CROP SCIENCE

GERMAINE T. DELOS SANTOS

1. This is a commercial fiber crop in the Philippines where
research center established in Ilocos Norte

a. Ramie
b. Cotton
c. Kenaf
d. Jute
2. Bt corn is a variety of corn where the Bt gene has been inserted
and makes corn resistant to this pest

a. Asiatic corn borer

b. Cotton bollworm
c. Potato beetle
d. Tobacco budworm
3. This crop thrives best in cool condition particularly in the
highlands of Benguet, Mt. Province

a. Sweet potato
b. Arrow root
c. Potato
d. cassava
4. This is classified as an agronomic crop and also as
horticultural crop based on its uses in the Philippines

a. Rice
b. Mungbean
c. Sorghum
d. Peanut
5. Analyze the statements:
I. An example of family Cucurbitaceae are: Momordica
charantia, Cucumis sativus, Citrullus lunatus
II. An example of family Leguminoseae are: Arachis hypogaea,
Cajanus cajan, Vigna radiata

a. Statements I and II are true

b. Statements I and II are false
c. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
d. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
6. High value commercial crops are recommended to increase
income of farmers. The top eggplant producing region in the
Philippines is

a. Ilocos region
b. Cagayan Valley
c. CAR
d. Northern Mindanao
7. These are examples of crops that are generally high in
moisture and therefore are highly perishable

a. durian, lanzones, mangosteen

b. Eggplant, tomato, pepper
c. Squash, cucumber, watermelon
d. All of the above
8. The first genetically modified food crop produced in the world
which has delayed ripening is

a. Tomato
b. Watermelon
c. Eggplant
d. cotton
9. The use of botanical pesticides is growing due to health reason.
Which horticultural crop can be used in the control of insect
pests?

a. Lycopersicum esculentum
b. Capsicum frutescens
c. Solanum melongena
d. Ipomoea batatas
10. An example of small fruit is

a. Pineapple
b. Lanzones
c. Tamarind
d. Duhat
11. Light absorption by the leaf is lowest in this color of the
spectrum

a. Red
b. Blue
c. Green
d. yellow
12. Which do not belong to the Crucifer family?

a. Common cabbage
b. Chinese cabbage
c. Cauliflower
d. Parsley
13. This is a vegetable that helps lower blood glucose of
hyperglycemic persons

a. Momordica charantia
b. Luffa acutangula
c. Citrullus lunatus
d. Moringa oleifera
14. This fruit produces hollow sound when thumped, indicating
its maturity

a. Citrullus lunatus
b. Sechium edule
c. Cucurbita maxima
d. Cucumis sativus
15.In general, medicine formulation are derived from plants. A
horticultural crop that cures cough

a. Vitex negundo
b. Brachiaria mutica
c. Pennisetum purpureum
d. Blumea balsamifera
16. Crops grown in an area is based generally on climate and soil.
In what place, Lansium domesticum grown abundantly?

a. Benguet, Mt. Province

b. Paete, Laguna
c. San Marcelino Zambales
d. San Mateo, Isabela
17. People of the developing countries were found to be deficient
in protein. Which group of crop is considered as the main
source of protein in their diet?

a. Solanaceous crops
b. Leguminous crops
c. Cereal crops
d. Leafy vegetables
18. This horticultural crop is used as meat tenderizer

a. Carica papaya
b. Psidium guajava
c. Piper nigrum
d. Averrhoa bilimbi
19. Wind currents vary according to season. In what particular
direction?

a. From cool areas to hot areas

b. From hot areas to cool areas
c. Through areas of similar temperature
d. None of the above
20. These are plants that produce their seeds in one cropping
season

a. Annual plant
b. Biennial plant
c. Perennial plant
d. Century plant
21. The use of bread during breakfast is increasing among middle
income families. Which crop is imported from temperate
countries and used as a primary ingredient in the preparation of
breads?

a. Tritichum aestirum
b. Solanum tuberosum
c. Sorghum bicolor
d. Glycine max
22. The crops below are members of the grass family. Which
among them has the longest maturity?

a. Tritichum aestivum
b. Zea mays
c. Oryza sativa
d. Saccharum officinarum
23. If peanut has ___ which among these plants has tendrils?

a. Squash
b. Cowpea
c. Eggplant
d. tomato
24. The mangrove ecosystem has been decimated in lieu of
fishpond. Mangrove is classified as

a. Epiphytes
b. Xerophytes
c. Halophytes
d. Sciophytes
25. Plants with shoots that continue to grow until the plant
senesces

a. Indeterminate
b. Perennial
c. Biennial
d. determinate
26. In general, temperature decreases with altitude. Assuming dry
air and a sea-level air temperature of 30oC, the temperature on
top of a 1000-meter-high mountain is

a. 10oC
b. 20oC
c. 30oC
d. 40oC
27. Tomato, a relatively warm-season crop, sets fruit very poorly
when right temperature is high. The optimum for this crop is a
night temperature range of

a. 5oC-8oC
b. 15oC-18oC
c. 25oC-28oC
d. None of the above
28. In plant development, this word is ordinarily used to refer to a
state of development which is capable of flowering.

