Q5. Keeping the resistance constant, the potential difference applied across the ends of a component is
halved. By how much does the current change?
Answer:
Given,
Resistance = constant
We know that V = IR
When resistance, R is constant, V is proportional to I
Therefore, when V is halved, I also becomes half.
Q6. State the factors on which the strength of electric current flowing in a given conductor depends.
Answer:
Following are the factors on which the strength of electric current flowing in a given conductor depends:
a) Voltage (or potential difference) across the ends of the conductor
b) Resistance offered by the conductor
Q7. Which has less electrical resistance: a thin wire or a thick wire of the same length and same material?
Answer:
A thick wire with the same length and same material as that of a thin wire will have less electrical resistance
because the number of electrons present in the thick wire is more than the thin wire.
Q8. Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of a circuit is halved. By how much does the
current change?
Answer:
Given,
Potential difference = constant
Also, we know that,
V = IR
I = V/R
Given that V is constant, therefore, I will be proportional to 1/R.
Therefore, when R is halved, I also becomes double.
Q9. A potential difference of 20V is applied across the ends of a resistance of 5 ohms. What current will
flow in the resistance?
Answer:
Given,
Potential difference, V = 20V
Resistance, R = 5 Ohms
Current, I = ?
We know that,
V = IR
20 = I × 5
I = 20/5 = 4A
Q10. A resistance of 20 ohms has a current of 2 amperes flowing in it. What potential difference is there
between its ends?
Answer:
Given,
Resistance, R = 20 Ohms
Current, I = 2 amp
We know that,
V = IR
Therefore, V = 2 × 20 = 40V
Q11. A current of 5 amperes flows through a wire whose ends are at a potential difference of 3 volts.
Calculate the resistance of the wire.
Answer:
Given,
Current, I = 5A
Potential difference, V = 3V
We know that,
V = IR
Therefore,
3=5×R
R = 3/5 = 0.6 Ohms
Q12. Fill in the following blanks with a suitable word:

Ohm’s law states a relation between potential difference and ……
Answer:
Ohm’s law states a relation between potential difference and current.

Q13. Distinguish between good conductors, resistors, and insulators. Name two conductors, two resistors,
and two insulators.
Answer:
The difference between good conductors, resistors, and insulators are as follows:
The materials that are having less or low electrical resistance are known as good conductors.
Copper and iron are the two examples of good conductors.
The materials that are having comparatively high resistance are known as resistors.
Manganin and nichrome are the two examples of resistors.
The materials that are having infinitely high resistance are known as insulators.
Wood and rubber are the two examples of insulators.
Q14. Classify the following into good conductors, resistors, and insulators:
Rubber, mercury, nichrome, polythene, aluminium, wood, manganin, bakelite, iron, paper, thermocol,
metal coin
Answer:
Conductor: mercury, aluminium, iron, metal coin
Resistor: manganin, nichrome
Insulator: rubber, polythene, wood, bakelite, paper, thermocol
Lakhmir Singh Physics Class 10 Solutions Page No:19
Q15. What is Ohm’s law? Explain how it is used to define the unit of resistance.
Answer:
Ohm’s law helps in understanding the relation between current, I and potential difference, V. The law states that
at constant temperature, the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference
across its ends. The mathematical representation of the law is:
Let I be the current flowing through a conductor and V be the potential difference across the ends of the
conductor. Then from Ohm’s law we know that
I∝V
V∝I
V = RI
R = v/I
Where,
R is resistance offered by the conductor which is constant. The unit of resistance is ohm.
If V = 1 volt and I = 1mp, then R = 1/1 = 1ohm.
Therefore, 1 ohm is defined as the resistance of a conductor such that when the potential difference of 1 volt is
applied to its ends, a current of 1 amp flows through it.
Q16. a) What is meant by the “resistance of a conductor”? Write the relation between resistance, potential
difference, and current.
b) When a 12V battery is connected across an unknown resistor, there is a current of 2.5mA in the circuit.
Calculate the value of the resistance of the resistor.
Answer:
a) Resistance of a conductor is the property of a conductor. This property helps conductor in opposing the flow of
current through it.
b) Given,
Voltage, V = 12 volt
Current, I = 2.5 × 10 A
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We know that,
V = IR
R = V/I
R = 12/2.5 × 10 -3
R = 4.8 × 10 ohm = 4800 ohm

3
Q17. a) Define the unit of resistance.

b) What happens to the resistance as the conductor is made thinner?
c) Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of a circuit is doubled. By how much does the
current change?
Answer:
a) The unit of resistance is ohm. 1 ohm is defined as the resistance offered by the conductor such that when 1 volt
potential difference is applied, then 1 ampere current flows through the conductor.
b) As the conductor is made thinner, the resistance of the conductor increases.
c) By keeping the potential difference constant and the resistance is doubled, then
V = IR
I = V/R
Then, I ∝ 1/R
Therefore, when R is doubled, I becomes half.
Q18. a) Why do electricians wear rubber hand gloves while working with electricity?
b) What potential difference is needed to send a current of 6A through an electrical appliance having a
resistance of 40Ω?
Answer:
a) We know that rubber is a good insulator or a bad conductor of electricity. This is the reason why electricians
wear rubber hand gloves while working with electricity.
b) Given,
Current, I = 6A
Resistance, R = 40Ω
We know that,
V = IR
V = 6 × 40 = 240V
Q19. An electric circuit consisting of a 0.5m long nichrome wire XT, an ammeter, a voltmeter, four cells of
1.5V each and a plug key was set up.
a) Draw a diagram of this electric circuit to study the relation between the potential difference maintained
between the points ‘X’ and ‘Y’ and the electric current flowing through XY.
b) Following graph was plotted between V and I values:
What would be the values of 1/V ratios when the potential difference is 0.8V, 1.2V, and 1.6V respectively?
What conclusion do you draw from these values?
c) What is the resistance of the wire?
Answer:
a)
b) As we see that the graph is a straight line passing through the origin we can say that the current is directly
proportional to the potential difference. Therefore, the ratio V/I remains constant.
From graph,
V = 1.5 volt
I = 0.6 amp
Therefore, V/I = 1.5/0.6 = 2.5Ω
For potential difference of 0.8V, 1,2V, and 1.6V the value of V/I ratio remains the same that is 2.5 ohm.
c) The resistance of the wire and the ratio of potential difference and the current passing through the wire are
equal.
R = V/I = 2.5 Ω

Q20. a) What is the ratio of potential difference and current known as?
b) The values of potential difference V applied across a resistor and the corresponding values of current I
flowing in the resistor are given below:
Potential difference, V in volts 2.5 5.0 10.0 15.0 20.0 25.0
Current, I in amperes 0.1 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of the resistor.
c) Name the law which is illustrated by the above V-I graph
d) Write down the formula which states the relation between potential difference, current, and resistance
e) The potential difference between the terminals of an electric iron is 240V and the current is 5.0A. What
is the resistance of the electric iron?
Answer:
a) The ratio of potential difference and the current is known as resistance.
c) The law illustrated by the V-I graph is Ohm’s law.
d) Following is the formula that states the relation between potential difference, current, and resistance:
Potential difference = Current × Resistance
e) Given,
Current, I = 5 amp
We know that
V = IR
240 = 5 × R
R = 240/5 = 48 ohm

Q21. The potential difference across a 3Ω resistor is 6V. The current flowing in the resistor will be:
a) ½ A
b) 1A
c) 2A
d) 6A
Answer:
The correct option is c) 2A.
Q22. A car headlight bulb working on a 12V car battery draws a current of 0.5A. The resistance of the light
bulb is:
a) 0.5Ω
b) 6 Ω
c) 12 Ω
d) 24 Ω
Answer:
The correct option is d) 24 Ω
Q23. An electrical appliance has a resistance of 25 Ω. When this electrical appliance is connected to a 230 Ω
supply line, the current passing through it will be:
a) 0.92A
b) 2.9A
c) 9.2A
d) 92A
Answer:
The correct option is c) 9.2A
Q24. When a 4 Ω resistor is connected across the terminals of a 12V battery, the number of coulombs
passing through the resistor per second is:
a) 0.3
b) 3
c) 4
d) 12
Answer:
The correct option is b) 3
Q25. Ohm’s law gives a relation between:

a) Current and resistance
b) Resistance and potential difference
c) Potential difference and electric charge
d) Current and potential difference
Answer:
The correct option that gives the relation in Ohm’s law is d) current and potential difference.
Q26. The unit of electrical resistance is:

a) Ampere
b) Volt
c) Coulomb
d) Ohm
Answer:
The correct option for the unit of electrical resistance is d) Ohm.
Q27. The substance having infinitely high electrical resistance is called:

a) Conductor
b) Resistor
c) Superconductor
d) Insulator
Answer:
The correct option for the substance with infinitely high electrical resistance is called d) insulator.
Q28. Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of a circuit is doubled. The current will
become:
a) Double
b) Half
c) One-fourth
d) Four times
Answer:
When the potential difference is constant and the resistance of a circuit is doubled, the current becomes half.
Therefore, the correct option is b) half.
Q29. Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of a circuit is halved. The current will
become:
a) One-fourth
b) Four times
c) Half
d) Double
Answer:
When the potential difference is constant and the resistance of a circuit is halved, then the current will be
doubled.
Therefore, the correct option is d) doubled.

Q30. An electric room heater draws a current of 2.4A from the 120V supply line. What current will this
room heater draw when connected to 240V supply line?
Answer:
First case:
Given,
Current, I = 2.4amp
Voltage, V = 120V
We know that,
V = IR
120 = 2.4 × R
R = 120/2.4 = 50 Ohm
Second case:
Given,
Resistance, r = 50 Ohm
We know that,
V = IR
240 = I × 50
I = 4.8 amp
Q31. Name the electrical property of a material whose symbol is “omega”.

Answer:
The electrical property resistance of the material has the symbol “omega”.
Q32. The graph between V an d I for a conductor is a straight line passing through the origin.
a) Which law is illustrated by such a graph?
b) What should remain constant in a statement of this law?
Answer:
a) Ohm’s law is illustrated by the V-I graph in which the straight line is passing through the origin.
b) For Ohm’s law to hold good in the given situation, temperature must remain constant.
Q33. A potential difference of 10V is needed to make a current of 0.02A flow through a wire. What
potential difference is needed to make a current of 250mA flow through the same wire?
Answer:
First case,
Given,
Current, I = 0.02A
We know that,
V = IR
10 = 0.02 × R
R = 10/0.02 = 500 Ohms
Second case,
Current, I = 250 × 10 A
-3
Resistance, R = 500 Ohm

V = IR
V = 250 × 10 × 500 = 125 volt
-3
Q34. A current of 200mA flows through a 4kΩ resistor. What is the potential difference across the resistor?
Answer:
Given,
Current, I = 200mA = 0.2A
Resistance, R = 4kΩ = 4 × 10 Ohm = 4000 Ohm
3
We know that,
V = IR
V = 0.2 × 4000
V = 800 volt
Page No: 26

Q1. What happens to the resistance as the conductor is made thicker?
Answer:
As the thickness of the conductor is increased, the resistance of the conductor decreases. This is because:
R = (ρl)/(A)
Where,
R is the resistance
l is the length of the conductor
A is the area of cross section of the conductor
And ρ is the resistivity
Since, area is directly proportional to the radius of the wire, increase in cross-sectional area or the thickness will
result in decrease in resistance and current flow will be more.
Q2. If the length of a wire is doubled by taking more of wire, what happens to its resistance?
Answer:
The resistance of the wire becomes double when the length of the wire is doubled. This is because length is
directly proportional to the resistance while area of cross section is inversely proportional to the resistance.
Also, we know that R = (ρl)/(A)
Therefore, if l becomes double, then R becomes 2R.
Q3. On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend?

Answer:
Following are the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends:
a) Length of the conductor
b) Area of cross-section of the conductor
c) Temperature of the conductor
d) Nature of the material used in the construction of the conductor
Q4. Name the material which is the best conductor of electricity.

Answer:
Silver metal is the best conductor of electricity. This is because the electrons of silver metal are available for free
movement when compared to the other metals.
Q5. Which among iron and mercury is a better conductor of electricity?

Answer:
Among iron and mercury, iron is a better conductor of electricity. The resistance of iron is less than mercury and
we know that resistance is inversely proportional to the current. Therefore, iron is better as a conductor of
electricity when compared to the mercury.
Q6. Why are copper and aluminum wires usually used for electricity transmission?
Answer:
Copper and aluminum wires are used for electricity transmission because they have low resistivities.
Q7. Name the material which is used for making the heating element of an electric iron.
Answer:
Nichrome is the material which is used for making the heating element of an electric iron.
Q8. What is nichrome? State its one use.

Answer:
Nichrome is a alloy material obtained from nickel, chromium, manganese, and iron. The resistivity of nichrome is
60 times more than that of copper. It is used in making of the elements that are used for heating in most of the
electrical heating appliances.
Q9. Give two reasons why nichrome alloy is used for making the heating elements of electrical appliances.
Answer:
Following are the two reasons why nichrome alloy is used for making the heating elements of electrical
appliances:
a) The resistivity of nichrome is very high.
b) Nichrome doesn’t undergo oxidation at high temperatures.
Q10. Why are the coils of electric iron and electric toasters made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
Answer:
The coils of an electric iron and electric toasters are made of an alloy rather than a pure metal because:
a) The resistivity of an alloy is higher when compared to the pure metal
b) Alloys don’t undergo oxidation at high temperatures
Q11. Which has more resistance:

a) A long piece of nichrome wire or a short one?
b) A thick piece of nichrome wire or a thin piece?
Answer:
Following has more resistance:
a) A long piece of nichrome wire
b) A thin piece of nichrome wire
Q12. a) How does the resistance of a pure metal change if its temperature decreases?
b) Hoes does the presence of impurities in a metal affect its resistance?
Answer:
a) As the temperature decreases, the resistance of the material also decreases.
b) Presence of impurities in a metal increases the resistance of the material.

Resistance is measured in ………… the resistance of a wire increases as the length ………….. as the
temperature ……… and as the cross-sectional area ……..
Answer:
Ohm, increases, increases, and decreases.
Q14. a) What do you understand by the “resistivity” of a substance?
b) A wire is 1.0m long, 0.2 mm in a diameter and the has a resistance of 10Ω. Calculate the resistivity of its
material?
Answer:
a) Resistivity is defined as the characteristic property of a substance which is dependent on the nature of the
substance and the temperature of the substance used in the conductor. It is numerically equal to the resistance
between the opposite faces of a cube with sides 1m.
b) Given,
l = 1m
r = d/2 = 0.2/2 = 0.1mm = 0.0001m
R = 10ohm
We know that,
R = ρl/A
ρ = RA/l
= 31.4×10 ohm
-8
Q15. a) Write down an expression for the resistance of a metallic wire in terms of the resistivity.
b) What will be the resistance of a metal wire of length 2 metres and area of cross-section 1.55×10 m , if the
-6 2
resistivity of the metal be 2.8×10 Ωm?

-8
Answer:
a) Following is the expression for the resistance of a metallic wire in terms of the resistivity:
R = ρl/A
Where,
R is the resistance of the wire
ρ is the resistivity of the wire
A is the cross-sectional area of the wire

l is the length of the wire
b) Given,
l = 2m
A = 1.55×10 m -6 2
ρ = 2.8×10 Ωm-8
We know that,
R = ρl/A
= 0.036 ohm
Q16. a) Give two examples of substances which are good conductors of electricity. Why do you think they
are good conductors of electricity?
b) Calculate the resistance of a copper wire 1.0km long and 0.50mm diameter if the resistivity of copper is
1.7×10 Ωm.
-8
Answer:
a) Two examples of substances that are good conductors of electricity are silver and copper. These two metals
have free electrons that are available for conduction.
b) Given,
l = 1km = 1000m
r = d/2
= 0.5/2mm
= 0.25mm
= 0.25×10 m -3
ρ = 1.7×10 Ωm-8
We know that,
R = ρl/A
R = 86.6Ω
Q17. Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a thin wire of the same material when
connected to the same source? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
The flow of current will be easy in a thick wire than the thin wire because the resistance of the thick wire will be
lesser than the thin wire.
Q18. How does the resistance of a conductor depend on:

a) length of the conductor
b) area of cross-section of the conductor
c) temperature of the conductor
Answer:
a) Resistance of a conductor is dependent on the length of the conductor. As the length of the material increases,
the resistance of the material decreases and vice versa.
b) Resistance of a conductor is dependent on the area of cross-section of the conductor. As the cross-section area
increases, the resistance of the material decreases and vice versa.
c) As the temperature increases, the resistance of the material also increases.
Q19. a) Give one example to show how the resistance depends on the nature of material of the conductor
b) Calculate the resistance of an aluminum cable of length 10km and diameter 2.0mm if the resistivity of
aluminum is 2.7×10 Ωm.
-8
Answer:
a) Let us consider two wires with same length and diameter. Let these two wires be of copper metal and nichrome
alloy. We know that the resistance of nichrome wire is 60 times more than that of the copper wire. Therefore, it is
understood that the resistance depends on the nature of the material used in the conductor.
b) Given,
l = 10km = 10000m
d = 2mm
r = 1mm = 10 m -3
ρ = 2.7×10 Ωm
-8
We know that,
R = ρl/A
Substituting the values we get,
R = 86Ω
Q20. What would be the effect on the resistance of a metal wire of:
a) increasing its length
b) increasing its diameter
c) increasing its temperature
Answer:
Following are the effects on the resistance of a metal wire when:
a) As the length is increased, the resistance will increase
b) As the diameter is increased, the resistance will decrease
c) As the temperature is increased, the resistance will increase
Q21. How does the resistance of a wire vary with its:

a) area of cross-section?
b) diameter?
Answer:
a) When the resistance of a wire is varied, the area of cross-section increases, thereby reducing the resistance
b) When the resistance of a wire is varied, the diameter of the material is increased, thereby reducing the
resistance
Q22. How does the resistance of a wire change when:

a) its length is tripled?
b) its diameter is tripled?
c) its material is changed to one whose resistivity is three times?
Answer:
We know that,
R = ρl/A
a) l becomes 3l
R’ = ρ3l/A
= 3R
Therefore, resistance gets tripled
b) d becomes 3d
R = ρl/A
R = ρl/πr2
= ρl/π(d/2) 2
R’ = R/9
Therefore, resistance becomes 1/9 th
c) ρ = 3ρ
R’ = 3ρl/A
= 3R
Therefore, resistance becomes 3 times.
Q23. Calculate the area of cross-section of a wire if its length is 1.0m, its resistance is 23Ω, and the
resistivity of the material of the wire is 1.84×10 Ωm.
-6
Answer:
Given,
l = 1.0m
R = 23 ohm
ρ = 1.84×10 Ωm -6
We have,
R = ρl/A
23 = 1.84×10 × 1/A -6
A = 8×10 m -8 2

Q24. a) Define resistivity. Write an expression for the resistivity of a substance. Give the meaning of each
symbol.
b) State the SI unit of resistivity.
c) Distinguish between resistance and resistivity.
d) Name two factors on which the resistivity of a substance depends and two factors on which it does not
depend.
e) The resistance of a metal wire of length 1m is 26Ω at 20 C. if the diameter of the wire is 0.3mn, what will
⸰
be the resistivity of the metal at that temperature?

Answer:
a) Resistivity is defined as:
ρ = R×A/l
where,
R is the resistance of the conductor
A is the cross-sectional area of the conductor
l is the length of the conductor
b) The SI unit of resistivity is Ohm-meter
c) Following are the differences between resistance and resistivity:

Resistance Resistivity
Resistance is the property of the conductor Resistivity is the property of the material used in the
conductor
In a conductor, resistance is defined as the Resistivity is the opposing force of the flow of electric
opposing force to the flow of electric current current in a rod such that the length of the rod is 1m and the
cross-sectional area of the rod is 1m2
Parameters such as length, nature of the material Parameters such as length and thickness do not determine
used in a conductor, and thickness of the conductor the resistivity of the conductor
determine the resistance
d) Nature of the material and the temperature of the material determine the resistivity of a substance. Resistivity is
independent of the length and the thickness of the conductor.
e) Given,
l = 1m
R = 26Ω
r = d/2
= 0.3/2
= 0.15mm
= 0.15×10 m -3
We know that,
ρ = R×A/l
= 1.83×10 Ωm-6

Q25. The resistance of a wire of length 300m and cross-section area 1.0mm made of material of resistivity
2
1.0×10 Ωm is:
-7
a) 2Ω
b) 3Ω
c) 20Ω
d) 30Ω
Answer:
The correct option is d) 30Ω
We know that
R = ρl/A
Substituting the values in the above equation we get 30Ω.
Q26. When the diameter of a wire is doubled, its resistance becomes:

a) Double
b) Four times
c) One-half
d) One-fourth
Answer:
The correct option is d) one-fourth
We know that
R = ρl/A
Therefore, when the diameter of the wire is doubled, the resistance becomes one-fourth of the actual value.
Q27. If the resistance of a certain copper wire is 1Ω, then the resistance of a similar nichrome wire will be
about:
a) 25 Ω
b) 30 Ω
c) 60 Ω
d) 45 Ω
Answer:
The correct option is c) 60 Ω.
The resistance of nichrome is 60 Ω when the resistance of a copper wire is 1 Ω.
Q28. If the diameter of a resistance wire is halved, then its resistance becomes:
a) Four times
b) Half
c) One-fourth
d) Two times
Answer:
The correct option is a) four times.
When the diameter of a resistance wire is halved, the resistance becomes four times.
Q29. The resistivity of a certain material is 0.6 Ωm. The material is most likely to be:
a) An insulator
b) A superconductor
c) A conductor
d) A semiconductor
Answer:
The correct option is d) A semiconductor
Q30. When the area of cross-section of a conductor is doubled, its resistance becomes:
a) Double
b) Half
c) Four times
d) One-fourth
Answer:
The correct option is b) half
Q31. The resistivity of copper metal depends on only one of the following factors. This factor is:
a) Length
b) Thickness
c) Temperature
d) Area of cross-section
Answer:
The correct option is c) Temperature
Q32. If the area of cross-section of a resistance wire is halved, then its resistance becomes:
a) One-half
b) 2 times
c) One-fourth
d) 4 times
Answer:
The correct option is b) 2 times.

Q33. A piece of wire of resistance 20Ω is drawn out so that its length is increased to twice its original
length. Calculate the resistance of the wire in the new situation.
Answer:
We know that,
R = ρl/A
Given that,
l’ = 2l
A’ = A/2
And ρ’ = ρ (as the material of the wire is the same)
Therefore,
R’ = ρ’l’/A’
= ρ2l/(A/2)
= 4ρl/A
= 4R
Therefore, R’ = 4×20 = 80Ω
Q34. The electrical resistivities of three materials P, Q, and R are given below:
P = 2.3×10 Ωm
3
Q = 2.63×10 Ωm -8
R = 1.0×10 Ωm
15
Which material will you use for making?

a) Electric wires
b) Handle for soldering iron
c) Solar cells
Give reasons for your choices.
Answer:
a) For making of the electric wires, Q = 2.63×10 Ωm can be used as this material has a very low resistivity
-8
b) For making of the handle for soldering iron, R = 1.0×10 Ωm can be used as this has a very high resistivity
15
c) For making of the solar cells, P = 2.3×10 Ωm can be used as this materials is a semiconductor
3
Q35. The electrical resistivities of four materials A, B, C, and D are given below:
A = 110×10 Ωm -8
B = 1.0×10 Ωm
10
C = 10.0×10 Ωm -8
D = 2.3×10 Ωm
3
Which material is:

a) Good conductor
b) Resistor
c) Insulator
d) Semiconductor
Answer:
a) Good conductor is C = 10.0×10 Ωm -8
b) Resistor is A = 110×10 Ωm
-8
c) Insulator is B = 1.0×10 Ωm
10
d) Semiconductor is D = 2.3×10 Ωm3
Q36. The electrical resistivities of five substances A, B, C, S, and E are given below:
A = 5.20×10 Ωm -8
B = 110×10 Ωm-8
C = 2.60×10 Ωm -8
D = 10.0×10 Ωm -8
E = 1.70×10 Ωm-8
a) Which substance is the best conductor of electricity? Why?

b) Which one is a better conductor: A or C? Why?
c) Which substance would you advice to be used for making heating elements of electric irons? Why?
d) Which two substances should be used for making electric wires? Why?
Answer:
a) E is the best conductor of electricity because it has the least resistivity
b) C is a better conductor between A and C because the resistivity of C is lesser than that of A
c) B can be used in the making of the heating elements of an electric iron because the resistivity of B is the
highest
d) C and E are the two substances that should be used for making electric wires because they have low electrical
resistivities
Page No: 37

Q1. Give the law of combination of resistances in series.
Answer:
The law of combination of resistances in series states that the combined resistance of any number of resistance
that are connected in series is equal to the individual resistances.
Q2. If five resistances each of value 0.2 ohm are connected in series, what will be the resultant resistance?
Answer:
According to the law of combination of resistances in series,
R = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4 + R5
R = 0.2 + 0.2 + 0.2 + 0.2 + 0.2 = 1 ohm
Q3. State the law of combination of resistance in parallel.

