1.

Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing

2. Project charter, stakeholder register, stakeholder management plan
3. Identifying stakeholders and collect requirements
4. To control unnecessary change
5. Controlling unnecessary change
6. Control schedule
7. Support the project and resolve resource and other conflicts
8. Project charter, stakeholder register, stakeholder management plan
9. Co-location
10. Increasing output to meet unusually high customer demand
11. To control unnecessary change
12. Functional management
13. They are all equal importance unless stated otherwise
14. Project management office
15. Control schedule
16.700MB capacity for a CD-ROM
17 The project expeditor has no limit or no decision-making ability
18. The project management life cycle is the project management piece of the
project and the project life cycle is the process of completing the work of the
project.
19. They are all of equal importance unless otherwise stated.
20. Managing of related or similar projects in a coordinated way
21. Plan-Do-Check-Act
22. The project manager
23. Corrective action
24. Product life cycle
25. Control schedule
26 .Strategic planning
27 Having a home to go to when the project is complete

28. To control unnecessary change

29. Information distribution plan
30. All the answers
31. Controlling unnecessary change
32. Project product
33. Charter
34. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing
35. The charter and project planning
36. A project that utilizes all groups across a company
37. Optimization for a single focus on the project
38. Focusing most product development on a specific market segments
39. Operations management
40. Project manager
41. Optimization for a single focus on the project
42. Control schedule
43. Stakeholder risk tolerance
44. Progressive Elaboration
45. A project proposed in response to a legal requirement
46. Being away from the group might make career advancement more difficult.
47. Operations management is responsible for the continued support of the
product, service, or result.
48. Strategic planning
49. As a response to a legal requirement, a business problem, a technology
advance, or a business opportunity
50. Operations management is responsible for the continued support of the
product, service, or result.
51. Work result
52. Weekly progress reports for stakeholders
53. Senior management (D)

54. To check for variances from plan and make appropriate adjustments when
variances are encountered. (B)
55. Weekly progress reports for stakeholders (B)
56. Creating marketing materials in Spanish and English for areas that have a
large Hispanic population. (B)
57. Matrix (A)
58. The PMO will collect, measure, and interpret the information (C)
59. All of the answers (C)
60. Project management office (D)
61. Approved changes. (B)
62. Project management information system (PMIS)
63. Project B (D)
64. Evaluate the impact of the persons absence on the project and communicate
to senior management.(B)
65. Network diagram (B)
66. Whether the new project will impact your projects business case. (C)
67. Evaluate the impact to the project and let the customer know the options and
impact of the change. (B)
68. To control change by approval of needed changes and rejection of unneeded
changes to the project. (D)
69. Procedures to document and control product or services characteristics (C)
70. Meet with the sponsor and find out what their concerns are (C)
71. Direct and manage project execution (D)
72. Procurement audit (C)
73 .Formal acceptance (C)
74. Lessons learned (A)
75. Close procurements (D)
76. Formal acceptance (A)
77. Assignment of the project manager (D)
78. They are all equal unless otherwise stated in the project charter (C)

79. Kick off meetings (C)

80. Sponsor (B)
81. To control Gold plating (C)
82. He is incorrectly calling a schedule a project management plan (D)
83. What impact the new project is expected to have on your biggest project (C)
84. Budget management plan (B)
85. It has a duration of zero (0) (A)
86. A change in the market which the work of the project will operate (B)
87. Conflicting goals of the sponsors (D)
88. Change requests (D)
89. Stakeholder identification (B)
90. A thorough change control system to ensure the project produces the desired
results (A)
91. Direct and manage project execution (C)
92. Lessons learned (D)
93. All the answers
94. Formal acceptance (D)
95. To show that all servers at distribution centres are less than two years old (D)
96. To ensure that all technology in place at key branches is less than three years
old (D)
97. Constraints that impact the projects (A)
98. A project that is proposed in response to a legal requirement. (D)
99. The system accommodates the need to send the right information to the
right people in a timely and appropriate manner. (D)
100. The budget management plan (A)
101. The project baseline (A)
102. Schedule, budget, risk register, various management plans, and change
management plan (D)
103. Project management information system (PMIS)
104. Change control meetings (B)

105. Procedures used to document and control product or service characteristics

(C)
106. A greater emphasis on successful integration of the various pieces of the
project (A)
107. (A) A greater emphasis on successful integration of the various pieces of
project
108. (A) A project that utilizes all groups across a company
109. (A) Progressive elaboration
110. (C) Business unit competency
111. (D) Direct and manage project execution
112. (B) Project management plan and performance Reports
113. (B) He really wants a schedule, not a project management plan
114. (C) Project management information system (PMIS)
115. (A) the project baseline
116. (A) constraints that impact the project
117. (D) Schedule, budget, risk register, various management plans, and change
management plan
118. (B) Evaluate the impact the requested change will have on the project and
advise the customer of the impact and his options
119. (A) Change control meetings
120. (C) To control gold plating
121. (D) It is vital that the system accommodates our need to send the right
information to the right people in a timely and appropriate manner
122. (D) Approved changes
123. (A) Project documents that record what occurred during the project, what
changes were approved, and what decisions were made
124. (D) Compiling lessons learned
125. (D) All the answers
126. (A) Closing the project or phase
127. (B) Closing the project execution
128. (A) Project B

129. (B) The sponsor pays for the project and could own the work of the project
when it is complete
130. (A) Collect, measure, and interpret the information
131. (D) Work performance information, deliverables, project management plan
updates, and change requests.
132. (B) Project D
133. (B) The project baseline
134. (B) The impact the new project may have on the business case for the
reporting consolidation project
135. (C) The project manager and the project management team
136. (C) Closing the project or phase
137. (C) evaluates the impact of the persons absence on the project and
communicates to senior management
138. (B) A schedule, not a project management plan
139. (B) To help ensure that work is done in the appropriate system
140. (D) Constraint that impact the project
141.(B) Constraints that impact the project
142. (A) Project management information system (PMIS)
143. (C) The system is utilized to send the right information to the right people
in a timely and appropriate manner
144. (C) Project management plan and performance reports
145. (B) Lessons learned from prior projects
146. (B) Closing the project
147. (D) Compiling lessons learned
148. (A) All of the answers
149. (B) Define scope
150. (A) the decomposition of the work of the project
151. (C) It has duration of zero (0).
152. (A) Planning areas may lack supporting details
153. (C) Define scope

154. (A) Ask the sponsor for assistance

155. (C) Verify scope
156. (C) Verify scope is the process of comparing what the project created to the
project scope statement, product description, and anything else that helps
ensure that the results of the project will function as intended.
157. (A) At the end of every phase on the project
158. (C) Control scope
159. (A) All the answers
160. (D) Creating the WBS
161. (B) Project B
162. (B) Scope verification
163. (D) Scope verification
164. (B) Project charter
165. (C) To consider all the key stakeholders need when identifying requirements
and scope
166. (A) Work packages and activity lists
167. (A) Requirements traceability matrix, requirements management plan,
requirements documentation
168. (B) Organisational breakdown structure, which graphically illustrates how
the project organisation is structured to accomplish project activities
169. (A) Expert judgment, alternatives identification, facilitated workshops, and
product analysis
170. (A) Project scope statement updates
171. (A) Control scope
172. (A) Collect, measure, and interpret the information
173. (C) Requirements traceability matrix, validated deliverables, requirements
documentation, and project management plan
174. (D) Verify scope is the process of comparing what the project created to the
project scope statement, product description, and anything else that helps
ensure that the results of the product will function as intended.
175. (C) Work performance information, requirements traceability matrix,
requirements documentation, and project management plan

176. (D) at the end of every phase on the project

177. (C) Verify scope and perform quality control
178. (B) The control scope process
179. (C) C. Review the scope and determine why it did not satisfy the customer
180. (B) A delay inserted between activities
181. (A) The sequencing of the activities on the project
182. (A) Fast tracking
183. (A) Parametric
184. (D) Milestone chart
185. (B) Crashing
186. (A) Parametric
187. (C) External dependencies
188. (C) BDE, 14 days
189. (D) Discretional dependencies
190. (B) Mandatory dependencies
191. (D) External Dependencies
192. (B) Slack
193. (A) Activity on Arrow (AOA)
194. (B) Fast tracking
195. (B) One day
196. (B) BDGH, 21 days
197. (C) Negative twelve weeks
198. (D) BEGH
199. (C) shows who is to perform work in certain areas of the project
200. (C) A delay after the sheetrock (wall board) is done in a house to allow it to
dry before continuing work in that area
201. (B) Activity list and milestone list
202. (C) The critical path is the longest path on the project network diagram
203. (D) It is not on the critical path, has 2 days float, and is 5 days long

204. (D) Report that the project is behind schedule, but the team has a solution
to bring the project back on schedule in the next four weeks.
205. (A) Some activities may be fast tracked
206. (A) Tell senior management the project is two weeks behind with a
contingency plan
207. (B) Performance reviews, project management software, variance analysis
208. (C) Plus three weeks
209. (B) Bottom-up estimating, project management software, expert judgement,
published estimating date, and alternative analysis.
210. (D) if the longest paths are the same length, there can be multiple critical
paths and the more critical paths there are on a project, the greater the increase
of risk to project.
211. (C) A delay after installation of the rubberized flooring, allowing the
adhesive to thoroughly dry before adding the equipment and furnishings
212. (D) The method can reveal more than one critical path, critical paths being
the longest paths on the project, but multiple critical paths increase project risk
213. (A) a diagram of the order in which the project activities will occur
214. (D) it can be created quickly
215. (A) Bottom-up estimating
216. (B) Parametric
217. (A) Chart of accounts
218. (A) Variable indirect
219. (C) Chart of accounts
220. (D) $691.24
221.(A) -$65.00
222. (A) -$77.50
223. (B) $186.24
224. (D) Scope, time, and cost
225. (D) Project C
226. (A) Project C
227. (B) Life cycle costing

228. (D) Revenue and cost

229. (B) Project B
230. (A) Variables indirect
231. (C) Accelerated Depreciation
232. (B) $2668.09
233. (A) $1633.09
234. (D) -$168.09
235. (A) Estimate to completion
236. (A) -$55.00
237. (A) Project B
238.( C) -50% to +50%
239. (D) -25% to +75%
240. (A) project B
241. (C) Project C
242. (B) $5,000
243. (B) Scope, time, and cost
244. (C) $691.24
245. (B) Parametric
246. (A) Life cycle costing
247. (A) $275.00
248. (B) to complete performance index
249. (A) -$57.50
250. (A) -$185.39
251. (A) 0.84
252. $4,761.91
253. (C) The project costs may increase, but company might save money in the
long term

254. (A) Project A

255. (B) $1550
256. (C) Earned value management (EVM)
257. (C) Cost control
258. (C) Estimate to complete
259. (A) -$230.00
260. (B) Fees to marketing company to create a get started kit for new intranet
261. (A) Parametric
262. (A) -25% to +75%
263. (B) Accelerated Depreciation
264. 30%/70%
265. (C) Definition of quality
266. (D) senior management
267. (C) Pareto diagram
268. (C) Zero Defects
269. (D) Total Quality management
270. (A) making a greater use of checklists
271. (B) Inspection
272. (B) Run chart
273. (B) Utilizing a Fishbone diagram
274. (B) Checklist
275. (B) Quality audit
276. (A) Quality audits
277. (D) Auditing the quality requirements and quality control measurements to
ensure appropriate standards are used
278. (A) Perform Quality Assurance
279. (C) Changing the quality to a sigma level greater than 3
280. (B) Increase warranty support

281. (B) senior management

282. (D) Fishbone diagram
283. (A) the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfil requirements
284. (D) Pareto diagram
285. (D) it is not very thorough
286. (C) Scatter diagram
287. (C) Utilizing a fishbone diagram
288. (C) Making a greater use of checklists
289. (C) Verifying that the quality plan will help achieve the desired results
290. (D) Quality Audit
291. (B) Quality Audits
292. (B) Updates should occur as validation data is available from the perform
Quality Assurance process
293. (D) Quality audits which help verify process and output compliance
294. (D) Perform Quality Assurance
295. (D) Quality control measurements can be fed into the perform Quality
Assurance process to validate the efficiency and cost effectiveness of perform
Quality control
296.( A) Auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are
used?
297. (C) Verify scope and perform quality control
298. (A) Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal
line, the more dependent the variables are
299. (C) Quality control measurement can be fed into the perform Quality
Assurance process to validate the efficiency and cost effectiveness of perform
Quality control
300. (D) Auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are used
301. (A) Perform Quality Assurance
302. (D) Updates should occur as validation data from the perform Quality
Assurance process
303. (A) Quality audits which help verify process and output compliance
304. (A) Expert

305. (D) Responsibility assignment matrix

306. (A) Perks
307. (B) Training
308. (D) Mentoring
309. (D) Resource histogram
310. (D) Performance reviews
311. (D) Resource histogram
312. (D) Problem solving
313. (D) Team development
314. (D) Acquire project Team
315. (B) Executing
316. (D) Responsibility Assignment Matrix
317. (B) Psychedelic
318. (A) someone who is impacted by the project
319. (B) Team motivation
320. (A) Information about who is responsible for what work
321. (A) Resource Histogram
322. (B) Smoothing
323. (B) Resource Histogram
324. (C) Ground Rules
325. (D) Performance reviews
326. (A) during execution
327. (A) Performance improvements
328. (A) Team development
329. (C) Effective delegation involves effective communication: a clear definition
of the work to be done, the time frame in which the work is to be done, and
descriptions of the evaluation process and expected results are necessary
330. (D) Theory X environment

331. (A) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations,

coaching, and motivating
332. (A) Confusion about who is responsible for what
333. (C) The team will know who is responsible for what work
334. (C) The project manager announces that those who do not complete their
tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus
335. (B) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in
a timely manner
336. (C) This style of management is focused on helping employees take on new
skills and roles which may create quality issues
337. (B) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the
details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project
338. (B) Conflict as they become familiar with each other
339. (B) Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices
340. (C) project management plan, resource calendars, and project staff
assignments
341. (D) Observation and conversation, conflict management, issue log, project
performance appraisals, and interpersonal skills
342. (D) Leadership skills, effective decision making skills, and influencing skills
343. (C) Ground rules, team-building activities, co-location, recognition and
reward, interpersonal skills, and training.
344. (A) directing in the early stage, coaching as the project gains momentum,
facilitation upon completion of significant work, and support as the project is
closing
345. (C) Group norms, ground rules, and project management practices
346. (B) Increased team performance
347. (B) Acquire project team
348. (A) Organisational theory, organization chart and position descriptions, and
networking
349. (D) Someone who is impacted by the project
350. (A) Resource calendars, project staff assignments, and project management
plan

351. (A) the key output of the develop human resource plan is the human
resource plan
352. (C) If labor can and wants to see the ultimate reason for doing the work (big
picture), management can set the expectation and lead rather than manage
353. (D) Language
354. (B) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting
355. (D) Work breakdown structure
356. (B) Message
357. (C) 90%
358. (B) Status report
359. (D) Variance report
360. (D) Earned value report
361. (D) Work performance information
362. (C) Forecast report
363. (C) A functional manager wanted to meet with the project manager at the
same time
364. (C) Message
365. (A) Project scope statement
366. (B) Communication management plan
367. (A) 22 channels
368. (C) Work results
369. (D) Progress report
370. (B) Earned value report
371. (D) Forecast report
372. (B) Issue log
373. (C) Stakeholder registers which contains a list of stakeholders and their
needs
374. (A) Stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, level of impact on the
project, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact.
375. (A) Stakeholder analysis and expert judgement

376. (B) Stakeholder register, which contains a list of stakeholders and their
needs
377. (C) Stakeholder register and stakeholder management plan
378. (A) communication methods and information distribution tools
379. (D) Communications requirements analysis, communication technology,
communication methods, and communication models
380. (B) Informal, unofficial, internal, vertical communication
381. (A) the product functionality required by the primary customer
382. (A) Communication skills commonly used by management
383. (C) Forecasting methods, communication methods, variance analysis, and
reporting systems
384. (D) Contact the vendor and discuss this problem
385. (B) Communication methods, interpersonal skills, and management skills
386. (D) Communication methods, interpersonal skills, and management skills
387. (C) Organisational process assets updates, change requests, and project
management plan updates
388. (B) Project management plan and performance reports
389. (D) Expert judgement and stakeholder analysis
390. (D) Earned value report
391 (A) Approved corrective actions, resolved issues, and approved change
requests
392. (A) 45 channels
393. (C) A functional manager wanted to meet with the project manager at the
same time
394. (C) A greater emphasis on successful integration of the various pieces of the
project
395. (C) Performance reports and project management plan
396. (B) The report contains information related to recent project occurrences
397. (C) Stakeholder registers which contains a list of stakeholders and their
needs
398. (C) 23 channels

399. (C) Communication skills commonly used by management

400. (D) A greater emphasis on successful integration of the various pieces of
the project
401. (A) Unofficial, informal, internal, vertical communication
402. (D) Answers (A) and (B)
403. (B) Identify Risks
404. (D) Share
405. (D) Risk owners
406. (D) Avoid
407. (A) Change requests
408. (C) Fix the problem with a workaround
409. (C) Scatter diagram
410. (C) Determining the validity of the documentation risks and looking for any
new risks that could occur
411. (B) Known unknowns
412. (A) Business risk
413. (B) Unknown unknowns
414. (D) Mitigate
415. (D) Avoid
416. (A) Corrective measure
417. (B) Determining the validity of the documented risks and looking for any
new risks that could occur
418. (A) Fix the problem
419. (B) Implementing a risk response plan if the risk events occur
420. (B) Risk events you know can occur on the project
421. (B) Identify Risk which entails determining what risks and triggers could
occur on the project
422. (B) Probability distribution
423. (A) Answers and (B)
424. (D) Risk management plan

425. (B) Fix the problem with a workaround

426. (A) Fix the problem
427. (C) Risk owner
428. (D) Risk reassessment, risk audits, variance and trend analysis, reserve
analysis, status meetings
429. (A) Monitor and control risks, which entails observing project activities for
risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them
430. (D) Implementing a risk response if the risk event occurs
431. (C) Plan Risk Responses which entails determining what will be done if risk
events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions
432. (A) Fix the problem
433. (D) Risk breakdown structure
434. (B) Monitor and control risk which entails observing project activities for
risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them
435. (C) $1,700
436. (B) Updating risks, risk probability and impact, planned responses and risk
owners
437. (A) Project A
438. (B) Single source
439. (A) $700,700
440. (B) Lump-sum
441. (C) Request for proposal (RFP)
442. (A) Lack of career path for contract administrators
443. (A) Contract administrator
444. (D) Administer procurement
445. (B) Monitoring and controlling
446. (D) Conduct procurement
447. (C) Opportunity for vendors to inquire about the bids of other sellers
448. (B) Conduct procurements
449. (A) Bidders conference

450. (A) Close procurement comes before close project o phase

451. (B) Plan procurement
452. (C) Negotiation
453. (A) Special provision
454. (A) Request for proposal (RFP)
455. (C) Your Company has excess capacity for the work
456. (B) Contract administrator
457. (D) Administer procurements
458. (B) Conduct procurements
459. (A) Conduct procurements
460. (D) Close procurement will come before close project or phase
461. (C) Your Company has excessive capacity for the work
462. (A) the software package should be outsourced because the company
doesnt have excessive capacity for the work
463. (C) $560K
464. (B) Fixed-price- economic-price-adjust
465. (C ) Purchase order because it is a general purchase vehicle for commodity
purchases
466. (A) the contract administrator for the company
467. (C) Any agreement to modify the contract should be created and added as
an attachment to the contract
468. (B) All the answers
469. (A) Offering services at a low cost, but raising the cost at signing
470. (B) Annual maintenance
471. (D) Criteria around which the provider of services can refer to the work
472. (D) Share because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible
473. (C) Validation of the contract terms and conditions and formal acceptance
474. (A) Close procurements comes before close project or phase
475. (D) A mechanism that insures that there is no impropriety or unreasonable
pricing

476. (A) Criteria to which the provider of services can refer in connection with the
work
477. (C) Cost-plus-incentive-fee
478. (A) the project manager plans to buy from the vendor
479. (B) Close procurements comes before close project or phase
480. (C) $105,830.33
481. (B) Validation of the contract terms and conditions and formal acceptance
482. (B) The person being interviewed should have clarified the status to the
employer when the confusion became apparent
483. (B) Order a copy from the company or an authorized reseller
484. (A) Meet with the team and brainstorm how to create a workaround for this
485. (C) Report this activity to PMI for corrective action
486. (B) that she will need a product description so she can provide the customer
with time and cost estimates
487. (D) Project manager
488. (C) Reporting this problem to senior management with a solution of
replacing this team member
489. (A) Why is the project being done or what is the business need?
490. (D) Culture differences
491. D. Review with the project manager how this status was produced
492. (B) Initiating, planning, Executing, Monitoring and controlling, Closing
493. (D) Identify stake holders and Collect Requirements
494. (D) Project charter, stake holder register, stakeholder management plan
495. (B) Kick off meeting
496. (B) they are all equal unless otherwise stated in the project charter
497. (D) Assignment of the project manager
498. (B) Project B
499. (C) Project C
500. (A) Charter
501. (C) Initiating, planning, Executing, Monitoring and controlling, closure

502. (D) The charter and project planning

503. (C) Kick-off meeting
504. (A) They are all equal unless otherwise stated in the charter
505. (A) Project charter
506. (A) Initiating, planning, Executing. Monitoring and controlling, closing
507. (B) Project charter, stake-holder register, stake-holder management plan
508. (C) Initiating, planning, Executing. Monitoring and controlling, closing
509. (A) A project that is proposed in response to a legal requirement
510. (A) A change in the market for which the work of the project is intended
511. (B) to ensure that all servers at distribution centres are less than two years
old
512. (C) A project proposed in response to a technology advance
513. (C) Whether the new project will impact the business case for his project
514. (C) -50% to + 50%
515. (A) Project B
516. (D) -25% to + 75%
517. (B) Project B
518. (D) Project C
519. (C) As a response to a legal requirement, a business problem, a technology
advance, or business opportunity
520. (D) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and controlling, Closure
521. (D) Strategic planning
522. (A) Operations management is responsible for the continued support of the
product, service, or result
523. (C) Work performance information, deliverables, project management plan
updates, and change requests
524. (D) Project D
525. (A) A project proposed in response to a technological advance
526. (D) Conflicting goals of the sponsors
527. (D) to control gold plating

528. (D)To control gold plating

529. (D) The project costs may increase, but company might save money in the
long term
530. (C) $4,761.91
531. (B) Project A
532. (A) Managing related or similar projects in a coordinated way
533. (B) Business unit competency
534. (B) Project manager
535. (A) Optimization for a single focus on the project
536. (A) the project management life cycle is the project management piece of
the project and the life cycle is the process of completing the work of the project
537. (D) Constraints
538. (D) It ensures that all technology in place at key branches is less than three
years old
539. (C) Historical information
540. (D) Budget management plan
541. (B) He is incorrectly calling a schedule a project management plan
542. (A) Project B
543. (C) Project scope statement
544. (B) Communication breakdown structure
545. (D) Work breakdown structure
546. (A) Define scope
547. (D) Analogous
548. (A) BFG
549. (C) A delay inserted between activities
550. (A) Some activities may be fast tacked
551. (C) Milestone chart
552. (D) Revenue and cost
553. (D) Sunk cost

554. (B) Determine Budget

555. (D) Indirect
556. (B) 2.78
557. (C) It is very thorough
558. (A) 95.46%
559. (D) Deming
560. (A) Increased warranty support
561. (B) Zero Defects
562. (A) Perks
563. (D) Functional manager
564. (C) Organisational breakdown structure (OBS)
565. (D) Confusion on who is responsible for doing what
566. (B) Halo theory
567. (A) Both the sender and receiver
568. (D) Formal written
569. (B) The product functionality required by the primary customer
570. (C) Work breakdown structure
571. (C) Language
572. (A) Risk seeker
573. (C) Risk owners
574. (C) Risk owners
575. (B) External. Internal, technology, personnel
576. (B) $22,400
577. (A) Share
578. (A) the project manager plans to buy from the vendor
579. (A) It provides no reason for the seller to control cost
580. (C) Proposals that use fixed-price
581. (C) Ten days

582. (B) Functionality

583. (B) 700MB capacity for a CD-ROM
584. (D) The sponsor
585. (D) Project management plan
586. (B) Optimization for a single focus on the project
587. (C) A project that utilized all groups across a company
588. (A) Constraints
589. (C) Project management information system (PMIS)
590. (C) To control Gold plating
591. (D) He is incorrectly calling a schedule a project management plan
592. (B) Sponsor
593. (D) Breaking work down to realistic level where work packages are the
lowest level
594. (A) It has duration of zero (o)
595. (A) Creating the WBS and Define Activity
596. (C) Defining activities
597. (A) Constraints
598. (B) Rolling wave planning
599. (C) Fast tracking
600. (D) Gantt chart
601. (B) External Dependencies
602. (C) Project C
603. (D) Scope, Time, and cost
604. (A) Direct
605. (B) Variable indirect
606. (C) Sunk cost
607. (B) Process flow
608. (B) Height
609. (D) 1 or 100%

610. (A) the construction Engineer

611. (A) the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfil requirements
612. (A) Theory X environment
613. (A) Responsibility Assignment matrix
614. (A) Organizational chart
615. (A) Reward
616. (D) Forcing
617. (A) 22 Channels
618. (B) Communication management plan
619. (C) Project scope statement
620. (B) Spreadsheet applications
621. (B) Formal written
622. (A) Business risk
623. (C) Project A
624. (D) Identifying risks
625. (B) A trigger is an indicator that a risk event could occur
626. (B) Transfer
627. (D) Cost plus fixed fee
628. (D) Time and materials
629. (D) The seller establishes a price, and the buyer simply has to purchase the
item
630. (A) the company making the product internally
631. (A) the company making the product internally
632. (B) $260K US
633. (C) Support the project and resolve resource and other conflicts
634. (A) Matrix
635. (D)They are all equal unless otherwise stated in the project
636. (B) Progressive elaboration
637. (A) Identify stake holders and collect Requirements

638. (A) Project manager and the project management team

639. (B) Schedule, budget, risk register, various management plan, and change
management plan
640. (A) He really wants a schedule, not a project management plan
641. (B) The budget management plan
642. (A) the project baseline
643. (D) Resource breakdown structure, which shows the type of resources used
on the project
644. (B) Questionnaires and surveys, facilitated workshops, focus groups and
interviews
645. (C)It helps attain buy-in from the team
646. (A) Communication breakdown structure
647. (C) Analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three-point estimates,
reserve analysis, and expert judgement
648. (A) the activity-on-arrow method may only have one predecessor type and
the activity-on-node method may have 4 predecessor types
649. (A) Analogous
651. (A) Templates, rolling wave planning, expert judgement, and decomposition
652. (D) $5,000
653. (B) Schedule performance index
654. (A) Determine Budget
655. (B) Sending the team to communication training
656. (A) Bottom-up estimating
657. (A) TQM and W.Edwards Deming, Fitness for use and Joseph juran, zero
Defects and Philip Crosby
658. (D) 1 or 100%
659. (D) Definition of quality
660. (B) Conformance versus Non-conformances
661. (B) Physiological, belonging, esteem, safety, and self-actualization
662. (A) The project manager instructs the team leaders to prepare status
reports for the weekly meeting

663. (B) Networking, organisational theory, and organisation charts and position
descriptions
664. (D) someone who impacted by the project
665. (A) If labor can and wants to see the ultimate reason for doing the work (big
picture), management can set the expectation and lead rather than manage
666. (D) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting
667. (D) 27 Channels
668. (B) Communication skills commonly used by management
669. (A) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting
670. (A) Medium, specifically the technique that dictates the format of a
message
671. (D) The risk breakdown structure used in the risk identification process and
the risk probabilities and impact rating matrix used in the Qualitative risk
analysis process
672. (A) Planning meetings and analysis
673. (B) Earned value management (EVM)
674. (B) Project B
675. (A) Identify risk which entails determining what risks and triggers could
occur on the project
676. (A) Cost-plus-incentive-fee
677. (B) $700,700
678. (C) The seller establishes a price, and the buyer simply has to purchase the
item
679. (A) 200 days
680. (A) Portfolio management
681. (D) Customer
682. (C) Experiencing delays in career advancement as a direct result of absence
from her department
683. (A) upon completion of the project, she can return to her department
684. (A) the average number of losing tickets in a week
685. (D) Constraints that impact the project

686. (B) To help ensure that work is done in the appropriate sequence
687. (D) To accommodate the sponsor
688. (B) Procedures used to document and control product or service
characteristics
689. (D) To consider all the key stakeholders needs when identifying
requirements and scope
690. (A) Discuss with the customer and sponsor the ramifications of having the
WBS not reflect the true work of the project
691. (C) Decomposition, templates, rolling wave planning, and expert judgement
692. (B) Reviewing a resource allocation chart for peaks and valleys and making
adjustments to create a level use of resources
693. (B) 64
694. (C) If the longest paths are the same length, there can be multiple critical
paths and the more critical paths there are on the project, the greater the
increase of risk to the project
695. (D) The activity-on-node method may have four predecessor types, while
the activity-on-arrow method may only have one predecessor type
696. (B) Company-wide software licensing fees
697. (D) Fees to marketing company to create a get started kit for new intranet
698. (D) Variable
699. (D) Fixed formula progress reporting
700. (B) the less known, the wider the range
701. (A) A violation of the seven Run rule
702. (B) Detailed project improvement plan
703. (A) 99.73%
704. (D) Greater than seven
705. (B) The mentor is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles
which may create quality issues
706. (B) Theory X environment
707. (B) Organisation theory, organisation charts and position descriptions, and
networking
708. (C) 26 Channels

709. (C) Communication management plan

710. (C) Communication Skills commonly used by management
711. (C) Communication management plan
712. (B) Risk Analysis diagrams
713. (A) The risk breakdown structure used in the identity risks processes and
the risk probabilities and impact rating matrix used in the performance
Qualitative risk analysis process
714. (D) $7,000
715. (C) To analyze the project environment
716. (A) External, internal, technology, personnel
717. (B) The seller establishes a price, and the buyer simply has to purchase the
item
718. (C) Request for proposals (RFP)
719. (C) Fixed-price because the price will be locked in
720. (D) 250 days
721. (A) Direct and manage project execution
722. (D) Perform Quality Assurance
723. (A) Auditing the quality requirements and control measurements to ensure
appropriate standards are used
724. (C) Quality audit
725. (B) Quality audits
726. (B) Increased team performance
727. (A) Executing
728. (B) Team development
729. (A) Problem solving
730. (B) Resource histogram
731. (C) Conduct procurements
732. (D) Bidders conference
733. (C) Opportunity for vendors to inquire about the bids of other sellers
734.( D) Conduct procurements

735. (A) the project manager

736. (B) Direct and manage project execution
737. (C) Quality Audit
738. (B) Verify that the quality plan will help achieve the desired results
739. (A) Quality Audits
740. (A) Ground Rules
741. (B) during execution
742. (A) Team development
743. (B) Mentoring
745. (A) performance reviews
746.(A) Conduct procurements
747. (D) conduct procurements
748. (D) project management plan and performance reports
749. (D) Direct and manage project execution
750.(A) Updates should occur as validation data is available from the perform
Quality assurance process
751. (A) auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are used
752. (D) Quality audits which help verify process and output compliance
753. (A) They can be fed into the perform quality assurance process to validate
the efficiency and cost effectiveness of perform quality control
754. (A) Directing, coaching, facilitation, and support
755. (C) Reporting this problem to senior management with a solution of
replacing this team member
756. (A) Team-building activities, co-location, training, ground rules,
interpersonal skills, and recognition and reward
757. (B) Project management plan, resource calendars, and project staff
assignments
758. (A) the project manager announces that those who do not complete their
tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus
759. (A) Project management plan and performance reports
760. (B) Criteria around which the provider of services can refer to the work

761. (C) Opportunity for vendors to inquire about the bid of other sellers
762. (D) Offering services at a low cost, but raising the cost at signing
763. (B) Work results
764. (A) The five main process groups are initiating, planning, executing,
monitoring and controlling, and closing
765. (B) The project baseline
766. (B) The project manager and the project management team
767. (B) Auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are used
768. (B) Perform Quality assurance
769. (B) Updated should occur as validation data from the perform Quality
assurance process
770(.A) Quality audits which help verify process and output compliance
771. (C) Pre-assignment, acquisition, virtual teams, and negotiation
772. (D) Conflict will likely occur as team members become familiar with each
other
773. (A) Increased team performance
774. (B) Acquire project Team
775. (B) The report contains information related to recent project occurrences
776. C. Performance reports and project management plan
777. (A) considering, capacity, acceptance, offer, legal purpose
778. (C) to prepare the vendor for proposal creation by providing clarification of
potential issues and answering each vendors question in the presence of all the
vendors
779. (B) The conference provides an opportunity for vendors to inquire about the
bids of other sellers
780. (D) Control schedule
781. (B) to control unnecessary change
782. (A) Initiating, planning, Executing, monitor and controlling, closing
783. (A) Controlling unnecessary change
784. (D) Support the project and resolve resource and other conflicts
785. (A) Procurement to document and control product or service characteristics

786. (C) Meet with the sponsor and find out what their concerns are
787. (A) Change control meetings
788. (D) to control gold plating
789. (A) Verify scope
790. (B) Control gold plating
791. (C) At the end of every phase on the project

792. (D) Control scope

793. (C) Meet with the team to determine the impact
794. (B) 0.89
795. (C) -$55.00
796. (D) Flowcharting
797. (A) Check list
798. (B) Run chart
799. (A) Pareto diagram
800. (A) Quality control data
801. (D) Resource histogram
802. (C) Performance reviews
803. (C) Performance reviews
804. (C) Forecast report
805. (A) Issue log
806. (B) Status report
807. (D) Progress report
808. (C) Earned value report
809. (C) Implementing a risk response if the risk event occurs
810. (A) Scatter diagram
811. (A) Change requests
812. (A) Fix the problem with a workaround

813. (D) Determining the validity of the documented risks and looking for any
new risks that could occur
814. (B) Monitoring and Controlling
815. (B) Contract administrator
816. (C) Administer procurements
817. (A) Controlling unnecessary change
818. (A) Control schedule
819. (A) to control unnecessary change
820. (A) Corrective Action
821. (D) Stakeholder management
822. (D) Evaluate the impact to the project and let the customer know the
options and impact of the change
823. (D) Change Requests
824. (D) Scope verification is the process of comparing what the project created
to the scope statement, product description, and anything else that helps ensure
the results of the project will function as intended
825. (D) Meet with the team to determine the impact
826 (A) Scope verification
827. (B) Scope verification
828. (D) Control scope
829. (A) BDGH, 21 days
830. (B) Negative twelve weeks
831. (D) One day
832. (D) A violation of the seven Run Rule
833. (C) Inspection
834. (B) Pareto diagram
835. (C) Smoothing
836. (C) Resource Histogram
837. (B) Resource Histogram
838. (A) Work results

839. (A) Status report

840. (C) Forecast report
841. (A) Progress report
842. (C) Progress report
843. (D) Fix the problem
844. (B) Determining the validity of the document risks and looking for any new
risks that could occur
845. (B) Implementing a risk response plan if the risk event occurs
846. (A) Administer procurement
847. (B) Contact Administrator
848. (A) 0.937
849. (D) -$168.09
850. (B) -$55.00
851. (D) $970.00
852. (A) $1633.09
853. (D) to check for variances from the plan and make appropriate adjustments
when variances are
encountered
854. (D) Controlling unnecessary change
855. (C) Senior management
856. (A) Weekly progress reports for stakeholders
857.(C) Evaluate the impact of the persons absence on the project and
communicate to senior management
858. (C) At key interface points where the various work packages come together
859. (A) A schedule, not a project management plan
860. (C) The system must accommodate the need to send the right information
to the right people in a timely and appropriate manner
861. (C) To control change by approval of needed changes and rejection of
unneeded changes to the project
862. (A) The control scope process
863. (C) Review the scope and determine why it did not satisfy the customer

864. (A) Requirements documentation, project management plan, requirements

traceability matrix, validated deliverables
865. (B) Completing product requirements
866. (C) Plus three weeks
867. (B) Bottom-up estimating, project management software, expert judgment,
published estimating date, and alternative analysis
868. (D) Scope, time and cost
869. (C) Schedule performance index (SPI)
870. (C) Project A
871. (D) 0.88
872. (A) Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal
line, the more dependent the variables are
873. (D) none of the answers
874. (A) Verify scope and perform Quality control
875. (A) to evaluate project activities which have the potential to create defects
and assess the defects which are creating quality issues
876. (C) The report contains information related to the present overall state of
the project
877. (A) Information distribution tools and communication methods
878. (B) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting
879. (A) the report contains information related to future project occurrences
880. (C) Approved corrective actions, resolved issues, and approved change
requests
881.(D)implementing a risk response if the risk event occurs
882. (C) Risk breakdown structure
883. (C) Fix the problem
884. (B) It provides no reason for the seller to control cost
885. (C) Contact the vendor and discuss this problem
886. (C) $200,000.00
887. (C) Control schedule
888. (D) Controlling unnecessary change

889. (A) to control unnecessary change

890. (C) To control change by approval of needed changes and rejection of
unneeded changes to the project
891. (B) Meet with the sponsor about her concerns
892. (A) Approved changes
893. (C) To control gold plating
894. (A) Implement change control to incorporate the new work
895. (B) Project B
896. (D) after each deliverable is complete
897. (A) Collect, measure, and interpret the information
898. (C) Consider removing resources from this activity for no more than two
days if the critical path will benefit
899. (A) Project schedule, project management plan, and work performance
information
900. (A) Some activities may be fast tracked
901. (A) Tell senior management the project is two weeks behind with a
contingency plan
902. (A) A cause and effect diagram (also known as ishikawa and fishbone) helps
to isolate any potential problems that relate to quality on a project
903. (C) Verify scope and perform Quality control
904. (A) Run chart because it indicates output over time and provides the
opportunity to determine trends and variances
905. (C) The company is gold plating which is not a good practice because it
violates the standard of delivering the exact product, service, or result that is
finalized in the project charter
906. (B) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in
a timely manner
907. (C) The project managers degree and prior work experience were in
systems engineering
908. (C) The project manager announces that those who do not complete their
tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus
909. (B) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the
details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project

910. (B) Resolved issues, approved change requests, and approved corrective
actions
911. (D) Forecasting methods, communication methods, variance analysis, and
reporting systems
912. (C) Contact the vendor and discuss this problem
913. (B) Information related to the present overall state of the project?
914. (A) Information related to the difference between planned and actual
occurrences
915. (B) Fix the problem
916. (B) Secondary risk
917. (D) Monitor and control risk which entails observing project activities for
risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them
918. (D) Risk owner
919. (A) the contract administrator for the company
920. (B) Any agreement to modify the contract should be created and added as
an attachment to the contract
921. (D) -$65.00
922. (D) 0.84
923. (C) 30%/70% rule
924. (A) Control costs
925. (A) -$55.00
926. (D) Close procurements
927. (D) Close procurements
928. (B) Formal acceptance
929. (B) Release of resources
930. (A) Lessons learned
931. (B) Close procurements comes before close project or phase
932. (A) Project product
933. (D) Close procurements will come before close project or phase
934. (A) Project documents that record what occurred during the project, what
changes were approved, and what decisions were made?

935. (A) Closing the project or phase

936. (B) All the answers
937. (B) for each contract, the contract, the approved changes, and the formal
acceptance
938. (D) Close procurements comes before close project or phase
939. (C) Validation of the contract terms and conditions and formal acceptance
940. (D) Documents that record what occurred during the project, what changes
were approved, and what decisions were made
941. (C) The point at which the verify scope process is completed, the project is
cancelled, or project funds are depleted
942. (A) closing the project
943. (B) Lessons learned from prior projects
944. (C) $105,830.33
945. (B) Validation of the contract terms and conditions and formal acceptance
946. (D) Scope Baseline
947. (B) Project Document updates
948. (B) Activity cost estimates
949. (B) Cost Aggregation
950. (D) Requirements Traceability Matrix
951. (D) $41,667
952. (C) $25,000
953. (B) $1,450
954. (D) $26,923
955. (B) 1.5
956. (D) 125 channels
957. (A) 465
958. (D) 300 channels
959. (A) 91
960. (C) 465 channels

961. (B) $37,620 US

962. (A) 67 days
963. (A) 17 days
964. (A) 13 days
965. (A) 10 months
966. (B) 13 months
967. (D) 56 months
968. (B) 12 months
969. (D) 21
970. (C) 9.67
971. (B) 1.33
972. (A) 2
973. (A) 1.33
974. (B) $300,000.00
975. (D) $139,705.88
976. (A) $50,000.00
977. (D) $174.00
978. (A) $2,166.67
979. (B) $174.00
980. (B) $2,566.67
981. (A) $36,000 to $84,000
982. (B) Project Z
983. (B) $225,000 to $525,000
984. (A) Project Y
985. (B) $125,000 to $500,000
986. (A) $62,500 to %250,000
987. (C) $157,500 to $201,250
988. (C) Project Y

989. (C) Project Z

990. (A) Project X
991. (B) $68,530 US
992. (D) $53,900 US
993. (A) $44,750 US
994. (B) $57,900 US
995. (C) $75,200 US
996. (B) $850.00
997. (A) $250.00
998. (B) $1,150.00
999. (B) $5,625.00
1000. (C) $5,775.00
1001. (B) Co-location
1002. (B) Stake holders risk tolerance
1003. (A) Identify stakeholders and collect requirements
1004. (A) Project management plan
1005. (A) senior management
1006. (A) Approved changes
1007. (B) A change in the market for which the work of the project is intended
1008. (D) Collect, measure, and interpret the information
1009. (D) The project baseline
1010. (B) At the end of every phase on the project
1011. (D) Requirements traceability matrix, requirements management plan,
requirements documentation
1012. (C) Activity sequencing of WBS components requires parallel or concurrent
dependencies
1013. (B) The activity-on-arrow method may only have one predecessor type and
the activity-on-node method may have 4 predecessor types
1014. (B) shows who is to perform work in certain areas of the project

1015. (A) Define Activities and activity list

1016. (A) 2.79
1017. (B) Activity list, resource calendars, project scope statement, activity
resource requirements
1018. (A) Milestone chart
1019. (B) Activity list, Network diagrams, and Gantt charts
1020. (D) BDE, 14 days
1021. (B) Scope, time, and cost
1022. (B) Not enough information
1023. (D) Schedule performance index
1024. (C) Schedule performance index (SPI)
1025. (D) 30%/70% rule
1026. (A) Run chart because it indicates output over time and provides the
opportunity to determine trends and variances
1027. (C) Minimizing proactive quality spending
1028. (C) Definition of quality
1029. (A) the pare to diagram is a cumulative history of issues prioritized by
frequency
1030. (B) Conflict as they become familiar with each other
1031. (D) Directing, coaching, facilitation, and support
1032. (A) an effective employee in a discipline will become an effective
employee in another discipline
1033. (A) the project manager announces that those who do not complete their
tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus
1034. (D) Acquisition, negotiation, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
1035. (A) Stakeholder analysis and expert judgement
1036.(A) Information related to the present overall state of the project
1037. (B) Communications requirements analysis, communication technology,
communication methods, and communication models
1038. (B) Informal, unofficial, internal, vertical communication
1039. (A) Contact the vendor and discuss this problem

1040. (D) Plan risk response which entails determining what will be done if risk
events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions
1041. (A) A probability and impact matrix
1042. (D) External, internal, technology, personnel
1043. (D) Entering a relatively untested market in the hope of significant reward
1044. (C) Answers and (B)
1045. (C) Your Company has excessive capacity for the work
1046. (A) Request for comments (RFC)
1047. (A) A purpose for the contract
1048. (A) Request for proposals (RFP)
1049. (D) Making the product internally
1050. (C) Alert management and follow its direction on the situation
1051. (D) Analyze and discuss lessons learned with the team
1052. (C) Do team-building while the members co-locate to one site during
planning phase
1053. (B) She will be able to focus on the project without the distraction of
departmental work
1054. (D) An initiative that has a specific purpose, creates specific results, has a
definite start and end date, and is temporary
1055. (D) Functional management
1056. (C) Memorializing all project related meetings
1057. (D) Ground rules, team-building activities, co-location, recognition and
reward, interpersonal skills, and training
1058. (A) The key output of the develop human resource plan is the human
resource plan
1059. (D) Conflict will likely occur as team members become familiar with each
other
1060. (C) The project manager presents the most productive team member with
a reserved parking place near the entrance for one month
1061. (C) They are all equal unless otherwise stated in the charter
1062. (B) All of the answers

1063. (C) The contract Administrator for the company

1064. (A) Purchase order because it is a general purchase vehicle for commodity
purchases
1065. (A) A mechanism that insures that there is no impropriety or unreasonable
pricing
1066. (A) Request for comments (RFC)
1067. (C) Culture differences
1068. (D) Tell the vendor that the scope of the project has been fulfilled, the
project is closed and you are no longer available
1069. (D) Meet with the team and brainstorm how to create a workaround for
this problem
1070. (B) Report status accurately and timely
1071. (A) The pareto diagram provides a cumulative history of issues prioritized
by frequency
1072. (B) Population testing, because of the number of parts in the scanning
system
1073. (D) Sample testing, because the cost of population testing is prohibitive
1074. (D) Greater than seven
1075. (B) To analyze the project environment
1076. (C) Addressing pure risk
1077. (D) A possible positive or negative event
1078. (A) Bill of materials, a listing of the components, assemblies, and subassemblies used to build the product
1079. (B) It is used for estimating activities, cost, and resources
1080. (C) Meet with the team to determine the impact such a change will have
on the project
1081. (C) Stakeholder registers which contains a list of stakeholders and their
needs
1082. (C) A greater emphasis on successful integration of the various pieces of
the project
1083. (C) Performance reports and project management plan
1084. (D) The project functionality required by the primary customer

1085. (C) Unofficial, informal, internal, vertical communication

1086. (B) 0.84
1087. (A) $1277.5
1088. (D) Schedule performance index (SPI)
1089. (C) Estimate to complete
1090. (D) Fixed formula progress reporting
1091. (D) Business unit competency
1092. (A) Clearly defined goals and objectives for the PMO
1093. (A) A structure that can have characteristics of matrix, projectized, and
functional structures
1094. (D) Project manager
1095. (D) The process of putting personnel closer together to improve teambuilding and project communication
1096. (C) defines the scope statement
1097. (B) Bill of materials, a listing of the components, assemblies, and subassemblies used to build the product
1098. (D) Communication breakdown structure
1099. (A) Breaking down work where the bottom levels of the WBS represent
work packages
1100. (D) Earned value management (EVM)
1101. (A) Company-wide software licensing fees
1102. (D) Chart of accounts
1103. (B) The facilitator is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely
manner
1104. (A) Conflict will likely occur as team members become familiar with each
other
1105. (B) The project manager requires each team leader to deliver a 5-10
minute presentation to complement the discussion topic for the weekly project
meetings
1106. (B) Acquire project team
1107. (D) A risk trigger is an indicator that a risk event could occur

1108. (D) Risk register, budget, various management plans, schedule, and
change management plan
1109. (B) It is used to model events which must to take place within an interval
that has a minimum and maximum value
1110. (A) Closing the project or phase
1111. (A) A greater emphasis on successful integration of the various pieces of
the project
1112. (B) Closing the project or phase
1113. (D) Constraints that impact the project
1114. (A) Direct and manage project execution
1115. (D) It takes a great amount of time to create
1116.(C)The critical path is the longest path on the project network diagram
1117. (B) One day
1118. (D) the order in which the project activities will occur
1119. (A) Plus two weeks
1120. (B) Decreased warranty support
1121. (D) B and C
1122. (D) Total Quality management
1123. (D) clearly defined standards of acceptable completion criteria
1124. (C) Information related to recent project occurrences
1125. (D) Medium, specifically the technique that dictates the format of a
message
1126. (B) Contact the vendor and discuss this problem
1127. (A) the software package should be outsourced because the company
doesnt have excessive capacity for the work
1128. (B) Lack of career path for contract administrators
1129. (B) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendors standard of productivity is
aligned to that of the buyer
1130. (A) the seller establishes a price, and the buyer simply has to purchase the
item
1131. (A) Inform PMI of this possible violation

1132. (C) The signer agrees to limit discussions of the project to designated
personnel
1133. (A) Conflicting goals of the sponsors
1134. (B) The project manager and the project management team
1135. (D) to help ensure that work is done in the appropriate sequence
1136. (D) they are all equal unless otherwise stated in the charter
1137. (D) plus three weeks
1138. (C) The need for concrete to cure an additional day because of the weather
before painting the parking lines
1139. (D) Late finish-early finish (LF-EF) or late start-early start (LS-ES)
1140. (C) Closing the project or phase
1141. (D) A violation of the seven run rule
1142. (C) Common cause variations should be addressed through long-term
process improvements
1143. (B) The pareto diagram provides a cumulative history of issues prioritized
by frequency
1144. (A) A proactive to eliminate defects and potential defects from the process
1145. (C) Ideally, zero with supplies obtained only when the product is being built
1146. (D) 23 channels
1147. (B) 45 channels
1148. (B) Approved corrective actions, resolved issues, and approved change
requests
1149. (C) Opportunity for vendors to inquire about the bids of other sellers
1150. (D) Close procurements comes before close project or phase
1151. (B) Firm fixed-price and cost-plus percentage of cost
1152. (A) Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing
1153. (A) Functional management
1154. (A) To control unnecessary change
1155. (A) Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing
1156. (C) It has duration of zero (0)

1157. (A) Work packages and activity lists

1158. (C) after each deliverables is completed
1159. (C) The decomposition of the work of the project
1160. (A) Chart of accounts
1161. (D) Sunk cost
1162. (B) 30%/70% rule
1163. (A) Bottom-up estimating
1164. (B) Directing, coaching, facilitation, and support
1165.(A) Team-building activities, co-location, training, ground rules,
interpersonal skills, and recognition and reward
1166. (C) Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices
1167.
1168. D. Risk urgency assessment
1169. D. Earned monetary value (EMV)
1170.
1171. D. Remain on the project, but help another project manager negotiate the
contract
1172. A. Ask for a schedule to see what the timeliness are for each installation
1173. B. Report to senior management this activity
1174. D. Help team member gain knowledge and experience in project
management
1175. A. Meet with the team and brainstorm how to create a workaround for this
problem
1176. D. Functional management
1177. D. Clearly defined goals and objectives for the PMO
1178. D. Project management office
1179. D. Progressive elaboration
1180. B. Controlling unnecessary change
1181.

1182. B. To control change by approval of needed changes and rejection of

unneeded changes to the project
1183. (B) All of the answers
1184. (D) Project management plan and performance reports
1185. (C) To ensure that all servers at distribution centres are less than two years
old
1186. (D) Not enough information
1187. (A) Bill of materials
1188. (D) After the sponsor defines what they want the project to create
1189 (A) Project scope statement updates
1190. (D) The order in which the project activities will occur
1191. (C) BDE, 14 days
1192. (C) It has a greater degree of accuracy because of the details at which it
was created
1193. (A) 32 months
1194. (B) Sending the team to communication training
1195. (B) Schedule performance index (SPI)
1196. (D) The company is gold plating which is not a good practice because it
violates the standard of delivering the exact product, service, or result that is
finalized in the project charter
1197. (B) Zero Defects
1198. (B) At key interface points where the various work packages come
together
1199. (B) Auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are
used
1200. (A) 95.46%
1201. (C) Acquire project team
1202. (B) Directing, coaching, facilitation, and support
1203. (A) Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices
1204. (B) Form, storm, norm, perform, and adjourn

1205. (C) Communications requirements analysis, communication technology,

communication methods, and communication models
1206. (D) information to relate to future project occurrences
1207. (C) Resolved issues, approved change requests, approved corrective
actions
1208. (D) Communication methods, interpersonal skills, and management skills
1209. (C) Approximately 90%
1210. (D) A probability and impact matrix
1211. (D) It can be either a negative or positive event
1212. (B) External, internal, technology, personnel
1213. (B) Fix the problem with a workaround
1214. (D) Capacity, consideration, offer, legal purpose, acceptance
1215. (D) Fixed-price-economic-price-adjust
1216. (A) A mechanism that there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing
1217. (C) Provide senior management with information how moving work to
another country helps their companies
1218. (A) Contact PMI and cooperate with the investigation
1219. (B) Set of procurements, tools and techniques, and methodologies
available for use in managing a project
1220. (D) she will be able to focus on the project without the distraction of
departmental work
1221.(A) The average number of losing lottery tickets in a week
1222. (C) Increasing the rose bouquet production in anticipation of mothers day
demand
1223. (D) Acquire project team
1224. (A) $800,000 US
1225. (B) Compiling lessons learned
1226. (B) Fixed-price-economic-price-adjust
1227. (B) Offering to pay the sellers asking price, and then lowering the price at
signing
1228. (C) The local city authority

1229. (A) Fishbone diagram

1230. (C) Common cause variations should be addressed through long-term
process improvements
1231. (D) Collect requirements, define scope, create WBS, verify scope, and
control scope
1232. (D) Buy-in from the team doing the work
1233.(B) Shows who is to perform work in certain areas of the project
1234. (B) Review with the project manager how this statue was produced
1235. (D) Why is the project being done o what is the business need?
1236. (C) Unofficial, informal, internal, vertical communication
1237. (D) Company-wise software licensing fees
1238. (B) Chart of accounts
1239. (B) Procedures used to document and control product or service
characteristics
1240. (C) Project management plan and performance reports
1241. (C) The system must accommodate the need to send the right information
to the right people in a timely and appropriate manner
1242. (D) Negative five weeks
1243. (B) One day
1244. (D) Define activities and activity list
1245. (C) Analogous
1246. (B) Auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are
used
1247. (D) The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfil requirements
1248. (D) A violation of the seven Run Rule
1249. (D) Conformance or non-conformance
1250. (B) Baseline measurements
1251. (D) Medium, specifically the technique that dictates the format of a
message
1252. (C) The report contains information related to the difference between
planned and actual occurrences

1253. (D) Change requests, organizational process assets updates, and project
management plan updates
1254. (D) The project manager plans to buy from the vendor
1255. (B) Fifteen days
1256. (B) Provides guidance for validating that the work of the contract is
complete
1257. (B) Proposals that use fixed-price
1258. (A) $512,000.00
1259. (B) Project manager
1260. (B) Being away from the group might make career advancement in the
department more difficult
1261. (B) Portfolio management
1262. (A) Controlling unnecessary change
1263. (C) Project management office
1264. (D) Breaking work down to a realistic level (Work packages being the
lowest level)
1265. (C) Quality breakdown structure
1266. (A) At the end of every phase on the project
1267. (C) Breaking down work where the bottom levels of the WBS represents
work packages
1268. (B) Collect, measure, and interpret the information
1269. (A) 32 months
1270. (D) Determine Budget
1271. (A) -50% to +50%
1272. (A) Team-building activities, co-location, training, ground rules,
interpersonal skills, and recognition and reward
1273. (C) Someone who is impacted by the project
1274. (B) Theory X environment
1275. (C) A trigger is an indicator that a risk event will occur
1276. (A) Insurable risk
1277. (A) Fix the problem

1278. (A) Triggers

1279. (B) Telling senior management that you will consider the project once it
has a charter
1280. (A) Order a copy from the company or an authorized reseller
1281. (B) Lessons learned
1282. (A) Business unit competency
1283. (D) Experiencing delays in career advancement as a direct result of
absence from her department
1284. (C) Project management office
1285. (D) Fluctuations of targeted markets
1286. (C) Upon completion of the project, she can return to her department
1287. (A) Discuss with the customer and sponsor the ramifications of having the
WBS not reflect the true work of the project
1288. (A) Discus with the customer and sponsor the ramifications of having the
WBS not reflect the true work of the project
1289. (D) Verify that all key stakeholders have provided their input
1290. (D) Accelerated Depreciation
1291. (C) EAC AC
1292. (C) Estimate costs
1293. (D) The project manager presents the most productive team member with
a reserved parking place near the entrance for one month
1294. (D) Influencing skills, leadership skills, and effective decision making skills
1295. (B) Maslows hierarchy
1296. (A) the project manager has internet access blocked for those who do not
complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality
1297. (D) Resource calendars, project staff assignments, and project
management plan
1298. (D) Addressing pure risk
1299. (D) Risk register, budget, various management plans, schedule, and
change management plan
1300. (B) Project A

1301. (C) The average speed on a street in a day

1302. (C) Resolve resource and other conflicts
1303. (B) The project manager
1304. (D) A project that utilizes all group across a company
1305. (A) Projectized management office
1306. (D) Stakeholder risk tolerance
1307. (B) Project manager
1308. (B) Matrix
1309. (A) Co-location
1310. (A) having a home to go to when the project is complete
1311. (D) Focusing most product development on a specific market segment
1312. (D) 4 GB capacity for a DVD
1313. (D) Operations management
1314. (A) the average speed on a highway in a week
1315. (B) to control unnecessary change
1316. (A) Plan-Do-Check-Act
1317. (D) Increasing output to meet unusually high customer demand
1318. (D) Being away from the group might make career advancement in the
department more difficult
1319. (B) Progressive elaboration
1320. (D) Strategic planning
1321. (A) Identify stakeholders and collect requirements
1322. (C) Project charter, stakeholder register, stakeholder management plan
1323. (A) Controlling unnecessary change
1324. (C) All the answers
1325. (C) The project expeditor has limited or no decision-making ability
1326. (A) Project manager
1327. (C) Project management plan
1328. (D) Project management office

1329. (D) Senior management

1330. (D) The project management life cycle is the project management piece of
the project and the project life cycle is the process of completing the work of the
project
1331. (C) Managing related or similar projects in a coordinated way
1332. (B) Functional management
1333. (D) they are all of equal importance unless stated otherwise
1334. (B) Optimization for a single focus on the project
1335. (D) Business unit competency
1336. (C) To provide subject matter experts or services
1337. (A) Project management office
1338. (D) A project that utilizes all groups across a company
1339. (C) The project expeditor has limited or no decision-making ability
1340. (A) to control resources
1341. (D) Plan-Do-Check-Act
1342. (A) Product life cycle
1343. (D) Co-location
1344. (D) Supports the project and resolves resource and other conflict
1345. (A) Optimization for a single focus on the project
1346. (C) All the answers
1347. (B) The average speed on a street in a day
1348. (C) Information Distribution plan
1349. (D) Corrective Action
1350. (C) They are all of equal importance unless otherwise
1351. (A) having a home to go to when the project is complete
1352. (C) 700MB capacity for a CD-ROM
1353. (B) The sponsor
1354. (B) The charter and project planning
1355. (C) Project management plan

1356. (C) Being away from the group and on a project that might make it more
difficult to get promoted
1357. (B) Control schedule
1358. (D) Project product
1359. (C) Managing of related or similar projects in a coordinated way
1360. (A) Controlling unnecessary change
1361. (C) Strategic planning
1362. (A) Charter
1363. (B) The project manager
1364. (A) to control unnecessary change
1365. (B) Archives
1366. (C) What impact the new project is expected to have on your biggest
project
1367. (A) Budget management plan
1368. (D) Contract Audit
1369. (A) Lessons leaned
1370. (D) Stakeholder management
1371. (C) Close procurements
1372. (D) Change requests
1373. (B) Evaluate the impact to the project and let the customer know the
options and impact of the change
1374. (B) evaluates the impact of the person not being on the project and
communicates to senior management
1375. (A) All the answers
1376. (B) Project management information system (PMIS)
1377. (D) Network diagram
1378. (C) Formal acceptance
1379. (A) A thorough change control system to ensure the project produces the
desired results
1380.(A) Meet with the sponsor and find out what their concerns are

1381. (D) To control Gold plating

1382. (B) The baseline
1383. (C) Closure
1384. (D) It has duration of zero (0)
1385. (C) Direct and manage project execution
1386. (D) Sponsor
1387. (D) To control gold plating
1388. (B) The sponsor pays for the project and could own the work of the project
when it is complete
1389. (B) Project manager and the project management team
1390. (C) A change in the project
1391. (D) To ensure that all servers at distribution centres are less than two
years old
1392. (A) The budget management plan
1393. (A) Direct and manage project execution
1394. (A) A Project that is proposed in response to a legal requirement
1395. (B) He really wants a schedule, not a project, management plan
1396. (D) Approved changes
1397.