a. Photoperiodism
b. Maturity
c. Reproduction
d. Juvenility
29. The effective wavelength for the promotion of germination of
light-sensitive seeds is

a. Blue
b. Red
c. Red and far-red
d. Red and blue
30. Medicinal plants that have anti-urolithiasis property

a. Vitex negundo
b. Blumea balsamifera
c. Mentha cordiflora
d. Sesbania grandiflora
31. Orchids and ginger thrive under shady condition and are
classified as

a. Sciophytes
b. Heliophytes
c. Xerophytes
d. Mesophytes
32. The seed of this crop looks like the head of a chicken

a. Cajanus cajan
b. Phaseolus lunatus
c. Cicer orietinum
d. Moringa oleifera
33. Analyze the following statements:
A. Phototropism is regulated by blue light

B. Photoperiodism is regulated by red (600nm) light and far-red

(730nm) light

a. Both statements are true

b. Statement A is true but statement B is false
c. Statement B is true but statement A is false
d. Both statements are false
34. The Philippine mango is in demand abroad because of its
sweetness. Mangifera indica L., our national fruit, is what type
of fleshy fruit?

a. Fibrous drupe
b. Fleshy drupe
c. Berry
d. Pepo
35. If the Ilocos region is the primary producer of tobacco,
Central Luzon (Region III) is the nation’s top producer of what
commodity?

a. Rice
b. Corn
c. Onion
d. A&C
36. Which season occurs differently in the Northern and Southern
Hemisphere. On which date does the winter solstice in the
northern hemisphere normally fall?

a. June 22
b. December 22
c. March 21
d. September 23
37. If peanut prefers loamy to sandy soils, the preferred textural
group for paddy rice is

a. Clayey soil
b. Sandy soil
c. Loamy soil
d. Both a & c
38. The increase in greenhouse gases (GHG) is anthropogenic.
The greenhouse effect results in

a. Low temperature
b. Excessive rainfall
c. Drought
d. High temperature
39. The ultimate origin of all the primary tissues in the root and
the stem is the

a. Protoderm
b. Procambium
c. Ground meristem
d. Apical meristem
40. A strengthening tissue present in the plant that can be
extracted and can be transformed into economic products like
rope, jute sack, cotton balls or cloth is

a. Aerenchyma
b. Collenchyma
c. Sclerieds
d. Fibers
41. Oryza sativa L., is the Filipino’s staple food and it represents
a kind of indehiscent fruit called

a. Caryopsis
b. Samara
c. Schizocarp
d. Achene
42. In coconut, Cocos nucifera L., the endosperm is classified
into coconut meat and coconut water. The botanical term for
the coconut meat is

a. Liquid endosperm
b. Solid endosperm
c. Endocarp
d. Mesocarp
43. Vegetable are most easily grown in areas with evenly
distributed rainfall. Which type of climate under the Corona
system does this fall?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
44. The dormancy of the lateral bud in the presence of the apical
bud is a phenomenon called

a. Under development
b. Non germination
c. Apical dominance
d. Axil dominance
45. Sucrose is known as the table sugar used by man. This
organic molecule can be extracted from what part of
Saccharum officinarum L.?

a. Root
b. Stem
c. Leaf
d. All of these
46. Rice is not commonly grown in Europe, instead, wheat. The
temperature requirement of rice is

a. Cool
b. Warm
c. Sub-tropical
d. Semi-temperate
47. The plant that is considered the tree of life simply because of
the many uses of its stem, leaves and fruits is

a. Oryza sativa
b. Zea mays L.
c. Cocos nucifera L.
d. Musa paradisiaca L.
48. Adjacent cell walls are cemented together by means of the

a. Cell membrane
b. Plasma membrane
c. Middle lamella
d. Lipid membrane
49. Photosynthetically active radiation refers to the wavelength
range of

a. 660-730nm
b. 100-380nm
c. 400-700nm
d. 780-2500nm
50. Analyze the following statements:
1. Endospermic or albuminous seeds contain endosperm for
food storage
2. Corn and rice are two plants whose seeds are classified as
non-endospermic or exalbuminous

a. Both statements are true

b. Both statements are false
c. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
d. Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
51. Apical dominance, a phenomenon wherein lateral buds are
dormant in the presence of terminal buds, is effected by

a. Ethylene
b. Gibberellins
c. Auxins
d. Cytokinins
52. Stomatal closure is not only due to deficiency of turgor
pressure but also due to the action of this hormone

a. Ethylene
b. Gibberellins
c. Cytokinins
d. Abscissic acid
53. Senescence is yellowing of leaves due to maturity and it is
due to a hormone called

a. Ethylene
b. Gibberellins
c. Cytokinins
d. Auxins
54. Short day plants are plants that initiate the flowers when
daylength is shorter than the critical daylength. The flowering
of these kinds of plants is due to the action of the hormone

a. Auxin
b. Abscissic acid
c. Ethylene
d. None of the above
55. The production of ethylene is due to the action of growth
hormone known as

a. Gibberellins
b. Cytokinins
c. Auxins
d. Abscissin
56. Gravitropism is plants’ response to gravity. This
response is an effect of the growth hormone
a. Auxin
b. Gibberellins
c. Cytokinins
d. Ethylene
57. Senescence is prevented by

a. Auxin
b. Cytokinins
c. Gibberellins
d. Abscissic acid
58. Abscission, the falling off of leaves, flowers, or fruits,
is due to abscissic acid and ethylene but prevented by

a. Gibberellins
b. Cytokinins
c. Auxins
d. None of these
59. Effect on fruit ripening of storing mature fruits in
plastic bags

a. Enhances
b. Delays
c. Stops
d. Prevents
60. The foolish seedling growth is associated with what
kind of growth hormone?