Answer:
According to the law of combination of resistance in parallel, the reciprocal of the combined resistance of a
number of resistances connected in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of all the individual resistances.
Q4. If 3 resistances of 3 ohm each are connected in parallel, what will be their total resistance?
Answer:
R1 = R2 = R3 = 3Ω
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3
= 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3
= 3/3
=1
Therefore, R = 1Ω
Q5. How should the two resistances of 2 ohms each be connected so as to produce an equivalent resistance
of 1 ohm?
Answer:
To produce an equivalent resistance of 1 ohm, the two resistances of 2 ohms must be connected in parallel.
Q6. Two resistances X and Y are connected turn by turn: a) in parallel b) in series. In which case the
resultant resistance will be less than either of the individual resistances?
Answer:
When the two resistance X and Y are connected in parallel, the resultant resistance will be less than either of the
individual resistances.
Q7. What possible values of resultant resistance one can get by combining two resistances, one of value 2
ohm and the other 6 ohm?
Answer:
R1 = 2 Ohm
R2 = 6 Ohm
Let case 1 be parallel combination
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2
1/R = ½ + 1/6 = 4/6
R = 6/4 = 1.5 ohm
Let case 2 be series combination

R = R1 + R2
= 2+6 = 8 ohm
Q8. Show how you would connect two 4 ohm resistors to produce a combined resistance of
a) 2 ohms
b) 8 ohms
Answer:
a) By connecting in parallel, then

1/R = ¼ + ¼ = 2/4 = ½
Therefore, R = 2 ohm
b) By connecting in series, then

R=4+4=8
Therefore, R = 8 ohm
Q9. Which of the following resistor arrangement, A or B, has the lower combined resistance?
Answer:
When the resistance arrangement from A is combined with the resistance arrangement B, following is calculated:
1/R = 1/10 + 1/1000
= (100+1)/1000
R = 1000/101
R = 9.9 Ohm
Therefore, the arrangement B has a lower combined resistance.
Q10. A wire that has resistance R is cut into two equal pieces. The two parts are joined in parallel. What is
the resistance of the combination?
Answer:
Given that the resistance of each part is: R/2
Let resultant resistance be R’
1/R’ = 2/R + 2/R
R’ = R/4
Q11. Calculate the combined resistance in each case:

Answer:
a) Given,
R1 = 500Ω
R2 = 1000Ω
From the above circuit diagram,
R = R1 + R2
= 500 + 1000
=1500Ω
b) Given,
R1 = 2Ω
R2 = 2Ω
From the given circuit diagram,
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2
1/R = ½ + ½
R = 1Ω
c) Given,
R1 = 4Ω
R2 = 4 Ω
R3 = 3 Ω
From the given circuit diagram,
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2
1/R = ¼ + ¼
R=2Ω
Total resistance = R + R3
=2+3
=5Ω
Q12. Find the current in each resistor in the circuit shown below:
Answer:
Given,
R1 = 6Ω
R2 = 4 Ω
V = 24V
From the given circuit diagram we know that the two resistances are connected in parallel
Therefore,
Current across R1 = I1 = V/R1 = 24/6 = 4amp
Current across R2 = I2 = V/R2 = 24/4 = 6amp

Q13. Explain with diagrams what is meant by the “series combination” and “parallel combination” of
resistance. In which case the resultant resistance is:
a) less
b) more than either of the individual resistance?
Answer:
Series combination: When two or more resistances are connected end to end, these resistances are said to be
connected in series combination. The sum of all the individual resistances is equal to the any number of
resistances that are connected in series.
The resultant resistance is usually more than either of the individual resistances.
R = R1 + R2 + ……
Parallel combination: When two or more resistances are connected between the same two points, these resistances
are said to be connected in parallel combination. The sum of all the individual resistances is equal to the
reciprocal of the resistances that are connected in parallel.
The resultant resistance is usually less than either of the individual resistances.
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + …..
Q14. A battery of 9V is connected in series with resistors of 0.2Ω, 0.3 Ω, 0.4 Ω, 0.5 Ω, and 12 Ω. How much
current would flow through the 12 Ω resistor?
Answer:
Given,
R1 = 0.2 Ω
R2 = 0.3 Ω
R3 = 0.4 Ω
R4 = 0.5 Ω
R5 = 12 Ω
V = 9V
Therefore, the resultant resistance is given as:
R = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4 + R5
= 0.2 + 0.3 + 0.4 + 0.5 + 12
= 13.4 Ω
The current flow through 12 Ω resistance is given as: V/R
Therefore, I = 9/13.4
I = 0.67amp
Q15. An electric bulb of resistance 20 Ω and a resistance wire of 4 Ω are connected in series with a 6V
battery. Draw the circuit diagram and calculate:
a) total resistance of the circuit
b) current through the circuit
c) potential difference across the electric bulb
d) potential difference across the resistance wire
Answer:
a) Total resistance of the circuit is given as:

R = R1 + R2 = 20 + 4 = 24Ω
b) We know that,
V = IR
Therefore,
6 = 24I
I = 6/24 = 0.25amp
c) Potential difference across the bulb = IR1 = 0.25 × 20 = 5V
d) Potential difference across the resistance wire = IR2 = 0.25 × 4 = 1V

Q16. Three resistors are connected as shown in the diagram:
Through the resistor 5Ω a current of 1 ampere is flowing.

a) What is the current through the other two resistors?
b) What is the potential difference across AB and across AC?
c) What is the total resistance?
Answer:
From the above circuit diagram;

a) Total current, I entering the resistances R1 and R2 that are arranged in parallel combination is 1amp. Let I1 be
the current flow through R1 and I2 be the current flow through R2.
I1 = (IR2)/(R1 + R2)
= (1 × 15)/(10 + 15)
= 0.6A
I2 = (IR1)/(R1 + R2)
= (1 × 10)/ (10 + 15)
= 0.4A
b) Potential difference across AB = IR3 = 1 × 5 = 5V

Equivalent resistance between B and C is
1/R’ = 1/R1 + 1/R2
= 1/10 + 1/15
= 5/30
R’ = 6Ω
Total resistance between A and C is R = 5 + 6 = 11Ω
Potential difference across AC = IR = 1 × 11 = 11V
c) Total resistance = R3 + R’ = 5 + 6 = 11Ω
Q17. For the circuit shown in the diagram below:
What is the value of:

a) Current through 6Ω resistor?
b) Potential difference across 12 Ω resistor?
Answer:
From the given circuit:
V = 4V
Total resistance in line 1 = R1 = 6 + 3 = 9 Ω
Total resistance in line 2 = R2 = 12 + 3 = 15 Ω
a) Current through 6 Ω resistor is same as the current through line 1 = V/R1 = 4/9 = 0.44 Ω
b) Potential difference across line 2 is 4V

Current through line 2 = V/R2 = 4/15 Ω
Potential difference across 12 Ω resistor = (4/15) × 12 = 3.2V
Q18. Two resistors with resistances 5 Ω and 10 Ω respectively are to be connected to a battery of emf 6V so
as to obtain minimum and maximum current flowing
a) How will you connect the resistances in each case?
b) Calculate the strength of the total current in the circuit in the two cases.
Answer:
Given,
R1 = 5 Ω
R2 = 10 Ω
V = 6V
a) When the two resistors are connected in series, minimum current flows through the resistors. When the
resistors are connected in parallel, the current flow will be maximum.
b) When the resistors are in series,
Total resistance = 5 + 10 = 15Ω
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2
1/R = 1/5 + 1/10
1/R = 3/10
R = 10/3 Ω
Therefore, the total current drawn by the circuit = V/R = 6/(10/3) = 1.8amps
Q19. The circuit diagram given below shows the combination of three resistors R1, R2, and R3:
Find:
a) total resistance of the circuit
b) total current flowing in the circuit
c) the potential difference across R1
Answer:
a) Total resistance of two resistors that are connected in parallel is
1/R’ = 1/3 + 1/6
1/R’ = 3/6
R’ = 2 ohms
Total resistance of the circuit = 2 + 4 = 6 ohms
b) Total current flowing through the circuit = V/R

Where R = total resistance
I = 12/6 = 2 amp
c) Potential difference across R1 = R1I = 8V
Q20. In the circuit diagram given below, the current flowing across 5 ohm resistor is 1 amp. Find the
current flowing through the other two resistors.
Answer:
Given,
I = 1 amp
R = 5 ohm
The potential difference across each resistor is same as the resistors are connected in parallel and the voltage
across these resistors are the same.
Therefore, applied voltage, V = IR = 5V
Current through 4 ohm resistor = V/R = 5/4 = 1.25 amp
Current through 10 ohm resistor = V/R = 5/10 = 0.5 amp
Q21. A resistor has a resistance of 176 ohms. How many of these resistors should be connected in parallel
so that their combination draws a current of 5 ampere from a 220 volt supply volt line?
Answer:
I = 5 amp
V = 220 V
R = V/I = 220/5 = 44 ohm
The resultant resistance must be less than 176 ohm. Therefore, the resistors are connected in parallel
Let the required no be n
Rre = 176/n = 44
N = 176/44 = 4
Q22. An electric heater which is connected to a 220V supply line has two resistance coils A and B of 24 ohm
resistance each. These coils can be used separately in series or in parallel. Calculate the current drawn
when:
a) only one coil A is used
b) coils A and B are used in series
c) coils A and B are used in parallel
Answer:
Given,
V = 220V
Ra = Rb = 24 ohm
a) Current drawn when only coil A is used:
I = V/Ra = 220/24 = 9.16 amps
b) Current drawn when the coils A and B are used in series:

Total resistance, R = Ra + Rb = 24 + 24 = 48 ohms
I = V/R = 220/48 = 4.58 amps
c) Current drawn when coils A and B are used in parallel:

Total resistance is 1/R = 1/Ra + 1/Rb = 1/24 + 1/24 = 2/24 = 1/12
R = 12 ohms
I = V/R = 220/12 = 18.33 amps
Q23. In the circuit diagram given below five resistance of 10Ω, 40 Ω, 30 Ω, 20 Ω, and 60 Ω are connected as
shown to a 12V battery.
Calculate:
a) total resistance in the circuit
b) total current flowing in the circuit
Answer:
a) Equivalent resistance of 10Ω and 40 Ω resistances is R1 is given as:
1/R1 = 1/10 + 1/40 = 5/40
R1 = 8 Ω
Equivalent resistance of 30 Ω, 20 Ω, and 60 Ω resistance is R2 is given as:
1/R2 = 1/30 + 1/20 + 1/60 = 6/60
R2 = 10 Ω
R1 and R2 are connected in series
Therefore, total resistance in the circuit, R = R1 + R2 = 8 + 10 = 18 Ω
b) Total current flowing in the circuit, I = V/R = 12/18 = 0.67amp
Q24. In the circuit diagram given below, three resistors R1, R2, and R3 of 5 Ω, 10 Ω, and 30 Ω respectively
are connected as shown:
Calculate:
a) current through each resistor
b) total current in the circuit
c) total resistance in the circuit
Answer:
Given,
V = 12V
R1, R2, and R3 are connected in parallel
a) Current through R1 = V/R1 = 12/5 = 2.4 A

Current through R2 = V/R2 = 12/10 = 1.2 A
Current through R3 = V/R3 = 12/30 = 0.4A
b) Total current in the circuit = 2.4 + 1.2 + 0.4 = 4A
c) Total resistance in the circuit = R

1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3
1/R = 1/5 + 1/10 + 1/30
1/R = 10/30
R = 3 ohm
Q25. A potential difference of 4V is applied to two resistors of 6Ω and 2 Ω connected in series. Calculate:
a) the combined resistance
b) the current flowing
c) the potential difference across the 6 Ω resistor
Answer:
Given,
V = 4V
R1 = 6 Ω
R2 = 2 Ω
a) Combined resistance, R = R1 + R2 = 8 ohm
b) Current flowing, I = V/R = 4/8 = 0.5 amp
c) Potential difference across 6 ohm resistor = IR1 = 3V
Q26. A potential difference 6V is applied to two resistors of 3 Ω and 6 Ω connected in parallel. Calculate:
a) the combined resistance
b) the current flowing in the main circuit
c) the current flowing in the 3 Ω resistor
Answer:
Given,
V = 6V
R1 = 3 Ω
R2 = 6 Ω
a) Combined resistance,
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 = 1/3 + 1/6 = ½
R=2Ω
b) Current flowing in the main circuit, I = V/R = 6/2 = 3A
c) Current flowing in 3 Ω resistor = V/R1 = 6/3 = 2A
Q27. In the circuit shown below, the voltmeter reads 10V.

a) What is the combined resistance?

b) What current flows?
c) What is the potential difference across 2Ω resistor?
d) What is the potential difference across 3 Ω resistor?
Answer:
Given,
V = 6V
R1 = 2 Ω
R2 = 3 Ω
a) Combined resistance, Rt = 2+3 = 5 Ω
b) I = V/Rt = 10/5 = 2A
c) Potential difference across 2 Ω resistor = IR1 = 4V
d) Potential difference across 3 Ω resistor = IR2 = 6V
Q28. In the circuit given below:

a) What is the combined resistance?

b) What is the potential difference across the combined resistance?
c) What is the potential difference across the 3Ω resistor?
d) What is the current in the 3 Ω resistor?
e) What is the current in the 6 Ω resistor?
Answer:
Total current flowing through circuit, I = 6A
R1 = 3 Ω
R2 = 6 Ω
a) Combined resistance R is
1/R = 1/3 + 1/6 = 3/6
R=2Ω
b) Potential difference across the combined resistance = IR = 12V
c) Potential difference across the 3 Ω resistor = Potential difference across the combined resistance = 12V
d) Current flowing through the 3 Ω resistor = V/R1 = 12/3 =4A
e) Current flowing through the 6 Ω resistor = V/R2 = 12/6 = 2A
Q29. A 5V battery is connected to two 20 Ω resistors which are joined together in series.
a) Draw a circuit diagram to represent this. Add an arrow to indicate the direction of conventional current
flow in the circuit.
b) What is the effective resistance of the two resistors?
c) Calculate the current that flows from the battery
d) What is the potential difference across each resistor?

Answer:
a)
b) Effective resistance = 20 + 20 = 40 ohms
c) Current flowing through the circuit = I = V/R = 5/40 = 0.125amp
d) Potential difference across each resistance = IR = 2.5V
Q30. The figure given below shows an electric circuit in which current flows from a 6V battery through two
resistors.
a) Are the resistors connected in series with each other or in parallel?
b) For each resistor, state the potential difference across it.
c) The current flowing from the battery is shared between the two resistors. Which resistor will have bigger
share of the current?
d) Calculate the effective resistance of the two resistors.
e) Calculate the current that flows from the battery.
Answer:
Given,
V = 6V
R1 = 2Ω
R2 = 3 Ω
a) Resistors are connected in parallel
b) Potential difference across each resistor is the same and is equal to 6V
c) 2 Ω resistance have bigger share of current because of its lower resistance
d) Effective resistance = R
1/R = ½ + 1/3
1/R = 5/6
R = 1.2 Ω
e) Current flowing through battery, I = V/R = 6/1.2 = 5A
Q31. A 4 Ω coil and a 2 Ω coil are connected in parallel. What is their combined resistance? A total current
of 3A passes through the coils. What current passes through the 2 Ω coil?
Answer:
4 Ω and 2 Ω coils are connected in parallel.
Therefore, the combined resistance, R
1/R = ¼ + ½ = ¾
R=¾Ω
Total current,, I = V/R = 3 Ω
V/(4/3) = 3
V = 4V
Current through 2 Ω coil = V/2 = 4/2 = 2 A

Q32. a) With the help of a circuit diagram, deduce the equivalent resistance of two resistances connected in
series.
b) Two resistances are connected in series as shown in the diagram:
i) What is the current through the 5 ohm resistance?

ii) What is the current through R?
iii) What is the value of R?
iv) What is the value of V?
Answer:
a)
Above circuit shows resistances R1 and R2 connected in series with a battery of V volts
Let the potential difference across R1 be V1 and the potential difference across R2 be V2
V = V1 + V2 (1)
By Ohm’s law
R = V/I
V = IR (2)
Applying Ohm’s law
V1 = IR1 (3)
V2 = IR2 (4)
From (1), (2), (3), and (4)
R = R1 + R2
b) i) Current through 5 ohm resistor = 2A

ii) Current through R = 2A because 5 ohm resistor and R are connected in series
iii) V = IR
R = 3 ohm
iv) V = 10 + 6 = 16V
Q33. a) With the help of a diagram, derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three resistors
connected in series.
b) For the circuit shown in the diagram given below, calculate
i) Value of current through each resistor
ii) total current in the circuit

iii) total effective resistance of the circuit
Answer:
a)
We know that V = V1 + V2 + V3
R = V/I
V1 = IR1
V2 = IR2
V3 = IR3
Using above equations,
IR = IR1 + IR2 + IR3
R = R1 + R2 + R2
b) i) Current through R1 = 1.2A

Current through R2 = 0.6A
Current through R3 = 0.2A
ii) Total current in the circuit = 2A
iii) Effective resistance = 3 ohm
Q34. a) With the help of a circuit diagram, obtain the relation for the equivalent resistance of two
resistance connected in parallel. Find
i) Total resistance
ii) Current shown by the ammeter A
Answer:
a)
Total current = I = I1 + I2
I1 = V/R1
I2 = V/R2
V/R = V/R1 + V/R2
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2
b) i) Total resistance = R
R1 = 5 ohms
R2 = 3+2 = 5 ohms
R = 2.5 ohms
ii) Current flowing through the circuit, I = V/R = 1.6 amps
Q35. a) Explain with the help of a labelled circuit diagram, how you will find the resistance of a
combination of three resistors of resistance R1, R2, and R3 joined in parallel
b) In the diagram shown below, the cell and the ammeter both have negligible resistance. The resistors are
identical.
With the switch K open, the ammeter reads 0.6A. what will be the ammeter reading when the switch is
closed?
Answer:
a)
I = V/R
I1 = V/R1
I2 = V/R2
I3 = V/R3
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3
b) Effective resistance = 1/R + 1/R = 2/R

Current, I = V/(R/2) = 0.6A
V/R = 0.3A
Therefore, final current, I = V/(R/3) = 0.9A

Q36. The figure given below shows three resistors:
Their combined resistance is:

a) 1 (5/7)Ω
b) 14 Ω
c) 6 (2/3) Ω
d) 7 (1/2) Ω
Answer:
The correct option is d) 7 (1/2) Ω
When the resistors are in combination, series and parallel combination formula needs to be used. Resistors with 6
Ω and 2 Ω are in parallel combination. Their resultant resistance is then added with 6 Ω resistor to obtain the total
resistance of the circuit.
Q37. If two resistors of 25 Ω and 15 Ω are joined together in series and then placed in parallel with a 40 Ω
resistor, the effective resistance of the combination is:
a) 0.1 Ω
b) 10 Ω
c) 20 Ω
d) 40 Ω
Answer:
The correct option is c) 20 Ω
The resultant resistance obtained from the resistors that are placed in series combination is connected with 40 Ω in
parallel such that the overall resistance obtained is equal to 20 Ω.
Q38. The diagram below shows part of a circuit:
If this arrangement of three resistors was to be replaced by a single resistor, its resistance should be:
a) 9Ω
b) 4 Ω
c) 6 Ω
d) 18 Ω
Answer:
The correct option is a) 9 Ω
Again series and parallel combination is used for the calculation of overall resistance of the given circuit.
Q39. In the circuit shown below:

The potential difference across the 3Ω resistor is:

a) 1/9 V
b) 1/2V
c) 1V
d) 2V
Answer:
The correct option is c) 1V
We know that the potential difference across a resistor is calculated as V = IR. Therefore, substituting the values
we get potential difference across the resistor of 3Ω as 1V.
Q40. A battery and three lamps are connected as shown:

Which of the following statements about the currents at X, Y, and Z is correct?

a) The current at Z is greater than that at Y
b) The current at Y is greater than that at Z
c) The current at X equals the current at Y
d) The current at X equal the current at Z
Answer:
The correct option is b) The current at Y is greater than that at Z
Q41. V1, V2, and V3 are the potential difference across the 1 Ω, 2 Ω, and 3 Ω resistors in the following
diagram, the current is 5A.
Which one of the columns (a) to (d) shows the correct values of V1, V2, and V3 measured in volts?
V1 V2 V3
a) 1.0 2.0 3.0
b) 5.0 10.0 15.0
c) 5.0 2.5 1.6
d) 4.0 3.0 2.0
Answer:
The correct option is b) Where V1 = 5.0, V2 = 10.0, and V3 = 15.0
Using the formula, V = IR, substituting the values in the formula, we get the correct values for V1, V2, and V3.
Q42. A wire of resistance R1 is cut into five equal pieces. These five pieces of wire are then connected in
parallel. If the resultant resistance of this combination be R2, then the ratio R1/R2 is:
a) 1/25
b) 1/5
c) 5
d) 25
Answer:
The correct option is d) 25.
When a resistance wire is cut into five pieces, the ratio of the resistance and the resultant resistance obtained when
the pieces are connected in parallel is 25.
Page No: 47

Q1. Are the lights in your house wires in series?
Answer:
The light in our houses are not connected in series. They are connected in parallel.
Q2. What happens to the other bulbs in a series circuit if one bulb blows off?
Answer:
When the bulbs are connected in series, all the other bulbs stop glowing.
Q3. What happens to the other bulbs in a parallel circuit if one bulb blows off?
Answer:
When the bulbs are in parallel, they continue to glow.
Q4. Which type of circuit, series or parallel, is preferred while connecting a large number of bulbs:
a) for decorating a hotel building from outside?
b) for lighting inside the rooms of the hotel?
Answer:
Following type of circuit is used when:
a) hotel building is to be decorated from outside: series
b) lighting the rooms inside the hotel: parallel
Q5. Draw a circuit diagram to show how two 4V electric lamps can be lit brightly from two 2V cells.
Answer:
Following is the circuit diagram of two lamps with 4V each and is arranged in parallel with 2V cells:

Q6. Why is a series arrangement not used for connecting domestic electrical appliances in a circuit?
Answer:
A series arrangement is not used for connecting domestic electrical appliances in a circuit because if any of the
electrical appliance stops working, it affects all the other appliances.
Q7. Given three reasons why different electrical appliances in a domestic circuit are connected in parallel.
Answer:
Different electrical appliances in a domestic circuit are connected in parallel because:
a) the voltage distribution to each appliance is the same from the power supply line
b) the working of the appliance can be controlled using individual switch
c) the working of the appliances are not dependent on each other
Q8. Ten bulbs are connected in a series circuit to a power supply line. Ten identical bulbs are connected in
a:
a) an identical power supply line
b) which circuit would have the highest voltage across each bulb?
c) in which circuit would the bulbs be brighter?
d) in which circuit, if one bulb blows out, all others will stop glowing?
e) which circuit would have less current in it?
Answer:
a) To have an identical power supply line, the circuit must be parallel
b) When the circuit is parallel, each bulb will have highest voltage
c) The working of the appliance can be controlled using individual switch when a parallel circuit is used
d) The working of the appliances are not dependent on each other when they are connected in parallel
Q9. Consider the circuits given below:
a) In which circuit are the lamps dimmest?

b) In which circuit or circuits are the lamps of equal brightness to the lamps in circuit?
c) Which circuit gives out the maximum light?
Answer:
a) In circuit (ii) the lamps are the dimmest

b) In circuit (iii) the lamps are of equal brightness
c) In circuit (i) the maximum light is obtained
Q10. If you were going to connect two light bulbs to one battery, would you use a series or a parallel
arrangement? Why? Which arrangement takes more current from the battery?
Answer:
When the arrangement is in parallel the consumption of current from the battery is more. The defect in any of the
bulb won’t affect the working of the other bulbs.

Q11. a) Which is the better way to connect lights and other electrical appliances in domestic wiring: series
circuits or parallel circuit? Why?
b) Christmas tree lamps are usually wired in series. What happens if one lamp breaks?
c) An electrician has wired a house in such a way that if a lamp gets fused in one room of the house, all the
lamps in other rooms of the house stop working. What is the defect in the wiring?
d) Draw a circuit diagram showing two electric lamps connected in parallel together with a cell and a
switch that works both lamps. Mark an A enclosed in a circle on your diagram to show where an ammeter
should be placed to measure the current.
Answer:
a) When domestic wiring is to be done, parallel circuits are better than series. This is because when one of the
electrical appliance stops working, others are affected.
b) When the lamps are connected in series, the lamps stop glowing.
c) All the lamps are connected in series.

d)

Q12. The lamps in a household circuit are connected in parallel because:
a) this way they required less current
b) if one lamp fails the others remain lit
c) this way they require less power
d) if one lamp fails the others also fail
Answer:
The correct option is b) if one lamp fails, the others remain lit.
When the lamps are arranged in parallel connection, the current flowing through them are different. Therefore, if
one lamp fails, the others remain lit.
Q13. Using the circuit given below, state which of the following statement is correct?
a) When S1 and S2 are closed, lamps A and B are lit

b) With S1 open and S2 closed, A is lit and B is not lit
c) With S2 open and S1 closed A and B are lit
d) With S1 closed and S2 open, lamp A remains lit even if lamp B gets fused
Answer:
The correct option is c) With S2 open and S1 closed A and B are lit.
Q14. a) Draw a circuit diagram showing two lamps, one cell, and a switch connected in series.
b) How can you change the brightness of the lamps?
Answer:
a)
b) The brightness of the lamp can be changed by connecting the lamps in parallel.
Q15. Consider the circuit given below where A, B, and C are three identical light bulbs of constant
resistance.
a) List the bulbs in order of increasing brightness

b) If C burns out, what will be the brightness of A now compared with before?
c) If B burns out instead, what will be the brightness of A and C compared with before?
Answer:
a) The brightest among the three is C while A and B will have equal brightness.
b) The brightness of A will remain unchanged if C burns out as the voltage of A remains unaltered.
c) If B burns out, then A will also burn out as they are connected in series with each other. However, C remains to
be the brightest.
Q16. How do you think the brightness of two lamps arranged in parallel compares with the brightness of
two lamps arranged in series?
Answer:
When the two lamps are arranged in parallel, the lamps will have more brightness than when they are arranged in
series.
Q17. If current flows through two lamps arranged in:

a) series
b) parallel
and the filament of one lamp breaks, what happens to the other lamp? Explain
Answer:
a) When the lamps are arranged in series, the lamps stop glowing when the filament of one of the lamps breaks.
b) When the lamps are arranged in parallel, the lamps continue to glow even if one of the lamps breaks.
Q18. The figure below shows a variable resistor in a dimmer switch
How would you turn the switch to make the lights

a) brighter
b) dimmer
Answer:
a) To make the lights brighter, the switch has to be turned to the right as the resistances decreases when turned to
the right.
b) To make the lights dimmer, the switch has to be turned to the left as the resistance increases when turned to the
left.
Page No: 58

Q1. State two factors on which the electrical energy consumed by an electrical appliance depends.
Answer:
Following are the two factors on which the electrical energy consumed by an electrical appliance depends:
a) Usage time of the appliance
b) Power rating of the appliance
Q2. Which one has a higher electrical resistance: a 100 watt bulb or a 60 watt bulb?
Answer:
60 watt bulb has a higher electrical resistance than a 100 watt bulb because we know that power is inversely
proportional to the resistance.
Q3. Name the commercial unit of electric energy.

Answer:
The commercial unit of electric energy is kilowatt-hour.
Q4. An electric bulb is rated at 220V, 100W. What is its resistance?

Answer:
Given,
V = 220V
P = 100W
R=?
We know that,
R = V2/P
R = 484 ohm
Q5. What is the SI unit of electric energy and electric power?

Answer:
The SI unit of electric energy is joule and the SI unit of electric power is watt.
Q6. Name the quantity whose unit is kilowatt and kilowatt-hour.

Answer:
Kilowatt is the unit of electric power and kilowatt-hour is the unit of electric energy.
Q7. Which quantity has the unit of watt?

Answer:
Watt is the unit of electric power.
Q8. What is the meaning of the symbol kWh? Which quantity does it represent?
Answer:
kWh is the commercial unit of electrical energy and it stands for kilowatt-hour.
Q9. If the potential difference between the end of a wire of fixed resistance is doubled, by how much does
the electric power increase?
Answer:
We know that,
P =V2/R
R is constant
V is doubled
Therefore, P = 2(V2)/R
P = 4V/R
Therefore, when the resistance is doubled, power becomes four times the actual value.
Q10. An electric lamp is labelled 12V, 36W. This indicates that it should be used with a 12V supply. What
other information does the label provide?
Answer:
The other information provided by the label is that the rate of consumption of energy takes place at 36J/s.
Q11. What current will be taken by a 920W appliance if the supply voltage is 230V?
Answer:
Given,
P = 920W
V = 230V
I=?
We know that,
P = VI
920 = 230I
I = 920/230
I = 4A

Q12. Define watt. Write down an equation linking watts, volts, and ampere.
Answer:
Following is the equation that relates watts, volts, and ampere:
1 watt = 1 volt × 1 ampere
Q13. Define watt-hour. How many joules are equal to 1 watt-hour?

