PTS 2024 Subject Wise Comprehensive Test 1 QP Eng

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |
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TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – I
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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.1) Consider the following statements: c) The representatives of the princely states
1. The Cabinet Secretariat and Prime did not join the Constituent Assembly at all.
Minister’s Office (PMO) are statutory d) The Indian Independence act empowered
bodies of Government of India. the Constituent assembly with legislative
2. The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly powers.
under the Home Minister whereas the PMO
functions directly under the Prime Q.4) Consider the following pairs with
Minister. reference to Schedules of the Constitution of
3. The Cabinet Secretariat facilitates smooth India and the Constitutional Amendments by
transaction of business across ministries which they were included in the Constitution:
whereas the PMO provides secretarial Schedules Included in the
assistance to the Prime Minister. Constitution by
How many of the statements given above are 1. Twelfth 73rd Constitutional
correct? Schedule Amendment Act of 1992.
a) Only one 2. Ninth 1st Constitutional
b) Only two Schedule Amendment Act of 1951
c) All three 3. Tenth 52nd Constitutional
d) None schedule Amendment Act of 1985
How many of the pairs given above are
Q.2) Consider the following pairs with correct?
reference to various acts and regulations a) Only one
introduced during British rule in India and b) Only two
their respective provisions: c) All three
Acts/Regulations Provisions d) None
/Charters
1. Pitts India It created a new Q.5) The term "Akkadi saalu", sometimes
Act,1784 body named Court of mentioned in news, refers to:
Directors a) An ancient irrigation system widely
2. Charter Act,1813 It took away the prevalent in the region of Tamil Nadu.
legislative powers of b) A traditional farming practice performed in
Bombay and Madras dryland regions of Karnataka
presidencies c) A traditional water harvesting system
3. Charter It introduced an practiced in the region of Thar desert.
Act,1853 open competition d) A tribal festival celebrated in Nagaland to
system for welcome the monsoon season.
recruitment of civil
servants Q.6) The Principle ‘X’ is very essential for the
How many of the above pairs are matched successful functioning of the Indian
correctly? democratic system. The principle ‘X’ is defined
a) Only one as the absence of restraints on the activities of
b) Only two individuals, and at the same time, providing
c) All three opportunities for the development of
d) None individual personalities.
Which of the following options best describes
Q.3) In the context of Indian Polity, which of the principle ‘x’ in the above paragraph?
the following options is incorrect regarding a) Fraternity
the working of Constituent Assembly? b) Justice
a) Rajendra Prasad was elected as the c) Equality
President of the Constituent Assembly. d) Liberty
b) Objective Resolution was placed before the
Constituent Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru.
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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.7) With reference to the powers of the c) All three
Parliament to reorganize the States, consider d) None
the following statements:
1. Article 3 of the Constitution of India Q.10) With reference to the Powering Past
authorizes the Parliament of India to Coal Alliance (PPCA) recently seen in news,
reorganize the states. consider the following statements:
2. Prior recommendation of the President of 1. It was established during the United Nation
India is necessary for introducing the bill Climate Change Conference held in the
concerning the reorganization of the United Arab Emirates in 2023.
states. 2. This coalition includes private business
3. Laws related to the reorganization of states organizations that focus on producing
are considered as Constitutional clean energy generation.
amendments under Article 368. 3. India is one of the founding members of
How many of the statements given above are this alliance.
correct? How many of the statements given above are
a) Only one correct?
b) Only two a) Only one
c) All three b) Only two
d) None c) All three
d) None
Q.8) With reference to the Judicial system,
which one of the following statements Q.11) With reference to the Fundamental
correctly describes the ‘Doctrine of Laches’? Rights in India, consider the following
a) This doctrine states that any law that 1. Prohibition of employment of children in
violates fundamental rights is not null or factories
void, but is only non-enforceable. 2. Right of citizen residing in India to
b) This doctrine states that the court will only conserve their distinct language
assist those people who are vigilant about 3. Right of minorities to establish and
their rights and not those who are not. administer Educational Institutions of their
c) This doctrine means that when a legislature choice.
is prohibited from doing something How many of the above rights are the cultural
directly, it also cannot do it indirectly. and educational rights provided by the
d) This doctrine implies that the power to Constitution of India?
legislate on a particular issue also includes a) Only one
b) Only two
the power to legislate on ancillary matters.
c) All three
d) None
Q.9) With reference to the features of the
Fundamental Rights in India, consider the Q.12) In the context of ‘Exit Polls’, consider the
following statements: following statements:
1. The Fundamental Rights can neither be 1. It is a pre-voting survey to gather voters’
curtailed nor repealed. views on a range of election-related issues.
2. The Fundamental rights guaranteed by the 2. Neither the Constitution nor any other
Constitution of India are not absolute statute contains a provision relating to Exit
rights. Polls.
3. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by 3. The results of an Exit poll cannot be
Article 19 are not suspended during published before the final phase of polling
emergency declared on the grounds of is completed.
external aggression. How many of the statements given above are
How many of the statements given above are correct?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
c) All three
b) Only two
d) None
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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.13) Consider the following parts of the Q.16) Consider the following statements
Constitution of India: regarding the procedure for passage of a
1. Preamble Constitution Amendment Bill:
2. Fundamental Duties 1. The Constitution Amendment Bill can be
3. Fundamental Rights introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
4. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. The joint sitting can be convened by the
How many of the above provisions have the president to resolve a deadlock between
objective of protecting the dignity of the both the houses of the Parliament over the
individual? Constitutional Amendment Bill.
a) Only one 3. The President can use veto power over a
b) Only two Constitution Amendment Bill.
c) Only three How many of the statements given above are
d) All four correct?
a) Only one
Q.14) The Fundamental Duties are a set of b) Only two
moral and civic obligations that are added to c) All three
the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in d) None
1976. Which of the following is not a
Fundamental Duty as per the Constitution of Q.17) With reference to the Indian
India? parliamentary procedures, which of the
a) To promote harmony and the spirit of following statements is correct?
common brotherhood among all the people a) Zero Hour is neither mentioned in the
of India. Rules of Procedure of the House nor in the
b) To ensure just and humane conditions of Constitution.
work and maternity relief. b) A member can ask about matters that are
c) To develop the scientific temper, under adjudication before courts.
humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and c) Unstarred questions are answered orally on
reform. the floor of the House.
d) To safeguard public property and to abjure d) Question Hour is held on all days of the
violence. session in the House without any
exception.
Q.15) Consider the following statements
regarding the United Nation Internet Q.18) The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act,
Governance Forum (IGF): of 1978, was a significant milestone in the
1. The UN IGF was an outcome of the United history of Indian democracy. Which one of the
Nations World Summit on the Information following provisions was introduced by the
Society (WSIS) held in 2006. 44th Amendment Act, of 1978?
2. The UN IGF is a platform for both public a) It modified Article 38 by adding that the
and private sectors to promote discussions state needs to minimize inequalities in
on digital public policy across nations. income, status, facilities, and opportunities.
3. India recently received the largest financial b) It altered the preamble by incorporating
support from UN IGF to improve its digital the terms "socialist" and "secular."
infrastructure. c) It removed restrictions on property rights
How many of the statements given above are to enable the fulfilment of Fundamental
correct? Rights to the citizens of India.
a) Only one d) It extended the reservation of seats for
b) Only two Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in
c) All three the Lok Sabha and State Legislative
d) None Assemblies.
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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.19) Gram Sabha created under Panchayats Q.22) Under which of the following
(Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 circumstances, the Parliament cannot enact
are vested with which of the following laws on a State Subject?
powers? a) When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by
1. Ownership of minor forest produce. simple majority on matter enumerated in
2. Management of minor water bodies. the state list.
3. Control over money lending to the b) During a National Emergency, the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Parliament can make law on any state
Tribes. subject.
Select the correct answer from the options c) When the legislatures of two or more states
given below: pass resolutions requesting the Parliament
a) 1 only to enact laws on a matter of the State List.
b) 2 only d) For implementing international treaties,
c) 1 and 2 only agreements, or conventions.
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.20) Consider the following statements about regarding the Contempt of Court in India:
Diel Vertical Migration (DVM): 1. No contempt of court proceedings can be
Statement-I: It involves the release of a initiated in the Supreme Court of India
significant amount of carbon dioxide from without the consent of the Attorney
Ocean into the atmosphere. General.
Statement-II: It involves the daily vertical 2. Wilful disobedience to a writ or order of a
movement of organisms in the ocean, from court is considered as a criminal contempt.
deep waters to the surface at night. 3. The phrase ''contempt of court'' is not
Which one of the following is correct in defined in the Constitution of India.
respect of the above statements? How many of the statements given above are
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct?
correct and Statement-II is the correct a) Only one
explanation for Statement-I. b) Only two
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are c) All three
correct and Statement-II is not the correct d) None
explanation for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Q.24) Consider the following statements:
incorrect. Statement I: A bill which varies the meaning of
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is the expression ‘agricultural income’ can be
correct. introduced in the Parliament only on the
recommendation of the President.
Q.21) Consider the following statements about Statement II: To protect the interest of states
the Federal System of India: in the financial matters, the constitution lays
1. The Indian Federation is the results of an down that certain bills can only be introduced
agreement among the constituent States. in the parliament with the prior
2. The Supreme Court has ruled that recommendation of the President.
‘federalism’ is a part of Basic Structure of Which of the following is correct with respect
the Indian Constitution. to the above statements?
Which of the statements given above is/are a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct? correct, and Statement-II is the correct
a) 1 only explanation for Statement-I.
b) 2 only b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
c) Both 1 and 2 correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
d) Neither 1 nor 2 explanation for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
is correct.
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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.25) The ‘Santiago Network’, sometimes seen 1. Article 262 of the Constitution provides for
in the news, refers to which of the following? the adjudication of inter-state water
a) A group of South American nations’ that disputes.
uses cryptocurrencies for transactions. 2. Parliament may provide that neither the
b) A network of National governments, Supreme Court nor any other court can
indigenous communities, and researchers exercise jurisdiction in respect of any
to protect Amazon rainforests. inter-state water dispute.
c) A network of experts providing technical Which of the statements given above is/are
assistance to vulnerable countries to correct?
address loss and damage emanating from a) 1 only
Climate change. b) 2 only
d) An international initiative to prevent the c) Both 1 and 2
weaponization of space. d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.26) Article 312 of the Constitution of India Q.29) Consider the following statements about
authorizes the Parliament to create new All- the difference between the Inter-State
India Services. The Parliament can create All- Council and the Zonal Councils:
India Services if: 1. The Inter-State Council is a constitutional
a) Lok Sabha passes a resolution supported by body whereas Zonal Councils are statutory
majority of more than 50% of the members bodies.
present and voting in the House. 2. The Inter-State Council is chaired by the
b) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported union home minister whereas the Zonal
by two-third of the members present and Councils are chaired by the Prime Minister.
voting. Which of the statements given above is/are
c) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution with simple correct?
majority. a) 1 only
d) Lok Sabha passes a resolution supported by b) 2 only
two-third of the members present and c) Both 1 and 2
voting. d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.27) In the context of distribution of Q.30) Consider the following statements in

legislative powers in India, consider the respect of the International Human Rights
following statements: Day:
1. Indian Constitution provides for the Statement-I: The International Human Rights
predominance of the ‘Concurrent List’ over Day is celebrated on 10th December every year
the ‘State List’. to emphasize that all humans have basic rights.
2. At present, the residuary power of Statement-II: On 10th December 1948, the
legislation is vested with the President. then members of the United Nations adopted
3. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
1976 led to a decrease in the number of (UDHR).
subjects under the ‘Concurrent List’. Which one of the following is correct in
How many of the statements given above are respect of the above statements?
correct? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
a) Only one correct and Statement-II is the correct
b) Only two explanation for Statement-I.
c) All three b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
d) None correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
Q.28) Consider the following statements c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
regarding Inter-State Water Disputes: incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct.
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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.31) With reference to the effects of the Q.34) With reference to the election of Vice-
National Emergency, consider the following president of India, consider the following
statements: statements:
1. The Lok Sabha's term may be extended by a 1. To be eligible for election as Vice-
law of Parliament beyond its normal term President, a person must have completed
of five years 35 years of age.
2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined in 2. Any person who has the qualification to be
Article 21 of the Constitution are a Lok Sabha member can contest the
automatically suspended. election of Vice-President.
3. The President can change the 3. The Governor of a state cannot contest the
constitutional revenue distribution Vice-Presidential election as the post of
between the center and the states. Governor comes under the definition of
How many of the statements given above are office of profit.
b) Only two a) One only
c) All three b) Two only
d) None c) All three
d) None
Q.32) With reference to the powers and
functions of the Indian President, consider the Q.35) Consider the following statements
following statements: regarding the Indian Forest & Wood
1. He allocates and reshuffles various Certification Scheme:
portfolios among the ministers at his own 1. It makes certification mandatory for all
discretion. timbers and wood extracted from forest
2. He presides over all the meetings of the areas in India.
council of ministers. 2. The certification is based on the standards
3. He appoints the chairman and members of developed by the Bureau of Indian
the state public service commission. Standard (BIS).
4. He appoints the Chief Minister of National 3. Its implementation will be overseen by the
Capital Territory of Delhi. Indian Forest and Wood Certification
How many of the statements given above are Council.
c) Only three b) Only two
d) All four c) All three
d) None
Q.33) Consider the following statements with
regard to the Veto power to the President of Q.36) Consider the following bodies:
India: 1. NITI Ayog
1. No President in India has exercised 2. Cabinet Committee on Accommodation.
absolute veto till now. 3. Defence Acquisition Council
2. President cannot exercise the suspensive 4. National integration council
veto in case of money bills. 5. National Security Council
3. Article 111 of the Indian Constitution Prime Minister of India acts as the chairperson
explicitly mentions the term pocket veto. of how many of the above bodies?
How many of the statements given above are a) Only two
correct? b) Only three
a) Only one c) Only four
b) Only two
d) All five
c) All three
d) None
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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.37) With reference to the central council of Q.40) Consider the following statements
ministers, consider the following statements: regarding the ‘Global River Cities Alliance
Assertion (A): When the Lok Sabha passes a (GRCA)’ initiative’:
no-confidence motion against the council of 1. It was launched by the National Mission for
ministers, all ministers must resign, including Clean Ganga (NMCG) during the 2023
those from the Rajya Sabha. United Nations Climate Change
Reason (R): The Council of Ministers is Conference.
collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha 2. It primarily aims is to interlink
For selecting the correct answer use the transboundary rivers across nations.
following code: 3. It is coordinated by the World Resources
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the Institute (WRI) and the World Business
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation Council for Sustainable Development
of Assertion (A). (WBCSD).
b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the How many of the statements given above are
true but Reason (R) is not a correct correct?
explanation of Assertion (A). a) Only one
c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. b) Only two
d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. c) All three
d) None
Q.38) With reference to the Central council of
ministers, consider the following statements: Q.41) In the contexts of Indian Polity, consider
1. The advice tendered by ministers to the the following statements regarding Ethics
president shall not be inquired into any Committee:
court of law. 1. Rajya Sabha does not have an Ethics
2. In India, the constitution does not provide committee of its own.
for the legal responsibility of a minister. 2. The ethics committee can recommend the
3. The ministers shall hold the office during suspension of a member of the house for a
the pleasure of president. specified period.
4. The maximum size of the council of Which of the statements given above is/are
ministers is fixed by the Constitution. correct?
How many of the statements given above are a) 1 only
correct? b) 2 only
a) Only one c) Both 1 and 2
b) Only two d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Only three
d) All four Q.42) This committee reviews the financial
plans and recommends cost-saving measures
Q.39) With reference to parliamentary to optimize public spending. By proposing
privileges, consider the following statements alternative policies, the committee strives to
1. Parliamentary privileges find no mention in enhance administrative efficiency and
the constitution. economic resource utilization. The Rajya
2. All the Parliamentary privileges are codified Sabha has no representation in this
under the Salaries and Allowances of committee.
Ministers Act, 1952. Which one of the following parliamentary
3. These privileges extend to the president of committees has been mentioned in the
India. passage given above?
How many of the statements given above are a) Committee on Government Assurances
correct? b) Committee on Public Undertakings
a) Only one c) Public accounts committee
b) Only two d) Estimates Committee
c) All three
d) None
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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.43) Consider the following statements: a) Only one
Statement I: In India, the President is an b) Only two
integral part of the Parliament. c) All three
Statement-II: A bill can become a law only d) None
after the assent of President.
Which one of the following is correct in Q.46) Article 110 of the Constitution deals with
respect of the above statements? the definition of money bills. Consider the
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are following statements regarding the procedure
correct and Statement-II is the correct to pass Money Bill:
explanation for Statement-I 1. It can be introduced only on the
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are recommendation of the president
correct and Statement-II is not the correct 2. It can be introduced by any member of the
explanation for Statement-I Lok Sabha.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a
incorrect money bill.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is How many of the statements given above are
correct correct?
a) Only one
Q.44) In the context of Indian Polity, consider b) Only two
the following statements regarding the office c) All three
of Speaker: d) None
1. If the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker
immediately vacates his office Q.47) Consider the following types of bills:
2. He is the final decision maker in all matters 1. Ordinary bills.
of disqualification of members of the house. 2. Money bills.
3. The institutions of Speaker originated in 3. Finance bills, other than the money bills.
India under Government of India Act of 4. Constitutional Amendment bills.
1935. In the process of approval of how many of the
How many of the statements given above are above bills, joint sitting of Parliament can be
correct? called if a deadlock occurs between the two
a) Only one houses of the Parliament?
c) All three b) Only two
d) None c) Only three
d) All four
Q.45) With reference to Goods and Services
Tax (GST) Council, consider the following Q.48) Generally if the money granted by the
statements: Parliament to the government is not spent by
1. The GST council on its own can organize the end of the financial year, then:
operations to handle evasion of GST. a) The unspent balance expires and returns to
2. The GST Council can create a mechanism the Consolidated Fund of India.
to settle disputes between the Centre and b) No fresh money is allotted to the service
States. until the unspent money is fully utilized.
3. Every decision of the GST Council shall be c) The government can’t make a demand for
taken by a majority of not less than three- grants for that particular service in the next
fourths of the weighted votes of the Budget.
members present and voting. d) The unspent money is automatically
How many of the statements given above are carried forward to the next financial year
correct? as a reserve fund.
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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.49) Consider the following statements with Q.52) Which of the following options is correct
reference to the evolution of judiciary during about the National Legal Services Authority
colonial rule in India: (NALSA)?
1. The Charter Act of 1813 provided for the a) It is as a non-statutory body.
establishment of the Supreme Court in b) A retired Supreme Court judge is ineligible
Calcutta. to serve as the chairman of NALSA.
2. Macaulay Law Commission was established c) It has the authority to initiate Public
under the provisions of the Charter Act of Interest Litigation (PIL) on matters
1833. concerning the rights of marginalized
3. The Federal Court was set up under the individuals.
Government of India Act of 1919, to settle d) Its function is limited to providing free legal
disputes between the provinces. aid solely to those below the poverty line
4. The Privy Council acted as the highest (BPL).
court of appeal during the British Period.
Which of the statements given above are Q.53) Consider the following statements about
correct? judges of Supreme Court of India:
a) 1 and 2 only 1. To be appointed as a Supreme Court judge,
b) 2 and 4 only an individual must be above 35 years of age.
c) 1, 3 and 4 only 2. Number of judges in the Supreme Court is
d) 2, 3 and 4 only decided by the President.
3. The salaries of Supreme Court judges are
Q.50) Consider the following statements charged upon the Consolidated Fund of
regarding ‘Endosulfan’: India.
1. It is a persistent organic pollutant having How many of the statements given above are
potent to bioaccumulate in living correct?
organisms. a) Only one
2. It does not occur naturally in the b) Only two
environment. c) All three
3. Manufacturing, import and usage of d) None
Endosulfan is banned in India.
How many of the statements given above are Q.54) Consider the following statements about
correct? the passage of a State Legislative bill:
a) Only one 1. The Governor can return a money bill to
b) Only two the state legislature for reconsideration.
c) All three 2. The Governor has the discretionary power
d) None to reserve certain types of bills for the
President's consideration.
Q.51) Consider the following rights: 3. The Governor enjoys a Qualified Veto over
1. Right to vote and to be elected bills passed by the state legislature.
2. Right to marry the person of one's choice How many of the statements given above are
3. Right to be silent correct?
How many of the above rights are the a) Only one
Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the b) Only two
Constitution of India? c) All three
a) Only one d) None
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
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Q.55) With reference to the various Q.58) Consider the following statements
organizations and their reports, consider the regarding the Council of Ministers of a State:
following pairs: 1. The maximum strength of the council of
ministers in a state is fixed at 10% of the
Reports Published by
strength of the State Legislative Assembly.
1. Adaptation Gap United Nation 2. On exceeding the maximum limit of the
Report Environment strength of the ministers, the strength
Programme (UNEP) must be brought in conformity within 6
months when notified by the governor.
2. Emissions Gap World wide Fund for 3. Every state with more than 10% tribal
Report Nature (WWF) population shall have a minister in charge
of tribal welfare.
3. State of Global World Meteorological
How many of the Statements given above are
Climate Report Organization (WMO)
correct?
How many of the pairs given above are a) Only one
correctly matched? b) Only two
a) Only one c) All three
b) Only two d) None
c) All three
d) None Q.59) Arrange the following Union Territories
of India in correct chronological order of their
Q.56) Consider the following powers of the formation, starting from the earliest.
Governor of a State: 1. Lakshadweep
1. The Governor of a State in India is 2. Chandigarh
empowered to dismiss the Council of 3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Ministers, upon its failure to maintain the 4. Ladakh
confidence of the State Legislative Select the correct answer using the codes
Assembly. given below:
2. The Governor can recommend the a) 3-1-2-4
imposition of President's Rule in a state. b) 1-3-2-4
Which of the powers given above falls under c) 2-1-4-3
the discretionary power of the Governor? d) 2-3-1-4
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Q.60) Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB),
c) Both 1 and 2 sometimes seen in news is
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) A division of the World Trade Organisation
(WTO) which resolves tax related disputes
Q.57) With reference to Political Liberty in a between its member countries.
Society, consider the following statements: b) An International non governmental
1. Negative liberty is concerned with organization working to combat corporate
imposing reasonable social restrictions on tax evasion across the world.
an individual. c) A joint initiative between the Organisation
2. Positive liberty entails providing positive for Economic Co-operation and
social conditions which help in individual Development (OECD) and the United
development. Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
Which of the statements given above is/are to enhance the tax audit capabilities of
correct? countries.
a) 1 only d) A network of investigative journalists with
b) 2 only expertise in tax-related subjects.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q.61) Which among the following fixes the 2. The Governor can exercise personal
strength of the State Legislative Council? discretion in appointing the Chief Minister,
a) The President when there is no clear majority in the
b) The State legislative assembly Assembly.
c) The Parliament 3. The Governor can appoint an individual as
d) Governor Chief Minister even if he is not a member of
the State Legislature.
Q.62) Consider the following statements How many of the above statements are
regarding the disqualification of members of correct?
the state legislative assembly: a) Only one
1. The question of disqualification of b) Only two
members of the legislative assembly for c) All three
matters other than those in the Tenth d) None
Schedule is decided by the governor.
2. The member can be disqualified if he is of Q.65) With reference to Pradhan Mantri
unsound mind and stands so declared by a Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP),
medical board constituted by the speaker. consider the following statements:
3. The member can be disqualified if he holds 1. The scheme aims to provide expensive
an office of profit in a corporation in which branded drugs to the poor free of cost.
the government has at least 25% share. 2. The scheme is being administered by the
How many of the statements given above are Union Ministry of Health and Family
correct? Welfare.
a) Only one 3. Under the scheme, both private and
b) Only two government hospitals can establish
c) All three Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi
d) None Kendras.
How many of the statements given above are
Q.63) Which of the following statements is not correct?
correct regarding the Chairman of the State a) Only one
Legislative Council? b) Only two
a) As a presiding officer, the powers and c) All three
functions of the Chairman in the Council d) None
are exactly same to those of the Speaker in
the Assembly. Q.66) Consider the following statements about
b) The salary and allowances of the Chairman the High Court judges:
is fixed by the State Legislature. 1. They can be removed on the grounds of
c) The Chairman vacates his office, if he is violation of the Constitution.
removed by a resolution passed by a simple 2. They can be transferred to another High
majority of all the then members of the Court only after the consent of the
Council. concerned judge.
d) The salary and allowances of the Chairman Which of the statements given above is/are
are not subject to the annual vote of the correct?
State Legislature. a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q.64) Consider the following statements with c) Both 1 and 2
regard to the role of Governor in the d) Neither 1 nor 2
appointment of the Chief Minister:
1. The Constitution mandates the Governor
to appoint the leader of the majority party
in the State Legislative Assembly as the
Chief Minister.
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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.67) Consider the following statements with the chemical dye is not used in them and they
regard to the Central Administrative Tribunal do not have sharp edges.
(CAT): Which of the following toys is described in the
1. It is bound by the procedure laid down in above passage?
the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. a) Kondapalli Bommallu
2. Its members shall not be eligible for the b) Kathputlis toys
reappointment. c) Channapatna toys
3. Only the Supreme Court has jurisdiction d) Nirmal Toys
over appeals against CAT orders.
How many of the above statements are Q.71) Which of the following statements with
correct? respect to the right to ‘Freedom of Movement’
a) Only one as enshrined in Article 19 of the Indian
b) Only two Constitution are correct?
c) All three 1. This right is protected against state action
d) None only and not against private individuals.
2. The entry of outsiders in tribal areas can be
Q.68) With reference to the Permanent Lok restricted for the protection of interests of
Adalat, which of the following statements is the scheduled tribe.
correct? 3. This right is not available to foreigners.
a) The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 4. It also includes right to move out of the
provides for the establishment of the country and right to come back to the
Permanent Lok Adalats. country.
b) No court fee is required for filling a matter Select the correct answer using the code given
in a Permanent Lok Adalat. below:
c) They have jurisdiction over matters related a) 1, 2 and 3 only
to both compoundable and non- b) 2 and 4 only
compoundable offences. c) 1 and 2 only
d) Its awards are non-binding and there is a d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
provision for making an appeal against its
orders in the High Courts. Q.72) Which of the following is correct with
reference to the Panchayats in India?
Q.69) Consider the following statements with a) A panchayat reconstituted after premature
regard to the Gram Nyayalayas: dissolution of previous panchayat enjoys
1. They exercise the powers of both Criminal the full period of five years.
and Civil Courts. b) Minimum age to be eligible for the election
2. They provide the option for plea bargaining to a Panchayat is 21 years.
to a person accused of an offence. c) In the case of dissolution of the Panchayat,
Which of the statements given above is/are the elections must always be held within
correct? two months of its dissolution.
a) 1 only d) The Election Commission of India prepares
b) 2 only the electoral rolls for the Panchayat
c) Both 1 and 2 elections.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.70) These toys are traditional crafts of

Karnataka and received the Geographical
Indication (GI) tag. These toys are made of
ivory and wood. These are ideal for children as
Page 13
PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.73) Which of the following benefits are 2. At the district level, it consolidates the
available for a recognized National political plans prepared by panchayats and
party in India? municipalities in the district.
1. Candidates require only one proposer to Which of the statements given above is/are
file their nomination. correct?
2. Candidates are entitled to two sets of a) 1 only
electoral rolls free of cost. b) 2 only
3. Dedicated broadcast slots on public as well c) Both 1 and 2
as private broadcasters. d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. It can nominate a maximum of 20 Star
campaigners. Q.77) In the context of Indian Polity, the Chief
Select the correct answer using the code given Minister of the National Capital Territory of
below: Delhi is appointed by which of the following?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only a) Prime Minister
b) 3 and 4 only b) President
c) 1 and 2 only c) Home Minister
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 d) Lieutenant Governor
Q.74) In India, which of the following most Q.78) Consider the following statements
appropriately represents the features of direct regarding the power of President and
democracy? Governor in Fifth Scheduled Areas:
a) Lok Sabha 1. The President can declare an area to be
b) Rajya Sabha Scheduled Area, but it is the Governor who
c) Gram Sabha can increase or decrease the area of a
d) State Legislative Assembly Scheduled Area.
2. Only the President is empowered to direct
Q.75) Consider the following statements that a particular act of Parliament does not
regarding the Clustered Regularly Interspaced apply to a Scheduled Area.
Short Palindromic Repeats (CRISPR): Which of the statements given above is/are
Statement-I: CRISPR technology can be used correct?
to treat genetic disorders like Sickle Cell a) 1 only
Anemia by editing the red blood cells. b) 2 only
Statement-II: CRISPR is a gene-editing c) Both 1 and 2
technology that allows scientists to precisely d) Neither 1 nor 2
modify DNA sequences in living organisms.
Which one of the following is correct in Q.79) In the context of Indian Polity, which of
respect of the above statements? the following options is incorrect regarding
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the Election Commission of India (ECI)?
correct and Statement-II is the correct a) The Constitution has prescribed the
explanation for Statement-I. qualifications of the members of the
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Election Commission.
correct and Statement-II is not the correct b) The appointment of the Chief Election
explanation for Statement-I. Commissioner is made by the President.
c) Statement-1 is correct Statement-II is c) ECI is not concerned with the elections to
incorrect. panchayats and municipalities.
d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is d) The Chief Election Commissioner can be
correct. removed on the basis of a resolution passed
by both the Houses of Parliament with a
Q.76) With reference to the District Planning special majority.
Committee, consider the following statements:
1. Half of its members are elected by the
members of the District Panchayat.
Page 14
PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.80) The term “Climate Tipping Point”, Q.83) Consider the following statements
recently seen in the news, is mentioned in the regarding the Central Bureau of Investigation
context of: (CBI):
a) A point at which a country achieves 1. The agency was established as a result of
complete carbon neutrality. the recommendation of the Santhanam
b) A point where climate models diverge Committee.
significantly, making future predictions 2. The Director of CBI has been provided
impossible. security for a two-year tenure under the
c) A critical threshold that, when crossed, can Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.
lead to large and irreversible changes in the 3. It comes under the administrative control
climate system. of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
d) A threshold at which the concentration of How many of the statements given above are
Carbon Dioxide in the atmosphere exceeds correct?
that of the Ocean. a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.81) The office of ‘Attorney General of India’ is c) All three
often in the news. In this context, consider the d) None
following statement regarding the Attorney
General of India: Q.84) Consider the following statements:
1. He can represent Government of India in 1. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution
all cases in Supreme Court except in any recognizes the rights of only religious
reference made by the President to the minorities but not linguistic minorities.
Supreme Court under Article 143 of the 2. National Commission for Minorities is a
Constitution. constitutional body established under
2. He advices the Government of India in legal Article 350-B of the Indian Constitution.
matters, which are referred to him by the 3. The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
President. is appointed by the President of India.
3. He can advise/hold a brief against the How many of the statements given above are
Government of India. correct?
How many of the statements given above are a) Only one
correct? b) Only two
a) Only one c) All three
b) Only two d) None
c) All three
d) None Q.85) With reference to Codex Alimentarius
Commission, consider the following
Q.82) Consider the following statements statements:
regarding the National Disaster Management 1. It is an international food safety and quality
Authority (NDMA): standard setting commission.
1. The Union Home Minister is the ex officio 2. Its standards are legally binding on the
chairperson of the NDMA. national food legislations..
2. One of its functions is to provide support to Which of the statements given above is/are
other countries affected by major disasters. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are a) 1 only
correct? b) 2 only
a) 1 only c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Page 15
PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.86) Consider the following statements about c) Only three
the Cabinet Secretariat: d) All four
1. It functions directly under the Prime
Minister of India. Q.89) Consider the following statements
2. It provides secretarial assistance to the regarding the Tenth Schedule of the Indian
Cabinet Committees. Constitution:
3. It is responsible for allocating financial 1. It was added to the Constitution through
resources to different ministries. the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of
4. It monitors the implementation of 1985.
decisions taken by the Cabinet. 2. The Presiding officer of the house has the
How many of the statements given above are power to make rules to give effect to the
correct? Tenth Schedule.
a) Only one 3. When an independent member of a house
b) Only two joins a political party, he can be disqualified
c) Only three under the Tenth Schedule.
d) All four How many of the statements given above are
correct?
Q.87) Consider the following statements a) Only one
regarding the Electoral Bonds: b) Only two
1. Electoral Bonds have a life of only 3 months c) All three
during which they can be used for making d) None
donations.
2. At present, only the Reserve Bank of India Q.90) Which of the following is the main
is empowered to issue electoral bonds. objective of the ‘Bhashini initiative’, recently
3. Every political party registered under the mentioned in the news?
Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 is a) Encouraging the global Indian diaspora to
eligible to take donations through electoral teach their native language to their
bonds. children.
How many of the statements given above are b) Promoting students to learn a minimum of
correct? three languages before completing their
a) Only one schooling.
b) Only two c) Sparking renewed interest among school
c) All three students in studying 'Sanskrit.'
d) None d) Improving content in Indian regional
languages on the Internet, particularly in
Q.88) Consider the following statements with areas of public policy.
reference to the Delimitation Commission:
1. Chairperson and other members of the Q.91) Consider the following statements
Delimitation Commission are appointed by regarding First Information Report (FIR):
the President of India. 1. It is mandatory for the police to file an FIR
2. Till now, only two Delimitation when they receive a complaint regarding a
Commissions have been established since non-cognizable offence.
Indian independence. 2. The person providing information for the
3. Orders of the Delimitation Commission FIR has the right to get a copy of the FIR
cannot be questioned before any court. free of cost.
4. Only Parliament, not the state legislatures, Which of the statements given above is/are
is empowered to amend the orders of the correct?
delimitation commission. a) 1 only
How many of the statements given above are b) 2 only
correct? c) Both 1 and 2
a) Only one d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) Only two
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Q.92) Consider the following statements with c) The DPSP resembles the ‘Instrument of
reference to the creation of the Ministries/ Instructions’ enumerated in the
Departments of the Government of India: Government of India Act, 1935.
Statement-I: The Ministries/Departments of d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are
the Government of India are created by the non-justiciable and non-enforceable by a
Prime Minister. court of law.
Statement-II: The Transaction of Business of
the Government of India Rules, 1961, provide Q.95) Consider the following statements
the procedural framework for the conduct of regarding the ‘National Transit Pass System
government business. (NTPS)’:
Which one of the following is correct in 1. It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of
respect of the above statements? Road Transport & Highways.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. It facilitates seamless transit of forest
correct and Statement II is the correct timber between the states through a single
explanation for Statement-I QR-coded permit.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 3. It does not apply to the transport of timber
correct and Statement II is not the correct grown on private lands.
explanation for Statement-I How many of the statements given above are
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II is correct?
incorrect a) Only one
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is b) Only two
correct c) All three
d) None
regarding the election of the President: Q.96) Which of the following statements
1. The electoral college consists of both regarding the differences between the State
elected and nominated members of Legislative Assembly and the State Legislative
Parliament. Council is correct?
2. Vote value of MLAs changes from state to a) Minimum strength of a Council is fixed at
state, whereas vote value of all MPs is 30, whereas the Legislative Assembly of a
equal. state consists of not less than 40 members.
3. The election follows the system of b) The maximum strength of the Council is
proportional representation by means of a fixed at one-fourth of the total strength of
single transferable vote. the assembly, whereas Legislative Assembly
How many of the statements given above are of a state consists of not more than 450
correct? members.
a) Only one c) The Minimum Age to be a member of the
b) Only two Legislative Council is 21 years, whereas in
c) All three the case of the Legislative Assembly, it is 25
d) None years.
d) A Members of the Legislative Council
Q.94) Which of the following is not correct usually serve for a term of 6 years, whereas
regarding the Directive Principles of State a member of the Legislative Assembly
Policy as enshrined in Part IV of the usually serves for a term of 5 years.
Constitution of India?
a) The DPSP has provision for prohibition on
consumption of intoxicating drinks.
b) The DPSP constitute limitations upon the
legislative and executive function of the
government.
Page 17
PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.97) Which one of the following statements is billion, to aid developing nations in their
incorrect regarding roles and functions of shift towards cleaner energy sources.
Indian Constitution? How many of the statements given above are
a) Constitution of India provide a set of basic correct?
rules that allow for minimal coordination a) Only one
amongst members of a society. b) Only two
b) Constitution of India specify who has the c) All three
power to make decisions in a society and d) None
how the government will be constituted.
c) Constitution of India establishes a very
flexible government system that can be
changed easily according to need of the
time.
d) Constitution enables the government to
fulfil the aspirations of a society and create
conditions for a just society.
Q.98) Which one of the following statements is

incorrect regarding National Commission for
Women?
a) It was set up as statutory body under
the National Commission for Women Act,
1990.
b) It can investigate and examine all the
matters related to the safeguards provided
for the women under the Constitution.
c) It has the power to choose its own
members from different fields.
d) It has the power to take Suo Moto notice of
matters relating to deprivation of women’s
rights and non-implementation of the laws
Q.99) In the context of Indian history, which of

the following acts introduced bicameralism at
central level and direct election in India for the
first time?
a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
b) Government of India Act, 1935
c) Government of India Act, 1919
d) Indian Councils Act, 1892
Q.100) With reference to the ‘Fossil Fuel Non-

Proliferation Treaty (FFNPT) Initiative’,
consider the following statements:
1. It is a World Bank endorsed treaty that
aims to mitigate the impact of Climate
change.
2. It calls for ending the expansion of new
coal, oil and gas production by the nations.
3. It commits to a dedicated climate fund,
with an annual subscription of USD 100

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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

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PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

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Q.27) In the context of distribution of Q.30) Consider the following statements in

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.70) These toys are traditional crafts of

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

PTS 2024 | Test Code : 111218 |

Q.98) Which one of the following statements is

Q.99) In the context of Indian history, which of

Q.100) With reference to the ‘Fossil Fuel Non-

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