Vision Prelims T35 S (2024)

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 4160 (2024)
Q 1.D
• Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) occurs when bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites evolve over
time and no longer respond to medicine.
o Antimicrobials are medicines used to prevent and treat infections caused by microorganisms.
o Antimicrobials include Antibiotics (for bacteria), Antiviral (for viruses), Antifungal and
Antiparasitics.
• AMR makes infections harder to treat and increases the risk of disease, spread of severe illness, and
health.
• Microorganisms that develop antimicrobial resistance are sometimes referred to as superbugs.
• Global Steps to handle AMR
o Global Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance (GAPAR) by WHO
o AWaRe (Access, Watch, Reserve) Tool by WHO.
o Global Antimicrobial Resistance and Use Surveillance System (GLASS) by WHO
o Global Antibiotic Research and Development Partnership (GARDP)
o SECURE: A first dedicated mechanism to expand access in Low and Low Middle-Income Countries
(LMICs) to essential antibiotics which goes beyond access to single products.
o One health joint plan of action (2022‒2026) by FAO, UNEP, the World Organisation for Animal
Health (WOAH, founded as OIE), and the World Health Organization (WHO)
• Steps Taken by India
o National Action Plan on Containment of Antimicrobial Resistance (NAP-AMR), 2017
o Delhi Declaration on AMR
o AMR Research & International Collaboration.
o National AMR surveillance network of state medical college labs (NARS-Net) to generate quality
data on AMR.
o Antibiotic Stewardship Program (AMSP) to control misuse and overuse of antibiotics in hospital
wards and ICUs.
o Red Line Campaign on Antibiotics.
o New provision, Schedule H1 to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act to check the indiscriminate use ofO
antibiotics.
o Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
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Q 2.C
• NAMAMI GANGE PROGRAMME:
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o Namami Gange Programme is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as a ‘Flagship

Programme’ by the Union Government in June 2014 to accomplish the twin objectives of effective
abatement of pollution and conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga and its
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tributaries.
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o Main pillars of the Namami Gange Programme are:-

✓ Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure.
✓ River-Front Development.
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✓ River-Surface Cleaning.
✓ Bio-Diversity Conservation
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✓ Afforestation.
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✓ Public Awareness.
✓ Industrial Effluent Monitoring.
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✓ Ganga Gram.
o It is being operated under the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga
Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
o The program is being implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and its state
counterpart organizations i.e State Program Management Groups (SPMGs).
o NMCG is the implementation wing of the National Ganga Council (set in 2016; which replaced the
National Ganga River Basin Authority - NGRBA).
o The National Ganga Council:
✓ The National Ganga Council is chaired by the Prime Minister.
✓ The National Ganga Council is formed under the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA),1986.
✓ It has been given overall responsibility for the superintendence of pollution prevention and
rejuvenation of River Ganga Basin, including Ganga and its tributaries.
Q 3.A
• Web eras represent distinct evolutionary phases of internet technology, spanning from static content
consumption (Web 1.0) to interactive user-generated content (Web 2.0) and progressing towards
decentralized, intelligent platforms (Web 3.0).
• Web 1.0:
o This era refers to the early days of the World Wide Web, typically from the late 1980s to the early
2000s.
o Web 1.0 was characterized by static web pages with limited user interaction. Websites were
mainly informational and provided content for users to consume. Hence pair 1 is not correctly
matched.
o Examples of Web 1.0 technologies include HTML, CSS, and early versions of JavaScript.
o There was minimal user-generated content and limited opportunities for interaction beyond browsing.
• Web 2.0:
o Web 2.0 emerged around the mid-2000s and marked a significant shift in web development practices.
o It introduced dynamic web pages and enhanced user interaction, enabling users to contribute
content, interact with each other, and participate in online communities. Hence pair 2 is not
correctly matched.
o Social media platforms, blogging sites, and collaborative platforms exemplify Web 2.0 concepts,
emphasizing user-generated content and social interaction.
o Technologies associated with Web 2.0 include AJAX, rich internet applications (RIAs), and APIs that
facilitate data exchange and interactivity.
• Web 3.0:
o Web 3.0 represents the next phase of evolution in web development, often referred to as the
Semantic Web or the Decentralized Web.
o It aims to move away from centralized control and towards more autonomous, intelligent, and
open Internet platforms. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
o Web 3.0 technologies include artificial intelligence (AI), blockchain, decentralized applications
(dApps), and semantic web technologies like RDF (Resource Description Framework) and SPARQL
(SPARQL Protocol and RDF Query Language). O
o The focus is on creating a more intelligent and interconnected web where data is more easily
accessible, interoperable, and secure.
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Q 4.A
• The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has approved the amendment in the Foreign Direct
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Investment (FDI) policy on the space sector. Now, the satellite sub-sector has been divided into three
different activities with defined limits for foreign investment in each such sector.
• As per the existing FDI policy, FDI is permitted in the establishment and operation of Satellites through
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the Government approval route only. In line with the vision and strategy under the Indian Space Policy
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2023, the Union Cabinet has eased the FDI policy on the Space sector by prescribing liberalized FDI
thresholds for various sub-sectors/activities.
• The entry routes for the various activities under the amended policy are as follows:
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o Upto 74% under Automatic route: Satellites-Manufacturing & Operation, Satellite Data Products
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and Ground Segment & User Segment. Beyond 74% of these activities are under government routes.
o Upto 49% under Automatic route: Launch Vehicles and associated systems or subsystems, Creation
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of Spaceports for launching and receiving Spacecraft. Beyond 49% of these activities are under the
government route.
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o Upto 100% under Automatic route: Manufacturing of components and systems/ sub-systems for
satellites, ground segment and user segment.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 5.A
• Gautama Buddha used the Pali language in his lecture and his education. Prakrit along with Pali is
the language of the common masses during this period, allowing his teachings to be accessible to a
broader audience, including those from lower varnas and the common people. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• Buddha's teachings and the formation of the Sangha (Buddhist monastic community) were
revolutionary in that they allowed individuals from all varnas, including lower varnas, to join. This
inclusivity was part of the appeal of Buddhism, breaking away from the rigid Vedic traditions that
restricted religious practices and community membership based on birth. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• While Buddha advocated for a Middle Way that avoids the extremes of sensual indulgence and severe
asceticism, he did encourage a life of moderation, moral discipline, and mindfulness. The path he
prescribed includes practices that could be seen as forms of abstinence, but not extreme asceticism
as practiced by some religious seekers of his time. The aim was to achieve enlightenment through a
balanced approach to spiritual practice. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 6.C
• Biophilic design is an innovative approach to architecture and urban planning that seeks to
reconnect people with nature by integrating natural elements and processes into the built
environment. The primary goal of biophilic design is to enhance human well-being and connection
with nature.
• Human Well-being: Biophilic design recognizes the inherent human need for contact with nature and
acknowledges the profound influence that natural environments have on human health and happiness.
o By incorporating elements such as natural light, greenery, water features, and natural materials into
buildings and urban spaces, biophilic design aims to create environments that support physical,
mental, and emotional well-being. Research has shown that exposure to nature can reduce stress,
improve mood, increase productivity, and enhance cognitive function.
• Biophilic Responses: Biophilic design principles are based on the concept of biophilia, which suggests
that humans have an innate affinity for nature and natural systems.
o Biophilic design seeks to evoke biophilic responses—positive emotional and physiological reactions
to natural stimuli—by incorporating elements that mimic nature's patterns, colors, textures, and spatial
configurations. These biophilic responses help to create environments that feel comfortable,
stimulating, and harmonious, promoting a sense of connection with the natural world.
• Restorative Environments: Biophilic design aims to create restorative environments that enable people to
recover from the stresses and demands of modern life.
o By providing opportunities for exposure to nature, such as green spaces, views of natural landscapes,
and access to outdoor amenities, biophilic environments offer opportunities for relaxation,
rejuvenation, and restoration. This can have significant benefits for physical health, mental well-
being, and overall quality of life. O
• Environmental Sustainability: While the primary focus of biophilic design is on human well-being, it also
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aligns with principles of environmental sustainability.
o By incorporating natural elements and processes into buildings and urban spaces, biophilic design can
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help reduce energy consumption, improve indoor air quality, mitigate urban heat island effects, and
promote ecological diversity.
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o This holistic approach to design considers the interconnectedness of human health, environmental
health, and ecological integrity, striving to create built environments that are both healthy for people
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and supportive of the natural world.

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
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Q 7.C
• Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) is a statutory body established under the provisions of Section
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15K of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 to hear and dispose of appeals against
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orders passed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India or by an adjudicating officer under
the Act; and to exercise jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on the Tribunal by or under this Act
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or any other law for the time being in force. Hence statement 1 is correct.
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• Every person aggrieved by an order of the Securities and Exchange Board of India or adjudicating officer
is liable to make an appeal to the SAT.
• SAT hears and disposes of appeals against orders passed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and
Development Authority (PFRDA) under the PFRDA Act, 2013. Further, SAT hears and disposes of
appeals against orders passed by the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India
(IRDAI) under the Insurance Act, 1938, the General Insurance Business (Nationalization) Act, 1972
and the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 and the Rules and Regulations
framed thereunder. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 8.B
• Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) enlists eligible models and manufacturers of solar
modules complying with the BIS Standards in a list called the “Approved List of Models and
Manufacturers” (ALMM).
• Only the models and manufacturers included in this list are eligible for use in Government Projects/
Government assisted Projects/ Projects under Government Schemes & Programmes/ Open Access / Net-
Metering Projects, installed in the country, including Projects set up for sale of electricity to Government
under the Guidelines issued by Central Government under section 63 of Electricity Act, 2003 and
amendment thereof.
• The word “Government” includes Central Government, State Governments, Central Public Sector
Enterprises, State Public Sector Enterprises and, Central and State Organisations/ Autonomous bodies.”
• For Open Access / Net-Metering Projects, mandatory use of ALMM listed solar modules is applicable on
such renewable energy projects which apply for open access or net-metering facility, on or after 1st
October, 2022.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 9.A
• Limited Liability Partnerships (LLP) is a form of business entity, which allows individual partners
to be protected from the joint and several liabilities of partners in a partnership firm. Hence option
(a) is the correct answer.
• The liability of partners incurred in the normal course of business does not extend to the personal assets of
the partners. It is capable of entering into contracts and holding property in its own name. An LLP would
be able to fulfil the compliance norms with much greater ease, coupled with the limitation of liability.
• A Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) is a business entity that comes with the benefits of a private limited
firm and a partnership firm. Regardless of the number of partners in an LLP, all partners have limited
liability towards the company. The liability is limited to the contribution they themselves have made. One
partner is not held responsible for the other partners’ liabilities. LLP follows guidelines laid down by the
Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008.
• In a Private Limited (Pvt Ltd) company, private investors hold shares, and the public cannot trade those
shares on the stock exchange. In a Pvt Ltd company, shareholders may differ from the company owners.
Therefore, profits and liabilities are typically shared among the company owners, per the Companies Act
2013.
Q 10.A
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• The GECF is an international organization that gathers leading gas-producing countries to increase
coordination and collaboration among members.
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• The objectives of the GECF, clearly defined in the Statute, shall be to support the sovereign rights of
member countries over their natural gas resources and their abilities to independently plan and manage the
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sustainable, efficient, and environmentally conscious development, use, and conservation of natural gas
resources for the benefit of their peoples.
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• The Gas Exporting Countries Forum currently consists of 20 world's leading natural gas-producing and
exporting countries, spread across four continents.
FN
o The Member Countries are Algeria, Bolivia, Equatorial Guinea, Egypt, Iran, Libya, Nigeria, Qatar,
Russia, Trinidad and Tobago, United Arab Emirates and Venezuela.
o There are also Observer Members: Angola, Azerbaijan, Iraq, Malaysia, Mauritania, Mozambique,
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Peru and Senegal. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

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• With its current number of member countries, the GECF enjoys a dominant position on global energy
markets and among international energy organizations. Together, they represent 69% of the world’s gas
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reserves, 39% of the marketed production, and 40% of global gas exports. Moreover, GECF member
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countries collectively account for more than half of the world's LNG exports (51%). Hence
statement 1 is correct.
Q 11.B
• As per Ministry of Coal and Mines, India has spent Rs 27131 crore on copper import in 2022-23, up
from Rs 21985 crore in 2021-22.
• Copper is one of the 30 critical minerals identified by the Government of India. Copper and its
alloys are widely used in electrical industry.
• The total reserve of copper ore in India as of 2015 are estimated at 1.51 billion tonnes. Of which, just
13.75% fall under ‘Reserves category’ (economically feasible to extract under current conditions)
while 86.25% are placed under ‘Remaining resource’ category (identified through exploration but
their economic viability for extraction under current conditions is uncertain). Hence option 1 is correct.
• Further total metal content out of total copper resources is 12.16 million tonnes of which 2.73 million
tonnes constitute reserves. So, the copper ore contain a small percentage of the metal and mining is
expensive as well. Hence option 2 is correct.
• There are only three major players in primary copper industry – Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL)
in Public Sector, Hindalco limited and Vedanta Industries Limited in private sector. The Sterlite
plant, the largest copper smelter plant in India, was shut down by Tamil Nadu government after
environmentalist and local protest in 2018.
• The present customs duty on copper concentrate (it is a basic raw material used in copper industry)
is 2.5%. ASSCHOM has requested government to reduce this duty to nil because the refined copper is
being increasingly imported into India at nil duty under the Free Trade Agreements, making it a case of an
inverted duty structure. Hence option 3 is not correct.
Q 12.C
• The entry of modern industry into India started in second half of nineteenth century. The situation of
Indian working class was very bad due to apathetic attitude of the British Government and of local
capitalist. Even the moderates were also indifference to the labour cause. The moderates were of the view
that labour legislation would affect the competitive edge enjoyed by the Indian-owned factories. So, they
did not support the Factory Acts of 1881 and 1891. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Sasipada Banerjea started a workingmen’s club and newspaper Bharat Shramjeebi. In late 1880s
Narain Meghajee Lokhanday started the newspaper Deenbandu and set up the Bombay Mill and
Millhands Association. The first strike by the Great Indian Peninsular Railways took place in 1899 and it
got widespread supports. Lokmanya Tilak also campaigned in favour of strike through his newspaper
Mahratta and Kesari. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Madras Trade Union was the first organised trade union in India and established in 1918. This
was led by B P Wadia and V kalyanasundaram Mudaliar. It conducted several agitations for a decrease in
the work hours to eight a day, a bonus, an increase in wages, and weekly off. Hence statement 3 is not
correct.
• The All India Trade Union Congress was established in 1920 by Narayan Malhar Joshi. Lala Lajpat
Rai was elected as its first president and Dewan Chaman Lal as the first general secretary. Lala Lajpat Rai
was of the view that imperialism and militarism are the twin children of capitalism. The Gaya session of
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the Congress (1922) welcomed the formation of the AITUC. Leaders like C R Das, Jawahar Lal Nehru,
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Subhas Chandra Bose, C F Andrew, V V Giri, Sarojini Naidu etc were associated with the union. It was
influenced by the social democratic ideas of the British Labour Party. Since 1945, it has been associated
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more itself with the Communist Party of India and it also played a crucial role in formation of the
World Federation of Trade Unions (WFTU).
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Q 13.A
• Residual mountains are those mountains which have been eroded by the agents of degradation such as
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winds, rain, frost and running water. The hard rocks that are left behind are called residual mountains.
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• The Sierras of central Spain and Mesas of the USA are some examples of residual mountains. Examples
of Residual Mountains in India are:
o the Aravali hills, Hence option 1 is correct.
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o the Nallamala hills,

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o the Javadi hills, Hence option 3 is correct.

o the Veliconda hills,
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o the Palkonda range,

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o the Mahendragiri hills. Hence option 5 is correct.

