GT

01

Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test-01

Important Instructions:
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet
and fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy care fully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with
a single correct answer) from Biology (Botany and Zoology), Physics and Chemistry. 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 5 I to 85, 101 to 135 and
151 to 185).All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186
to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question
paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate
shall be evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy) to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. The CODE for this Booklet is GT 01 . Make sure that the CODE printed on the Original Copy of the Answer Sheet
is the same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to
the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do
not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
10. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
11. No candidate, without special permission of the centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
12. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty
and sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second
time, will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
13. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
14. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination
Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
15. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
16. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
17. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes duration,
whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of Scribe or not.

Name of the Candidate (in CAPITALS): _______________________________________________________________________

Roll Number: In figures _________________________________________________________________________________

: In words _________________________________________________________________________________

Centre of Examination (in Capitals): _______________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature: _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature: _______________________________

Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent

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 Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, INDIA
All the students are informed to go through guidelines given here before starting NEET GT:

1. Do get prepared to focus for 200 minutes of exam time

2. Most advisable order of attempting questions: Biology, Chemistry and Physics
3. Read every question completely and then answer it
4. Underline key words given in question
5. Read all options carefully
6. Questions which you are very confident of answering correctly in all subjects must be attempted in
1st phase and ambiguous, time consuming and tougher questions must be attempted in the 2nd
phase of answering
7. Don’t waste much time on any tougher and ambiguous question in the first phase of answering
8. Be cautious in terms of units given in numerical
9. Don’t form any opinion on question paper after looking at 2 to 3 tough questions
10. Try to complete total paper in 3 hr and 10 min only and keep 10 min as buffer time
11. Most advisable time management during 3 hours of NEET: Biology: Minimum 50 to 60 min
Chemistry: 50 min and Physics: 70 min
12. Every grand test need to be attempted as if it is the final NEET and if you visualise in such a way, it
will decrease your tension, stress and strain in final exam.
13. In case of matching type of questions, choose answer only after all items are matched.
14. Give top priority to bubbling of OMR sheet
15. In case of inter conversion (sequences like A → B → C → D) type questions in organic chemistry,
they may not ask answer related to last one.
Example: In A → B → C → D, they may ask what is ‘C’?
16. If you find a simple unambiguous question without any correct answer in the options, do answer
the answer which is close to correct answer or any option among four. Never leave such questions
without bubbling as you would be losing side, if multiple answers are given to such questions
17. Do follow a schedule given by your teachers even during grand test schedule. That would keep you
confidant and engaged
18. Do remember that all these exams are meant to acclimatize you to final NEET with respect to your
recollection abilities and time management. Do remember evaluation is as important as reading
in the final phase of your preparation. Irrespective of your marks and rank do write all the exams
without fail for the above said reason.
19. Do analyse properly the mistakes done in the exam by taking some time out of your reading schedule.
20. Lastly, stay focused as you need to climax things on high. HAPPY READING and all the very best
in all your future assignments.
DATE: 18-04-2024
BOTANY
Section-A
1. Which of the following correctly describes the
steps required to process hnRNA into mature
mRNA?
(1) Addition of a poly (A) tail at the 5’ end
(2) Removal exons and addition of a cap
(3) Capping at the 3’ end only
(4) Splicing to remove introns, template
independent capping at the 5’ end with
methyl guanosine and adding a poly (A)
tail at the 3’ end.
2. What are prions responsible for causing?
(1) Infectious bacterial diseases in plants
(2) Genetic mutations in humans and
animals
(3) Infectious neurological diseases in humans
and animals, like mad cow disease and
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
(4) Viral infections in aquatic organisms
3. Why are taxonomic studies of various species
important?
(1) They are solely for academic interest and
have no practical application.
(2) They assist in the correct classification
and identification of organisms, which
is fundamental to agriculture, forestry,
industry, and understanding biodiversity.
(3) They focus exclusively on preserving
specimens for future generations without
any current use.
(4) They are only used for creating botanical
and zoological gardens.
4. What are alleles ?
(1) Different symbols used for different genes
(2) Slightly different forms of the same gene
(3) Units of inheritance that are always
dominant
(4) Factors that are always recessive in nature
5. What is the basis for classifying different
families into an order?
(1) The number of species within each family
(2) Geographic distribution of the families
Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 3
(3) Aggregates of similar characters among
the families
(4) The size of organisms within the families
6. What is demonstrated by the inheritance of
flower color in snapdragons (Antirrhinum sp.)?
(1) C omplete dominance, where one
allele completely masks the effect of
another.
(2) Incomplete dominance, where the
heterozygote exhibits a phenotype that
is intermediate between the phenotypes
of the two homozygotes.
(3) Codominance, where both alleles in the
heterozygote are fully expressed.
(4) Polygenic inheritance, where multiple
genes determine the phenotype of a trait.
7. What signals the beginning of the translation
process on the mRNA?
(1) The stop codon
(2) The ribosome binding to a UTR
(3) When the smaller subunit of ribosome
encounters an mRNA
(4) Charging of rRNA with amino acids
8. Which classification system for flowering plants
considers both external and internal features,
like ultra-structure, anatomy, embryology, and
phytochemistry?
(1) The system given by Linnaeus
(2) The earliest systems of classification
(3) The classification system developed by
George Bentham and Joseph Dalton
Hooker
(4) Artificial classification systems
9. In brown algae, how is asexual reproduction
most commonly achieved?
(1) Through the production of non-motile
spores
(2) By biflagellate zoospores that are pear-
shaped with two, laterally attached,
unequal flagella
(3) By simple cell division similar to binary
fission
(4) Through fragmentation of the frond
 4 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 DATE: 18-04-2024