Answer:
Watt-hour is defined as the amount of electrical energy that is consumed when an electrical appliance of 1 watt
power is used for 1 hour.
1 watt-hour = 3600 joules.
Q14. How much energy is consumed when a current of 5 ampere flows through the filament of a heater
having resistance of 100 ohms for two hours? Express it in joules.
Answer:
Given,
I = 5A
R = 100 ohm
T = 2 hours
We know that,
Energy consumed = P × T = I RT
2
Substituting the values,

Energy consumed = 5kWh
1kWh = 3.6 × 10 J
6
Therefore, 5kWh = 5 ×3.6 × 10 J = 18 × 10 J

6 6
Q15. An electric bulb is connected to a 220V power supply line, if the bulb draws a current of 0.5A,
calculate the power of the bulb.
Answer:
Given,
V = 220V
I = 0.5A
P=?
We know that,
P = VI
P = 110 watt
Q16. In which of the following cases more electrical energy is consumed per hour?
a) A current of 1 ampere passed through a resistance of 300 ohms
b) A current of 2 amperes passed through a resistance of 100 ohms
Answer:
a) Given,
R = 300 ohm
I = 1 amp
T = 1 hour
P = I R = 300W
2
E = PT = 300 watt-hour
b) Given,
R = 100 ohm
I = 2 amp
T = 1 hour
P = I R = 400W
2
E = PT = 400 watt-hour
Therefore, in second case the consumption of electrical energy per hour is more.
Q17. An electric kettle rated at 220V, 2.2kW works for 3 hours. Find the energy consumed and the current
drawn.
Answer:
Given,
V = 220V
P = 2.2kW = 2200 watt
T = 3 hours
We know that
Energy consumed = PT = 6.6kWh
We also know that,
P = VI
Therefore, I = 10 amp
Q18. In a house two 60W electric bulbs are lighted for 4 hours and three 100W bulbs for 5 hour everyday.
Calculate the electric energy consumed in 30 days.
Answer:
Case 1
Power, P1 = 60W
Number, n1 = 2
Time for use, T1 = 4 hours everyday
Energy consumed, E1 = n1 × P1 × T1
E1 = 2 × 60 × 4 = 480watt-hour = 0.48kWh
Therefore, energy consumed for 30 days = 30 × 0.48 = 14.4watt-hour
Case 2
Power, P2 = 100W
Number, n2 = 3
Time for use T2 = 5 hours everyday
Energy consumed, E2 = n2 × P2 × T2
E2 = 3 × 100 × 5 = 1500 = 1.5kWh
Therefore, energy consumed for 30 days = 30 × 1.5 = 45kWh
Therefore, overall energy consumed = 14.4 + 45 = 59.4kWh
Q19. A bulb is rated as 250V, 0.4A. Find

a) Power
b) Resistance
Answer:
Given,
V = 250V
I = 0.4 amp
a) P = ?
P = VI
P = 100 watt
b) R = ?
P = IR
2
R = 625 ohm
Q20. For a heater rated at 4kW and 220V, calculate:

a) the current
b) the resistance of the heater
c) the energy consumed in 2 hours
d) the cost if 1 kWh is priced at Rupees 60
Answer:
Given,
P = 4kW
V = 220V
a) I = ?
P = VI
I = 16amp
b) R = ?
P = IR
2
R = 15.25 ohm
c) Energy consumed in two hours = PT

E = 8kWh
d) If 1kWh = Rupees 4.6

Total cost = Rupees 36.8
Q21. An electric motor takes 5 ampere current from a 220 volt supply line. Calculate the power of the
motor and electric energy consumed by it in 2.
Answer:
Given,
I = 5amp
V = 220V
T = 2 hours
P=?
E=?
P = VI
P = 1.1kW
Energy consumed E = PT
E = 2.2kWh
Q22. Which uses more energy: a 250W TV set in 1 hour or a 1200W toaster in 10 minutes?
Answer:
Case 1: TV set
P = 250W = 0.25kWh
T = 1 hour
Energy consumed, E = PT = 0.25kWh
Case 2: Toaster
P = 1200W = 1.2kW
T = 10 min = 1/6 hour
Energy consumed, E = PT = 0.2kWh
Therefore, it can be concluded that TV uses more power.
Q23. Calculate the power used in the 2Ω resistor in each of the following circuits:
a) a 6V battery in series with 1Ω and 2Ω resistors
b) a 4V battery in parallel with 12Ω and 2Ω resistors
Answer:
a) Given,
V = 6V
R1 = 1 ohm
R2 = 2 ohm
Equivalent resistance, R = R1 + R2 = 3 ohm
Total current, I = V/R = 6/3 = 2amp
Current through R2 = I2 = I = 2amp
Voltage across R2 = V2 = I2R2 = 4 ohm
Power used in R2 = I2V2 = 8W
b) V = 4V
R1 = 12 ohm
R2 = 2 ohm
Voltage across R2 = V2 = V = 4V
Current across R2 = I2 = V2/R2 = 2 amp
Power used in R2 = I2V2 = 8W
Q24. Two lamps one rated 40 watt at 220V and the other 60 watt at 220V are connected in parallel to the
electric supply at 220V.
a) Draw a circuit diagram to show the connections
b) Calculate the current drawn from the electric supply
c) Calculate the total energy consumed by the two lamps together when they operate for one hour
Answer:
Given,
No.of lamps = 2
P1 = 40W
P2 = 60W
V = 220V
a)
b) Voltage across both the bulbs is the same and is equal to 220V
Current through 40W lamp = I1 = P1/V = 40/220 amp
Current through 60W lamp = I2 = P2/V = 60/220 amp
Total current drawn from the electric supply = 40/220 + 60/220 = 0.45 amp
c) Energy consumed by 40W lamp in 1 hour, E1 = PT = 40 watt-hour

1 watt-hour = 3.6kj
E1 = 144kJ
Energy consumed by 60 watt lamp in 1 hour, E2 = PT = 216kJ
Total energy consumed = 144 + 216 = 360kJ
Q25. An electric kettle connected to the 230V mains supply draws a current of 10A. Calculate:
a) the power of the kettle
b) the energy transferred in 1 minute
Answer:
Given,
V = 230V
I = 10amp
a) P = VI
P = 2300 watt = 2300 J/s
b) Energy consumed in one minute = PT

= 138000 J
Q26. A 2kW heater, a 200 watt TV and three 100 watt lamps are all switched on from 6-10PM. What is the
total cost at Rupees 5.50 per kWh?
Answer:
For heater,
P = 2kWh
T = 4 hours
Energy consumed = PT = 8kWh
For TV,
P = 200 watt = 0.2kW
T = 4 hours
Energy consumed = PT = 0.8kWh
For lamps,
P = 100 watt = 0.1kW
T = 4 hours
n=3
Energy consumed = PTn = 1.2kWh
Total energy consumed = 8 + 0.8 + 1.2 = 10kWh

Cost of 1kWh = Rupees 5.50
Total cost = Rupees 55.
Q27. What is the maximum power in kilowatts of the appliance that can be connected safely to a 13A, 230V
mains socket?
Answer:
Given,
I = 13amp
V = 230V
P = VI
P = 2.99kW
Q28. An electric fan runs from the 230V mains. The current flowing through it is 0.4A. At what rate is
electrical energy transferred by the fan?
Answer:
Given,
V = 230V
I = 0.4ampRate at which electrical energy is transferred = Power
P = VI
P = 92watt = 92J/s

Q29. a) What is meant by “electric power”? Write the formula for electric power in terms of potential
difference and current.
b) The diagram below shows a circuit containing a lamp L, a voltmeter, and an ammeter. The voltmeter
reading is 3V and the ammeter reading is 0.5A.
What is the resistance and power of the lamp?

c) Define kilowatt-hour. How many joules are there in one kilowatt-hour?
d) Calculate the cost of operating a heater of 500W for 20 hours at the rate of? Rupees 3.90 per unit.
Answer:
a) Electric power is defined as the rate at which the consumption of electric energy takes place. It is given as:
P = VI = watt
b) Given,
V = 3V
I = 0.5 amp
R=?
P=?
V = IR
R = 6 ohms
P = VI
P = 1.5 watt
c) The energy consumed when an electrical appliance with power 1 kilowatt is used for 1 hour, that is known as
one kilowatt hour.
d) Given,
P = 500W = 0.5kW
T = 20 hour
Energy consumed = PT = 10kWh
Total cost = ?
Cost per unit = Rupees 3.9
Therefore, total cost = Rupees 39
Q30. When an electric lamp is connected to 12V battery, it draws a current of 0.5A. The power of the lamp
is:
a) 0.5W
b) 6W
c) 12W
d) 24W
Answer:
The correct option is b) 6W
We know that power is calculated as P = VI. Substituting the values of V and I we get P = 6W.
Q31. The unit for expressing electric power is:

a) Volt
b) Joule
c) Coulomb
d) Watt
Answer:
The correct option is d) Watt
Watt is the unit that is used for expressing the electric power.
Q32. Which of the following is likely to be the correct wattage for an electric iron used in our homes?
a) 60W
b) 250 W
c) 850W
d) 2000W
Answer:
The correct option is c) 850W
The electric iron that is used in our homes have 850W power.
Q33. An electric heater is rated at 2kW. Electrical energy costs rupees 4 per kWh. What is the cost of using
the heater for 3 hours?
a) Rupees 12
b) Rupees 24
c) Rupees 36
d) Rupees 48
Answer:
The correct option is b) Rupees 24.
It is given that the electrical energy cost is Rupees 4/kWh
Time duration is 3 hours
The power of the electric heater is 2kW
Using the given information we can calculate the amount for 3 hours as Rupees 24.
Q34. The SI unit of energy is:

a) Joule
b) Coulomb
c) Watt
d) Ohm-meter
Answer:
The correct answer is a) Joule
The SI unit of energy is joule.
Q35. The commercial unit of energy is:

a) Watt
b) Watt-hour
c) Kilowatt-hour
d) Kilo-joule
Answer:
The correct option is c) Kilowatt-hour
Kilowatt hour is the commercial unit of energy.
Q36. How much energy is does a 100W electric bulb transfer in 1 minutes?
a) 100J
b) 600J
c) 3600J
d) 6000J
Answer:
The correct option is d) 6000J
6000J of energy is transferred in an electric bulb with a power of 100W in 1 minute.
Q37. An electric kettle for use on a 230V supply is rated at 3000W. For safe working, the cable connected to
it should be able to carry at least:
a) 2A
b) 5A
c) 10A
d) 15A
Answer:
The correct option is d) 15A
15A current is required for the safe working of an electric kettle that has a supply of 230V.
Q38. How many joules of electrical energy are transferred per second by a 6V, 0.5A lamp?
a) 30 J/s
b) 12 J/s
c) 0.83 J/s
d) 3 J/s
Answer:
The correct option is d) 3 J/s
When 6V and 0.5A lamp is used, 3 J/s electrical energy is required.
Q39. At a given time, a house is supplied with 100A at 220V. How many 75W, 220V light bulbs could be
switched on in the house at the same times if they are all connected in parallel?
a) 93
b) 193
c) 293
d) 393
Answer:
The correct option is c) 293
A total of 293 bulbs can be used when they are all connected in parallel and have 75W and 220V.
Q40. If the potential difference between the ends of a fixed resistor is halved, the electric power will
becomes:
a) double
b) half
c) four times
d) one-fourth
Answer:
The correct option is d) one-fourth
When the potential difference between the ends of a fixed resistor is halved, the electric power becomes one-
fourth of the actual value.
Lakhmir Singh Physics Class 10 Solutions Page No: 66

Q1. How does the heat H produced by a current passing through a fixed resistance wire depend on the
magnitude of current I?
Answer:
The heat H produced by a current passing through a fixed resistance wire is directly proportional to the magnitude
of the current I.
Q2. If the current passing through a conductor is doubled, what will be the change in heat produced?
Answer:
When the current passing through a conductor is doubled, the heat produced will increase by four times. This is
because the heat produced is directly proportional to the square of current.
Q3. Name two effects produced by electric current.

Answer:
Following are the two effects produced by electric current:
a) Heating effect
b) Magnetic effect
Q4. Which effect of current is utilized in an electric light bulb?

Answer:
The heating effect of current is utilized in an electric light bulb.
Q5. Which effect of current is utilized in the working of an electric fuse?
Answer:
The heating effect of current is utilized in the working of an electric fuse.
Q6. Name two devices which work on the heating effect of electric current.
Answer:
Following are the two devices that work on the heating effect of an electric current:
a) Electric heater
b) Electric fuse
Q7. Name two gases which are filled in filament type electric light bulbs.
Answer:
Following are the two gases that are filled in filament type electric light bulbs:
a) Argon
b) Nitrogen
Q8. Explain why, filament type electric bulbs are not power efficient.
Answer:
Filament type electric bulbs are not power efficient because they consume most of the electric power as heat and a
very small amount of electric power is converted into light.
Q9. Why does the connecting cord of an electric heater not glow hot while the heating element does?
Answer:
The connecting cord of an electric heater does not glow hot while the heating element does because the
connecting cord is made from copper which does not glow as the heat produced is negligible. Whereas in a
heating element is made from the nichrome glows because a large amount of heat is produced when the current is
passed through it.
Q10. a) Write down the formula for the heat produced when a current I is passed through a resistor R for
time t.
b) An electric iron of resistance 20 ohms draws a current of 5 amperes. Calculate the heat produced in 30
seconds.
Answer:
a) Following is the formula for the heat produced:
H = I Rt
2
b) Given,
R = 20Ω
I = 5amp
t = 30s
We know that,
H = I Rt
2
Substituting the values we get,

H = 15000J
Q11. State three factors on which the heat produced by an electric current depends. How does it depend on
these factors?
Answer:
Following are the three factors on which the heat produced by an electric current depend:
a) Heat produced is directly proportional to the square of current
b) Heat produced is directly proportional to resistance
c) Heat produced is directly proportional to the time for which the current flows
Q13. Why is an electric bulb not filled with air? Explain why argon or nitrogen is filled in an electric bulb.
Answer:
An electric bulb is not filled with air because the filament in an electric bulb is made using tungsten which would
burn quickly when it comes in contact with the oxygen in the air. This is the reason why unreactive gases such as
argon and nitrogen is used for filling an electric bulb. These gases are chemically unreactive.
Q14. Explain why, tungsten is used for making the filaments of an electric bulb.
Answer:
Tungsten is used for the making of the filaments of an electric bulb because the melting point of the tungsten is
very high. This means that the filament remains burning hot but won’t melt. The other reason for using tungsten is
that it is flexible and the rate of evaporation is low at high temperatures.
Q15. Explain why, the current that makes the heater element very hot, only slightly warms the connecting
wires leading to the heater.
Answer:
The connecting wires leading to the heater are slightly warmer than the wires that makes the heater element hot
because they have low resistance which results in flow of negligible heat production in them.
Q16. When a current of 4amp passes through a certain resistor for 10 minutes, 2.88 × 10 J of heat are
4
produced. Calculate
a) the power of the resistor
b) the voltage across the resistor
Answer:
Given,
I = 4amp
T = 10min = 600s
H = 2.88 × 10 J
4
a) We know that,
H = I RT
2
28800 = 4 ×600R
2
R = 3 ohms
We know that,
P = IR
2
P = 48W
b) We know that,
V = IR
V = 12V
Q17. A heating coil has a resistance of 200Ω. At what rate will heat be produced in it when a current of
2.5A flows through it?
Answer:
Given,
R = 200 ohms
I = 2.5amp
T = 1s
We know that,
H = I RT
2
H = 1250J/s
Q18. An electric heater of resistance 8Ω takes a current of 15A from the mains supply line. Calculate the
rate at which heat is developed in the heater.
Answer:
Given,
R = 8ohm
I = 15amp
T =1s
We know that,
H = I RT
2
H = 1800J/s
Q19. A resistance of 25Ω is connected to a 12V battery. Calculate the heat energy in joules generated per
minute.
Answer:
Given,
R = 25Ω
V = 12V
T = 60s
H=?
V = IR
12 = 25I
I = 0.48amp
We know that,
H = I RT
2
H = 345.6J
Q20. 100 joules of heat is produced per second in a 4ohm resistor. What is the potential difference across
the resistor?
Answer:
Given,
H = 100J
T = 1s
R = 4ohms
We know that,
H = I RT
2
100 = I x 4 x 1
2
100/4 = I 2
I = 5amp
V = IR
V=5x4
V = 20V
Q21. a) Derive the expression for the heat produced due to a current I flowing for a time interval t through
a resistor R having a potential difference V across its ends. With which name is this relation known?
b) How much heat will an instrument of 12W produce in one minute if it is connected to a battery of 12V?
c) The current passing through a room heater has been halved. What will happen to the heat produced by
it?
d) What is meant by the heating effect of current? Give two applications of the heating effect of current.
e) Name the material which is used for making the filaments of an electric bulb.
Answer:
a) When an electric charge Q moves against the potential difference V then the amount of work done is given as:
W = Q × V (1)
We know, current I = Q/T
Q = IT (2)
By Ohm’s law,
V/I = R
V = IR (3)
Substituting the equation (2) and (3) in (1), we get
W = I RT 2
Assumption:
The electrical work done is converted into heat energy
Therefore, heat produced is H = I RT
2
The above equation is known as Joule’s law of heating
b) Given,
P = 12W
V = 12V
T = 60s
We know that,
P =VI
I = P/V
= 12/12
= 1amp
V = IR
R = V/I
= 12/1
= 12 ohm
H = I RT
2
H = 720J
c) Since the heat produced is directly proportional to the square of the current, the heat produced by the heater
will becomes one-fourth.
d) The heating effect of current is the production of heat when an electric current is passed through the wire that
has a high resistance. This effect is used in electric oven and electric heaters.
e) For the making of an electric bulb, tungsten is used.

Q22. The heat produced by passing an electric current through a fixed resistor is proportional to the
square of:
a) magnitude of resistance of the resistor

b) temperature of the resistor
c) magnitude of current
d) time for which current is passed
Answer:
The correct option is c) magnitude of current
The heat produced by passing an electric current through a fixed resistor is proportional to the square of the
magnitude of current.
Q23. The current passing through an electric kettle has been doubled. The heat produced will becomes:
a) half
b) double
c) four times
d) one-fourth
Answer:
The correct option is c) four times
The heat produced in an electric kettle becomes four times the actual value when the current is doubled.
Q24. An electric fuse works on the:

a) chemical effect of current
b) magnetic effect of current
c) lighting effect of current
d) heating effect of current
Answer:
The correct option is d) heating effect of current
Heating effect of current is the working principle for an electric fuse.
Q25. The elements of electric heating devices are usually made of:
a) tungsten
b) bronze
c) nichrome
d) argon
Answer:
The correct option is c) nichrome
The elements of an electric heating devices are made using nichrome.
Q26. The heat produced in a wire of resistance ‘x’ when a current ‘y’ flows through it in time ‘z’ is given
by:
a) x × y × z
2
b) x × z × y2
c) y × z × x
2
d) y × z × x
Answer:
The correct option is b) x × z × y2
Q27. Which of the following characteristics is not suitable for a fuse wire?
a) thin and short

b) thick and short
c) low melting point
d) higher resistance than rest of wiring
Answer:
The correct option is b) thick and short
When a fuse wire is thick the electrons available are more which is not a suitable characteristic of a fuse wire.
Q28. In a filament types light bulb, most of the electric power consumed appears as:
a) visible light
b) infrared rays
c) ultraviolet rays
d) fluorescent light
Answer:
The correct option is b) infrared rays
The electric power consumed in a filament type light bulb is an infrared rays.
Q29. Which of the following is the most likely temperature of the filament of an electric light bulb when it
is working on the normal 220V supply line?
a) 500°C
b) 1500°C
c) 2500°C
d) 4500°C
Answer:
The correct option is c) 2500°C
Q30. If the current flowing through a fixed resistor is halved, the heat produced in it will becomes:
a) double
b) one-half
c) one-fourth
d) four times
Answer:
The correct option is: c) four times
When the current flowing through a fixed resistor is halved, then the heat produced in the resistor will becomes
four times the actual value.
Q31. The electrical resistivities of four materials P, Q, R, and S are given below:
P: 6.84 × 10 Ωm -8
Q: 1.70 × 10 Ωm -8
R: 1.0 × 10 Ωm
15
S: 11.0 × 10 Ωm
-7
Which material will you use for making:

a) heating element of electric iron
b) connecting wires of electric iron
c) covering of connecting wires
Give reason for your choice in each case.
Answer:
a) The heating element of an electric iron is S because the resistivity of S is high. This material is nichrome.
b) The connecting wires of an electric iron is Q as it has low resistivity. This material is copper.
c) The covering of connecting wires is R as the resistivity of R is very high and the material is rubber.
Q32. a) How does the wire in the filament of a light bulb behave differently to the other wires in the circuit
when the current flows?
b) What property of the filament wire accounts for this difference?
Answer:
a) The behavior of the wire in the filament of a light bulb is different from the other wires of the circuit as the wire
used in the filament becomes white hot while the other wires do not heat much.
b) The high resistance of the filament wire is responsible for the difference seen between the filament wire and the
other wires of the circuit.
Q33. Two exactly similar heating resistances are connected in series and in parallel in two different circuits
one by one. If the same current is passed through both the combinations, is more heat obtained per minute
when they are connected in series or when they are connected in parallel? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
When the heating resistances are connected in series more heat is obtained per minute. This is because the total
resistance in series combination is more when compared to the total resistance in parallel combination.
Q34. An electric iron is connected to the mains power supply of 220V. When the electric iron is adjusted at
‘minimum heating’ it consumes a power of 360W but at ‘maximum heating’ it takes a power of 840W.
Calculate the current and resistance in each case.
Answer:
Given,
V = 220V
Pmin = 360W
Pmax = 840 W
When the heating is minimum,

Pmin = VI
360 = I220
I = 1.63amp
R = V/I
R = 200/1.63
R = 134.96 ohms
When the heating is maximum,

Pmax = VI
840 = 220I
I = 3.81amp
R = V/I
R = 220/3.81
R = 57.74 ohms
Q35. Which electric heating devices in your home do you think have resistors which control the flow of
electricity?
Answer:
Following are the electric heating devices that have resistors that control the flow of electricity:
a) Electric iron
b) Room heater
c) Water heater
d) Electric oven
Lakhmir Singh Solutions Class 10 Physics Chapter 2 –
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
Page No: 73
Q1. State any two properties of magnetic field lines.
Answer:
Following are the properties of magnetic field lines:
a) The magnetic field lines always originate from the north pole and end in the south pole.
b) The magnetic field lines never cross each other.
Q2. What are the two ways in which you can trace the magnetic field pattern of a bar magnet?
Answer:
Following are the two ways in which the magnetic field patter of a bar magnet can be traced:
a) By using iron filings
b) By using compass
Q3. You are given the magnetic field pattern of a magnet. How will you find out from it where the magnetic field
is the strongest?
Answer:
The magnetic field is the strongest when the magnetic field lines are closest to each other.
Q4. State whether the following statement is true or false:
The axis of earth’s imaginary magnet and the geographical axis coincide with each other.
Answer:
False
The axis of earth’s imaginary magnet and the geographical axis are inclined to each other 15 degrees.
Q5. Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet?
Answer:
A compass needle gets deflected when brought near a bar magnet because the needle experiences a magnetic field
exerted by the bar magnet.
Q6. Where do the manufacturers use a magnetic strip in the refrigerator? Why is the magnetic strip used?
Answer:
Magnetic strips are used in the doors of the refrigerator to keep the door closed.
a) Magnetic field lines leaves the …. Pole of a bar magnet and enters at its …..
b) The earth’s magnetic field is rather like that of a ….. magnet with its …. Pole in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
a) North and south

