GK ToDay 2016 Test 1 PDF

General Knowledge Today
Mock Test -1 Question Paper
General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

Last Updated: January 22, 2016
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2016 Full Length Test Series: Test-1
1. The "Indirasagar Polavaram" on river Godavari has been conceived as a part of recommendations
of Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal (GWDT). In this context, consider the following states:
1. Maharashtra
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Telangana
4. Madhya Pradesh
Which of the above share basins of both Godawari and Krishna Rivers?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3
[D] Only 1, 2, 3 & 4
2. Consider the following statements with respect to interstate water disputes in India:
1. The disputes neither fall under the Supreme Courts nor any other courts jurisdiction
2. The disputes can only be adjudicated by temporary and ad hoc interstate water dispute
tribunals
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
3. The Nai Manzil Scheme:
1. provides youth from minority communities skills needed for different tasks
2. is funded by World Bank
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
4. Recently, Pakistani singer Adnan Sami has been granted Indian citizenship under Indian
Citizenship Act, 1955. With this reference, consider the following statements:
1. The power to grant citizenship lies with the Prime Minister's Office (PMO).
2. The Indian constitution does allow dual citizenship in some exceptional cases.

[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
5. Recently, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), issued new norms for Real Estate
Investment Trusts (REITs), allowing the public issue of maximum 75 per cent to Qualified
Institutional Buyers (QIBs) and at least 25 per cent to other investors. Who among the following
may fall in the category of Qualified Institutional Buyer?
1. Pension Funds
2. Mutual Funds
3. Individuals with certain networth
4. Scheduled Commercial Banks
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3
[B] Only 1, 2 & 4
[C] Only 2, 3 & 4

[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
6. The "Smokeless Panchayat" concept, which was recently making news:

1. is an initiative by the Ministry of Environment
2. envisages to make LPG connection available across rural India
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
7. Since 2011, the Rupee has depreciated 33% against the US Dollar, moving from a rate of Rs. 44.70
per US dollar at the end of December 2010 to Rs.66.80 per US dollar in December 2015.Which of the
following may increase because of this depreciation?
1. Current Account Deficit
2. Inflation in India
3. Inward Remittance
Select the correct option from codes given below:

[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
8. In recent times, India has been one of the most favourite equity market for the foreign
institutional investors (FII). A Foreign Institutional Investor is allowed to invest in India in__:
1. Primary Markets
2. Secondary Markets
3. Treasury Bills
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
9. Consider the following statements with respect to the Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPI):
1. FPI involves the purchase of stocks, bonds, commodities or money market instruments
2. FPI does not provide the investor with direct ownership of financial assets
Which of the above is / are correct statements?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
10. Recently, the term Swiss Challenge was making news. What is Swiss Challenge?
[A] It is a model of auctioning infrastructure projects.
[B] It is a method proposed by IPCC for mitigation of climate change
[C] It is a new economic theory which focuses at product innovation and reduction in cost of
production.
[D] It is a disease outbreak due to sap-sucking insects damaging cotton crops in India.
11. "Kurdistan also called "Homeland of the Kurds" was recently making in news due to various
conflicts. Parts of which of the following countries comprise to form Kurdistan?
1. Iran
2. Iraq
3. Syria

4. Turkey
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3
[B] Only 2, 3 & 4
[C] Only 1, 2 & 4

[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
12. Government of India has declared year 2016 as__:

[A] Year of LPG Consumers
[B] Year of Financial Inclusion
[C] Year of Pulses
[D] Year of Soils
13. Consider the following:

1. Project ASMAN
2. Project Mausam
3. Project Meghraj
Which of the above include E-governance through cloud computing?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
14. In India, sugar is refined using the double sulphitation method, which refers to the practice of
adding Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) or derivatives in manufacturing of sugar. Why is Sulphur Dioxide
added in sugar manufacturing?
[A] to convert acidic character of sugarcane juice to basic in nature
[B] to convert basic character of sugar cane juice to acidic in nature
[C] as a bleaching agent and for purification of sugarcane juice giving white color to sugar
[D] to reduce the foul odour generated during manufacturing of sugar in industries
15. Recently, the term "resource curse" was frequently making in news. What does the term
"resource course" signify?
[A] It is a paradox that countries with large natural resources lack economic growth
[B] It is a situation when countries have large natural resource reserves, but very short term market
[C] It is a situation when a country has large natural resources, but lack in technologies to explore
them

[D] It is a phenomenon due to which large export from resource rich country increases the value of
its currency and hurt the market competition in non resource sector.
16. Recently, the term "Nairobi Package" was frequently making news. With which of the following
is this "Nairobi Package" related to__?
[A] United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
[B] World Trade Organisation
[C] United Nations Environment Programme

[D] African Union
17. As per estimates of GDP deflators in 2015, it was reported that India is experiencing disinflation
and not deflation. With this reference, consider the following statements:
1. Disinflation implies negative inflation.
2. Deflation leads to problem of increased unemployment.
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
18. Consider the following security forces:

1. National Security Guard (NSG)
2. Border Security Force (BSF)
3. Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
Which of the above is/are under the authority of Ministry of Home Affairs (India)?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
19. Consider the following statements with respect to the proposed "Nuclear Liability Fund":
1. The source of money for this fund will be collected from nuclear operators
2. Fund money will be credited to the Contingency Fund of India.
3. Centre will require parliaments approval before making payment out of fund.
[A] Only 1 & 2

[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
20. Consider the following statements with respect to "Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme":
1. The scheme is open only for girls below 10 year of age.
2. A parent can open an account for a maximum of two daughters.
3. The account gets matured when the girl turns 18
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
21. Recently, the term Snowflake Coral was making in news. What is snowflake coral?
[A] It is a species of coral made of calcium carbonate skeleton and have a symbiotic
relationship with plant

[B] It is an invasive species posing threat to the marine ecology of the south western region in India
[C] It is a coral species found only in the Great Barrier Reef Marine Park
[D] It is an only surviving coral species in the Arctic Ocean
22. The Indo-Burmese Arc (IBA) is famous as__:
[A] part of drug trade corridor called Golden Triangle
[B] active subduction zone leading to frequent earthquakes

[C] diverse varieties of endemic plants and animals
[D] single largest contiguous tea growing region in the world
23. The Field Medal is often described as the "Nobel Prize of Mathematics". How is it different from
Nobel Prize?
1. While Nobel Prize is given annually, Field Medal is given once in four years.
2. While Nobel Prize can be awarded posthumously, Field Medal cannot be awarded
posthumously.
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2

24. Consider the following differences between hydrogen bomb and nuclear bomb:
1. While hydrogen bomb uses fusion in a chain reaction, nuclear bomb are based on nuclear
fission.
2. Hydrogen bomb is more powerful than nuclear bomb.
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
25. The current El-Nino year of 2015, has been often termed as "double El Nino" by many scientists.
Which of the following best defines "double El-Nino"?
[A] Two consecutive years of the concentration of warm water in the Pacific Ocean.
[B] Combination of El-Nino with Indian Ocean Dipole to give multiple impacts.
[C] El-Nino in combination with poor local weather.
[D] El-Nino year not immediately followed by La-Nina year.
26. At the time its enactment, the constitution of India provided__:

1. A permanent code of nationality law
2. Fundamental rights and duties of the citizens of India
3. Provisions related to various administrative Tribunals
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 2
[D] None of them
27. What was / were the objectives of the provisions of single citizenship in India?
1. To provide federal features to Constitution of India
2. To facilitate the freedom of trade and commerce through out the territory of India
3. To preserve the unity and integrity of India
4. To respond to the complications created by partition of India
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3
[B] Only 2, 3 & 4
[C] Only 2 & 3

[D] Only 2
28. With reference to India being a Union of States, consider the following statements:
1. Each state of Union of India is guaranteed a territorial integrity by the union
2. The name of each state and union territory is mentioned in the constitution itself
3. The union of India is a result of agreement among its constituent states and union territories
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] None of them
29. According to the Constitution of India, which among the following would amount to an
amendment of the constitution:
1. Creation of new states
2. Alternation of boundary of a state
3. Change in the name of a state
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 3
[D] None of them
30. The structure of the Indian constitution is Federal in form and unitary in spirit. Which among
the following is / are features of federalism in India?
1. Dual judiciary
2. Division of powers between central government and state governments
3. Equality of state representation
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
31. The provisions of constitution of India which were given immediate effect from November 26,
1949 included___:
1. Citizenship

2. Elections
3. Emergency Provisions
4. Provisional Parliament
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 1, 2 & 4

[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
32. The members of the Constituent Assembly included the following:

1. Directly elected members
2. Indirectly elected members
3. Nominated members
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2
[C] Only 2 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
33. Which among the following observations with respect to the Constitution of India is / are
correct?
1. The doctrine of popular sovereignty attributes the ultimate sovereignty to Parliament of India
2. There are adequate provisions of direct control by the people via measures such as referendum,
initiative and recall
3. It is directly influenced by Universal Declaration of Human Rights
[A] Only 1 & 3
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
34. Secularism is one of the fundamental tenets of Indian Constitution. With this reference, consider
the following observations:
1. The constituent assembly adopted a preamble with express declaration of India being a secular
state
2. In India, the parties with religious affiliations are banned from contesting elections

3. The constitution guarantees both individual and collective freedom of religion
Which among the above observations is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] Only 3
35. The Preamble of the constitution of India sets out__:

1. Assurance of dignity of an individual
2. Ideals that the state should follow
3. Legal framework to Indian Law
4. Equality of Status and Opportunity
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 2 & 4
[C] Only 2, 3 & 4

[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
36. With reference to the Preamble of the constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. It is a part of Constitution
2. It not only confers powers but also imposes duties
3. It can be used for interpretation of provisions of the constitution in cases of ambiguity
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] Only 1 & 3
37. The preamble of the constitution of India sets out ideals to secure and promote__:
1. Liberty of faith & worship
2. Liberty of thought & Expression
3. Equitable distribution of wealth
Choose the correct options from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] 1, 2 & 3

[D] Only 2 & 3
38. In the Constituent Assembly, a motion demanding a new assembly elected on the basis of Adult
Franchise was moved by __?
[A] Alladi Krishnswamy Ayier
[B] Maulana Azad
[C] Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar

[D] Hasarat Mohani
39. Consider the following statements:

1. In United States, a citizen of United States is also a citizen of one of the states
2. In India, while citizenship is a Union list Subject , Domicile is a state list subject
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2

1. Alternation of boundaries of states in India is a statutory legislative activity, while changing the
name of a state amounts to Constitutional Amendment
2. The state legislatures have a say in the alternation of their boundaries
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 2 is correct
[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct
[D] Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
41. Which among the following need legislation or constitution amendment by Parliament of India?
1. Creation of new state
2. Creation of new union territory
3. Cessation of a territory
4. Acquire a new territory
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 2, 3 & 4

[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
42. Which of the following bodies in India is final authority to interpret the laws?
[A] Parliament
[B] Supreme Court
[C] President
[D] None of them
43. The Constitution of India is called the fundamental law of the land because__:
1. The governmental organs owe their origin to constitution
2. Governmental organs discharge their responsibilities within the framework of Constitution
3. The constitution gives attributes of sovereignty to Parliament and legislatures
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
44. The basis of seats allocation in Constituent Assembly of India was / were__:
1. Population
2. Property
3. Area
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
45. With reference to the term Union with respect to India, consider the following statements:
1. India is an indestructible union of destructible states
2. The members of Union are states as well as Union Territories
3. States cannot take direct loan from foreign countries
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3

46. When a body is in Uniform Circular Motion, there is no change in ___:
1. Speed
2. Amplitude
3. Velocity
4. Acceleration
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3

[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
47. Which among the following is / are correct statements with respect to a book that is at rest on
top of a table?
1. No force is acting on the book
2. Book has no inertia
3. Book is in equilibrium
4. The inertia of book and table are equal
[A] Only 2, 3 & 4
[B] Only 1, 3 & 4
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] Only 3
48. During each second of its fall in vacuum, a body in free fall will have the__:
1. Same distance traversed
2. Same average speed
3. Constant Velocity
4. Constant acceleration
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1 & 4
[C] Only 2 & 4

[D] Only 4
49. For any object on the surface of earth, which among the following properties will be directly
proportional to each other?

[A] It's acceleration and it's mass
[B] It's mass and it's weight
[C] It's weight and it's acceleration

[D] It's speed and it's velocity
50. An elephant and a feather are dropped off a very tall building from the same height at the same
time. Which among the following statements is / are correct in this context?
1. The elephant encounters a smaller force of air resistance than the feather and therefore falls faster.
2. The elephant has a greater acceleration of gravity than the feather and therefore falls faster.
3. Both elephant and feather have the same force of gravity, yet the acceleration of gravity is greatest
for the elephant.
4. Both elephant and feather have the same force of gravity, yet the feather experiences a greater air
resistance.
[A] Only 1 & 3 are correct statements
[B] Only 2 & 4 are correct statements
[C] Only 1 is correct statement
[D] None of the 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct statements
51. Which among the following provides potential energy to an object?

[A] Its momentum
[B] It's position
[C] It's acceleration

[D] It's shape
52. A person runs up two flights of stairs instead of walking up. The person feels more tired because
___?
[A] He does more work when he runs in comparison to when he walks
[B] His power output is greater when he runs in comparison to when he walks
[C] His gravitational force is greater when he runs in comparison to when he walks
[D] He has more inertia when he runs in comparison to when he walks
53. Which among the following represent both magnitude and direction?
1. Frequency of house current
2. Mass of a stone
3. Displacement
4. Velocity

[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2, 3 & 4
[C] Only 1, 3 & 4

[D] Only 3 & 4
54. Maximum share in earths mass and volume is shared by ___?

[A] Crust
[B] Mantle
[C] Inner Core
[D] Outer Core
55. In comparison to the Oceanic Crust, the Continental crust __:

1. is thicker
2. has more density
3. has more of quartz
4. called SIMA
Choose the correct option from the codes give below:
[A] 1 & 2
[B] 1, 2 & 3
[C] 1 & 3
[D] 1, 3 & 4
56. What is / are the implications of the liquid outer core on the Earthquake waves?
1.The P waves can not pass through the liquid outer core
2.The S waves can not pass through the liquid outer core
3.The P-waves are deviated
4.The S-waves are deviated
Choose the correct option:
[A] 1 & 2
[B] 2 & 3
[C] 3 & 4
[D] 1 & 4

1. Earths magnetotail extends towards the dayside of the earth
2. The magnetic field lines of earth are almost horizontal on equator

[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
58. The shape of the Earths Magnetosphere is defined by___?

1. Earths internal magnetic field
2. Solar winds
3. Interplanetary magnetic field
4. Rotation of earth
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2
[C] Only 2, 3 & 4

[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
59. Which among the following cause(s) the generation of the Van Allen belts?
1. Refraction of sunlight
2. Charged particles trapped in the earths magnetic field.
3. Reflection of polar snow.
4. Precession of earth
[A] Only 2 & 4
[B] Only 2
[C] Only 1 & 2

[D] 1, 2 & 4
60. What is / are the benefits of the Van Allen Belts to our lives__:
1. They protect the communication satellites
2. They protect life on earth against charged particle radiation
3. They protect life on earth from Electromagnetic radiation
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2
[C] Only 2 & 3

[D] 1 & 3
61. Consider the following general observations:

1. Roughly half of Indias total area is earthquake prone
2. When we travel from north to south, the seismicity roughly decreases
3. Most epicentres are located near eastern and western syntaxes of Himalaya
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
62. With reference to the seismic waves, consider the following statements:
1. The speed of the P waves slows down in liquid phase
2. The speed of S waves increases in liquid phase
3. Love waves are most destructive and devastating
[B] 1 & 3 are correct
[C] 2 & 3 are correct
[D] 1, 2 & 3 are correct

1. While Chile in South America is most prone to Earthquakes, little or no earthquakes occur in
Brazil
2. Brazil is located on the edge of the tectonic plate while Chile is located on the middle of the same
64. The radio reception improves slightly during the night. What could be the possible reason(s) for
this?
1.Sunlight affects radio broadcasts to some extent during the day
2.Magnetic field of the earth acts with reduced intensity during the night, thereby reducing its
impact on broadcasts

[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
65. Consider the following statements with respect to Earths Lithosphere:

1. Lithosphere is a part of Earth Crust only
2. The Oceanic lithosphere is denser than the continental lithosphere
66. With reference to a swinging pendulum, which among the following statements is correct when
it is at bottom (middle of arc)?
[A] It has maximum kinetic energy and minimum potential energy
[B] It has maximum potential energy and minimum kinetic energy
[C] It has zero kinetic energy
[D] It has zero total energy
67. Which among the following earthquakes of India is an example of Induced seismicity?
[A] Kutch Earthquake of 1819
[B] Assam earthquake of 1897
[C] Koyna Earthquake of 1967
[D] Uttarkashi Earthquake Of 1991
68. India has a very high frequency of great earthquakes. What could be the geological reasons /
reasons for this?
1. India is currently penetrating in Asia
2. India is rotating clockwise
3. The molten magma under the earths crust beneath India is under enormous pressure
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
69. Which among the following is are characteristic features of the boundaries of the Indian Plate?
1. Young fold mountains
2. Island arcs
3. Mid-Oceanic Ridges
4. Trenches
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3

[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
70. Which among the following was / were included in the primary economy of the Indus Valley
Civilization?
1. Pastoralism
2. Mixed Farming
3. Exploitation of marine resources
4. Animal husbandry
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 4

[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
71. What was / were the developments in the agriculture by the time of late (mature) harappan
phase of Indus Valley Civilization?
1. The crops got differentiated in the Rabi and Kharif
2. The Harappan people started growing several types of Barley
3. Domestication of rice
[A] Only 2
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 2 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
72. The evidences related to farming tools/ equipments used by the Indus Valley Civilization people

show that they were aware of using__:
1. Plough
2. Rehat
3. Sickles
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
73. Consider the following observations related to Indus Valley Civilization:

1. Cattle were the main domestic animals of the Indus farmers
2. Most common among reared cattle was the unicorn or one horned bovid
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
74. Which among the following animals was / were surely domesticated by Indus Valley People?
1. Humped Zebu Cattle
2. Sheep
3. Goats
4. Dogs
5. Horses
[A] 1, 2 , 3 & 5
[B] 1, 3 & 5
[C] 1, 2, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5

1. Ivory was extensively used by the Harappans
2. The bones of Elephant as well as Camel have been recovered from a number of sites throughout
the Indus region

[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
76. The Indus Valley People commonly used the following metals / alloys?
1. Gold
2. Silver
3. Copper
4. Brass
5. Bronze
6. Iron
[A] 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
[B] 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6
[C] 1, 2, 3 & 5
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
77. Many features of the Indus Valley civilization show its organized nature of the internal
distribution network. Which among the following is / are included in such features?
1. Standardized system of weights and measures
2. Wooden carts drawn by Oxen
3. Pottery making by specialized potters
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
78. Which among the following observations is / are correct with reference to the Indus Valley
Civilization?
1. The principal resource of the Indus realms was its agricultural wealth
2. Items of jewellery, such as bangles and strings of beads, were very important in Indus dress
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2

[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
79. Which among the following statements are correct observations regarding the Indus Valley
Civilization?
1. Harappans enjoyed good trading relations with a number of other cultures on their borders
2. One of the hallmarks of the Indus civilization was the establishment of outposts beyond the main
area of Harappan settlement, designed to control the produce of key regions
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
80. The Indus Valley Civilization has not been deciphered yet. Consider the following reasons:
1. No knowledge about their language
2. Small length of inscriptions
3. Absence of bilingual texts
Which among the above is/ are correct reasons?
[A] Only 1
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1 & 3
81. Consider the following observations with respect to the Harappan settlements:
1. The majority of Harappan settlements were located near water sources
2. Harappans made sinking wells and building reservoirs, where local surface water supplies were
inadequate
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
82. Which among the following is / are common features of the Harappan Urban settlements?
1. Use of bricks of uniform proportions
2. Efficient provision of water and sanitation

3. Use of unbaked bricks for bathrooms, drains, and wells
[A] 1, 2 & 3
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1 & 3
[D] 2 & 4
83. With reference to the architecture of Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following
statements:
1. Stone was generally used for construction of houses in almost all sites of Indus realm
2. There was an extensive use of baked bricks for building houses in Mohenjodaro and Chanhu-daro
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
84. Consider the following statements with respect to the water facility in Indus Valley:
1. While there are lots of sinking wells in Harappa, the number of reservoirs is plenty in Mohen Jodero
2. Dholavira is known for availability of plenty of sinking wells as well as reservoirs
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
85. Which among the following is / are characteristic features of the Indus towns and cities?
1. Presence of substantial space for administrative and religious buildings
2. Presence of readily identifiable elite residences
3. Presence of cemeteries outside all the settlements Choose the correct option from the codes given
below:
[A] Only 1 & 3
[B] Only 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] None of them

86. According to the archaeologists, which among the following sites of Indus Valley Civilization
was probably abandoned because of an earthquake?
[A] Rakhigarhi
[B] Dholavira
[C] Kalibangan
[D] Banawali
87. With reference to the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
1. Sutkagendor was the westernmost Harappan settlement
2. Lothal was a major center of trade and industry
3. Both Sutkagendor and Lothal were coastal / port towns Which among the above statements is /
are correct?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1
[D] 1, 2 & 3
88. Consider the following statements with respect to the Personal Appearance of Indus Valley
people:
1. The women wore bangles, majority of which were handmade of terra-cotta
2. Beads played an important role in dress of Indus Valley People
3. Harappans wore clothes of cotton Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
89. The clues to social organization of the Indus Valley people show that __:
1. There was relatively little or unclear social differentiation
2. The presence of palaces housing the rulers of the Harappan state is doubtful
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
90. Which among the following features are generally present in Indus Valley Civilization?

1. Large-scale state owned storage facilities
2. Military force
3. Palaces and special burials for rich
4. Well-attested overseas trade Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] Only 4
91. With reference to the Harappan seals, which among the following statements is / are correct?
1. Unicorn seals have been found in most Indus towns and cities
2. The seals are engraved with pictures of not only bull, but also elephant, rhino, humpless bull and
the tiger
3. Most harappan seals are devoid of an inscription
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] Only 1 & 3
92. Which among the following is / are the features of the Neolithic Era in India?
1. Earliest cultivation of crops
2. Earliest domestication of the animals
3. First human colonization of the Ganges plains in India Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2
[C] Only 3
[D] None of them
93. Which among the following is / are the hallmark features of Neolithic revolution?
1. A transition from hunting-gathering to food production
2. A transition from plenty of use of copper to Iron
3. Rise of domestication of various types of plants and animals
[A] Only 1

[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] Only 1 & 3
94. Fire akin to water, has played a major role in Indus Valley Culture. From which among the
following sites fire altars were uncovered as ritual installations involving probable religious activity
related to fire?
[A] Surkotda
[B] Kalibangan
[C] Harappa
[D] Rakhigarhi
95. Farm subsidies have been a major issue in recent times in India and elsewhere. Which among the
following is / are implications on the economy of a country which provides farm subsidies to its
farmers?
1. Farm subsidies reduce the cost of agricultural inputs
2. Farm subsidies increase the export competitiveness
3. Farm subsidies bloat the fiscal deficit of the country
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 2
[D] 1, 2 & 3
96. The decentralised procurement scheme of the Government of India has the following objectives:
1. To reduce the Transportation costs
2. To pass on the subsidy burden of the central government to state governments
3. To cover more farmers under the Minimum Support Prices scheme
4. To enable making food grains available as per local tastes
[A] Only 1, 2 & 3
[B] Only 2, 3 & 4
[C] Only 1, 3 & 4

[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
97. Which among the following practices of farmers can reduce the water consumption in
agriculture?

1.Drip and sprinkle irrigation
2.Mixed cropping pattern
3.Extensive Farming
[A] Only 1
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1 & 3
98. With reference to the agricultural production and productivity, the Western States such as
Punjab, Haryana and Western UP contribute more in the central pool in comparison to Eastern
States. Consider the following statements is this regard:
1. The higher contribution by western states is mainly because of better access to irrigation
2. The irrigation in western states is predominantly via groundwater sources
3. The eastern states are more vulnerable to natural calamities such as floods, cyclones, drought
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 2 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3
99. With reference to recent trends in fish production in India, which among the following is / are
correct?
1. Inland fish production > Marine fish production
2. Growth in Inland fish production > Growth in marine fish production
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
100. Consider the following observations with respect to Indian agriculture:

1. Disguised unemployment is one of the major reasons of low productivity in India
2. Most parts of India have subsistence Agriculture
3. Only one third of total cropped area is irrigated in India
Which among the above observations is / are correct?

[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3

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General Studies Prelims Mock Test Series 2016

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[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

[C] Only 2, 3 & 4

6. The "Smokeless Panchayat" concept, which was recently making news:

[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

Mock Test -1 Question Paper

[C] Only 1 & 3

[C] Only 1 & 3

[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

Mock Test -1 Question Paper

[C] Only 1, 2 & 4

12. Government of India has declared year 2016 as__:

13. Consider the following:

[B] to convert basic character of sugar cane juice to acidic in nature

Mock Test -1 Question Paper

[C] United Nations Environment Programme

[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

18. Consider the following security forces:

[C] Only 1 & 3

Mock Test -1 Question Paper

[C] Only 1 & 3

[C] Only 1 & 3

relationship with plant

[B] active subduction zone leading to frequent earthquakes

[D] single largest contiguous tea growing region in the world

[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

Mock Test -1 Question Paper

[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

[D] El-Nino year not immediately followed by La-Nina year.

26. At the time its enactment, the constitution of India provided__:

[D] None of them

Mock Test -1 Question Paper

[C] Only 2 & 3

[D] None of them

[D] None of them

Mock Test -1 Question Paper

[C] Only 1, 2 & 4

32. The members of the Constituent Assembly included the following:

[C] Only 2 & 3

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35. The Preamble of the constitution of India sets out__:

[C] Only 2, 3 & 4

[D] Only 1 & 3

Mock Test -1 Question Paper

[C] Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar

39. Consider the following statements:

[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

40. Consider the following statements:

[C] Both 1 & 2 are correct

[D] Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

[C] Only 2, 3 & 4

Mock Test -1 Question Paper