a. Auxins
b. Cytokinins
c. Gibberellins
d. Ethylene
61. Flowering of short day and long day plants is
controlled by this growth hormone

a. Auxins
b. Cytokinins
c. Gibberellins
d. Ethylene
62. Growth is also manifested by the increase in the girth
of the trunk. This growth is due to the division of a
meristematic tissue called

a. Cork cambium
b. Vascular cambium
c. Protoderm
d. Ground meristem
63. The growth of plants is divided into stages. The grand
phase of growth is known as

a. Logarithmic phase
b. Linear phase
c. Exponential phase
d. Declining phase
64. It is an irreversible increase in the size of the organism

a. Development
b. Growth
c. Catabolism
d. Anabolism
65. This law states that additional farm inputs in excess of
the required does not bring an increase in the amount of
produce

a. Limiting factors
b. Optima
c. Minimum
d. Diminishing returns
66. Hormones are used primarily to induce growth. The
hormone that inhibits organ formation is known as

a. Auxin
b. Gibberellins
c. Cytokinin
d. Ethylene
67. The appearance of a plant with respect to a particular
character

a. Phenotype
b. Genotype
c. Ideotype
d. Prototype
68. The genetic constitution of an individual

a. Genotype
b. Phenotype
c. Gametophyte
d. Ideotype
69. The observable variation present in a character in a
population is called

a. Phenotypic variation
b. Genotypic variation
c. Dominance variation
d. Environmental variation
70. The component of variation that is due to genotypic
differences among individuals within a population is
called

a. Phenotypic variation
b. Genotypic variation
c. Population variation
d. Environmental variation
71. The differential performance of genotypes in different
environments is termed as

a. Adaptation
b. GE interaction
c. Plant reaction
d. Adaptability
73. Characters governed by several genes with small
effects are known as

a. Qualitative
b. Quantitative
c. Dominant
d. Recessive characters
74. The phenomenon of a single major gene affecting more
than one character is known as

a. Pleiotrophy
b. Penetranx
c. Expressivity
d. Isogenic
75. Modification in the expression of a dominant gene by
another no-allelic dominant gene is known as

a. Gene interaction
b. Gene action
c. Gene flow
d. Modifies
76. Components of genetic variance

a. Additive
b. Dominance
c. Epistasis
d. All of the above
77. A set of different genotypes that may be conserved or
used

a. Germplasm
b. Accession
c. Cultivar
d. All of the above
78. Storage of living materials at very low temperature
usually in liquid nitrogen

a. Cryopreservation
b. In situ conservation
c. Ex situ conservation
d. All of the above
79. When plants are grown its outside the natural habitat to
perpetuate themselves. The method of conservation used
is

a. Ex situ conservation
b. In situ conservation
c. Cryopreservation
d. None of the above
80. A non cultivated species which is closely related to a
crop species not usually used for agriculture but can
occur in agroecosystem

a. Wild relative
b. Landraces
c. Cultivar
d. All of the above
81. Total amount of genetic variation present in a
population or species

a. Genetic diversity
b. Genetic resources
c. Genetic material
d. All of the above
82. Loss of genetic diversity between and within
population of the same species over time due to human
intervention and environmental changes

a. Genetic erosion
b. Genetic drift
c. Mutation
d. All of the above
83. A facility where germplasm is stored in the form of
seeds, pollen or in vitro

a. Genebank
b. Green house
c. Cold storage
d. All of the above
84. A farmer developed cultivar of crop plants that are
adapted to local environmental conditions

a. Landraces
b. Wild relative
c. Cultivar
d. All of the above
85. A set of accession which preserved for a long term

a. Base collections
b. Active collections
c. Inactive collections
d. All of the above
86. An accession which is immediately available for
multiplication and distribution for use

a. Base collection
b. Active collection
c. Inactive collection
d. All of the above
87. Plant genetic resources consist of:

a. Wild species
b. Landraces
c. New varieties
d. All of the above
88. A material of plants capable of generative or vegetative
propagation with current or potential value for food,
agriculture and forestry

a. Plant genetic resources

b. Genetic resources
c. Genetic diversity
d. All of the above
89. An agency that promotes international understanding
for plant genetic conservation

a. FAO
b. IPGRI
c. IBPGR
d. All of the above
90. Executive Order No. 192 formulated in 1987 to work
on Biodiversity Conservation in the Philippines

a. NIPAS LAW
b. AFMA
c. Conservation Law
d. All of the above
91. The technique of moving genes from one organism to
another or putting them back in different combinations to
produce an improved organism

a. Genetic engineering
b. Biotechnology
c. Recombinant DNA
d. All of the above
92. Transgenes or genetically modified organisms contain
genetic materials from other

a. Plants
b. Animals
c. Bacteria and fungi
d. All of the above
93. Bacillus thuringensis which is a major component of
microbial pesticides, is a

a. Bacterium
b. Fungus
c. Virus
d. All of the above
94. A juvenile plant will flower when the daylength is
right. The statement is

a. True
b. False
c. Sometimes true and sometimes false
d. All of the above
95. If the temperature at sea level of moist air is 30oC, its
temperature on top of a mountain that is 1,000 meters
above sea level is