b) Bar and south
Q8. Draw a diagram to show the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
Answer:
Q9. What is a magnetic field? How can the direction of magnetic field lines at a place be determined?
Answer:
Magnetic field is the space that surrounds the magnet in which the magnetic force is exerted. The direction of the
magnetic field lines at a place can be determined by using a compass needle. The needle of the compass gets deflected
when it placed near the magnetic field. The north end of the compass indicates the direction of magnetic field.
Q10. Explain why two magnetic field lines do not intersect each other?
Answer:
The two magnetic field lines do not intersect each other because the resultant force on the north pole will always be in
one direction. When the magnetic field lines intersect, the resultant force will in two directions which is not possible.
Q11. When an electric current is passed through any wire, a magnetic field is produced around it. Then why an
electric iron connecting cable does not attract iron objects when electric current is switched on through it?
Answer:
As the strength of the magnetic field produced by the cable is weak.
Q12. a) Define magnetic field lines. Describe an activity to draw a magnetic field line outside a bar magnet from
one pole to another pole.
b) Explain why a freely suspended magnet always points in the north-south direction.
Answer:
a) There will be a movement in the magnetic field lines when the north magnetic pole is moved. The magnetic field
lines are also known as magnetic lines of force.
Activity:
Take a small compass and a bar magnet.
Place the bar magnet on a fixed placed on the drawing board using a adhesive material.
The boundary of the magnet should be marked.
The compass should be placed near the north pole of the magnet. The south pole of the needle points towards the north
pole of the magnet.
Mark the ends of the needle.
By moving the needle, we can see that the north pole is occupied by the south pole of the needle.
By joining the points marked, a smooth curve is obtained.
b) A freely suspended magnet points towards the north-south direction because the earth behave as a magnet with its
south pole in the geographical north and the north pole in its geographical south.
Q13. A strong bar magnet is placed vertically above a horizontal wooden board. The magnetic lines of force will
be:
a) only in horizontal plane around the magnet
b) only in vertical plane around the magnet
c) in horizontal as well as in vertical planes around the magnet
d) in all the planes around the magnet
Answer:
The correct option is d) in all the planes around the magnet
Q14. The magnetic field lines produced by a bar magnet:
a) originate from the south pole and end at its north pole
b) originate from the north pole and end at its east pole
c) originate from the north pole and end at its south pole
d) originate from the south pole and end at its west pole
Answer:
The correct option is c) originate from the north pole and end at its south pole
Q15. Which of the following is not attracted by a magnet?
a) steel
b) cobalt
c) brass
d) nickel
Answer:
The correct option is c) brass
Q16. The magnetic field lines:
a) intersect at right angles to one another
b) intersect at an angle of 45⸰ to each other
c) do not cross one another
d) cross at an angle of 60⸰ to one another
Answer:
The correct option is c) do not cross one another
Q17. The north pole of earth’s magnet is in the:
a) geographical south
b) geographical east
c) geographical west
d) geographical north
Answer:
The correct option is a) geographical south
Q18. The axis of earth’s magnetic field is inclined with the geographical axis at an angle of about:
a) 5⸰
b) 15⸰
c) 25⸰
d) 35⸰
Answer:
The correct option is b) 15⸰
Q19. The shape of the earth’s magnetic field resembles that of an imaginary:
a) U-shaped magnet
b) straight conductor carrying current
c) current-carrying circular coil
d) bar magnet
Answer:
The correct option is d) bar magnet
Q20. A magnet attracts:
a) plastics
b) any metal
c) aluminum
d) iron and steel
Answer:
The correct option is d) iron and steel
Q21. A plotting compass is placed near the south pole of a bar magnet. The pointer of plotting compass will:
a) point away from the south pole
b) point parallel to the south pole
c) point towards the south pole
d) point at right angles to the south pole
Answer:
The correct option is c) point towards the south pole
Q22. The metallic pointer of a plotting compass gets deflected only when it is placed near a bar magnet because
the pointer has:
a) electromagnetism
b) permanent magnetism
c) induced magnetism
d) ferromagnetism
Answer:
The correct option is b) permanent magnetism
Q23. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding magnetic field lines?
a) the direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the north pole of a magnetic
compass needle points
b) magnetic field lines are closed curves
c) if magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength
d) relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines
Answer:
The correct option is c) if magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength
Page No: 81
Q1. Which effect of current can be utilized in detecting a current-carrying wire concealed in a wall?
Answer:
Magnetic effect of current can be utilized in detecting a current-carrying wire that is concealed in a wall.
Q2. What conclusion do you get from the observation that a current-carrying wire deflects a compass needle
placed near it?
Answer:
The conclusion that is drawn by observing a current-carrying wire that deflects a compass needle is that there is a
production of magnetic field around the needle.
Q3. Name the scientist who discovered the magnetic effect of current.
Answer:
Oersted was the scientist who discovered the magnetic effect of current.
Q4. State qualitatively the effect of inserting an iron core into a current-carrying solenoid.
Answer:
When an iron core is inserted into a current-carrying solenoid, the magnetic field becomes very strong.
Q5. Name the rule for finding the direction of magnetic field produced by a straight current-carrying conductor.
Answer:
The rule for finding the direction of magnetic field produced by a straight current-carrying conductor is Maxwell’s
right hand thumb rule.
Q6. State the form of magnetic field lines around a straight current-carrying conductor.
Answer:
The magnetic lines around a straight current-carrying conductor form a concentric circles.
Q7. What is the other name of Maxwell’s right-hand thumb rule?
Answer:
The other name of Maxwell’s right-hand thumb rule is Maxwell’s corkscrew rule.
The magnetic field inside a long circular coil carrying current will be parallel straight lines.
Answer:
True.
Q9. What is the shape of a current-carrying conductor whose magnetic field pattern resembles that of a bar
magnet?
Answer:
Solenoid is the shape of a current-carrying conductor.
Q10. State three ways in which the strength of an electromagnet can be increased.
Answer:
Following are the three ways in which the strength of an electromagnet can be increased:
a) By increasing the number of turns in the coil
b) By increasing the current flowing through the coil
c) By reducing the length of the air gap present between the poles
a) The lines of ….. round a straight current-carrying conductor are in the shape of …..
b) For a current-carrying solenoid, the magnetic field is like that of a ……..
c) The magnetic effect of a coil can be increased by increasing the number of ………, increasing the …….., or
inserting an …. core.
d) If a coil is viewed from one end and the current flows in an anticlockwise direction, then this end is a pole.
e) If a coil is viewed from one end, and the current flows in a clockwise direction, then this end is a …..
Answer:
a) Magnetic field and concentric circles
b) Bar magnet
c) Turns, current, and iron
d) North
e) South
Q12. Describe how you will locate a current-carrying wire concealed in a wall.
Answer:
A current-carrying wire concealed in a wall can be located with the help of magnetic effect of the current by using a
plotting compass. As the plotting compass is moved across the wall, a deflection is observed on the needle at the place
where current-carrying wire is concealed.
Q13. Describe some experiment to show that the magnetic field is associated with an electric current.
Answer:
A thick insulated copper wire AB is placed in the north-south direction as shown in the figure. A plotting compass M is
placed under the copper wire AB. Both the ends of the wire are connected to the battery with the help of a switch. The
compass needle is parallel to AB when there is no flow of current. As the current flows through the wire AB, a small
deflection is seen in the needle. Therefore, the deflection in the needle is used for detecting the magnetic field
associated with an electric current.
Q14. a) Draw a sketch to show the magnetic lines of force due to a current-carrying straight conductor.
b) Name and state the rule to determine the direction of magnetic field around a straight current-carrying
conductor.
Answer:
a)
b) The rule that is used to for determining the direction of magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor is
Maxwell’s right hand rule. According to the rule, the thumb points at the direction of the current and the direction in
which the fingers have encircled the current-carrying conductor gives the direction of the magnetic field lines around
the wire.
Q15. State and explain Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule.
Answer:
According to Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule, when a current-carrying conductor is held in the right hand, the thumb
gives the direction of current and the fingers that have encircled the conductor gives the direction of the magnetic field
lines around the wire.
Consider a straight current-carrying wire which is held vertically in the upward direction from A to B. The wire is held
as in the given figure to find the direction of the magnetic field lines that is produced when the current flows through
the wire. The thumb gives the direction of the current. The fingers that are encircled around the wire gives the direction
of the magnetic field lines. The direction of the magnetic field lines is in the anticlockwise direction.
Q16. What is Maxwell’s corkscrew rule? For what purpose is it used?
Answer:
According to the Maxwell’s corkscrew rule, the corkscrew is in the direction of the current and the handle gives the
direction of the magnetic field. This rule is used for determining the direction of the magnetic field around the straight
current-carrying conductor.
Q17. a) Draw the magnetic lines of force due to a circular wire carrying current.
b) What are the various ways in which the strength of magnetic field produced by a current-carrying circular
coil can be increased?
Answer:
a)
b) The strength of the magnetic field produced by the current-carrying circular coil is increased by increasing the
number of turns of the wire in the coil and by increasing the current flowing through the coil.
Q18. State and explain the clock face rule for determining the polarities of a circular wire carrying current.
Answer:
According to the clock face rule, to look at one face of a circular wire when the current is passing through it is:
i) When the current around the face of the circular wire flows in the clockwise direction, then that face of the circular
wire will be south pole.
ii) When the current around the face of the circular wire flows in the anti-clockwise direction, then that face of the
circular wire will be north pole.
Q19. Name any two factors on which the strength of magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid
depends. How does it depend on these factors?
Answer:
The strength of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid depends on:
a) the current flowing through the solenoid determines the strength of the solenoid
b) the number of turns in the solenoid determine the strength of the magnetic field in the solenoid.
Q20. a) Draw a circuit diagram to show how a soft iron piece can be transformed into an electromagnet.
b) Describe how an electromagnet could be used to separate copper from iron in a scrap yard.
Answer:
a)
An insulated copper wire is wound around the coil C such that the two ends of the copper wire are connected to a
battery. Therefore, an electromagnet is used as a soft iron core.
b) To separate the copper from the iron in a scrap yard, electromagnetic cranes are used. The electromagnet is
energized by making the current flow through it which helps in picking the iron pieces from the scrap yard.
Q21. a) How does an electromagnet differ from a permanent magnet?
b) Name two devices in which electromagnets are used and two devices where permanent magnets are used.
Answer:
a) An electromagnet is different from a permanent magnet because electromagnet can produce the magnetic field as
long as the current is flowing through it while a permanent magnet doesn’t require electric current for the production of
magnetic field.
b) Electromagnets are electric bells and electric motors.
Permanent magnets are toys and refrigerator doors.
Q22. a) What is a solenoid? Draw a sketch to show the magnetic field pattern produced by a current-carrying
solenoid.
b) Name the type of magnet with which the magnetic field pattern of a current-carrying solenoid resembles.
c) What is the shape of field lines inside a current-carrying solenoid? What does the pattern of filed lines inside a
current-carrying solenoid indicate?
d) List three ways in which the magnetic field strength of a current-carrying solenoid can be increased?
e) What type of core should be put inside a current-carrying solenoid to make an electromagnet?
Answer:
a) A solenoid is defined as a long coil which contains a large number of close turns of insulated copper wire.
b) The magnetic field produced by a solenoid and a bar magnet are similar to each other.
c) The magnetic field lines inside a current-carrying solenoid are parallel to each other and are in straight lines which
means that the magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform.
d) The magnetic field strength of a current-carrying solenoid can be increased by increasing the number of turns in the
solenoid, by using a soft iron as a core, and by increasing the current flow through the solenoid.
e) Soft iron core
Q23. a) What is an electromagnet? Describe the construction and working of an electromagnet with the help of a
labelled diagram.
b) Explain why an electromagnet is called a temporary magnet.
c) Explain why the core of an electromagnet should be of soft iron and not of steel.
d) State the factors on which the strength of an electromagnet depends. How does it depend on these factors?
e) Write some of the important uses of electromagnets.
Answer:
a) An electromagnet is a temporary magnet which works when current is passed through it. To make an electromagnet,
a soft iron is taken with an insulated copper wire wound to it. The two ends of the copper wire are connected to the
battery for making an electromagnet.
b) An electromagnet is also known as a temporary magnet because the magnetic field produced by an electromagnet is
dependent on the flow of current through its coil.
c) The core of an electromagnet should be a soft iron and not a steel because soft iron loses its magnetism when there is
no current flow through it while steel does not lose its magnetism in the absence of electric current.
d) The strength of an electromagnet depends on the number of turns of the coil, the length of the air gap between the
poles, and the current flowing through the coil.
e) Electromagnets find applications in electrical devices such as in loudspeaker, electric bell, and electric motor. They
are also used by doctors for treating their patient’s when a piece of iron is stuck in the wounds.
Q24. The strength of the magnetic field between the poles of an electromagnet would be unchanged if:
a) current in the electromagnet winding were doubled
b) direction of current in electromagnet were doubled
c) distance between the poles of electromagnet were doubled
d) material of the core of electromagnet were changed
Answer:
The correct option is b) direction of current in electromagnet were doubled
Q25. The diagram given below represents magnetic field caused by a current-carrying conductor which is:
a) a long straight wire

b) a circular coil
c) a solenoid
d) a short straight wire
Answer:
The correct option is b) a circular coil
Q26. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current:
a) is zero
b) decreases as we move towards its ends
c) increases as we move towards its ends
d) is the same at all points
Answer:
The correct option is d) is the same at all points
Q27. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wore?
a) the field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire
b) the field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire
c) the field consists of radial lines originating from the wire
d) the field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire
Answer:
The correct option is d) the field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire
Q28. The north-south polarities of an electromagnet can be found easily by using:
a) Fleming’s right-hand rule
b) Fleming’s left-hand rule
c) Clock face rule
d) Left-hand thumb rule
Answer:
The correct option is c) Clock face rule
Q29. The direction of current in the coil at one end of an electromagnet is clockwise. This end of the
electromagnet will be:
a) north pole
b) east pole
c) south pole
d) west pole
Answer:
The correct option is c) south pole
Q30. If the direction of electric current in a solenoid when viewed from a particular end is anticlockwise, then
this end of solenoid will be:
a) west pole
b) south pole
c) north pole
d) east pole
Answer:
The correct option is c) north pole
Q31. The most suitable material for making the core of an electromagnet is:
a) soft iron
b) brass
c) aluminum
d) steel
Answer:
The correct option is a) soft iron
Q32. The magnetic effect of current was discovered by:
a) Maxwell
b) Fleming
c) Oersted
d) Faraday
Answer:
The correct option is c) Oersted
Q33. A soft iron bar is inserted inside a current-carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid:
a) will decrease
b) will increase
c) will become zero
d) will remain the same
Answer:
The correct option is b) will increase
Q34. The magnetic field lines in the middle of the current-carrying solenoid are:
a) circles
b) spirals
c) parallel to the axis of the tube
d) perpendicular to the axis of the tube
Answer:
The correct option is c) parallel to the axis of the tube
Q35. The front face of a circular wire carrying current behaves like a north pole. The direction of current in this
face of the circular wire is:
a) clockwise
b) downwards
c) anticlockwise
d) upwards
Answer:
The correct option is c) anticlockwise
Q36. The back face of a circular loop of wire is found to be south magnetic pole. the direction of current in this
face of the circular loop of wire will be:
a) towards south
b) clockwise
c) anticlockwise
d) towards north
Answer:
The correct option is b) clockwise
Page No: 91
Q1. What happens when a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field?
Answer:
When a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, a mechanical force is experienced by the conductor
which is responsible for the movement of the conductor.
Q2. When is the force experience by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field largest?
Answer:
The force experience by a current-carrying conductor when placed in a magnetic field is largest when the conductor is
at right angle to the magnetic field.
Q3. In a statement of Fleming’s left hand rule, what do the following represent?
a) direction of center finger
b) direction of forefinger
c) direction of thumb
Answer:
a) Current
b) Magnetic field
c) Force acting on the conductor
Q4. Name one device which works on the magnetic effect of current.
Answer:
The device that works on the magnetic effect of current is an electric bell. It is used as an electromagnet to produce
sound.
Q5. Name the device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Answer:
Electric motor is the device which converts electric energy into mechanical energy.
Q6. A motor converts one form of energy into another. Name the two forms.
Answer:
The two forms of energies that are involved are:
a) Electrical energy
b) Mechanical energy
An electric motor converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
Answer:
The given statement is false.
An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Q8. For Fleming’s left hand rule, write down the three things that are 90 to each other, and next to each one
write down the finger or thumb that represents it.
Answer:
a) Current: the direction is given by the center finger
b) Magnetic field: the direction is given by the fore finger
c) Force or motion: the direction is given the thumb.
Q9. Name the device which is used to reverse the direction of current in the coil of a motor.
Answer:
For the reversal of the direction of current in the coil of a motor, a commutator is used.
Q10. What is the other name of the split ring used in an electric motor?
Answer:
The other name of the split ring is commutator.
Q11. What is the function of a commutator in an electric motor?
Answer:
The function of a commutator in an electric motor is to reverse the direction of the flow of the current through the coil
whenever the coil passed the vertical position during the revolution.
Q12. Of what substance are the brushes of an electric motor made?
Answer:
The brushes of an electric motor are made from the carbon.
Q13. Of what substance is the core of the coil of an electric motor made?
Answer:
The core of the coil of an electric motor is made from the soft iron.
Q14. In an electric motor, which of the following remains fixed and which rotates with the coil?
Commutator and brush
Answer:
Brush remains fixed while commutator rotates with the coil.
Q15. What is the role of the split ring in an electric motor?

Answer:
The role of the split ring in an electric motor is to reverse the direction of current flow through the coil whenever the
coil passes through the vertical position during the revolution.
a) Fleming’s rule for the motor effect uses the ……
b) A motor contains a kind of switch called a …. Which reverses the current every half …..
Answer:
a) Left
c) Commutator and rotation
Q17. a) A current-carrying conductor is placed perpendicularly in a magnetic field. Name the rule which can be
used to find the direction of force acting on the conductor.
b) State two ways to increase the force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field.
c) Name one device whose working depends on the force exerted on a current-carrying coil placed in a magnetic
field.
Answer:
a) Fleming’s left hand rule
b) When the current flow in the conductor is increased, the strength of the magnetic field also increases.
c) Electric motor.
Q18. State Fleming’s left-hand rule. Explain it with the help of labelled diagrams.
Answer:
Fleming’s left hand rule: Hold the forefinger, the center finger, and the thumb of the left hand at right angles to each
other. The forefinger gives the direction of the force acting on the direction, the center finger gives the direction of
current, and the forefinger gives the direction of the magnetic field.
Q19. What is the principle of an electric motor? Name some of the devices in which electric motors are used.
Answer:
The principle of electric motor is based on the Fleming’s left hand rule. According to the law, hold the forefinger, the
center finger, and the thumb of left hand at right angles to each other. The forefinger gives the direction of the magnetic
field, the center finger gives the direction of current, and the thumb gives the direction of force acting on the conductor.
Q20. a) In a DC motor, why must the current to the coil be reversed twice during each rotation?
b) What device reverses the current?
Answer:
a) The current to the coil must be reversed twice during each rotation in a DC motor because by doing so the coil will
keep rotating in the same direction.
b) Commutator.
Q21. a) State what would happen to the direction of rotation of a motor if:
i) the current were reversed
ii) the magnetic field were reversed
iii) both current and magnetic field were reversed simultaneously
b) In what ways can a motor be made more powerful?
Answer:
a) i) If the current is reversed, then the direction of rotation would reverse
ii) If the magnetic field were reversed, then the direction of rotation would remain unchanged
iii) If both current and the magnetic field were reversed simultaneously then the direction of rotation would remain
unchanged
b) A motor can be made powerful by winding the coil on to a soft iron core by increasing the number of turns of the
coil.
Q22. a) What is an electric motor? With the help of a labelled diagram, describe the working of a simple electric
motor.
b) What are the special features of commercial electric motors?
Answer:
a) Electric motor is a device that is used for converting an electric energy into mechanical energy.
Working:
The coil ABCD is placed in a horizontal position. The current enters the brush P which is a carbon and to the
commutator which is a half ring X. The current produced in the coil ABCD leave the coil through the ring Y and brush
Q. The direction of the magnetic field is from the N pole to the S pole. AB and CD move in the downward and the
upward direction and this is based on the Fleming’s left hand rule which results in the anticlockwise movement of the
coil.
When the brushes P and Q are in vertical position, they touch the gap between the two commutator rings and the
current goes off. Because of the gained momentum, the coil continues to rotate when the current goes off. The side CD
and AB comes to the left and right side respectively. As there is a change in the direction of the current, the change in
the coil can also be seen.
b) In commercial electric motor:
i) to increase the strength of the magnetic field, the coil is wound on to a soft iron which makes the electric motor
powerful
ii) insulated copper wire is used that has large number of turns
iii) a permanent magnet is replaced with an electromagnet
Q23. In an electric motor, the direction of current in the coil changes once in each:
a) two rotations
b) one rotation
c) half rotation
d) one-fourth rotation
Answer:
The correct option is c) half rotation
Q24. An electron beam enters a magnetic field at right angles to it as shown in the figure:
The direction of force acting on the electron beam will be:

a) to the left
b) to the right
c) into the page
d) out of the page
Answer:
The correct option is c) into the page
Q25. The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is the largest when the
angle between the conductor and the magnetic field is:
a) 45⸰
b) 60⸰
c) 90⸰
d) 180⸰
Answer:
The correct option is c) 90⸰
Q26. The force exerted on a current-carrying wire placed in a magnetic field is zero when the angle between the
wire and the direction of magnetic field is:
a) 45⸰
b) 60⸰
c) 90⸰
d) 180⸰
Answer:
The correct option is c) 180⸰
Q27. A current flows in a wire running between the S and N poles of a magnet lying horizontally shown in the
figure below:
The force on the wire due to the magnet is directed:

a) from N to S
b) from S to N
c) vertically downwards
d) vertically upwards
Answer:
The correct option is c) vertically downwards
Q28. An electric motor is a device which transforms:
a) mechanical energy to electrical energy
b) heat energy to electrical energy
c) electrical energy to heat energy only
d) electrical energy to mechanical energy
Answer:
The correct option is d) electrical energy to mechanical energy

Q29. A magnetic field exerts no force on:
a) an electric charge moving perpendicular to its direction
b) an unmagnetized iron bar
c) a stationary electric charge
d) a magnet
Answer:
The correct option is c) a stationary electric charge
Q30. A horizontal wire carries a current as shown in figure below between magnetic poles N and S:
Is the direction of the force on the wire due to the magnet:

a) in the direction of the current
b) vertically downwards
c) opposite to the current direction
d) vertically upwards
Answer:
The correct answer is d) vertically upwards
Page No: 102
Q1. Name the device which converts mechanical energy into electric energy.
Answer:
Electric generator is the device that is used for converting mechanical energy into electric energy.
Q2. Out of an AC generator and a DC generator:
a) which one uses a commutator (split rings)?
b) which one uses slip rings?
Answer:
a) DC generator uses a commutator
b) AC generator uses slip rings
Q3. Name the phenomenon which is made use of in an electric generator,
Answer:
Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon which is made use of in an electric generator.
Q4. Name the rule which gives the direction of induced current.
Answer:
Fleming’s right hand rule is used to get the direction of induced current.
Q5. What condition is necessary for the production of current by electromagnetic induction?
Answer:
The relative motion between the wire and the magnet is the necessary condition for the production of current by an
electromagnetic induction.
Q6. What type of generator is used at power stations?
Answer:
AC generator is used at power stations.
Q7. What change should be made in an AC generator so that it may become a DC generator?
Answer:
For an AC generator to become a DC generator, the slip rings must be replaced with a commutator.
Q8. State whether the following statements are true or false:
a) A generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
b) A motor works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
Answer:
a) True
b) False
Q9. What is the function of brushes in an electric generator?
Answer:
The function of the brushes in an electric generator is to transfer the current from the coil to the load.
Q10. When a wire is moved up and down in a magnetic field, a current is induced in the wire. What is this
phenomenon known as?
Answer:
The phenomenon in which the wire moves up and down in a magnetic field to induce the current in the wire is known
as electromagnetic induction.
Q11. When current is ‘switched on’ and ‘switched off’ in a coil, a current is induced in another coil kept near it.
What is this phenomenon known as?
Answer:
The phenomenon in which current is switched on and off in a coil to induce current in another coil is known as
electromagnetic induction.
Q12. What is the major difference between the simple alternator and most practical alternators?
Answer:
Following is the major difference between the simple alternator and the most practical alternator:
Simple alternator has a magnet that is fixed with rotating coils
Practical alternator has a fixed coil with rotating magnets.
Q13. Why are thermal power stations usually located near a river?
Answer:
The thermal power stations are usually located near a river because water is used in the making of the steam which is
used for turning of the turbines.
Q14. List three sources of magnetic fields.
Answer:
The three sources of magnetic fields are:
a) Wire carrying current
b) Electromagnet
c) Permanent magnet
Q15. Complete the following sentence:
A generator with commutator produces …… current.
Answer:
Direct
Q16. Two circular coils A and B are placed closed to each other, if the current in the coil A is changed, will some
current be induced in the coil B? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
Yes, when two coils are placed close to each other, the other coil will experience some current induced in it because of
change in the magnetic field through the coil B. This is known as electromagnetic induction.
Q17. a) Explain the principle of an electric generator.
b) State two ways in which the current induced in the coil of a generator could be increased.
Answer:
a) The principle of an electric generator is based on a straight conductor which is moved in a magnetic field such that
current is induced in the conductor.
b) Following are the ways in which the current is induced in the coil of a generator:
i) By rotating the coil faster
ii) By using a coil with a larger area
Q18. a) What is the difference between alternating current and direct current?
b) What type of current is given by i) a dry cell ii) a power house generator?
Answer:
a) i) The difference between alternating current and direct current is that alternating current can be reversed in direction
at regular intervals of time while direct current flows in one direction.
ii) The value and direction in the DC current remains unchanged with the time while AC current changes with time and
direction.
b) i) DC
ii) AC
Q19. State and explain Fleming’s right hand rule.
Answer:
When a straight conductor is moving in a magnetic field, the direction of induced current is given by Fleming’s right
hand rule.
The thumb, the fore finger, and the center finger of the right hand must be held at the right angles to one another. The
forefinger shows the direction of the magnetic field, the thumb shows the direction of motion of conductor, and the
center finger shows the direction of the induced current in the conductor.
Q20. Name and state the rule to find the direction of:
a) current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field
b) force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular
to it.
Answer:
a) Fleming’s right hand rule: The thumb, the forefinger, and the center finger of right hand are held perpendicular to
each other. The thumb gives the direction of the motion of conductor, the forefinger gives the direction of magnetic
field, and the center finger gives the direction of the induced current in the conductor.
b) Fleming’s left hand rule: The forefinger, center finger, and the thumb of left hand are held at right angle to each
other. The thumb gives the direction of force acting on the conductor, the forefinger gives the direction of the magnetic
field and the center finger gives the direction of the current.
Q21. a) In what respect does the construction of an AC generator differ from that of a DC generator?
b) What normally drives the alternators in a thermal power station? What fuels can be used to heat water in the
boiler?
Answer:
a) When it comes to the construction of the DC and AC generator, the ends of both the generator coils are linked to the
outer circuit. In DC generator, the ends are connected to the commutator that has two half rings of copper. In AC
generator, the ends of the coil are connected to the full rings of copper known as slip rings.
b) Thermal power stations use power of high pressure steam for heating water in the boiler and fuels such as coal
or natural gas is used.
Q22. Draw the labelled diagram of an AC generator. With the help of this diagram, explain the construction and
working of an AC generator.
Answer:
Construction:
A simple AC generator consists of a rectangular coil ABCD which is rotated rapidly between the north and south poles
of a strong horseshoe magnet. The magnet used is a permanent magnet M. Insulated copper wires are used for the
making of the coil with large number of turns. The two ends A and D are connected to the metal slip rings R1 and R2.
The contact between the slip rings is done with the help of the brushes B1 and B2. The brushes are connected to the
galvanometer to show the flow of current in the external circuit.
Working:
When the coil ABCD is rotated in the anticlockwise direction, the AB side moves downward while the CD side moves
upwards. Due to this movement there is induced current flow in the direction of BADC. In the first cycle, there is flow
of current from the brush B1 to B2. In the second half cycle the position of AB and CD changes and the flow of current
is from B2 to B1.
Q23. a) What do you understand by the term ‘electromagnetic induction’? Explain with the help of a diagram.
b) Name one device which works on the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction.
c) Describe different ways to induce current in a coil of wire.
Answer:
a) Electromagnetic induction is the production of electricity from the magnetism.
The wire AB should be moved upwards between the poles of the horseshoe magnet. There is a deflection in the
galvanometer when the wire is moved. This deflection shows that the current is produced in the wire AB. Therefore,
when the wire is moved through the magnetic field, there is a production of electric current.
b) Electric generator
c) Following are the different ways to induce current in the wire:
i) By moving the coil relative to the fixed magnet
ii) By moving the magnet relative to the fixed coil
Q24. a) What do you understand by the terms ‘direct current’ and ‘alternating current’?
b) Name some sources of direct current and some of alternating current.
c) State an important advantage of alternating current over direct current.
d) What is the frequency of AC supply in India?

Answer:
a) When the current flows in just one direction, it is known as direct current while the flow of current in revsere
direction at equal intervals of time is known as alternating current.
b) Sources of DC are: dry cell and car battery
Sources of AC are: AC generator and bicycle dynamos
c) An important advantage of AC over DC is that the transmission of AC over a long distances is much easier without
much loss in electrical energy.
d) 50Hz.
Q25. A rectangular coil of copper wire is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of induced current changes
once in each:
a) two revolutions
b) one revolution
c) half revolution
d) one-fourth revolution
Answer:
The correct option is c) half revolution
Q26. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is:
a) the process of charging a body
b) the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil
c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil
d) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor
Answer:
The correct option is c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil
Q27. The device used for producing electric current is called a:
a) generator
b) galvanometer
c) ammeter
d) motor
Answer:
The correct option is a) generator
Q28. The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that:
a) AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC generator has permanent magnet

b) DC generator will generate a higher voltage
c) AC generator will generate a higher voltage
d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator
Answer:
The correct option is d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator
Q29. When the switch S is closed in the figure given below, the pointer of the galvanometer moves to the right.
If S is kept closed, will the pointer:

a) return to zero?
b) stay over on the right?
c) move to the left and stay there
d) move to and fro until S is opened
Answer:
The correct option is a) return to zero
Q30. Each one of the following changes will increase emf in a simple generator except:
a) increasing the number of turns in the armature coil
b) winding the coil on a soft iron armature
c) increasing the size of the gap in which the armature turns
d) increasing the speed of rotation
Answer:
The correct option is c) increasing the size of the gap in which the armature turns
Q31. The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid connected to a galvanometer.
The magnet was held stationary for a few seconds with the north pole in the middle of the solenoid and then
withdrawn rapidly. The maximum deflection of the galvanometer was observed when the magnet was:
a) moving towards the solenoid
b) moving into solenoid
c) at rest inside the solenoid
d) moving out of the solenoid
Answer:
The correct option is d) moving out of the solenoid
Q32. An electric generator converts:
a) electrical energy into mechanical energy
b) mechanical energy into heat energy
c) electrical energy into chemical energy
Answer:
The correct option is d) heating effect of current
Q33. A d.c generator is based on the principle of:
a) electrochemical induction
b) electromagnetic induction
c) magnetic effect of current
Answer:
The correct option is b) electromagnetic induction
Q34. An induced current is produced when a magnet is moved into a coil. The magnitude of induced current
does not depend on:
a) the speed with which the magnet is moved
b) the number of turns of the coil
c) the resistivity of the wire of the coil
d) the strength of the magnet
Answer:
The correct option is c) the resistivity of the wire of the coil
Q35. The frequency of direct current is:
a) 0 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 60 Hz
d) 100 Hz
Answer:
The correct option is a) 0 Hz
Q36. The frequency of alternating current supply in India is:
a) 0 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 60 Hz
d) 100 Hz
Answer:
The correct option is b) 50 Hz
Page No: 113
Q1. What name is given to the device which automatically cuts off the electricity supply during short-circuiting
in household wiring?
Answer:
The device that is used to automatically cut off the electricity supply during the short-circuiting in the household wiring
is known as electric fuse.
Q2. What is the usual capacity of an electric fuse used in the a) lighting circuit and b) in the power circuit of a
small house?
Answer:
Following is the usual capacity of an electric fuse that is used in:
a) 5A
b) 15A
Q3. Give the symbol of an electric fuse used in circuit diagram.
Answer:
Following is the symbol of an electric fuse that is used in the circuit diagram:
Q4. State whether the following statements are true or false:

a) A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire
b) A miniature circuit breaker (MCB) works on the heating effect of curreny
Answer:
Following is the correct answers for:
a) False
b) False
Q5. Along with live wire and neutral wire, a third wire is also used in domestic electric wiring, what name is
given to this third wire?
Answer:
The third wire that is used along with live wire and neutral wire is the earth wire.
Q6. List the colours of the three wires in the cable connected to the plug of an electric iron.
Answer:
Following are the colours of the three wires in the cable connected to the plug of an electric iron:
a) Red wire: live wire
b) Black wire: neutral wire
c) Green wire: Earth wire
Q7. What is the electric potential of the neutral wire in a mains supply cable?
Answer:
The electric potential of the neutral wire in a mains supply cable is zero volt.
Q8. If fuses of 250mA, 500mA, 1A, 5A, and 10A were available, which one would be the most suitable for
protecting an amplifier rated at 240V, 180W?
Answer:
Given,
P = 180W
V = 240V
We know that,
P = VI
I = P/V = 180/240 = 0.75A
Therefore, the fuse wire should have the capacity to withstand a current of 0.75A. Therefore, 1A fuse is more suitable.
Q9. When does an electric short circuit occur?
Answer:
For a short circuit to occur, the live wire and the neutral wire should come in contact with each other.
Q10. In which wire in an AC housing circuit is the switch introduced to operate the lights?
Answer:
Live wire
Q11. In household circuit, is a fuse wire connected in series or in parallel?
Answer:
In household circuit, a fuse wire is connected in series.
Q12. Usually three insulated wires of different colours are used in an electrical appliances. Name the three
colours.
Answer:
Following are the three colours that are used in an electric appliances:
a) Red
b) Black
c) Green
Q13. What is the usual colour of the insulation of a) live wire b) neutral wire c) earth wire?
Answer:
a) Live wire: red
b) Neutral wire: black
c) Earth wire: green
Q14. What is the main purpose of earthing an electrical appliance?
Answer:
The main purpose of earthing an electrical appliance is to avoid the risk of electric shocks.
Q15. Give two reasons why different electrical appliances in a domestic circuit are connected in parallel.
Answer:
Following are the two reasons why different electrical appliances in a domestic circuit are connected in parallel:
a) When the appliances are connected in parallel, when one of them is switched off, the others keeping working.
b) All the appliances are working in the same voltage that is the mains supply voltage.
Q16. How should the electric lamps in a building be connected so that the switching on or off in a room has no
effect on other lamps in the same building?
Answer:
The lamps in a building should be connected in the parallel connection.
a) A fuse should always be placed in the …….. wire of a mains circuit.
b) The earth wire should be connected to the ….. of an appliance.
Answer:
a) Live
b) Body.
Q18. a) Of what substance is the fuse wire made? Why?
b) Explain why a copper wire cannot be used as a fuse wire?
Answer:
a) The substance that is used in the making of a fuse wire is tin-plated copper as it has a low melting point.
b) Copper wire cannot be used as a fuse wire because the melting point of the pure copper is high and this makes it
difficult to melt during short circuits.
Q19. What type of electric fuse is used in electrical appliances like car stereos? Explain with the help of a
labelled diagram.
Answer:
Cartridge fuse is used in electrical appliances like car stereos. It consist of a glass tube T which is thin fuse wire that is
sealed inside it. The glass tube has two metal caps at the ends. These two ends of the fuse are connected to the metal
cap. These metals caps can be used for connecting the fuse in the circuit.
Q20. Distinguish between the terms ‘overloading’ and ‘short-circuiting’ as used in domestic circuits.
Answer:
When the live wire comes in contact with the neutral wire, it is known as short circuit.
When more than two electrical appliances with high power rating are switched on at the same time, the amount of
current drawn by these appliances are large, this is known as overloading.
Q21. a) When does a fuse cut off current? How does it do it?
b) What is the maximum number of 60W bulbs that can be run from the mains supply of 220 volts if you do not
want to overload a 5A fuse?
Answer:
a) A fuse cut off current means when the current exceeds the safe vales and the fuse wire starts to melt and break the
circuit. This is known as a fuse cut off current.
b) Given,
V = 220V
I = 5A
Let the maximum number of bulbs be y
Power of y bulbs, P = 60y
We know that,
P =VI
60y = 1100
y = 18.33
Therefore, the number of bulbs required are 18.
Q22. Explain the importance of using in a household electric circuit a) fuse b) earthing wire
Answer:
a) A fuse is considered to be one of the important devices that is used for the protection so as to avoid the damages that
happen due to either over load or short circuit.
b) An earthing wire is used as a electric shock resistant when a live wire comes in contact with the metal case of an
electric appliance.
Q23. a) An electric iron is rated at 230V, 750W. Calculate i) the maximum current, ii) the number of units of
electricity it would use in 30 minutes.
b) Which of the following fuse ratings would be suitable for this electric iron?
1A, 3A, 5A, 13A.
Answer:
a) Given,
V = 230V
P = 750W
T = 30/60 = 0.5 hours
i) Let the maximum current be I
We know that,
P = VI
750 = 230I
I = 3.26A
ii) Electric energy consumed, E = PT
E = 0.75kW×0.5 hours
E = 0.375 kWh
Therefore, the number of units used in 30 minutes = 0.375
b) The maximum current for the given iron is 3.26A, therefore, 5A fuse rating will be suitable for the electric iron.
Q24. What is the function of an earth wire? Why is it necessary to earth the metallic bodies of electrical
appliances?
Answer:
The metallic bodies of an electrical appliances are earth to avoid the fatal electric shocks. When the live wire comes in
direct contact with the metallic case, the amount of current that passing through the user body would be large. To avoid
this, it is necessary that the electric appliances are earth.
Q25. a) What current is taken by a 3kW electric geyser working on 240V mains?
b) What size fuse should be used in the geyser circuit?
Answer:
a) Given,
P = 3kW = 3000W
V = 240V
P = VI
I = P/V
I = 3000/240
I = 12.5A
b) The size of the fuse that should be used in the geyser circuit is 13A.
Q26. a) Why are fuses fitted in the fuse box of a domestic electricity supply?
b) What device could be used in place of the fuses?
Answer:
a) The fuses fitted in the fuse box of a domestic electricity supply because to protect the wiring of the house from the
excessive current flow in the circuit.
b) MCB
Q27. a) Draw a labelled diagram to show the domestic electric wiring from an electric pole to a room. Given the
wiring for a bulb and a three-pin socket only.
b) State two hazards associated with the use of electricity.
c) State the important precautions which should be observed in the use of electricity.
d) What will you do if you see a person coming in contact with a live wire?
e) Explain why electric switches should not be operated with wet hands.
Answer:
a)
b) Following are the two hazards that are associated with the use of electricity:
i) There are high chances of getting electric shock when a person touches a live electric wire.
ii) Due to faulty wire in the circuit, there is chance for short circuits.
c) Following are the important precautions that should be observed:
i) Using a good quality wires
ii) Proper earthing
iii) Usage of the electric appliances in dry condition only.
d) If a person comes in contact with the live wire then the mains must be switched off immediately so as to cut the
supply of electricity.
e) Electric switches should not be operated when the hands are wet because we know that the water is a good conductor
of electricity and we may get electric shock.
Q28. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit:
a) reduces substantially
b) does not change
c) increases heavily
d) varies continuously
Answer:
The correct option is c) increases heavily
Q29. A 1.25kW heater works on a 220V mains supply. What current rating would a suitable fuse have?
a) 2A
b) 5A
c) 10A
d) 13A
Answer:
The correct option is c) 10A
Q30. The maximum number of 40W tube-lights connected in parallel which can safely be run from a 240V
supply with a 5A fuse is:
a) 5
b) 15
c) 20
d) 30
Answer:
The correct option is d) 30
Q31. In normal use, a current of 3.5A flows through a hair dryer. Choose a suitable fuse from the following:
a) 3A
b) 5A
c) 10A
d) 30A
Answer:
The correct option is b) 5A
Q32. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) In a house circuit, lamps are used in parallel
b) Switches, fuses, and circuit breakers should be placed in the neutral wire
c) An electric iron has its earth wire connected to the metal case to prevent the user receiving a shock
d) When connecting a three-core cable to a 13A three-pin plug, the red wire goes to the live pin
Answer:
The correct option is b) switches, fuses, and circuit breakers should be placed in the neutral wire
Q33. A car headlamp of 48 W works on the car battery of 12V. The correct fuse for the circuit of this car
headlamp will be:
a) 5A
b) 10A
c) 3A
d) 13A
Answer:
The correct option is a) 5A
Q34. A 3-pin mains plug is fitted to the cable for a 1kW electric kettle to be used on a 250V a.c supply. Which of
the following statement is not correct?
a) the fuse should be fitted in the live wire
b) a 13A fuse is the most appropriate value to use
c) the neutral wire is coloured black
d) the green wire should be connected to the earth pin
Answer:
The correct option is b) a 13A fuse is the most appropriate value to use
Q35. A TV set consumes an electric power of 230 watts and runs on 230 volts mains aupply. The correct fuse for
this TV set is:
a) 5A
b) 3A
c) 1A
d) 2A
Answer:
The correct option is d) 2A
Q36. Circuit breaker device which can be used in place of fuse in domestic electric wiring is called:
a) CBD
b) DCB
c) MCD
d) MCB
Answer:
The correct option is d) MCB
Q37. An MCB which cuts off the electricity supply in case of short-circuiting or overloading works on the:
a) chemical effect of current
b) heating effect of current
c) magnetic effect of current
d) electroplating effect of current

Answer:
The correct option is c) magnetic effect of current.
Chapter 3 Sources Of Energy
Page No: 121

Q1. Name a non-renewable source of energy other than fossil fuels.
Answer:
Nuclear fuels such as uranium is a non-renewable source of energy other than fossil fuels.
Q2. Define calorific value of a fuel.

Answer:
Calorific value of a fuel is defined as the amount of heat that is produced by burning completely 1 gram of fuel.
Q3. “The calorific value of cooking gas is 50kJ/g”. What does it mean?
Answer:
The calorific value of cooking gas is 50kJ/g means that if 1 gram of LPG is completely burnt then the amount of
heat energy produced will be equal to 50kJ.
Q4. Which of the following produces more heat per unit mass on burning?
Coal or LPG
Answer:
Among coal and LPG, LPG will produce more heat per unit mass on burning because it has higher calorific value.
Q5. Define ignition temperature of a fuel.

Answer:
Ignition temperature of a fuel is defined as the minimum temperature that is required by the fuel in which it gets
heated so that it can catch fire and start burning.
Q6. “The ignition temperature of a fuel is 80 degree Celsius”. What does this mean?
Answer:
The ignition temperature of a fuel is 80 degree Celsius means that the minimum temperature required by the fuel
to catch fire before burning is 80 degree Celsius.
Q7. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word:

The amount of heat produced by burning a unit mass of a fuel completely is known as its ………. value.
Answer:
Calorific value.

Q8. What is a source of energy? What are the two main categories of the sources of energy?
Answer:
A source of energy is defined as the source from which an adequate amount of energy can be obtained for a long
period of time. Following are the two main categories of the sources of energy:
a) Renewable source of energy

b) Non-renewable source of energy
Q9. State any four characteristics of a good source of energy.

Answer:
A good source of energy will have following four characteristics:
a) Storage and transportation is easy.
b) The energy can be handled with ease and is safe.
c) The energy is easily available.
d) The amount of work done per unit mass is large.
Q10. What is meant by a non-renewable source of energy? Give two examples of non-renewable sources of
energy.
Answer:
A non-renewable source of energy is defined as the source of energy which will exhaust very soon if used for a
long period of time. These sources of energy are present in nature in limited amount. Examples of non-renewable
sources of energy are coal and petroleum.
Q11. What is meant by a renewable source of energy? Give two examples of renewable sources of energy.
Answer:
A renewable source of energy is defined as the source of energy which is present in nature in large quantities and
can be used for a very long period of time, they never exhaust. Examples of renewable source of energy are solar
energy and wind energy.
Q12. What is the difference between a renewable and a non-renewable source of energy? Explain with
examples.
Answer:
The difference between a renewable and a non-renewable source of energy is that renewable source of energy is
available in abundant amount in nature whereas non-renewable source of energy is limited. The overuse of none-
renewable source of energy will result in exhaustion of them.
Examples of renewable source of energy are solar and wind energy while examples of non-renewable source of
energy are coal and petroleum.
Q13. Why are fossil fuels classified as non-renewable source of energy?

Answer:
Fossil fuels are classified as non-renewable source of energy because once it used it cannot be regained.
Q14. Name two sources of energy that you think are renewable. Give reason for your choice.
Answer:
Air and water are two sources of energy that are renewable because they are available in large quantities in nature
and can be used repetitively.
Q15. Name two sources of energy which you consider to be non-renewable. Give reason for your choice.
Answer:
Petroleum and coal are the two sources of energy that are non-renewable. This is because once they are used
completely, they cannot be regained.
Q16. a) Classify the following into renewable and non-renewable sources of energy:
Coal, wind, tides, petroleum, wood , natural gas
b) What is the basis of above classification?
Answer:
a) Renewable sources of energy: wind, tides, and wood
Non-renewable sources of energy: coal, petroleum, and natural gas.
b) The above classification of sources of energy is based on the inexhaustible and exhaustible characteristic of
renewable and non-renewable sources of energy respectively.
Q17. Coal is said to be formed from the wood of trees. Why then is coal considered to be a non-renewable
source of energy whereas wood is a renewable source of energy?
Answer:
Coal is considered to be a non-renewable source of energy while wood is considered to be a renewable source of
energy because the accumulation of coal takes longer period than growing tress. Therefore, using coal at a very
high rate will result in exhaustion of coal and therefore, it is considered to non-renewable source of energy.

Q18. a) What is a fuel? Give five examples of fuels.
b) What are the characteristics of an ideal fuel or good fuel?
c) The calorific value and ignition temperature of fuel A are 55kJ/g and 80 degree Celsius respectively.
These values for fuel B are 80kJ/g and 10 degree Celsius respectively. On burning, the fuel A produces CO 2
and H O while the fuel B produces CO , CO, and SO . Give three points of relative advantages and
2 2 2
disadvantages of these two fuels.

Answer:
a) Fuel is defined as the substance that is burnt to produce heat energy. Wood, LPG, coal, kerosene, and diesel are
the five examples of fuels.
b) Following are the characteristics of fuel:

i) The calorific value must be high.
ii) The ignition temperature of the fuel should be proper.
iii) The fuel should be readily available and inexpensive.
iv) When the fuel is burnt, there should not be release of harmful gases.
c) Fuel A:
i) The calorific value is low that is 55kJ/g which is a disadvantage
ii) The ignition temperature is 80 degree Celsius which moderate and is an advantage
iii) There are no harmful gases produced which is an advantage.
Fuel B:
i) The calorific value is high that is 80kJ/g which is an advantage
ii) The ignition temperature is 10 degree Celsius which is a disadvantage
iii) Harmful gases are released and that is the disadvantage

Q19. An example of a renewable source of energy is:
a) petrol
b) natural gas
c) biogas
d) kerosene
Answer:
The correct answer is c) biogas
Q20. A non-renewable source of energy is:

a) wood
b) alcohol
c) hydrogen gas
d) natural gas
Answer:
The correct answer is d) natural gas
Q21. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

a) wind
b) flowing water
c) fossil fuels
d) fuel wood
Answer:
The correct answer is c) fossil fuels
Q22. A good fuel is one which possesses:

a) high calorific value and low ignition temperature
b) high calorific value and high ignition temperature
c) high calorific value and moderate ignition temperature
d) low calorific value and moderate ignition temperature
Answer:
The correct answer is c) high calorific value and moderate ignition temperature
Q23. The fuel having a calorific value of 55kJ/g is likely to be:

a) biogas
b) methane gas
c) hydrogen gas
d) natural gas
Answer:
The correct answer is b) methane gas
Q24. A newly planted sapling usually grows and mature into a tree in more than:
a) 50 years
b) 25 years
c) 45 years
d) 15 years
Answer:
The correct answer is d) 15 years
Q25. Which of the following fuels has the highest calorific value?
a) natural gas
b) methane gas
c) hydrogen gas
d) biogas
Answer:
The correct answer is c) hydrogen gas
Q26. The fuel having the lowest calorific value is:

a) coal
b) wood
c) charcoal
d) kerosene
Answer:
The correct answer is b) wood
Q27. There are four fuels which all contain only carbon and hydrogen. The fuel having highest calorific
value will be one which has:
a) more of carbon but less of hydrogen
b) less of carbon but more of hydrogen
c) equal proportions of carbon and hydrogen
d) less of carbon as well as less of hydrogen
Answer:
The correct answer is b) less of carbon but more of hydrogen
Q28. One of the following is not a characteristics of a good fuel. This is:
a) high calorific value
b) no emission of smoke
c) smooth burning
d) high ignition temperature
Answer:
The correct answer is d) high ignition temperature
Q29. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?

a) coal
b) petroleum gas
c) biogas
d) natural gas
Answer:
The correct answer is c) biogas
Page No: 130

Q1. Name the product of petroleum that is used to drive heavy vehicles.
Answer:
Diesel is the product of petroleum that is used to drive heavy vehicles.
Q2. Give one example of a good domestic fuel.

Answer:
LPG is an example of a good domestic fuel.
Q3. Name any one hydrocarbon fraction obtained during the fractional distillation of petroleum which is
used as a domestic fuel.
Answer:
Kerosene is a hydrocarbon fraction that is obtained during the fractional distillation of petroleum which is used as
a domestic fuel.
Q4. What are the various fuels which are used to generate electricity in a thermal power plant?
Answer:
Following are the various fuels that are used in the generation of electricity in a thermal power plant:
Coal, gas, and oil.
Q5. Name any four fractions obtained from petroleum which are used as fuels.
Answer:
Following are the fraction that are obtained from petroleum that are used as fuels:
Petroleum gas, diesel, kerosene, and petrol.
Q6. What is the composition of liquefied petroleum gas?

Answer:
The composition of liquefied petroleum gas is butane with smaller amounts of propane and ethane.
Q7. Which gaseous fuel is being used increasingly in transport vehicles like cars and buses these days?
Answer:
Compressed Natural Gas is used in transport vehicles such as cars and buses.
Q8. Write the full form of: a) LPG b) CNG

Answer:
a) LPG: Liquefied Petroleum Gas
b) CNG: Compressed Natural Gas
Q9. What is the main constituent of:

a) petroleum gas?
b) natural gas?
Answer:
a) The main constituent of petroleum gas is butane
b) The main constituent of natural gas is methane
Q10. Name the component which is found in natural gas as well as in biogas.
Answer:
The component which is found in natural gas as well as in biogas is butane.
Q11. State two important uses of natural gas.

Answer:
Following are the two important uses of natural gas:
a) It is used as a fuel in thermal power plants
b) It is used as a fuel in transport vehicles
Q12. State one important use of CNG these days.

Answer:
One of the important uses of CNG these days is it is used as fuel in transport vehicles.
Q13. Complete the following sentence:

Domestic gas cylinders like Indane contain mainly ……
Answer:
Butane

Q14. Explain why natural gas is considered to be a good fuel.
Answer:
Natural gas is considered to be a good fuel because the calorific value of the gas is high and when it is burnt, it
burns with smokeless flame resulting in no production of harmful gases.
Q15. What is meant by conventional sources of energy? Write the names of two conventional sources of
energy.
Answer:
Conventional sources of energy is the traditional sources of energy that is familiar to large number of people.
Examples of conventional sources of energy are wood and coal.
Q16. Explain the principle of working of a thermal power plant. Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate your
answer.
Answer:
In thermal power plants, heat is produced by burning coal which is used for boiling water to form steam. When
the steam with high temperature and pressure is exposed to the turbines, it results in the rotation of turbine and its
shaft. This continues rotation of turbine is responsible for the production of electricity.
Q17. What are the disadvantages of burning fossil fuels?

Answer:
Disadvantages of burning fossil fuels are:
a) Burning of fossil fuels produces acidic gases.
b) The amount of smoke released is more and the amount of ash production is also lot.
c) Greenhouse gases are released during the burning of fossil fuels.
Q18. Write a short note on the pollution caused by burning fossil fuels.
Answer:
When fossil fuels are burned there is release of acidic gases such as sulphur-dioxide and nitrogen dioxides. These
gases are responsible for the acid rains which damages tress, building, and plants, also reducing the fertility of
soil. It is also dangerous for the aquatic life. Also, greenhouse gases such as carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
are released. These are the pollution that are caused by the burning of fossil fuels.
Q19. What are the various steps which can be taken to control pollution caused by burning fossil fuels?
Answer:
Steps that can be taken to control pollution caused by burning of fossil fuels are by increasing the efficiency of
combustion process and by finding ways to reduce the release of harmful gases and ashes into nature.
Q20. If you could use any source of energy for heating your food, which one would you use and why?
Answer:
For heating food, LPG is used as a source of energy because it has a high calorific value and has smokeless
flames.
Q21. Why is LPG considered a good fuel?

Answer:
LPG is considered to be a good fuel because of its calorific value and there is no production of harmful gases.
Also, the calorific value of LPG is high.
Q22. Why is LPG considered a better fuel than coal?

Answer:
LPG is considered to be a better fuel than coal because when coal is burnt harmful gases are released which does
not happen when LPG is burnt.
Q23. Why is the leakage of LPG detected easily although it is odourless? State the steps to be taken in case
its leakage is detected in the kitchen.
Answer:
LPG is a odourless substance and it is still detected by its odour because of the presence of mercaptan that is
added to the LPG.
In case of LPG leakage in the kitchen, following are the steps that must be taken:
a) The doors and windows should be kept open at once so as to allow the gas to escape.
b) Seeking help from gas mechanic is advisable.

