G.K.

Sectional Test
Passage 1
An Inter-Ministerial delegation from India led by Department of
Commerce participated in the second Indo-Pacific Economic
Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) negotiating round in Bali, Indonesia
from March 13-19, 2023.
Negotiators from 13 other countries, including, the United States,
Australia, Brunei Darussalam, India, Indonesia, Japan, the Republic of
Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and
Vietnam also participated in the Bali negotiating round.
During the Bali Round, discussions covered all the four pillars of the
IPEF: Trade (Pillar I); Supply Chains (Pillar II); Clean Economy (Pillar
III); and Fair Economy (Taxation & Anticorruption) - (Pillar IV). India
participated in the discussions related to Pillars II to IV.
Building on the discussions that took place during the previous rounds:
First IPEF Round held in Brisbane, Australia, in December 10-15,
2022, and the Special negotiating round held in New Delhi, India from
February 8-11, 2023, in Bali, IPEF Partners undertook in-depth text-
based discussions and conducted follow-up conversations as they work
to advance a shared vision for an open, connected, prosperous and
resilient Indo-Pacific region.

Q1. With reference to the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework,

consider the following statements:
1. India was the only one of the 14 IPEF countries, which include
South East Asian countries, Australia, New Zealand, South Korea and
Japan, not to join the declaration on trade.
2. Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) is an
economic initiative launched by United States President Joe Biden.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
 G.K. Sectional Test

Q2. India and _____________ led by the US have joined the Indo-
Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF).
a. 22 countries
b. 12 countries
c. 32 countries
d. 102 countries

Q3. Which country launched the ‘Indo-Pacific Economic Framework

for Prosperity (IPEF)’?
a. China
b. USA
c. India
d. South Korea

Q4. The countries being referred to in Q1 together account for

_________ of world GDP.
a. 29 percent
b. 40 percent
c. 61 percent
d. 70 percent

Q5. With reference to the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for

Prosperity (IPEF), consider the following statements:
1. It is an economic initiative launched by United States President Joe
Biden.
2. India is not a member of this initiative.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
 G.K. Sectional Test
Passage 2
The Federal Reserve on Wednesday raised interest rates by a quarter of
a percentage point, but indicated it was on the verge of pausing further
increases in borrowing costs amid recent turmoil in financial markets
spurred by the collapse of two US banks.

Q1. Monetary policy refers to what the Federal Reserve does to

influence the amount of __________ and __________ in the U.S.
economy.
a. Currency and gold reserves
b. Money and credit
c. Taxes and revenue
d. Interest and debt

Q2. Established in 1668, the oldest central bank in the world was :-
a. The Sveriges Riksbank
b. The Federal Reserve.
c. Berenberg Bank.
d. Monte dei Paschi di Siena.

Q3. Consider the following statements:

1. A"hard landing" refers to a rapid and severe economic downturn
caused by a sharp and sudden increase in interest rates or some other
policy measure.
2. A"soft landing" refers to a slower and more gradual economic
slowdown or recession.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
 G.K. Sectional Test

Q4. Why has there been much cross-border restructuring in the

financial sector?
a. Banks preferred to move into other countries rather than diversify
their product range.
b. Financial institutions wanted to move to countries that were more
tightly regulated.
c. Financial institutions wanted to take advantage of expanding
markets in South East Asia.
d. Western financial institutions were becoming increasingly
concerned about the threat of increased competition from Japanese
banks.

Q5. Effective regulation of financial institutions is required at

international level because that would:
a. Help avoid a credit crunch that would make it difficult for
businesses and consumers to borrow from the banks.
b. Help ensure the stability of the global financial system.
c. Regulate banks in their domestic and their foreign operations.
d. All of the above

Passage 3
IIT Bombay’s Mathematics programme at 92nd place, JNU’s sociology
at 68th place are some of the courses that featured in the QS World
University Rankings 2023 by subject. Apart from these 10 entries from
BITS Pilani and two from OP Jindal university also made it to top 100.

Q1. As per the QS World University Rankings 2023, which is the

most represented country in Asia?
a. India
b. China
c. Singapore
d. Malaysia
 G.K. Sectional Test
Q2. “Leading global higher education analysts QS (Quacquarelli
Symonds) is the only international ranking to have received the
approval of International Ranking Expert Group (IREG).” QS uses
__________ indicators to compile the ranking.
a. seven
b. four
c. six
d. eight

Q3. India is the _______________ improved nation in Asia with its

overall performance improving by 17.2% year on year.
a. most
b. second-most
c. third-most
d. fourth-most

Q4. Which of the following is India’s best-ranked institution as per

the World University Rankings 2022, released by the Times Higher
Education?
a. IIT Delhi
b. IISc Bangalore
c. IIT Kanpur
d. IIT Bombay

Q5. As per the 12th QS World University Rankings by Subject 2022,

which of the following IITs has been named as one of the top
universities of the world for the study of several subjects in the
domain of engineering?
a. IIT Kanpur
b. IIT Roorkee
c. IIT Bombay
d. IIT Kharagpur

Passage 4
Developed countries benefit the most from green technologies such as
artificial intelligence, Internet of Things and electric vehicles and this
 G.K. Sectional Test
can deepen global economic inequality, warned the [1].
Developing countries may miss out on the economic opportunities
resulting from green technologies if governments and international
bodies do not take decisive action, the UN body said in the Technology
and Innovation Report 2023 published March 16, 2023.
Green technologies can create a market worth $9.5 trillion (about three
times the current size of the Indian economy) by 2030, up from $1.5
trillion in 2020, [1] estimated.
The researchers analysed 17 key frontier technologies. These include
artificial intelligence, Internet of Things, big data, blockchain, 5G, 3D
printing, robotics, drone technology, solar photovoltaic, concentrated
solar power, biofuels, biogas and biomass, wind energy, green
hydrogen, electric vehicles, nanotechnology and gene editing.
These technologies are used to produce goods and deliver services with
smaller carbon footprints.
The total exports of green technologies from developed countries
jumped to more than $156 billion in 2021 from about $60 billion in
2018, the report found.

Q1. Which institution released the ‘Technology and Innovation

Report 2023’?
a. UNICEF
b. UNESCO
c. UNCTAD
d. World Economic Forum

Q2. The headquarter of [3] is located in __________________.

a. Netherlands
b. Geneva
c. London
d. Tokyo
 G.K. Sectional Test
Q3. With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development
Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q4. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility, which of the

following statements is/are correct?
a. It serves as a financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological
Diversity and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
Change.
b. It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at the
global level.
c. It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology
and funds to underdeveloped countries with the specific aim to protect
their environment.
d. Both (a) and (b)

Q5. What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?

a. It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development.
b. It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
c. It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel on Climate
Change.
d. It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on
Biological Diversity.

Passage 5
Hours after a group of people chanting pro-Khalistan slogans took
down the Indian flag at the High Commission in London, the Indian
government on Sunday summoned the “senior-most” UK diplomat,
Deputy High Commissioner Christina Scott, and lodged a strong
 G.K. Sectional Test
protest, The Indian Express reported. On March 22, cement blocks that
acted as barricades in front of the British High Commission in Delhi
and the British High Commissioner’s residence were removed, in what
was seen as a retaliation for the lack of visible security at the Indian
High Commission in London.
On the same Sunday, a group of pro-Khalistan protesters attacked and
damaged the Indian Consulate in San Francisco, reported PTI. Raising
pro-Khalistan slogans, the protesters broke open the makeshift security
barriers raised by the city police and installed two Khalistani flags
inside the Consulate premises. Two consulate personnel soon removed
these flags, according to PTI.
On the London incident, a statement by the Ministry of External
Affairs said, “An explanation was demanded for the complete absence
of the British security that allowed these elements to enter the High
Commission premises. She (Dy High Commissioner Scott) was
reminded in this regard of the basic obligations of the UK Government
under the[1].”
Q1. Which convention adopted for the protection of ozone layer?
a. Vienna Convention
b. Basel Convention
c. Montreal Protocol
d. Stockholm Convention

Q2. Consider the following statements: Chlorofluorocarbons, known

as ozone-depleting substances, are used
1. in the production of plastic foams
2. in the production of tubeless tyres
3. in cleaning certain electronic components
4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 G.K. Sectional Test
Q3. How many years once the parties in the [1] meet to take a
decision?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

Q4. Which was the first treaty of the UN to receive universal

ratification?
a. Bonn Convention
b. Montreal Protocol
c. Kyoto Protocol
d. Paris Convention

Q5. The formation of ozone holes in the Antarctic region has been a
cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this
hole?
a. Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of
chlorofluorocarbons.
b. Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and
inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.
c. Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of
methane and chlorofluorocarbons.
d. Increased temperature at polar regions due to global warming.

Passage 6
Congress leader Rahul Gandhi has been sent a notice by the Lok Sabha
Housing Committee to vacate his government bungalow in a month.
The eviction order comes three days after his disqualification from
Parliament for being convicted by a Surat court in a defamation case.
Rahul Gandhi has been staying at 12, Tughlaq Lane, since 2014.
The former Congress president also faced the ire of party ally Shiv Sena
for his caustic remarks on Savarkar. Thackeray has decided to boycott
the meeting of like-minded parties called by Congress chief
Mallikarjun Kharge in the evening.
 G.K. Sectional Test
In his first press conference after the disqualification, Rahul had said,
“My name is not Savarkar, it is Gandhi and a Gandhi never offers an
apology”. This was in response to a question on whether he will
apologise for his “Modi surname” remark in 2019, for which he was
convicted of defamation in a Surat court last week, and sentenced to
two years in prison. the BJP on Monday fielded senior ministers and
party leaders to launch a strong counterattack.

Q1. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the

following statements:
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any
political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the
presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Name the Congress leader who is known for his/her extraordinary
oratory skills.
a. Rahul Gandhi
b. Jyotiraditya Scindia
c. Sonia Gandhi
d. Shashi Tharoor

Q3. A motion of no confidence against the Government can be

introduced in:
a. Rajya Sabha
b. Lok Sabha
c. Both a & b
d. Neither a nor b
 G.K. Sectional Test
Q4. Which of the following amendments to the Constitution of India
introduced Anti-defection law?
a. 42nd Amendment
b. 44th Amendment
c. 52nd Amendment
d. 61st Amendment

Q5. Who decides whether the disqualification by anti-defection is to

be done or not?
a. Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker of Lok Sabha
b. Prime Minister
c. President
d. None of the above

Passage 7
The Vice President, Shri Jagdeep Dhankhar has greeted fellow citizens
on the eve of Ugadi, Gudi Padava, Chaitra Sukladi, Cheti Chand,
Navreh and Sajibu Cheiraoba. Following is the text of his message:
“I extend my warm greetings and good wishes to all our citizens on the
auspicious occasion of Ugadi, Gudi Padava, Chaitra Sukladi, Cheti
Chand, Navreh and Sajibu Cheiraoba.
Known by different names in different parts of India, these festivals
mark the beginning of our traditional New Year and usher in the same
with a spirit of joy and togetherness across the country. These festivals,
unique in form but one in essence, are yet another testament to the
richness of our composite culture.
May the new year bring happiness, peace and prosperity to all.

Q1. The Holi festival marks the end of winter and the beginning
of............season.
a. Summer
b. Spring
c. Monsoon
d. Autumn
 G.K. Sectional Test

Q2. Pongal is the harvest festival celebrated at the end of harvest

season. It is the famous festival of which among the following state?
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Punjab
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Bihar

Q3. Which of the Sikh Gurus died at the hands of the Mughals?
a. Guru Arjun dev
b. Guru Tej Bahadur
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)

Q4. Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era

corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian
calendar in a normal year of 365 days?
a. 22nd March (or 21st March)
b. 15th May (or 16th May)
c. 31st March (or 30th March)
d. 21st April (or 20th April)

Q5. Consider the following statements

1. Diwali is known as the Festival of Colours.
2. The day of Diwali is also known for the Chopad Puja

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2