10. Match the regions of the root with their (1) Reticulate venation
functions: (2) Parallel venation
List – I List – II (3) Cross venation
A) Root Cap 1) P r o t e c t s t h e (4) Netted venation
tender apex of the 13. Assertion (A) : Intercalary meristems are
root as it makes found in grasses and help
its way through in the regeneration of parts
the soil. removed by grazing.
B) Region of 2) C h a r a c t e r i z e d Reason (R) : These meristems are primary
Meristematic by cells that are meristems that occur between
Activity very small, thin- mature tissues and contribute
walled, with dense to the plant’s ability to regrow
protoplasm, and quickly.
divide repeatedly. (1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
C) Region of 3) C e l l s u n d e rgo explanation of A
Elongation rapid elongation (2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
and enlargement, correct explanation of A
responsible for (3) A is true, but R is false.
the growth of the
(4) A is false, but R is true.
root in length.
D) Region of 4) Cells differentiate 14. Match the types of vascular bundles with their
Maturation and mature, descriptions:
and some List – I List – II
epidermal cells
form root hairs A) Open 1) Found in
for absorption Vascular dicotyledonous
of water and Bundles stems, contain
minerals cambium between
xylem and phloem,
(A) (B) (C) (D)
and have the ability
(1) 1 2 3 4 to form secondary
(2) 2 4 1 3 tissues.
(3) 4 2 3 1 B) Closed 2) Do not have
(4) 1 4 3 2 Vascular cambium, hence
11. Assertion (A) : In mint and jasmine, slender Bundles do not form
lateral branches grow aerially secondary tissues,
before arching downwards to commonly found in
touch the ground and form monocotyledons.
new plants. C) Radial 3) Xylem and phloem
Reason (R) : This growth pattern is a strategy Vascular are arranged on
for asexual reproduction, Bundles different radii,
enabling the plant to spread typically found in
efficiently in its habitat. roots.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct D) Conjoint 4) Xylem and phloem
explanation of A Vascular are situated at the
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the Bundles same radius, with
correct explanation of A phloem usually
(3) A is true, but R is false. located on the
(4) A is false, but R is true. outer side of xylem,
common in stems
12. Which type of venation is characteristic of and leaves.
most monocotyledonous plants?
DATE: 18-04-2024
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 2 1 3 4
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 1 4 2 3
15. How do guard cells regulate the process of
transpiration and gaseous exchange in plants?
(1) By elongating and forming a continuous
layer
(2) By secreting substances that attract water
molecules
(3) By changing shape to open or close the
stomatal pore
(4) By producing a waxy layer to cover the
stomatal pore
16. What is the characteristic arrangement of
vascular bundles in a young dicotyledonous
stem?
(1) Scattered throughout the stem
(2) Arranged in a ring
(3) Present only at the center of the stem
(4) Lacking in young stems
17. What is the primary function of lysosomes in
eukaryotic cells?
(1) Synthesizing hydrolytic enzymes
(2) Digesting carbohydrates, proteins, lipids,
and nucleic acids with hydrolytic enzymes
(3) Transporting substances into the cell
(4) Converting glucose into energy
18. What distinctive feature does the inner
membrane of a mitochondrion possess?
(1) It forms a number of infoldings called
cristae.
(2) It contains chlorophyll for photosynthesis.
(3) It is the site for DNA replication.
(4) It is the site for Protien synthesis.
19. What occurs immediately after an enzyme-
substrate complex is formed?
(1) The enzyme releases the substrate without
any change.
(2) The substrate induces the enzyme to alter
its shape for a tighter fit.
(3) The enzyme permanently binds to the
substrate, forming a complex.
(4) The substrate is broken down into
its constituent molecules without the
involvement of the enzyme.
Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 5
20. What is the role of hydrolases in enzymatic
reactions?
(1) Catalysing the removal of groups to form
double bonds.
(2) Catalysing the hydrolysis of ester, ether,
peptide, glycosidic, C-C, C-halide, or P-N
bonds.
(3) Catalysing the inter-conversion of isomers.
(4) Linking two compounds together.
21. Which of the following is a cofactor for the
proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase?
(1) Vitamin niacin (2) Zinc
(3) Haem (4) NAD
22. What is the significance of the pachytene stage
in prophase I of meiosis?
(1) Homologous chromosomes begin to
separate.
(2) Crossing over and recombination of
genetic material occur.
(3) Chromosomes start to condense and
become visible.
(4) Chiasmata terminalisation takes place.
23. What marks the G1 phase in the cell cycle?
(1) The period between cell division and DNA
replication where the cell is metabolically
active and grows.
(2) The phase where DNA is replicated.
(3) The interval just before cell division.
(4) The phase where the cell divides its
cytoplasm and organelles.
24. What significant event marks the completion
of prophase during mitosis?
(1) The nuclear envelope disintegrates and
mitotic chromosomes become visible.
(2) Chromosomes align at the metaphase
plate.
(3) Sister chromatids separate and move
towards opposite poles.
(4) The cell divides into two daughter cells.
25. Which pathogen is known for its ability to
deliver a piece of DNA, transforming normal
plant cells into a tumor?
(1) Retrovirus
(2) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(3) E. coli
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis
 6 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01
26. Who provided evidence for the production of
glucose in green parts of plants and its storage
as starch?
(1) Joseph Priestley
(2) Jan Ingenhousz
(3) Julius von Sachs
(4) T.W Engelmann
27. How many molecules of CO2 are required to
produce one molecule of glucose in the Calvin
cycle?
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 12 (4) 18
28. Which complex in the electron transport chain
is involved in the transfer of electrons from
reduced ubiquinone to cytochrome c?
(1) Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)
(2) Complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase)
(3) Complex III (Cytochrome bc1 complex)
(4) Complex IV (Cytochrome c oxidase
complex)
29. How many molecules of NADH are produced
for each acetyl CoA molecule entering the TCA
cycle?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Five
30. During glycolysis, at which step is NADH +
H+ formed from NAD+?
(1) Conversion of glucose into glucose-6-
phosphate
(2) Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to
fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(3) Conversion of 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde
into 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
(4) Conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to
pyruvic acid
31. Assertion (A) : Redifferentiated cells form
secondary permanent tissues
in plants.
Reason (R) : Redifferentiation involves the
development of secondary
p ermanent tissues f rom
dedifferentiated cells to
perform specific functions.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A
DATE: 18-04-2024
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.
32. Ethylene, a gaseous plant growth regulator, is
largely considered as:
(1) A growth promoter involved in flowering
and fruiting
(2) An inhibitor of growth activities
(3) Only involved in response to biotic stresses
(4) A promoter of cell division
33. Which of the following statements about
cytokinins is incorrect?
(1) Kinetin is a natural cytokinin found in
all plant species.
(2) Cytokinins are involved in promoting cell
division and lateral shoot growth.
(3) They are synthesized in areas of the plant
where cell division occurs rapidly, such
as root apices.
(4) Cytokinins can help delay leaf senescence
by promoting nutrient mobilization.
34. In artificial hybridisation, what is the purpose
of bagging a flower after emasculation?
(1) To ensure the flower receives adequate
sunlight
(2) To protect the stigma from unwanted
pollen
(3) To increase humidity around the flower
(4) To speed up the flower’s growth
35. What distinguishes albuminous seeds from
non-albuminous seeds?
(1) Albuminous seeds have a residual
endosperm, while non-albuminous seeds
do not.
(2) Non-a lbuminous s e e ds have t wo
cotyledons, while albuminous seeds have
one.
(3) Albuminous seeds are found only in
legumes, while non-albuminous seeds
are found in cereals.
(4) Non-albuminous seeds contain a part of
the nucellus, known as perisperm, while
albuminous seeds do not.
DATE: 18-04-2024 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 7