• Kanchenjunga hills are not an example of residual mountains in India. Residual mountains are typically
worn-down remnants of older, larger mountains made of hard rock. On the other hand, Kanchenjunga is
part of the Himalayas, a fold mountain range. Fold mountains are formed by the collision of tectonic
plates, which push up the Earth's crust. Hence option 2 is not correct.
• Mikir Hills are located in northeast India and part of the northeastern Himalayas. So, Mikir Hills is not an
example of residual mountains in India. Hence option 4 is not correct.
Q 14.C
• In the eighteenth century, the royal forces were dispatched to India on lease to the company to help it
out at times of trouble. But it created problems between the King’s army officers and the civilian
authorities of the company. The East India Company adopted the tradition of Mughal’s and regional
powers to start recruiting its own army, which came to be known as sepoy army. The French had first
initiated this tradition of recruiting an Indian army in 1721-29.
• In the early nineteenth century by legislation 20000 Royal troops were to be stationed in India and
paid for by the company, as a strategy to subsidise Britain’s defence expenditure in the post-
Napoleonic era. In addition to that the size of the Company’s Indian army also increased from 82000 in
1794 to 154000 in 1824 to 214000 in 1856. Due to which the army claimed the largest share of the
Company’s expenditure in India.
• After the 1857 revolt, the ethnic stereotyping had become a much more important factor in army
recruitment. The deliberate policy of respecting caste, dietary, travel and other religious practices of the
sepoys fostered a high caste identity of the Company’s army. However, the Peel Commission
recommended that the native army should be composed of different nationalities and castes.
• The relationship between the civilian and the military authorities remained always a sticky point.
o The Charter Act of 1793 gave the ultimate control over all matters of war and peace to the
Board of Control. This relationship became worsened during Curzon-Kitchener controversy in
1904-05.
o The commander-in-chief, Lord Kitchener, wanted to abolish the position of the military
member in the viceroy’s council and centralise control and command of the army in his hand.
o The British government offered a compromise formula of reducing the powers of the military
members without abolishing the position. In this response viceroy Lord Curzon offered his
resignation.
• In 1905 the position of the Military Member was abolished and the commander-in-chief became
directly responsible to the viceroy’s council. However, for the financial control of army a separate
Military Finance Department was created, with a civilian chain of command.
• During the British period the army deliberately kept at a low level of literacy and insulated from all
political influences. The army was not used frequently for the purpose of policing the country, as
frequent use would reduce its effectiveness and blunt its demonstration impact. The bureaucracy was in
opposition to Indianisation of the command chain in the army as it may leads to political interference.
Q 15.A O
• The objective of the Global Sovereign Debt Roundtable is to build greater common understanding
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among key stakeholders involved in debt restructurings, and work together on the current
shortcomings in debt restructuring processes, both within and outside the Common Framework, and ways
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to address them. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The focus of the Global Sovereign Debt Roundtable is on process and standards, not to discuss country
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cases. The GSDR does not replace existing restructuring mechanisms such as the Common
Framework. Instead, it supports those mechanisms by fostering a greater common understanding on
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concepts and principles, which will in turn facilitate individual restructurings. For example, the
Roundtable has facilitated common understanding on information sharing and the role of MDBs in
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restructuring processes. It has also advanced discussions on the topics of cutoff dates, comparability of
treatment, defining the debt restructuring perimeter, debt service suspension and arrears, issues in
domestic debt restructurings, and the use of state contingent debt instruments, among other topics. Hence
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statement 2 is not correct.

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• The roundtable is co-chaired by the IMF, World Bank and G20 Presidency (currently Brazil) and
comprises official bilateral creditors (both traditional creditors members of the Paris Club and new
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creditors), private creditors and borrowing countries.

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Q 16.C
• Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata,
Hyderabad, Bangalore and others. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned
state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India. There may be
one common act for all the municipal corporations in a state or a separate act for each Municipal
Corporation. Hence option 1 is correct.
• A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for the civilian population in the
cantonment area. It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006–a legislation enacted by
the Central government. It works under the administrative control of the defence ministry of the Central
government. Thus, unlike other four types of urban local bodies, which are created and administered by
the state government, a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the Central
government. Hence option 2 is not correct.
• The Cantonments Act of 2006 was enacted to consolidate and amend the law relating to the administration
of cantonments with a view to impart greater democratisation, improvement of their financial base to
make provisions for developmental activities and for matters connected with them. This Act has repealed
the Cantonments Act of 1924.
• The state legislature pass an act that approves the establishment of town area committees. A town
area committee is an urban body that deals with various tasks required to develop a small town. Town
area committees are administrative bodies for the semi-urban and town areas and are an integral part of
the Indian federal structure. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Town area committees function for an area and a population much smaller than those under municipalities
or municipal corporations. Accordingly, the tasks handled by this polity are more straightforward. A town
area committee has the administrative responsibility to handle civic tasks such as drainage and roads in a
small town. They also manage the structural development of the town with elements like street lighting.
Q 17.C
• The Mughal Empire had a highly centralized, bureaucratic government, most of which was instituted
during the rule of the third Mughal emperor Akbar.
o The most common and perhaps, oldest was called batai or Ghalla-bakhshi. In this system, The
produce was divided between the peasants and the state in a fixed proportion. Hence option (c) is the
correct answer.
o The peasants were allowed to choose between zabti and Batai under certain conditions. Thus, the
choice was given when the crops had been ruined, but the peasants were given the choice of paying in
cash or kind.
o A third system which was widely used in Akbar’s time, was Nasaq. It seems that it meant a rough
calculation of the amount, payable by the peasant based on what he had been paying in the past.
o Akbar was deeply interested in the improvement and extension of cultivation. He was to advance
money by way of loans (taccavi) to the presents for seeds, implements, animals, et cetera, in times of
need and to recover them in easy installments.
Q 18.A
• The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency, otherwise known as JAXA, works together with NASA O
as the two prepare the launch of LignoSat. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o This is the first satellite that is crafted nearly entirely out of wood and it is set to orbit into space this
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summer with the mission of exploring sustainable materials in spaceflight.
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• LignoSat:
o LignoSat is constructed from magnolia wood by the team at Kyoto University and Sumitomo
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Forestry.
o Magnolia wood is a highly sought-after timber, known for its striking colouration and fine grain. The
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heartwood is typically straw to greenish-beige in colour, with dark purple streaks caused by mineral
deposits and light-colored lines.
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o It is the world's first biodegradable satellite that will be made of magnolia wood. Hence
o The team plans to use magnolia wood, which in experiments at the International Space Station (ISS),
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proved to be resilient to cracking in outer space.

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o It measures about a similar size as a coffee mug and the wood was selected due to its resilience and
stability under the conditions of space. This mission will be closely studied to see how the wooden
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structure will withstand in space to apply this information to the potential of wood in future missions.
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o The plan to build the satellite came from the objective of reducing space debris — objects like
discarded rocket stages, defunct satellites, destroyed satellite parts, and even particles like flecks of
paint — that float around in orbit for several kilometers around Earth.
Q 19.C
• Kishangarh School of Painting Widely held among the most stylized of all Rajasthani miniatures,
Kishangarh paintings are distinguished by their exquisite sophistication and distinct facial type
exemplified by arched eyebrows, lotus petal shaped eyes slightly tinged with pink, having drooping
eyelids, a sharp slender nose, and thin lips.
o Sawant Singh composed devotional poetry on Krishna and Radha in Brajbhasha under the pen name
Nagari Das. He is said to have been passionately in love with a young singer, who was accorded the
title ‘Bani Thani’.
o The exaggerated facial type of Kishangarh, which becomes the distinctive and salient stylistic
feature of the Kishangarh School, is believed to have been derived from the attractively sharp
facial features of Bani Thani. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Bundi School of Painting a prolific and distinct school of painting flourished in Bundi in the seventeenth
century, which is remarkable for its unblemished color sense and excellent formal design. Bundi
Ragamala dated 1591, assigned to the earliest and formative phase of Bundi painting, was painted at
Chunar in the reign of Bhoj Singh (1585–1607), who was the Hada Rajput ruler.
o Baramasa is a popular theme of Bundi paintings, it is an atmospheric description of the 12
Months by Keshav Das and is part of the tenth chapter of Kavipriya written for Rai Parbin, a
celebrated courtesan of Orchha. Hence Statement 2 is also correct.
• This series of Bhagvata Purana paintings is one of the greatest achievements of Kangra artists. It is
remarkable for its effortless naturalism and deft and vivid rendering of figures in unusual poses
that crisply portray dramatic scenes. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
o The principal master is believed to have been a descendant of Nainsukh, commanding much of his
skill. Painting in the Kangra region blossomed under the patronage of a remarkable ruler, Raja Sansar
Chand (1775–1823). It is believed that when Prakash Chand of Guler came under grave financial
crisis and could no longer maintain his atelier, his master artist, Manaku, and his sons took service
under Sansar Chand of Kangra.
Q 20.B
• Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two
things– the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. Hence option 1 is
correct.
• The word ‘integrity’ has been added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976).
• Fraternity is derived from the French term fraternité, which means brotherhood, friendship, community,
and collaboration.
• Ambedkar placed a high value on fraternity in all of these ways when creating India’s Constitution. He
defined fraternity as “a sentiment of mutual brotherhood among all Indians—if Indians are considered as
one people.” Because India is such a diverse country, the idea of togetherness — a sense of belonging to
one nation – is even more important.
• Also, the Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to
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promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending
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religious, linguistic, regional, or sectional diversities. Hence option 4 is correct.
•
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Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

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Q 21.C
• A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:
o He should be a citizen of India.
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o He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years or He
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should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or
o He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president. Hence, statement 1 is not
correct.
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• It is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of the
Supreme Court.
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• The President can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of India when:
o The office of Chief Justice of India is vacant; or
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o The Chief Justice of India is temporarily absent; or

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o The Chief Justice of India is unable to perform the duties of his office. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
Q 22.C
• Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special majority of Parliament and also
through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some other articles provide for thc
amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority
of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process).
• Simple Majority: A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of
the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:
o Admission or establishment of new states.
o Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
o Abolition or creation of legislative council in states.
o Second Schedule
o Quoram in Parliament
o Salaries and allowances of the members of the Parliament Hence option 1 is correct
o Rules of procedure in Parliament Hence option 2 is correct
o Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees
o Use of English language in Parliament
o Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court
o Conferment of more jurisdiction to the Supreme Court
o Use of official language, etc. Hence option 3 is correct
• Special Majority: The following provisions can be amended in this way:
o Election of the President and its manner Hence option 4 is not correct
o Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
o Supreme Court and high courts.
o Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states
o Goods and Services Council
o Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
o Representation of states in Parliament.
o Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).
Q 23.C
• Recently, the Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation has inaugurated the umbrella
organization (UO) for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs), the National Urban Cooperative Finance and
Development Corporation Limited (NUCFDC).
• It aims to ensure specialized functions and services to cooperative banks, facilitate communication
between banks and regulators and address challenges faced by Urban Cooperative Banks. A major role for
the umbrella organisation is to prepare small banks for compliance with the Banking Regulation
Act. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The UO shall also play the role of a Self-Regulatory Organization for its members. A Self-Regulatory
Organization (SRO) is a non-governmental organization which has the power to create and enforce stand-O
alone industry and professional regulations and standards. It is meant to protect the investor by
establishing rules, regulations, and set Standard Operating Procedures which promote ethics, equality,
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professionalism, transparency, and code of governance. Hence statement 2 is correct.
S.
• It has received a Certificate of Registration from the Reserve Bank of India to operate as a Non-Banking
Finance Company.
TE
Q 24.D
• India has emerged as the largest consumer and second largest producer of the sugar in the world.
O
Government of India has allowed use of damaged and surplus food grains for the ethanol production. In
FN
sugar session 2021-22, out 394 lakh metric tons (LMT) about 35 LMT is diverted towards ethanol
production. Ethanol production capacity increased more than 2.5 times in last 8 years. Now India
being the third largest country in the world in ethanol production after USA and Brazil. Hence
D

• The Government has introduced blending of ethanol in petrol under the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP)
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Programme with multiple objectives including reducing import dependence, savings in foreign exchange,
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providing boost to domestic agriculture sector and for associated environmental benefits. Under EBP
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programme, Government has fixed the target of 20% blending of ethanol with petrol by 2025. With
continuous effort of government ethanol blending has increased from 1.53% in 2013-14 to 12% in
2022-23.
• As on November 2023, the ethanol production capacity in the country is about 1380 crore litres out
of which about 875 crore litres (63.4%) are molasses based and about 505 crore (36.5%) litres are
grain based. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Government initiatives in promoting ethanol production:
o Administered price mechanism for ethanol production to be procured under EBP
o Direction of oil PSEs to set up bio-refineries
o GST on ethanol has been lowered from 18% to 5%. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
o Allowed conversion of B heavy molasses, sugarcane juice and damaged food grains to ethanol
Q 25.C
• The Levallois technique is a name given by archaeologists to a distinctive type of stone knapping
developed around 250,000 to 300,000 years ago during the Middle Palaeolithic period.
• It is named after 19th-century finds of flint tools in the Levallois-Perret suburb of Paris, France. The
technique was more sophisticated than earlier methods of lithic reduction, involving the striking of lithic
flakes from a prepared lithic core.
• These were much-upgraded tools from the previous less refined and bulkier tools of the previous era. This
also marks the Middle Stone Age in Africa and the Middle Paleolithic Era in Europe and Western Asia.
These tools were found to be used in Europe around the same period by Neanderthals. It was said that
these modern methods did not catch on in India until much later after around 140,000 years ago. However,
stone tools recovered from Attirampakkam, an archaeological site in Tamilnadu, India speak a different
story, of the 7200 stone tools analyzed, these are the Levalloisian technique, which replaces the more
bulky and more primitive stone tools.
Q 26.C
• India hosted the second Voice of Global South Summit (VOGSS). Indian PM unveiled DAKSHIN
(Global South Centre of Excellence) and called for 5 ‘Cs’ for the Global South: Consultation,
Cooperation, Creativity, and Capacity building.
• It has been launched to support development initiatives in Global South countries. Hence, option (c)
is the correct answer.
• It was launched during the 2nd Voice of Global South Summit held in November 2023.
Q 27.A
• Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), is an intergovernmental organisation of states on the rim of
the Indian Ocean. Sri Lanka took charge as Chair this year from Bangladesh, and India is Vice-Chair,
meaning that the troika of IORA is within the South Asian region.
• IORA’s membership includes 23 countries: Australia, Bangladesh, the Comoros, France, India,
Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Madagascar, Malaysia, the Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles,
Singapore, Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, the UAE and Yemen. It also has 11O
dialogue partners: China, Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Germany, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Russia, Turkey, the
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U.K. and the U.S.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• While the IORA was formed in 1997 (then called the Indian Ocean Region-Association for Regional
S.
Cooperation) in Mauritius, its genesis came from a speech Nelson Mandela gave in Delhi in
1995. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
TE
• To become members, States must adhere to the principles and objectives enshrined in the Charter
of the Association. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
O
Q 28.C
• Vedcchi Movement- Gujarat:
FN
o The Vedcchi Movement had its origin in the movement for political independence of India. The
Adivasis lost their right of access to (to prepare their own liquor from) the toddy trees, which resulted
in the growing indebtedness and they became either tenants or landless labourers.
D
o A reform movement started from within the tribal community, preaching prohibition (1915-1920). At
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the juncture of Adivasi socio-reform movement (that witnessed expansion of educational facilities)
suffering a set-back, they came in touch with the Gandhian workers. Thereafter, they got initiated into
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the nation-wide freedom struggle movements.

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o According to Census 1971, the major tribals of the Gujarat state are the Bhils, Bublas, Naikdas and
Dhodias that are mainly scattered across the northwestern parts. Vedchhi is a village in Surat district.
The tribal tract of Surat, where the the Vedcchi Movement started, constituted of major communities
of Dhodhia, Chandhari and Gamits.
o Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Bhagat Movement 1883 - Rajasthan:
o The great famine of 1899-1900 affected tribals disproportionately. From this tragedy emerged a social
reform movement that aimed at the betterment of the marginalised.
o Led by Govind Guru, the Bhagat Movement was initiated to address the challenges faced by the
Bhils. In 1913, along with his followers, Guru reached Mangarh.
o Rumour spread that they were planning to revolt against the princely states. The combined forces of
the British and the princely states bombarded the crowd with bullets and artillery, killing over 1000 -
this came to be knowas the Magadh Massacre.
• Mahishya peasant movement:
o The Mahishya community was reactivated as a result of the Mahishya peasant movement
in Midnapore, Bengal. They were given a clear sense of caste identity, and their caste unity was
bolstered as a consequence.
o The financially successful Mahishyas realized that in order to get what they wanted, they would have
to help the less fortunate members of their caste. In order to prevent them from having to rely on
moneylenders from other castes during the crisis, the Mahishya Banking and Trading Company
gave them loans.
o They developed amazing caste solidarity as a result, which averted any potential conflict between
the high and lower classes within the community.
o This specific quality contributed significantly to the Mahishya population's rise in nationalism
consciousness and participation in national movements like Non-Cooperation Movement.
Q 29.B
• Recent context: ICIMOD recently at its summit meeting said Hindu Kush Himalaya is a ‘biosphere on
the brink’. It is almost too late’ to stem losses in nature and habitat in the HKH region.
• The concept of establishing an institution in the Hindu Kush Himalaya to promote ecologically sound
development was born in 1974 at an international workshop on the development of mountain
environment, hosted by the German Foundation for International Development (GFAR) in Munich,
Germany.
• In 1979, concrete commitments were made to establish the centre during a United Nations Educational,
Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) regional meeting in Kathmandu under the Man and the
Biosphere Programme framework.
• The Government of Nepal offered to host the new institution, and UNESCO, along with the Governments
of Switzerland and Germany, agreed to act as the founding sponsors. Subsequently, the Government of
Nepal and UNESCO signed an agreement providing the legal basis for ICIMOD as an autonomous
international centre in 1981 in Paris, France. O
• Based on the agreement, the statutes for establishing ICIMOD were drafted and approved at the first
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meeting of the interim Board of Governors in Kathmandu in July 1982. Article 1 of this statute specifies
ICIMOD’s Regional Member Countries (RMCs): Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India,
S.
Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• ICIMOD was formally established and inaugurated on 5 December 1983, with its headquarters in
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Lalitpur, Nepal. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Highest governing body is our Board of Governors, which consists of one representative from each of our
O
eight regional member countries and independent members who are nominated by the ICIMOD Support
Group.
FN
• Hindu Kush Himalayan Monitoring and Assessment Programme (HIMAP) is an initiative of

ICIMOD which serves as a platform for long-term collaboration and coordination among a broad
and diverse group of leading researchers, practitioners, and policy specialists working in HKH.
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Hence statement 3 is correct.

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o HIMAP addresses the social, economic, and environmental pillars of sustainable mountain
development and serves as a basis for evidence- based decision-making to safeguard the environment
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and advance people’s well being.

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• The Upper Indus Basin Network (UIBN) is another initiative of ICIMOD and is a voluntary and neutral
knowledge and research network of national and international researchers working in the upper reaches of
the Indus basin.
• The collaborative HKH CryoHub platform supports knowledge generation and exchange, learning, and
networking, to create better connected practitioners and decision makers to enhance work and policies
relevant to the cryosphere in the region.
Q 30.B
• Local Area Banks (LABS) as an idea was conceived in 1996. The idea of LABs was seen as an effort
that encouraged the private sector to participate in small banks – in what was predominantly a State-
led agenda.
• Local Area Banks are such banks that are set up for a small area and operate in that area. Local Area
Banks function just like the other big banks, which means completing the financial requirements, for
example, storing money, lending money, withdrawing money, etc., of the area that’s provided to each
Local Area Bank.
• They are regulated by guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India, which was set up in August 1996. LABs
are required to have a minimum paid-up capital of Rs. 5 crore, with 25% contributed by the promoter
group and the rest by the public. The license of these banks is issued by RBI.
• One of the primary objectives of LABs is to promote financial inclusion by reaching out to unbanked or
underbanked areas. They provide banking services to people who may not have easy access to traditional
banks.
• Functions and Requirements of Local Area Banks:
o They are eligible for financial inclusion in the Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934, and thus enjoy
the status of scheduled banks. They can also facilitate financial transactions for their customers.
o They are required to maintain a minimum capital adequacy ratio of 15%, a statutory liquidity ratio of
25%, and a cash reserve ratio of 3%. Hence option (b) is not correct.
o They are subject to supervision and inspection by the RBI and are required to submit periodic
returns and reports to the RBI.
o LABs mobilize deposits from the local community, providing a secure place for people to save their
money. They are allowed to undertake all types of banking activities within their area of operation,
such as accepting deposits, granting loans, issuing drafts and cheques, providing remittance facilities,
etc.
o They extend credit to individuals, businesses, and institutions within their area of operation. This
includes loans for agricultural activities, small businesses, and housing. They are required to lend at
least 40% of their net bank credit to the priority sector.
o LABs actively engage with the local community through various outreach programs, addressing their
financial needs and fostering trust.
Q 31.D
• The debt-service coverage ratio (DSCR) measures a firm's available cash flow to pay current debt
obligations. The DSCR shows investors and lenders whether a company has enough income to pay its
debts. The ratio is calculated by dividing net operating income by debt service, including principal and
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interest. Hence statement II is correct.
o DSCR = (Profit After Tax + Depreciation - Extraordinary income and expense) ÷ (Debt payable
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within one year + Interest + Preference share dividend)
S.
• According to the simple definition of DSCR, a ratio of greater than 1 implies that a company would
be able to service its debt obligations, including principal as well as interest from accruals generated
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in a year. On the other hand, a ratio of less than 1 might appear unfavourable as it would imply that
surpluses of one year are insufficient to meet all the immediate debt obligations of the company. Hence
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statement I is not correct.

FN
Q 32.A
• The first ever Buildings and Climate Global Forum, organised by the French Government and the
UN Environment Programme (UNEP), concluded with the adoption by representatives of 70
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countries of the Declaration de Chaillot, a foundational document for international cooperation that
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will enable progress towards a rapid, fair, and effective transition of the Buildings and Construction
sector.
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• The Forum, which brought together over 1,400 participants in the French capital, was dedicated to the
decarbonisation and climate resilience of buildings.
o According to the latest Global Status Report for Buildings and Construction, released this week by
UNEP and the Global Alliance for Buildings and Construction (GlobalABC), the building and
construction sector represents over a fifth of global greenhouse gas emissions.
• In the Declaration de Chaillot, the signing ministers recall that with the acceleration of climate change,
buildings will increasingly be exposed to climate-related risks, particularly affecting developing countries
and cities.
• The Déclaration aims to build on the success of the Buildings Breakthrough at COP28 which has
the goal of making “near-zero-emission and resilient buildings the new normal by 2030”. It sets out
several points and priorities around global building decarbonisation efforts.
o The Déclaration sets out a range of policy objectives – including on sustainable planning,
construction and retrofit – across the life cycle of buildings.
• The Declaration de Chaillot will boost cooperation and strengthen the implementation of local, national,
and international climate action in the buildings and construction sector to support the goals of the Paris
Agreement.
Q 33.C
• Antiquities and Art Treasure Act
o Context: Recently, the United States handed over 105 trafficked antiquities to India.
o What are Antiquities?
✓ Antiquity refers to any object or work of art that reflects science, art, literature, religion, customs,
morals, or politics from a bygone era.
✓ This can include coins, sculptures, paintings, epigraphs, and detached articles.
✓ As per, the Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972(AATA), an “antiquity” is an article or
object that is at least 100 years old. Hence statement 1 is correct.
✓ If it is a manuscript or record of any scientific, historical, literary, or aesthetic value, it should be
at least 75 years old. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Art Treasure:
✓ An art treasure is a human work of art, other than antiquity, declared to be a treasure by the
Centre for its artistic value after the artist’s death. For Example: Chola Bronzes
o What is the ‘Provenance’ of antiquity?
✓ Provenance includes the list of all owners from the time the object left its maker’s possession to
the time it was acquired by the current owner. For Example: Tracing the ‘Provenance’ of
Kohinoor Diamond. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 34.B
• The Fowler Commission also refer as the Indian Currency Committee, which was appointed by the
British Colonial Government in 1898. The main objective of the commission was to examine the
currency situation in India and to recommend measures to prevent famine. Until 1892, Indian
currency was based on silver metal. The committee recommended that the official Indian rupee to be O
based on the gold standard. This committee also established the official exchange rate of the rupee at 15
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rupee per British sovereign, or 1 shilling and 4 pence per rupee. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• The revolt of 1857 necessitated reforms in the army organisation of the Colonial Government. So,
S.
the Peel commission was established in 1857 under the chairmanship of Jonathan Peel. Hence pair 2
is not correctly matched.
TE
o It has fixed the number of British and Indian soldiers in India. As per commission:
✓ In the Bengali army, the ratio was set at one to two for Britisher and Indian soldiers
✓ In the Madras and Bombay armies, the ratio was set at two to five for Britisher to Indian soldiers
O
• The mobile artillery was completely controlled by the British and the Indians were strictly prohibited from
FN
joining the officer corps. Later a fiction was created that Indians consisted of martial and non-martial
classes. Also to prevent the emergence of nationalism among the soldiers, communal, caste, tribal and
regional loyalties were encouraged.
D
• The Muddiman commission or the Reforms Enquiry Committee was established in 1924 to
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investigate the workings of the constitution established under the India Act of 1919. The committee
was also tasked with examining the functioning of dyarchy. Due to disagreement between members its
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reports are submitted in two parts. The majority report recommended that a dyarchy had not been
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established, has not been given a fair trial, and so only minor changes are required. The minority report
has declared that the Act of 1919 had failed and need a constitution that has a permanent basis with a
provision for automatic progress in the future. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• The Linlithgow Commission or the Royal Commission on Agriculture was established in 1926 to
examine India’s agricultural and rural economies. It also recommended that the poor-quality Indian
cattle must be improved and it can be done with import of better-quality foreign bulls and use them to
impregnate Indian cows. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
Q 35.D
• The Dutch Company also used its monogram for counter-striking the Persian Abbasid coins, the Indo-
Portuguese 'Tangas', the 'Larins', and the Mughal 'rupees' of the Surat mint. These were converted by the
Dutch into their own coins for trading purposes. Apart from these, the Dutch Company also issued some
coins of the local type in its own name from Pulicat, Nagapatam, Masulipattam, Puducherry and
Cochin. The 'Pagodas' contained a four-armed deity on the obverse side of the coins and a convex
granulated reverse, were also known as 'Porto Novo type'. These coins were issued from Nagapatam or
Masulipattam. A few 'Pagodas' and 'Fanams' were also issued from Pulicat.
• The coins of Dutch in India also bore a female figure which was reckoned as the figure of the Indian
goddess of wealth, Lakshmi. It has also been evidenced that the Dutch people also issued some silver
coins though no specimen has yet been found. As per some references, the coins also contained a Persian
inscription connoting "silver coin for the use of the East India Company of the United Provinces of the
same size and weight as the 'siccas'." It has been said that the Dutch people also issued some coins of the
Mughal type.
• In Surat, there was a coin mint factory of Mughal not Dutch.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 36.B
• The UN-convened Net-Zero Export Credit Agencies Alliance (NZECA) unites leading public
finance institutions committed to delivering net-zero economies by 2050 by supporting the
decarbonisation of trade and facilitating joint action from public and private finance. Hence
• Launched at COP28 by five founding members and three affiliate members in partnership with the
University of Oxford, Future of Climate Cooperation and UNEP FI, this first-of-its-kind net-zero finance
alliance consists of global public finance institutions that together supported an estimated $120 billion in
international trade in 2022.
• NZECA members have committed to:
o Transition all operational and attributable greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from business
activities in alignment with the path to net zero by 2050, or sooner, consistent with a maximum
temperature rise of 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels by 2100. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Publish GHG emission data and evidence annually to showcase action in line with the
commitments. This includes issuing relevant international or national GHG emissions reporting
protocols and climate portfolio alignment methodologies. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Alliance includes a number of affiliate members that wish to commit to the goal of reaching net zero
O
but require some support as they start their journey. They pledge to support the goal of attaining net-zero
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greenhouse gas emissions and advancing a just transition.
S.
Q 37.D
• National Highways & Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd. (NHIDCL): This was approved
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and a new corporate entity, the NHIDCL was set up, under the Ministry of Road Transport and
Highways to exclusively carry out the task of construction/ up-grading/widening of national
O
highways in parts of the country which share international boundaries with neighboring countries
to promote regional connectivity on a sustainable basis.
FN
• The Commission of Railway Safety (CRS) is under the administrative control of the Ministry of
Civil Aviation and is headed by the Chief Commissioner of Railway Safety, with headquarters in
Lucknow. CRS is responsible for matters relating to the safety of rail travel and train operation and
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discharges certain functions as laid down in the Railways Act, 1989which are of an inspectorial,
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investigatory, and advisory nature.

• The Directorate General of Shipping, an attached office of the Ministry of Shipping, was established
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in 1949 to administer the Indian Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 on all matters relating to shipping
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policy and legislation; implementation of various international conventions relating to safety;

prevention of pollution and other mandatory regulations of the international maritime organizations;
promotion of maritime education and training; examination and certification; supervision of other
subordinate offices for their effective functioning, etc.
• Airports Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) is a statutory body constituted under the
Airports Economic Regulatory Authority Act, 2008. AERA is entrusted with the responsibility to
regulate tariffs and other charges for the aeronautical services rendered at airports and to monitor the
performance standards of airports. As an independent economic regulator, AERA aims to create a level
playing field, foster healthy competition amongst all major airports, to encourage investment in airport
facilities, and regulate tariffs for aeronautical services.
Q 38.A
• Parambikulam Tiger Reserve is situated in Chittur taluk of Palakkad district and is about 100 km
away from Palakkad. The challenging hill ranges here are placed at an altitude of 300 to 1438 m above sea
level and the place offers a good climate with temperatures ranging from 15 degree Celsius to 32 degree
Celsius.
• The reserve nestles between the Anamalai hills and the Nelliampathy hills. The enticing hills and
seven postcard-perfect valleys are major attractions for travellers here.
• A large part of the reserve is perched on the Anamalai hills which has peaks offering sweeping views of
the lush greenery below. They are the 1438m-high Karimala Gopuram in the south, 1,290m-
high Pandaravarai in the north, 1120m-high Vengolimala in the east and 1010m-high Puliyarapadam.
o The Vengolimala is frequented by travelers to have a glance of the Nilgir Tahr, an endangered
species.
• The Karimalai offers a spectacular view of the Thunakadavu and Parambikulam reservoirs. Travellers can
climb the watchtower to get a panoramic view of the rivers and lush green valleys.
• The reserve is credited with the first scientifically managed teak plantation in the world which was
later merged with the forest land. Here stands the world's largest and oldest teak tree.
o Named "Kannimara" (corrupt version of Irish name Connemara), the tree is believed to be 350
years old has a height of 40m and girth of 6.4m. It requires four persons with their outstretched hands
to encircle the tree.
• The tribals living in the forests consider the tree as an abode of celestial beings. Worships and special
prayers are conducted here periodically.
• The Western Ghats, Anamalai Sub-Cluster, including all of Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary, has
been declared by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee as a World Heritage Site.
• Periyar National Park, also known as Periyar Tiger Reserve, is in the mountainous Western Ghats of
Kerala, southern India. This wildlife sanctuary is home to tigers and a significant elephant population, as
well as rare lion-tailed macaques, sambar deer, leopards and Indian bison. In the park's north, Periyar
Lake is popular for boat rides.
• The Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR) in Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari District of
Tamil Nadu is one of the protected areas having diverse flora and fauna.This region has got vegetation
types which gradually changes from dry thorn forest to dry deciduous. O
• Nagarahole National Park Situated between the Mysuru plateau in Karnataka and the Nilgiri
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Mountains of Tamil Nadu, Nagarahole is a 640 sq. km. the sanctuary that is home to an abundant variety
of wildlife.
S.

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Q 39.B
• Recently, the Indian government notified the rules for the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA),
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2019, paving the way for its implementation after over 4 years since its passage by Parliament in
December 2019. The CAA, 2019 is an Indian legislation that provides a path to Indian citizenship for
FN
migrants belonging to six religious minorities: Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian from
Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan.
o Under the amendment, migrants who entered India on 31st December 2014, and had suffered
D
“religious persecution or fear or religious persecution" in their country of origin would be made
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eligible for accelerated citizenship. It exempts the members of the six communities from any
criminal case under Foreigners Act, 1946 and Passport Act, 1920 which specify punishment for
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entering the country illegally and staying on expired visas and permits. • Under the Citizenship Act,
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1935, one of the requirements for citizenship by naturalization is that the applicant must have resided
in India during the last 12 months, as well as for 11 of the previous 14 years. The 2019 amendment
relaxes the second requirement from 11 years to 6 years as a specific condition for applicants
belonging to these six religions, and the aforementioned three countries.
o Exemptions:
✓ CAA will not apply to regions mentioned under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian
Constitution, which include Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and
Mizoram. Hence statement 1 is correct.
▪ Additionally, areas covered by the Inner Line Permit system (ILP) are also exempt from
the CAA. The concept of Inner Line separates the tribal-majority hills of the Northeast
from the plains areas. To enter and stay in these areas, an Inner Line Permit (ILP) is needed.
Currently, Inner Line Permit regulates visit of all persons, including Indian citizens, to
Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and Nagaland. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) is seen in Assam as violating the 1985 Assam Accord,
allowing foreign migrants who came to Assam after January 1, 1966, but before March 25, 1971, to
seek citizenship. The cut-off date for citizenship to be extended under the CAA is December 31, 2014.
The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) 2010 might contradict the Assam Accord, as it establishes a
distinct timeline.
Q 40.A
• Bioaccumulation:
o Bioaccumulation is the gradual accumulation of substances, such as pesticides or other
chemicals, in an organism.
o It occurs when an organism absorbs a substance at a rate faster than that at which the substance is lost
or eliminated by catabolism and excretion.
o So the longer the biological half-life of a toxic substance, the greater the risk of chronic poisoning,
even if environmental levels of the toxin are not very high.
o Bioaccumulation affects both aquatic as well as terrestrial ecosystems.
• Biomagnification:
o Biomagnification, also known as bio amplification or biological magnification, is progressive
increase in the concentration of a toxin, such as pesticides, in the tissues of tolerant organisms
at successively higher levels in a food chain.
• This increase can occur as a result of:
o Persistence – where the substance cannot be broken down by environmental processes
o Food chain energetics – where the substance’s concentration increases progressively as it moves up
a food chain
o Low or non-existent rate of internal degradation or excretion of the substance – mainly due to water-
insolubility.
• Biomagnification also affects both the ecosystems i.e. aquatic and terrestrial.
• Both Bioaccumulation and Biomagnification can be reversed under certain conditions.
• Hence option (a) is correct answer.
Q 41.B
O
• The stupa is an important element of Buddhist architecture. The plan of a Stupa generally consists of the
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following parts:
S.
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D
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Image Source: CCRT

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• Vedika: A railing or fence protecting a sacred structure or object of veneration is known as

Vedika. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Medhi: The berm of a stupa is known as Medhi. The berm (medhi) level of the stupa is used for
circumambulation. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Harmika: The square superstructure in the form of a railing on top of the dome of the stupa is known as
Harmika. It encloses the pole Yasti, an important part of the stupa. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
• Pradakshinapatha: A path used for clockwise circumambulation surrounding an image, shrine, or
building is known as Pradakshinapatha. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Torana: The Torana is a gateway. It consists of two upright pillars supporting three architraves that make
an entry space through which the devotee gains access to the stupa. Both of its sides are carved with
decorative motifs of figures, animals, plant life, and architectural details. Hence, pair 5 is not correctly
matched.
Q 42.A
• Radon is a naturally occurring radioactive gas that forms as a result of the decay of radioactive elements
such as uranium, thorium, and radium in rocks, soil, and groundwater. It is odourless, colourless, and
tasteless, making it difficult to detect without specialized equipment.
• Radon is radioactive, meaning it emits radiation as it decays. It belongs to the noble gas group on the
periodic table, which means it doesn't readily react with other substances.
• The primary sources of radon are the decay of uranium and thorium in the Earth's crust. Radon gas can
seep into buildings from the soil beneath them, especially in areas with high concentrations of uranium
and thorium.
• Radon can enter buildings through cracks in foundations, gaps around pipes and cables, floor drains, and
other openings in the building structure. Once inside, it can accumulate to dangerous levels, particularly in
poorly ventilated or tightly sealed spaces.
• Radon exposure poses significant health risks, particularly to the respiratory system. When radon is
inhaled, its radioactive decay products can damage lung tissue, leading to an increased risk of lung cancer.
Radon is considered the second leading cause of lung cancer after smoking and the primary cause of lung
cancer among non-smokers.
• Radon levels can vary widely depending on geological factors and building characteristics. It's essential to
measure radon levels in indoor environments using specialized detectors. If radon levels are found to be
high, mitigation measures such as installing radon ventilation systems or sealing foundation cracks may
be necessary to reduce exposure.
• Many countries have regulations and guidelines in place to limit radon exposure in homes and
workplaces. Public awareness campaigns and educational initiatives help inform people about the risks of
radon and the importance of testing and mitigation.
Q 43.A
• Subak System, Bali, Indonesia: This traditional irrigation system, dating back to the 9th century, uses a
network of canals and dykes to distribute water from mountain springs to rice terraces. The intricate
system relies on cooperation among farmers and a deep understanding of the water cycle. Hence pair 1 is
correctly matched. O
• Qanat System, Iran: This ingenious system, used for centuries in arid regions of Iran, involves a network
C
of underground tunnels that tap into freshwater sources and channel water to surface canals with minimal
evaporation. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
S.
• Fog Harvesting, Morocco: In the arid mountains of Morocco, special nets are used to capture moisture
TE
from fog. The collected water provides a vital source for drinking and irrigation in these dry regions.
Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• Yakhchals (Ice Houses), Iran: These traditional, cone-shaped structures were used to store ice during the
O
winter. Thick walls and wind catchers kept the ice cool well into the summer months, providing a source
of cool water and a way to preserve food.
FN

D
Q 44.B
• Tropical rainforests are characterized by dense vegetation consisting of a wide variety of tree species,
.P
including many species of hardwoods such as mahogany and teak. Bamboo forests are not typically
associated with tropical rainforests, and Giant Pandas are primarily found in temperate bamboo forests in
W
China. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

W

W
• Savannas are characterized by a mix of grasses and scattered trees, with Acacia trees being a common
tree species found in savanna ecosystems. Giraffes are well-adapted to grazing on the grasses found in
savannas. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Taigas, also known as boreal forests, are dominated by coniferous trees such as spruce and fir. Mosses,
sedges and Polar Bears are found in Tundra/Arctic regions. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• Temperate grasslands are characterized by vast expanses of grasses with few trees. Baobab trees are
not typically found in temperate grasslands; they are native to tropical regions of Africa. African
Elephants are associated with savanna ecosystems rather than temperate grasslands. Hence pair 4
Q 45.D
• NATO Plus is a grouping of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and five countries,
including Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Israel, and South Korea. The group works toward boosting
global defence cooperation.
• The term NATO Plus is not an officially recognised or established concept within NATO. It has been used
in discussions and debates regarding the potential expansion of the alliance.
• North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO): • It is a transatlantic alliance of 31 like-minded North
American and European countries.
o It was established by the North Atlantic Treaty (also called the Washington Treaty) on April 4, 1949.
o It aims to protect peace and to guarantee the territorial integrity, political independence and security of
the member states.
o Article Five of the treaty: If an armed attack occurs against one of the member states, it should be
considered an attack against all members, and other members shall assist the attacked member, with
armed forces if necessary.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer
Q 46.A
• Each species within a community exploits the environment and interacts with other species in a particular
manner. Ecologists use the word niche to describe the role of a species in its community. Some niches are
relatively narrow and specialized, as is the niche of bats that feed only on flying insects of a certain size,
or wasps that pollinate only one or a few species of plants. Other niches, however, are much broader, such
as those of bears and humans, both of which forage over an extremely broad range and affect their
ecosystem in diverse ways.
o The fundamental niche is determined by the range of a species’ tolerance to environmental
conditions. Many different physical, abiotic (non-living) factors influence where species live,
including temperature, humidity, soil chemistry, pH, salinity and oxygen levels. For each
species, there is a set of environmental conditions within which it can best survive and
reproduce in, assuming no competition exists. It is under these conditions that the species is best
adapted.
o To understand the tolerance ranges of different species for different environments. If you draw a
graph of how many individuals in a population live under which part of the range of any given factor,
you almost always get a bell-shaped curve. O
C
S.
TE
O
FN
D
.P
W
W

W
• Realised Niche: Species interactions (such as predation, parasitism, mutualisms, etc) may result in a
species not being found throughout its entire fundamental niche. For example, if this fish’s prey species
do not occur in some areas of the fundamental niche, then this fish species may not occur there even
though it could physiologically tolerate these conditions. The realized niche reflects the range of
environmental conditions that a species manages to exploit in nature. The realized niche is smaller than
the fundamental niche because all species are to some degree constrained by biological interactions
such as competition, predation, and disease. Hence both statements-I &II are correct and
statement-II is the correct explanation of statement-I.
• A broader fundamental niche doesn't guarantee a larger population abundance. Due to:
o Competition: Even with a wider range of tolerable conditions, a species might face intense
competition within a specific portion of its fundamental niche. This competition restricts the actual
area where the species thrives, known as the realized niche.
o Specialization vs. Generalization: Species with a narrower fundamental niche, often specialists, can be
highly successful within their specific environment. They may have a smaller realized niche but
achieve high population density due to efficient resource utilization and reduced competition.
Q 47.B
• The Tactical Airborne Platform for Aerial Surveillance-Beyond Horizon-201 (TAPAS BH-201),
formerly known as Rustom-II until 20161, is a medium-altitude long-endurance (MALE)
unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) developed in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Manufacturer and Designer
o Manufacturer: Bharat Electronics, Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
o Designer: Aeronautical Development Establishment. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Specifications
o Operating Altitude: 30,000 ft
o Endurance: 24 hrs
o Range: 250 km
o Payload Capacity: Up to 350 kgs
o Length: 9.5 metres
o Wingspan: 20.6 metres
o Weight: 1800 kg
o Top Speed: 224 km/hr
• The first flight of the UAV took place in November 2016.
• Mission
• TAPAS-BH-201 is designed to perform Intelligence, Surveillance, target acquisition, and
Reconnaissance missions for Indian Armed Forces. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It provides continuous wide area coverage and can identify small targets.
• It is comparable in the same class such as IAI’s HERON.
Q 48.B
• Statutory Grants
o Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial O
assistance and not to every state. Also, different sums may be fixed for different states. Hence
C
o These sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India every year. Hence statement 2 is correct.
S.
o Apart from this general provision, the Constitution also provides for specific grants for promoting the
welfare of the scheduled tribes in a stale or for raising the level of administration of the scheduled
TE
areas in a state including the State of Assam.

o The statutory grants under Article 275 (both general and specific) are given to the states on the
O
recommendation of the Finance Commission. Hence statement 3 is correct.

o Article 282 empowers both the Centre and the states to make any grants for any public purpose, even
FN
if it is not within their respective legislative competence. Under this provision, the Centre makes
grants to the states. "These grants are also known as discretionary grants, the reason being that the
Centre is under no obligation to give these grants and the matter lies within its discretion.
D
.P
W
W

W
Q 49.B
• Speaker Pro-Tem
o As provided by the Constitution, the Speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his/her office immediately
before the first meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the President appoints a
member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro-Tem. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Usually, the seniormost member is selected for this. The President administers oath to the Speaker
Pro-Tem.
o The Speaker Pro-Tem has all the powers of the Speaker. He/she presides over the first sitting of the
newly-elected Lok Sabha. His/ her main duty is to administer oath to the new members. He/she
also enables the House to elect the new Speaker. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o When the new Speaker is elected by the House, the office of the Speaker Pro-Tem ceases to exist.
Hence, this office is a temporare office, existing for a few days.
o The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President and not the Pro-Tem speaker.
Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 50.A
• The Rafah border crossing between the Gaza Strip and Egypt has opened for the first time since the
Israel-Hamas war broke out in early October.
• Rafah Border
o The crossing is the main entrance and exit point to the tiny Palestinian enclave from Egypt. It is
controlled by Egypt.
o It is the southernmost post of exit from Gaza and borders Egypt’s Sinai Peninsula.
o Other two border crossing in GazaThere are only two other border crossings from and into the Gaza
Strip.
✓ One is, Erez, a crossing into Israel in northern Gaza, which is for people.
✓ The other is Kerem Shalom, a solely commercial goods junction with Israel in southern Gaza.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer
Q 51.B
• The most significant historical contribution of the moderates was that they offered an economic critique of
colonialism. Dadabhai Naoroji in “Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India” has linked the situation of
poverty in India with British rule. R C Dutt also wrote about poverty and industries in “The Economic
History of India”.
• They argued that the British Colonialism had changed the older and direct modes of extraction in
favour of more sophisticated and less visible methods of extraction like one-way free trade and
foreign capital investment. This turned India into a supplier of raw materials and a consumer of
manufactured goods from England. They believed that the key to development was industrialisation
with Indian Capital, while investment of foreign capital meant drainage of wealth through
expatriation of profits. Hence option 1 is not correct.
• They are of the view that the high land revenue demands led to land alienation and impoverishment of the
peasantry, while absence of protective tariff in the interest of the British manufacturers hindered Indian
industrialisation and destroyed the handicraft industry. So, the moderates demanded for a protectionist
O
policy for Indian industries.
• Dadabhai Naoroji proposed the ‘Drain theory’ where he argued that direct drainage of wealth took place
C
through the payment of home charges, military charges, and guaranteed interest payment on railways
S.
investment. The burden became heavier because of the falling exchange rates of rupee, higher taxes and
budget deficit.
TE
• So, to rectify this situation moderates recommended to reduce of expenditure and taxes, a
reallocation of military charges, reduction of land revenue assessment, extension of Permanent
O
Settlement to Ryotwari and Mahalwari areas, encouragement of cottage industries, abolition of salt
tax etc. Hence options 2 and 3 are correct.
FN
Q 52.A
• Meteoroids: These rocks still are in space. Meteoroids range in size from dust grains to small asteroids.
Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
D
• Meteors: When meteoroids enter Earth’s atmosphere (or that of another planet, like Mars) at high speed
.P
and burn up, the fireballs or “shooting stars” are called meteors. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Meteorites: When a meteoroid survives a trip through the atmosphere and hits the ground, it’s called a
W
meteorite. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

W

W
Q 53.D
• The Bakhshali Manuscript is an Ancient Indian mathematical manuscript written on “birch bark” which
was found near the village of Bakhshali in 1881 in what was then the North-West Frontier Province of
British India (now Khyber Pakhtunkhwa province, now in Pakistan). The manuscript is written in
Śāradā script and in Gatha dialect (which is a combination of the ancient Indian languages of
Sanskrit and Prakrit). The manuscript is incomplete, with only seventy leaves of birch bark, many of
which are mere scraps. Many remain undiscovered. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The manuscript is a compendium of rules and illustrative examples. Each example is stated as a
problem, the solution is described, and it is verified that the problem has been solved. The sample
problems are in verse and the commentary is in prose associated with calculations. Hence statement
2 is not correct.
• The Bakhshali scroll is sometimes recognized as the oldest Indian mathematical text but its exact
age was widely contested, and researchers used carbon dating to trace it back to the third or fourth
century. The manuscript contains the earliest known Indian use of a zero symbol. There are other
contenders for the title of the oldest mathematical text in India, such as the Sulbasutras. The most
important of these documents are the Baudhayana Sulbasutra written about 800 BC; Manava Sulbasutra
written about 750 BC; the Apastamba Sulbasutra written about 600 BC.; and Katyayana Sulbasutra
written about 200 BC. Pythagoras's theorem. There are many examples of Pythagorean triples in the
Sulbasutras. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 54.D
• Because of the small size of colloidal particles, we cannot see them with the naked eye. But these particles
can easily scatter a beam of visible light. This scattering of a beam of light is called the Tyndall effect
after the name of the scientist who discovered this effect. Thus, the Tyndall effect refers to the
phenomenon where light is scattered by colloidal particles or fine suspensions in a transparent
medium, such as a gas, liquid, or solid.
• The Tyndall effect can be observed when sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest. In the
forest, mist contains tiny droplets of water, which act as particles of colloid dispersed in the air.
• The Tyndall effect can also be observed when a fine beam of light enters a room through a small hole.
This happens due to the scattering of light by the particles of dust and smoke in the air.
• Brownian motion is the random motion of particles suspended in a medium. This motion pattern
typically consists of random fluctuations in a particle's position inside a fluid sub-domain, followed by a
relocation to another sub-domain.
• Compton scattering is the quantum theory of high-frequency photons scattering following an interaction
with a charged particle, usually an electron. Specifically, when the photon hits electrons, it releases
loosely bound electrons from the outer valence shells of atoms or molecules.
• Photoelectric effect: The photoelectric effect is the emission of electrons from a material caused by
electromagnetic radiation. Electrons emitted in this manner are called photoelectrons.
• ‘Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.’
Q 55.B
• Maach: O
o It is the traditional theatre form of Madhya Pradesh. The term Maach is used for the stage itself as
C
also for the play. In this theatre, form songs are given prominence in between the dialogues. The term
for dialogue in this form is bol and rhyme in narration is termed vanag. The tunes of this theatre form
S.
are known as rangat. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

• Powada:
TE
o It is the traditional folk art from Maharashtra. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
o The word Powada itself means “the narration of a story in glorious terms”. The narratives are always
O
odes in praise of an individual hero or an incident or place. The chief narrator is known as the Shahir
who plays the duff to keep the rhythm.
FN
• Ojapali:
o It is a famous folk dance from the state of Assam. It is considered to be one of the oldest art forms
D
of Assam, and is believed to have evolved from the Kathakata tradition. Hence pair 2 is not
correctly matched.
.P
o It is associated with the festival of Manasha or the Serpent Goddess. The only instrument used
in Ojapali is the Khutitaal, a palm-sized cymbal. Performers wear long-sleeved white gowns, silver
W
jewelry, and Nupur, which are tiny metallic percussions played by body vibrations.
W

W
Q 56.C
• Xeriscaping is the practice of designing landscapes to reduce or eliminate the need for irrigation.
This means xeriscaped landscapes need little or no water beyond what the natural climate provides.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Xeriscaping has become widely popular in some areas because of its environmental and financial benefits.
The most important environmental aspect of xeriscaping is choosing vegetation that is appropriate for the
climate.
• Vegetation that thrives with little added irrigation is called drought-tolerant vegetation. Xeriscaping often
means replacing grassy lawns with soil, rocks, mulch, and drought-tolerant native plant species.
Trees such as myrtles and flowers such as daffodils are drought-tolerant plants. Plants that have especially
adapted to arid climates are called xerophytes. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Another main component of xeriscaping is installing efficient irrigation methods. Drips and soaker hoses
direct water directly to the base of the plant and prevent the water evaporation that sprinklers allow.
o More efficient irrigation is also achieved when types of plants with similar water needs are
grouped together. A xeriscaped landscape needs less maintenance than an area landscaped with grass
and water-intensive plants.
o Hence the practice of water intensive plants being planted side by side with drought resistant
plants to optimize water utilization is not adopted in xeriscaping.
• The most common example of a xeriscape-friendly plant is the cactus, which has hundreds of different
species that are native to North and South America.
o Cacti have evolved many physical adaptations that conserve water. For example, their prickly spines,
the cactus version of leaves, protect the plants from water-seeking animals. Their large, round stems
have thickened to store large amounts of water. Their waxy skin reduces water lost to evaporation.
• Cacti are far from the only plants appropriate for xeriscaping. Other drought-resistant plants include
agave, juniper, and lavender. Many herbs and spices are used in xeriscaping, such as thyme, sage, and
oregano.
Q 57.C
• Atal Pension Yojana (APY), a pension scheme for citizens of India is focused on the unorganized
sector workers. Under the APY, guaranteed minimum pension of Rs. 1,000/- or 2,000/- or 3,000/- or
4,000 or 5,000/- per month will be given at the age of 60 years depending on the contributions by the
subscribers. Any Citizen of India can join APY scheme. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Following are the eligibility criteria:
o The age of the subscriber should be between 18 - 40 years. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o He/She should have a savings bank account/ post office savings bank account.
• Implementing agency: Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) under the
National Pension System (NPS).
O
C
S.
TE
O
FN
• Hence statement 3 is correct.

D
.P
W
W

W
Q 58.B
• In an Emission Control Area, the limit for sulphur in fuel oil used on board ships is 0.10% mass by mass
(m/m), while outside these areas the limit is 0.50% m/m.
• During International Maritime Organization, Marine Environment Protection Committee (MEPC)
79, a resolution was approved designating the Mediterranean Sea as an Emission Control Area for
sulphur oxides and particulates under MARPOL Annex VI.
o The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) is the main
international convention covering prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships from
operational or accidental causes.
o The MARPOL Convention was adopted on 2 November 1973 at IMO.
• As such, from 1 May 2025, when operating in the Mediterranean Sea, the sulphur content of the fuel used
on board shall not exceed 0.10%, unless using an exhaust gas cleaning system (EGCS) ensuring an
equivalent SOx emission level.
• This is believed to significantly reduce ambient levels of air pollution in the Mediterranean Sea and in the
Mediterranean coastal states, providing benefits to human health and the environment.
Q 59.A
• Precipitation, in meteorological terms, refers to any form of water, whether liquid or solid, that falls
from the atmosphere and reaches the Earth's surface. It plays a crucial role in the Earth's water
cycle, replenishing freshwater sources and sustaining ecosystems. The type of precipitation that falls
to the ground is primarily determined by the atmospheric conditions present at different altitudes and the
temperature profile within the clouds. The primary factor that governs the type of precipitation is the
temperature, specifically the freezing level in the atmosphere(cloud level).
• The freezing level refers to the altitude at which the temperature drops low enough for water vapor to
condense and freeze into ice crystals or snowflakes. Below the freezing level, the air temperature is
cold enough for precipitation to fall as snow. As snowflakes descend through the atmosphere, they may
encounter layers of warmer air. If these warmer layers are thick enough, the snowflakes may partially or
completely melt, resulting in rain reaching the ground instead of snow. This process is known as melting
or sleet.
• In contrast, if the entire atmospheric column is above freezing, precipitation falls as rain. Raindrops
form when water vapor condenses around tiny particles, such as dust or aerosols, in the atmosphere. The
size of raindrops can vary depending on factors like air temperature, humidity, and the intensity of
atmospheric convection.
• Additionally, in certain conditions where the temperature difference between the surface and the
upper atmosphere is significant, freezing rain or sleet can occur. Freezing rain forms when raindrops
encounter a shallow layer of subfreezing air near the surface, causing them to freeze upon contact with the
ground or objects, creating a glaze of ice. Sleet occurs when raindrops partially freeze into ice pellets
before reaching the ground, resulting in a mixture of rain and ice.
• In summary, the primary factor that determines the type of precipitation that falls to the ground is the
temperature profile in the atmosphere(cloud level), particularly the freezing level. This temperature profile
influences whether precipitation falls as snow, rain, freezing rain, or sleet, with variations depending on
O
atmospheric conditions such as humidity, air pressure, and atmospheric stability.
C
S.
Q 60.B
• Insolation refers to incoming solar radiation from the Sun that reaches the Earth's surface.
TE
• It primarily consists of shortwave solar radiation, which is composed of visible light, ultraviolet
(UV) radiation, and a small amount of near-infrared radiation. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
O
• Insolation is a key driver of Earth's climate and weather patterns, influencing factors such as temperature,
atmospheric circulation, and the hydrological cycle.
FN
• Factors such as the angle of incidence of sunlight, atmospheric conditions (e.g., clouds, aerosols), and
surface characteristics (e.g., albedo) affect the amount of insolation absorbed and reflected by the Earth's
D
surface.
• Terrestrial radiation refers to the longwave radiation emitted by the Earth's surface as it cools
.P
down after being heated by incoming solar radiation. It's also known as terrestrial or outgoing
longwave radiation.
W
W

W
• The Earth's surface absorbs some of the incoming insolation, while the rest is reflected back into space.
The amount absorbed and reflected depends on various factors, including surface characteristics, such as
albedo (reflectivity), and atmospheric conditions.
• The amount of insolation absorbed by the earth is more than the amount of insolation reflected
directly by it. About 71% of the sunlight that reaches the Earth is absorbed by its surface and
atmosphere. The remaining portion is reflected back to space. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 61.D
• Closure Motion: It is a motion moved by a member to cut short the debate on a matter before the House.
If the motion is approved by the House, debate is stopped forth with and the matter is put to vote. There
are four kinds of closure motions:
o Simple Closure: It is one when a member moves that the 'matter having been sufficiently discussed be
now put to vote'. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
o Closure by Compartments: In this case, the clauses of a bill or a lengthy resolution are grouped into
parts before the commencement of the debate. The debate covers the part as a whole and the entire
part is put to vote. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
o Kangaroo Closure: Under this type, only important clauses are taken up for debate and voting and the
intervening clauses are skipped over and taken as passed. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
o Guillotine Closure: It is one when the undiscussed clauses of a bill or a resolution are also put to vote
along with the discussed ones due to want of time (as the time allotted for the discussion is
over). Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
Q 62.C
• The Āmuktamālyada of the sixteenth-century Vijayanagara monarch Kṛiṣṇadevarāya is a poetic O
masterpiece of the highest order. It stands out as a landmark in Telugu literary history, not only for its
C
poetic beauty but also because of the unique religious and political themes embedded within its central
narrative. Unlike most contemporaneous Telugu poets who based their works on Sanskrit purāṇas or other
S.
Indo-Aryan mythological sources, Kṛiṣṇadevarāya turned to the southern Tamil tradition for his
inspiration.
TE
• It is a Telugu epic poem composed by Krishnadevaraya. Amuktamalyada describes the story of the
wedding of the Hindu Lord Ranganayaka an avatar of Lord Vishnu and Goda Devi also known as
O
Andal. It narrates several episodes that are relevant in the context of the propagation of the Vaishnava
theology.
FN

D
Q 63.B
• A stock variable represents a quantity existing at a specific point in time. It measures the level or amount
.P
of something accumulated over time. Examples of stock variables include wealth, population, inventory,
debt, and capital stock.
W
W

W
• Flow Variable represents a quantity that changes over time. It measures the rate of something happening
or the amount of something passing through a system within a specific period. Examples of flow variables
include Income, expenditure, production, sales, and population growth.
Q 64.D
• Generally, scientists agree that an extinction event is occurring when species vanish much faster than they
are replaced. A mass extinction event is usually defined as losing 75% of the world's species in a short
period of geological time — less than 2.8 million years. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Permian–Triassic extinction (≈251 Mya) was by far the worst of the previous five mass
extinctions; 95% of all species (marine as well as terrestrial) were lost, including 53% of marine families,
84% of marine genera, and 70% of land plants, insects, and vertebrates.
• Unlike previous extinction events caused by natural phenomena, the sixth mass extinction is driven
by human activity, primarily (though not limited to) the unsustainable use of land, water and energy use,
and climate change. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Currently, the species extinction rate is estimated between 1,000 and 10,000 times higher than natural
extinction rates—the rate of species extinctions that would occur if we humans were not around. While
extinctions are a normal and expected part of the evolutionary process, the current rates of species
population decline and species extinction are high enough to threaten important ecological functions that
support human life on Earth, such as a stable climate, predictable regional precipitation patterns, and
productive farmland and fisheries.
• This mass extinction is transforming the whole biosphere, possibly into a state in which it may be
impossible for our current civilisation to persist,” the researchers wrote in their paper. Losing a genus
could impact the functioning of an entire ecosystem. For example, when the passenger pigeons went
extinct, it narrowed human diets in northeastern North America and altered ecosystem structure over wide
areas. It also triggered population declines of cougars and wolves, leading to shifts in rodent communities.
Q 65.C
• Under the Green Energy Open Access Rules, 2022 (GOAR), Green Open Access is allowed to any
consumer and the limit of Open Access Transactions has been reduced from 1 MW to 100 kW for green
energy, to enable small consumers also to purchase renewable power through open access. Hence
• The Ministry of Power has already notified Grid Controller of India Limited as the Central Nodal
Agency that operates the Green Open Access Registry (GOAR) portal (https://greenopenaccess.in) which
is the single window portal to register and apply for the Green Energy Open Access. All information
related to approvals, rejections, revisions, curtailment, etc. is made available to the respective participants
through the web-based GOAR portal which acts as a central registry. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• As per the Electricity Act 2003, the tariff is determined by the Appropriate Commission. Accordingly,
the tariff for the green energy shall be determined by the Appropriate Commission and shall comprise of
the average pooled power purchase cost of the renewable energy, cross-subsidy charges, if any, and
service charges covering the prudent cost of the distribution licensee for providing green energy to the
consumers. Hence statement 3 is correct. O
• The salient features of the Rules are as under:
o The Green Open access is allowed to any consumer and the limit of Open Access Transaction has
C
been reduced from 1 MW to 100 kW for green energy, to enable small consumers also to purchase
S.
renewable power through open access.

o Provide certainty on open access charges to be levied on Green Energy Open Access Consumers
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which includes transmission charges, wheeling charges, cross-subsidy surcharge and standby charges.
o Cap on increasing of cross-subsidy surcharge as well as the removal of additional surcharge, not
only incentivise the consumers to go green but also address the issues that have hindered the growth
O
of open access in India.

o Transparency in the approval process of the open access application. Approval to be granted in 15
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days or else it will be deemed to have been approved subject to fulfilment of technical requirements.
It will be through a national portal.
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o Determination of green tariff: The tariff for the green energy shall be determined separately by
the Appropriate Commission, which shall comprise of the average pooled power purchase cost of
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the renewable energy, cross-subsidy charges if any, and service charges covering the prudent cost of
the distribution licensee for providing the green energy to the consumers.
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o The Rules will help to streamlining the overall approval process for granting Open Access including
timely approval, to improve predictability of cash flows for renewable power producers. It will also
bring Uniformity in the application procedure.
o Banking of surplus green energy with the distribution licensee mandated.
o There shall be a uniform renewable purchase obligation, on all obligated entities in area of a
distribution licensees. It has also included the Green Hydrogen/Green Ammonia for fulfilment of its
RPO.
o Consumers will be given the green certificates if they consume green power.
Cross subsidy surcharge and additional surcharge shall not be applicable if green energy is utilized for
production of green hydrogen and green ammonia
Q 66.B
• The 22nd Law Commission headed by Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi recommended that new legislation be
introduced to protect trade secrets with exceptions relating to whistleblower protection, compulsory
licensing, government use, and public interest.
• The concept of trade secrets first came to the limelight in 1977 when the government asked Coca-Cola to
hand over the formula for its cola drink, which led to the company exiting India to re-enter only a decade
later.
• Trade secrets are intellectual property rights on confidential information that may be sold or
licensed. They derive their value from being kept secret. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• However, unlike other forms of intellectual property, which are limited in duration, trade secrets can be
protected indefinitely. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Currently, India lacks a specific law for the protection of trade secrets. Instead, they are safeguarded
under the general laws governing contracts, common law, criminal law, and principles of breach of
confidence and equity. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• For determining what constitutes a trade secret the commission has suggested an approach followed under
the World Trade Organisation (WTO) Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement
where the triple criteria of secrecy, commercial value and reasonable steps is specified as the qualifying
criteria.
• TRIPS deals with copyright and related rights, trademarks, geographical indications, industrial designs,
patents, layout-designs of integrated circuits and undisclosed information.
Q 67.B
• Zero Shadow Day is a celestial phenomenon that occurs twice a year for places between +23.5 and -
23.5 degrees latitude.
• On these days, the Sun is directly overhead at noon, resulting in objects casting no shadows for a
brief period of time. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• This happens once during Uttarayan and once during Dakshinayan.
• The dates for Zero Shadow Day vary depending on the location on Earth. For instance, in 2023, Zero
Shadow Day was celebrated on Tuesday, April 25, and August 18, 2023.
o Zero Shadow Day can vary depending on the geographic location of an observer. O
o Since it is influenced by the tilt of the Earth's axis and the latitude of the observer's position, different
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places on Earth will experience Zero Shadow Day at different times of the year.
o Generally, locations closer to the equator are more likely to experience Zero Shadow Day compared
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to regions farther away from the equator. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Zero Shadow Day is not directly related to the winter solstice. Instead, it occurs due to the specific
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position of the Sun relative to a particular location on Earth, resulting in the absence of shadows. It
is a natural phenomenon rather than a celebration. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
O
• This intriguing celestial phenomenon provides a unique opportunity to observe the movement and
position of the Sun in relation to the Earth. It’s a great way to engage with astronomy and understand
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the Earth’s rotation and revolution around the Sun.

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Q 68.C
• India's first Reusable Launch Vehicle, this is ISRO's very own 'Pushpak' viman. ISRO has
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successfully carried out the landing mission of its Reusable Launch Vehicle named 'Pushpak'.
Inspired by the Ramayana's 'pushpak viman'.
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• The winged vehicle, called Pushpak, was lifted by an Indian Airforce Chinook helicopter and was
released from 4.5 km altitude. After release at a distance of 4km from the runway, Pushpak autonomously
approached the runway along with cross-range corrections. It landed precisely on the runway and came to
a halt using its brake parachute, landing gear brakes and nose wheel steering system.
• It is India's futuristic Reusable Launch Vehicle, where the most expensive part, the upper stage, which
houses all the expensive electronics, is made reusable by bringing it back safely back to Earth. Later, it
could even do refueling of in-orbit satellites or retrieving satellites from orbit for refurbishment. India
seeks to minimise space debris and Pushpak is one step towards that as well.
Q 69.A
• UN Commission for Social Development (CSocD), formerly known as the Social Commission, is a
functional commission of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations. It has
been in existence since the very inception of the United Nations, advising ECOSOC and governments on
a wide range of social policy issues and from the social perspective of development. Its primary purpose is
to advance social development and formulate policies and recommendations to address global social
issues. It focuses on topics such as poverty eradication, social inclusion, and the promotion of equitable
and sustainable development. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The United Nations Commission for Social Development (UNCSocD) typically consists of
representatives from various member states of the United Nations (UN). Originally 18, membership
has been increased several times, most recently in 1996, and now stands at 46. Members are elected by
ECOSOC based on equitable geographical distribution for four-year terms. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• On February 15, 2023, India was elected as the Chair of the 62nd Session of the Commission for Social
Development, marking a momentous occasion, as it is the first time since 1975 that India has held this
esteemed position within the Commission for Social Development. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 70.D
• Recently, Japan lodged a protest with South Korea over military drills it conducted on disputed Dokdo/
Takeshima islands.
• It is a disputed island between South Korea and Japan. Currently, it is under the control of South
Korea.
• It is situated in the middle of the Sea of Japan.
• It is lying almost equidistant between the Korean Peninsula and Japan.
• It is called Dokdo in South Korea and Takeshima in Japan.
• It has also been known as the Liancourt Rocks, named by French whalers after their ship in 1849.
Q 71.A
• Tarangamel - Goa:
o Tarangamel is a vibrant folk dance from Goa, typically performed during the monsoon season. It
depicts scenes of sowing and harvesting, celebrating the bounty of nature. Female dancers dressed inO
colorful sarees perform rhythmic movements with clap sticks (called 'taal'). Hence pair 1 is correctly
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matched.
• Thang Ta - Manipur:
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o Thang Ta is a martial art dance form originating in Manipur. It showcases mock-combat techniques
using swords and shields, traditionally practiced by men. In recent times, women have also embraced
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this energetic dance form. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.

• Butta Bommalu- Andhra Pradesh:
O
o Butta Bommalu is another folk dance performed to celebrate happiness during various festivals. This
dance form belongs to the Tanuku village in the East Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh. “Butta
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Bommalu” means basket toys made of wood, dry grass, and cow dung. Hence pair 3 is not correctly
matched.
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Q 72.A
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• The Sahajiya movement was closely associated with the Vaishnavism sect of Hinduism. It emerged as
a distinctive tradition within the broader Bhakti movement, which advocated personal devotion to a deity
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as the path to salvation. Sahaja (Sanskrit: “easy” or “natural”) as a system of worship was prevalent in the
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Tantric traditions common to both Hinduism and Buddhism in Bengal as early as the 8th–9th centuries.
The divine romance of Krishna and Radha was celebrated by the poets Jayadeva (12th century),
Chandidas, and Vidyapati (mid-15th century), and parallels between human love and divine love were
further explored by Chaitanya, a 15th–16th-century mystic, and his followers. The Vaishnava-Sahajiya
movement developed from the 17th century onward as a synthesis of these various traditions.
• The Sahajiya movement integrated sensual and emotional experiences as means of spiritual development
and expression of devotion to Krishna. This included using songs, dances, and other expressive forms to
evoke religious feelings.
• Unlike mainstream Vaishnavism which might emphasize temple worship and ceremonial practices,
Sahajiyas sought a more direct and personal experience of the divine, often through metaphorical and
sometimes literal interpretations of the romantic and devotional aspects of the relationship between Radha
and Krishna.
Q 73.D
• Recent data from Asia and Europe showed the Japanese and UK economies had slipped into a recession.
• A recession is defined as two consecutive quarters of year-on-year (YoY) contraction in a country's
Gross Domestic Product (GDP). As such, both Japan and the UK have seen their GDP shrink on a YoY
basis in July-September 2023 and October-December 2023. Hence statement II is correct.
• This definition of recession is widely called a 'technical recession' and is used most often in the
media. Using this definition, India too was in a recession in the first half of 2020-21, when the GDP
contracted by 23.4 percent in April-June 2020 and by 5.7 percent in July-September 2020 as the
economy ground to a halt due to the nationwide lockdown enforced to stop the spread of the
coronavirus. Hence statement I is not correct.
Q 74.C
• The Singh Sabha Movement was a Sikh movement that began in the 1870s in Punjab. It began as a
defense against the proselytising activities of Christian and Arya samaj. After the annexation of the
Punjab by the British in 1849, Christian missionaries increased their activities in central Punjab. Dilip
Singh, the last ruler, converted to Christianity in 1853. The Singh Sabha leaders undertook a major
effort to make Sikhs aware about correct doctrine and practices. Hence option 2 is correct.
• It was not just a religious reformist movement rather work for the secular interest of the
people. During the British Colonial period, Sikhs faced discrimination in education and
employment. The British administration favoured other communities leading to a sense of
marginalisation among Sikhs. They also compared the degraded condition of the Sikhs to the past
suffering under the Mughals while referring to the prosperous days of Ranjit Singh’s rule in Punjab. Sikh
Sabha sought to address this by promoting the Punjabi language in Gurumukhi script. They also sought
the British’s support for promoting modern education. The Khalsa college was founded in Amritsar in
1892. Hence option 1 is correct.
• The Gurudwaras of Amritsar, Nankana Sahib and many other places were controlled by corrupt
hereditary mahants, who allowed immoral activities within the holy place. They were supported O
and protected by the British Government. These priests would not accept Karah Prasad offered by the
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‘untouchable’ or by Sikhs who mingled with them. The mahant allowed idol worship and other religious
practices which are prohibited in the gurudwaras. The Singh Sabha movement generated awareness about
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such immoral management and demanded for a democratic management. After lot of public pressure, the
Britishers ended their protection and passed the Gurudwara Act of 1925. The Shiromani Gurudwara
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Parbandakh Committee or SGPC was given authority to oversee proper management in keeping
the Gurdwara pure. Hence option 3 is correct.
• The Anjuman-i-Punjab was a literary society founded in Lahore in 1865 by Dr. Gottlieb Wilhelm
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Leitner. This voluntary society aimed to promote the development of Punjabi literature written in the
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Gurmukhi script, as well as dissemination of knowledge through the vernacular languages. The reformist
activities of the Anjuman-i-Punjab were favoured by the Singh Sabha Movement. Hence option 4 is
not correct.
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Q 75.D
• After 1857, the Crown has assumed the direct responsibility and the Queen adopted the title of
“Kaiser-i-Hind”. With this the paramount supremacy of the Crown was established. The Government of
India exercised complete and undisputed control in international affairs. As per the Buttler Committee,
1927 – for the purpose of international relations, state territory is in the same position as British territory.
• As per the recommendation of the Montford Reforms, a Chamber of Prince or Narendra Mandal
was set up as a consultative and advisory body having no say in the internal affairs of individual
states. It also has no authority to discuss matters concerning existing rights and freedoms. Hence
• The burden of the land tax was usually heavier in princely states than in British India and there was
usually much less of the rule of law and civil liberties in these states. So, the people in these Indian States
were organised themselves in praja mandals movement. In 1920 at Nagpur session the Indian National
Congress passed a resolution calling upon the princes to grant full responsible government in their states.
The congress allowing residents of the states to become members of the congress but made it clear that
they could not initiate political activities in the states in the name of Congress but only in their individual
capacity. Even in the Haripura session in 1938, the Congress had reiterated its policy that
movements in the states should not be launched in the name of Congress but should rely on their
own individual capacity. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• In 1939 Gandhiji supported a shift in the stand of Congress towards Indian States. So, the Congress at
Tripuri in March 1939 passed a resolution with a complete removal of restraints which the Congress
imposed upon itself. Later in 1939, Jawaharlal Nehru was elected as president of the All-India States’
People’s All India Trade Union Congress (AISPC). This resulted in the fusion of the movements in
Princely India and British India.
• The Indian Independence Act of 1947 proclaimed the lapse of the British Paramountcy over the
Indian princely states and treaty relationship with the tribal area from August 15, 1947. It also
provided the freedom to the princely states either to join the Dominion of India or Pakistan or to remain
independent.
• At the time of independence around 565 princely states existed in India. Sardar Patel along with
the V P Menon appealed to the patriotic feeling of the rulers along with leveraging Prajamandal
Movement in princely states, to join the Indian dominion in matters of defence, communication and
external affairs- these three areas has been part of the paramountcy of the Crown and over which these
states had no control.
• All the princely states were asked to sign two agreements – the instrument of accession and merger
agreement. The instrument of accession would accede a state to India with only matter concerning
defence, foreign affairs and communication whereas with the signing of the merger agreement all
authority of the state was handed over to the Indian government. The privy purse was an important
part of the merger agreement to convince rulers to accede their authority. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
o The privy purse was annual tax-free payment paid to rulers of princely state and their
successors from the Consolidated Fund of India. It was a constitutional right of ruler under
article 291 of the Indian Constitution. It was intended to cover all the expenses of the rulers
including those for religious and ceremonial purposes. O
o Apart from privy purse they enjoyed various other privileges and recognition under article 362
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of the Indian Constitution. As per this article, the President of India officially recognised the prince
of a state as the ruler. As per the privileges, the Ruler had official titles, could have official vehicles,
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could host dignitaries. In 1971, 26th Constitutional Amendment Act was passed to abolish the
privileges and privy purse of all the princely states. This amendment has omitted article 291 and
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262 of the Indian Constitution.

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Q 76.A
• Sites from north to south:

o Manda: Manda is considered to be the most northern site belonging to the Indus Valley Civilization.
It was excavated by Archaeological Survey of India during 1976-77 by J. P. Joshi. Manda is located
on the right bank of Chenab River in the foothills of Pir Panjal Range. It is about 28 km northwest of
Jammu in Jammu District of Jammu and Kashmir.
o Mitathal: Mitathal is a village and Indus Valley civilization (IVC) Archaeological sites in the
Bhiwani tehsil of the Bhiwani district in the Indian state of Haryana. The archaeological site dates to
the Sothi-Siswal phase of the Indus Valley civilisation. It was excavated in 1968 by the archaeologist,
Suraj Bhan.
o Sutkagendor: Located near the Makran coast close to the Pakistan-Iran border in Baluchistan, this
Harappan town was surrounded by a defensive walled enclosure. Its position was that of a trading post
near sea port.
o Rangpur: Rangpur is an ancient archaeological site in Surendranagar district near Vanala on
Saurashtra peninsula in Gujarat, western India. Lying on the tip between the Gulf of Khambhat and
Gulf of Kutch, it belongs to the period of the Indus Valley civilization, and lies to the northwest of the
larger site of Lothal.
Q 77.C
• Labour Bureau, established in 1920, is an attached office under the Ministry of Labour &
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Employment and is responsible for the collection, collation and dissemination of labour, employment and
C
price statistics. Besides, it is also a major source of primary data pertaining to several important economic
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indicators.
• Besides, it is also a major source of primary data pertaining to several important economic indicators.
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These include the Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial Workers, Agricultural and Rural
Labourers, Wage Rate Indices, wages, earnings, absenteeism, labour turnover, industrial relations, socio-
economic conditions of workers in the organized and unorganized sectors of industry, etc.
O
• The Bureau also collects administrative statistics under the 11 Labour Acts. With the formulation of the
four Labour Codes, the Bureau is also proposed to be designated as the nodal agency for the
FN
collection of statistical returns under all four Labour Codes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The dearness allowance for employees and pensioners is estimated on the basis of the latest
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Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers, which is released by the Labour Bureau every
month. DA is provided to government employees and pensioners factoring in the rising prices and the
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cost of living. Hence statement 2 is correct.

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Q 78.B
• Crude petroleum occurs in sedimentary rocks of the tertiary period. Petroleum is not distributed evenly
around the world. More than half of the world’s proven oil reserves are located in the Middle East.
• Super-giant is an oilfield with 5 billion or more barrels of ultimately recoverable oil, and world-giant is an
oilfield with 500 million to 5 billion barrels of ultimately recoverable oil. The Arabian-Iranian
sedimentary basin in the Persian Gulf region contains two- thirds of fewer than 40 super-giants
worldwide.
• In 1948 Al-Ghawar, world largest conventional onshore super-giant oilfield was discovered in the
northeastern part of Saudi Arabia. It is also one of the biggest sources of associated gas. Hence pair 1
o Upper Zakum offshore oilfield is located off the coast of Abu Dhabi, UAE. It has proven crude oil
reserve of 50 billion barrels. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Burgan field is located in the southeastern desert of Kuwait. Along with closely located Magwa and
Ahmadi field, it is called as Great Burgan. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• Bolivar coast field is located on the eastern margin of Lake Maracaibo, Venezuela. It is the largest oil
field in South America. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
• Major oil fields of the world are-
o Saudi Arabia – Safaniya, Manifa oilfield
o Iran – Ferdows field
o Brazil – Sugar Loaf field, Lula oilfield
o Russia – Yenisey Khatanga
o Mexico – Ku-Maloob-Zaap
o Azerbaijan - Azeri-Chirag-Guneshli
o Kazakhstan - Kashgan
• Major oil fields of the India are-
o Assam – Digboi field, Noonamati
o Gujarat – Ankleshwar, Barkol, Aliabet in gulf of Khambhat
o Maharashtra – Mumbai High, Bassein
o Eastern coast – Krishna-Godavari basin, Cauvery basin
o Rajasthan - Barmer
Q 79.C
• The GRAPES-3 observatory located in Ooty, India at an altitude of 2200m meter is designed to study the
origin, acceleration and propagation of cosmic rays through the measurement of extensive air showers,
induced by primary cosmic rays or gamma rays entering the Earth’s atmosphere in tera to peta
electronvolt energies. It also studies solar and thunderstorm phenomena using cosmic ray muons.
GRAPES-3 employs an array of plastic scintillator detectors and a large area muon detector based on
proportional counters. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Gamma Ray Astronomy at PeV EnergieS–3(GRAPES-3) is a ground-based EAS experiment. It is
located at Ooty, India (11.4◦N, 76.7◦E) at an altitude of 2200 m above mean sea level. The near-equatorial
placement of the experiment provides a unique advantage for measurements covering both northern and
southern hemispheres signiﬁcantly. Hence statement 2 is correct. O
• The GRAPES-3 experiment (or Gamma Ray Astronomy PeV EnergieS phase-3) located at Ooty in India
C
started as a collaboration of the Indian Tata Institute of Fundamental Research and the Japanese Osaka
City University, and now also includes the Japanese Nagoya Women's University. Hence statement 3 is
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not correct.
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Q 80.B
• Statement 1 is correct: The purpose of Article 32 is to provide a guaranteed, effective, expeditious,
O
inexpensive and summary remedy for the protection of the fundamental rights. Only the Fundamental
Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32 and not any other right like non-
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fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, customary rights and so on. In other words, the
Supreme Court, under Article 32, cannot determine a question that does not involve Fundamental Rights.
Article 32 cannot be invoked simply to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or a
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legislation unless it directly infringes any of the fundamental rights.

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• Statement 2 is not correct: In case of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court is original but not exclusive. It is concurrent with the jurisdiction of the high court under
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Article 226.
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• Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution.
Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the Constitution.
Q 81.B
• The PUShP portal is a High Price Day Ahead Market (HP-DAM) and Surplus Power Portal
launched by the Ministry of Power.
• It was launched to ensure greater availability of power during the peak demand season.
• The portal allows power at a price higher than the ceiling of Rs 12 per unit by certain categories of sellers.
• Power distribution companies (DISCOMs) can indicate their surplus power in block
times/days/months on the portal.
• DISCOMs in need of power can requisition the surplus power.
• The new buyer will pay both variable charge (VC) and fixed cost (FC) as determined by Regulators.
• Once power is reassigned, the original beneficiary shall have no right to recall as the entire FC liability is
also shifted to the new beneficiary.
• This will reduce the fixed cost burden on the DISCOMs, and will also enable all the available
generation capacity to be utilized.
Q 82.B
• The Bar Council of India (BCI) was established under a legislation enacted by the Parliament,
namely, the Advocates Act, 1961. Hence, it is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body. The Advocates
Act, 1961 provides for the establishment of a State Bar Council(SBC) for each state or a common SBC for
two or more states or for a state and a union territory.
• COMPOSITION: The BCI consists of the elected members as well as the ex-officio members.
• They are as follows:
o One member elected by each SBC from amongst its members.
o The Attorney-General of India and the Solicitor-General of India arc the ex-officio members (not
CJI). Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
o The BCI shall have a Chairman and a Vice-Chairman. They are elected by the Council from amongst
its members. They hold office for a period of two years.
• The functions of the BCI are as follows:
o To lay down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates.
o To lay down the procedure to be followed by its disciplinary committee and the disciplinary comm
ittee of each SBC.
o To safeguard the rights, privileges, and interests of advocates.
o To promote and support law reform.
o To deal with and dispose of any matter which is referred to it by a SBC.
o To exercise general supervision and control over SBCs.
o To promote legal education and to lay down standards of legal education in consultation with the
Universities in India imparting legal education and the SBCs.
o To recognise universities whose degree in law shall be a qualification for enrolment as an advocate
and for that purpose to visit and inspect universities.
O
o The BCI can also cause the SBCs to visit and inspect universities in accordance with the directions
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issued by it.
o To conduct seminars and organise talks on legal topics by eminent jurists and publish journals and
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papers of legal interest.

o To organise legal aid to the poor people .
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o To recognise (on a reciprocal basis) foreign qualifications in law obtained outside India for the
purpose of admissionas an advocate under this Act
O
o To manage and invest its funds.

o To provide for the election of its members.
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o To perform all other functions conferred on it under this Act15.

o To do all other things necessary for discharging the above function
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Q 83.C
• The Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud has announced that the Supreme Court will
adopt a neutral citation system for its judgments. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• A neutral citation system is a method of referring to court judgments using a unique identifier that is
independent of the court reporter or publication in which the judgment is published. It ensures that
judgments can be easily cited and found, regardless of the source or format of the document.
• Benefits of Neutral Citation System
o Consistency: Provides a uniform and consistent method of citation for all Supreme Court judgments.
o Accessibility: Makes it easier for legal professionals, researchers, and the public to find and access
judgments by using a single citation rather than relying on multiple sources.Reliability: Eliminates the
confusion and errors that can arise from variations in citation formats.
o Time-Saving: Saves time and effort by providing a direct link to the judgment without the need to
search through different publications.
Q 84.B
• For the month of February 2024, the Quick Estimates of Index of Industrial Production (IIP) with base
2011-12 stands at 147.2. The Indices of Industrial Production for the Mining, Manufacturing and
Electricity sectors for the month of February 2024 stand at 139.6, 144.5 and 187.1 respectively.
• The ICI measures the combined and individual performance of the production of eight core industries viz.
Cement, Coal, Crude Oil, Electricity, Fertilizers, Natural Gas, Refinery Products and Steel. The Eight
Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial
Production (IIP).
• The summary of the Index of Eight Core Industries is given below:
o Cement - Cement production (weight: 5.37 percent)
o Coal - Coal production (weight: 10.33 percent)
o Crude Oil - Crude Oil production (weight: 8.98 percent)
o Electricity - Electricity generation (weight: 19.85 percent)
o Fertilizers - Fertilizer production (weight: 2.63 percent)
o Natural Gas - Natural Gas production (weight: 6.88 percent)
o Petroleum Refinery Products - Petroleum Refinery production (weight: 28.04 percent)
o Steel - Steel production (weight: 17.92 percent)
Q 85.C
• Short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs), also referred to as “short-lived climate forcers” by the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, are greenhouse gases and other climate pollutants that have
relatively short atmospheric lifetimes compared to carbon dioxide
• The main SLCPs are black carbon, tropospheric ozone, Methane and hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
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• Per molecule in the atmosphere, SLCPs have a stronger warming effect than carbon dioxide, so reducing
these pollutants is beneficial to reduce near-term warming and can be very cost-effective. Actions taken in
the immediate future to address them could slow the planet’s warming by about half a degree by 2050.
• Some SLCPs are air pollutants that can be harmful to human health, so reducing them can save lives and
improve public health.
• Nitrous Oxide: It has a GWP 273 times that of CO2 over a 100-year timescale. On average, N2O
emitted today stays in the atmosphere for more than 100 years.
• Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) is the only global alliance dedicated exclusively to the
reduction of Short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs). Formed in 2012, the coalition includes the
United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) and other governments around the world, united to
address short-lived climate pollutants and to deliver action and benefits on “climate, public health,
energy efficiency, and food security. India joined as a member in 2019.
Q 86.C
• The Chola dynasty, one of the longest-ruling dynasties in the history of southern India, flourished between
the 9th and 13th centuries CE. Renowned for their maritime prowess, administrative innovations, and
patronage of art and literature, the Cholas established a vast empire that encompassed much of present-
day Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, and parts of Sri Lanka. Their rule witnessed remarkable
advancements in architecture, temple construction, trade, and governance, leaving a lasting legacy on the
cultural, political, and social landscape of South India.
o In the Chola period, landholding was the primary determinant of social status and hierarchy in
the predominantly agrarian society. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Brahmin landholders known as brahmadeya-kilavars held the highest social status, with
brahmadeya settlements enjoying tax exemption.
o Brahmadeya settlements displaced local peasants through a process called kudi neekki.
o Temples received land gifts known as devadana, which were tax-exempt, similar to
brahmadeyams, making temples central hubs of activity. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Vellanvagai village landholders were next in the social hierarchy after the Brahmins.
o Ulukudi (tenants) were unable to own land and were required to cultivate lands belonging to
Brahmins and vellanvagai village landholders. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o Landholders retained melvaram (major share in harvest), while ulukudi received kizh varam (lower
share).
o Labourers (paniceymakkal) and slaves (adimaigal) occupied the lowest rungs of the social
hierarchy.
o Outside the agrarian society were armed men, artisans, and traders.
o Cattle-keepers constituted a significant portion of the population, as documented.
o Tribals and forest-dwellers also existed.
Q 87.D
• Ultrasounds are high-frequency waves. Ultrasounds can travel along well-defined paths even in the
presence of obstacles. Ultrasounds are used extensively in industries and for medical purposes.
• Ultrasound is generally used to clean parts located in hard-to-reach places, for example, spiral tubes, O
odd-shaped parts, electronic components, etc. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Ultrasounds can be used to detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks. Ultrasound is reflected from the
C
defective locations inside a metal block. Ordinary sound of longer wavelengths cannot be used for such
S.
purpose as it will bend around the corners of the defective location and enter the detector. Hence option 2
is correct.
TE
• Ultrasonic waves are made to reflect from various parts of the heart and form the image of the heart. This
technique is called ‘echocardiography’. Ultrasound scanner is an instrument that uses ultrasonic
waves to get images of the internal organs of the human body. A doctor may image the patient’s
O
organs, such as the liver, gall bladder, uterus, kidney, etc. Hence option 3 is correct.
FN
• Ultrasound may be employed to break small ‘stones’ formed in the kidneys into fine grains. These
grains later get flushed out with urine. Hence option 4 is correct.
D
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Q 88.C
• Myanmmar has a land border totaling 4,053 miles (6,523 km) bordering five countries.The western side
of the country is bordered by Bangladesh and India while Laos and Thailand border the eastern
side. China forms the border to the north and the northeast of Burma. The south is not bordered by
a country but by two water bodies namely the Andaman Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 89.D
• With economic uncertainty looming, investors are seeking strategies to navigate the ever-changing
financial landscape. Two prominent investment approaches are active funds and passive funds.
• Active Funds: Active funds are a type of mutual fund in which a professional fund manager makes
decisions about which individual stocks, bonds, or other assets to buy, sell, or hold for the fund. The
goal of an active fund manager is to beat the performance of benchmark indices, such as Nifty50 and
Sensex. Hence statement-II is correct.
o Advantages:
✓ Diversification: Active funds can provide diversification by investing in a variety of different
assets.
✓ Potential for higher returns: Active funds have the potential to outperform the market, which can
lead to higher returns for investors.
✓ Professional management: Active funds are managed by professional investment teams that have
the expertise to research and analyze different investments.
o Disadvantages
✓ Higher fees: Active funds typically have higher fees than passive funds as they incur more
costs for the fund manager’s expertise, research, and trading. Hence statement-I is not
correct.
✓ No guarantee of outperformance: There is no guarantee that active funds will outperform the
market.
✓ More risk: Active funds may be more risky than passive funds, as they are not guaranteed to
outperform the market.
• Passive Funds: Passive funds are a type of mutual fund that tracks a specific market index, such as Nifty
O
50 or Sensex. Unlike actively managed funds, where fund managers try to outperform the market by
picking individual stocks, passive funds simply aim to replicate the performance of the chosen index.
C
S.
Q 90.B
• Nuclear medicine is a branch of medical imaging that uses small amounts of radioactive material to
TE
diagnose and treat a variety of diseases. It works on the principle of the function of the organ,
tissue, or bone, which differentiates it from other diagnostic tests like x-rays or ultrasound that
O
determine the presence of disease based on structural appearance. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Here are some key points about nuclear medicine:
FN
o Diagnosis and Treatment: Nuclear medicine helps in diagnosing and treating various diseases. The
radioactive materials, or tracers, used in nuclear medicine make the patient and the organ
D
system or body part being studied radioactive for a short time. This ionizing radiation can be
detected and measured using a nuclear medicine gamma camera.
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o Function-Based: Unlike other diagnostic tests that determine the presence of disease based on
structural appearance, nuclear medicine determines the cause of the medical problem based on
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the function of the organ, tissue, or bone. Hence statement 1 is correct.

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o Safety: Nuclear medicine procedures are among the safest diagnostic imaging exams available. A
patient only receives an extremely small amount of radiopharmaceutical, just enough to provide
sufficient diagnostic information. While radiopharmaceuticals used in nuclear medicine contain
radioactive isotopes, they are usually short-lived and decay rapidly, resulting in minimal
radiation exposure to the patient. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Research and Development: Institutions like Stanford University are actively engaged in research
and development in the field of nuclear medicine. They are working towards advancements in biology
and technology for better diagnosis, improved disease prevention, and early intervention.
• In essence, nuclear medicine provides a unique insight into the body’s structure and function, offering
information that cannot be obtained with other imaging procedures. It is a safe, effective, and highly
sophisticated diagnostic method that can lead to early detection and treatment of diseases.
Q 91.A
• Virtual Court is a concept, aimed at eliminating the presence of litigants or lawyers in the court and for
adjudication of cases on a virtual platform. The concept has evolved in order to efficiently utilize court
resources and to provide litigants with an effective avenue to settle petty disputes.
• Virtual Court can be administered by a Judge over a virtual electronic platform whose jurisdiction may
extend to the entire State and function 24X7. Neither the litigant nor Judge would have to physically visit
a court for effective adjudication and resolution. Communication would only be in electronic form and
sentencing and a further payment of fine or compensation would also be accomplished online. These
courts may be used for disposal of cases where there may be proactive admission of guilt by the accused
or proactive compliance of the cause by the defendant on receipt of the summons in electronic form. Such
matters may be treated as disposed of after the payment of the fine.
• National Service and Tracking of Electronic Processes (NSTEP) has been launched for technology-
enabled process serving and issuing of summons. A GPS-enabled device is given to the Bailiff for the
service of summons leading to greater transparency and speedy delivery of processes. It provides real-
time status updates of service of summons besides tracking of geographical coordinates of the process
server at the time of serving. It has currently been implemented in 26 States/ UTs. Hence, statement 1
is not correct.
• National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG) gives the consolidated figures of cases instituted, disposed and
the pendency of cases in all courts across the country. These statistics are updated every day by
respective courts. The website shows the number of cases filed as well as cases pending. The visitor
can access information down to a particular case. The pending cases divided between civil and criminal
jurisdictions can be further segregated into age-wise categories such as ten years old cases, between 5 to
10 years old cases, etc. The pendency data at the national, state and district levels are open and in the
public domain. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• eCourts Services Portal: A centralised gateway providing links to several initiatives and services
provided under the eCourts project. It enables stakeholders such as citizens, litigants, lawyers,
government and law enforcement agencies to access data and information relating to the judicial
system of the country. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The eCourts National portal works as an online repository of data providing a host of services and diverse
information such as: O
o Cause list
o Case Status: Case Status may be accessed across various search parameters such as case number, FIR
C
Number, party name, advocate name, filing number, Act, or case type
S.
o Daily orders and final judgments: Orders and final judgments can be similarly accessed through CNR
number, Case Number, Court Number, Party Name and Order Date.
TE
Q 92.C
• Recent context: India has increased its tally of Ramsar sites (Wetlands of International Importance)
O
to 80 from the existing 75 by designating five more wetlands as Ramsar sites.

FN
• Pala wetland:
• It is a Natural wetland.
• Largest natural wetland in the state of Mizoram. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
D
• Revered by the local Mara people.Important Species: sambar deer, wild pig, barking deer, Hoolock
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gibbon, Phayre’s leaf monkey, slow loris, elongated tortoise, Asian brown tortoise, and black softshelled
turtle etc.
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• Shallbugh Wetland Conservation Reserve:

o It is located in the District Srinagar, UT of J&K. It serves as an abode to more than four lakh residents
and migratory birds of at least 21 species. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
o Shallabugh Wetland plays a major role in the natural control, amelioration or prevention of flooding,
It is also important for seasonal water retention for wetlands or other areas of conservation importance
downstream.
• Yashwant Sagar:
o It is one of the two Important Bird Areas (IBA) in the Indore region as well as one of the most
important birding sites in the Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
o Presently it is mainly used for water supply to the city of Indore and is also being used for fish culture
on a commercial scale.
Q 93.D
• Braided channels are dynamic natural phenomena commonly found in regions with high sediment
load and variable flow rates. These channels are characterized by multiple interlacing channels,
forming intricate patterns of small islands and bars within the river channels. Braided channels
occur when a river's sediment load exceeds its capacity to transport sediment, leading to the
deposition of sediment and the formation of numerous smaller channels that weave in and out of
each other.
• These channels are beneficial for agriculture and sediment redistribution. Braided channels indeed
facilitate sediment redistribution, which can help replenish nutrients in floodplain soils, enhancing
soil fertility, and supporting agriculture.
• Additionally, the complex network of channels within braided rivers can provide habitats for various
aquatic species, contributing to biodiversity in riverine ecosystems.
• Flash floods: Sudden and rapid flooding caused by heavy rainfall, often resulting in the overflow of
riverbanks and posing a significant threat to life and property.
• Glacial melts: The process of melting of glaciers due to rising temperatures, leading to the release of
large volumes of water into rivers, lakes, and oceans, which can affect water availability and contribute to
sea-level rise.
• Meandering rivers: Curving, sinuous river channels characterized by gentle bends and curves, typically
found in areas with low sediment load and steady flow rates, which often lead to the formation of oxbow
lakes over time.
Q 94.B
• Sea urchins are spiny, globular animals that live on the sea floor . They are echinoderms, which means
they are related to starfish, sand dollars, sea cucumbers, and brittle stars.
• Sea Urchins do not belong to the phylum Mollusca. Instead, they are classified under the phylum
Echinodermata. Echinoderms are characterized by features such as a spiny skin, radial symmetry (often
pentaradial in adults), a water vascular system, and a calcareous endoskeleton. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
o Other members of the phylum Echinodermata include starfish, sea cucumbers, brittle stars, and O
crinoids.
C
• Sea Urchins have a hard calcareous skeleton or shell, known as a test. This shell provides protection
and support for the sea urchin's soft internal organs. Test is covered in spines through structures called
S.
tubercles. These spines can vary in length and density depending on the species and environmental
conditions. The spines serve multiple purposes, including protection against predators, locomotion, and
TE
assisting in capturing food particles.

o Hence statement 2 is correct.
O
• Sea Urchins are primarily herbivores and feed on algae, although some species may also consume
small invertebrates or detritus. They use their specialized feeding appendages, known as tube feet and
FN
Aristotle's lantern (a complex chewing structure), to scrape algae off rocks or other surfaces.
o Sea Urchins play a significant role in marine ecosystems by grazing on algae and influencing the
D
composition and distribution of algal communities.

o Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Q 95.A
• The Companies Act, 2013 (the Act) was enacted in 2013 to consolidate and amend the laws relating to
companies. This Act replaced the Companies Act, of 1956. The Act introduced significant changes related
to disclosures to stakeholders, accountability of directors, auditors and key managerial personnel, investor
protection and corporate governance.
• Various statutory bodies like the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority, National Financial
Reporting Authority and Serious Fraud Investigation Office have been established under the Act.
• The quasi-judicial bodies, viz., National Company Law Tribunal and National Company Law
Appellate Tribunal have also been constituted under the Act to discharge various functions.
o National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
were constituted for faster resolution of corporate disputes and reducing the multiplicity of agencies,
thereby promoting ‘ease of doing business’ in the country.
o The NCLAT has been established to hear appeals against the orders of NCLT under the Companies
Act.
• The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established in 2009 by the Government of India
under the Competition Act, 2002 for the administration, implementation, and enforcement of the Act.
Objectives include
o Eliminate practices having adverse effects on competition
o Promote and sustain competition
o Protect the interests of consumers
o Ensure freedom of trade in the markets of India
o Establish a robust competitive environment
• The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is a statutory body established in 2016 under
the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). The Lok Sabha passed the IBC on May 5, 2016, which
gives the IBBI statutory powers. The IBBI is a government board that regulates bankruptcy and
insolvency proceedings in India.
Q 96.C
• The Garbh-Ini program is a pioneering initiative aimed at improving maternal and prenatal
healthcare for expecting mothers, particularly in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Launched under the auspices of the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, this
program focuses on several key areas to enhance the well-being of pregnant women and promote
healthy pregnancies and childbirth. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Here are some aspects of the Garbh-Ini program:
o Maternal Health and Prenatal Care: The Garbh-Ini program places significant emphasis on
providing comprehensive maternal health services and prenatal care to expecting mothers. It aims to
ensure that pregnant women receive regular check-ups, nutritional support, counseling, and access to
essential healthcare interventions throughout their pregnancy journey.
o Prevention of Preterm Birth: A central objective of the Garbh-Ini program is to develop
prediction tools and strategies for preventing preterm birth, a significant contributor to
maternal and neonatal mortality and morbidity. By leveraging advanced statistical techniques O
such as regression analysis and machine learning models, the program seeks to identify risk factors
C
associated with preterm labor and birth, enabling timely interventions to reduce adverse
outcomes. Hence statement 2 is correct.
S.
o Collaborative Approach: The Garbh-Ini program operates as a collaborative initiative, bringing

together multidisciplinary expertise from healthcare institutions, research organizations, government
TE
agencies, and other stakeholders. By fostering partnerships and collaboration, the program harnesses
collective knowledge and resources to address the complex challenges of maternal and child health
O
effectively.
o Research and Innovation: In addition to delivering healthcare services, the Garbh-Ini program
FN
emphasizes research and innovation in the field of maternal and prenatal healthcare. It supports
scientific studies, clinical trials, and technological innovations aimed at improving maternal
outcomes, enhancing fetal monitoring techniques, and developing novel interventions for maternal
D
and child health.

.P
o Policy Advocacy and Capacity Building: The Garbh-Ini program advocates for evidence-based
policies and interventions to strengthen maternal and prenatal healthcare systems at the national and
W
regional levels. It also prioritizes capacity-building initiatives to empower healthcare professionals,

W

W
community health workers, and expectant mothers with the knowledge and skills needed to promote
maternal and child health effectively.
• Overall, the Garbh-Ini program represents a concerted effort to address the multifaceted challenges facing
maternal and prenatal healthcare in India and beyond. By integrating healthcare delivery, research,
innovation, and collaboration, it strives to create a healthier future for mothers and their children,
contributing to the broader agenda of sustainable development and public health improvement.
Q 97.C
• Operation Sadbhavana (Goodwill) is a unique humane initiative undertaken by Indian Army in the
Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh to address aspirations of people affected by terrorism, sponsored
and abetted by Pakistan. As part of ‘Operation SADBHAVANA’, Indian Army is undertaking multiple
welfare activities such as running of Army Goodwill Schools, Infrastructure Development Projects and
Education Tours for the children living in remote areas of Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh.
• Welfare Activities: The operation includes running Army Goodwill Schools, infrastructure development
projects, and educational tours for children in remote areas.
• Education: There are seven Army Goodwill Schools under Operation Sadbhavana in the Ladakh Region,
aiming to improve the standard of education.
• The operation aims to achieve national integration, women empowerment, employment generation, and
development activities towards nation-building.
• Collaborative Approach: Projects under Operation Sadbhavana are selected considering local aspirations
and in coordination with the local civil administration.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 98.A
• INTER-STATE TRADE AND COMMERCE: Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and
intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free. The freedom under this provision is not
confined to inter-state trade, commerce and intercourse but also extends to intra-state trade, commerce and
intercourse. Thus, Article 301 will be violated whether restrictionsare imposed at the frontier of any state
or at any prior or subsequent stage.
• The freedom guaranteed by Article 301 is a freedom from all restrictions, except those which are provided
for in the other provisions (Articles 302 to 305) of Part XIII of the Con- stitution itself. These are
explained below:
o Parliament can impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse between
the states or within a state in public interest. But, the Parliament can not give preference to one
state over another or discriminate between the states except in the case of scarcity of goods in any part
of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o The legislature of a state can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, cI'm merce
and intercourse with that stale or with in that state in public interest. But, a bill for this purpose
can be introduced in the legislature only with the previous sanction of the president. Further, the
state legislature cannot give preference to one state over another or discriminate between the
states. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o The legislature of a state can impose on goods imported from other states or the union territories any
O
tax to which similar goods manufactured in that state are subject. This provision prohibits the
C
imposition of discriminatory taxes bythe state.
o The freedom (under Article 301) is subject to the nationalisation laws (i.e., laws providing for
S.
monopolies in favour of the Centre or the states). Thus, the Parliament or the state legislature can
make laws for the carrying on by the respective government of any trade, business, industry or
TE
service, whether to the exclusion, complete or partial, of citizens or otherwise.

• The Parliament can appoint an appropriate authority for carrying out the purposes of the above
O
provisions relating to the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse and restrictions on it. The
Parliament can also confer on that authority the necessary powers and duties. But, no such authority has
FN
been appointed so far. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 99.A
D
• In India, the words ‘cities’ and ‘towns’ are defined in the census of India. These both are part of urban
.P
settlement. All the places with a Municipal Corporation, Municipality, Cantonment Board or Notified
Town Area Committee, Town Panchayat, Nagar Palika etc. so declared by a state law are called statutory
W
towns. Further, statutory town with population of 100000 and above are categorised as cities.
W

W
• The Registrar General of India (RGI) has proposed to retain the same definition of urban area for census
2021, as this will ensure comparability with previous census of 2011. Further RGI, has any urban
settlement as census town if it fulfils the following conditions:
• A minimum population of 5000 persons. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• 75% and above of the male main working population being engaged in non-agricultural pursuits.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• A density of population of at least 400 persons per square kilometre (1000 per square mile). Hence
• Towns are further classified into different classes based on the size of population:
o Class I: 100000 and above
o Class II: 50000 to 99999
o Class III: 20000 to 49999
o Class IV: 10000 to 19999
o Class V: 5000 to 9999
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses the same population criteria to define the tier centres (a concept
used in designing incentives for bank branch expansions). Class I is identified as tier 1 comprises
metropolitan area. Similarly class II, class III and class IV are identified as semi-urban areas as tier 2, tier
3 and tier 4 respectively. Tier 5 as class V and tier 6 as towns with a population of below 5000. Tier 5 and
tier 6 comprise rural centre.
Q 100.A
• Craft production was an important part of the Harappan economy. Bead and ornament making, shell
bangle making, and metalworking were the major crafts. They made beads and ornaments out of
carnelian, jasper, crystal, and steatite, metals like copper, bronze, and gold and shell, faience and
terracotta, or burnt clay. Hence, statement (a) is correct.
• The beads were made in innumerable designs and decorations. They were exported to Mesopotamia and
the evidence for such exported artifacts has been found from the excavations in Mesopotamian sites.
• The Harappans used diverse varieties of pottery for daily use. They use well-fired pottery. Their potteries
have a deep red slip and black paintings. The pottery are shaped like dish-on-stands, storage jars,
perforated jars, goblets, S-shaped jars, plates, dishes, bowls, and pots. The painted motifs, generally
noticed on the pottery, are pipal leaves, fish-scale design, intersecting circles, zigzag lines, horizontal
bands, and geometrical motifs with floral and faunal patterns. The Harappan pottery is well-baked and
fine in decorations. Hence, statement (b) is not correct.
• The Harappans wore clothes and used metal and stone ornaments. They had knowledge of cotton and silk.
They also used different kinds of ornaments. Hence, statement (c) is not correct.
• The terracotta figurines, the paintings on the pottery, and the bronze images from the Harappan sites
suggest the artistic nature of the Harappans. “Priest king” of steatite, dancing girl of copper (both from
Mohenjo-Daro), and stone sculptures from Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro and Dholavira are the important
objects of art. Hence, statement (d) is not correct.
O
C
S.
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O
FN
D
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o Namami Gange Programme is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as a ‘Flagship

o Main pillars of the Namami Gange Programme are:-

1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

2 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

and supportive of the natural world.

3 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Peru and Senegal. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

4 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

o the Nallamala hills,

o the Javadi hills, Hence option 3 is correct.

o the Palkonda range,

5 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

o the Mahendragiri hills. Hence option 5 is correct.

to address them. Hence statement 1 is correct.

statement 2 is not correct.

creditors), private creditors and borrowing countries.

6 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

proved to be resilient to cracking in outer space.

7 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

o The Chief Justice of India is temporarily absent; or

8 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

statement 1 is not correct.

9 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

the nation-wide freedom struggle movements.

10 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Lalitpur, Nepal. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Hindu Kush Himalayan Monitoring and Assessment Programme (HIMAP) is an initiative of

Hence statement 3 is correct.

and advance people’s well being.

11 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

statement I is not correct.

12 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

13 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

investigatory, and advisory nature.

14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

policy and legislation; implementation of various international conventions relating to safety;

• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Image Source: CCRT

16 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Vedika: A railing or fence protecting a sacred structure or object of veneration is known as

• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

China. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

areas in a state including the State of Assam.

recommendation of the Finance Commission. Hence statement 3 is correct.

19 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

meteorite. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

20 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

are known as rangat. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

21 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Hence statement 3 is correct.

22 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

23 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

24 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

renewable power through open access.

of open access in India.

25 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS