Biotechnology- HO1: Glycids and lipids

1. Chitin forms:
a) Exoskeleton of insects
b) Structural component of bacterial cell wall
c) Extracellular matrix of animal tissues
d) None of the above
2. A proteoglycan consists of:
a) Starch
b) Glycolipid
c) Glycogen
d) Peptidoglycan
3. Glucose is stored in animals in the form of:
a) Starch
b) Dextrins
c) Glycogen
d) Cellulose
4. Which of the following are involved in the synthesis of carbohydrates in plants?
a) Water
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
5. Sucrose is a:
a) Monosaccharide
b) Disaccharide
c) Polysaccharide
d) Triose
6. Example of heteropolysaccharide:
a) Cellulose
b) Chitin
c) Hyaluronate
d) Starch
7. Maltose consist of:
a) Glucose and fructose
b) Two molecules of glucose
c) Two molecules of fructose
d) Galactose and fructose
8. Which of the following is a reducing sugar:
a) Glucose
b) Sucrose
c) Both
d) None of the above
9. Left handed and right handed molecules are called:
a) Enantioners
b) Anomers
c) Structural isomers
d) Cis-trans isomers
10. A glycosidic bond is:
a) A bond between any two biomolecules
b) A bond formed between an anomeric carbon atom an any –OR group.
c) A bond between anomeric carbon atoms on two separate monosaccharides
d) None of the above
11. Which of the following statements is not true about amylopectin?
a) Is a branched polysaccharide
b) Is a heteropolysaccharide
c) Is a present in starch
d) All of the above are true
12. Molecular formula of Glucose:
a) CH3OH
b) C6H12O6
c) C12H22O11
d) C3H6O2
13. Cellulose is a ______ in______:
a) Structural component; plants
b) Energy storage component; plants
c) Structural component; animals
d) None of the above
14. Define triacylglycerol:
a) Hydrocarbon
b) Fatty acid derivate
c) Energy storage molecule
d) b and c are correct
15. Lipids are water-insoluble cellular components
a) True
b) False
c) Lipids are not cellular components
d) Lipids are only found in waxes
16. A saturated fatty acid:
a) Oleic acid
b) Linolenic acid
c) Both
d) None of the above
17. Which of the following is not a lipid?
a) Oleic acid
b) Wax
c) Glycogen
d) Triacylglycerol
18. Cholesterol is made of:
a) Glycids
b) Lipids
c) Amino acids
d) None of the above
19. A phospholipid is
a) A lipid made of glycerol, fatty acid and phosphate
 b) An energy storage lipid
c) A structural component of the cellular membrane
d) a and c are correct
20. The role of lipid is:
a) To storage energy in the form of fats and oilsç
b) Form major structural elements of biological membranes
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
21. Is a source of saturated fats:
a) Olive oil
b) Butter
c) Nuts
d) a and c are correct
22. Sphingolipids:
a) Have no fatty acids in their structure
b) Are storage lipids
c) Have a sphingosine molecule in their structure
d) Are hydrophilic
23. A wax is:
a) A complex lipid composite of glycerol, two saturated fatty acids and an
alcohol
b) Exclusive from the plant kingdom
c) An ester of a long-chain alcohol and a fatty acid
d) None of the above
24. Cholesterol can be classified as a:
a) Steroid
b) Lipid
c) Structural molecule
d) All of the above
25. Which of the following statements is not true about unsaturated fatty acids:
a) None of them are found in food products
b) They have a low melting point
c) Usually they are in their liquid state
d) They have at least one double bound in their structure
Biotechnology- HO2: Nucleic Acids and Amino acids and Proteins
1. Which of the following are pyrimidines:
a) Thymine
b) Adenine
c) Guanine
d) All of the above
2. Which of the following is not a base of RNA:
a) Adenine
b) Guanine
c) Uracil
d) Timine
3. The 3-dimensional structure of a double helix consists of ___ bases per turn:
 a) 10.0
b) 10.5
c) 11.0
d) 12.5
4. Messenger RNAs:
a) Carry genetic information copied from DNA in the form of 3 base code,
representing each amino acid
b) Act as adapter protein synthesis
c) Structural and catalytic components of the ribosome (the protein biosynthesis)
d) None of the above
5. The linkage or bond in nucleic acids is:
a) Ionic bond between nucleotides
b) The phosphate group participates in the linkage
c) Covalent linkage between amino acids
d) Covalent linkage between nucleosides
6. Aromatic amino acids:
a) Phenylalanine
b) Tyrosine
c) Tryptophan
d) All of the above
7. Which of the amino acids absorb ultraviolet light?
a) Polar
b) Positively charged
c) Negatively charged
d) Aromatic
8. Peptide bond is a:
a) Ionic bond
b) Covalent bond
c) Metallic bond
d) None of the above
9. α-helix and β-sheets are:
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary … structures of a protein
10. Denaturation causes:
a) Increase in solubility
b) Increase in viscosity
c) Increase in a biological activity
d) All of the above
11. DNA consists of:
a) Deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group and nitrogenous base
b) Ribose sugar, phosphate group and nitrogenous base
c) Nucleosides
d) None of them
12. ____ is when a protein consists of more than one polypeptide chain
a) Primary
 b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary … structure
13. Which of these are proteins?
• Casein – es una fosfoproteína presente en la leche
• Triacylglycerol – es componente principal de las lipoproteínas de muy
baja densidad (VLDL) y los quilomicrones,
• Haemoglobin – es una hemoproteína de la sangre
• Deoxyribose
a) a, b and c
b) b, c and d
c) d, b and a
d) a and c
14. The body synthesizes non-essential amino acids:
a) True
b) False
c) None of the above
d) Can’t say
15. The trend to give a proton decreases by a factor of __ each time the pKa increases
by one unit.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
16. ____ is the Ph where the electric charge is zero
a) pI
b) pka
c) Still called Ph
d) None of the above
17. Which are the two carbons from sugar involved in the phosphodiester bond of
nucleic acids?
a) C2’ and C5’
b) C3’ and C5’
c) C1’ and C3’
d) C2’ and C4’
18. Which of these combinations (DNA or RNA) are wrong?
a) Adenine – Thymine
b) Guanine – Cytosine
c) Uracil – Thymine
d) None of the above
19. What can cause an increase of the melting temperature in a DNA chain?
a) A huge amount of guanine in the chain
b) A huge amount of adenine in the chain
c) A low amount of cytosine
d) The inclusion of some uracil inside the chain instead of thymine
20. The RNA chains can never be in double-stranded configuration (dsRNA)
 a) True, the uracil molecule prevents a dsRNA
b) False, but it is not commonly found in organisms
c) False, but the dsRNA has only been achieved in the lab scale
d) False, DNA is always encoded in dsRNA configuration
21. Collagen is an example of:
a) Enzyme
b) Hormone
c) Structural protein
d) Storage protein
22. Which of the following is a dietary source of proteins?
a) Meat
b) Legumes
c) Milk
d) All of the above
23. Tm is the temperature at which ___ of DNA is denatured:
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
24. The linkage or bond between base pair is:
a) Phosphodiester bond
b) Covalent linkage
c) Hydrogen bond
d) Ionic bond
25. RNA role is:
a) Being part of ribosomes
b) Catalytic
c) Being part of protein synthesis
d) All of the above
Biotechnology- HO3: Structure of microorganisms and viruses
1. Escherichia coli are:
a) Rod shaped
b) Cocci
c) Filamentous
d) Spiral shaped …bacteria
2. Optical microscopes have a maximum magnification of?
a) 100
b) 250
c) 500
d) 1000
3. Which of the following is unique to prokaryotic cells?
a) Cytoplasmatic membrane
b) Nucleoid
c) Ribosomes
d) Mitochondria
4. Which of the following is unique to eukaryotic cells?
 a) Cytoplasmatic membrane
b) Nucleoid
c) Ribosomes
d) Mitochondria
5. Which of the following possesses flagella and show motility
a) E.coli
b) Pseudomonas
c) Spirillum
d) All of the above
6. Do the viruses have any human benefit?
a) No, viruses only induce diseases
b) Yes, viruses enhanced fermented food
c) Yes, viruses can be used as vectors
d) No, viruses spoil food products
7. Which of the following are correct results Gram’s staining?
a) Gram positive bacteria- purple
b) Gram negative bacteria – purple
c) Gram positive bacteria – pink
d) Gram negative bacteria – pink
• A and B
• B and C
• C and D
• A and D
8. Which domain does Methanobacterium belong to:
a) Archae
b) Gram negative bacterium
c) Gram positive bacterium
d) None of the above
9. Viruses are ultramicroscopic with a size of:
a) 5 nm – 0.1 μm
b) 10 nm – 0.2 μm
c) 20 nm – 0.3 μm
d) 60 nm – 0.3 μm
10. Difference between Lytic and Lysogenic cycle are in terms of:
a) Production of progeny
b) Destruction of cell DNA
c) Both above
d) None of the above
11. Which disease is not caused by prions:
a) Mad cows disease
b) Lyme disease
c) Scrapie
d) Kuru and Creutzfledt-Jakob disease
12. The plasmatic membrane of prokaryotes:
a) Is a lipid bilayer with proteins
b) Contains glycerol
 c) Contains phospholipids
d) All of the above are correct
13. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (VIH) is:
a) SsDNA
b) dsDNA
c) ssRNA
d) dsRNA
14. Which of the following is not a virus?
a) Adenovirus
b) Bacteriophage
c) Bartonella
d) Variola
15. Endospores consist of:
a) Gram positive cell wall
b) Cortex
c) Protein layer
d) All of the above
16. Which of the following is not correct as nucleoids?
a) No nuclear membrane
b) No nucleolar
c) Linear DNA
d) DNA is almost always a single molecule
17. Can viruses be cultured directly in the lab ?
a) Yes, viruses can use the same medium as some kind of bacteria
b) No, viruses cannot be cultured in the lab
c) Yes, but viruses can only be cultured with the presence of another organisms
(g.e. bacteria)
d) Yes, viruses can be cultured in both agar and broth, but viruses prefer both
medium
18. Which are the differences between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?
a) Peptidoglycan
b) Membranes
c) Periplasm
d) All of the above
19. Which is the principal difference between Prokaryotes cells and Eukaryotes cells?
a) Eukaryotes cells have organelles
b) Prokaryotes cells doesn’t have a differentiate nucleus
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
20. Viruses are considered as:
a) Cellular microorganisms
b) Infectious cells
c) Infectious agents
d) None of the above
21. In which of the following are chloroplasts present?
a) Animals cells
b) Vegetal cells
 c) Viruses
d) Fungi cells
22. Prions are a kind of:
a) Protein
b) Virus
c) Carbohydrate
d) Lipid
23. Which of the following phases is not experienced by viruses?
a) Attachment/adsorption
b) Assembly and packaging
c) Growth
d) Lysis
24. On average, which of the following is bigger?
a) Eukaryotic cell
e) Prokaryotic cell
f) Virus
g) All of the above have same size
25. Which of the following is correct about capsules?
a) Its presence is optional
b) They are mainly composed by polysaccharides
c) Confers protection against adverse conditions
d) All of the above
Biotechnology- HO-04: Microbial growth
1. The method where sample is evenly spread over the surface of plate containing
agar using a sterile glass rod is:
a) Pour plate
b) Spread plate https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4846335/
c) Streaking
d) None of the above
2. Pour plate method would give:
a) Surface colonies
b) Sub-surface colonies
c) Both https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4846335/
d) None of the above
3. While performing serial dilutions, if the first test 1/1, and 1 ml is being transferred,
what fraction of the initial solution will the 5th test tube have?
a) 1/10
b) 1/100
c) 1/1000
d) 1/10000 https://microbeonline.com/pour-plate-method-principle-procedure-
uses-dis-
advantages/#:~:text=Pour%20plate%20method%20is%20usually,dish%20us
ing%20a%20sterile%20pipette.

4. Other than the medium, the factors affecting growth of microorganisms are:
a) Temperature
b) pH
c) Oxygen
d) All of the above
https://www.airtekenv.com/2017/06/15/factors-affecting-microbial-growth/
5. Which of the following bacteria can grow at 15ºC ?
a) Mesophile
b) Termophile
c) Hyperthermophile
d) All of the above

https://courses.lumenlearning.com/microbiology/chapter/temperature-and-
microbial-growth/
6. E.coli is:
a) Mesophile https://link.springer.com/referenceworkentry/10.1007%2F978-3-
642-40872-4_1610-2
b) Thermophile
c) Hyperthermophile
d) Psychrophile
7. High temperatures could cause:
a) Protein denaturation
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4620440/
b) Collapse of cytoplasmic membrane
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3137158/
c) Thermal lysis
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4665579/
d) All of the above
8. Which these can survive at high temperatures:
a) Pyrolobus fumarii
b) E. coli
c) Polaromonas vacuolata
d) None of the above
9. The colony-forming unit (CFU):
a) Is the result of most probable number count
b) Is a colony that comes from a single cell
c) In an indirect method of counting cells
d) Counts viable and non-viable cells
10. Facultative aerobes:
a) Compulsorily require Oxygen
b) Required but grow best without oxygen
c) Requier Oxygen less than 21%
d) None of the above
11. Lactic acid bacteria are:
 a) Strict aerobes
b) Aerotolerants
c) Facultatives aerobes
d) Strict anaerobes
12. Which of the following bacteria can be used for fermentation?
a) Clostridium
b) Pseudomonas
c) Spirillum
d) None of the above
13. Bacteria do not grow at low temperatures because of:
a) Lack of transport processes
b) Denaturation of proteins
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
14. Methods to count the number of cells are:
a) Direct microscopic count
b) Particle counter (Coulter)
c) Flow cytometry (laser night)
d) All of the above
15. Which of the following is not an indirect method to estimate growth:
a) Consumption of oxygen
b) Total amount of nitrogen
c) Formation of ATP
d) Production of carbon dioxide
16. Phase in the growth curve showing the highest activity is:
a) Lag
b) Exponential
c) Stationery
d) Death
17. Which of the following environmental factors is not important for non-
photosynthetic bacterial growth?
a) Salt-concentration
b) Temperature
c) Oxygen
d) Solar radiation
18. A chemostat can culture:
a) A higher concentration of microorganisms than in bath culture
b) A sub-feed population of microorganisms
c) Microorganisms in a continuous culture
d) All of the above
19. In which of the following growth phases microorganisms have an adaptation to
the media?
a) Death
b) Lag
c) Exponential
d) Stationary
20. Which microorganisms have more resistance to osmotic pressure?
 a) Nonhalophile
b) Halophile
c) Halotolerant
d) None of the above
21. The growth constant (K) is usually expressed in :
a) %
b) Min
c) h-1
d) K is dimensionless
22. Viable cell counting in plate is classifies as:
a) Direct method
b) Indirect method
c) Relative method
d) None of the above
23. Which microorganisms could be found on the bottom of a test tube filled with
semisolid thioglycolate broth culture media?
a) Facultative anaerobes
b) Aerotolerant organisms
c) Obligate anaerobes
d) All of the above
24. Which of the following devices is needed when counting cells by turbidity?
a) Microscope
b) Particle counter (Coulter)
c) Spectrophotometer
d) Microwave
25. … is a likely habitat for acidophiles.
a) Seawater
b) Soap solutions
c) Pure water
d) Vinegar
Biotechnology- HO5 : Cultius i aïllament / Genètica bacteriana
1. Which of the following is not a rich medium?
a) Soyabeans
b) Minimal M9 medium
c) Yeast extract
d) Beef
2. Which of the following mode of transfer and recombination of genetic material
doesn’t occur in eukaryotes? (1)
a) Transposition
b) Transduction
c) Sexual recombination
d) Transformation
3. The primary aim of which of the following equipment is not sterilization?
a) Autoclave
b) Sterile chamber
c) Laminar flux
 d) Centrifuge
4. Where is the best place to work with microorganisms in the sterile conditions?
a) Fume hood
b) Autoclave
c) In laboratory bench top away from…. bunsen burmer
d) None of the above
5. Which of the following is true about plasmids?
a) They don’t contain genes
b) They aren’t transferable materials
c) They are of the same size as chromosomes
d) Episomes are when a plasmid is integrated in a chromosome
6. …is a good method to ensure destruction of spores. (3)
a) Filtration
b) Pasteurization
c) Dry heat
d) Centrifugation
7. Which of the following are components participating in conjugation?
a) Donor cell
b) Receptor cell
c) Sexual hair
d) All of the above
8. Which of the following mode of transfer and recombination of genetic material
doesn’t occur in prokaryotes?
a) Transformation
b) Transposition
c) Transduction
d) Sexual recombination
9. Drying is a good method to maintain: (4)
a) Bacteria
b) Spores
c) Viruses
d) None of the above
10. Which of the following doesn’t occur in normal transduction?
a) Detached DNA replicates
b) A portion of host DNA is exchange with phage DNA
c) Phage synthesis is completed
d) Cell lyses and releases defective phage capable of transducing galactosa
genes.
11. When you keep a bacterial culture into the fridge:
a) The bacteria are in the exponential phase
b) The bacteria grow faster
c) The bacteria die faster
d) The bacteria grow slowly
12. Which of the following inoculation techniques is used to isolate microbial strains?
a) Inoculation in broth
b) Inoculation by dilution
c) Streaking agar plates
 d) All of the above
13. Which of the following is a main element on microbial cells? (9)
a) C
b) O
c) N
d) All of the above
14. Are the microbial mechanisms used in biotechnology?
a) Yes, just for fermentation
b) No, microorganisms are useless for human beings
c) Yes, they’re being used for genetic recombination, among other…
d) None of the above
15. Using lyophilization, we could maintain a culture for: (8)
a) Few months
b) Until 3 years
c) >40 years
d) 1 year
16. Natural transformation occurs in:
a) Streptococcus
b) Haemophilus
c) Thermus
d) All of the above
17. To eliminate contaminants from an aqueous solution in the lab we do not use: (2)
a) Radiations
b) Filtration
c) Ethanol
d) Autoclave
18. Plasmids are:
a) Fragments of extrachromosomal RNA
b) Fragments of chromosomal DNA
c) Fragments of extrachromosomal DNA
d) Fragments of chromosomal RNA
19. Which of the following is not a trace element with respect to bacterial growth?
(10)
a) Mn
b) Co
c) Ca
d) Mb
20. Which DNA recombination technique can’t be used in eukaryotes cells but it can
be used in prokaryotes cells? (7)
a) Transformation
b) Cell or protoplast fusion
c) Electroporation
d) None of the above
21. Which of the following is not correct about conjugation?
a) The transfer is unidirectional
b) There is fusion of cells
c) There is a receptor cell
 d) All of the above
22. To isolate and purify a bacterial strain you should: (6)
a) Plate sample in a selective medium
b) Plate sample with Kohle handle
c) Plate sample in rich medium
d) Plate sample in a room at 4ºC
23. Nutrients can be provided in the form of broth and agar.
a) True
b) False
c) Can’t say
d) None of the above
24. Which of the following implies contact between different cells? (5)
a) Conjugation
b) Transformation
c) Transfection
d) Transduction
Biotechnology- HO6 : Metabolisme
1. End product of fermentative glycolysis is:
a) Acetaldehyde
b) Ethanol
c) Phosphoenolpyruvate
d) Glucose
2. Which of the following genus is suitable to cope with an oil spill?
a) Escherichia
b) Pseudomonas
c) Penicillium
d) Saccharomyces
3. Which is the function of the Krebs cycle?
a) Generate energy
b) Provide materials for biosynthesis processes
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
4. Functions of proteases:
a) Degradation of nitrogenous compounds
b) Transamination
c) Hydrolysis of proteins to amino acids
d) Deamination
5. Which of the following are used in anabolism to synthesize biomolecules?
A. ADP
B. Reducing power Energy
a) A-B
b) A-C
c) A-B-C
d) B-C
6. Which mechanism involved in the synthesis of ATP is correct?
a) Substrate-level phosphorylation
 b) Electron transport chain
c) Proton motive force
d) All are correct
7. The cycle for conversion of pyruvate to CO2 and NADH is:
a) Krebs cycle
b) Tricarboxylic acid (TCA)
c) Citric acid cycle
d) All of the above
8. Which of the following is incorrect about chemolithotrophs?
a) They finally yield lesser ATP.
b) They could use Hydrogen sulphide (H2S), hydrogen gas (H2), ferrous iron
(Fe2+), ammonia (NH3)
c) Most of them, are able to fix CO2
d) They use organic compounds as sources of energy
9. Catabolism does not involve:
a) Degradation of hydrocarbons
b) Fermentative glycolysis
c) Synthesis of new compounds
d) Degradation of nitrogenous compounds
10. Chemoheterotroph organisms use..... as energy source.
a) Organic compounds
b) Inorganic ompounds
c) CO2
d) Light
11. In which of the following products does not take part Saccharomyces cerevisiae?
a) Wine
b) Yogurt
c) Bread
d) Beer
12. NADP/NADPH are
a) Oxidizing agents
b) Reducing agents
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
13. Which of the following contribute to synthesis of amino acids from the
environment?
a) Glycolysis
b) TCA
c) Glutamate transamination
d) All of the above
14. Which of the following products marks the beginning of the oxidative phase in
glycolysis
a) Fructose-6-phosphate
b) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
c) Glucose-6- phosphate
d) Glucose
15. Which of the following is true about secondary metabolisme:
 a) They are simple molecules with small structures
b) They are the first products to be synthesized
c) Each secondary metabolite or family are synthesized by some microgranisms
d) They are very important for cell maintenance.
16. The synthesis of glucose from source different than saccharides is:
a) Glycolysis
b) Gluconeogeniss
c) Polysaccharide synthesis
d) Secondary metabolism
17. Aerobic catabolism comprises of:
a) Glycolysis
b) Krebs cycle
c) ETC
d) All of above
18. Can ATP be stored in great concentrations?
a) Yes, ATP is stored in great concentrations because it’s the mainly energy
source in cells
b) No, but ATP is contiously synthesized and hydrolysed to sustain cells
requirements
c) Yes, but only for some kinds of cells, storage cells
d) No, the molecular weight of ATP is too high to be stored, low need for cells
19. Indicate the corret answer:
ATP + H2O <->
a) AMP + Pi
b) ADP + Pi
c) ADP + AMP
d) 2Pi
20. Correct order of stages in glycolysis:
A. Preparoty reactions (production of glyceraldehyde 3 phosphato)
B. Reduction (formation of fermentation products)
C. Oxidation (obtaining ATP)
a) A-C-B
b) B-C-A
c) C-A-B
d) A-B-C
21. Which reactions are common in aerobic and anaerobic catabolism of
carbohydrates?
a) B-oxidation
b) Glycolysis
c) Aerobic and anaerobic catabolism doesn’t share any reactions
d) TCA
22. Power in the from of light for photosynthesis is important for which of the
following
a) Photoatotrophs
b) Photoheterotrophes
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
 23. What is not true about ATP?
a) Standard free energy of hydrolysis is 10 kcal/mol
b) Abbreviation of Adenosine Triphosphate
c) It is a molecule that stores energy in the cells
d) Consists of links of energy rich phosphates
24. Which of the following is a low energy compround?
a) ADP
b) Phosphoenol pytuvate ATP
c) AMP
d) ATP
25. What kind of fermentation is Lactobacillus brevis is responsible for?
a) Homoactogenic
b) Alcoholic
c) Metanogenic
d) Heterolactic
Biotechnology- HO7 : Enzymes
1. The mechanism in which enzyme that catalyzes the production of a particular
substance in the cell is inhibited when that substance has accumulated to a
certain level is known as:
a) Feedback inhibition
b) Zymogenesis
c) Competitive inhibition
d) None of the above
2. Which of the following is not a type of reversible enzyme inhibition?
a) Covalent
b) Zymogen
c) Uncompetitive
d) Competitive
3. Km is measured in units of:
a) Concentration
b) Time
c) Km is dimensionless
d) Speed
4. Difference between the energy levels of the basal state and the transition state.
a) Activation energy
b) Gibbs free energy
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
5. Oxidoreductase catalyze?
a) Transfer of electrons
b) Group transfer reactions
c) Addition of groups to double bonds
d) Formation of double bonds by removal of groups
6. Zymogen is:
a) Is in inactive enzyme precursor
b) Requires a biochemical change to reveal active site
 c) Example is trypsinogen
d) All of the above
7. Allosteric enzyme:
a) Can increase their activity by itself
b) Can increase their activity for unusual substrate
c) Can increase their activity by a positive modulator
d) Can increase their activity by a negative modulator
8. Which of the following affect enzyme activity
a) pH
b) Temperature
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

9. Which of the following are inorganic cofactors of enzymes?

a) Cu2+
b) Fe2+
c) Se
d) All of the above
10. Changes in pH have effects on:
a) Vmax
b) Km
c) Enzyme stability
d) All of the above
11. Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Prosthetic group, which of the following is not
correct?
a) Protein + metal ion
b) Protein + organic coenzyme
c) Metal ion + organic coenzyme
d) All of the above
12. Enzymes are:
a) Proteins
b) Lipids
c) Carbohydrates
d) All of the above
13. In which of the following manner does temperature affect enzyme activity?
a) Increase with increase in temperature but later decreases
b) Decreases with decrease in temperature
c) Temperature has no effect on enzyme activity
d) Increases with increase in temperature
14. Which of the following is correct about Km?
a) Cannot be measured experimentally
b) Michaelis-Menten constant
c) Is the same per several enzymes and substrates
d) All of the above
15. In the presence of a negative modulator:
a) Vmax is the same
b) All of the above
c) Km is higher
d) None of the above
16. Formation of C-C, C-S, C-O and C-N bonds by condensation reactions coupled
to ATP cleavage are catalysed by:
a) Hydrolases
b) None of the above
c) Isomerases
d) Ligases

17. Transfearse catalyze:

a) Transfer of electrons (hyriode ions or H atmos)
b) Group transfer reactions
c) Transfer of groups within molecules to vield isomerics forms
d) None of the above
18. Reaction between chymotrypsin and diisopropy flurophosphate is an exemple of
..... inhibition
a) Competitive
b) Irreversible
c) Mixte
d) Non competitive
19. Allosteric enxyme.
a) Follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics
b) Does not catalyze a reaction
c) Is a regulatory enzyme
d) None of the above
20. Performance of enzymes working in the stomach is higher in ...... medium
a) Basic
b) Acid
c) Their working efficiency is independent of pH
d) Neutral
21. Which of the following are the features of transition state?
a) No intermediates
b) Breakage of molecular link
c) Bond formation
d) All of the above
22. Types of enzyme inhibitions
a) Competitive
b) Uncompetitive
c) Mixed
d) All of the above
23. Reactions catalyzed by an enzyme has:
a) A constant velocity of reactions
b) No difference from uncatalyzed reactions
 c) A lower activation energy
d) All of the above
24. Michaelis-Menten kinetics:
a) Calculates velocity of reaction over the time
b) Calculates initial velocity according to the concentration of substrate
c) Calculates initial velocity according to the conecntration of enzyme
d) Calculates product concentration over the time
Biotechnology- HO8 : Bioreactors
1. To design a very big reactor:
a) The kind of obtained product can be important
b) None of the answer are correct
c) The yield should be low
d) A scale up study may be necessary

1. Which’s of the next filling percentages is more adequate for a bioreactor?

a) 50%
b) 100%
c) 25%
d) 75%

2. Which’s of the next strategy could be use to keep a constant dissolved oxygen?
a) Increase air pressure
b) Use pure oxygen
c) Increase air inlet
d) All the above

3. Does the biomass increase exponentially during all the continuous process?
a) Yes, the continuous process causes an infinite exponential phase.
b) No, the microorganisms are continuous in the lag phase.
c) Yes, but occasionally the process must be stopped to reduce the number of
microorganisms.
d) No, once the continuous process starts the growth rate is equal to the output
stream microorganisms

4. Which of the following is incorrect about deceleration phase?

a) Balanced growth
b) Accumulation of toxic byproducts
c) Depletion of nutrients
d) Metabolism shifts for survival

5. The yield coefficient (YX/S)

a) Changes with each growth phase
b) It is a constant
c) It doesn’t indicate the productivity of the process
d) All answers are correct

6. Which of the following is not a control method of continuous reactors?

 a) Thermostat
b) Turbidostat
c) Biostat
d) Chemostat

7. Oxygen requirements in a bioreactor depends on:

a) Microorganism
b) Substrate
c) Growing phase
d) All of the above

8. Brevibacterium flavum is used for:

a) Biomass production
b) Fermentation
c) Aminoacid production
d) Bioremediation of pollutants

9. Which of the following is not a prefermentation process?

a) Preparation and sterilization of media and fermenter
b) Inoculation
c) Spread of inoculum
d) Process control

10. Which of the following is a characteristic of continuous process?

a) Limited time
b) Variable colume
c) Varying substrate concentration
d) None of the answer are correct

11. Secondary metabolites are produced in:

a) Stationary phase
b) Death phase
c) Deceleration phase
d) None of the above

12. Maximum u(mu) is reached during the … phase

a) Exponential
b) Deceleration
c) Stationary
d) Lag

13. In bioreactors systems u(mu) is defined as:

a) Specific cell growth rate
b) Substrate concentration
c) Death rate
d) Growth constant

14. Why is aeration so important in aerobic processes?

a) Low solubility of oxygen
b) Different oxygen demand (substrate, microorganisms, growth phase…
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

15. The Monod Kinetics:

a) Km is a constant of this model
b) Is exactly the same as Michaelis-Menten kinetics
c) Is a kinetic model for a single enzyme
d) Is a kinetic model for cell growth

16. Recovery of cells is performed during:

a) Prefermentation
b) Postfermentation
c) Fermentation
d) None of the above

17. In stationery phase, cell growth rate and cell death rate are:
a) Cell growth rate is more
b) Equal
c) Can’t say
d) Cell death rate is more

18. Which of the following is not a characteristic of batch process?

a) Can be run for a limited time
b) Open bioreactor
c) Exponential kinetics
d) All of the above

19. Which of the following is not a direct method of measuring ell mass concentrarion?
a) Dry weitght
b) Optical density
c) Packed cell volume
d) Measuring biomolecule concentration

20. Which of the following are problems related to scale up?

a) Sterilization of the medium
b) Standardization of environmental factors
c) Pressure inside the bioreactor
d) All answers are correct

21. Which of the following is not a condition for cell growth and product formation using
shake flask esperiments?
a) Substrate concetration
 b) pH
c) Temperature
d) Dissolved nitrogen

22. Measurement of concentration of cells can be done by:

a) All answers are correct
b) Mass
c) Hemocytometry
d) Electronic cell counter
23. Spillage is a characteristic of:
a) None of the above
b) Deceleration phase
c) Death phase
d) Stationery phase

24. Disadvantages of continuous reactors:

a) Low versality
b) Technology costly
c) Emergence of pollutants and possible mutants
d) All answers are correct

Biotechnology- HO-09 Separation Processes

1. Which of the following are methods to separate insoluble products?
e) Filtration
f) Centrifugation
g) Coagulation and flocculation
h) All of the above
2. Salting out by adding inorganic salts such as (NH4)2SO4 at high ionic strength is:
e) Dialysis
f) Adsorption
g) Chromatography
h) Precipitation
3. Which of the following is not characteristic of liquid extractants?
e) Toxic
f) Inexpensive
g) Selective
h) Environmentally immiscible
4. Use of activated carbon in waste water treatment is an example of:
i) Dialysis
j) Adsorption
k) Chromatography
l) Precipitation
5. Filtration is affected by
e) pH and temperature
f) Viscosity
g) Medium composition
h) All of the above
6. Crystallization is done for____ a product
e) Separating
f) Purifying
g) Separating and purifying
h) Diluting
7. Stationary phase acts as a molecular sieve allowing separations based on size is
e) Ion exchange chromatography
f) Gel filtration chromatography
g) Affinity chromatography
h) None of the above
8. Types of products which have to be separated are
e) Biomass
f) Extracellular components
g) Intracellular components
h) All of the above
9. Separation of species of bacteria and yeast, with diameters from 0.1-10 microns
can be done by?
e) Profound filtration
f) Absolut filtration
g) Microfiltration
h) None of the above
10. After extraction, PEG and dextran can be recovered because of:
e) Immiscibility
f) Solubility
g) Melting
h) None of the above
11. Cellulose acetate, nylon, politetrafluroetile (PTFE), polyvinylidene difluoride
(PVDF), polysulfone, ceramics are membranes for?
e) Reverse osmosis
f) Dialysis
g) Chromatography
h) None of the above
12. In chromatography, reversible chemical bonds between the ionic components of
the mobile and stationary phases, is the principle of:
e) Adsorption
f) Ion exchange
g) Hydrophobic
h) None of the above
13. Which of the following is not a non-restrictive support in chromatography?
e) Paper
f) Cellulose acetate
g) Agarose gel
h) Polyacrylamide gel
14. Which of the following is a correct arrangement of separation and purification
tasks?
a. separation of soluble products
b. separation of insoluble products
 c. cellular treatments
d. final phases of purification
e) A-B-C-D
f) C-B-A-D
g) B-C-A-D
h) D-B-A-C
15. Lyophilization can be used as a measure of drying for:
e) Antibiotics
f) Enzyme solutions
g) Bacterial suspensions
h) All of the above
16. Sedimentation speed does not depend on:
e) Liquid density
f) Liquid temperature
g) Particle diameter
h) Radius of the rotor
17. Ultrasounds are:
e) Sound inaudible for humans
f) Used to disrupt microorganisms
g) Less suitable for gram positive than gram negative
h) All of the above
18. Which of the following techniques is suitable to separate from a freeze matrix
e) Electrophoresis
f) Inverse osmosis
g) Chromatography
h) Lyophilization
19. Once the cell has been disrupted, can the cellular components be separated
directly?
e) Yes, but only with mechanical procedures
f) No, the cell components have to be treated before separation step
g) Yes, after cell disruption the cell components can be centrifuged
h) None of the above
20. Final steps of purification involve:
e) Crystallization
f) Drying
g) Both of the above
h) None of the above
21. Which of the following is not a factor affecting electrophoresis?
e) The net charge of the substance migrating
f) The ionic strength of the medium
g) The potential of the electric field applied in the process
h) None of the above
22. Can gel-filtration chromatography separate more than two proteins from one
product?
e) Yes, even more, its effectiveness increases when the product has three or more
proteins
f) No, but consecutive gel-chromatography could achieve it
 g) No, gel-chromatography is not a separation technique
h) Yes, but proteins having similar molecular weight are more difficult to
separate
23. Which of the following is not a separation process for non-soluble?
e) Sonication
f) Filtration
g) Centrifugation
h) Flocculation
24. Which of the following would be an economic way of separating pollen in an
aqueous solution?
h) Centrifugation
i) Filtration
j) Coagulation and flocculation
k) Crystallization
25. …is an example of restrictive electrophoresis matrix
e) Paper
f) Agarose gel
g) Polyacrylamide gel
h) Cellulose acetate gel