Section-B (2) Because tRNAs can only bind to the start

codon.
36. What significant contribution to biology was
made by Gregor Mendel in the mid-nineteenth (3) Because ribosomes ignore stop codons
century? during translation.
(1) Discovery of DNA (4) Because mRNA does not contain stop
codons.
(2) Development of genetic engineering
(3) Proposal of the laws of inheritance 42. How is the codon read in mRNA during the
process of translation?
(4) Introduction of the theory of evolution
(1) In a fragmented manner with punctuations
37. Which of the following is not an example of between codons.
an insectivorous plant ?
(2) In a contiguous fashion without any
(1) Venus Flytrap (2) Pitcher plant
punctuations.
(3) Sunflower (4) Sundew.
(3) By skipping every other codon to ensure
38. Which of the following statements about diversity.
Ascomycetes is incorrect? (4) In reverse order to ensure correct protein
(1) All ascomycetes are unicellular organisms formation.
like yeast.
43. Whose cell-free system for protein synthesis
(2) The mycelium of ascomycetes is branched helped in deciphering the genetic code?
and septate.
(1) Severo Ochoa
(3) Ascomycetes produce sexual spores called
(2) Har Gobind Khorana
ascospores inside asci.
(3) George Gamow
(4) Some ascomycetes, such as morels
and truffles, are edible and considered (4) Marshall Nirenberg
delicacies. 44. Who were awarded the Nobel Prize in 1945
39. Which gene in the lac operon codes for the for the discovery of Penicillin?
protein that increases the cell’s permeability (1) Alexander Fleming alone
to β-galactosides? (2) Ernest Chain and Howard Florey alone
(1) z gene (2) y gene (3) Alexander Fleming, Ernest Chain, and
(3) a gene (4) i gene Howard Florey
40. Identify the diagram given below (4) George Gamow and Marshall Nirenberg
45. What is the purpose of primary treatment in
sewage treatment plants?
(1) To add beneficial microbes into the sewage
(2) To chemically treat the sewage water
(3) To physically remove particles from sewage
through filtration and sedimentation
(4) To directly release the treated water into
rivers
(1) Laminaria 46. How are DNA fragments visualized after gel
(2) Fucus electrophoresis?
(3) Chara (1) By heating the gel.
(4) Chlamydomonas (2) By staining with ethidium bromide and
41. Why are there no tRNAs for stop codons? exposure to UV radiation
(1) Because stop codons do not code for (3) By adding alcohol to the gel.
amino acids. (4) By exposing the gel to sunlight.
 8 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 DATE: 18-04-2024

47. Why is formulation important in the production 52. Match the column – I and column – II
of biotechnological products?
Column – I Column – II
(1) It helps in altering the genetic composition
of the product. A) Ring Worm I) Streptococcus
(2) It involves adding preservatives to enhance B) Pneumonia II) Salmonella
the product’s shelf life. C) Filariasis III) Microsporum
(3) It reduces the cost of downstream D) Typhoid IV) Wuchereria
processing. A B C D
(4) It simplifies the separation process. (1) IV I III II
48. Which enzyme is used to remove RNA during (2) III I IV II
the isolation of DNA? (3) III IV I II
(1) DNA ligase (4) I IV II III
(2) Ribonuclease 53. The major function of the epithelium lining
(3) Lipase the moist surface of the buccal cavity is
(4) Amylase (1) Forming a diffusion boundary
49. How do C3 plants respond to increased CO2 (2) Assisting in the movement of particles or
concentrations compared to C4 plants under mucus in a specific direction
optimum light intensity conditions? (3) To provide protection against chemical
(1) C3 plants show decreased photosynthesis and mechanical stresses
rates. (4) Absorption and secretion
(2) C3 plants show saturation at lower CO2 54. Which hormone is at its lowest concentration
concentrations than C4 plants in the bloodstream during the 10th to 14th day
(3) C3 plants respond to increased CO2 con- of the menstrual cycle?
centrations with increased photosynthesis (1) LH
rates and show saturation beyond 450
μlL-1. (2) Estrogen
(4) C3 and C4 plants do not show any difference (3) Progesterone
in response to CO2 concentration. (4) FSH
50. What does the term “Biopiracy” refer to? 55. The cause of Klinefelter’s syndrome in humans
(1) The conservation of biodiversity by is
multinational companies (1) absence of Y-chromosome
(2) The use of bio-resources by multinational (2) absence of X-chromosome
companies without proper authorization (3) an extra copy of an autosome
and without compensatory payment (4) an extra copy of X-chromosome
(3) The legal use of traditional knowledge by
56. Assertion (A) : Barrier methods such as
the indigenous people
condoms prevent the physical
(4) The sharing of benefits from genetic meeting of ovum and sperm.
resources fairly between all countries Reason (R) : Condoms are used just before
coitus to prevent the entry of
ZOOLOGY ejaculated semen into the
Section-A female reproductive tract.
51. Select the organism possessing mesoglea in (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
between ectoderm and endoderm. explanation of A.
(1) Ascaris (2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
(2) Struthio correct explanation of A.
(3) Physalia (3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) Pheretima (4) A is false, but R is true.
DATE: 18-04-2024 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 9

57. Which of the following is an autosomal recessive 64. Which of the following do(es) not provide the
disorder? sites for the interaction of mature lymphocytes
(1) Colour blindness with antigen?
(2) Sickle cell anaemia (1) Peyer’s patches (2) Spleen
(3) Haemophilia (3) Thymus gland (4) Lymph nodes
(4) Myotonic dystrophy 65. Which of the following is the most species rich
taxonomic group among the animals?
58. Statement–A : Neurotransmitters are involved
in the transmission of impulses (1) Crustaceans (2) Echinoderms
at electrical synapses. (3) Molluscs (4) Insects
Statement–B : Chemical synapses are rare in 66. Statement–I : Angiotensin–II activates the
our system. cortex of the adrenal gland to
release aldosterone.
(1) Both statement A and B are correct.
(2) Both statement A and B are false. Statement–II: ANF acts as a check on renin-
angiotensin mechanism.
(3) Statement A is incorrect, B is correct.
(1) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
(4) Statement A is correct, B is incorrect. (2) Both statement I and II are false
59. During muscle contraction, the calcium ions (3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
are released into the sarcoplasm by (4) Both statement I and II are correct
(1) Nissl’s granules
67. Which of the following is an IUD that makes
(2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum the uterine cervix hostile to sperm?
(3) Golgi complex (1) Cu-T (2) Multiload-375
(4) Ribosomes (3) LNG-20 (4) Lippes loop
60. Which of the following hormone decreases the 68. HGP was closely associated with the rapid
blood glucose levels? development of a new area in biology called
(1) Thymosin (2) Insulin (1) bioprospection
(3) Aldosterone (4) Melatonin (2) biomagnification
61. Which of the following organisms possesses (3) bioinformatics
collterial glands? (4) biogeography
(1) Frog 69. Match the List – I with List – II.
(2) Cockroach
List – I List – II
(3) Earthworm
A) Sacred groves I) Alien species
(4) Human
B) Zoological Park II) Lungs of our
62. During the process of glomerular filtration, all planet
of the given constituents of plasma can pass on C) Nile perch III) Ex situ conser-
to the lumen of Bowman’s capsule, except vation
(1) Amino acids (2) Glucose D) Amazon forest IV) Khasi hills in
(3) Large proteins (4) Minerals Meghalaya
V) High degree of
63. Which of the following is a method of ex situ
endemism
conservation?
A B C D
(1) Botanical gardens
(1) IV III I II
(2) Biosphere reserves
(2) V III I II
(3) National parks
(3) IV V I III
(4) Wildlife sanctuaries
(4) III IV V II
 10 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 DATE: 18-04-2024