a. 6.5oC
b. 23.5oC
c. 36.5oC
d. None of the above
96. The process of introducing a recombinant DNA
molecules into cells of bacteria, plants, or animal is
called

a. DNA cloning
b. Transformation
c. Recombination
d. Introduction
97. Cells containing nucleus of one species but cytoplasm
from both the parental species

a. Cybrids
b. Hybrids
c. Transgenic
d. Symmetric hybrids
98. A plant with a gene that has been transformed through
genetic engineering is called

a. Transgenic plant
b. Modified plant
c. Engineered plant
d. Biotech plant
99. DNA segment or the gene to be transferred may be
introduced into plant cells through

a. Gemini virus vectors

b. Direct DNA uptake by cells
c. Microinjection
d. All of the above
100. The capacity of a cell cultured in vitro to regenerate
into a plant

a. Potency
b. Totipotency
c. Sustainability
d. Culturability
101. Cultivation of plant cells and tissue in vitro on an
artificial media

a. Plant culture
b. Tissue culture
c. Cell culture
d. Horticulture
102. The medium on which plant cells and organs are
cultured is known as

a. Nutrient medium
b. Culture medium
c. Medium
d. All of the above
103. Production of various organs such as root, shoot etc.
from cells and tissue cultures is known as

a. Organogenesis
b. Adventitious
c. Megagametogenesis
d. Gametogenesis
104. The plant part to be cultured in vitro is known as

a. Mother plant
b. Source plant
c. Explant
d. Stock plant
105. Removal of developing embryo from seed and its
cultivation in vitro is called

a. Ovule culture
b. Endosperm culture
c. Seed culture
d. Embryo culture
106. The cultivation of apical meristems, particularly of
shoot apical meristem is known as

a. Meristem culture
b. Root culture
c. Apiculture
d. Stem culture
107. The implantation of a meristem from another plant to
a plantlet or sterile plant in vitro

a. Grafting
b. Micrografting
c. Budding
d. Layering
108. Refers to a group of cells, tissues, or plant derived
from a single mother cell, tissue or plant through sexual
means and is expected to be genetically identical

a. Clone
b. Meristem
c. Bud
d. Scion
109. Compared to the Philippines, the same variety of corn
will mature in China

a. Earlier
b. Later
c. At the same time
d. None of the above
110. A substance whether natural or synthetic that can
modify growth

a. Plant growth regulator

b. Fertilizer
c. Nutrient media
d. enhancer
111. The clonal true-to-type rapid propagation of plants in
vitro

a. Enculturation
b. Clonal propagation
c. Fertilization
d. Micropropagation
112. A sterile plant with functional roots and shoots
developed in vitro

a. Seedling
b. Embryo
c. Plantlet
d. Radicle
113. Refers to the group of cells that develops into an
organ

a. Somatic cells
b. Primordeum
c. Callus
d. Cell culture
114. The increased genetic variability brought about by
tissue culture

a. Mutation
b. Genetic variation
c. Somaclonal variation
d. None of the above
115. Group of plant hormones that induces cell elongation
and cell division

a. Gibberellins
b. Growth regulator
c. Vitamins
d. Cytokinins
116. Any organic substance that at low concentrations
promotes, inhibits or modifies growth

a. Hormone
b. Fertilizer
c. Enhancer
d. Modifier
117. Actively dividing non-organized tissues of
undifferentiated and differentiated cells often developing
from injury (wounding) or in tissue cultures

a. Cellulose
b. Callus
c. Protocorm
d. Cell suspension
118. Organic compounds serving as a source of energy,
including sugars, starches, and cellulose

a. Fertilizer
b. Carbohydrates
c. CO 2
d. Hormone
119. The development of cells or tissues with a specific
function and/or the regeneration of organs or organ-like
structure (roots, shoots, etc.) or embryo

a. Differentiation
b. Development
c. Rejuvenation
d. Organogenesis
120. Is the phenomena that, after a number of subcultures,
cells can grow without the addition of hormones,
although this was originally necessary

a. Habituation
b. Adaptation
c. Acclimatization
d. Muturation
121. An undesirable phenomenon that sometimes develops
in culture appearing as very succulent, crisp water-
logged or glassy tissues

a. Vitification
b. Oxidation
c. Degradation
d. Retardation
122. A method of plant propagation performed by
combining together a root stock and scion until they
unite permanently

a. Marcotting
b. Layering
c. Grafting
d. Cutting
123. Example of plant propagated by root cutting

a. Onion
b. Okra
c. Guava
d. Eggplant
124. In cleft grafting, the wedge is located at the

a. Scion
b. Root stock
c. Top of the scion
d. None of the above
125. In seed production, roguing done several times at
different stages of the crop development however, the
best time is when the crop is in

a. Vegetative stage
b. Full bloom
c. Maturity
d. Right before harvesting
126. Choose the character that does not fit the definition of
physiological maturity of the seeds

a. Maximum germination or variability

b. Dry seed weight is maximum
c. Maximum vigor capability
d. Very low seed moisture content
127. The class of seed which is considered the purest in
terms of varietal purity is

a. Breeder seed
b. Foundation seed
c. Registered seed
d. Certified seed
128. A properly dried seed with high germination can be
stored for longer duration using this container

a. Paper bags
b. Sealed tin cans
c. Jute sack
d. Plastic sack
129. An example of recalcitrant seed

