CRIMINALISTICS

Dr. Ariel C. Manlusoc

 WHAT IS MY GOAL?

TOP

PASSED
FAILED

It takes a lot of (3P)

PROPER PREPARATION, PERSPIRATION
& PERSEVERANCE
 What Do I Want in Life?

 How much does this

mean to me?
 Am I willing to
sacrifice something?
 How determine am I
to pursue my dream?
 Remember:
ACE Technique
1. Analysis of the question
2. Comparison between the
question and the choices
3. Eliminate or exclude the
detractors .
Don’t leave your common
sense AT HOME!!!
 Question:
The word forensic means ____?
Choices: Consisting of Key & Detractors.
a. Forum
b. Market Place
C. Public Discussion
d. Legal
e. All of these
The word Forensic was derived from the
Latin word “Forum” which means a market place,
a place where people gather for purposes of
public discussion.
Is a magnified photograph of small object
obtained by attaching a camera to the ocular of
a compound microscope to show its minute
details?
a.Photomicrography
b.Photomacrography
c.Photomicrograph
d.Photomacrograph
e.Microphotograph

N.B. “the issue is the photograph and not the

process”
Photo + micro+ graphy
Prefix + WR + Suffix
Light + microscope + drawing/writing
process
Photo +micro+ graph
(light + microscope + drawing/writing)

Note: Start with the suffix, then interpret

the prefix and lastly the word root.
B. ANALYSIS and Case Study Type
1. Which of the following object should be taken
individual photograph?
a.Latent prints
b.Identifying details
c. Weapon used
d. Wound sustained

All of the following requires individual

photograph.
But which is the correct answer?
9. Known as the Access Devices Act of 1998,
concerning the illegal use of one’s credit cards
etc.
a. R.A. 8484 c. R.A. 9372
b. R.A. 9208 d. R.A.9514
10. Pedro Penduco Committed a rape by
inserting his Penis on the Anus of another man.
For what crime Pedro Penduco can be charged?
a. Rape
b. Marital Rape
c. Statutory Rape
d. Rape by sexual intercourse
e. Rape by Sexual Assault
 Forensic Science = refers to the application
of various sciences to law or administration
of justice. It is the application of a broad
spectrum of sciences to answer questions of
interest to a legal system.
 Forensic = was derived from the Latin word
“Forum” which means a market place, a place
where people gathered for public discussion.
 Criminalistics = is a profession or a field of
forensic science that deals with recognition,
collection, preservation and examination of
physical evidence for the administration of
justice.
 Fields of Criminalistics
 Dactyloscopy = science of fingerprint
Identification and classification.
 Forensic Photography = the application of the
principle of photography in discovering truth.
 Forensic Odontology = the scientific
identification by means of dental record.
 Forensic Ballistics = the science of F/A
identification by means of the ammunition fired
from them.
 Forensic Entomology = study of role or
importance of insects in the crime investigation.
 Forensic Chemistry = the application of the
principle of chemistry in relation to the
administration of justice. ( Physical and
Chemical composition of matters)
 Forensic Anthropology = the scientific
method of identification by means of skeletal
remains.
 Questioned Document = scientific analysis of
documents which is under scrutiny.
 Forensic Toxicology = the application of the
principle of toxicology (study of poison) in
discovering truth concerning suspicious
death in a person.
 Forensic Microbiology
 Forensic Serology
 Forensic Zoology
 Forensic Biology
 Personal Identification
= a system of recognizing and identifying a
particular person based on his/her
characteristics as differentiate from others.
1. A system of identification which was used
earlier than the fingerprint system, made by
measuring various bony structure of human
body. Developed by Alphonse Bertillion.
a. Portrait Parle c. Tattoo
b. Anthropometry d. Photography

Note: Portrait Parle, Tattoo and photography did

not served the purpse of identification using
bone measurement.
2. Is the distance of recognition in broad daylight
of a person who is almost a stranger.
a. 100 yards c. 16-17 yards
b. 25 yards d. 10-13 yards

100 yards = never seen even once

16 – 17 yards = moonlight
10 -13 yards = starlight.
3. Is the basic principle involve in personal
Identification which states that the greater
the number of similarity or difference the
greater the probability for the identity or non
identity to be conclusive.
 a. Law of individuality
 b. Law of multiplicity of evidence
 c. Law of infallibility
 d. Law of constancy

a, c, and d are principles of fingerprint

identification.
4. Which of the following personal
Identification is not easy to change?
a. Hair c. Speech
b. Dress d. personal pharapernalia
5. Considered to be one of the most infallible
means of Identification.
a. DNA fingerprinting c. Dactyloscopy
b. Fingerprint Identification d. Photography

DNA fingerprinting = the most indispensable

science.
6. Identification of person can be done either
by Comparison or by____?
a. Exclusion c. Examination
b. Experimentation d. Inclusion
7. A system of Identification best used in case of
burned body.
a. Fingerprint c. Skeletal Identification
b. Odontology d. Photography

DNA Fingerprinting
Forensic Odontology= dental identification
Forensic Anthropology = skeletal identification
 8. The first conviction in the Philippine Case
which gives recognition to the science of
fingerprint?
a. People Vs. Medina
b. Miranda Vs. Arizona
c. People Vs. Jennings
d. West Case

People vs. Jennings (U.S. case)

West case = defeats the Anthropometry System
9. Known as the Father of Modern Fingerprint, whose
system of classification was spread in almost all
English speaking country.
a. Juan Vucitich c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
b. Francis Galton d. William Herschel
Juan Vucetich = his system of classification was
accepted by Spanish Speaking Countries.
Francis Galton = undertook the first definitive study and
classification of F.P., statistical study to prove
uniqueness of F.P. and wrote the book “Finger
Prints”.
William Herschel = first application of F.P. for
identification and developed Chiroscopy.
10. Is the person who discover the two main
layer of the friction skin (Epidermis and
Dermis) and to whom one of the thin layer of
the friction skin was named.
a. Herman Welcker c. Marcelo Malpighe
b. Nehemiah Grew d. Dr. Henry Faulds
Herman Welcker = proved the principle of
permanency by printing is palm twice with a
lapse of 41 years.
Nehemiah Grew = the first to wrote a treaty on
the study of ridges and sweat pores
Dr. Henry Faulds = a surgeon who gives value to
latent prints.
11. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first
individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by
using his own thumb mark as a protection to
prevent tampering with the pay order he issued.
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
b. Capt James Parke
c. Gilbert Thompson
d. Dr. Henry P. De Forest
Dr. Henry P. De Forest =Utilized the first Municipal
Civil use of fingerprint for Criminal Registration.
Capt. James L. Parke = Advocate the first state and
penal use of fingerprint adopted in SingSing prison
Sgt. John Kenneth Ferrier = First fingerprint instructor
at St. Louis Police Dept. Missouri.
12. Is the person known for being the U.S. public
enemy number one, who attempt to destroy his
friction by applying a corrosive acid.
a. Robert James Pitts c. Roscoe Pitts
b. John Dillenger d. John Augustus

Robert James Pitts = used surgery to destroy his

friction ridges. Known as the Man without
fingerprint. Also known by the name Roscoe
Pitts.
13. Is the scientific study of the prints of the
soles of the feet?
a. Poroscopy c. Podoscopy
b. Chiroscopy d. Dactyloscopy
 Chiroscopy – ( Greek word “ Cheir” – a
hand, “Skopien” –to examine) study of the
prints of the palms of the hand.
 Podoscopy – ( Greek word “Podo” – the foot,
and Skopien – to the study of the footprints.
 Poroscopy – (Greek word “poros” – a pare,
and “Skopien” – to examine) study of the
arrangement of the sweat pores.
14. Is the science of fingerprint identification
a. dactyloscopy c. dactylomancy
b. dactylography d. dactylo-analysis
 Dactyloscopy – (derived from the Latin words
Dactyl = finger and Skopien – to study or
examine) is the practical application of the
science of fingerprints.
 Dactylography – is the scientific study of
fingerprint as a means of identification.
 Dactylomancy – is the scientific study of
fingerprint for purposes of personality
interpretation.
15. The word finger was derived from what
Latin word?
a. dermis c. digitus
b. dactyl d. skopien

Polydactyl = born with more than the regular

number of fingers.
Macrodactyl = enlarged finger.
Microdactyl = reduced/small finger.
Ectodactyl = missing finger at birth.
Syndactyl = side fussion of the finger.
16. The principle in fingerprint study that states
that fingerprint cannot be forged. Fingerprint
is a reliable and a positive means of
identification.
a. principle of infallibility
b. principle of permanency
c. principle of individuality
Dogmatic Principles of F.P. Identification
1. Individuality = based on Statistical
probability that no two persons have the
same fingerprint. (1:64,000,000,000 –
Francis Galton).
2. Infallability = reliable, positive, not easy to
be forged.
3. Permanency/Constancy = F.P. is
unchangeable. (Herman Welcker)
17. What is the main layer of the epidermis,
which covers the surface on which ridges are
visible?
a. dermis c. stratum corneoum
b. stratum mucusom d. sanguinal stratum

Epidermis =outer layer

Dermis =inner layer
Epidermis is divided into: stratum corneum
and stratum mucosum
18. Friction skin (Epidermal skin/ Papillary
skin) may be damage permanently when
which of its layer was damage?
a. dermis c. dermal papillae
b. epidermis d. generating layer

19. How deep is the cut in order to produced

permanent scar?
a. more than 1 cm c. 1 m
b. more than 1mm d. 1dm
20. Is that appears as tiny black line with white
dots (called pores) in an inked finger
impression?
a. sweat pores c. furrows
b. ridges d. sweat duct
21. What are the depressed portions or canal
structure of the friction skin (found between
ridges).
a. pores c. indentions
b. furrows d. duct
Component parts of Friction skin
1. Ridge Surface
a. Ridges = elevated portion/hill like/black-
lines.
b. Furrows = depressed portion/canal-like/
white space.
2. Sweat Pores= tiny/small openings/ tiny
white dots.
3. Sweat Duct = passage way of sweat.
4. Sweat Glands= the producer of sweat.
22. How many standard fingerprint patterns are
there? (types)
a. three c. eight
b. two d. nine
Group/ Galton/ Henry Galton-Henry System with FBI
Family System (9) Modification & Extension (8)
Loop (4) (2) (Radial & Ulnar Loop)
(60%)
Arch (3) (2) (Plain Arch & Tented Arch)
(5%)
Whorl (2) (4) (Plain, Central, Double &
(35%) Accidental Whorl)
23. What pattern type has the ridges that
enter on one side of the pattern and flow
to the other side with a rise in the center?
a. loop c. tented arch
b. plain arch d. exceptional arch
Arch (5%) = Two types (2): plain (A) and tented
arch (T) --- (a) uptrust, (b) angle, and (c)
Incomplete loop type.
= no ridge count.
Loop (60%)= Two types :radial and ulnar loop.
= core, dellta, a sufficient recurve, at least 1
ridge count.
Whorl (35%)= Four types (4) plain whorl (W),
central pocket loop whorl (C), double loop
whorl (D) and accidental whorl (X).
= two or more deltas and at least one
circuiting ridge.
24. What type of a pattern possesses an angle,
an uptrust, or two of the three basic
characteristics of the loop?
a. Plain arch c. central pocket loop
b. tented arch d. accidental whorl
25. In order for a pattern to be considered as
loop it should have _______ridge count.
a. 1 b. at least 1 c. 2 d. 3
26. What type of a pattern has two deltas in
which at least one ridges makes a turn
through one complete circuit?
a. arch b. accidental whorl c. loop d. whorl
27. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping
or slanting ridges flows towards the little finger?
a. loop b. radial loop
c. ulnar loop d. tented arch

Radial loop (radius bone) = towards the thumb.

Ulnar loop (ulna bone) = towards the little finger.

28. The diagonal sign / means ________.

a. right hand ulnar c. left hand radial
b. left hand ulnar d. none
29. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more
deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete
circuitry and when an imaginary line is drawn from
left delta to right delta it touches or cross the
circuiting ridge/s considered as the most common
type of whorl.
a. plain whorl c. central pocket loop whorl
b. double loop whorl d. accidental whorl
Plain Whorl = lines from left to right delta cross/touch
at least one circuiting ridge.
Central pocket loop whorl = lines from left to right
delta does not cross/touch at least one circuiting
ridge.
Double loop whorl = two separate loop/shoulders.
Accidental whorl = combination of two patterns,
except with plain arch.
30. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what
pattern is not included in the combination?
a. ulnar loop b. plain whorl
c. tented arch d. plain arch
31. The core and delta are also termed as
_____?
a. inner terminus c. outer terminus
b. focal point d. pattern area
Fingerprint Terminus/Focal Points
Core – inner terminus
Delta – outer terminus
32. Is a point along a ridge formation, which is
found in front or near the center of the
diverging typelines.
a. core c. island ridge
b. delta d. convergence
33. What is the rule where there are two or
more possible bifurcation deltas which
conform to the definition of delta?
a. the one nearest the core should be chosen
b. the one away from the core should be counted
c. the one which does not open towards the core is
counted
d. the one towards the core should be counted
34. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges
across the imaginary line, how is it counted?
a. one b. two c. three d. Six
35. What is that spreading of two ridges that
previously running side by side?
a. bifurcation c. convergence
b. divergence d. enclosure
36. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot,
fragment or a period?
a. lake c. ending ridge
b. island ridge d. incipient ridge
 Basic types of ridges: ridge dot, ending
ridge, bifurcation and short ridge.
 Convergence = two separate ridges that
meets at certain point. (meeting of two
separate ridges).
 Divergence = two ridges that spreads apart.
(Spreading of two separate ridges)
 Bifurcation = single ridge that splits into
two or more forming a Y-shape.
 Enclosure = a single ridge that splits into
two ridges and meets to form the original
ridge.
37. What ridge divides itself into or more
branches that meets to form the original
figure?
a. bifurcation c. island ridge
b. lake ridge d. convergence
38. What type of a ridge is that which curves
back to the direction from which it started.
a. diverging ridge c. recurving ridge
b. converging ridge d. bifurcation
39. Is a point along the recurving ridge in which
the ridge curves inward.
a. sufficient recurve c. appendage
b. obstruction ridge d. shoulder of loop
40. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving
ridge which has spoiled the inner line of flow from
the inner delta to the center of the pattern. This is
also found in the second type of central pocket
loop.
a. bar c. uptrust
b. appendage d. obstruction
 Appendage – is a short ridge found at the top or
summit of a recurve.
 Rod or Bar – is a short of long ridge found inside
the recurve and directed towards the core or
parallel to the recurve.
 Uptrust = a horizontal ridge that makes a sufficient
rise at the center.
41. Is the type of pattern in which the course is
traced the line flow below the right delta and
there are three intervening ridge.
a. meeting whorl c. outer whorl
b. inner whorl d. central pocket loop whorl

Meeting whorl = there are two or less

intervening ridge/s.
Inner whorl = with three (3) intervening ridge
and the tracing flows above/inside the right
delta.
42. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to
other regular ridge which is not included as a
ridge count even if it has been cross by the
imaginary line.
a. ending ridge c. incipient ridge
b. intervening ridge d. enclosure
43. What is that ridge that divides into two
ridges and which resembles a fork structure
a. divergence c. convergence
b. bifurcation d. enclosure
44. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet
during its infants stage which usually starts:
a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
d. 5th to 6th months before birth

3rd to 4th months of the fetus life or 5th to 6ht months

before birth.
Epidermis = temporary destruction
Dermis = permanent destruction
cut of more than 1mm = permanent scar.
45. Is the process of counting the ridges which
intervene between the delta and core of a
loop?
a. ridge tracing c. ridge counting
b. ridge tracking d. ridge summing

Ridge tracing = between tracing ridge and right

delta.
Intervening ridge = ridges between tracing ridge
and right delta.
Ridge count = ridges between delta and core.
46. What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking
a rolled impression?
a. both little finger c. both thumb finger
b. all finger except thumb d. both index finger
Types of fingerprint impression on the FP Card
 Rolled impression = taken individually by rolling
the finger from the tip to the end of the first joint.
Used for classification purposes.
 Plain Impression = taken simultaneously by
simply pressing the ten fingers. It serves as guide
or reference in checking the rolled impression.
47. Is an instrument used for the spreading of
the fingerprint ink to the slab?
a. Fingerprint brush c. Fingerprint lifting tapes
b. Fingerprint roller d. fingerprint card

Fingerprint card =where F.P. is recorded

(8”X8”)
Ink slab = metal/glass plate where ink is spread.
48. Is the process of placing the letter symbols
under each pattern as the results of the
interpretation of all ten fingers.
a. classification formula
b. reference classification (additional
classification formula)
c. blocking out
d. fingerprint identification

49. Is the symbol used to represent a plain

arch.
a. T b. A c. P d. W
50. Is the division in the classification formula which is
always represented by numerical value depending
upon a whorl pattern appearing in each finger.
a. primary b. key c. final d. Major
Primary div. = derived from the sum of the numerator
and denominator plus the pre-established fraction
of 1/1.
51. In assigning a number value to whorl pattern, what
finger should be given a value of 4 when a whorl
pattern appears therein:
a. left little finger and right thumb
b. right thumb and left little finger
c. right little finger and left thumb
d. left thumb and right
52. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls
and all the fingers of the left hand are loops,
what will be the primary division?
a. 25/29 b. 29/25 c. 24/28 d. 28/24
P = 1/1 + the sum of N/D = 25/29
 2 4 6 8 10 (fingers)
 16 8 0 0 0 = 24
 16 8 4 0 0= 28
 1 3 5 7 9 (fingers)
 Plain Whorl Central Radial loop Double loop Plain whorl
Pocket loop whorl
whorl

Double loop Ulnar loop Radial loop Plain Arch Tented Arch
whorl

P = N (e)/ D (o)
P = 1/1 + the sum of N/D = 29/21
2 4 6 8 10 (fingers)
16 8 4 0 0
16 0 4 0 0
1 3 5 7 9 (fingers)
53. What patterns are included in the
secondary division in deriving the small
letter category.
a. ulnar loop, plain arch and tented arch
b. radial loop, ulnar and arch
c. radial, plain arch and tented arch
d. radial, ulnar, plain arch

Secondary div. = combination of Capital

Letters (index fingers) and small letters
(from T, M, R, and L fingers = r,a,t).
 54. What would be the secondary divisions
if all the right hand fingers are radial loops
while all the left hand fingers are tented
arches.
 a. 3Rr b. rR3r c. R3r d. R4r
 3Tt tT3t T3t T4t
 Secondary div. = combination of Capital
Letters (index fingers) and small letters
(from T, M, R, and L fingers = r,a,t).
55. What is the interpretation for a ridge count
on the left index that reaches 8.
a. exceptional c. radial loop
b. inner loop d. outer loop
Sub-secondary = derived by ridge counting loop
and ridge tracing whorl appearing in the
Index, Middle and Ring fingers.
Loops = Inner (I) or Outer (0)
Index (9), Middle (10), and Ring (13)
Whorls = Meeting (M), Inner (I), and Outer (O)
Arches = Dash (-)
56. In interpreting a loop pattern, what is the
numerical value of S in the left hand?
a. 1 to 11 c. 1 to 17
b. 18 to 22 d. 12 to 16
57. In a loop pattern, when the number of the
ridges on the left thumb is 17 or more, it
constitutes as:
a. exceptional c. isolation
b. alteration d. Conditional
Major Div. = derived from both thumb fingers.
Loops = R. C. = S, M, L
Whorls = R.T. = M,O,I Arches = Dash (-)
58. In ridge counting a plain whorl or central
pocket loop whorl in the little finger it is
derived by:
a. getting the ridge count of the top loop (double
loop whorl)
b. treating it as ulnar loop
c. getting the least ridge count (accidental whorl)

d. getting the delta opposite each hand

59. What division in the classification formula is
derived from both little finger and is place at
the extreme right of the classification formula.
a. key b. final c. major d. secondary
60. The key division is the division in the
classification which is located at the extreme left
of the classification formula and it is taken by
getting the ridge count of _______?
a. loop pattern c. first loop
b. first radial loop d. first whorl

Key div = derived from the ridge count of the First

Loop, EXCEPT the little finger.
= If there were no loops, get the ridge count of
the First Whorl.
= Only numerator.
61. In case of a missing digits or an amputated
finger, what will be the classification of said
missing finger?
a. The same as the corresponding digit of the
other hand
b. Plain whorl with meeting tracing
c. Mutilated finger
d. None
One finger is missing/amputated = interpreted
as the same as the corresponding digit of the
other hand.
Both are amputated or missing = plain whorl
with meeting tracing.
If all fingers are missing/amputated the formula:
FPC = M 32 W MMM
M 32 W MMM
62. Prints found at the scene of the crime.
a. suspected prints
b. molded prints
c. latent prints
d. prints made by contamination with colored
substance.
63. Prints which were left in the place accidentally or
unconsciously?
a. chance prints c. fragmentary prints
b. smudge prints d. latent prints
Latent prints
1. visible (molded prints or made by contamination
with colored substance)
2. Invisible = made from sweat.
64. What method of developing latent prints in paper
is best to be used being easy to apply and less
destructive to the paper.
a. iodine fuming c. ninhydrin method
b. silver nitrate method d. dusting method
Dusting = traditional/simplest method of developing
prints in the crime scene.
65. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to
improve the contrast of a latent fingerprint
impression dusted with black powder on a green
background?
a. yellow filter c. red filter
b. green filter d. blue filter
 66. What kind of a filter should a
photographer use to improve the contrast of a
latent fingerprint impression dusted with gray
powder on a yellow background?
a. yellow filter b. green filter
c. red filter d. violet filter

 Opposite Colors:
 Blue – Orange Green – Red
Yellow – Violet
67. The identification of two impression can be
established primarily through:
a. formation of different types of pattern
b. formation of the two terminus
c. unexplained similarity of ridges
d. similarity of ridge characteristics in their relative
positions
(a and b are used for classification)
68. Is a card used in recording and preserving
developed latent print?
a. Fingerprint lifting tapes
b. Evidence Identification tags
c. Fingerprint transfer card
d. Post-mortem fingerprint equipment
 69. In case of split thumb, which should be
classified?
 a. get the smaller one
 B. get the outer one
 C. get the bigger one
 D. get the inner one

70. In case of wounded finger, how should

fingerprint be taken?
a. Just take the subject fingerprint.
b. don’t print said finger and left the rolled
impression box empty.
c. don’t print the finger and write in the box
wounded
71. What modern method of developing print is
best use when all conventional methods
becomes ineffective?
a. iodine fuming c. ninhydrin method
b. laser method d. dusting method
72. Prints made by blood, dust or dirt or other
coloring substances:
a. visible prints c. invisible prints
b. chance prints d. fragmentary prints
73. In filing classified fingerprint card what
should be the first attempt to be made:
a. primary numerator
b. secondary numerator
c. primary denominator
d. secondary denominator
74. What division of the classification formula is
left blank if all fingers are amputated.
a. Mayor and key c. key and final
b. Key and primary d. final and major
75. Is the term applied to cases of missing or
cut finger?
a. Mutilated finger c. Amputated finger
b. Fragmentary finger d. Deformities

76. What will be the primary Division if all

fingers are missing or cut.
a. 1/1 c. 31/31
b. 32/32 d. 16/16
 77. Reagents commonly used in liquid method
are the following, except:
 a. Silver nitrate c. victoria blue e. none
 b. Ninhydrin d. tetra methyl benzidine

78. The type of latent print which is made from

blood, dust or dirt?
 a. Chance prints b. semi-visible
 c. Visible prints d. fragmentary
 79. Which is not a process of developing
using the ninhydrin method?
a. immersion b. spraying
c. dusting d. brushing
 80. Once the latent print has been
visualized, it must be preserved by:
 a. Developing the latent print
 b. Lifting the impression
 c. Photography
 d. Brushing it
FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY
= it is the application of the
principles of photography to law
or administration of justice.
Police photography = the application
of photography to police work.
Also known in its old usage as
black and white photography.
1. The word Photography was coined by _____?
a. John F. W. Herschel
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre (Daguerreo type
c. Henry Fox Talbot (Talo or Calo type)
d. Leonardo Da Venci

2. What is considered as the utmost used of

photography in police work?
a. for identification c. for preservation
b. for record purpose d. for court presentation
Personal Identification = first used of photography in
police work.
3. The theory of light which states that it is
produced as an energy made by action of
some small particles such as electron and
protons.
a. Wave theory c. Corpuscular theory
b. Modified wave theory d. spectrum theory

4. It is characterized as the bending of light.

a. reflection c. refraction
b. dispersion d. defraction
 Reflection = bouncing of light.
 Defraction = lights fall around the object.
 Dispersion = the spread of light as it bends
forming the light spectrum.
5. In Photographing the scene of the crime,
what view should be used in order to show
the best feature of the nature of the crime
scene?
a. medium c. close-up
b. general d. extreme close-up
General view = over-all view.
Close-up = details of crime scene.
Extreme close-up =details of physical evidence.
6. Is an electromagnetic energy which travels
with the speed of 186, 000 miles per second
a. light b. energy c. rays d. radiation
7. Light travels in a form of a wave according to
wave theory of Huygens. What is that unit of
light wavelength which is express in ten
millionth part of a millimeter.
a. Millimicron c. Nanometer
b. Angstrom d. Micron

Millimicron / Nanometer = one millionth part of

mm.
Micron = equivalent to one thousand part of
millimicron.
8. Is the action of light when passing a
transparent object.
a. Absorbed c. reflected
b. transmitted d. refracted

Reflected = bouncing of light.

Absorbed = light that is block by the surface
where it falls such as black cloth (opaque)
Transmitted = light that passed through usually
in a transparent object such as plain glass.
Refracted =light that bends.
9. Is the condition of the sunlight where object
in an open space cast a transparent or bluish
shadow.
a. bright light c. dull sunlight
b. hazy sunlight d. none of these

Dull sunlight = thick clouds covers the sun, no

shadow will be produced.
Hazy sunlight = thin clouds covers the sun.
Bright sunlight = clear sky, well defined shadow,
glossy object.
10. An artificial light source which contains in its
tube certain powders capable of illuminating with
some support from small amount of electricity. It
is commonly used in the house or commercial
establishment.
a. Incandescent lamp c. fluorescence lamp
b. photo flood lamp d. flash bulb
Sources of light
1. Natural light source such as sunlight, starlight,
lightning etc.
2. Artificial /Man-made light (short duration and
long continuous) Flash bulb, Incandescent lamp,
Fluorescent lamp, spotlight or reflectorized light.
11. Light in which there wavelength are either
too short or too long to excite the retina of the
human eye?
a. visible c. invisible
b. natural d. artificial or man-made

Visible light =

Invisible light = (X-ray, ultra-violet light, and

Infra-red light etc.)
12. What color will be produced by the combination of
a red and blue color?
a. magenta c. yellow

b. cyan d. Green

Primary colors == Blue, Green and Red

Blue + Green = cyan
Green + Red = yellow
Blue + Red = magenta
Secondary = cyan, yellow and magenta
13. How many photographic rays are there?
a. three b. five c. four d. nine
14. What photographic rays have the longest
wavelength?
a. infra-red c.ultra-violet
b. visible rays d. x-rays

X-ray (roentgen rays) = .01 to 30 millimicron.

Ultra-violet light (black light) =30 to 400 mill.
Visible light = 400 to 700 millimicron.
Infra-red (heat rays) = 700 to 1000 millimicron
15. Is a type of an artificial light which makes
sympathetic inks visible?
a. ultra-violet c. infra-red
b. transparent light d. oblique light
16. What determine the amount of light a flash
unit will yield at a given distance?
a. luminescence b. wattage
c. guide number d. light meter

Light meter = an accessory of a camera which

measures the amount of reflected light.
17. Laser light is also referred to as ______?
a. ultra-violet c. visible
b. coherent d. Heat

18. Hologram refers to a :

a. 1 dimensional image in a film.
b. 2- dimensional image in a film
c. 3 – dimensional image in a film
d. 4 – dimensional image in a film

3D –image (length, height and width)

19. Sidelight photography is usually done to
show ________in a questioned document.
A. Stamped out writing C. Watermarks
B. Faded writing D. Erasures
Direct light = support photographing.
Oblique light = from one side at a very low
angle.
Side light = from one side.
Transmitted light =from the back/bottom
20. Specifically, the camera is needed in
photography to_________.
a. record the image
b. . Exclude all unwanted and unnecessary
lights
c. makes the image visible
d. makes the image permanent
21. How many parts does a camera generally
has, with all other parts treated as
accessories?
a. five c. six
b. four d. Three
22. What lens system of the camera reflects the
light passing the lens and mirror making the
image possible to be viewed from the
viewfinder.
a. pentaprism c. condenser
b. shutter d. filter
 Condenser = is that part of the enlarger that
ensures even illumination of the light to the
negative.
 Filter = is a piece of plastic or glass used to
subtract or control light passing through it.
23. Is that part of the camera which controls
the passage of light reaching the sensitized
material? It compared to the eyelid of the
human eye.
a. lens c. shutter
b. lens opening d. film plane
24. Is that part of the camera which provides a
means of determining the extent of the area
coverage of a given lens.
a. lens c. view finder
b. shutter d. pentaprism
25. Is a camera accessory designed to fix the
camera focus and avoid its unusual
movement during the process of
photographing?
a. cable release c. stand
b. tripod d. camera strap
26. What problem is usually encountered by
a photographer in using a flash unit?
a. neutral density c. synchronization
b prospective d. Parallax

Synchronization = timing between the shutter

and the flash.

Parallax = omission of an object. Image viewed

in the view finder is not exactly produce in
the photograph.
27. To readily determine the degree of
magnification of a subject in a photograph
________ should be place beside the subject.
A. Ruler C. rangefinder
B. Scale bed D. Gray-scale
28. Why must the taking of photographs from an
unusual camera position in crime photography
be avoided?
a. it distorts the focus
b. it distorts the perspective
c. it distorts the magnification
d. it distorts the texture
29. What type of a camera is ideal to police
photography?
a. view finder type c. single lens reflex (SLR)
b. twin lens reflex (TLR) d. press/view camera

SLR = is an interchangeable lens type of

camera.
View finder = simplest /cheapest
TLR = one lens for focusing/ one for forming.
View or Press = biggest and expensive.
30. What type of a film has the longest range of
sensitivity in the electromagnetic spectrum
called?
a. orthochromatic film c. blue-sensitive film
b. panchromatic film d. infra-red film
Film = is a sheet of celluloid or glass coated
with an emulsion of silver halides suspended
in gelatin which retains on invisible image
when exposed to light.
Black & White Film =“ortho” or “pan”
Colored (negative type—color or reversal --
chrome)
31. What emulsion speed indicator is express in
an arithmetic form?
a. ISO b. DIN c. ASA d. GNP

ASA – American Standard Association

10, 20, 30 , 40 , 50, 100, 200, 400, 800, 1000

DIN - Deutche Industre Normen

3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, 33, 36

ISO = International Standard Organization.

32. Assuming all conditions will be the same,
which film gives the finest of grains?
a. ASA 1000 b. ASA 100
c. ASA 200 d. ASA 400

Film speed/emulsion speed = the higher the

number the more sensitive or faster the film.

Finest grains = the lower the number the finer

the grains.
33. In Police Photography, what is the ideal
weight for enlarging paper?
a. double weight c. medium weight
b. single weight d. light weight
34. What photo paper is ideal to be used in a
normal exposed film?
a. # 1 b. # 3 c. # 2 d. # 4
# 0 for extremely overexposed and # 1 for
overexposed
# 3, #4 and #5 are for underexposed

35. What photo paper according to its chemical

content is best suited for police   photography?
a. Chloride paper c. Chloro-bromide
b. Bromide paper d. Iodide paper
 36. A convex lens is capable of?
a. reducing the object
b. making the object appear hairy
c. enlarging the object
d. reducing the size of the picture
Convex = thicker at the center.
(positive/converging lens)
Concave = thinner at the center.
(negative/diverging lens)
37. Zoom lens is composed of?
a. Positive lensc. negative lens
b. a and c d. none
38. Is a lens defect which unable for the lens to
focus both horizontal and vertical lines in
a  plane at the same time
a. Coma c. Distortion
b. Astigmatism d. Chromatic aberration

Coma / lateral aberration = straight line

becomes blurred.
Distortion = a defect not in blurredness but in
shape. (barrel/pinchusion)
Chromatic aberration = defects in color.
39. What type of a lens is used in a simplest
and cheapest type of a camera?
a. rapid rectillinear lens c. meniscus lens
b. anastigmat lens d. achromatic lens

e. Apochromatic lens
Meniscus = no correction
Rapid rectillinear = corrected from distortion.
Anastigmat = corrected from astigmatism
Achromatic = corrected from chromatic
aberration.
40. What kind of diaphragm opening should a
photographer used in order to get a wider
depth of field?
a. wider c. shorter
b. smaller d. Longer

F-Number = focal length/diameter of the whole

lens

f 2.8, f -4, f-5.6, f-8, f-11, f-16

41. What lens has a variable focal length?
a. wide angle lens c. telephotolens
b. normal focus lens d. zoom lens
 Wide angle/short focus = less than 35mm
focal length. Increase the area coverage but
reduce the size of the object.
 Normal/medium focus = based on human
vision. (more than 35mm but not more than
two times the diagonal half of the negative).
 Telephoto/long focus = reduced the area
coverage but enlarged the size of the object.
42. A type of a lens that would make an object
to be exaggeratedly closes to the
photographer and is ideal in stake out
surveillance photography.
a. short focus lens c. telephoto lens
b. normal focus lens d. wide angle lens
43. What is the range of distance from the
nearest object to the farthest object that is
sharp           when the lens is set or focused
at a particular distance?
a. focal length c. depth of field
b. hyperfocal distance d. Focusing
44. The determining factor of the size of an image
as well as the area of coverage of a given
camera lens is the?
a. focal length c. Diaphragm opening
b. hyper-focal distance d. Depth of field
 Focal length = is the distance from the optic
center of the lens to film plane once the lens is
focus in an infinite position.
 Focal distance = distance from the camera lens to
the nearest object.
 Hyperfocal distance = the nearest distance
between the optic center of the lens to the nearest
object that would give the maximum depth of field.
45. When one uses a Photographic filter in
taking a photograph, he is actually
__________light rays or color from the light
to reach the film.
a. adding b. multiplying c.
subtracting d. Dividing
46. A filter used in photographing fingerprints on
a shiny or highly polished surfaced because it
reduces or eliminates glare is known as:
A. Neutral density C. Color
B. Polarizing D. Contrast filter
 47. Is the light condition where object in an
open space cast a deep and uniform shadow.
 a. Bright sunlight b. Dull sunlight c. Hazy
sunlight d. dark sunlight
48. If the basic exposure for a given film in
bright sunlight is l/125, f11, the exposure
setting at dull sunlight would be?
a. 1/125 f4 c. 1/125 f8
b. 1/125 f5.6 d. 1/125 f16
BS = 1/125 , f-11
HS= 1/125 , f-8
DS = 1/125 , f-5.6
49. The part of enlarger that will assure the
even illumination of the negative when
enlarging is the:
A. Lamp house C. Condenser
B. Bellows D. Focusing speed
 50. What is the recommended size of
photographic evidence?
 a. 5 x 7 inches b. Passport size
 c. 2 x 2 inches d. 4 x 8 inches
51. What is the usual time of fixing of a negative
or a photograph?
a. five to six minutes
b. ten to fifteen twelve
c. one to one and half minutes
d. twenty to thirty minutes

5- 6 minutes = Developing time for D-76

1 – 1 ½ minutes = developing time for dektol
52. Is the reducers or the developing agents.
a. Elon, Hydroquinone c. sodium sulfate
b. sodium carbonate d. potassium bromide

Sodium sulfate = preservative

Potasium alum/ Potassium bromide =
hardener.
53. The need for long and continuous washing in
water of a negative or finished print is to remove
the presence of___________ because its
presence will result to the early fading.
A. Sodium sulfite C. Acetic acid
B. Potassium alum D. Hypo

 Sodium thiosulfate (Hypo) = the fixing or

dissolving agent.
 Acetic acid = neutralizer
54. Error in the processing step like
overdevelopment could be remedied by the
used of a:
A. reducer c. Bleacher
b. intensifier d. stain remover
53. What is that process of eliminating unwanted
portions of a negative during enlarging process?
a. dodging c. burning-in
b. vignetting d. Cropping

Cropping = omitting an object.

Burning –in =additional exposure on the desired portion
of a negative.
Vignetting = gradual fading of the image towards the
side.
55. What is the functions of the boric acid and acetic
acids in the fixer?
a. as preservative c. as hardener
b. as neutralizer d. as dissolving agent

Preservative = sodium sulfate

Neutralizer = acetic acid/boric acid
Hardener = potassium alum/potassium bromide.

56. The chemical that will dissolve all the unexposed

and undeveloped silver halides after
          development is the?
a. acetic acid c. hypo
b. sodium sulfate d. potassium alum
 57. What shutter speed will freeze a moving
object?
 a. B-shutter b. Slow shutter
 c. Fast shutter d. moderate shutter
  Fast shutter = freeze a moving object.
 B-shutter = used when taking photograph at
night or when the source of light is low. Used
together with cable release and tripod.
 58. How much light will the combination of
1/125, f-4 has compare to 1/250, f-5.6.
a. equal b. 2 times c. four times d. 6 times
 1/125, f -4 = 1/250, f-5.6
 59. That part of the camera responsible for
transmitting the light to form the image (Image
forming device).
 a. Light tight box b. shutter
 c. Lens d. view finder
 60. It is the process of taking a magnified
(enlarged) photograph of small object
obtained by attaching an extended tube lens
to a camera.
a. Photomicrography b. Photomacrography
c. Microphotography d. Photomacrograph
 61. Is a magnified photograph of small object
obtained by attaching a camera to the ocular
of a compound microscope.
 Photomicrographyb. Microphotograph
 c. Photomicrograph d. Photomacrograph
 Photomicrography and photomacrography are
process.
 Photomacrograph = is an enlarged
photograph.
 Microphotograph = is a reduced photograph.
making big object small.
 62. Is that part of the sensitized which is
sensitive to light.
 a. emulsion b. Anti halation
c. base d. coating
 Anti halation = designed to prevent further
reflexes by absorbing excess light.
 63. Is that substance present in the emulsion
surface of the film or photo paper which is
sensitive to light.
 a. silver nitrate b. silver halides
 c. silver chloride d. silver bromide
 64. Taking photograph in back lighting will
produce what image?
 a. Good image b. Bad image
 c. fare image d. better image
 ** what is required in front lighting**
 65. What is meant by total take?
 a. photograph the crime scene in all angles.
 b. Photograph only important evidence.
 c. Photograph the crime scene
 d. Photograph the body of the crime.
Forensic Ballistics
= it is the science of
firearms identification by
means of an ammunition
fired from them
1. The word forensic means _______?
a. Forum
b. public discussion
c. market place   
d. In connection with administration of justice

The word forensic was derived from the Latin

word “forum” meaning a “market place”, a
place where people gathered for public
discussion.
2. The person accredited as successful
inventor of gun powder.
a. Horace smith
b. Alexander John Forsyth
c. Berthhold Schwartz
d. Col Calvin H. Goddard

Calvin H. Goddard = father of modern

ballistics.
Horace Smith= founder of Smith and Wesson
company.
3. It is the science of mobility of the projectile.
a. forensic ballistics c. applied physics
b. ballistics d. applied science
4. Is that branch of ballistics which treats of the
motion of the projectile while it is in its flight?
     
a. Interior b. terminal c. exterior d. forensic

Interior = before leaving the gun muzzle.

Exterior = upon leaving the gun muzzle.
Terminal = upon reaching/hitting the target.
5. Is a Greek word from which the word
“ballistics” was derived which means “to
throw”
a. Ballistics c. Ballein or ballo
b. Catapult d. Ballista

Ballista = is a gigantic catapult (Roman war

machine) designed to throw stone to the
enemy.
6. It refers to the motion of the projectile once it
enters a rifled barrel of a gun.
a. Direct c. Transnational
b. Rotatory d. Twist

Direct = forward movement.

Rotatory = twist of the bullet either to the R or L.
Translational = change in the motion of the
bullet.
7. What initiates the combustion of the
gunpowder in a shell.
a. hammer c. trigger
b. primer d. flash hole

Trigger = release the hammer.

Hammer = push the firing pin.
Firing pin = hits the primer.
Primer = imparts ignition to the gun powder
Flash hole = where the primer imparts ignition
to the gun powder.
8. Is the rearward reaction of the firearm in
relation to the forward movement of the bullet
upon firing?
a. percussion action c. back fire
b. recoil d. ricochet

Percussion action = is the ignition of the

priming mixture.
Jump = upward reaction of the gun.
9. Is the stillness or the steadiness of the bullet
in flight? (Straight travel in flight)

a. key hole shot c. yaw

b. ricochet d. gyroscopic action

Recochet =bouncing of bullet as a result of not

penetrating or hitting a hard object.
Yaw = unstable rotation motion of bullet.
Key hole shot = thumbling of bullet in flight
hitting the target sideways.
10. The actual pattern or curve path of the bullet in flight.
a. curve c. gyroscopic action
b. trajectory d. drop of bullet
11. Is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time,
expressed in ft/sec?
a. muzzle velocity c. muzzle blast
b. velocity d. Trajectory
Muzzle blast = noise or sound generated at the muzzle
point.
Muzzle velocity = the speed at which the bullet leaves
the muzzle.
12. It is the distance at which the gunner has the
control of shot. Where the bullet travel straight.
a. Maximum range c. Maximum effective range
b. Accurate range d. Effective range

Range = imaginary straight distance between

muzzle and the target.
Effective range = distance where bullet is lethal.
Maximum effective range = farther distance where
bullet is still lethal.
Maximum range= farthest possible distance of
travel.
13. Is the size of the bullet grouping on the target?
a. Terminal penetration c. Terminal accuracy
b. Terminal trajectory d. Muzzle velocity
14. What type of a firearm propels a projectile
with more than one inch diameter?
a. small arms c. artillery
b. machine gun d. Cannon

Artillery =more than one inch

Small Arms = less than one inch
Machine gun = automtic/continuous firing
Shoulder arm = carry/fired with the aid of
the shoulder.
Hand gun = can be fired in one hand.
15. A type of a firearm in which the mechanism is so
arranged that makes it capable of continuous
firing in a single press of a trigger and while the
trigger is press.
a. machine gun c. sub-machine gun (SMG)
b. grease gun d. shoulder arm
SMG and grease gun are the same.
16. What type of a firearm is designed to propel a
projectile by means of compressed air or strong
string?
a. air rifle c. Springfield armory
b. carbine d. musket
17. A type of a firearm which propels a number
of lead pellets in one charge to a smooth
bore barrel.
a. rifle c. machine gun
b. shotgun d. Musket
Smooth bore = without rifling
a. musket =muzzle loading/ancient weapon
b. shotgun = breech loading/a number of
lead pellets.
Rifled bore = with rifling
a. rifle
b. carbine = short barrel rifle (less than 22”)
18. What type of a firearm is commonly used by
cavalry. (riding a horse)
a. carbine c. pistol
b. revolver d. rifle

Revolver = ideal for horse riding.

19. What type of a hand firearm has a rotating
cylinder that serves as the magazine and
which successively places cartridge into
position for firing.
a. pistol c. rifle
b. revolver d. Carbine
20. A type of a firearm in which pressure upon
the trigger will both cock and release the
hammer.
a. single action c. single shot
b. double action d. repeating arms
Single action =requires manual cocking.
21. What type of a firearm contains rifling (land
and grooves) only a few inch from the
muzzle point?
a. cylinder type c. rifled bore
b. choke d. Paradox
22. What type of a firearm is fed by chamber?
a. single shot F/A c. bolt action
b. slid action d. repeating arms
Cylinder type = equal diameter
Choke type = reducing diameter
Paradox = with rifling a few inch from the muzzle
point.
23. Generally applied to all home made gun,
just as the one used by juvenile delinquent
in United States.
a. zip gun c. freakish gun
b. grease gun d. paltik
24. A copper jacketed type of a bullet is usually
fired from a:
a. rifle b. pistol
c. revolver d. pistol and revolver
Freakish gun = a tool in which F/A mechanism
is attached.
Paltik = the counter part of zip gun in the Phils.
25. Known as the smallest pistol in the world.
a. Colibre c. senorita
b. cal 22 d. Kolibre
26. Is that part of a firearm which houses all
the other parts.
a. housing c. frame
b. casing d. chamber
 27. The mechanism of a firearm which withdraws
the empty shells from the chamber?
a. Ejector c. Extractor
b. Firing pin d. Extractor pin

Extractor = causes the empty shell to be

withdrawn/pull out from the chamber.

Ejector = causes the empty shell to be thrown out of

the firearm.
28. In case that cartridge case are found at the
scene of firing it only means that_____firearm
was used.
a. single shot c. bold action
b. automatic d. double action
29. What is that condition in firing at which the
cartridge took several seconds before it
     discharged upon firing? (delayed in the
discharged of the cartridge).
a. mis-fire c. hang fire
b. backfire d. Backshot
Misfire = failure to discharged.

Hangfire = delay in the discharged of firearm.

30. What is the steel block that closes the rear
of the bore against the force of the charge?
a. breechface c. breechblock
b. hammer d. chamber

Breechface = the flat surface where the base of

the shell comes in contact when fired.

Chamber = part of the f/a where cartridge is

placed when ready to be fired.
31. Type of primer consisting of two flash hole or
vent.
a. Berdan c. Battery
b. Boxer d. none
Boxer=one flash hole; Battery= shotgun primer.
32. Father of percussion ignition.
a. Alexander John Forsyth
b. Roger Bacon
c. Bethold Schwartz
d. Veillie
Veillie = developed smokeless powder for rifle.
 33. Primers are used for igniting the
propellant charge by means of a blow from
the firing pin on the primer cup producing
flames that passes through the:
a. Anvil c. Vent/ flash hole
b. Paper disc d. Primer cup
Anvil = solid metallic support.
Paper disc= thin foil/animal skin which protect
the priming mixture from moist.
Primer cup = gilding metal cup which holds the
priming mixture.
34. Is a complete unfired unit consisting of
bullet, primer, gun powder and shell:
a. ammunition c. shotgun cartridge
b. cartridge d. missile
Ammunition =loaded shell.
Shotgun cartridge = consists of pellet,
gunpowder, primer, shell and wads.
35. Is that type of ammunition which does not
have bullet used in film-making:
a. dummy c. drill
b. blank d. live
36. Is the type of cartridge with a rim diameter
which is smaller than the diameter of the body
of the cartridge?
a. Belted type c. Rimless
b. Rebated d. Rimmed type
37. Is the type of cartridge in which is the
priming mixture is not found at the cavity rim
of the cartridge case?
a. Pin fire c. Center fire
b. Rimmed type d. Rim fire
38. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent
diameter of:
a. .730” b. .729” c. .726” d. .
724”

39. European made firearm are usually referred

in millimeter in determining calibers, when you
talk of 9mm you are referring to?
a. .38 cal c. .45 cal
b. .357 cal d. .30 cal
 40. A metallic or non-metallic cylindrical ball
propel from a firearm.
a. bullet b. slug
c. projectile d. missile e. all of these

Projectile = metallic and non metallic ball propel

from a firearm.
Bullet = projectile usually fired from small arms.
Slug =other term/police term for bullet.
Shot = also referred to as slug/commonly used
in shotgun.
Missile = used for artillery.
41. A type of a bullet designed to be fired at
night which emits a bright flame at its base
and usually colored red-tip.
a. armor piercing c. tracer
b. incendiary d. explosive

Armor piercing = used in light metallic

target/harden metal core.
Incendiary = design to set fire upon impact (blue
tip)
Explosive = design to fragment.
42. A type of a bullet made in order to inflict
greater damage used by India. (expanding
bullet)
a. Dum-Dum c. expanding bullet
b. baton round d. explosive
e. mushroom bullet

Expanding bullet = hallow point & soft point

also called mushroom bullet.
43. A bullet covered with thick coating of a
copper alloy to prevent leading is known as:
a. Plated bullet c. Metal cased bullet
b. Jacketed bullet d. Metal point bullet
44. Shots consisting of a small lead ball or
pellets which are made by dropping with the
exception of the very largest sizes which are
made by molding are known as:
a. Soft shots c. Buck shots
b. Drop shots d. Chilled shots
45. A miscellaneous type of bullet design as
anti riot, basically made from rubber at a
larger caliber.
a. Discarding sabot c. Baton Round
b. Flechette d. Frangible

Discarding Sabot = design for greater

velocity.
Flechette = a number of nail type or neddle-
like projectile.
46. Is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical
container which serves as the projector for the
propellant against moisture?
a. Bullet c. Cartridge case
b. Primer d. Paper disc
47. Is that part of the cartridge case which
characterized by a cylindrical grooves that
prevents the bullet from being push down to the
cartridge?
a. Crimp c. Shoulder
b. Neck d. Cannelure
Crimp = prevent loss/pull out.
48. A cylindrical groove around the body of a bullet
which may contains lubricating substances and
which can be the basis in determining its
manufacturer.
a. Body c. ogive
b. Bullet crimp d. bullet cannelure.
49. Black powder basically composed of:
a. 75% potassium chlorate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
b. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
c. 75% potassium chlorate, 10 % charcoal and 15 % sulfur.
d. 75% potassium nitrate, 10% charcoal and 15% sulfur.
50. A form of smokeless powder made from
sticks or cords?
a. balistite c. cordite
c. powder B d. nitroglycerine

51. The don’t MAC rule in collection of physical

evidence stands for: Mutilate, Alter and ____?
a. Cut c. contaminate
b. Consume d. conserve
52. Is the part of the cartridge case which holds
the primer securely in a central position and
providing a solid support for the primer anvil?
a. Flash hole c. Extractor groove
b. Primer pocket d. Rim
Rim = limits the forward movement of the
cartridge to the cylinder.
53. The caliber of a bullet is measured through?
a. Two opposite lands
b. Measuring the base diameter
c. using the caliper
d. using a micrometer
54. Is the helical groove mark found inside the
bore of the barrel designed to impart rotation
motion of the bullet
a. lands c. rifling
b. grooves d. pitch of rifling
55. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves
twisted to the right is fired from the barrel of
a firearm with identical class characteristics
as that of:
a. Browning c. Colt
b. Smith and Wesson d. Steyer
62. The pitch of rifling (rate of twist) in the barrel of a
firearm is called as____?
a. land
b. one complete revolution of bullet
c. groove
d. range
57. What instrument is used in measuring the pitch of
rifling of a firearm?
a. calipher c. tortion balance
b. helixometer d. Chronograph
Caliper = measure caliber
Chronograph = measure velocity.

.
58. Fired Cartridge case/shell are usually mark
at the _________?
a. outside near open mouth b. side or
body of the shell
c. inside near open mouth d. any of the
above
59. Fired bullet found at the scene of the crime
are usually  marked at the ______.
a. Ogive c. Base e.
none of the above
b. Nose d. Any of the above
60. Fired bullet/fired shell are usually mark with:
a. Initial of the investigator
b. Initials of investigator and date of recovery.
c. Letter “t” plus the last two digit of the firearm.
d. Letter “t-1, t-2…., plus the last two digit of the
firearm used.
61. It is the list of the people who have handled
the physical evidence from the time of its
discovery until their final disposition in court.
a. Evidence list c. Chain link
b. Chain of events d. chain of custody
62. The basis in shell identification is________?
a. firing pin marks
b. breech face marks
c. Firing pin and/or breech face marks
d. extractor and ejector marks
63. Individual marks found at the interior portion
of the bullet due to poor alignment of the
cylinder with bore of the firearm.
a. skid marks c. stripping marks
b. shaving marks d. slippage marks
Skid mark = due to forward movement of the
bullet to the bore before it rotates.
64. The importance of individual marks left on a bullet by a
gun barrel is that it is useful in directly identifying the:
a. bullet which caused the fatal wound
b. person who fired the particular firearm
c. gun from which a bullet was fired
d. possible direction of shot
65. What is the best way of picking a suspected firearm at
the crime scene?
a. picking it through the handle
b. picking it through the barrel
c. inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the trigger
guard
d. inserting a rod at the barrel
.
66. A shaving marks on a bullet is due to:
a. Poor alignment of the cylinder to the bore of
the barrel
b. Oversized barrel
c. Oily barrel
b. badly worn-out (stripping mark)
67.  It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which
are determinable even before the manufacture of
the firearm?
Class Characteristics c. Individual Characteristics
b. Repetitive mark d. accidental mark
68. Is a condition in which two bullets or shells are
examined and compared under the comparison
microscope at the same time, level and direction
and magnification and same image?
a. Pseudo match c. Juxtaposition
b. false match d. Sodo match
69. Is the process of obtaining a magnified
photograph of a small object done by attaching a
camera to the ocular of a compound microscope?
a. Photomacrography c. Photomicrography
b. Microphotography d. Macrophotography
70. When the “draws” of the revolver is
completed, the index finger should?
a. touch the outside of the trigger guard
b. grasp the stock
c. be straighten along the barrel
d. be inside the trigger guard
71 . What is the secret of good shooting form?
a. relaxed and natural position
b. keeping the thumb along the hammer
c. proper sighting of the target
d. firing slowly and carefully
72. Are small grooves, channels or ridges on
the surface of the bullet due to the tool marks
or other irregularities in the interior surface of
the bore?
a. Land marks c. Groove marks
b. Striation d. Accidental marks
73. Is an instrument used in determining the
caliber of the bullet by getting a equivalent
weight?
a. Caliper c. Micrometer
b. Torsion Balance d. Flat-form balance
74. Is a type of a powder used in modern
cartridges being powerful?
a. Corrosive c. Non-corrosive
b. Black d. Smoke less

75. An optical instrument used or designed to

make simultaneous comparison of two
specimens?
a. Comparison microscope c. Chronograph
b. Micrometer d. Shadowgraph
76. Instrument used in obtaining test bullet:
a. caliper
b. bullet comparison microscope
c. bullet recovery box
d. water tank
77. A pointed instrument use in marking fired
bullet/fired shell.
a. pointer c. stylus
b. marker d. driller
78.Firearms includes muskets, carbine shotgun etc.
as mention in _______of the Revised
Administrative Code.
a. sec.788 b. sec.787 c. sec.878 d.sec.877
79. The law which prohibits possession of
firearms/ammunition.
a. P.D. 1866 c. R.A. 8294
b. P.D. 1688 d. R.A. 9284
80. Low power gun are those firearms that uses
projectile not more than 9mm or .38 cal. Except:
a. Magnum .22 c. magnum 357
b. Magnum 40 d. a and c only
81. Otherwise known as the Comprehensive
Firearms and Ammunition Regulation Act?
a. R.A. 10591 c. R.A. 10592
b. R.A. 10158 d. R.A. 10354
82. Under the New law on firearms the
following shall be considered firearm, EXCEPT.
a. Barrel c. Frame
b. Receiver d. Magazine
83. Refers to any handheld or portable weapon,
whether a small arms or light weapon, that
expels or is designed to expel a bullet, shot,
slug, missile or any projectile, which is
deischarged by means of expansive force of
gases from burning gun powder or other form
of combustion or any similar instrument or
implement.
a. Firearm c. Forfeited firearm
b. Antique firearm d. Confiscated firearm
84. The following are “Antique Firearms”, EXCEPT:
a.Firearm which was manufactured at least seventy-
five (75) years prior to the current date but not
including replicas;
b.Firearm which is certified by the National Museum
of the Philippines to be curio or relic of museum
interest.
c.Any other firearm which derives a substantial part
of its monetary value from the fact that it is novel,
rare, bizarre or because of its association with
some historical figure, period or event.
d.Firearms which was manufacture at least 70 years
prior to the current date.
Questioned Document
1. A document completely written and signed
by one person is known as____________.
a. Holograpic document
b. all of the above
c. Questioned document
d. disputed document
e. None of the above

Holograph = latin word “holo” and “graph”

meaning “hand writing”.
2. It serves as the focal points of all document
examination and it is where the document
examiner relies as to the determination of the
appropriate examination and the extent of the
problem involved.
a. Questioned document c. disputed document
b. Standard document d. evidential document
Questioned document
Collected/procured
Document
Standard
Requested/dictated
3. An autopsy report is an example of what kind of
evidence?
a. documentary c. experimental
b. testimonial d. object/Real
4. Specimen of writing which was executed in the
regular course of one’s activities.
a. requested c. collected
b. executed at one time d. day to day standard
5. When document examiner as well as police are
dealing with documents, the most common
problem they encountered are those concerning.
a. origin c. authorship
b. counterfeit d. content (alteration)
6. Refers to the study of one’s handwriting in
attempting to determine one’s personality.
a. Agraphia c. graphology
b. Chromatography d. handwriting identification
Agraphia = a kind of disease in the brain which
makes the person unable to write.
Calligraphy = art of beautiful writing.
Cacography = bad writing.
7. Known Father of Questioned Document
a. Albert S. Osborn c. John Augustus
b. Dr. Hans Gross d. Ordway Hilton
8. Is the combination of the basic designs of
letter and the writing movement involved
in the writing?
a. copy book form c. writing movement
b. system of writing d. line quality
Copy book form = the illustration of the basic
designs of letter/fundamental to the writing
system.
Angular & roundhand = basic system of writing.
Writing movement = refers to the mobility/motion
of the pen.
9. Is the visible record of the written strokes
resulting from a combination of
various factors associated to the motion of
the pen. Is the overall quality of the strokes.
a. movement c. line quality
b. writing habits d. significant writing habits
 Writing habits = any repeated elements of
writing.
 Significant writing habits = sufficiently unique
and well-fixed.
 Handwriting = visible effect.
 Writing = visible result.
10. Refers to the usual or normal deviations
found in a repeated specimen of
individual’s handwriting.
a. Natural variation c. transitory change
b. permanent damage d. temporary defect

Transitory change = changes which are only

temporary.
11. In document examination when referring to
contemporary documents this refers
to______?
a. Document which is more than 5 years before
and after.
b. Document which are not more than 5 years
before and after
c. Document which are more than 30 years
d. Document which are not more than 20 years
Ancient Document = more than 30 years found
in a place where it is normally to be found if
genuine and not embellish by any alteration.
12. A type of a document which bears the seals of the
office issuing and the authorized signature to
such document.
a. Public document c. private document
b. Official document d. commercial document
13. What is the first step in the procurement of
handwriting exemplars?
a. Request for standard specimen
b. Study of the questioned specimen
c. Determine the writing instrument and paper used
d. Arrange for normal writing condition
Handwriting standards = should be three or
more.
14. Is a specimen of writing prepared with
deliberate intent of altering the usual
writing habits in the hope of hiding his
identity.
a. disguised writing c. handlettering
b. cursive d. block capital
15. Refers to properties or marks, elements
or qualities which serve to distinguish.
Known as the basis of identification.
a. Characteristics c. individual characteristics
b. class characteristics d. sample
Class/common/general characteristics or Gross
= can be found in a group of writing.
16. A specimen of writing which was executed
without intention of changing the usual
writing habits. It is executed normally by the
writer.
a. Natural writing c. disguised writing
b. Guided writing d. assisted writing

Natural writing = consisting of usual writing

habits.
Disguised = inferior than natural writing.
Guided or Assisted = executed with the writer’s
hand at steadied.
17. Writing forms can either be a disconnected or
joined letter writings. What specimen of writing is
characterized by disconnected style?
a. Hand lettering c. cursive writing
b. Manuscript form d. rounded
Handprinting or handlettering
Cursive = letters are joined.
Connection = (ductus link) strokes joining two
successive letters in a word.
18. A genuine signature which was used in the
preparation of a simulated or traced forgery.
a. Authentic signature c. standard signature
b. Model signature d. evidential signature
19. It refers to the group of muscles which is
responsible for the formation of the upward
strokes.
a. Flexor b. Cortex c. Lumbrical d. extensor
20. If John Loud is known for ball-point pen, who
is for the fountain pen?
a. Lewis Watterman c. Laszlo Biro
b. John Parker d. Lewis Parker
21. Is a type of writing movement that gives a
great freedom of movement. Also considered
as the most skillful type of movement.
a. finger movement c. hand movement
b. forearm movement d. whole arm movement
22. Is an irregularity in strokes characterized by
shaky or wavering stroke which is   perfectly
apparent even without magnification?
a. tremor c. tremor of illiteracy
b. tremor of old age d. tremor of fraud
Tremor of illiteracy = due to lack of skills.
Tremor of fraud = due to copying/imitation
23. A sign of forgery in guided hand signature
is;
a. Good pen control c. Uneven alignment
b. Disconnected stroked d. Slanting strokes
Sign of genuine guided writing = abrupt change
in direction.
24. A modern pen nib which contains a
reservoir of ink in a specially designed back
or chamber is described as (used to prevent
forgery).
a. ball point pen (difficult to examine) c. pencil
b. fountain pen d. fiber pen
25. What is that which widens the ink strokes
due to the added pressure on a flexible pen
 point.
a. pen pressure c. shading
b. pen lifting d. retouching

Pen pressure = average/usual force applied in

writing.
Pen emphasis = periodic increased in
pressure/intermittently forcing the pen against
paper surface.
Retouching = goes back over a defective stroke.
26. Are meant to those grace lines,
superfluous strokes and are useful only
for ornamentation and are not essential to
the legibility of the signatures and usually
occurs among writers who attempt to express
some phase of their personalities.
a. diacritical marks c. idiosyncrasies
b. embellishments d. flourishing strokes

Diacritics = strokes added to complete certain

letters.
27. What was done, when one retouches or
goes back over a defective portion of a
writing stroke?
a. retracing c. patching
b. pressuring d. shading
28. What is that interruption in a stroke,
caused by sudden removal of the writing
instrument from the paper surface?
a. tremor c. retouching
b. pen lifting d. hiatus
Hiatus = obvious gap.
29. Stroke where the motion of the pen
precedes the beginning and continues
beyond the end of a vanishing point and
are found on free natural writing and as a
rule are important indication of genuineness.
a. Ending stroke c. Terminal stroke
b. Flying start and finish d. Pen movement
30. Strokes which goes back over another
writing strokes and which is slightly to
occur   due to lack of movement control.
a. retouching c. retracing
b. shading d. patching
31. Is outer portion of a curve bend or crook?
a. humps b. staff/stem/shank
c. whirl d. central part
Arc = the inner portion of upper curve.
Whirl = long upward strokes.
Staff/stem/shank = long downward strokes.
Central part = the body of the letter.
32. What is that introductory up and down stroke
found in almost all capital letters.
a. hitch b. humps c. beard d. buckle knot
Hitch – introductory backward stroke.
33. Forged signature made by free hand
(imitation) movement and constant practice
is called:
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Simple forgery d. spurious signature
34. A traced forgery of signature is not really a
writing but a,
a. Retouching c. Drawing
b. Patching d. tremor of fraud
35. What type of forgery is made when the
writer’s exerts no effort to effect
resemblance or facsimile between the
forged and the genuine signatures?
a. simple c. simulated
b. traced d. spurious
36. A type of forgery which involves fraudulent
signature executed by actually
following the outline (tracing) of a
genuine signature with a writing instrument?
a. carbon outline process c. lasered
b. indention process d. traced
37. As a rule, it is easier to determine whether
or not a signature is forgery, but it is very
difficult on the other hand to established who
committed the forgery because:
a. the forger might be a left handed
b. imitation is one of the most effective means
to disguise one’s handwriting
c. it might be a traced forgery
d. there should be no sufficient standard
available
38. Philippine Paper bills are printed in what
process.
a. Letter process
b. Intaglio process
c. Off-set process
d. Lithographic process
e. All of the above
39. Paper, which has been treated in such a
way as to minimize the change of a
successful forgery by erasure, whether
mechanical or chemical, being carried out
on any document of which it forms the basis
called.
a. Chemical paper
b. Safety paper
c. Tested paper
d. Polyethylene coated paper
40. . What is that indelible ink whose marking
substance is composed of mixture of
aniline ink and graphite?
a. stencil c. nut gall ink
b. printers ink d. copy pencil

Carbon ink = oldest ink

Indian rubber = oldest eraser
Papyrus = Egyptian plant from which the word
paper was derived.
41. What is the first step in the procurement of
typewriting exemplars?
a. procurement of the suspected typewriter
b. acquisition of typewriting exemplars
c. study of the questioned typewriting
d. preparation of exemplars
42. Is one of the most expensive instruments
used for examination of documents that
would show three dimensional enlargements.
a. polarizing light c. stereoscopic microscope
b. infra-red gadget d. ultra-violet light
Handwriting slope measuring test plates = used
to examine handwriting slant.
Typewriting measuring testplates = for
typewriting examination.
Magnifying lens = basic tool which can solved
almost 75% of document cases.
43. What is that type of signature which has
been made in a particular date, time, place
and at a particular purpose of recording it.
a. model signature c. evidential signature
b. standard signature d. guided signature
44. Is a light examination in which the source of
illumination strikes the surface of the paper
from the back or at the bottom, usually
designed in identification of water
    markings?
a. direct light c. side light
b. oblique light d. transmitted light
45. An illegible form of a writing which is
characterized by partially visible
depression appearing underneath the
original writing.
a. invisible writing c. indented writing
b. obliterated writing d. contact writing
46. A type of conventional typewriter in which the
characters are normally space 12 in
one horizontal
a. pica c. elite
b. proportional spacing machine d. computer

47. Is a typeface defect in which the letters are

printed to the right or left of its proper
position.
a. vertical mal alignment (Above and below)
b. twisted letter
c. horizontal mal alignment
d. off-its feet
48. What is that substance which is capable of
bleaching an ink.
a. Sympathetic Ink c. Superimposing Ink
b. Ink Eradicator d. Invisible ink
Sympathetic Ink or Invisible ink = inks with no
readily visible strokes.
Superimposing ink = used for blotting or
smearing over an original writing. (Used in
Obliteration)
49. Is the type of light examination best used in
deciphering an obliterated writing and
charred document.
a. Ultra violet light c. Infra-red light
b. transmitted light d. x-ray
Ultra-violet Infra-red
Erasure, Contact Addition,
writing, Invisible writing, interlineation,
watersoaked document, insertion, obliteration,
latent prints, counterfeit charred document,
money, semen, and night vision, heat rays,
fiber etc. and remote controls
50. Is a type of an abnormality/defects in typewriter
that can easily be corrected by simply  cleaning
the machine or replacing the ribbon.
a. temporary defect c. permanent defect
b. Clogged type face d. actual breakage

Remington Model 1 (1874) = first commercial

typewriter.
 Polygraphy

= scientific method of detecting deception

done with the aid of polygraph machine.
= also known as instrumental interrogation/
lie detector test.
1. The word Polygraph was derived from What word?
a. Poly and Graph c. Greek
b. Many writing chart d. Latin
The word Polygraph was derived from the Greek word
“poly” which means “many or several” and “graph”
meaning “writing chart”
 2. The first man noted for the used of the word
“Polygraph”
a. Thomas Jefferson b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Galileo Galilee d. Sir James Mackenzie
Polygraph = is a scientific instrument capable of
recording changes of blood pressure, pulse beat
and respiration as indicative of emotional
disturbances.
 3. Is the person who devise an instrument that can
record changes of blood pressure, pulse beat and
respiration simultaneously which he called the
“Bread board Lie Detector”.
 a. Cesare Lombroso b. John A. Larson
 c. Sir James Mackenzie d. Leonarde Keeler

Pulselogim was invented by Galileo Galilee as 1st

instrument used for measuring pulse beat.
Bread Board lie detector is the first portable
polygraph machine invented by John Larson in
1921.
William Marston = utilized sphygmomanometer
for detecting systolic blood pressure and
developed the discontinuous technique in
questioning.
Sir James Mackenzie = is a heart specialist who
described in two (2) British Journal a machine
which he called “Ink Polygraph”.
4. A person who makes a great improvement on
the polygraph machine in the year 1926.
a. John A. Larson c. John E. Reid
b. Richard O. Arthur d. Leonarde Keeler

Richard D. Arthur = developed his own polygraph

machine with two (2) galvanic skin resistance.
John E. Reid = developed his Reid polygraph
known for the addition of muscular resistance.
Later the machine was adopted by the
company and named after it “Stoelting
Polygraph”.
5. An Australian Magistrate who described the work
of investigator/detectives as “Search for Truth”
a. Dr. Paul Kirk c. August Vollmer
b. Dr. Hans Gross d. Angelo Mosso

Dr. Paul Kirk = the father of criminalitistics in U.S.

August Vollmer = the first head of the first

comprehensive crime laboratory in U.S.

Angelo Mosso = the one who studied fear as a

strong influence in detecting deception and also
utilized sphygmomanometer.
6. The person who made the first suggestion for
using the Psycho Galvanic reaction for
detecting deception and we stated that galvanic
skin phenomenon is under the influence of
exciting mental impressions and the will has no
effect upon it.
a. Veraguth c. Sticker
b. Harold Burtt d. Vittorio Bennussi
Vittorio Benussi = devised a system of computing
the ratio between inhale and exhale and
exhale of the subject.
Harold Burtt “= respiration & systolic B.P.”
Sticker =“Activity of Sweat Glands & Electro
dermal Response.”
7. He devised a quantitative analysis on a
polygraph chart and the test called Backster
Zone Comparison Technique. (numerical
scoring)
a. Cleve Backster c. C.D. Lee
b. Richard D. Arthur d. Galilleo
Richard D. Arthur = developed two (2) galvanic
skin resistance.
C.D. Lee = developed “psychograph machine”
Galilleo = developed the first instrument to
record pulse beat called “pulselogium”
8. Is an ancient method of detecting deception practice
in Bengal, India where accused to proved his
innocent would touch his tongue to an extremely hot
metal.
a. boiling water ordeal c. red hot iron ordeal
b. ordeal of balance d. Ordeal of heat and fire
Scientific Methods:
1. Word Association test = used of time pressure
2. Used of Alcoholic Beverages
3. Narco- Analysis
4. Hypnotism = Subject is under control of the
hypnotizer.
5. Polygraphy = instrumental interrogation.
9. The Raid polygraph differs from the keeler’s
in the following respect except:
a. An adjustable and portable chair is employed
wherein metal bellows are inserted in the
chair arm rests.
b. The chair seat is directly attached to
recording bellows in the machine to form
closed pneumatic systems.
c. Three additional recordings are made by this
method
d. There is no need of using corrugated rubber
tubing.
10. It is the act of deceiving usually
accompanied by uttering falsehood?
a. lying c. deception
b. Misleading d. lie
11. Which of the following is true about
Polygraph machine?
a. It is a machine that can diagnose subject.
b. It is capable of interpreting and drawing
conclusion.
c. It is a lie detector machine.
d. It is a machine that detects physiological
responses.
12. The polygraph machine should be
_________ in relation to the credibility and
competence of the examiner?
a. Indirectly proportion
b. Supplementary to investigation
c. Substitute to investigation
d. Directly proportion

Polygraphy is an aid and never a substitute

for investigation.
13. The following notions about polygraph
machine are wrong, EXCEPT.
a. It rings a bell
b. It has a dial indicator
c. It flash a light
d. It is like an X-ray
14. Is the scientific basis of the polygraph test which
states that the polygraph machine is an instrument
capable of making records of various human
functioning simultaneously in a chart paper.
a. mechanical leg basic premise
b. physiological leg basic premise
c. psychological leg basic premise
d. psycho motor leg basic premise
15. A type of deceit for the purpose of humor,
when the falsehood is generally understood,
is often regarded as not immoral and is widely
practiced by humorists and comedians.
a. White lie c. Jocose lie
b. Emergency lie d. Malicious lie
White lie (officious)=where the lie is harmless, and
there are circumstances where there is an
expectation to be less than totally honest through
necessity or pragmatism.
Emergency lie =is a strategic lie told when the truth
may not be told because, for example, harm to a
third party would result.
16. A Hindu book of science and health which
is considered one of the earliest reference on
detecting deception.
a. Ayur Vida
b. Dharmasatra of Gautama
c. Vasistra of Dharmasastra
d. Omerta
Dharmasastra of Gautama = explains the
nature of lying.
Vasistra of Dharmasastra = justifies lying.
Omerta = Code of Silence (MAFIA)
17. Considered to be the ancient method of
crime detection.
a. Methods of Ordeal
b. Trial by Combat
c. Boiling Water ordeal
d. The Ordeal of rice chewing
18. Which of the following is a major
component of the polygraph machine?
a. Blood pressure cuff
b. Pen and inking system
c. keymograph
d. cardiosphygmograph
Major Components
1. Cardiosphygmograph = detects B.P. and P.B.
2. Galvanograph = detects skin resistance.
3. Pneumograph = detects breathing or respiration.

Major Section
1. Cardiosphygmograph
2. Galvanograph
3. Pneumograph
4. Keymograph = driving mechanism (6 – 12 inches)
5. Pen and Inking System = designed to make a
permanent record of the polygraph test.
19. Is that part of the pneumograph component
which was attached to the body of the subject
with the usual length of 10 inches.
a. beaded chain
b. finger electrode plate
c. rubber convulated tube
d. blood pressure cuff
20. Is that section of the polygraph machine
designed to run the paper at a regular speed of
6 inches per minutes.
a. keymograph c. pen and inking system
b. pnuemograph d. galvanogaph
21. An attachment of the cardiosphygmograph
which placed above the brachial artery.
a. arm cuff c. Wrist cuff
b. infant cuff d. hand cuff

Wrist cuff = attached above the radial artery.

22. This is a galvanograph attachment section
EXCEPT:
a. sets of electrodes
b. stretched band
c. electrodes jelly
d. rubber tube
23. The size of the galvanograph recording
pen is ______?
a. 5 inches c. 7 inches
b. 6 inches d. 10 inches
5 inches = for pneumograph and
cardiosphygmograph recording.

24. The polygraph chart rolled paper has an

average length of?
a. 100 yards c. 100 ft
b. 100 meters d. 100 km
25. Is the sum total of the dissimulation which the
child acquires from his surrounding once he learn
to go out and socialized with his neighborhood.
a. Personality c. Heredity
b. Environment d. Education
26. What should be the attitude of a polygraph
examiner in confronting subject in a polygraph test.
a. arrogant c. authoritative
b. cordial but firm d. antagonistic
PER-SON-AL-ITY = the sum total of H2E
Heredity = transmission of physical and mental traits of
the parents to the offspring upon conception.
Education = formal process of learning in an
accredited/ recognized institution.
27. Generally speaking, all persons subjected to lie
detector examination are all ___ and this
creates a set of distortion.
a. Terrified c. convenient
b. nervous d. confident

28. When the subject is highly nervous, what should

the examiner do?
a. reschedule the examination
b. prolong the period of the pre-test interview.
c. call for a doctor or request for an ambulance.
d. do not continue with the pre test and ask the
subject for his available date for reschedule.
29. Is a short horizontal line in a cardio tracing
located at the middle of the diastolic stem.
a. Dicrotic c. Diastotic
b. Diastolic d. Systolic
Systolic B.P = the upward blood pressure.
Diastolic B.P. = the downward blood pressure.
30. Is the normal rate of pulse beat of an adult
subject in a polygraph test.
a. 60 –65 c. 6- 12
b. 70 – 75 d. 13- 15
13- 15 – cyclic rate of respiration.
31. In polygraph test Questions are usually
answerable by:
a. yes c. neither yes nor no
b. no d. a or b

32. The following are disqualified to be subject

of polygraph test, EXCEPT.
a. minor c. nervous
b. imbecile d. insane
33. What should be the mark placed on a chart paper
at the start of the test?
a. X/60/1.5 A C. XX/60/1.5 A
b. X/50/2.5 A D. XXX/60/2.5 A

34. The investigator should avoid asking witnesses

long complicated questions because this will:
a. Give the witness a chance to formulate
desired answer.
b. Enable him to ascertain the purpose of the
interviewer.
c. Renders difficulty in obtaining the facts for
conviction
d. Embarass him and cause him to answer he
does not know
35. The best way to conduct a thorough interview
is for the investigator to:
a. allow himself sufficient time for adjustment
b. permit the interviewee to give narrative statement
c. be guided by a pre-arranged checklist
d. Devote adequate time for an interviewee’s
evaluation.
36. What usually set the tone or condition and
creates the atmosphere during the
interrogation?
a. interrogator’s behavior
b. the type of crime involved
c. questioning style of the interrogator
d. the subject’s personal history
37. Who determines the guilt of the subject in a
polygraph test?
a. Examiner c. Judge
b. Prosecutor d. Investigator
38. Is the stage in the conduct of the polygraph test,
which is designed to prepare or condition the
subject for the actual test.
a. Initial Interview
b. Pre-test Interview
c. Instrumentation
      d. Post test Interview/Interrogation
 Stages in the Conduct of Polygraph
Examination
Initial interview =between subject & Investigator.
= designed to obtain information.
1. Pre-test Interview includes: appraisal of
constitutional rights, taking subject consent,
Filing-up of the PDS and determine the
Physical, mental, psychological condition of
the subject.
2. Actual test/Instrumentation = begin with the
attachment of the various component parts.
3. Post-test Interview/Interrogation = after test.
39. It is conducted for the purpose of obtaining
confession or an admission from the subject
once deception is observed.
a. initial interview c. Pre-test interview
b. Instrumentation d. post-test interview
or interrogation
40. Refers to any outside force coming from the
environment, which could excite a receptor or
any of his organs.
a. Stimulus c. Reaction
b. Response d. Emotion
 Stimulus = refers to any force or motion
coming from the environment and which
reach an organism has the tendency to
arouse.
 Fear = it refers to an emotional response to
specific danger that appears to be beyond a
persons defensive power.
 Response =the reaction to a stimulus, in
response to, in answer to.
 Reaction = an action in mental attitude
evoke by external influence.
41. Is the type of question designed to
established normal response from the subject?
a. relevant c. irrelevant
b. control d. knowledge
42. “ Did you shoot Rose last night?” is an
example of what question?
a. irrelevant question c. control question
b. relevant question d. none of the above
Irrelevant = not related to the facts in issue.
Always answerable by “yes” and design to
established the norms of the subject.
Relevant = to establish specific response.
43. Is that type of questions given to determine
information known or the subject possess
 regarding the crime or the criminal or his
whereabouts?
a. evidence connecting question
b. knowledge question
c. sacrifice questions
d. control questions
44. Is a type of test designed to overly responsive
subject, consisting of questions that are purely
fictitious incident of a similar nature to the one
that is under investigation.
a. general question test c. peak of tension test
b. guilt complex test d. silent answer test
General Question test = series of relevant and
irrelevant answerable by either yes or no.
Peak of tension test = there is only one
relevant questions usually at the center and
a series of irrelevant question (padding
question).
SAT= (silent answer test) no verbal response
is required.
Guilt Complex test = used fictitious incident to
overly responsive subject.
Yes test, No test, Card test, mixed test.
45. Is a force questioning of a person who is
reluctant to give an information.
a. Interview c. Confession
b. Interrogation d. Admission
46. Is a self incriminating statement falling short of
an acknowledgement of guilt.
a. Admission c. Interview
b. Confession d. Interrogation
Interview = simple questioning of victim or
witnesses who are willing to give information.
Interrogation = forceful/rigid/vigorous questioning.
47. Of the following which is a kind of
polygraph machine?
a. Stoelting polygraph c. keeler's polygraph
b. Laffayette polygraph d. all of these
48. Is that part of the galvanograph component
which converts electrical to mechanical
current:
a. Amplifier unit c. finger electrode assembly
b. resonance control d. sensitivity knob
49. In any interrogation the belief that man is
fallible human being should not be
overlooked and therefore polygraph
examiners are always subject to _________?
a. precision of diagnosis c. errors
b. certainty of interpretations d. none of these
50. Refers to the brief confrontation between
the subject and the polygraph examiner done
every after taking each chart.
a. initial interview c. Pre-test interview
b. chart probing d. post-test interview or
interrogation
Forensic Medicine
1. Is a poisonous gas which smells like a rotten egg?
a. H2S c. CO2
b. CO d. H2O
CO is a poisonous gas that liberates from the unburned
part of the ordinary cumbustibles.
2. In the schematic outline on the isolation and
identification of some common poisons,   the
specimen should first be:
a. alkaline solution (Na(OH))
b. distilled with or without stem
c. ether-extracted
d. mixed with chemical antidotes.
3. Is the normal amount of semen per ejaculation of
a normal built person.
a. 1.5 to 3.5 cc b. 2.5 to 3.5 cc
c. 3.5 to 5.5 cc d. 3.5 to 4.5 cc
400 to 500 millions = number of average
spermatozoa per ejaculation.
Aspermia = semen without spermatozoa
Oligospermia =lack of sperm counts
4. What is known as the reproduction of an
impression made on soft surface by utilizing
casting materials.
a . dry fussion c. moulage
b. metallic aides d. plaster of paris
5. What will be the possible child of a man with Group A
and Type M blood with woman of Group B, type N
blood.
a. AB, N b. B,N c. O, M d. AB, MN
Anti -A (blue) and anti –B (yellow) used for blood
grouping
6 quarts = the amount of blood in normal built person.
Chronological Steps in Blood Testing:
1. Preliminary test (Maybe blood) = Benzidine,
Phenolphthalein, etc.
2. Confirmatory test (surely blood) = microscopic, micro-
chemical, spectroscopic.
3. Biological or precipitin test (Human or Animal)
4. Blood Grouping and Blood typing.
6. What kind of a solution is used in the
restoration of serial numbers? (Stainless
steel, lead, cast iron are examples).
a. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate
b. etching solution
c. colloidal magnesium
d. borax solution
Metallurgy = study of the micro-metallic
composition of metals.
7. What is the last stage in the toxicological
examination?
a. qualification c. quantification
b. multiplication d. division

8. Person who is qualified to conduct

toxicological examination?
a. Physician c. forensic examiner
b. medico-legal d. forensic pathologist
9. Gun powder residue maybe determined by?
a. Takayama test c. paraffin test
b. Diphenylamine d. Florence test
Nitrate = produced deep blue speaks
Nitrite = produced green speaks

10. Is the chemical substance found in all cells

whose composition have been passed on
from parents to their children.
a. RNA b. DNA
c. Genotype d. Phenotype
11.To confirm the presence of blood we look for?
a. white crystalline
b. Salmon pink, haemochromogen
c. white cloudy precipitate
d. Dark brown rhomboid crystals
12. It is a biological test for blood?
a. benzidine test c. takayama test
b. blood grouping/typing d. precipitin test

Bezidine = preliminary test for blood (deep blue)

Takayama = confirmatory test (micro-chemical)
13. A mercury fulminate is as example of what
explosive?
a. Low c. high
b. primary d. None
14. What is the principal active component of
opium which comes in white crystalline 
 powder and light tablets.
a. heroin b. Morphine
c. cocaine d. shabu
Opium poppy –morphine
-- codeine
-- heroin
15. Types of drugs that relieves pain and often
induce sleep.
a. narcotics b. Stimulants
c. sedatives d. neurotics

16. A preliminary test in blood in a solution of 1 to

300,000 dilution is:
a. Benzidine c. guiacum
b. Phenolphthalein d. leucomalachine Green

Phenolphthalein = reddish pink result (1:80,000)

17. __________are drugs which affects sensation,
thinking, self awareness and emotion. It
          may be mild or overwhelming depending on
dose and quality of drugs.
a. Narcotics b. Hallucinogens
c. sedatives d. stimulants
18. Which one is not included in street name of
MARIJUANA?
a. Mary Jane c. Brownies
b. snow d. Flower

THC- Tetrahydrocannabinol = the active component of

marijuana responsible for its hallucinogenic effect.
19. The center core of a strand of the hair, which
form the bulk of the fiber.
a. cuticle b. Cortex c. medulla d. Shalf
Parts of Hair: Root, Shaft & Tip.
20. The cuticle of the animal hair is:
a. rounded c. oblong
b. serrated d. circular
Human = rounded cuticle
21. It is the ratio between the width of the medulla
and the width of the whole hair?
a. medulary index c. medula
b. medulary ratio d. medula radius
22. In 1858, who published the first textbook in
legal medicine?
a. Dr. Rafael Genard y Mas
b. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles
c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
d. Dr. Mariano Lara
“Manual de Medicina Domestica”
23. A gait similar to that of a duck is?
a. paretic c. spastic (without bending knee)
b. waddling d. cow’s (knock-knee)
24. On what months of the fetus life the Hair of
eyebrow and eye-lashes begin to appear?
a. 4th months c. 3rd months
b. 5th months d. 6th months

3rd = nails begins to appear.

4th = hair on the head starts to grow.
5th = Nails are distinct. Skin shows sebaceous
secretion. Dental gum appears at the
mandible.
25. It is a complete and persistent cessation of
vital reactions such as respiration, circulation
and almost all brain functions.
a. death c. apparent death
b. somatic death d. mollecular death
26. Which of the following is a more conclusive
sign of death–
a. cessation of respiration
b. cooling of the body
c. cessation of heart function and circulation
d. heating of the body
27. It is a change of the color of the body after
death when blood accumulates in the
dependent portion of the body.
a. Rigor mortis c. livor mortis
b. algor mortis d. none of the above
28. Molecular death is a kind of death where:
a. there is loss of life of the individual cells of the
body
b. It occurs immediately after death
c. It is usually pronounced by the physician
d. There is a transient loss of vital functions of
the body
29. The elements of violent death are the following
EXCEPT one.
a. That the victim at the time the injuries were
inflicted was in normal health
b. That death maybe expected from physical
injuries
c. That death ensued within a reasonable time
d. That death ensued from a lingering illness

30. X and Y are husband and wife, X has a mistress,

Miss W, to whom he has a son (C ), a 2 years old
baby. What kind of death is involved if X killed his
illegitimate child (C).
a. Homicidal death c. Murder
b. Parricidal death d. Infanticidal death
31. What if it is Y who killed (C)?
a. Homicidal death c. Murder
b. Parricidal death d. Infanticidal death

32. The sum total of all reaction of tissues or

organs for which the activities of the living
cells are necessary.
a. physical reaction c. chemical reaction
b. vital reaction d. inflammation
33. Is the breaking down of the complex proteins
into simpler component associated with the
evolution of foul smelling gases and
accompanied by the change of color of the body
a. putrefaction c. maceration
b. auto digestion d. saponification

34. What is a waxy substance derived from the

body fat and is caused by hydrolysis and
hydrogenation of adipose tissue.
a. adipocere c. saponification
b. lipo d. none of these
35. Deaths due to injuries inflicted in the body by
some forms of outside force.
a. violent death c. sudden death
b. natural death d. none of these
36. It is the rise of temperature of the body after
death due to rapid and early putrefactive
changes or some internal changes. It is usually
observed in the first two hours of death
a. post mortem caloricity c. algor mortis
b. heat stiffening d. rigor mortis
37. The act or practice of killing or bringing
about the death of a person who suffers from
incurable disease or condition.
a. Euthanasia c. pathological death
b. suicide d. none of these

38. The following judicial executions were

exercised in the Philippines except.
a. judicial hanging c. electrocution
b. musketry d. lethal injection
39. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest
approximate time of death, Cadaveric spasm
will suggest _____?
a. duration of death c. age of the victim
b. cause of death d. none of the above

40. Stage of muscular change, which occurs 3-6

hours after death characteristics by stiffening
of the muscles.
a. livor mortis c. secondary flascidity
b. algor mortis d. post-mortem rigidity
41. Post mortem lividity or livor mortes is a very good
basis for determining the
a. time of death
b. relative position of the assailant
c. position maintained by the body after death
d. cause of death

42. The following are muscle changes after death

except:
a. primary flascidity c. rigor mortis
b. secondary flascidity d. post-mortem lividity
43. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body,
which is always to occur in case of death.
What is that condition characterized by
spontaneous stiffening of certain group of
muscles.
a. heat stiffening c. cold stiffening
b. livor mortis d. cadaveric spasm

44. Pulverization of the body into ashes with the

use of intense fire___
a. charring c. exhumation
b. cremation d. baking
45. A muscular change characterized by the softness
of the muscles and no longer responds to
mechanical or electrical stimulus due to dissolution
of protein.
a. Primary flaccidity
b. Post mortem rigidity
c. stage of secondary flaccidity
d. Putrefaction
e. decomposition
46. Moggots are seen in dead bodies
particularly in warm countries within how
many days from death.
a . l day c. 3 days
b. 2 days d. 4 days

47. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is

completed in how many hours after death?
a. 24 hours c. 36 hours
b. 12 hours d. 48 hours
48. Period of time wherein human bone will not
exhibit change according to Alphonse
Bertillon.
a. 10 years c. 30 years
b. 20 years d. 40 years

49. Average time of decomposition for tropical

countries such as Philippines –
a. 12 – 24 hours c. 36 – 48 hours
b. 24 – 48 hours d. 48 – 72 hours
50. A wound which resembles the shape or
object of the instrument which caused it.
a. defense wound
b. self inflicted wound
c. patterned wound
d. mutilated wound

51. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.

a. punctured wound c. lacerated wound
b. hack wound d. incised wound
52. It is a formation of a soft freoble brownish
white greasy substance in the soft tissues
after death.
a. Mummification c. Putrefaction
b. saponification d. decomposition

53. Average time for the stomach to empty its

contents
a. 2 – 3 hours c. 4 – 5 hours
b. 3 – 4 hours d. 5 – 6 hours
54. A person who is considered dead if no rate
of fall of body temperature is about
a. 10 - 15°F c. 15– 20°F
b. 20 – 25° F d. 25 – 30° F

55. Period of time wherein the body would b e

completely skeletonized under normal
conditions in tropical countries
a. 1 month c. 6 months
b. 3 months d. 12 months
56. As a general rule, if there is no heart action
for a period of ___death is regarded as
certain.
a. 5 minutes c. 7 minutes
b. 6 minutes d. 8 minutes
57. Stages in blood changes where blood goes
to the dependent portion of the body but not
yet solidify.
a. livor mortis c. hypostatic lividity
b. diffusion lividity d. cadaveric spasm
58. An adult has only ____bones
a. 200 b. 202 c. 204 d. 206

59. The following are indication of gunshot

wound of entrance.
a. that the size is smaller than the exit
b. that the edge is inverted
c. that the shape is round or oval
d. that the edge is everted
e. a, b, and c only
60. Vital reaction is/are present on the following
EXCEPT:
a. Ante Mortem injuries c. Stab wound over the
body
b. fist blow over the body d. Post mortem injuries

61. It is a physical injury wherein the victim is ill – treat

or incapacitated for work or require medical
attendance for a period of one to 9 days.
a. slight physical
b. less serious physical injury
c. serious physical injury
d. mutilation
62. Stab wound is produced by
a. sharp edges and sharp pointed instrument
b. sharp edged instrument
c. blunt instrument
d. Sharp pointed instrument

sharp edge instrument = incised wound

blunt = lacerated wound
rough object = abrasion
sharp pointed = punctured wound
63. Solution of the natural continuity of any
tissue of the living body is called
a. fracture c. wound
b. dislocation d. contusion

64. Points to be considered in reporting of

wound
a. character of wound
b. location of wound
c. number of wound
d. measurement of wound
e. all of the above
65. A wound which is the result of instinctive
reaction of self protection is what special
type of wound.
a. defense c. offensive
b. self inflicted wound d. Patterned
66. When the head is free and mobile, a blow
on the back of the head may produce
laceration in the front part of the brain. This
is what type of inury.
a. direct or coup injury c. remote
b. contre-coup injury d. coup-contre-
coup injury
Coup injury = the wound/injury is found in the site of
application of force.

Contre coup = opposite the site

Coup-contre coup = on the site and opposite site.

Locus minoris = not on the site nor opposite but on

the weak part of the body.

Extensive injury = great destruction or scatered

wound/injury
66. wound which inflicted in the body which is so
serious that it will endanger one’s life
a. non-mortal wound c. trauma
b. mortal wound d. coup injury
67. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident
burning of tissues and blackening of the skin,
it may be ascertained that it is a near contact
fire meaning that the distance of the body to
the gun is approximately.
a. 6 inches c. 18 inches
b. 12 inches d. 24 inches
68. A physical injury which is found at the site
and also at the opposite of the application of
force
a. extensive injury c. contre-coup injury
b. coup injury d. coup-contre coup
injury
69. When the person was stabbed by an ice-
pick, what wound would be exhibited.
a. punctured wound c. lacerated wound
b. hack wound d. incised wound

70. DNA is found in all nucleats cells of the

body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of life.
What does it stands for.
a. Deonatural acide
b. deoxyribonucleic acid
c. dynamic natural antibody
d. deocxyribonuclic acid
71. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged
interval which allowed the development of
complications which becomes the cause of death.
a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of
death
b. Immediate or primary cause of death
c. Cardio-respiratory arrest
d. Nocturnal death
72. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that
death has occurred more than 24 hours hence are
useful to approximate the time of death.
a. flies b. earthworms c. bees d. butterflies
73. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken
by a trained physician.
a. Autopsy c. medical examination
b. embalming d. post-mortem
examination
74. In the determination of the sex of the skeleton, the
following bones must be studied, except.
a. sacrum c. sternum
b. skull d. none of these
75. What test determines cessation of
respiration?
a. Winslow’s test c. Diaphanus test
b. magnus test d. none of these

76. Legal medicine is that branch of medicine

which deals with the application of medical
knowledge to the purpose of _____.
a. law and justice
b. determination of cause of death
c. identifying the victim
d. none of these
77. Medical jurisprudence is that branch of _____which
deals with the regulation and organization of
medical profession.
a. law c. justice
b. medicine d. jurisprudence

78. The following are methods of approximating the

height of a person, except.
a. two times the length from the vertex of the skull
to the coccyx.
b. Two times the length of one arm plus 12 inches
for the clavicle and 1.5 inches for the sternum
c. The distance between the tips of the middle
fingers of both hands with the arms extended
laterally.
d. None of these
79. Refers to the stiffening of the muscles due to the
solidification the body is exposed to freezing
temperature.
a. cold stiffening c. froze stiffening
b. iced stiffening d. none of these

80. The following are important of cadaveric lividity,

EXCEPT.
a. sign of death
b. determines whether the position of the body has
been changed
c. may indicate the cause of death
d. none of these
81. EXCEPT one, the following are characteristics of
cadaveric spasm
a. a natural phenomena which occur after death
b. appears immediately after death
c. involves only a group of muscles
d. all of these

82.Is a form of ligature strangulation in which the force

applied to the neck is derived from the gravitational
drag of the weight of the body?
a. hanging c. lynching
b. strangulation by ligature d. none of these
83. Smothering means ________
a. blockage of the external air-passages
b. blockage of the upper airways
c. deprivation of oxygen
d. none of these

84. ______is associated with the failure of the arterial

blood to become normally saturated with oxygen.
a. Anoxic death
b. anemic anoxic death
c. stagnant anoxic death
d. none of these
85. It is produced by compression of the neck by
means of a ligature which is tightened by a
force other than the weight of the body.
a. strangulation by ligature c. throttling
b. hanging d. gagging

86. This is a form of asphyxial death whereby

the constrict force applied in the neck is the
hand.
a. Throttling c. mugging
b. gagging d. none of these
87. According to Phopel, there are five level of
stiffening of the joints. What level is that where
some stiffening allows relaxed repetitive movement
of the hands?
a. level IV c. level III
b. level II d. level I

88. Is the stiffening of certain group of muscles

occurring at the moment of death, usually
    associated with violent death due to extreme
nervous tension, or even fatigue?
a. heat stiffening c. cadaveric spasm
b. Rigor mortis d. cold stiffening
89. What is the other name for cells clump?
a. overlapping c. clumping
b. agglutinate d. constipation

90. What kinds of skin is dry, and dead, peeled

away from the surface skin?
a. slight skin c. incipient ridge
b. burned skin d. scarf skin
91. Rigor mortis is very important in determining the
approximate time of death for it starts at about 2
to 6 hrs and completes at ______?
a. 36 hrs b. 24 hrs
c. 12 hrs d. 48 hrs

92. In which instance can you get more evidence of

poisoning?
a. When the victim survive
b. When the victim died
c. When the suspect was arrested
d. When the victim is aware of the poisoning
93. When there is poisoning?
a. When the substance was introduced to the
body.
b. When the poison combined with the food.
c. When the substance is absorbed by the body
and act chemically.
d. When the substance is introduced to the body
and absorbs.

94. Is a pathological classification of death which is

characterized by increasing dypsnea.
a. Coma c. Syncope
b. Asphyxia d. Somatic
95. What causes the pink color of blood and
tissue of a gunshot wound of entry?
a. Carbon monoxide c. carbon dioxide
b. cellulose nitrite d. Hydrogen disulfide

Smokeless powder = nitrocellulose plus

nitroglycerine.
96. It is a type of virginity in which a woman has
awareness and had sexual indulgence but
the hymen is considered in tact
a. Virgo Intacta c. Moral Virginity
b. Demi Virgin d. Physical Virginity
Moral virginity = innocent mind
Physical virginity (True Physical/ False
Physical) = No actual experience.
Demi Virginity = had sexual experience but
hymen is intact.
Virgo Intacta = raptured hymen but never
gave birth.
97. Which of the following is a potential
biological agent?
a. Viagra c. Antrax
b. Hydrogen d. Smallpox
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