Q24. a) What are fossil fuels? Give three examples of fossil fuels.
b) Describe how fossil fuels were formed.
c) Explain how sun is considered to be the ultimate source of fossil fuels.
d) Which fossil fuels were formed by the buried remains of small plants and animals?
e) Which fossil fuel was formed by the buried remains of large land plants?
Answer:
a) Fossil fuels are the natural fuels that are formed deep under the earth from the pre-historic remains of the
organisms. Coal, petroleum, and natural gas are the examples of fossil fuels.
b) Fossil fuels are formed from the dead remains of the animals and plants that died millions of years back. These
remains are buried deep inside the earth and are away from the reach of the oxygen. Also, the chemical effects
bacteria along with continuous pressure and heat resulted in the formation of fossil fuels.
c) Sun is considered to be the ultimate source of fossil fuel because sunlight is responsible for the growth of plants
and animals that are buried inside the earth. Therefore, it can be said that plants and animals are made from sun’s
energy and is converted into fossil fuels.
d) Petroleum and natural gas.
e) Coal

Q25. The main constituent of petroleum gas is:
a) methane
b) ethane
c) butane
d) propane
Answer:
The correct answer is c) butane
Q26. The natural gas consists of mainly of:

a) methane
b) ethane
c) propane
d) butane
Answer:
The correct answer is a) methane
Q27. Which of the following is not produced by the burning of fossil fuels?
a) nitrogen oxides
b) sulphur oxides
c) sodium oxides
d) carbon oxides
Answer:
The correct answer is c) sodium oxides
Q28. The product of petroleum used to drive heavy vehicles like trucks is:
a) petrol
b) kerosene
c) petrol
d) CNG
Answer:
The correct answer is c) petrol
Q29. The aviation fuel which is used in the engines of jet aeroplanes is:
a) diesel
b) kerosene
c) petrol
d) CNG
Answer:
The correct answer is b) kerosene
Q30. The ultimate source of energy stored in fossil fuels is:

a) moon
b) earth
c) sun
d) sea
Answer:
The correct answer is c) sun
Q31. Which of the following is not a fossil source of energy?

a) kerosene oil
b) cow-dung cakes
c) CNG
d) coal
Answer:
The correct answer is b) cow-dung cake
Q32. The fuel which is not used at thermal plants is:

a) coal
b) uranium
c) natural gas
d) fuel oil
Answer:
The correct answer is b) uranium
Q33. LPG consists mainly of:

a) butane
b) ethane
c) butanone
d) methane
Answer:
The correct answer is a) butane
Q34. Coke is more valuable when used:

a) as a fuel for industrial boilers
b) as an oxidizing agent
c) as a reducing agent
d) as a fuel in domestic ovens
Answer:
The correct answer is c) as a reducing agent
Q35. Coal cannot be converted into one of the following forms of energy. This is:
a) coal gas
b) electricity
c) oil
d) charcoal
Answer:
The correct answer is d) charcoal
Q36. One of the following does not contribute to acid rain. That is:
a) nitrogen monoxide
b) sulphur dioxide
c) carbon monoxide
d) carbon dioxide
Answer:
The correct answer is c) carbon monoxide
Page No: 140

Q29. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on:
a) a sunny day
b) a cloudy day
c) a hot day
d) a windy day
Answer:
The correct option is b) a cloudy day
Q30. At a hydro power plant:

a) kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted into electrical energy
b) electricity is extracted from water
c) water is converted into steam to turn turbines and produce electricity
d) potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity

Answer:
The correct option is d) potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity
Q31. The part of box-type solar cooker which is responsible for producing greenhouse effect is:
a) plane mirror reflector
b) black coating inside the box
c) glass sheet cover
d) utensils placed in the cooker box
Answer:
The correct option is c) glass sheet cover
Q32. Solar cells are made of:

a) conductors
b) insulators
c) semiconductors
d) superconductors
Answer:
The correct option is c) semiconductors
Q33. The value of solar constant is:

a) 1.4kWh
b) 1.4kW/m
c) 1.4kW/m 2
d) 1.4kW/m 3
Answer:
The correct option is c) 1.4kW/m 2
Q34. The radiations present in sunlight which make a solar cooker work are:
a) visible light rays
b) ultraviolet rays
c) cosmic rays
d) infrared rays
Answer:
The correct option is d) infrared rays
Q35. In order to make an efficient solar cooker, the cover of cooker box should be made of:
a) transparent plastic sheet
b) shining aluminum sheet
c) butter paper sheet
d) transparent glass sheet
Answer:
The correct option is d) transparent glass sheet
Q36. The minimum speed of wind necessary for the satisfactory working of a wind generator to produce
electricity is about:
a) 15km/h
b) 25km/h
c) 35km/h
d) 45km/h
Answer:
The correct option is a) 15km/h
Q37. If the solar constant is 1.4kW/m then the solar energy received by 1m area in one hour is:
2 2
a) 5040J
b) 504.4kJ
c) 5040kJ
d) 5.04kJ
Answer:
The correct option is c) 5040kJ
Q38. A solar cooker may not cook food if:

a) the solar cooker is not placed in the shade
b) the glass sheet cover of solar cooker is not closed
c) a convex mirror reflector is not used
d) the food containers of insulating material are not used
Answer:
The correct option is b) the glass sheet cover of solar cooker is not closed
Page No: 148

Q29. Which of the following is not an example of a biomass energy source?
a) wood
b) biogas
c) atomic energy
d) cow-dung
Answer:
The correct option is c) atomic energy
Q30.most of the sources of energy that we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not
ultimately derived from the sun’s energy?
a) wind energy
b) geothermal energy
c) fossil fuels
d) ethane
Answer:
The correct option is b) geothermal energy
Q31. The constituent of biogas which makes it an excellent fuel is:

a) butane
b) methane
c) propane
d) ethane
Answer:
The correct option is b) methane
Q32. The major component of biogas is:

a) hydrogen
b) butane
c) hydrogen sulphide
d) methane
Answer:
The correct option is d) methane
Q33. Which of the following is more environmentally friendly?

a) burning of diesel
b) burning of coal
c) burning of charcoal
d) burning of wood
Answer:
The correct option is c) burning of charcoal
Q34. Which of the following is not renewable energy technology?

a) solar cells
b) windmills
c) nuclear power
d) tidal power
Answer:
The correct option is c) nuclear power
Q35. The rise of sea-water during high tide is caused by the gravitational pull of the:
a) sun
b) earth
c) moon
d) mars
Answer:
The correct option is c) moon
Q36. One of the following is not required in the formation of biogas plant. This is:
a) cow-dung
b) water
c) oxygen
d) anaerobic bacteria
Answer:
The correct option is c) oxygen
Q37. The fuel which is not obtained from biomass is:

a) firewood
b) cow-dung cakes
c) coke
d) charcoal
Answer:
The correct option is c) coke
Q38. The non-renewable source of energy among the following is:

a) hydroelectricity
b) sewage gas
c) natural gas
d) gobar gas
Answer:
The correct option is c) natural gas
Q39. Geothermal energy is produced by the:

a) fission of radioactive materials
b) burning of coal inside the coal mines
c) combustion of natural gas deep inside the earth
d) fusion of radioactive substance
Answer:
The correct option is a) fission of radioactive materials
Q40. The harnessing of which of the following leads to the destruction of large eco-systems?
a) thermal power
b) tidal power
c) hydro power
d) geothermal power
Answer:
The correct option is c) hydro power
Q41. Which of the following is not a consequence of establishing hydroelectric power plants?
a) displacement of people
b) production of methane
c) occurrence of floods
d) ecological disturbance
Answer:
The correct option is c) occurrence of floods
Page No: 156

Q28. Which of the following is used as a moderator in the reactor of a nuclear power station?
a) liquid sodium
b) boron
c) graphite
d) carbon dioxide
Answer:
The correct option is c) graphite
Q29. The control rods used in the reactor of a nuclear power plant are made of:
a) steel
b) graphite
c) uranium
d) boron
Answer:
The correct option is d) boron
Q30. The ‘coolants’ which can be used in the reactor of a nuclear power station are:
a) liquid mercury and nitrogen dioxide
b) liquid sodium and carbon dioxide
c) liquid ammonia and carbon monoxide
d) liquid boron and uranium oxide
Answer:
The correct option is b) liquid sodium and carbon dioxide
Q31. In a nuclear power plant, coolant is a substance:

a) which cools the hot, spent steam to condense it back to water
b) which transfers heat from reactor to water in heat exchanger
c) which is boiled to make steam to turn the turbine
d) which cools the generator coils to prevent their overheating
Answer:
The correct option is b) which transfers heat from reactor to water in heat exchanger
Q32. Which of the following is ultimately not derived from the sun’s energy?
a) wind energy
b) nuclear energy
c) biomass energy
d) ocean thermal energy
Answer:
The correct option is b) nuclear energy
Q33. One atomic mass unit is equivalent to an energy of:

a) 931 eV
b) 9.31 MeV
c) 1 MeV
d) 931 MeV
Answer:
The correct option is d) 931 MeV
Q34. The energy in the reactor of a nuclear power station is produced by the process of:
a) nuclear diffusion
b) nuclear fission
c) nuclear fusion
d) nuclear fermentation
Answer:
The correct option is b) nuclear fission
Q35. One eV of nuclear energy is equivalent to:

a) 1.6 × 10 J
-14
b) 1.6 × 10 J
-12
c) 1.6 × 10 J
-19
d) 1.6 × 10 J
-13
Answer:
The correct option is c) 1.6 × 10 J
-19
Q36. Which of the following can be produced during the nuclear fission as well as nuclear fusion reactions?
a) protons
b) deuterons
c) electrons
d) neutrons
Answer:
The correct option is d) neutrons
Q37. Nuclear fission reactions are not a source of energy for one of the following. This is:
a) atom bomb
b) power plants
c) sun
d) pacemaker
Answer:
The correct option is c) sun
Q38. The energy produced by converting 1 gram mass of a nuclear fuel into energy completely is:
a) 9 × 10 J
16
b) 9 × 10 J
14
c) 9 × 10 J
15
d) 9 × 10 J
13
Answer:
The correct option is d) 9 × 10 J
13
Q39. The source of energy of the sun is:

a) conversion of hydrogen gas into helium
b) conversion of carbon fuel into carbon dioxide
c) burning of hydrogen gas present in the sun
d) disintegration of uranium into barium and krypton
Answer:
The correct answer is a) conversion of hydrogen gas into helium
Q40. An uncontrolled nuclear chain reaction forms the basis of:

a) nuclear power plant
b) hydrogen bomb
c) thermal power station
d) atom bomb
Answer:
The correct answer is d) atom bomb
Q41. One MeV of nuclear energy is equivalent to:

a) 1.6 × 10 J -13
b) 1.6 × 10 J -19
c) 1.6 × 10 J -16
d) 1.6 × 10 J -15
Answer:
The correct option is a) 1.6 × 10 J-13
Q42. One type of energy which has not been controlled so far is
a) ocean thermal energy
b) nuclear fusion energy
c) geothermal energy
d) nuclear fission energy
Answer:
The correct option is b) nuclear fusion energy
Q43. The disposal of wastes produced in a nuclear power plant poses a big problem because it is:
a) too heavy
b) highly inflammable
c) extremely foul smelling
d) highly radioactive
Answer:
The correct option is d) highly radioactive
Q44. The heat energy released during nuclear fission and fusion is due to the:
a) conversion of stored chemicals into energy
b) conversion of momentum into energy
c) conversion of mass into energy
d) conversion of magnetism into energy
Answer:
The correct option is c) conversion of mass into energy
Q45. Which of the following can undergo nuclear fusion reaction?

a) uranium
b) deuterium
c) barium
d) krypton
Answer:
The correct option is b) deuterium
No: 161

Q9. The major cause of environmental pollution is the use of:
a) hydrogen as fuel
b) biomass energy
c) ocean energy
d) fossil fuels
Answer:
The correct option is d) fossil fuels
Q10. The world’s known coal reserves are expected to last for about:
a) 200 years
b) 400 years
c) 500 years
d) 100 years
Answer:
The correct option a) 200 years
Q11. The fossil fuel whose known reserves in the earth are expected to last for the minimum period is:
a) coal
b) uranium
c) petroleum
d) natural gas
Answer:
The correct option c) petroleum
Q12. An energy efficient device for producing light is:

a) DLF
b) CFL
c) FCL
d) LPG
Answer:
The correct option b) CFL
Lakhmir Singh Solutions Class 10 Physics Chapter 4
Reflection of Light
Page No: 173

Q1. What happens when a ray of light falls normally on the surface of a plane mirror?
Answer:
When a ray of light falls normally on the surface of a plane mirror, the angle of incidence is 0 degrees. From laws
of reflection we know that angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. Therefore, the angle of reflection
will also be zero. Therefore, the light travels back in the same path.
Q2. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 30 degrees. What is the angle of reflection?
Answer:
We know from the laws of reflection that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. Therefore,
angle of reflection will be equal to 30 degrees.
Q3. A ray of light strikes a plane mirror at an angle of 40 degrees to the mirror surface. What will be the
angle of reflection?
Answer:
The angle to the mirror surface = 40 degrees
The angle of incidence = 90-40 = 50 degrees
Therefore, angle of reflection = 50 degrees from laws of reflection.
Q4. A ray of light is incident normally on a plane mirror. What will be the:
a) angle of incidence
b) angle of reflection?
Answer:
a) 0 degree
b) 0 degree
Q5. What type of image is formed:

a) in a plane mirror
b) on a cinema screen
Answer:
a) Virtual image
b) Real image
Q6. What kind of mirror is required for obtaining a virtual image of the same size as the object?
Answer:
Plane mirror is required.
Q7. What is the name of the phenomenon in which the right side of an object appears to be the left side of
the image in a plane mirror?
Answer:
This phenomenon is known as lateral inversion.
Q8. Name the phenomenon responsible for the following effect:

Reflection of Light
When we sit in front of a plane mirror and write with our right hand, it appears in the mirror that we are
writing with the left hand.
Answer:
This phenomenon is known as lateral inversion.
Q9. If an object is placed at a distance of 10cm in from of a plane mirror, how far would it be from its
image?
Answer:
The image is formed behind the mirror at the distance which is equal to the distance at which the object is placed.
Given,
Distance between object and mirror = 10cm
Distance between mirror and image = 10cm
Therefore, the distance between object and image = 20cm
Q10. Which property of light makes a pencil cast a shadow when it is held in front of a light source?
Answer:
Light travels in a straight line.
Q11. The image seen in a plane mirror cannot be formed on a screen. What name is given to this type of
image?
Answer:
Such images are known as virtual images.
Q12. Fill in the blanks:

When light is reflected, the angles of incidence and reflection are ……
Answer:
Equal

A student says that we can see an object because light from our eyes is reflected back by the object.
Answer:
False.
Q14. Where is the image when you look at something in a mirror?

Answer:
At the back side of the mirror.
Q15. A ray of light strikes a plane mirror such that its angle of incidence is 30 degree. What angle does the
reflected ray make with the mirror surface?
Answer:
Given,
Angle of incidence = 300
From the laws of reflection, angle of reflection = 300
So, the reflected ray makes an angle of 900 - 300 = 600 with the mirror surface

Q16. What is the difference between a real image and a virtual image?
Reflection of Light
Give one example of each type of image.

Answer:
The difference between a real image and a virtual image is that real image can be obtained on the screen while the
virtual image cannot be obtained on the screen.
Example of real image: image formed on the screen in cinemas.
Example of virtual image: image formed by the plane mirror.
Q17. The letter F is placed in front of a plane mirror:

a) How would its image look when seen in a plane mirror?
b) What is the name of the phenomenon involved?
Answer:
a)
b) Lateral inversion.
Q18. What is lateral inversion? Explain by giving a suitable example.

Answer:
When an object is placed in front of a plane mirror, the image obtained on the appears to on that opposite that is
right side appears to be on the left side. This change in the sides of an object and its mirror image is known as
lateral inversion.
Example:
Reflection of Light
Q19. Write the word AMBULANCE as it would appear when reflected in a plane mirror. Why sometimes
written in this way on the front of an ambulance?
Answer:
Ambulance is written like the above because when it appears on the rear-view mirror of the vehicle in front can
read it the right way because of lateral inversion and make way for it.
Q20. What are the important difference between looking at a photograph of your face and looking at
yourself in a plane mirror?
Answer:
The difference between looking at a photograph and looking at yourself is that of lateral inversion. But this
doesn’t happen in photographs.
Q21. a) A wall reflects light and a mirror also reflects light. What difference is there in the way they reflect
light?
b) Which type of reflection of light leads to the formation of images?
Answer:
Reflection of Light
a) A wall has a rough surface therefore, when a parallel beam of light falls on it the reflection would be diffused
reflection while the surface of the mirror is smooth and the reflection would be regular reflection.
b) Regular reflection.
Q22. What is the difference between regular reflection of light and diffuse reflection of light? What type of
reflection of light takes place from:
a) a cinema screen
b) a plane mirror
c) a cardboard
d) still water surface of a lake
Answer:
In regular reflection, the light beams travel parallel to each other and gets reflected in a similar manner while in
diffused reflection, the parallel beam of light gets reflected in all the directions.
a) Regular reflection
b) Regular reflection
c) Diffuse reflection
d) Regular reflection
Q23. What can you see in a completely dark room? If you switch on an electric bulb in this dark room as a
light source, explain how you could see:
a) the electric bulb
b) a piece of white paper
Answer:
When we are in a completely dark room, we cannot see anything as there is no light.
a) We can see the electric bulb emitting light
b) White paper is visible it reflects the light back that is falling from the electric bulb
Q24. a) A boy with a mouth 5cm wide stands 2m away from a plane mirror. Where is his image and how
wide is the image of his mouth?
b) The boy walks towards the mirror at a speed of 1m/s. At what speed does his image approach him?
Answer:
a) The width of the image of the mouth of the boy is 5cm and the image is formed at 2m behind the mirror.
b) The speed of the boy approaching the mirror will be the same as the image approaching = 1m/s
therefore, the speed = 2+2 = 4 m/s.
Q25. a) An extended object in the form of an arrow pointing upward has been placed in front of a plane
mirror. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the formation of its image.
b) State the uses of plane mirror.
Answer:
a)
Reflection of Light
b) Uses of plane mirrors:

i) It is used for making periscopes.
ii) Used in homes to see ourselves.
iii) Can be used a decorative piece.

Q26. What is meant by reflection of light? Define the following terms used in the study of reflection of light
by drawing a labelled ray diagram.
a) incident ray
b) point of incidence
c) normal
d) reflected ray
e) angle of incidence
f) angle of reflection
Answer:
Reflection of light is the phenomenon in which the light ray bounces back from the surface.
a) Incident ray: The light ray that falls on the mirror.
Reflection of Light
b) Point of incidence: The point at which the incident ray falls.

c) Normal: The line which is at right angle to the mirror.
d) Reflected ray: The light ray that travels back from the mirror.
e) Angle of incidence: The angle made by the incident ray with the normal at the point of incidence.
f) Angle of reflection: The angle made by the reflected ray with the normal at the point of incidence.
Q27. State and explain the laws of reflection of light at a plane surface with the help of a labelled ray
diagram. Mark the angle of incidence and reflection clearly on the diagram, if the angle of reflection is 47.5
degrees what will be the angle of incidence?
Answer:
Laws of reflection:
a) The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal are in the same plane.
b) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
It is given that the angle of reflection is 47.5 degrees and we know that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle
of reflection. Therefore, the angle of incidence is 47.5 degrees.
Reflection of Light
Q28. With the help of a labelled ray diagram, describe how a plane mirror forms an image of a point
source of light placed in front of it. State the characteristics of the image formed in a plane mirror.
Answer:
Below is the ray diagram of an image formed on a plane mirror when the source of light is placed in front of it.
Consider a point source of light O which is placed in front of a mirror MM’. OA is the incident ray and AX is the
reflected ray. The other ray is OB coming from O after striking the mirror at point B. BY is the reflected ray. Both
AX and BY are the reflected rays which meet at point I behind the mirror.
Reflection of Light
Characteristics of image formed by a plane mirror:

a) The image obtained is laterally inverted.
b) The image obtained is virtual.
c) The image formed is erect.
d) The distance between the object and the image is the same,
e) The size of the image is same as that of the object.
Q29. a) Explain why though both a plane mirror and a sheet of paper reflect light but we can see the image
of our face in a plane mirror but not in a sheet of paper.
b) The image in a plane mirror is virtual and laterally inverted. What does this statement mean?
c) Write all the capital letters of the alphabet which look the same in a plane mirror.
Answer:
a) We can see the image of our face on a plane mirror but not in a sheet of paper because on the plane mirror the
image is formed after the reflection which is known as regular reflection while image formed on a sheet of paper
is known as diffused reflection.
b) The images formed on the plane mirror are always lateral and virtual and cannot be obtained on a screen and is
reverse sideways.
Reflection of Light
c) A, H, I, M, O.

Q30. The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence:
a) always
b) sometimes
c) under special conditions
d) never
Answer:
The correct option is a) always
Q31. The angle between an incident ray and the plane mirror is 30 degree. The total angle between the
incident ray and reflected ray will be:
a) 30 degree
b) 60 degree
c) 90 degree
d) 120 degree
Answer:
The correct option is d) 120 degree
Q32. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror making an angle of 90 degree with the mirror surface. The
angle of reflection for this ray of light will be:
a) 45 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 0 degree
d) 60 degree
Answer:
The correct option is c) 0 degree
Q33. The image of an object formed by a plane mirror is:

a) virtual
b) real
c) diminished
d) upside-down
Answer:
The correct option is a) virtual
Q34. The image formed by a plane mirror is:

a) virtual, behind the mirror, and enlarged
b) virtual, behind the mirror, and of the same size as the object
c) real, at the surface of the mirror, and enlarged
d) real, behind the mirror, and of the same size as the object
Answer:
The correct option is b) virtual, behind the mirror, and of the same size as the object
Q35. The figure given alongside shows the image of a clock as seen in a plane mirror. The correct time is:
Reflection of Light
a) 2.25
b) 2.35
c) 6.45
d) 9.25
Answer:
The correct option is d) 9.25
Page No: 178

Q1. Name the spherical mirror which has:
a) virtual principal axis
b) real principal axis
Answer:
a) Convex mirror
b) Concave mirror
Q2. Out of convex mirror and concave mirror, whose focus is situated behind the mirror?
Answer:
Convex mirror has its focus behind.
Q3. Find the focal length of a concave mirror whose radius of curvature is 32cm.
Reflection of Light
Answer:
Radius of curvature, R = 32cm
Focal length, f = ?
We know that,
f = R/2
f = 32/2 = 16cm
Q4. If the focal length of a convex mirror is 25cm, what is its radius of curvature?
Answer:
Focal length, f = 25cm
Radius of curvature, R = ?
We know that,
f = R/2
R = 2f
R = 50cm

a) Parallel rays of light are reflected by a concave mirror to a point called the ……..
b) The focal length of a concave mirror is the distance from the ……… to the mirror.
c) A concave mirror ….. rays of light whereas a convex mirror ……. rays of light.
d) For a concave mirror, parallel rays of light appear to diverge from a point called the ……
Answer:
a) Principal focus
b) Principle focus
c) Converges and diverges
d) Principle focus

Q6. What is a spherical mirror? Distinguish between a concave mirror and a convex mirror.
Answer:
When the hollow sphere of glass as a reflecting surface, it is known as a spherical mirror. There are two types of
spherical mirrors: concave mirror and convex mirror.
Difference between concave mirror and convex mirror:

a) A concave mirror has a bent surface from which the reflection of light takes place while a convex mirror has a
bulged out surface from which the reflection of light takes place.
b) Concave mirrors converge the parallel rays of light while convex mirrors diverge the parallel rays of light.
Q7. Name the two types of spherical mirrors. What type of mirror is represented by the:
a) back side of a shining steel spoon?
b) front side of a shining steel spoon?
Answer:
Two types of spherical mirrors are concave mirror and convex mirror.
a) Convex mirror
b) Concave mirror
Reflection of Light
Q8. What is the relation between the focal length and radius of curvature of a spherical mirror? Calculate
the focal length of a spherical mirror whose radius of curvature is 25cm.
Answer:
The relation between the focal length and the radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is:
f = R/2.
Given,
R = 25cm
f=?
We know that, f = R/2
Therefore, f = 12.5cm
Q9. Explain with a suitable diagram, how a concave mirror converges a parallel beam of light rays. Mark
clearly the pole, focus, and centre of curvature of concave mirror in this diagram.
Answer:
After reflection, all the parallel light rays converge at the principal focus as the concave mirror converges the
parallel beam of light rays. This is the reason why it is known as converging mirror.
Q10. Describe with a suitable diagram, how a convex mirror diverges a parallel beam of light rays. Mark
clearly the pole, focus, and the centre of curvature of convex mirror in this diagram.
Answer:
After the reflection, the light rays diverge from the principal focus and that is why convex mirror is also known as
diverging mirror.
Reflection of Light

Q11. Define a) centre of curvature
b) radius of curvature
c) pole
d) principal axis
e) aperture of a spherical mirror with the help of a labelled diagram.
Answer:
a) Centre of curvature: It is the centre of the hollow sphere of glass of which a mirror is a part.
b) Radius of curvature: It is the radius of the hollow sphere of glass of which a mirror is a part.
c) Pole: The centre of the spherical mirror.
d) Principal axis: It is the straight line that passes through the centre of curvature and to the pole of the spherical
mirror.
e) Aperture: The portion of a mirror from where the reflection of light takes place.
Reflection of Light
Reflection of Light
Q12. a) Define i) principal focus of a concave mirror

ii) focal length of a concave mirror
b) Draw diagram to represent the action of a concave mirror on a beam of parallel light rays. Mark on this
diagram principal axis, focus F, centre of curvature C, pole P, and the focal length f of the concave mirror.
Answer:
a)
i) Principal focus of a concave mirror: The point on the principal axis on which all the light rays converge after
reflection in a concave mirror.
ii) Focal length of a concave mirror: The distance between the pole and the principal axis is known as the focal
length of a concave mirror.
b)
Q13. a) What is meant by i) principal focus of a convex mirror ii) focal length of a convex mirror?
b) Draw diagram to show the action of convex mirror on a beam of parallel light rays. Mark on this
diagram principal axis, focus F, centre of curvature C, pole P, and focal length f of the convex mirror.
Answer:
a)
i) Principal focus of a convex mirror: When all the reflected light rays meet at a point after diverging in a convex
mirror is known as principal focus of a convex mirror.
ii) Focal length of a convex mirror: The distance from the pole and the principal focus is known as the focal
length of a convex mirror.
b)
Reflection of Light

Q14. In a convex spherical mirror, reflection of light takes place at:
a) a flat surface
b) a bent-in surface
c) a bulging-out surface
d) an uneven surface
Answer:
The correct option is c) a bulging-out surface
Q15. A diverging mirror is:

a) a plane mirror
b) a convex mirror
c) a concave mirror
d) a shaving mirror
Answer:
The correct option is b) a convex mirror
Q16. If R is the radius of curvature of a spherical mirror and f is its focal length then:
a) R = f
b) R = 2f
c) R = f/2
Reflection of Light
d) R = 3f
Answer:
The correct option is b) R = 2f
Q17. The focal length of a spherical mirror of radius of curvature 30cm is:
a) 10cm
b) 15cm
c) 20cm
d) 30cm
Answer:
The correct option is b) 15cm
Q18. If the focal length of a spherical mirror is 12.5cm less cm, its radius of curvature will be:
a) 25cm
b) 15cm
c) 20cm
d) 35cm
Answer:
The correct option is a) 25cm
Page No: 189

Q1. For what position of an object, a concave mirror forms a real image equal in size to the object?
Answer:
At the centre of curvature
Q2. Where should an object be placed in front of the concave mirror so as to obtain its virtual, erect, and
magnified image?
Answer:
The object should be placed between the pole and the focus.
Q3. For which positions of the object does a concave mirror produce an inverted, magnified, and real
image?
Answer:
When the object is placed between the focus and the centre of curvature.
Q4. If an object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror, where is the image formed?
Answer:
The image is obtained at infinity.
Q5. If an object is at infinity in front of a concave mirror, where is the image formed?
Answer:
The image is formed at the focus.
Q6. For what position of an object, a real and diminished image is formed by a concave mirror?
Answer:
Reflection of Light
When the object is beyond the centre of curvature.
Q7. Copy this figure in your answer book and show the direction of the light ray after reflection:
Answer:
Following is the direction of the light ray after reflection:
Reflection of Light
Q8. Draw the following diagram in your answer book and show the formation of image of the object AB.
Answer:
Reflection of Light
Q9. Draw the following diagram in your answer book and show the formation of image with the help of
suitable rays.
Answer:
Reflection of Light
Q10. Which type of mirror could be used as a dentist’s mirror?

Answer:
A concave mirror can be used as a dentist mirror.

Q11. Which kind of mirror is used in the headlights of a car? Why is it used for this purpose?
Answer:
Concave mirror is used in the headlights of a car. Concave mirror is used because when the light bulb is placed at
the focus of a concave mirror reflector, the light rays diverge and gets collected by the concave reflector which is
then reflected back as strong and parallel-sided beam of light.
Q12. Explain why a ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror gets reflected
back along the same path.
Answer:
A ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror gets reflected back along the same path
because the angle between the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection are at 0 degrees as the light rays
strike the surface at right angle.
Q13. What is the minimum number of rays required for locating the image formed by a concave mirror for
an object? Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of a virtual image by a concave mirror.
Answer:
For locating the image formed by a concave mirror, minimum two rays are required. Following is the ray diagram
for the formation of a virtual image by a concave mirror:
Reflection of Light
Q14. With the help of a ray diagram, determine the position, nature, and the size of the image formed of an
object placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror.
Answer:
When an object is placed at the centre of curvature, C of a concave mirror, following is the image formed:
a) at the centre of curvature
b) real and inverted
c) the size of the image is equal to the size of an object
Q15. Describe with the help of a diagram, the nature, size, and the position of the image formed when an
object is placed beyond the centre of curvature of a concave mirror.
Answer:
When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formed is:
a) between the focus and the centre of curvature
b) real and inverted
c) smaller than the object
Q16. If an object is placed at a distance of 8cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10cm, discuss the
nature of the image formed by drawing the ray diagram.
Answer:
The focal length of the mirror, f = 10cm
The object is placed at = 8cm
Therefore, it can be said that the object is between the pole and the focus of the concave mirror
Therefore, the image formed is virtual, erect, and magnified.
Q17. Draw a ray diagram showing how a concave mirror can be used to produce a real, inverted, and
diminished image of an object.
Answer:
Reflection of Light
Q18. Which mirror is used as torch reflector? Draw a labelled diagram to show how a torch reflector can
be used to produce a parallel beam of light. Where is the bulb placed in relation to the torch reflector?
Answer:
Concave mirror is used for a torch reflector.
Q19. State where an object must be placed so that the image formed by a concave mirror is:
a) erect and virtual
b) at infinity
c) the same size as the object
Answer:
a) For erect and virtual, between the pole and the focus of the mirror
b) For infinity, at the focus of the mirror
c) For the same size as the object, at the centre of curvature of the mirror
Q20. With the help of a labelled ray diagram, describe how a converging mirror can be used to give an
enlarged upright image of an object.
Answer:
For obtaining an enlarged image which is upright, the object must be placed between the focus and the pole of the
concave mirror.
In the diagram below, AD is drawn parallel to the principal axis such that D gets reflected and passes through the
focus F. The second ray AE is passing through the centre of curvature striking at E and getting reflected back. DF
and EC are the two diverging rays that do not intersect each other on the left side. DF and EC are produced
backwards. When they are produced backward, they appear to intersect at the point A’. Therefore, A’ is the virtual
image of point A. An enlarged image is obtained by A’B’ is drawn perpendicular to the axis.
Reflection of Light
Q21. Make labelled ray diagrams to illustrate the formation of:

a) a real image by a converging mirror
b) a virtual image by a converging mirror
Mark clearly the pole, focus, centre of curvature, and the position of object in each case.
Answer:
a) A real image by a converging mirror
b) A virtual image by a converging mirror

Reflection of Light
Q22. Briefly describe how you would find the focal length of a concave mirror quickly but approximately.
Answer:
For determining the focal length of a concave mirror, the object should be placed a considerable distance from the
concave mirror such that the image is formed at the focus. This is done by focusing a distant object such as a tree
by using a concave mirror. A sharp image of the tree is formed at the focus of the concave mirror. Therefore, the
distance of the image from the concave mirror will be equal to the focal length of the concave mirror.
Q23. Which type of mirror is used in a solar furnace? Support your answer with reason.
Answer:
A concave mirror is used in a solar furnace. The solar furnace is placed at the focus of a large concave reflector.
When the light rays fall on the surface of the concave mirror, the rays get reflected and meet at the focus of the
mirror due to the converging nature of the concave mirror resulting in the heating of the furnace.
Q24. Name the type of mirror used by dentists. How does it help?
Answer:
Dentist use a concave mirror. Dentist hold the concave mirror in such a way that the tooth lies within the focus. A
magnified image of the tooth is seen by the dentist which helps them in examining the defects.
Q25. Explain why concave mirrors are used as shaving mirrors.

Answer:
Concave mirrors are used as a shaving mirrors because when the face is placed close to the mirror, a magnified
image is obtained which is erect in nature. Thus helping in smoother shave.
Q26. Give two uses of concave mirrors. Explain why you would choose concave mirrors for these uses.
Answer:
Following are the uses of a concave mirrors:
a) Concave mirrors are used as a shaving mirror as a magnified and erect image is formed helping in smooth
shave.
Reflection of Light
b) Concave mirrors are also used by the dentists as an enlarged image is obtained helping them in detecting the
defects in the tooth.

Q27. a) Draw ray-diagrams to show the formation of images when the object is placed in front of a concave
mirror:
i) between its pole and focus
ii) between its centre of curvature and focus describe the nature, size, and position of the image formed in
each case
b) State one use of concave mirror based on the formation of images as in case (z) above.
Answer:
a)
i) When the object is placed between the pole and the focus of a concave mirror, the image formed is behind the
mirror and it is virtual, erect, and larger than the object.
ii) When the object is placed between the centre of curvature and focus of a concave mirror, the image formed is
beyond the centre of curvature. The image obtained is real, inverted, and larger than the object.
Reflection of Light
b) One use of concave mirror based on the formations of images is it is used as a shaving mirror.
Q28. a) Give two circumstances in which a concave mirror can form a magnified image of an object placed
in front of it. Illustrate your answer by drawing labelled ray diagrams for both.
b) Which one of these circumstances enables a concave mirror to be used as shaving mirror?
Answer:
a)
i) When the object is placed between the pole and the focus of a concave mirror, a magnified image is formed.
Reflection of Light
ii) When the object is placed between the focus and the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, a magnified
image is formed.
b) A concave mirror can be used as a shaving mirror when the object is placed between the pole and the focus of
the concave mirror.
Reflection of Light

Q29. The real image formed by a concave mirror is larger than the object when the object is:
a) at a distance equal to radius of curvature
b) at a distance less than the focal length
c) between focus and centre of curvature
d) at a distance greater than radius of curvature
Answer:
The correct option is c) between focus and centre of curvature
Q30. The real image formed by a concave mirror is smaller than the object if the object is:
a) between centre of curvature and focus
b) at a distance greater than radius of curvature
c) at a distance equal to radius of curvature
d) at a distance equal to focal length
Answer:
The correct option is b) at a distance greater than radius of curvature
Q31. The image formed by a concave mirror is virtual, erect, and magnitude. The position of object is:
a) at focus
b) between focus and centre of curvature
c) at pole
d) between pole and focus
Answer:
The correct option is d) between pole and focus
Q32. The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted, and of the same size as the object. The
position of the object must then be:
a) at the focus
b) between the centre of curvature and focus
c) at the centre of curvature
d) beyond the centre of curvature
Answer:
The correct option is c) at the centre of curvature
Q33. The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted, and highly diminished (much smaller than
the object). The object must be:
a) between pole and focus
b) at focus
c) at the centre of curvature
d) at infinity
Answer:
The correct option is d) at infinity
Q34. The angle of incidence for a ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror
is:
a) 45 degree
Reflection of Light
b) 90 degree
c) 0 degree
d) 180 degree
Answer:
The correct option is c) 0 degree
Q35. In the concave reflector of a torch, the bulb is placed:

a) between the pole and focus of reflector
b) at the focus of reflector
c) between focus and centre of curvature of reflector
d) at the centre of curvature of reflector
Answer:
The correct option is b) at the focus of reflector
Q36. The focal length of a small concave mirror is 2.5cm. In order to use this concave mirror as a dentist’s
mirror, the distance of tooth from the mirror should be:
a) 2.5cm
b) 1.5cm
c) 4.5cm
d) 3.5cm
Answer:
The correct option is b) 1.5cm
Refraction of Light
Page No: 219
Q1. If a ray of light goes from a rarer medium to a denser medium, will it bend towards the normal or away
from it?
Answer:
The light ray will bend towards the normal.
Q2. If a ray of light goes from a denser medium to rare medium, will it bend towards the normal or away from
the normal?
Answer:
The light ray will bend away from the normal.
Q3. A beam of light travelling in a rectangular glass slab emerges into air. Draw a ray diagram indicating the
change in its path.
Answer:
Following is the ray diagram of a beam of light travelling in a rectangular glass slab emerging into air.
Q4. A beam of light travelling in air is incident on water. Draw a ray diagram indicating the change in its path
in water.
Answer:
Refraction of Light
Following is the ray diagram of a beam of light travelling in air which is incident on water:
Q5. A ray of light travelling in water emerges into air. Draw a ray diagram indicating the change in its path.
Answer:
Following is the ray of light travelling in water emerging into air:
Refraction of Light
Q6. A ray of light travelling in air is incident on a parallel-sided glass slab. Draw a ray diagram indicating the
change in its path inn glass.
Answer:
Following is the ray of light travelling in air which is incident on a parallel-sided glass slab:
Q7. A ray of light travelling in glass emerges into air. State whether it will bend towards the normal or away
from the normal.
Answer:
When the light ray is travelling in a glass emerging into air, the ray will bend away from the normal.
Q8. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the ray of light bend towards the normal or
away from the normal? Why?
Answer:
When the light ray is travelling in air entering into water obliquely, the light ray bends towards the normal because
water as a medium has an optically denser medium than air.
Q9. A ray of light goes from water into air. Will it bend towards the normal or away from the normal?
Answer:
Refraction of Light
When the light ray goes from water into air, the light ray will bend away from the normal.
Q10. State two effects caused by the refraction of light.

Answer:
Following are the two effects caused by the refraction of light:
a) An object placed under water appears to be raised.
b) A pool water appears to be less deeper than it is in reality.
Q11. Name the phenomenon due to which a swimming pool appears less deep than it really is.
Answer:
The phenomenon is known as refraction of light.
Q12. When a ray of light passes from air into glass, is the angle of refraction greater than or less than the angle
of incidence?
Answer:
When the ray of light passes from air into glass, the angle of refraction is less than the angle of incidence.
Q13. A ray of light passes from air into a block of glass. Does it bend towards the normal or away from it?
Answer:
When a ray of light passes from air into a block of glass, the ray will bend towards the normal.
Q14. As light rays pass from water into glass, are they refracted towards the normal or away from the normal?
Answer:
When the light rays pass from water into glass, they bend towards the normal.
Q15. In which material do you think light rays travel faster: glass or air?
Answer:
The light rays travels faster in air when compared to the glass.
Q16. Which phenomenon of light makes the water to appear shallower than it really is?
Answer:
Refraction of light is the phenomenon that makes the water to appear shallower than it really is.
Refraction occurs because light slows down in denser materials.
Answer:
The given statement is true.
Q18. Why does a ray of light bend when it travels from one medium to another?
Answer:
A ray of light bends from one medium to another when it travels because there is a change in the speed of the light.
Refraction of Light
a) Light travelling along a normal is ……….

b) Light bends when it passes from water into air. We say that it is …………
Answer:
a) Not
b) Refracted
Q20. What is meant by refraction of light? Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the refraction of light.
Answer:
The change in direction of light when it travels from one medium to another is known as refraction of light.
Refraction of Light
Q21. A ray of light travelling in air is incident on a rectangular glass block and emerges out into the air from the
opposite face. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the complete path of this ray of light. Mark the two points
where the refraction of light takes place. What can you say about the final direction of ray of light?
Answer:
The final direction of the ray of light will be the same as the incident direction
Q22. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show how a ray of light is refracted when it passes:
a) from air into an optically denser medium
b) from an optically denser medium into air
Answer:
a) Following is the ray diagram of a ray of light travelling from air into an optically denser medium:
Refraction of Light
b) Following is the ray diagram of light travelling from an optically denser medium into air:
Q23. The diagram given alongside shows a ray of light entering a rectangular block of glass.
Refraction of Light
a) Copy the diagram and draw the normal at the point of entry.
b) Draw the approximate path of the ray of light through the glass block and out of the other side.
Answer:
a)
b)
Refraction of Light
Q24. What is meant by the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction for a ray of light? Draw a labelled ray
diagram to show the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction for a refracted ray of light.
Answer:
The angle of incidence is defined as the angle between the incident ray and the normal at the point of incidence.
The angle of refraction is defined as the angle between the refracted ray and the normal at the point of refraction.
Refraction of Light
Q25. Light travels more quickly through water than through glass.
a) Which is optically denser: water or glass?
b) If a ray of light passes from glass into water, which way will it bend: towards the normal or away from the
normal?
Answer:
a) Glass is optically denser than water.
b) If a ray of light is passing from glass into water, it will bend away from the normal.
Q26. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show how a ray of light passes through a parallel sided glass block:
a) If it hits the glass block at 90 degrees that is perpendicular to the glass block
b) If it hits the glass block at an angle other than 90 degrees that is obliquely to the glass block
Answer:
a) When the light ray hits the glass block at 90 degrees:
Refraction of Light
b) When the light ray hits the glass block at angle other than 90 degrees:
Refraction of Light
Q27. When a light ray passes from air into glass, what happens to its speed? Draw a diagram to show which way
the ray of light bends.
Answer:
When the light ray passes from air into glass, it bends towards the normal.
Refraction of Light
Q28. a) Explain why a stick half immersed in water appears to be bent at the surface. Draw a labelled diagram
to illustrate your answer.
b) A coin in a glass tumbler appears to rise as the glass tumbler is slowly filled with water. Name the
phenomenon responsible for this effect.
Answer:
a) The stick appears to be bent at the surface because of refraction of light.
Let OC be the ray coming from O which passes from water into air and gets refracted away from the normal. OD is the
second ray that gets refracted along with DY. Therefore, the two refracted rays are CX and DY which appears to meet
at point I. Therefore, I is the virtual image at the end of O. Following is the ray diagram:
Refraction of Light
b) The phenomenon is known as refraction of light.

Q29. a) With the help of a labelled diagram, explain why a tank full of water appears less deep than it actually
is.
b) Name the phenomenon due to which a pencil partly immersed in water and held obliquely appears to be bent
at the water surface.
Answer:
a) A tank full of water appears less deep than it actually is because of the refraction of light. When we look into the
tank, we see the virtual image of the bottom of the tank which is formed by the refraction of the light coming from the
water into the air. Following is the ray diagram:
Refraction of Light
b) Refraction of light.
Q30. a) With the help of a diagram, show how when light falls obliquely on the side of a rectangular glass slab,
the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.
b) Show the lateral displacement of the ray on the diagram.
c) State two factors on which the lateral displacement of the emergent ray depends.
Answer:
a)
Refraction of Light
b) The lateral displacement is shown in the above ray diagram.

c) Factors on which the lateral displacement depends are:
i) Angle of incidence
ii) Thickness of the glass slab
iii) Refractive index of glass slab
Q31. Explain with the help of a labelled ray diagram, why a pencil partly immersed in water appears to be bent
at the water surface. State whether the bending of pencil will increase or decrease of water is replaced by
another liquid which is optically more dense than water. Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
When a pencil is placed in water, it appears to be bent because of the refraction of light. This is because refraction
causes an apparent shift in the position of the part of the pencil within the water. The bending of pencil will increase if
water is replaced by a liquid which is much denser. This means that more the optically denser medium, more will be
the refraction of light rays.
Refraction of Light

Q32. Light travelling from a denser medium to a rarer medium along a normal to the boundary:
a) is refracted towards the normal
b) is refracted away from the normal
c) goes along the bounding
d) is not refracted
Answer:
The correct answer is d) is not refracted
Q33. A ray of light passes from glass into air. The angle of refraction will be:
a) equal to the angle of incidence
b) greater than the angle of incidence
c) smaller than the angle of incidence
d) 45 degrees
Refraction of Light
Answer:
The correct answer is b) greater than the angle of incidence
Q34. A ray of light travelling in air goes into water. The angle of refraction will be:
a) 90 degrees
b) smaller than the angle of incidence
c) equal to the angle of incidence
d) greater than the angle of incidence
Answer:
The correct answer is b) smaller than the angle of incidence
Q35. The speed of light in air is:
a) 3 × 108 cm/s
b) 3 × 108 mm/s
c) 3 × 108 km/s
d) 3 × 108 m/s
Answer:
The correct answer is d) 3 × 108 m/s
Q36. When a ray of light travelling in glass enters into water obliquely:
a) it is refracted towards the normal
b) it is not refracted at all
c) it goes along the normal
d) it is refracted away from the normal
Answer:
The correct answer is d) it is refracted away from the normal
Q37. A ray of light travelling in water falls at right angles to the boundary of a parallel-sided glass block, the ray
of light:
a) is refracted towards the normal
b) is refracted away from the normal
c) does not get refracted
d) is reflected along the same path
Answer:
The correct answer is c) does not get refracted
Refraction of Light
Q38. A ray of light passes from a medium X to another medium Y. No refraction of light occurs if the ray of
light hits the boundary of medium Y at an angle of:
a) 0 degrees
b) 45 degrees
c) 90 degrees
d) 120 degrees
Answer:
The correct answer is c) 90 degrees
Page No: 227

Q1. What name is given to the ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction?
Answer:
The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is known as refractive index.
Q2. Write the relation between the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction for a medium.
Answer:
The relation between the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction for a medium is refractive index. Refractive
index is the ratio between the sine of the angle of incidence and the sine of the angle of refraction.
Q3. What is the unit of refractive index?
Answer:
There is no unit of refractive index.
Q4. Which has higher refractive index: water or glass?
Answer:
Glass has a higher refractive index than water.
Q5. Refractive indices of carbon disulphide and ethyl alcohol are 1.63 and 1.36 respectively. Which is optically
denser?
Answer:
Carbon disulphide is more denser than the ethyl alcohol.
Q6. The refractive index of diamond is 2.24. What is the meaning of this statement is relation to the speed of
light?
Answer:
The refractive index of diamond is 2.24 means that the ratio of the speed of light in air to the speed of the light in
diamond is equal to 2.24.
Refraction of Light
Q7. If the refractive index for light going from air to diamond be 2.24, what will be the refractive index for light
going from diamond to air?
Answer:
The refractive index from air to diamond is 2.24
The refractive index from diamond to air is ½.24 = 0.41
Q8. How is the refractive index of a material related to the speed of light in it?
Answer:
Refractive index of a material = (speed of light in vacuum)/(speed of light in the material)
Q9. Fill in the following blank with a suitable word:
When a ray of light goes from air into a clear material, you see the ray bend. How much the ray bends is
determined by the ……… of the material.
Answer:
Refractive index.
Short Answer Types Questions

Q10. Give three examples of materials that refract light rays. What happens to the speed of light rays when they
enter these materials?
Answer:
The three examples of materials that refract light rays are diamond, water, and glass. When the light rays enter these
materials their speed reduces.
Q11. Define Snell’s law of refraction. A ray of light is incident on a glass slab at an angle of incidence of 60
degree. If the angle of refraction be 32.7 degree, calculate the refractive index of glass assuming sin 60 degree =
0.866 and sin 32.7 degree = 540.
Answer:
According to Snell’s law, the ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is equal to the constant
for a given pair of media.
Refractive index = (sine of angle of incidence)/(sine of angle of refraction)
Given,
Angle of incidence = 60 degree
Angle of refraction = 32.4 degree
Refractive index = sin 60/sin 32.4
Refractive index = 1.603
Q12. The speed of light in vacuum and in two different glasses is given in the table below:
Refraction of Light
Medium Speed of light
Vacuum 3.00 × 108m/s
Flint glass 1.86 × 108m/s
Crown glass 1.97 × 108m/s
a) Calculate the absolute refractive indexes of flint glass and crown glass.
b) Calculate the relative refractive index for light going from crown glass to flint glass.
Answer:
a) Refractive index of flint glass = (speed of light in vacuum)/(speed of light in flint glass) = 1.61
Refractive index of crown glass = (speed of light in vacuum)/(speed of crown glass) = 1.52
b) Relative refractive index of crown glass to flint glass = (speed of light in crown glass)/(speed of light in flint glass) =
1.059
Q13. The speed of light in air is 3 × 108m/s. In medium X its speed is 2 × 108m/s and in medium Y the speed of
light is 2.5 × 108m/s. Calculate:
a) relative refractive index of air and X
b) relative refractive index of air and Y
c) relative refractive index of X and Y
Answer:
a) Relative refractive index of air and X = (speed of light in air)/(speed of light in medium X) = 1.5
b) Relative refractive index of air and Y = (speed of light in air)/(speed of light in medium Y) = 1.2
c) Relative refractive index of X and Y = (speed of light in X)/(speed of light in Y) = 0.8
Q14. What is the speed of light in a medium of refractive index 6/5 if its speed in air is 3,00,000 km/s?
Answer:
Refractive index of medium = 6/5 = 1.2
Speed of light in air = 3,00,000 km/s
We know that, refractive index of the medium = (speed of light in air)/(speed of light in medium)
1.2 = (300000)/(speed of light in medium)
Speed of light in medium = 2500000 km/s
Refraction of Light
Q15. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. Calculate the speed of light in glass. The speed of light in air is
3.00×108m/s.
Answer:
Given,
Refractive index of glass = 1.5
Speed of light in air = 3.00×108m/s
Refractive index of glass = (speed of light in air)/(speed of light in glass)
Speed of light in glass = 1.5
Q16. The speed of light in water is 2.25×108m/s. If the speed of light in vacuum be 3.00×108m/s, calculate the
refractive index of water.
Answer:
Speed of light in vacuum = 3.00×108m/s
Speed of light in water = 2.23×108m/s
Refractive index of water = speed of light in vacuum/speed of light in water
Refractive index of water = 1.33
Q17. Light enters from air to diamond which has a refractive index of 2.42. Calculate the speed of light in
diamond. The speed of light in air is 3.00×108m/s.
Answer:
Given,
Refractive index of diamond = 2.42
Speed of light in air = 3.00×108m/s
Refractive index of diamond = speed of light in air/speed of light in diamond
Speed of light in diamond = 1.239×108m/s

Q18. a) State and explain the laws of refraction of light with the help of a labelled diagram.
b) What is meant by the refractive index of a substance?
c) Light travels through air at 300 million m/s. On entering water it slows down to 225 million m/s. Calculate the
refractive index of water.
Answer:
a) First law of refraction states that the incident ray, the refracted ray, and the normal at the point of incidence all are in
the same plane.
Second law of refraction state that the ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is equal to a
constant for a given pair of media.
Refraction of Light
b) Refractive index of a substance is the speed of the light in the vacuum to the speed of the light in a medium.
c) Speed of light in air = 300 million m/s
Speed of light in water = 225 million m/s
We know that, refractive index of water = speed of light in air/speed of light in water
Refractive index of water = 1.33

Q19. The refractive indices of four substances P, Q, R, and S are 1.50, 1.36, 1.77, and 1.31 respectively. The
speed of light is the maximum in the substance:
a) P
b) Q
c) R
d) S
Answer:
The correct answer is d) S
Refraction of Light
Q20. The refractive indices of four materials A, B, C, and D are 1.33, 1.43, 1.71, and 1.52 respectively. When the
light rays pass from air into these materials, they refract the maximum in:
a) material A
b) material B
c) material C
d) material D
Answer:
The correct answer is c) material C
Q21. The refractive index of glass for light going from air to glass is 3/2. The refractive index for light going
from glass to air will be:
a) 1/3
b) 4/5
c) 4/6
d) 5/2
Answer:
The correct answer is c) 1/3
Q22. The refractive indices of four media A, B, C, and D are 1.44, 1.52, 1.65, and 1.36 respectively. When light
travelling in air is incident in these media at equal angles, the angle of refraction will be the minimum:
a) in medium A
b) in medium B
c) in medium C
d) in medium D
Answer:
The correct answer is c) in medium C
Q23. The speed of light in substance X is 1.25×108m/s and that in air is 3×108m/s. The refractive index of this
substance will be:
a) 2.4
b) 0.4
c) 4.2
d) 3.75
Answer:
The correct answer is a) 2.4
Refraction of Light
Q24. The refractive indexes of four substances P, Q, R, and S are 1.77, 1.50, 2.42, and 1.31 respectively. When
light travelling in air is incident on these substances at equal angles, the angle of refraction will be the maximum
in:
a) substance P
b) substance Q
c) substance R
d) substance S
Answer:
The correct answer is d) substance S
Q25. The refractive index of water is:
a) 1.33
b) 1.50
c) 2.24
d) 1.36
Answer:
The correct answer is a) 1.33
Q26. The refractive index of water with respect to air is 4/3. The refractive index of air with respect to water will
be:
a) 1.75
b) 0.50
c) 0.75
d) 0.25
Answer:
The correct answer is c) 0.75
Q27. Refractive indices of water, sulphuric acid, glass, and carbon disulphide are 1.33, 1.43, 1.53, 1.63
respectively. The light travels slowest in:
a) sulphuric acid
b) glass
c) water
d) carbon disulphide
Answer:
Refraction of Light
The correct answer is d) carbon disulphide
Q28. The refractive index of glass with respect to air is 3/2 and the refractive index of water with respect to air is
4/3. The refractive index of glass with respect to water will be:
a) 1.525
b) 1.225
c) 1.425
d) 1.125
Answer:
The correct answer is d) 1.125
Lakhmir Singh Solutions for Class 10 Physics Chapter 6-
The Human Eye and The Colourful World
Page No: 269

Q1. What kind of lens is present in the human eye?
Answer:
Convex lens is present in the human eye.
Q2. Name two parts of the eye which refract light rays.
Answer:
The two parts of the eye that refract light rays are cornea and eye-lens.
Q3. Name the part of eye:

a) Which controls the amount of light entering the eye
b) On which the image is formed
c) Which changes the focal length of eye-lens
Answer:
a) Iris
b) Retina
c) Ciliary muscles
Q4. What is the name of:

a) The curved, transparent front surface of the eye?
b) The light-sensitive layer in the eye?
Answer:
a) Cornea
b) Retina
Q5. Where is the image formed in a human eye?

Answer:
The image is formed at the retina in a human eye.
Q6. What is the function of the lens in the human eye?

Answer:
The function of eye lens is to change the shape and thickness so that light gets focused on the retina.
Q7. What job does the pupil of the eye do?

Answer:
The job of the pupil in the eye is to expand or contract depending on the intensity of the light around the eye.
Q8. Flow does the eye adjust to take account of an increase in brightness?
Answer:
This is done with the help of the pupil of our eyes as it contracts.
Q9. Name that part of the eye which is equivalent to the photographic film in a camera.
Answer:
Retina is the part of an eye which is equivalent to the photographic film in a camera.
Q10. Name the part of the retina which is insensitive to light.

Answer:
Blind spot is insensitive part of the retina.
Q11. Which part of the eye contains cells which are sensitive to light?
Answer:
Retina contains cells that are sensitive to light.
Q12. Name two types of cells in the retina of an eye which respond to light.
Answer:
Rods and cones are the two types of cells in the retina of an eye that responds to light.
Q13. Out of rods and cones in the retina of your eye:

a) Which detect colour?
b) Which work in dim light?
Answer:
a) Cones
b) Rods

The image formed on our retina is upside-down.
Answer:
True
Q15. What is the principal function of the eye-lens?

Answer:
The principal function of the eye-lens is to focus light on to the retina.
Q16. Where does the greatest degree of refraction of light occur in the eye?
Answer:
The greatest degree of refraction of light occurs at the cornea of the eye.
Q17. What changes the shape of lens in the eye?

Answer:
The shape of the lens in the eye is changed with the help of ciliary muscles.
Q18. What do the ciliary muscles do when you are focusing on a nearby object?
Answer:
While focusing on a nearby object, the ciliary muscle makes the lens of the eye more thick.
Q19. What is the least distance of distinct vision for a normal human eye?
Answer:
25cm is the least distance of distinct vision for a normal human eye.
Q20. What is the:

a) Far point of a normal human eye?
b) Near point of a normal human eye?
Answer:
a) Infinity is the far point of a normal human eye.
b) 25 cm is the near point of a normal human eye.
Q21. What is the range of vision of a normal human eye?

Answer:
The range of vision of a normal human eye is from infinity to 25cm.
Q22. Name the part of our eyes which helps us to focus near and distant objects in quick succession.
Answer:
Ciliary muscles helps us to focus near and distant objects in quick succession.
Q23. Define the term “power of accommodation” of human eye.

Answer:
Power of accommodation is defined as the ability of an eye to focus the distant object as well as the nearby object
on the retina by changing the focal length of the lens.
Q24. Give the scientific names of the following parts of the eye:
a) Carries signals from an eye to the brain
b) Muscles which change the shape of the eye-lens
c) A hole in the middle of the iris
d) A clear window at the front of the eye
e) Changes shape to focus a picture on the retina
Answer:
a) Optical nerve
b) Ciliary muscles
c) Pupil
d) Cornea
e) Eye lens

a) Most of the refraction of light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the …….
b) The part of eye sensitive to light is ……….
c) The part of eye which alters the size of the pupil is ………….
d) When light is dim, the pupil becomes ……………
e) The iris controls the amount of ……… entering the eye.
f) The ciliary muscles control the shape of the ………
g) To bring light from a distant object to a focus on the retina of the eye, the convex eye-lens needs to be
made …….
h) To bring light from a near object to a focus on the retina of the eye, the convex eye lens needs to be made
…….
Answer:
a) Cornea
b) Retina
c) Iris
d) Large
e) Light
f) Eye-lens
g) Thinner
h) Thicker

Q26. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25cm?
Answer:
A normal eye cannot see clearly the objects that are placed closer than 25cm because the power of
accommodation of the eye is 25cm which is exhausted. When the maximum accommodation of the eye is
reached, the ciliary muscles of the eye lens cannot become more thick.
Q27. What changes take place in the shape of eye-lens:

a) When the eye is focused on a near object?
b) When the eye is focused on a distant object?
Answer:
a) When the eye is focused on a near object, the eye-lens becomes thicker.
b) When the eye is focused on a distant object, the eye-lens becomes thinner.
Q28. The eyes of a person are focused

i) On a nearby object
ii) On a distant object, turn by turn. In which case:
a) The focal length of eye-lens will be the maximum?
b) The converging power of eye-lens will be the maximum?
Answer:
a) The focal length of eye-lens will be the maximum when the eye is focused on a distant object.
b) The converging power of eye-lens will be the maximum when the eye is focused on a nearby object.
Q29. What change is made in the eye to enable it to focus on objects situated at different distances?
Illustrate your answer with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
For an eye to focus on objects situated at different distances, the ciliary muscles of the eye either get fully relaxed
or stretched. The ciliary muscle contracts so that the nearby objects can be focused by making the suspensory
ligaments loose.
Q30. How is the amount of light entering the eye controlled?

Answer:
Iris controls the amount of light that enters the eye. Depending on the intensity of the light received by the eye,
the size of the pupil is adjusted. The iris contracts the size of the pupil if the intensity of the light received is large
and the iris expands the size of the pupil if the intensity of the light received is small.
Q31. What happens to the eye when you enter a darkened cinema hall from bright sunshine? Give reason
for your answer.
Answer:
As we enter a darkened cinema hall from bright sunshine, at first we cannot see anything clearly. But in no time,
our vision improves. This is because outside the cinema hall, the intensity of light entering the eye is large, so the
iris makes sure that the pupil is small. But when we enter the cinema hall, the pupil expands making more room
for light making things visible.
Q32. Why does it take some time to see objects in a dim room when you enter the room from bright
sunshine outside?
Answer:
It takes some time to see objects in a dim room when you enter the room from bright sunshine outside because the
size of the pupil is small as the intensity of light outside is more. When we enter in a dim room, the pupil expands
making things visible.
Q33. A person walking in a dark corridor enters into a brightly lit room:
a) State the effect on the pupil of the eye.
b) How does this affect the amount of light entering the eye?
Answer:
a) The pupil becomes smaller.
b) The amount of light entering the eye is reduced.
Q34. Ciliary muscles of human eye can contract or relax. How does it help in the normal functioning of the
eye?
Answer:
When the ciliary muscle gets relaxed, the eye lens become thin making it easy to see objects that are at a distant.
When the ciliary muscle gets contracted, the eye lens become thick making it easy to see objects that are nearby.
This is how the ciliary muscle help in the normal functioning of the eye.
Q35. Describe and explain how a normal eye can see objects lying at various distances clearly.
Answer:
The objects that are at distant, the focus is done with the help of ciliary muscles. The ciliary muscles get fully
relaxed and the suspensory ligaments are pulled and attached to the eye lens.
Q36. There are two types of light-sensitive cells in the human eye:
a) Where are they found?
b) What is each type called?
c) To what is each type of cell sensitive?
Answer:
a) The two types of light sensitive cells are found in the retina
b) These cells are called rods and cones
c) Rods are sensitive to dim light while cones are sensitive to bright light.
Q37. What are rods and cones in the retina of an eye? Why is our night vision relatively poor compared t
the night vision of an owl?
Answer:
Rod and cones are the cells in the retina of an eye. Rods are rod-shaped cells that are sensitive to dim light. Cones
are cone-shaped that are sensitive to the bright light. The night vision of human is comparatively less when
compared to owl because of the presence of lesser number of rod cells.
Q38. a) How does the convex eye lens differ from the ordinary convex lens made of glass?
b) List in order the parts of the eye through which light passes to reach the retina.
Answer:
a) The convex eye lens differ from the ordinary convex lens as the focal length of the convex lens in the eye is
controlled by the ciliary images while the focal length of ordinary convex lens is fixed by fixing the focal length
of the glass.
b) Cornea, pupil, eye-lens, retina.
Q39. a) What happens to the size of pupil of our eye

i) in dim light
ii) in bright light
b) Name the cells on the retina of an eye which are sensitive to
i) bright light
ii) dim light
iii) sensation of colour
Answer:
a) i) In dim light, pupil becomes large
ii) In bright light, pupil becomes small
b) i) Cones
ii) Rods
iii) Cones
Q40. a) Draw a simple diagram of the human eye and label clearly the cornea, iris, pupil, ciliary muscles,
eye lens, retina, optic never, and blind spot.
b) Describe the working of the human eye with the help of the above diagram.
c) How does the eye adjust itself to deal with light of varying intensity?
Answer:
a)
b) Working of the human eye:
Q41. a) Explain the functions of the following parts of the eye:

a) cornea
b) iris
c) pupil
d) ciliary muscles
e) eye-lens
f) retina
g) optic nerve
b) If you walk from a dark room into sunlight and back again into dark room, how would your pupils alter
in size? What makes this happen?
c) Explain why we cannot see our seats first when we enter a darkened cinema hall from bright light but
gradually they become visible.
Answer:
a) a) Cornea: The front part of an eye through which the light enters is known as cornea.
b) Iris: The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by iris.
c) Pupil: The illumination in the eye is controlled by pupil.
d) Ciliary muscles: This helps in contracting and relaxing the eye lens.
e) Eye lens: It helps in focusing the light to the retina.
f) Retina: It responds to the intensity of the light and colour of the objects as it has cells known as rods and cones.
g) Optic nerve: The image formed on the retina is conveyed to the brain by optic nerve.
b) If we walk from the dark room into the sunlight, the pupil contracts and when we enter a dark room from
sunlight, the pupil expands.
c) When we enter the cinema hall from bright sunlight, we cannot see the seat clearly because when we are in
bright sunlight, the pupil is small as it has contracted but when we enter the hall, the pupil expands so that more
light can be accommodated.
Q42. The human eye forms the image of an object at its:

a) cornea
b) iris
c) pupil
d) retina
Answer:
The correct answer is d) retina
Q43. The change in focal length of an eye-lens is caused by the action of the:
a) pupil
b) retina
c) ciliary muscles
d) iris
Answer:
The correct answer is c) ciliary muscles
Q44. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is about:
a) 25m
b) 2.5cm
c) 25cm
d) 2.5m
Answer:
The correct answer is c) 25cm
Q45. Refraction of light in the eye occurs at:

a) the lens only
b) the cornea only
c) both the cornea and the lens
d) the pupil
Answer:
The correct answer is c) both the cornea and the lens
Q46. To focus the image of a nearby object on the retina of an eye:

a) the distance between eye-lens and retina is increased
b) the distance between eye-lens and retina is decreased
c) the thickness of eye-lens is decreased
d) the thickness of eye-lens is increased
Answer:
The correct answer is d) the thickness of eye-lens is increased
Q47. The term “accommodation” as applied to the eye, refers to its ability to:
a) control the light intensity falling on the retina
b) erect the inverted image formed on the retina
c) vary the focal length of the lens
d) vary the distance between the lens and retina
Answer:
The correct answer is c) vary the focal length of the lens
Q48. Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the eye?
a) ciliary muscles
b) lens
c) iris
d) cornea
Answer:
The correct answer is c) iris
Q49. The human eye possesses the power of accommodation. This is the power to:
a) alter the diameter of the pupil as the intensity of light changes
b) distinguish between lights of different colours
c) focus on objects at different distances
d) decide which of the two objects is closer
Answer:
The correct answer is c) focus on objects at different distances
Q50. How does the eye change in order to focus on near or distant object?
a) the lens moves in or out
b) the retina moves in or out
c) the lens becomes thicker or thinner
d) the pupil gets larger or smaller
Answer:
The correct answer is c) the lens becomes thicker or thinner
Q51. Which of the following changes occur when you walk out of bright sunshine into a poorly lit room?
a) the pupil becomes larger
b) the lens becomes thicker
c) the ciliary muscles relaxes
d) the pupil becomes smaller
Answer:
The correct answer is a) the pupil becomes larger
Q52. The size of the pupil of the eye is adjusted by:

a) cornea
b) ciliary muscles
c) optic nerve
d) iris
Answer:
The correct answer is d) iris
Page No: 279
Q1. Name one of the common defects of vision and the type of lens used to remove it.
Answer:
Myopia is one of the defects of vision which is removed by using concave lens.
Q2. Name the defect of vision in a person:

a) Whose near point is more than 25cm away.
b) Whose far point is less than infinity.
Answer:
a) Hypermetropia
b) Myopia
Q3. Which defect of vision can be rectified:

a) By using a concave lens?
b) By using a convex lens?
Answer:
a) Myopia
b) Hypermetropia
Q4. What type of lens is used to correct

a) Hypermetropia
b) Myopia
Answer:
a) Convex lens
b) Concave lens
Q5. What is the other name for

a) Myopia
b) Hypermetropia
Answer:
a) Near-sightedness
b) Far-sightedness
Q6. What is the scientific name of

a) Short-sightedness
b) Long-sightedness
Answer:
a) Myopia
b) Hypermetropia
Q7. What kind of lens is used to correct

a) Short-sightedness
b) Long-sightedness
Answer:
a) Concave lens
b) Convex lens

Short-sightedness can be cured by using a concave lens.
Answer:
True
Q9. Name the defect of vision in which the eye lens loses its power of accommodation due to old age.
Answer:
Presbyopia
Q10. Name the defect of vision which makes the eye lens cloudy resulting in blurred vision.
Answer:
Cataract
Q11. What is the other name of old age hypermetropia?

Answer:
Presbyopia
Q12. Name any two defects of vision which can be corrected by using spectacles.
Answer:
a) Myopia
b) Hypermetropia
Q13. Name one defect of vision which cannot be corrected by any type of spectacle lenses.
Answer:
Cataract
Q14. Name the body part with which the terms myopia and hypermetropia are connected.
Answer:
Eye
Q15. What is the far point of person suffering from myopia?

Answer:
Less than infinity.
Q16. Where is the near point of a person suffering from hypermetropia?

Answer:
For a person suffering from hypermetropia, the near point is 25cm.
Q17. Your friend can read a book perfectly well but cannot read the writing on blackboard unless she sits
on the front row in class.
a) Is she short-sighted or long-sighted?
b) What type of lenses: converging or diverging would an optician prescribe for her?
Answer:
a) Short-sighted
b) Diverging lenses
Q18. A man can read the number of a distant bus clearly but he finds difficulty in reading a book. A man
can read the number of a distant bus clearly but he finds difficulty in reading a book.
a) From which defect of the eye is he suffering?
b) What type of spectacle lens should he use to correct the defect?
Answer:
a) Hypermetropia
b) Convex lens
Q19. A student sitting in the last row of the class-room is not able to read clearly the writing on the
blackboard.
a) Name the type of defect he is suffering from.
b) How can this defect by corrected?
Answer:
a) Myopia
b) Concave lens
Q20. Complete the following sentences:

a) A short-sighted person cannot see ………. objects clearly. Short-sightedness can be corrected by using
……. lenses.
b) A long-sighted person cannot see ………… objects clearly. Long-sightedness can be corrected by using
…….. lenses.
Answer:
a) Distant, concave
b) Nearby, convex
Q21. What are the two most common defects of vision? How are they corrected?
Answer:
The two most common defects of vision are myopia and hypermetropia which can be corrected using a concave
lens and a convex lens respectively.
Q22. Differentiate between myopia and hypermetropia. What type of spectacles should be worn by a
person having the defects of myopia as well as hypermetropia? How it help?
Answer:
When a person can see objects that are placed nearby but find difficulty in seeing objects at a distance is known as
myopia. Whereas if a person can see objects that are placed at a distance and find difficulty in seeing objects that
are nearby is known as hypermetropia.
If a person is suffering from myopia as well as hypermetropia then that person is advised to use bifocal lenses in
which the upper part consists of concave lens while the lower part consists of convex lens. The upper lens corrects
myopia while the lower part corrects hypermetropia.
Q23. Name the defect of vision which can be corrected by a converging lens. Show clearly by a ray diagram
how the lens corrects the defect.
Answer:
Converging lens is used for correcting hypermetropia.
a) Person suffering from hypermetropia, the image of the object placed nearby will form behind the retina.
b) N’ is the near point of hypermetropic eye which is farther away from the normal near point N.
c) Convex lens is used for correcting hypermetropia and a virtual image of the object is formed at the near point
of the eye.
Q24. Name the defect of vision which can be corrected by a diverging lens. Show clearly by a ray diagram
how the lens corrects the defects.
Answer:
Diverging lens is used for correcting myopia. Following is the ray diagram of the correction of myopia:
a) The image formation for a myopic eye will happen in the front of the retina.
b) F is the far point of a myopic eye which is less than infinity.

c) The concave lens is placed in the front of the eye which forms a virtual image of an object placed at a distance.
Q25. Explain with the help of labelled ray diagram, the defect of vision called myopia and how it is
corrected by a lens.
Answer:
Myopia is also known as short-sightedness in which the person finds difficulty in seeing objects that are placed
nearby. This defect is corrected by using a concave lens. Following is the ray diagram of the correction of
myopia:
a) The image is formed in front of the eye.
b) The far point of a myopic eye is less than infinity.
c) Correction of myopia is done with the help of a concave lens.

Q26. Explain with the help of a labelled ray diagram, the defect of vision called hypermetropia and how it
is corrected by a lens.
Answer:
Hypermetropia is also known as long-sightedness in which the person cannot see the nearby objects clearly. The
defect can be corrected by placing a convex lens. Following is the ray diagram:
a) In hypermetropic eye, the image of a nearby object is formed behind the retina.
b) The near point for hypermetropic eye is N’ which is farther away from the normal near point.
c) Hypermetropia is corrected using a convex lens in which the virtual image is formed at the near point N’
Q27. A person suffering from the eye defect myopia can see clearly only up to a distance of 2 metres. What
is the nature and power of lens required to rectify this defect?
Answer:
A person suffering from myopia can use concave lens.
Given,
The far point of myopic eye = 2m
Object distance, u = infinity
Image distance, v = 2m
1/v-1/u=1/f
f = -2m
P = 1/f = 1/-2 = -0.5D
Q28. The near point of a person suffering from hypermetropia is at 50cm from his eye. What is the nature
and power of the lens needed to correct this defect?
Answer:
The person suffering from hypermetropia needs to use convex lens.
Given,
Object distance, u = -25cm
Image distance, v = -50cm
1/v-1/u=1/f
f = 50cm
P = 100/f = 100/50 = 2D
Q29. A person needs a lens of power -5.5 dioptres for correcting his distant vision. For correcting his near
vision, he needs a lens of power +1.5 dioptres. What is the focal length of the lens required for correcting
a) Distant vision
b) Near vision
Answer:
a) For distant vision,
P = -5.5D
P = 1/f
f = 1/P = -18.18cm
b) For near vision,

P = 1.5D
P = 1/f
f = 1/P = 66.66cm
Q30. What is presbyopia? Write two causes of this defect. Name the type of lens which can be used to
correct presbyopia.
Answer:
Presbyopia is the vision defect in which an person finds difficulty in seeing the nearby objects due to loss of
power of accommodation of the eye. This happens because of weakening of the ciliary muscles and the
diminishing flexibility of the eyes. This is corrected by using convex lens.
Q31. When is a person said to have developed cataract in his eye? How is the vision of a person having
cataract restored?
Answer:
A person is said to have developed cataract in his eye when there is progressive cloudy formation resulting in
blurred vision. This defect is corrected by surgery. Also, an opaque lens is lens from the eye and a new artificial
lens is replaced.

A person is short-sighted if his eyeball is too …….. Spectacles with a ………… lens are needed. A person is
long-sighted of his eyeball is too ……….. Spectacles with a …………. lens are needed. These focus light
rays exactly on to the ………..
Answer:
Long, concave, short, convex, and retina.
Q33. a) What is short-sightedness? State the two causes of short-sightedness. With the help of ray diagram,
show:
i) the eye defect short-sightedness
ii) correction of short-sightedness by using a lens
b) A person having short-sight cannot see objects clearly beyond a distance of 1.5m. What would be the
nature and power of the corrective lens to restore proper vision?
Answer:
a) Short sightedness is the defect in which a person finds difficulty in seeing objects that are kept nearby.
Following are the two causes of short sightedness:
i) Excessive curvature of the eye lens
ii) Elongation of the eyeball
Ray diagram of short sightedness:

Ray diagram of correction of short sightedness:
b) Concave lens is used for restoring the proper vision.

Given,
The far point of myopic eye = 1.5m
Image distance, v = 1.5m
1/v-1/u=1/f
f = -1.5m
P = 1/f = 1/(-1.5) = -0.67D
Q34. a) What is long-sightedness? State the two causes of long-sightedness. With the help of ray diagram,
show:
i) the eye defect long sightedness
ii) correction of long-sightedness using a lens
b) An eye has a near point distance of 0.72m. What sort of lens in spectacles would be needed to reduce the
near point distance to 0.25m? Also, calculate the power of lens required. Is this eye long-sighted or short-
sighted?
c) An eye has far point of 2m. What type of lens in spectacles would be needed to increase the far point to
infinity? Also, calculate the power of lens required. Is this eye long-sighted or short-sighted?
Answer:
a) Long sightedness is the defect in which a person cannot see the objects that are placed at a distance but can see
objects that are nearby. Following are the two causes of long sightedness:
i) Focal length of the eye lens is too long.
ii) The eyeball has become too small.
Ray diagram for long-sightedness:

Ray diagram of correction of long sightedness:
b) Convex lens is used for rectifying the long sightedness.

Given,
Object distance, u = -0.25m
Image distance, v = -0.75m
1/v-1/u=1/f
f = 3/8m
P = 1/f = 2.67D
The eye is long sighted.
c) Concave lens is required.

Given,
Image distance, v = 2m
f = -2m
P = 1/f = -0.5D
The eye is short-sighted
Q35. The human eye can focus objects at focus objects at different distances by adjusting the focal length of
the eye-lens. This is due to:
a) presbyopia
b) accommodation
c) near-sightedness
d) far-sightedness
Answer:
The correct answer is b) accommodation
Q36. The defect of vision which cannot be corrected by using spectacles is:
a) myopia
b) presbyopia
c) cataract
d) hypermetropia
Answer:
The correct answer is c) cataract
Q37. A person cannot see the distant objects clearly. He is suffering from the defect of vision called:
a) cataract
b) hypermetropia
c) myopia
d) presbyopia
Answer:
The correct answer is c) myopia
Q38. Though a woman can see the distant objects clearly, she cannot see the nearby objects clearly. She is
suffering from the defect of vision called:
a) long-sight
b) short-sight
c) hind-sight
d) mid-sight
Answer:
The correct answer is a) long-sight
Q39. A young man has to hold a book at arm’s length to be able to read it clearly. The defect of vision is:
a) astigmatism
b) myopia
c) presbyopia
d) hypermetropia
Answer:
The correct answer is d) hypermetropia
Q40. After testing the eyes of a child, the optician has prescribed the following lenses for his spectacles:
Left eye: +2.00D
Right eye: +2.25D
The child is suffering from the defect of vision called:
a) short-sightedness
b) long-sightedness
c) cataract
d) presbyopia
Answer:
The correct answer is b) long-sightedness
Q41. A person got his eyes tested. The optician’s prescription for the spectacles reads:
Left eye: -3.00D
Right eye: -3.50D
The person is having a defect of vision called:
a) presbyopia
b) myopia
c) astigmatism
d) hypermetropia
Answer:
The correct answer is b) myopia
Q42. A student sitting on the last bench in the class cannot read the writing on the blackboard clearly but
he can read the book lying on his desk clearly. Which of the following statement is correct about the
student?
a) the near point of his eyes has receded away
b) the near point of his eyes has come closer to him
c) the far point of his eyes has receded away
d) the far point of his eyes has come closer to him
Answer:
The correct answer is d) the far point of his eyes has come closer to him
Q43. A man driving a car can read a distant road sign clearly but finds difficulty in reading the odometer
on the dashboard of the car. Which of the following statement is correct about this man?
a) the near point of his eyes has receded away
b) the near point of his eyes has come closer to him
c) the far point of his eyes has receded away
d) the far point of his eyes has come closer to him
Answer:
The correct answer is a) the near point of his eyes has receded away
Q44. The defect of vision in which the eye-lens of a person gets progressively cloudy resulting in blurred
vision is called:
a) myopi
b) presbyopia
c) colourblindness
d) cataract
Answer:
The correct answer is d) cataract
Q45. A person cannot see distant objects clearly. His vision can be corrected by using the spectacles
containing:
a) concave lenses
b) plane lenses
c) contact lenses
d) convex lenses
Answer:
The correct answer is a) concave lenses
Q46. A person finds difficulty in seeing nearby objects clearly. His vision can be corrected by using
spectacles containing:
a) converging lenses
b) diverging lenses
c) prismatic lenses
d) chromatic lenses
Answer:
The correct answer is a) converging lenses

Physics - 10th Class - Lakhmir Singh Solutions (All Chapters)

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Lakhmir Singh Solutions Class 10 Physics

Q2. Which of the following statements correctly defines a volt?

Q3. a) What do the letters p.d stand for?

b) Voltmeter is used for measuring p.d

Q6. What is the SI unit of potential difference?

Q8. What is the unit of electric charge?

Q9. Define one coulomb charge.

is placed at a distance of 1m from it.

Q10. Fill in the following blanks with suitable words:

Short Answer Type Questions

Long Answer Type Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

Q20. The unit for measuring potential difference is:

Q21. One coulomb charge is equivalent to the charge obtained in:

There are 6.25×10 electrons in one coulomb charge.

High Order Thinking Skills

b) For one cell:

Lakhmir Singh Physics Class 10 Solutions Page No.11

Q2. What is the flow of charge called?

Q4. Which particles constitute the electric current in a metallic conductor?

Q5. a) In which direction does conventional current flow around a circuit?

Q7. What is the unit of electric current?

Q8. a) How many milliamperes are there in 1 ampere?

b) Following is the microamperes that are there in 1 ampere:

Q9. Which of the two is connected in series: ammeter or voltmeter?

Q10. Compare how an ammeter and a voltmeter are connected in a circuit?

Q11. What do the following symbols mean in circuit diagrams?

Q15. Fill in the following blanks with suitable words:

b) Amperes, ammeter, and series

Q20. Why should the resistance of:

Q21. Draw circuit symbols for

conductor in 1 second to constitute 1 ampere current?

b) Work done = potential difference × charge moved

Lakhmir Singh Physics Class 10 Solutions Page No.12

b) I = Q/t = 25/10 = 2.5A

Energy = work done = 100MJ

Q28. Which statement/statements is/are correct?

Q29. Which unit could be used to measure current?

High Order Thinking Skills

b) We know that energy transferred = work done

Number of electrons present in 5C = (5)/( 1.6 × 10 ) = 31.25 × 10 C

Very Short Answer Type Questions

b) Resistance offered by the conductor

Q12. Fill in the following blanks with a suitable word:

Short Answer Type Questions

Lakhmir Singh Physics Class 10 Solutions Page No:19

R = 4.8 × 10 ohm = 4800 ohm

Q17. a) Define the unit of resistance.

b) As the conductor is made thinner, the resistance of the conductor increases.

Long Answer Type Questions

a) The ratio of potential difference and the current is known as resistance.

c) The law illustrated by the V-I graph is Ohm’s law.

Multiple Choice Questions

Q25. Ohm’s law gives a relation between:

Q26. The unit of electrical resistance is:

Q27. The substance having infinitely high electrical resistance is called:

High Order Thinking Skills

Q31. Name the electrical property of a material whose symbol is “omega”.

Resistance, R = 500 Ohm

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Q3. On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend?

Q4. Name the material which is the best conductor of electricity.

Q5. Which among iron and mercury is a better conductor of electricity?