a. Tomato
b. Eggplant
c. Avocado
d. Star apple
130. cabbage, onion, carrots require ____ for flower
induction

a. Vernalization
b. Rainfall
c. High temperature
d. Adequate amount of fertilizer
131. An example of biennial vegetable crop is

a. Tomato
b. Onion
c. Eggplant
d. Squash
132. Which is not included as rogues in seed production

a. Weeds
b. Plants that are genetically pure and conform with the
standard of the variety intended for reproduction
c. Plants of another cultivars of the same species
d. Diseased plant of the same crop species
133. Theoretically, crops intended for seed production shall
be harvested

a. At physiological maturity
b. When the fruits are very dry
c. When there is no rain
d. When sunlight is very intense so that seed quality is
good
134. The most important factor needed for seed
germination is

a. Light
b. Oxygen
c. Water
d. Temperature
135. Which is not recommended for breaking seed
dormancy?

a. Hydrochloric acid treatment

b. Hot treatment
c. Mechanical abrasion of seed coat
d. Treating the seed using abscissic acid
136. The best seed storage temperature for orthodox seeds
when the seed moisture is 4% to 14% is:

a. 10oC
b. 15oC
c. 20oC
d. 25oC
137. Who is not a member of the National Seed Industry
Council (the former Philippine Seedboard)?

a. Secretary of Agriculture
b. Bureau of Plant Industry Director
c. Crop Research Director, PCARRD
d. National Food Authority Administrator
138. Quality seeds of bulb onion and cabbage are not
produced n the tropics due to this factor

a. High temperature
b. High humidity
c. High light intensity
d. All of the above
139. The germination percentage of tomato after seed
testing was 96 percent. Therefore the class of seed
tomato is

a. Breeder seed
b. Foundation seed
c. Registered seed
d. Good seed
140. In different classes of seeds, a white tag is attached to
the bag of:

a. Breeder seed
b. Foundation seed
c. Registered seed
d. Certified seed
141. Generally, crops need light for photosynthesis. An
example of crop that needs light in order to germinate is

a. Lettuce
b. Tomato
c. Eggplant
d. Mungbean
142. The following statements about the sigmoid growth
curve are true except

a. It is applicable only to annual plants

b. It consists of three growth stages or phases
c. Rapid growth takes place only in Stage 1
d. In rice, panicle initiation occurs in the vegetative phase
143. Method of plant propagation for discovery of new
variety

a. Tissue propagation
b. Embryo propagation
c. Vegetative propagation
d. Sexual propagation
144. A series of interdependent pathways occurs in cellular
respiration. Other descriptions the process are the
following except

a. It releases 36 ATPS
b. It is temperature dependent
c. Pyruvate is a product in glycolysis
d. Sucrose is the primary respiratory substrate
145. Term to describe the mucilage or waxy materials
around some seeds (like papaya) which causes physical
dormancy

a. Exodernus
b. Seed coat
c. Sacro-testa
d. All of the above
146. The treatment that removes or alter the seed coat or
alter it making it permeable to water

a. Scarification
b. Stratification
c. Vernalization
d. Separation
147. The placement of seeds between layers of either
moist sand, soil, or sawdust at high or low temperature
soften the seedcoat is

a. Separation
b. Vernalization
c. Scarification
d. Stratification
148. Slender specialized aerial stem that grows
horizontally along the ground from the leaf axil at the
base or crown that produce roots and leaf at the near tip

a. Sucker
b. Runner/stolon
c. Slip
d. Water sucker
149. In transpiration, the following applies except:

a. Light is the most important factor affecting the process

b. It is regarded as a necessary evil
c. Soil moisture availability is not a critical factor
d. Vapor pressure gradient affects the rate
150. Type of cutting consists of leaf blade, petiole and
short piece of the stem with an axillary bud

a. Stem cutting
b. Leaf cutting
c. Leaf bud cutting
d. Root cutting
151. Type of grafting for overgrown stocks that are too
large for other grafting methods

a. Saddle
b. Whip and tongue
c. Cleft
d. Bark
152. In grafting, when the wedge is made on the stock and
the split on the scion the process is called

a. Whip and tongue grafting

b. Bark grafting
c. Saddle grafting
d. Cleft grafting
153. A specialized form of grafting in which a single
detached bud is used as the scion, instead of the stem

a. Cleft grafting
b. Side grafting
c. Whip and tongue grafting
d. Budding
154. Method of artificial plant propagation where rootstock
and scion are made to unite while both of them are still
growing on their own roots

a. Marcotting
b. Inarching
c. Grafting
d. Layering
155. Propagation that preserves the characters of the parent
plant

a. Sexual
b. Thinning
c. Asexual
d. Etiolation
156. An example of recalcitrant seeds

a. Tomato
b. Eggplant
c. Avocado
d. Star apple
157. A class of seed that is not recognized by the Philippine
Seed Certification scheme

a. Foundation seeds
b. Registered seeds
c. Good seed
d. Certified seed
158. Cabbage, onion, carrots require ____ for flower
induction

a. Vernalization
b. Rainfall
c. High temperature
d. Adequate amount of fertilizer
159. Given the same seed size, seeds can be planted deeper
if the type of germination is

a. Epigeal
b. Hypogeal
c. Hypo-epigeal
d. Epi-hypogeal
160. Spraying pesticides must be done at the right time and
at the right place. A farmer can spray his crop if his
clouds are

a. Cirrus
b. Nimbostratus
c. Cumulonimbus
d. Stratocumulus
161. The inability of a viable seeds to germinate under
favorable conditions

a. Seed dormancy
b. Vernalization
c. Fermentation
d. Quiscence
162. Under rainfed condition, plants that require much
water must be planted in what side of a mountain

a. Leeward side
b. Wind ward side
c. Any side
d. Both sides
163. When the moisture content of the seed is ____ insect
activity is inhibited or these is little insect activity

a. 45-60%
b. 18-20%
c. Above ¼% but below 45%
d. Below 8-9%
164. The water fern that is used as a fertilizer because it
fixes nitrogen symbiotically with a blue-green algae is

a. Frankia
b. Rhizobia
c. Azolla
d. Azospirillum
165. When seeds are expensive it is better

a. To direct seed than to transplant

b. To transplant than to direct seed
c. To broadcast than to transplant
d. To transplant than to broadcast
166. Removal of water from the soil through surface run-
off

a. Soil erosion
b. Soil drainage
c. Soil texture
d. None of the choices
167. Affects soil fertility in terms of Cation Exchange
Capacity (CEC) and nutrient supply

a. Soil pH
b. Organic Matter
c. Available nitrogen
d. All of the above
168. One of the socio-economic factors that a farmer
should consider is

a. Cropping pattern
b. Labor supply of the area
c. Fertility status
d. All of the above
169. Before going to full-scale operation, it is better to
undergo

a. Field experimentation in the area

b. Farmers consultation
c. Contract farming
d. All of the above
170. It is the water in the soil held between field capacity
and permanent wilting point

a. Available water
b. Reserved water
c. None of the choices
d. All of the above
171. It is the ratio of the vertical distance over the
horizontal distance of the same linear unit, and usually
expressed in percent

a. Soil texture
b. Slope
c. Soil structure
d. All of the above
172. Works with organic matter to hold water and nutrients
and help bind soil particles together into structural
aggregates

a. Sand
b. Silt
c. Clay
d. None of the choices
173. It is the relative proportion of clay, silt and sand

a. Soil texture
b. Soil structure
c. Soil depth
d. None of the choices
174. The price of the commodity depends on the supply
and demand. A factor that affects supply and demand is

a. Biological
b. Social
c. Cultural
d. All of the above
175. A component of a crop production system that can not
be controlled by human beings

a. Technological factor
b. Environmental factor
c. Socio-economic factor
d. None of the above
176. The Philippine Seedboard was replaced by the
National Seed Industry Council beginning March 27,
1998 by what law?

a. RA 7308
b. RA 2000
c. RA 7001
d. RA 8435
177. During hot dry days, the best time to transplant
vegetable seedlings is

a. Early in the morning

b. Late in the afternoon
c. At night
d. Any time
178. In the Philippines, the best direction of plant row is

a. East-West
b. North-South
c. Northeast-Southwest
d. Northwest-Southwest
179. Given the same condition: a) 10% moisture content b)
container is paper bag c)seed storage temperature is
25oC. Which among the seed will have faster decline in
viability?

a. Rice seed
b. Peanut seed
c. Corn seed
d. Sorghum seed
180. The soil is tilled when it is saturated with water

a. Wet land or low land preparation

b. Primary tillage preparation
c. Dry land or upland preparation
d. Zero tillage preparation
181. It refers to the traditional system of land preparation
which begins with a primary tillage operation followed
by several secondary tillage operations

a. Zero tillage
b. Minimum tillage
c. Maximum or conventional tillage
d. Secondary tillage
182. It is a process by which the soil clods are broken and
the soil is puddled by means of a comb harrow or rake or
spike toothed harrow. Usually the operation is done by
alternate direction with two lengthwise and one
crosswise

a. Plowing
b. Harrowing
c. Rotavating
d. furrowing
183. Characteristics of a well prepared lowland field

a. It must be free of trash and vegetation to avoid

interference with the seeding operation
b. It must contain sufficient moisture to germinate the
seed and support subsequent growth
c. Weeds, rice straw and stubble, which have been tilled
under, are thoroughly decayed. The soil is well
puddled and leveled for uniform distribution of water
d. Low moisture content
184. Purpose of tillage that are peculiar to wet land
preparation

a. Turns soil into soft puddle and forms a hard pan

b. Develop proper soil tilth
c. Improves soil aeration
d. Promotes erosion
185. Plowing a hectare with animal drawn moldboard plow
requires how many kilometers of walking?

a. 90 km
b. 100 km
c. 120 km
d. 130 km
186. Land preparation for one hectare using draft animal
requires

a. 15 man days
b. 20 man days
c. 25 man days
d. 30 man days
187. What is the direction of tillage in rolling or hilly field?
Improper cultivation in hilly lands will results to erosion

a. Across the contour

b. Follow the general contour of the land
c. Against the contour
d. None of the above
188. Which is not included in the following?

a. Guimaras purple
b. Smooth green
c. Dumaguete long purple
d. Dingras long purple
189. It ensure the presence of nitrogen-fixing bacteria in
the root environment of the plant which may be
otherwise low or absent

a. Inoculation
b. Dust application
c. Fungicide application
d. Slurry application
190. The seeds are treated with fungicide before planting to
protect them from soil-borne diseases that can cause
poor seedling stand

a. Seed treatment
b. Rag doll method
c. Seed box method
d. Petri-dish method
191. It is a usual method employed by farmers in planting
the seeds evenly into the field

a. Broadcast method
b. Transplant method
c. Hill method
d. Drill method
192. Method of planting where the seeds are sown first on
specially prepared seedbed or seed boxes. The seedlings
are nursed for sometime before they are transplanted to
the final site

a. Broadcast method
b. Ridge method
c. Drill method
d. Transplanting method
193. Maturity of seedlings influence yield. Seedlings of
rice on wet bed method are ready for transplanting in

a. 10-15 days
b. 15-20 days
c. 25-30 days
d. 30-35 days
194. Planting the seeds by distributing them individually in
the row is called

a. Hill planting
b. Drill planting
c. Ridge planting
d. List planting
195. A method of planting the seed at specified depth on
the top of the furrows when abundant rain is expected

a. Surface or flat-bed planting

b. Ridge planting
c. List planting
d. Hill planting
196. Method of raising rice seedling where pre-germinated
seeds are sown on cement or puddle soil covered with
banana leaves or polyethylene plastic sheet. The raised
seedlings are ready for transplanting in 10-14 days

a. Wet bed method

b. Dapog method
c. Dry bed method
d. Seedbed method
197. A process done on the seedling which starts at 7 to 10
days before transplanting in which the seedlings are
exposed to full sunlight and temporary wilting

a. Transplanting shock
b. Hardening
c. Pricking
d. Blocking
198. A process done at 7 to 10 days before the vegetable
seedlings are transplanted in which the full depth of the
soil is cut with knife into blocks of about 5cmx5cm to
confine the roots in separate blocks

a. Pricking
b. Blocking
c. Hardening
d. Transplanting shock
199. A process of transferring the seedlings from seed box
to another seed boxes or container before they are
brought to the field

a. Pricking
b. Hardening
c. Blocking
d. None of the above
200. Advantage of row planting over broadcasting

a. More uniform plant growth, distance between plants

and reduced seedling rate
b. It increases seeding rate
c. Mutual shading
d. Increases competition of nutrients
201. What is the germination percentage of corn, if only
180 normal seedling has germinated out of the 200 seed
sown

a. 80%
b. 85%
c. 90%
d. 95%
202. The recommended seeding rate of peanut is 90 kg per
hectare. How many kg seed is needed if the germination
test is only 80 percent

a. 120.0
b. 112.5
c. 125.0
d. 128.5
203. Corn will be planted at spaced 75cm between rows
and 50cm between hills and will be maintained at 2
plants per hill. What is the plant pop’n per hectare?

a. 50,333
b. 51,333
c. 52,333
d. 53,333
204. A drill method of seeding mungbean will be followed
with 30 seeds per linear meter and the rows are spaced at
50cm. How many plants are there per hectare?

a. 600000
b. 630000
c. 660000
d. 690000
205. In wet bed method of raising rice seedlings, how
many square meter of seedbed is needed to sow a bag of
palay seed (50kg) to plant per hectare?

a. 200 sq.m
b. 300 sq.m
c. 400 sq.m
d. 500 sq.m
206. Crop varieties in which specific traits have been
modified through the application of recombinant DNA
technique is called

a. Transgenic
b. Mutant
c. Genetic character
d. None of the above
207. The purpose of tillage is to

a. Develop a desirable soil structure and incorporate

stubble and weed into the soil
b. Established formation of hard surface crust
c. Promotes soil compaction
d. Reduces soil granulation
208. Physical changes in lowland preparation

a. Flooding breaks soil clods into smaller aggregates and

particles and penetration resistance in plowing is
reduced
b. Soil structure and granulation are maintained
c. No flooding is involved
d. Downward movement of water is normal and water
drains easily
209. It is the process of preparing the soil for planting,
thereby providing good physical, chemical and
biological conditions that would permit optimum plant
growth

a. Land preparation
b. Primary tillage
c. Secondary tillage
d. Tillage
210. The mechanical manipulation of the soil from a
known condition to a different desired condition

a. Primary tillage
b. Soil tilth
c. Tillage
d. Secondary tillage
211. Tillage operation that does the initial cutting or
breaking of the soil at its state where either a crop has
been grown or harvested or simply a barren soil

a. Secondary tillage
b. Primary tillage
c. Zero tillage
d. Maximum tillage
212. Tillage operation on the soil after the primary tillage.
It includes breaking of the soil clods or granulation as in
dry land operation or puddling as in wetland operation

a. Zero tillage
b. Minimum tillage
c. Secondary tillage
d. Maximum tillage
213. Land preparation is performed at relatively low
moisture content, well below the saturation moisture
level

a. Wet land or low land preparation

b. Secondary tillage preparation
c. Dry land or upland preparation
d. Maximum tillage preparation
214. A pruning operation which consist of the complete
removal of any number of branches is called

a. Pinching
b. Thinning
c. Heading back
d. Disbudding
215. Large scale papaya production should be avoided in
Laguna, Cavite, and Batangas should be avoided due to
what reason?

a. There is no market
b. Farmers are not knowledgeable on the production
practices of papaya
c. There is a presence of papaya ring-spot virus in these
areas
d. There are no agricultural lands anymore in these areas
216. It refers to the manner in which the different
component are arranged to achieve a particular purpose

a. Landscape design
b. Landscaping
c. Gardening
d. Container gardening
217. It refers to the visual impact of the total mass of an
object such as a plant or group of plants

a. Color
b. Line
c. Form
d. Texture
218. Flowering plants can be jewels of the landscape if
they are planted in

a. Group
b. Random
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
219. Straight lines give a feeling of rigidity and formality
while curved lines radiate a feeling of

a. Gracefulness
b. Softness
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
220. In landscaping, the fine texture of small leaves gives
an illusion of distance while the coarse texture of
broadleaves gives an illusion of

a. Softness
b. Neatness
c. Closeness
d. Gracefulness
221. It refers to the pleasing relationship of objects making
each component a part of the unified whole

a. Unity
b. Harmony
c. Contrast
d. Balance
222. A design principle that denotes the relative size of
objects and plants with particular reference to the human
figure

a. Rhythm or sequence
b. Balance
c. harmony
d. Scale and proportion
223. A design principle that focuses the attention of the eye
on some dominant feature of the design and help make
the garden personal and interesting

a. Emphasis
b. Balance
c. Unity
d. Contrast
224. These are low-growing plants use to define pathways
and shapes of planting areas in landscaping

a. Ground cover
b. Specimen plant
c. Edging
d. Accent
225. Specimen plant has the following effects in
landscaping

a. It is charming in big garden

b. It is out of place in small gardens
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
226. To make a soil garden seem big

a. Large-leaf plants should not be used

b. Large-leaf plants should be used
c. Small-leaf plants should not be used
d. Small-leaf plants should be used
227. Subjective type of maturity indices involves

a. Change in peel color

b. Sugar content
c. Starch content
d. All of the above
228. O2 and CO2 concentration plays an important role in
respiration rates of perishables. Longer storage life can
be best achieved if

a. O2 = CO2
b. O2 ↓ CO2 ↑
c. O2 ↑ CO2 ↓
d. None of these
229. The judicious removal of plant part to control the
growth of a plant physically

a. Trimming
b. Pruning
c. Training
d. Topping
230. The general term for techniques that control the
growth of plants in term of shape, size, and spatial
direction

a. Training
b. Pinching
c. Pruning
d. Trimming
231. A pruning operation which consist of cutting back the
terminal portion of the plant is called

a. Disbudding
b. Heading back
c. Pinching
d. Thinning-out
232. Removing some flowers or fruits to allow the
remaining ones to increase in size is also called

a. Culling
b. Disbudding
c. Thinning
d. Pinching
233. A common practice in cucurbits where the lateral
branches are removed to produce more female flowers is
known as

a. Pinching
b. Topping
c. Disbudding
d. Thinning
234. A system of cropping in which as many crops are
grown as possible on the same land within a year is
known as

a. Monocropping
b. Multiple cropping
c. Integrated farming
d. Sustainable farming
235. The growing of different crops in a definite order of
succession on the same land is known as

a. Crop rotation
b. Farming system
c. Integrated farming
d. Sustainable farming
236. Application of system approach concept in practice is
based on a

a. Holistic approach
b. Specific approach
c. Scientific approach
d. Commodity approach
237. As a whole temperate farming systems is more
productive than tropical farming because of their

a. More fertile soil

b. Lesser pest problems
c. Highly developed level of technology
d. All of the above
238. In hilly farming systems, slope is synonymous to

a. Erosion
b. Compaction
c. Contour
d. Cultivation
239. In crop rotation, the most critical factor to consider is

a. Proper combinations of crop

b. Right sequencing of growing the crop
c. Proper intercropping of crops
d. Proper mixing of crops
240. The major influence of soil properties on farming
system

a. Species suitability, land preparation and input

application
b. Species of pests, harvesting and threshing
c. Disease, weeds and harvesting
d. All of the above
241. In the case of small farmers, which among the
livestock based systems fits very well to their
present/existing resources

a. pig-fish
b. Chicken-fish
c. Duck-fish
d. Buffalo-fish
242. The intercropping of cabbages and tomatoes is
commonly adopted in vegetable growing areas because
of

a. Allelopathy
b. Reduced incidence of insect (DBM)
c. Reduced incidence of diseases
d. Reduced cost of fertilizer
243. The type farming with rugged terrain with 18% slope
or greater in elevations is known as

a. Sustainable farming
b. Hilly land farming
c. Upland farming
d. Lowland farming
244. The characteristics of sloping land (soils) are
predominantly

a. Strongly acid ultisols

b. Strongly acid oxisols
c. With low pH values below 5.0
d. All of the above
245. In hilly land farming the most commonly used
hedgerow crop is

a. Mahogany
b. Eucalyptus
c. Ipil-ipil
d. Falcata
246. theoretically, the increase in yield of intercropping are
to be expected due to

a. Favorable light factor

b. Allelopathy
c. Reduction in the incidence of pests
d. All of the above
247. Which among the attributes of farming systems attract
the interest of scientist, policy maker, planners, etc.

a. Location specific
b. Holistic
c. Participatory
d. Farmer oriented
248. Land equivalent ratio (LER) is use to measure the

a. Yield advantage of intercropping

b. Yield of pure crop
c. Profit of pure crop
d. Yield advantage of relay crop
249. An LER index value higher than 1.00 indicates

a. Disadvantage of intercropping
b. Advantage of intercropping
c. Break-even point of intercropping
d. All of the above
250. In intercropping technique of growing crops, the word
temporal means

a. Space
b. Time
c. Place
d. Temperature