70. Select the correct statement regarding mutation Reason (R) : Deposition of calcium, fat,
theory of evolution. cholesterol and fibrous tissue
(1) This theory was proposed by Alfred in coronary arteries makes the
Wallace. lumen of arteries narrower.
(2) Mutations are small directional changes. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(3) Single-step large mutation is a cause of
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
speciation.
correct explanation of A.
(4) Mutations are large differences that arise
(3) A is true, but R is false
gradually in a population.
(4) A is false, but R is true
71. Study the following statements and choose the
correct ones. 76. The type of joint between the flat skull bones,
which are fused end to end, is
i) Contraction of external intercostal muscles
(1) Fibrous joint
increases the volume of the thoracic cavity
in the dorsoventral axis. (2) Cartilaginous joint
ii) Contraction of internal intercostal muscles (3) Ball and socket joint
increases the volume of the thoracic cavity (4) Pivot joint
in the anteroposterior axis. 77. Statement-I : Blood vascular system of
iii) Human beings have the ability to increase cockroach is of open type.
the strength of inspiration and expiration Statement-II : In an open circulatory system,
with the help of additional muscles in the blood is pumped out of the
abdomen. heart and the cells and tissues
iv) The diaphragm becomes flat due to the are directly bathed in it.
relaxation of external intercostal muscles. (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
(1) i, ii, iii (2) i, iii only is correct.
(3) Only i (4) i, iii, iv (2) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect.
72. The biological response modifiers used for
cancer patients include (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(1) vinblastin
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) a–interferons correct.
(3) X–rays
78. Match the column – I with column – II
(4) chemotherapeutic drugs
73. Statement-A : Parturition is induced by a Column – I Column – II
complex neuroendocrine A) Datura I Interferes
mechanism. with the
Statement-B : The signals for parturition transport of
originate from the fully dopamine
developed foetus and the
placenta.
B) Poppy plant II Used to treat
insomnia
(1) Statement A is correct, B is incorrect.
(2) Both statement A and B are false.
C) E r y t h r o x y l u m III Ha l lucino -
coca gen
(3) Statement A is incorrect, B is correct.
D) Benzodiazepines IV Sedative and
(4) Both statement A and B are correct.
pain killer
74. Which of the following is a limbless amphibian?
A B C D
(1) Struthio (2) Ornithorhynchus
(1) III II IV I
(3) Alligator (4) Icthyophis
(2) II IV I III
75. Assertion (A) : CAD is characterised by a
decrease in blood supply to (3) III IV I II
heart muscles (4) II I III IV
DATE: 18-04-2024 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 11

79. Prolonged deficiency of iodine in our diet (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
results in explanation of A.
(1) hyperthyroidism (2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(2) enlargement of thyroid gland
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(3) high blood calcium level
(4) A is false, but R is true.
(4) depigmentation
85. The first clinical gene therapy was given in
80. Which of the following is a part of the hindbrain
1990 to a 4-year-old girl with ___ deficiency.
with a highly convoluted surface for the
accommodation of more neurons? (1) tyrosin kinase
(2) adenosine deaminase
(1) Cerebrum
(3) carbonic anhydrase
(2) Pons
(4) enterokinase
(3) Medulla
(4) Cerebellum Section-B
81. Which of the following is the integral form of 86. The process of evolution of different species
the exponential growth equation? in a given geographical area starting from a
N t = N o e rt point and literally radiating to other areas of
(1)
geography is called
dN  K −N  (1) adaptative radiation
= rN  
(2) dt  K 
(2) convergent evolution
dN  N (3) analogy
= rN  1 − 
(3) dt  K (4) industrial melanism
87. During the coagulation of blood, inactive
(4) N t +1 = N t + ( B + I ) − ( D + E ) 
fibrinogen is activated by
82. If gene migration happens multiple times, there (1) thrombokinase
would be a
(2) prothrombin
(1) gene silencing (3) thrombin
(2) gene therapy (4) fibrin
(3) gene knockout 88. At least how many secondary spermatocytes
(4) gene flow are required to form 400 million spermatozoa?
(1) 50 million
83. Which of the following is called the pacemaker
of human heart? (2) 100 million

(1) Atrioventricular node (AVN) (3) 200 million

(4) 400 million
(2) Purkinje fibres (PF)
89. Which of the following chemical reactions are
(3) Bundle of His (BH)
catalysed by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase?
(4) Sinoatrial node (SAN) (i) CO2 + H 2O  → H 2CO3
84. Assertion (A) : Net primary productivity is
→ H + + HCO3−
(ii) H 2CO3 
the available biomass for the
consumption to herbivores (iii) H 2CO3 
→ H 2O + CO2
and decomposers.
(1) i and ii only
Reason (R) : The rate of formation of new
organic matter by consumers (2) i and iii only
is called net primary produc- (3) ii and iii only
tivity. (4) i, ii and iii
 12 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 DATE: 18-04-2024

90. Statement-A : Hepatitis-B vaccine is produced 94. Assertion (A) : Pouched mammals survived
from yeast. and flourished in Australia.
Statement-B : Antitoxins, when introduced Reason (R) : Pouched mammals of Australia
into the human body, provide did not face competition from
artificial passive immunisa- other mammals because
tion. continental drift isolated
them.
(1) Both statement A and B are correct.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) Both statement A and B are false. explanation of A.
(3) Statement A is incorrect, B is correct. (2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
(4) Statement A is correct, B is incorrect. correct explanation of A.
91. Consider the following statements. (3) A is true, but R is false.
a) Zygote is formed by in vitro fertilisation. (4) A is false, but R is true.
b) Zygote could be transferred into the 95. During decomposition, water-soluble inorganic
fallopian tube. nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get
c) Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres precipitated as unavailable salts by the process
are transferred into the uterus. of
d) Ovum collected from a donor is transferred (1) Fragmentation (2) Humification
into the fallopian tube of another female. (3) Leaching (4) Catabolism
Choose the correct statements regarding test 96. Statement-A : In emphysema, the surface
tube baby programme. area of gaseous exchange is
(1) a and d only (2) b and d only reduced.
(3) a, b, c only (4) a, b, c, d Statement-B : Due to excessive smoking,
the walls of the alveoli are
92. The correct pathway for the passage of sperm damaged.
in male frogs is (1) Both statement A and B are correct.
(1) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → (2) Both statement A and B are false.
Bidder’s canal → Urinogenital duct →
(3) Statement A is incorrect, B is correct.
Cloaca
(4) Statement A is correct, B is incorrect
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder’s canal
→ Ureters → Kidney → Cloaca 97. Lichens represent an example for
(3) Testes → Bidder’s canal → Vasa efferentia (1) commensalism (2) mutualism
→ Kidney → Cloaca → Ureters (3) parasitism (4) amensalism
(4) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Ureters → 98. A pregnant woman undergoes a spontaneous
Kidney → Cloaca → Bidder’s canal abortion. The foetus expelled through her body
had eyelashes and eyelids that are separated.
93. Match column – I with column – II w.r.t The abortion would probably have occurred
hyposecretion of hormones. in which of the following time periods of
pregnancy?
Column – I Column – II
(1) At the beginning of the first trimester
A) Thyroxine I) Diabetes insipidus
(2) At the end of 12th week
B) Corticoids II) Cretinism
(3) At the end of 24th week
C) ADH III) Diabetes mellitus
(4) At the end of 5th month
D) Insulin IV) Addison’s disease
99. Which of the following animals does not have
Select the correct option. a larval stage in its life history?
A B C D (1) Ascidia (2) Asterias
(1) IV III I II (3) Clarias (4) Sycon
(2) II IV III I 100. Female heterogamety is seen in
(3) II III IV I (1) grasshoppers (2) humans
(4) II IV I III (3) fruitflies (4) birds
DATE: 18-04-2024 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 13

PHYSICS 20N
Section-A 37 0
101. N divisions on the main scale of a vernier 10 kg
calipers coincide with (N + 1) divisions on
vernier scale. If each division on main scale is
µ = 0.2
of ‘a’ units, then least count of the instrument
is _____ (1) 22.4N (2) 20N
a a (3) 16 N (4) 12 N
(1) N (2)
N −1
a a 106. A body of mass 2kg attains a maximum height
(3) N + 1 (4) 2 N ‘h’ when thrown vertically up. At what height
its kinetic energy is 75% of its initial value
102. Velocity time graph of a particle moving along h
h
a straight line is as shown. The particle is ___. (1) (2)
4 2
v
3h 3h
(3) (4)
4 8
107. Moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis
perpendicular to the rod and passing through
one end is I1 . When the same rod is bent into
t a ring, its moment of inertia about any of its
I
(1) Initially at rest and moving with constant diameter is I 2 then 1 is
I2
acceleration 3π 2 8π 2
(1) (2)
(2) Moving with constant velocity 8 3
(3) Moving with constant acceleration but 2π 2 3π 2
(3) (4)
has initial velocity 3 2
(4) Moving with non-uniform acceleration, 108. A body is displaced from ( 2m,3m, 4m ) to
has initial velocity
( 5m,8m,10m ) under the action of force
103. A particle is projected with an initial velocity
 F = 2iˆ + 3ˆj + 4kˆ N . Work done by the force is
u= 3i + 4 j .(x-axis along horizontal and y-axis
(1) 6 J (2) 15 J
along vertical). Its velocity vector when it
returns to the same horizontal level is __. (3) 24 J (4) 45 J
(1) 3i − 4 j (2) 4i − 3 j 109. A 3 kg ball falls from a height of 64 cm and
(3) 4i + 3 j (4) 3i + 4 j rebounds to a height of 25 cm. The coefficient
of restitution is
104. A man of mass ‘m’ is standing on an elevator
25 5
g (1) (2)
that is moving down with acceleration " " . 64 8
5
The force exerted by the elevator on the man 64 8
is_______. (3) (4)
25 5
4mg 6mg 110. A body of mass 10 kg is attached to a wire of
(1) (2)
5 5 length 0.3 m and breaking stress of the material
2mg 8mg of the wire is 4.8 × 107 N / m2 . The area of cross-
(3) (4) section of the wire is 10−6 m2 . The maximum
5 5
105. A block of mass 10kg is placed on a rough angular velocity with which it can be rotated
horizontal surface. On the block initially at in a horizontal circle on a smooth horizontal
rest a 20N force is applied as shown. If µ = 0.2 surface without breaking is
2
and g = 10m / s the frictional force acting on (1) 4 rad/s (2) 8 rad/s
the block is (3) 1 rad/s (4) 2 rad/s
 14 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 DATE: 18-04-2024

111. Assertion (A) : Hot soup tastes better than 116.The mean translational KE per unit volume E
the cold soup. and the pressure P of a perfect gas are related
Reason (R) : Hot soup spread properly as
on our tongue due to lower
E 2E
surface tension. (1) P = (2) P =
2 3
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 3E 3E
explanation of A (3) P = (4) P =
2 4
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the 117. Two points are located at a distance of 10 m
explanation for A and 15 m from the source of oscillation as
(3) A is true and R is false measured in the direction of propagation of a
wave. The period of oscillation is 0.05 sec and
(4) A is false and R is true
the velocity of the wave is 300 m/sec. The phase
112. For a particle performing S.H.M along x axis, difference (in radian) between the oscillations
position ( x ) and time (t) are as shown of two points at a particular instance is
(1) π (2) π / 6
x
(3) π / 3 (4) 2π / 3
0.2m 118. Charge of a body is "+ 14.4 × 10−19 C " . The body
has
6s 8s
2s 4s
  (t) (1) 9 electrons in excess
(2) 9 electrons short
(3) 18 electrons in excess
Acceleration of particle at t = 2s is ____ cm s 2 (4) 18 electrons short
(Take π 2  10 ) 119. Assertion (A) : Electric field created by a point
charge is non-uniform.
(1) 12.5 (2) –12.5 Reason (R) : Electric field at a distance
(3) 6.25 (4) –6.25 ‘r’ from a point charge ‘q’ is
1 q
113. A planet of mass m revolve around the sun of E=
4πε 0 r
mass M in an elliptical orbit. The minimum
and maximum distance of the planet from the (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
sun are r and 3r respectively. The time period explanation of A
of the planet is proportional to (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
( 4r ) ( 2r )
2/3 2/3
(1) (2) explanation for A
( 2r ) (3) A is true and R is false
( 4r )
3/2 5/2
(3) (4)
(4) A is false and R is true
114. A vessel is filled with an ideal gas at a pressure
of 10 atm and temperature 270 C . Half of the 120. A capacitor of 2 µ F is connected as shown in
mass of the gas is removed from the vessel and the circuit.
temperature of the remaining gas is increased
0
to 87 C . Then the pressure of the gas in the
vessel will be
(1) 5 atm (2) 6 atm
(3) 7 atm (4) 8 atm
115. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a
gas is proportional to the cube of its absolute If internal resistance of the battery connected
temperature. The value of C p / Cv for that gas is is 1Ω , the charge on the plates of the capacitor
(1) 3/5 (2) 4/3 is
(3) 5/3 (4) 3/2 (1) 12 µC (2) 9 µC
(3) 8 µC (4) 6 µC
DATE: 18-04-2024 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 15

121. In the circuit shown, if the variable resistance (1) 8.5 W (2) 95 W
‘R’ is increased, the reading of the voltmeter. (3) 10.5 W (4) 11.5 W
(consider the cell to be ideal cell)
126.A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance
C = 200 pF . It is connected to 230V supply
with an angular frequency of 300 rad/sec. The
rms value of conduction current in the circuit
and displacement current in the capacitor
respectively are
(1) 13.8 µ A, 13.8 µ A
(2) 1.38 µ A, 1.38 µ A
(3) 1.38 µ A, 13.8 µ A
(1) Increases
(4) 14.3µ A, 143µ A
(2) decreases
(3) remains unchanged 127. When the momentum of a proton is changed
by an amount P0 , the corresponding change
(4) is zero always in the de-Broglie wavelength is found to be
122. If the galvanometer shows null deflection in 0.25%. Then, the original momentum of the
the meter bridge circuit proton was
(1) P0 (2) 100 P0
(3) 400 P0 (4) 4 P0
128. The orbital speed of electron in the ground
state of hydrogen is υ . Its orbital speed when
it is excited to the energy state – 3.4eV is
υ υ υ
(1) 2υ (2) (3) (4)
The value of unknown resistance ‘R’ is 2 4 8
(1) 60Ω (2) 80Ω 129. A nuclear fusion reaction is given by
1 H +1 H →2 He + 0 n + Q ( energy )
2 2 3 1
.
(3) 100Ω (4) 120Ω
If 2 moles of deuterium are fused, then total
123. A proton, deuteron and an a -particle are
released energy is
accelerated by same potential difference
enter into a perpendicular uniform magnetic (1) 2Q (2) 4Q
23
field. The ratio of radii of their circular paths (3) Q × 6.02 × 10
23
(4) Q × 2 × 6.02 × 10
respectively is
130. Given below are two statements:
(1) 1 : 2 : 2 (2) 2 : 2 :1 Statement-I : LED is a heavily dop ed
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 p-n junction diode usually
connected in reverse bias.
124. The magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic Statement-II : GaAs is a better material than
substance is 4 × 10−4 . The intensity of Si used in solar cell because of
magnetization when it is placed in external its relatively higher absorption
4
magnetizing field of 3 × 10 A / m is coefficient.
4 3 In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) × 10−8 A / m (2) × 108 A / m the most appropriate answer from the options
3 4 given below:
(3) 12 A / m (4) 12π A / m (1) Both statements I and II are correct
125. Primary side of a transformer is connected (2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is
to 230V, 50Hz ac source. The turn ratio of incorrect
primary to secondary winding is 10:1. If a (3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II
load resistance of 46Ω is connected in the is correct
secondary, the power consumed in it is (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
 16 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 DATE: 18-04-2024

131. If the voltage between the terminals A and B is 137. Width of the river is 4km and speed of water is
17V and Zener breakdown voltage is 9V, then 3 kmph. A swimmer can swim with a speed of
the potential across R is 5 kmph relative to water and wants to cross the
river. Time taken to cross the river along the
shortest path is
(1) 1 hr (2) 2 hr (3) 3 hr (4) 4 hr
138. Position (x) of a particle of mass 2kg varies with
t2
time as x = .(‘x’ in meter and ‘t’ in seconds)
3
the work done by the net force acting on the
(1) 6V (2) 8V
particle in first two seconds is
(3) 9V (4) 17V
2 4 4 16
(1) J (2) J (3) J (4) J
132. Angle of prism is A and its one surface 3 3 9 9
is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of
incidence 2A on first surface return back 139. Position vector of a particle of mass 2kg is
through the same path after suffering reflection 2iˆ + ˆj . Position vector of another particle of
at second silvered surface. Refractive index of mass ‘m’ is 5i – xj. If position vector of the
the material of prism is center of mass of both particles is 3i-2j, the
value of ‘x’ is
(1) 2 sinA (2) 2 cosA
(1) 1 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 6
1
(3) cos A (4) tan A
2 140. A particle, started from rest and moves along a
2
133. A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of circle of radius   m with constant tangential
focal length 60cm and a single eye lens of focal π 
length 5cm is focused on a distance object in acceleration. If the velocity of the particle at
such a way that parallel rays emerge from the the end of one revolution is 4 m/s its tangential
0 acceleration is
eye lens. If the object makes an angle of 2 at 2 2
(1) 1m / s (2) 2 m / s
the objective, the angular width of the image 2
is (3) 3 m / s (4) 4 m / s 2
(1) 100 (2) 240 (3) 500 (4) 480 141. Match the following.
134. Yellow light is used in single-slit diffraction List-I List-II
experiment with slit width 0.6mm. If yellow (a) It is possible to (e) isothermal
light is replaced by X-rays then the pattern change the tempera- process
will reveal ture of a gas without
(1) that the central maxima is narrower supplying heat
(2) no diffraction pattern (b) Change in internal (f) adiabatic
(3) more number of fringes energy is zero process
(4) less number of fringes (c) Work done is zero (g) isochoric
process
135. In Young’s double slit experiment, the
experimental chamber which contains air (d) Work done by the (h) i s o b a r i c
initially is now evacuated. Fringe width gas is maximum for process
a given increment in
(1) remains constant (2) increases
volume in the given
(3) decreases (4) fringes disappear processes.
Section-B (1) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-e
136. The number of significant figures in 0.0048050 (2) a-f, b-e, c-g, d-h
is (3) a-e, b-f, c-g, d-h
(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 4 (4) a-g, b-e, c-h, d-f
DATE: 18-04-2024 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 17

142. A light planet revolving around a very massive (1) A and B are true C is false
star in a circular orbit of radius R with a period (2) A and C are true B is false
of revolution T. If the gravitational force of
(3) A is false B and C are true
attraction between the star and planet is
(4) All are true
proportional to R − 5/2 then T 2 is proportional
to 147. A hydrogen-like atom has one electron
R 3 3/2 5/2 revolving around a stationary nucleus. The
(1) (2) R 7/2 (3) R (4) R
energy required to excite the electron from
143. In a region of electric field, the potential V the second orbit to the third orbit is 47.2eV.
varies as V = ( )
−10 x 2 + y volt. The magnitude The atomic number of the atom rounded to
of electric field at point (1m,1m ) is the nearest integer is
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
(1) 10 5 V/m (2) 10 2 V / m
148. In the following figure, the diodes which are
(3) 5 10 V / m (4) 5 5V /m
forward biased, are:
144. A current of 5A is passing through a circular
conducting wire of diameter 10cm as shown.
(AB diameter and ‘O’ is the center)
A
5A
O

5A
The magnetic field at ‘O’
−5
(1) 2 × 10 T , into the plane
(2) 1× 10−5 T , into the plane
(3) 1× 10−5 T , out of the plane
(4) 2 × 10−5 T , out of the plane (1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
145. A magnet is brought towards a coil
149. An open pipe is in resonance in its 2nd
i) speedily ii) Slowly, then the induced emf and harmonic with a tuning fork of frequency f1
induced charge will be respectively . Now it is closed at one end and frequency of
(1) More in the first case, more in the first case the tuning fork is increased slowly from f1
(2) More in the first case, equal in both cases , then again a resonance is obtained with a
frequency f 2 . If in this case the pipe vibrates
(3) less in the first case, more in the second case
in nth harmonic, then
(4) equal in both cases, more in the first case 3 5
(1) = n 3,= f2 f1 (2) = n 3,= f2 f1
146. For the circuit shown, current in the resistance 4 4
is 1A. Then 5 3
(3) = n 5,= f2 f1 (4) = n 5,= f2 f1
4 4
150. A concave mirror of focal length ' f1 ' is placed
at a distance of ‘d’ from a convex lens of focal
length ' f 2 ' . A beam of light coming from
infinity and falling on this convex lens concave
mirror combination returns to infinity. The
distance ‘d’ must equal
Source voltage is 5V
(1) f1 + f 2 (2) − f1 + f 2
Current is lagging the voltage
(3) 2 f1 + f 2 (4) −2 f1 + f 2
Power factor is 0.6
 18 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 DATE: 18-04-2024

CHEMISTRY (1) –4RT

(2) 3RT
Section-A
(3) 4RT
151. The radius of second Bohr orbit of Be+3 in terms (4) –2RT
of the Bohr radius a0
156. 90% of first order reaction is completed in 120
2a0
sec. The time required for 99% of the reaction
(1) 3 to be completed in minutes is
4a0 (1) 200
(2) 3 (2) 360
a0 (3) 4
(3)
(4) 8
2a0
157. Which of the following expressions is
(4) 9 correct for the rate of reaction given below?
152. Which among the following has more number 5Br − (aq) + BrO3− (aq) + 6H + (aq) → 3Br2 (aq) + 3H 2O(l)
of lone pairs on central atom?
D[Br − ] D[H + ]
(1) XeF4 (1) =5
Dt Dt
(2) SiF4
D[ Br − ] 6 D[H + ]
(3) SF4 (2) =
Dt 5 Dt
(4) BF4 − D[ Br − ] 5 D[H + ]
(3) =
153. Freezing point is least for Dt 6 Dt
(1) 0.1 m urea D[Br − ] D[H + ]
(4) =6
(2) 0.1 m NaCl Dt Dt
(3) 0.1 m BaCl 2 158 All the following concentration methods are
(4) 0.1 m glucose temperature dependent except
154. Given below are two statements. (1) Mole fraction
(2) Normality
Statement I : One faraday always deposits/
liberates one mole any (3) Molarity
substance at appropriate W
(4) %
electrode V
Statement II : On dilution of acetic acid 159. Which of the following statements regarding
solution its molar conductance a -amino acids are correct?
decreases whereas its specific I. Proteins on complete hydrolysis give a −
conductance increases amino acids
In the light of the above statements. Choose II. All a -amino acids contain − NH2 group
the most appropriate answer from the options in their structure
given below. III. Amino acids with equal number of amino
(1) Both SI & SII are true and carboxyl groups are neutral amino
(2) SI is false and SII is true acids
(3) SI is true and SII is false IV. All naturally occurring a -amino acids
(4) Both SI & SII are false are optically active.
(1) I & III
155. The difference between DH and DU (DH – DU)
when the combustion of one mole of methane (2) I, II & IV
is carried out at a room temperature T is equal (3) III & IV
to (4) II, III & IV
DATE: 18-04-2024 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 19

160. Match the Column I and Column II and select −784kJmol −1

Dhyd H 0 =
the correct answer using given codes.
Column I Column II The enthalpy of solution is calculated as
(Order) (Properties) −1
(1) -4 kJmol
(A) (1) EA −1
Si 4+ <Al 3+ <Mg 2+ <K + (Electron (2) -8 kJmol
affinity) −1
(3) +4 kJmol
(B) C < N < F < O (2) Ionic radii −1
in gaseous (4) -6 kJmol
state
165. The oxidation potential of hydrogen electrode
(C) S > Se > Te > O (3) EN (Electro with pH=10
negativity)
(1) –0.295V
(D) F > O > N > C (4) Second
Ionisation (2) +0.59V
Enthalpy (3) –0.059V
(1) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 (4) +0.059V
(2) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 166. I. Bond dissociation enthalpy of chlorine is
(3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 greater than that of fluorine
(4) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 II. Fluorine is a stronger oxidizing agent as
161. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 compared to chlorine in aqueous solution
(1) +10 III. Melting and boiling points are higher for
chlorine as compared to fluorine
(2) +6
(3) +8 The correct set of statements is
(4) +5 (1) I & II only
162. Assertion (A) : Fructose is reducing sugar. (2) II & III only
Reason (R) : Fructose is an aldose. (3) I & III only
In light of the above statements, choose the (4) I, II & III
most appropriate answer from the options 167. Standard enthalpy of formation is zero for all
given below. the following except
(1) Both A and R are correct R is the correct (1) I 2 (s )
explanation of A
(2) Br2(l )
(2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the
correct explanation of A (3) N 2( g )
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct but R is not correct (4) O3( g )

163. Which of following is not an essential amino 168. Which of the following is an Extensive property?
acid? (1) Temperature
(1) Glycine (2) Density
(2) Valine (3) Enthalpy
(3) Phenyl Alanine (4) Pressure
(4) Leucine 169. Radio active Lanthanide is
164. Consider the chemical equation. (1) Th
+ − + −
Na ( g ) + Cl ( g ) → Na Cl (s) (2) Gd
For 1 mole of NaCl(s) (3) Pm
Lattice enthalpy=+788kJ mol-1 (4) Eu
 20 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 DATE: 18-04-2024

170. Least acidic among the following is (3) A is correct; R is incorrect

(1) chloroacetic acid (4) R is correct; A is incorrect
(2) acetic acid 174. Which of the following VIA group hydride is
(3) phenol thermally most stable?
(4) propanoic acid H 2Te
(1)
Cl
H 2 Se
(2)
171. KCN H2/Pd H2S
A B (3)
H 2O
Here ‘B’ is (4)
175. Match List I with List II.
(1) CH2NH2
List I List II
Compound Shape
CH2NH2 (A) XeF (i) Distorted
6
octahedral
(2)
(B) NH 3 (ii) Square
planar
CH2NH2 (C) BrF (iii) Pyramidal
5

(3) (D) ICl − (iv) Square

4
pyramidal

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below
(4) NH2
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, d-ii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, d-iii
172. Oxidation states of bromine in tribromooctoxide (3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, d-ii
(Br3O8 ) are (4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, d-iii
(1) +6, +4, +6
176. Non polar molecule with polar bonds is
(2) +6, +4, +2,
(1) Cl2
(3) +4, +6, +2
(2) H 2O
(4) +6, +2, +4
(3) BF3
173. Assertion (A) : For a single chiral carbon
containing alkyl halide, (4) N2
substitution takes place at
NO2
chiral centre, 'S N 1' reaction
leads to racemisation.
Reason (R) : The attack of the nucleophile
may be accomplished from 177.
either side of the plane of the
intermediate carbocation
OCH3
formed in the reaction .
(1) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct (1) 4-methoxy-6-nitrocyclohexene – 1
explanation of A (2) 5-methoxy-3-nitrocyclohexene – 1
(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not the (3) 3-nitro-1-methoxycyclohexene-4-ene
correct explanation of A (4) 3-nitro-5-methoxycyclohexene – 1
DATE: 18-04-2024 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 21

178. Assertion (A) : Nitration of benzene with CH2OH

- +
COO K
nitric acid requires the use of
concentrated sulphuric acid.
Reason (R) : The mixture of concentrated (3) +

sulphuric acid and Cl Cl

concentrated nitric acid
-
produces the electrophile, OH COO

NO2 + (4)
(1) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct ,
explanation of A
Cl OH
(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not the
correct explanation of A 183. Among the following amines, the strongest
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect base is
(4) R is correct; A is incorrect NH2

179. Which among the following is least electro

negative?
(1) B (1)
(2) Al
(3) Ga
(2) NH3
(4) In
H
180. Iodoform test is not given by
(1) Ethanal N
(2) Ethanol
(3) Diphenyl ketone (3)
(4) Dimethyl ketone
181. Which of the following pairs of ions are H
isoelectronic and isostructural?
(1) CO32 − , SO32 − N
− 2−
(2) ClO , CO
3 3 (4)
2− −
(3) SO , NO
3 3
− 2−
(4) ClO3 , SO3
184. When H 2 S is passed through a mixture
182. Predict the products in the given reaction.
containing Cu+2 ,Ni2+ and Zn2+ in acidic
CHO
solution then, the ion that will precipitate is
+2 +2
50% KOH (1) Cu , Ni only
(2) Ni +2 only
Cl +2 +2
(3) Cu , Zn only
-
CH2OH CH2COO +2
(4) Cu only
(1) +

185. Lassaigne’s test is not applicable to

OH
(1) NH 2CONH 2
CH2OH OH
(2) NH 2 − NH 2
(2) +
(3) NH 2CSNH 2

OH OH
(4) C6 H 5 NH 2
 22 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 DATE: 18-04-2024

Section-B 192. Which of the following graphs correctly

represent the first order reaction, R → P ?
186. Amphoteric oxide among the following is
(1) MgO
(2) N2O
(3) Al2O3
(4) Cl2O7 (1)
187. Incorrect statement among the following is
(1) All Bronsted bases are Lewis bases
(2) Ionic product of water is temperature
dependent (2)
(3) Le-chatelier’s principle is applicable to
both physical and chemical equilibrium
K C = K P ( RT ) is the correct inter relation
Dn
(4)
188. The weight of iron which will be converted
into its oxide ( Fe3O4 ) by the action of 18g of
steam on it will be (Atomic weight of Fe=56)
(3)
(1) 168g
(2) 84g
(3) 42g
(4) 21g
(4)
189. A salt solution on treatment with H 2 SO4
(dilute) gives out a gas which turns K 2Cr2O7 193. Write the IUPAC name of the coordination
paper green and lead acetate paper black. The compound Fe4 [Fe(CN )6 ]3 .
salt contains
(1) Iron (II) hexacyanidoferrate (II)
(1) Carbonate
(2) Iron (III) hexacyanidoferrate (II)
(2) Chloride
(3) Iron (II) hexacyanoferrate (III)
(3) Nitrate
(4) Iron (II) hexacyanoiron (III)
(4) Sulphide
194. An organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with
190. Which of the following actinoids show benzene sulphonyl chloride gives compound
oxidation states up to +7? B. B is soluble in dil NaOH solution. The
(1) Am compound ‘A’ is
(2) Pa (1) (CH 3 )3 N
(3) U (2) (CH 3 )2 NH
(4) Np (3) (CH 3 )2 N (C2 H 5 )
191. K sp of AgCl is 8 × 10−12 M2 . The molar (4) CH 3 − NH 2
solubility of AgCl in 0.1M AgNO3 solution is
195. Wrong match among the following is
−12
(1) 8 × 10 M (1) K 2 MnO4 − Green, paramagnetic
−13
(2) 8 × 10 M (2) K 2Cr2O7 − Yellow, diamagnetic
(3) 8 × 10−10 M (3) K 2CrO4 − Yellow, diamagnetic
(4) 8 × 10−11 M (4) KMnO4 − Purple, diamagnetic
DATE: 18-04-2024 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 23

196. Assertion (A) : Oxidising power increases in (3) II>I>III

order: VO2+ < Cr2O72 − < MnO4− (4) I>III>II
Reason (R) : It is due to the increasing
stability of lower species to 199. The total number of metal-metal bond present
which they are easily reduced. in [Co2 (CO)8 ]

(1) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct (1) 0

explanation of A (2) 3
(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not the (3) 2
correct explanation of A (4) 1
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect
200. Predict the major product of the following
(4) R is correct; A is incorrect reaction.
197. In the given reaction, I and II are respectively OC2H5
(A)
OH ONa HBr

H+
NaOH (i) CO2
II Conc. H2SO4
(II) H+
I
(i) (CH3CO)2O/CH3COOH
(B)
Conc. HNO3
OH OCOCH3

COOH
Choose the option with appropriate products
COOH
from the codes given below.
(1) (A)
(II) (B)
OC2H5 OC2H5
ONa OH

COOH OCOCH3

(2) (II) (1)

OH OCOCH3
Br NO2

(A) (B)
(3)
(II)
OH OC2H5
COOH COOH

OH OCOCH3

(2)
(4) (II)

NO2
198. The correct order of stability of the following
resonance structures (A) (B)
OH OH

NO2

(3)

(A) (B)
OC2H5 OC2H5

NO2

(4)
(1) III>II>I
(2) I>II>III Br
24 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 DATE: 18-04-2024
DATE: 18-04-2024 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 25

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

26 Sri Chaitanya AITS NEET Grand Test - 01 DATE: 18-04-2024

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK