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Solutions To Concepts: Downloaded From Https://ncertbooks - Guru
Solutions To Concepts: Downloaded From Https://ncertbooks - Guru
CHAPTER – 8
1. M = mc + mb = 90kg
u=1.66 m/s v=3.33 m/s
u = 6 km/h = 1.666 m/sec 90kg 90kg
v = 12 km/h = 3.333 m/sec
Increase in K.E. = ½ Mv2 – ½ Mu2
= ½ 90 × (3.333)2 – ½ × 90 × (1.66)2 = 494.5 – 124.6 = 374.8 375 J
2. mb = 2 kg.
u = 10 m/sec
u=10 m/s
a = 3 m/aec2 2 kg a = 3m/s2
t = 5 sec
v = u + at = 10 + 3 I 5 = 25 m/sec.
F.K.E = ½ mv2 = ½ × 2 × 625 = 625 J. R
3. F = 100 N 100 N
F 4m
S = 4m, = 0°
= F.S 100 × 4 = 400 J mg
4. m = 5 kg
= 30° F
10m
S = 10 m 5
5 log
F = mg 30°
mg
So, work done by the force of gravity
= mgh = 5 × 9.8 × 5 = 245 J
5. F= 2.50N, S = 2.5m, m =15g = 0.015kg.
30°
So, w = F × S a =
F
=
2 .5
=
500
m/s2 v
m 0.015 3 A B
=F × S cos 0° (acting along the same line)
= 2.5 × 2.5 = 6.25J
Let the velocity of the body at b = U. Applying work-energy principle ½ mv2 – 0 = 6.25
6.25 2
V= = 28.86 m/sec.
0.015
So, time taken to travel from A to B.
v u 28.86 3
t= =
a 500
W 6.25 500
Average power = = = 36.1
t (28.86) 3
6. Given
r1 2 î 3 ĵ
r2 3 î 2 ĵ
So, displacement vector is given by,
r r1 r2 r (3 î 2 ĵ) (2 î 3 ĵ) î ĵ
8.1
F = mba = 2 × (0.5) = 1 N m g b
= FS = 1 × 40 = 40 J
8. Given that F= a + bx
Where a and b are constants.
So, work done by this force during this force during the displacement x = 0 and x = d is given
by
d d
W = F dx (a bx ) dx = ax + (bx2/2) = [a + ½ bd] d
0 0
9. mb = 250g = .250 kg R R
= 37°, S = 1m.
1m
Frictional force f = R mg
mg sin = R ..(1) 37°
mg cos ..(2)
so, work done against R = RS cos 0° = mg sin S = 0.250 × 9.8 × 0.60 × 1 = 1.5 J
F
10. a = (given) m
2(M m)
M F
a) from fig (1)
ma = k R1 and R1 = mg R1
ma F
= = ma kR1
R1 2(M m)g
F mF
b) Frictional force acting on the smaller block f = R = mg mg
2(M m)g 2(M m)
R2
c) Work done w = fs s=d R1
mF mFd ma f
w= d=
2(M m) 2(M m) R2
8.2
a) t = 1sec
B R
So, s= ut + ½ at2 = 5m R
37°
8.3 5m h
A
C
37° mg sin mg cos
ma
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Chapter 8
Work done by the applied force w = FS cos 0° = 20 × 5 = 100 J
b) BC (h) = 5 sin 37° = 3m
So, work done by the weight W = mgh = 2 × 10 × 3 = 60 J
c) So, frictional force f = mg sin
work done by the frictional forces w = fs cos0° = (mg sin) s = 20 × 0.60 × 5 = 60 J
18. Given, m = 25o g = 0.250kg,
u = 40 cm/sec = 0.4m/sec
= 0.1, v=0
Here, R = ma {where, a = deceleration}
R mg
a= = = g = 0.1 × 9.8 = 0.98 m/sec2
m m
v 2 u2
S= = 0.082m = 8.2 cm
2a
Again, work done against friction is given by
– w = RS cos
= 0.1 × 2.5 × 0.082 × 1 ( = 0°) = 0.02 J
W = – 0.02 J
19. h = 50m, m = 1.8 × 105 kg/hr, P = 100 watt,
P.E. = mgh = 1.8 × 105 × 9.8 × 50 = 882 × 105 J/hr
Because, half the potential energy is converted into electricity,
Electrical energy ½ P.E. = 441 × 105 J/hr
441 10 5
So, power in watt (J/sec) is given by =
3600
441 105
number of 100 W lamps, that can be lit = 122.5 122
3600 100
20. m = 6kg, h = 2m
P.E. at a height ‘2m’ = mgh = 6 × (9.8) × 2 = 117.6 J
P.E. at floor = 0
Loss in P.E. = 117.6 – 0 = 117. 6 J 118 J
21. h = 40m, u = 50 m/sec
Let the speed be ‘v’ when it strikes the ground.
Applying law of conservation of energy
mgh + ½ mu2 = ½ mv2
10 × 40 + (1/2) × 2500 = ½ v2 v2 = 3300 v = 57.4 m/sec 58 m/sec
22. t = 1 min 57.56 sec = 11.56 sec, p= 400 W, s =200 m
w
p= , Work w = pt = 460 × 117.56 J
t
460 117.56
Again, W = FS = = 270.3 N 270 N
200
23. S = 100 m, t = 10.54 sec, m = 50 kg
The motion can be assumed to be uniform because the time taken for acceleration is
minimum.
8.4
From the free body diagram, the force given by the chain is,
F = (ma – mg) = m(a – g) [where a = acceleration of the block]
(v2 u2) 0.16
a= = = 0.04 m/sec2 mg
2s 0 .4
ma
8.5
u=0
Applying change in K.E. = work done (for the system)
1kg
[(1/2)m1v12 + (1/2) m2vm2] –0 = (–R)S + m2g [R = 4g = 40 N]
½ × 4 × (0.36) × ½ ×1 × (0.09) = – × 40 × 2 + 1 × 40 × 1
0.72 + 0.045 = – 80 + 10
9.235
= = 0.12
80
32. Given, m = 100g = 0.1kg, v = 5m/sec, r = 10cm A
Work done by the block = total energy at A – total energy at B
(1/2 mv2 + mgh) – 0 10cm
W = ½ mv2 + mgh – 0 = ½ × (0.1) × 25 + (0.1) × 10 × (0.2) [h = 2r = 0.2m]
B
8.6
So, the particle will hit the ground at a horizontal distance in from B.
37. mg = 10N, = 0.2, H = 1m, u = v = 0
change in P.E. = work done.
Increase in K.E. A
w = mgh = 10 × 1 = 10 J 1m
So, total work done to put ℓ/3 part back on the table
1/ 3
x2 3 mg 2 mg
W=
0
(m / )gx dx w = (m/ℓ) g
2
0
=
18
=
18
0
m x2 M 4L2
Wf = g = = 2Mg L/9
L 2 L 18
2L / 3
A
40. Given, m = 1kg, H = 1m, h = 0.8m
B
Here, work done by friction = change in P.E. [as the body comes to rest]
H=1m
Wf = mgh – mgH h=0.8m
= mg (h – H)
= 1 × 10 (0.8 – 1) = – 2J
41. m = 5kg, x = 10cm = 0.1m, v = 2m/sec,
2
h =? G = 10m/sec
mg 50
S0, k = = = 500 N/m
x 0 .1
Total energy just after the blow E = ½ mv2 + ½ kx2 …(i)
Total energy a a height h = ½ k (h – x)2 + mgh …(ii)
½ mv2 + ½ kx2 = ½ k (h – x)2 + mgh
On, solving we can get, B
H = 0.2 m = 20 cm
h
42. m = 250 g = 0.250 kg, 0.1m
k = 100 N/m, m = 10 cm = 0.1m
2 A m
g = 10 m/sec
Applying law of conservation of energy
1 kx 2 100 (0.1)2
½ kx2 = mgh h =
= = 0.2 m = 20 cm
2 mg 2 0.25 10
R
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Chapter 8
2
0 – 0 = mg sin 37° × 5 – R × 5 – ½ kx
20 × (0.60) × 1 – × 20 × (0.80) × 1 + ½ k (0.2)2 = 0
60 – 80 - 0.02k = 0 80 + 0.02k = 60 …(i)
Similarly, for the upward motion of the body the equation is
0 – 0 = (–mg sin 37°) × 1 – R × 1 + ½ k (0.2)2
–20 × (0.60) × 1 – ×20 × (0.80) × 1 + ½ k (0.2)2 = 0
–12 – 16 + 0.02 K = 0 ..(ii)
Adding equation (i) & equation (ii), we get 96 = 48
= 0.5
Now putting the value of in equation (i) K = 1000N/m
44. Let the velocity of the body at A be v
So, the velocity of the body at B is v/2 x
B v A
Energy at point A = Energy at point B
So, ½ mvA2 = ½ mvB2 + ½ kx2+
v 2 3mv 2
½ kx2 = ½ mvA2 - ½ mvB2 kx2 = m (vA2+ - vB2) kx2 = m v 2 k=
4 3x 2
45. Mass of the body = m
Let the elongation be x x
So, ½ kx2 = mgx x
k
x = 2mg / k
46. The body is displaced x towards right
Let the velocity of the body be v at its mean position
Applying law of conservation of energy
x 2 (k1 k 2 )
2 2 2 2 2 2 k1 k2
½ mv = ½ k1x + ½ k2x mv = x (k1 + k2) v = m m
k1 k 2
v= x
m
47. Let the compression be x
v
According to law of conservation of energy k
½ mv2 = ½ kx2 x2 = mv2 / k x = v (m / k )
b) No. It will be in the opposite direction and magnitude will be less due to loss in spring.
48. m = 100g = 0.1kg, x = 5cm = 0.05m, k = 100N/m
when the body leaves the spring, let the velocity be v
100
½ mv2 = ½ kx2 v = x k / m = 0.05 × = 1.58m/sec
0 .1
For the projectile motion, = 0°, Y = –2
Now, y = (u sin )t – ½ gt2
–2 = (-1/2) × 9.8 × t2 t = 0.63 sec.
So, x = (u cos ) t 1.58 × 0.63 = 1m B
l
l
8.9 v
Am
8.10 mg
mv 32/ l
v2 = u2 – 2g(l + lcos) l
v2 = 3gl – 2gl (1 + cos ) …(1) m u=3 gl
Again,
mv2/l = mg cos mv2/R
v2 = lg cos
From equation (1) and (2), we get T=0
mg
3gl – 2gl – 2gl cos = gl cos
8.11
a) mg cos = mv / l 2 E D B
l
v2 = lg cos …(1)
1.5 m
change in K.E. = work done
1/2 mv2 – 1/2 mu2 = mgh A
x
mv2/(L/2)
D
L P
x=L/2
F
E C
P
m B
TC=0
mg
A
C B
Fig-2
Fig-3
Fig-1
a) When the bob has an initial height less than the peg and then released from rest (figure 1),
let body travels from A to B.
Since, Total energy at A = Total energy at B
(K.E)A = (PE)A = (KE)B + (PE)B
(PE)A = (PE)B [because, (KE)A = (KE)B = 0]
So, the maximum height reached by the bob is equal to initial height.
b) When the pendulum is released with = 90° and x = L/2, (figure 2) the path of the particle
is shown in the figure 2.
At point C, the string will become slack and so the particle will start making projectile
motion. (Refer Q.No. 56)
(1/2)mvc2 – 0 = mg (L/2) (1 – cos )
8.12
dm = (m/ℓ)Rd
a) Gravitational potential energy of ‘dm’ with respect to centre of the sphere R
= (dm)g R cos
= (mg/ℓ) Rcos d
/r
mgR 2
So, Total G.P.E. =
0
cos d [ = (ℓ/R)](angle subtended by the chain at the
centre)……….
mR 2 g mRg
= [sin ] (ℓ/R) = sin (ℓ/R)
b) When the chain is released from rest and slides down through an angle , the K.E. of the
chain is given
K.E. = Change in potential energy.
8.15
mR 2 g
= [ sin (ℓ/R) + sin - sin { +(ℓ/R)}]
mR 2 g
c) Since, K.E. = 1/2 mv2 = [ sin (ℓ/R) + sin - sin { +(ℓ/R)}]
Taking derivative of both sides with respect to ‘t’
dv R 2g d d
× 2v × = [cos × – cos ( +ℓ/R) ]
dt dt dt
d dv R 2g d
(R ) = × [cos – cos ( +(ℓ/R))]
dt dt dt
When the chain starts sliding down, = 0.
dv Rg
So, = [1 – cos (ℓ/R)]
dt
64. Let the sphere move towards left with an acceleration ‘a
Let m = mass of the particle
The particle ‘m’ will also experience the inertia due to acceleration ‘a’ as it is on the sphere. It
will also experience the tangential inertia force (m (dv/dt)) and centrifugal force (mv2/R).
mv /R
2
d
= ma cos R + mg sin mdv/dt
dv dv
m = ma cos + mg sin mv
dt dt dt
ma
d
R
N
dt
mg
d
Because, v = R
dt
vd v = a R cos d + gR sin d
Integrating both sides we get,
v2
a R sin – gR cos + C
2 a
*****
8.16