Professional Documents
Culture Documents
ENGINEER
ACCREDITATION
EXAMINATION
REVIEWER
1
SCHEDULE OF
MINIMUM TEST
REQUIREMENTS
(FREQUENCY)
2
Schedule of Minimum Testing Requirements Governing Items of Work of the
DPWH Specifications for Highways, Bridges and Airports (2004 Edition)
PART C - EARTHWORKS
3
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
For each 500m2 of each layer of compacted fill or fraction thereof:
At least one group of three in – situ density test. The layer shall be
placed not exceeding200 mm in loose measurement or based on
the result of compacted trials.
4
* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing, and compaction of aggregate base course
on a prepared sub-grade.
Tests:
5
D. HYDRATED LIME
For every 100T or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
6
* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course composed of aggregate
Portland cement and water in proper proportion.
Amount of cement to be added:
6 to 10 mass of dry soil aggregate
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
Same as for Item 203
B. PORTLAND CEMENT
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
C. MIX
Same as for Item 204
D. WATER
1 – Q, Quality Test/Project Engineer’s Certificate
E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 – D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 – T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof
7
ITEM 301 – BITUMINOUS PRIME COAT
* This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course.
Quantity:
1 to 2 L/m2
Test: 1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums
8
Quantity:
1.58 to 2.04 L/m2 if using cut – back asphalt or asphalt cement
1.58 to 2.04 L/m2 if using emulsified asphalt
9
D & T (Density & Thickness Test), at least one (1) but not more
than three (3) samples shall be taken
10
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
Using cut – back asphalt -- 4.5 to 7 mass % of total dry aggregate
Using emulsified asphalt – 6 to 10 mass % of total dry aggregate
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI)
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
11
Same as for Item 307
A. AGGREGATES
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
5 to 8 mass percent of total mix
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
12
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic
Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
C. COURSE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
0.77 m2/m3 concrete if using rounded coarse aggregate
0.68 m2/m3 concrete if using angular or crushed coarse
aggregate
Tests:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
D. WATER
Test:
1 – Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
E. JOINT FILLER
1. Poured joint filler
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each type of ingredient for each
shipment
2. Pre – molded joint filler
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each
shipment
F. SPECIAL CURING AGENTS
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each shipment
G. STEEL BARS
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
13
H. CONCRETE
Test:
Flexural Strength Test on concrete beam samples:
1 – Set consisting of 3 beam samples shall represent a 330 m2 of
pavement, 230 mm depth or fraction thereof placed each day
Volume of concrete not more than 75 m3
I. COMPLETED PAVEMENT
Test:
Thickness determination by concrete core drilling on a lot basis
Five (5) holes per km per lane or five (5) holes per 500 m when
two (2) lanes are poured concurrently
14
1 – IR, Inspection Report for each type and shipment of timber
Test:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
15
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic
Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
C. COARSE AGGREGATES
Quantity:
ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED
Class A 0.77 0.68 m2/m3 of concrete
Class B 0.82 0.73 m2/m3 of concrete
Class C 0.70 0.66 m2/m3 of concrete
Class P 0.56 0.65 m2/m3 of concrete
Test:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
D. WATER
Tests:
1 – Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
E. PRE – MOLDED FILLER FOR EXPANSION JOINTS
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each shipment
F. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
G. CONCRETE
Tests:
Compressive Strength Test on concrete cylinder samples, one (1)
set consisting three (3) concrete cylinder samples shall be taken
from each day’s pouring and to represent not more than 75 m3 of
concrete or fraction thereof
16
* This item shall consist of pre-stressed concrete structures and the pre-stressed concrete
portions of composite structures.
A. CONCRETE
Tests:
Same as for Item 405, Class P
B. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
Same as for Item 404
C. WIRE STRAND
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 20T or fraction thereof
17
1 – Q, One 4 – L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof
ITEM 413 – PRE – MOLDED JOINT FILLER FOR CONCRETE PAVING AND
STRUCTURAL CONCRETE
* Preformed sponge rubber and rock expansion joint filler for concrete paving and
structural construction
18
B. CLAY PIPE
Test:
Quality Test for one (1) pipe for every 200 pieces of each size,
with a minimum number of two (2) specimens for Strength,
Absorption and Dimension
19
0.17 m2/m3 of concrete
Test:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test (same as for Item 405)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
C. STONE
Test:
Inspection Report
D. WATER
Test:
1 – Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
ITEM 507 – RUBBLE CONCRETE
* This item shall consist of construction of rubble concrete.
20
ITEM 511 – GABIONS
* This item shall consist of furnishing, forming wire mesh baskets, and placing rocks
installed at the location designated.
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each shipment
21
Same as for Item 404
C. TIMBER
Test:
Same as for Item 410
D. PAINT
Test:
Same as for Item 411
22
ITEM 606 – PAVEMENT MARKINGS
* This item shall consist of placing markings of the finished pavement.
Test:
Same as for Item 411
23
Test:
Same as for Item 405
24
ITEM 709 – PAINTS
Test:
Same as for Item 411
25
TABLES
26
MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS FOR SUBMISSION OF SAMPLES
27
14. Paints 1 sample per 100 cans 1 - 4L can
15. Joint – filler (pre – molded) 1 – 400mm x 400mm
16. Curing compound 1L
17. Concrete cylinder 1 sample per 75 m3 1 set (3 cylinders)
18. Concrete beam 1 sample per 75 m3 or 1
1 set (3 cylinders)
day pouring
19. Concrete core 5 holes for every km/lane
20. Asphalt core 1 core for every 100m
21. Water
500 ml
a. Chemical analysis
500 ml
b. Sediment load analysis
22. Structural steel/sheet 1 sample per 50T Reduced section as prescribed
23. Hydrated lime 1 sample per 100T
28
Deficiency in strength of concrete Percent (%) of
pavement contract price
Percent (%) allowed
Less than 5 100
5 to less than 10 80
10 to less than 15 70
15 to less than 20 60
20 to less than 25 50
25 or more 0
29
Absorption 3
Unit weight 1
Asphalt Physical 4
Paint Physical and chemical 4
LIMITATIONS/VARIATIONS
30
measured by 3-
m straight edge
Permitted
variation from
±0.5% ±0.3% ±0.2% +0.2%
design cross
fall or camber
Permitted
variation from
design
±0.1% ±0.1% ±0.1% +0.1%
longitudinal
grade over 25m
length
California 25% 80% 80% 80%
100%
Bearing Ratio min min min min
DIMESION OF PILES
REMOVAL OF FORMS
SIEVE SIZES
31
NO. 30 0.600mm NO. 4 4.750mm
DETAILS OF WELDS
GRADE 40 GRADE 60
Tension 24 times bar Ø 36 times bar Ø
Compression 20 times bar Ø 24 times bar Ø
32
½” 300 grams
1” 500 grams
2” 1000 grams
REVIEW
QUESTIONS
33
1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural concrete? Answer: concrete
cylinder sample
2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete?
Ans: Slump test
3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test?
Ans: 1.0 m/10,000 kg/size/shipment
4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete?
Ans: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample
5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?
Ans: 3 pcs-60 mm in 1 sht/100 sheets
6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads?
Ans: Reflectorized Paint
7. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to black cementitious material in
which the predominating substance is bitumen?
Ans: asphalt
8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?
Ans: 24 hours
9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat?
Ans: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq.m
10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt?
Ans: 0 to 30 penetration grade
11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test?
Ans: Concrete beam sample
12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)?
Ans: CBR, abrasion, GPCD
13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping (Item 104)?
Ans: 3 grading tests
14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to be used as Item 200 if
finer than the required materials?
Ans: blend Item 200 with coarser materials
15. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201(Aggregate Base Course)?
Ans: maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively
16. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201?
Ans: 80% maximum
17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement?
Ans: Blown Asphalt
18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)?
Ans: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
19. What is the machine used for abrasion test?
Ans: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine
20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201?
Ans: by Field Density Test
21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?
Ans: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit
22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?
Ans: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis
23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m3, with an actual moisture content
of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960 kg/m3?
Ans: 101.23%
24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement?
Ans: 5 holes/km/lane
25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and an oven – dried weight
of 138.2 grams?
Ans: 17.58%
26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
Ans: the soil is clayey
27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is already oven – dried?
Ans: if the sample reaches its constant weight
28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
Ans: 110 ± 5oC
29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?
Ans: because it can affect its weight
34
30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture content?
Ans: hygroscopic moisture content is the moisture content of an air- dried sample while natural
moisture content is the moisture content of the original sample from the field.
31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs. sample represents?
Ans: 2000 bags
32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?
Ans: 2 pcs – 1 m sample
33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily reinforced concrete structure using
a pumpcrete to pump out the fresh concrete mix, what admixture should it be?
Ans: Superplasticizer
34. What is the use of blown asphalt?
Ans: as joint filler and water proofing
35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt?
Ans: Asphalt Cement
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be soaked in water?
Ans: 4 days @ 50 oC
37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement? consistency
Ans: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition
38. Paint is composed of _____
Ans: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads
39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample?
Ans: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip
40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial curing?
Ans: 23o C ± 1.7o C
41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63°F to 85°F are permitted for a period
not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior to test if free moisture is maintained on the surface of the
specimen at all times.
Ans: three (3)
42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing of _____ hours and should
be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4 °F ± 3°F
Ans: Twenty-four (24)
43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?
Ans: high degree of compressibility
44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve?
Ans: No. 40 (0.425 mm)
45. What compaction rammer shall be used if the specs given for Moisture – Density Relation Test (MDR) are
T – 180?
Ans: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop
46. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how many blows/tamps per layer
shall be applied?
Ans: 60 blows/layer
47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the % asphalt by
weight of mix?
Ans: 5.10%
48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?
Ans: Cut-back asphalt
49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the surface at the rate of
approximately _____?
Ans: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2
50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47, what is the acceptable range of
asphalt content?
Ans: 4.7% to 5.5%
51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree of compaction for this kind of
soil?
Ans: 95% degree of compaction
52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/cu.m, how about for concrete Class “B”?
Ans: 8 bags/ cu.m
53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the_____?
Ans: Contractor
54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregates?
Ans: Once the source is identified
35
55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi, what is the minimum compressive
strength for concrete Class “C”?
Ans: 3000 psi
56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixer’s nominal capacity in cu.m as shown on
the manufacturer’s standard plate on the mixer, except that an overload up to _____ percent above the
mixer’s nominal capacity may be permitted provided concrete test data for strength, segregation, and uniform
consistency are satisfactory, and provided that no spillage of concrete takes place.
Answer: Ten (10)
57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from pavement is deficient in
thickness by more than 25 mm?
Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the affected
location
58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?
Answer: hot climate (cold climate – higher penetration grade or soft asphalt)
59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?
Answer: Materials test results/reports
61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____?
Answer: consistency of concrete
62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full day’s operation?
Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples
63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?
Answer: four (4)
64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?
Answer: nine (9)
65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is defective, why?
Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect
66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of the following amount of
water is most likely required for the mix?
Answer: 20 liters
68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel paint are to be used in the
project?
Answer: four (4) pails
69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm compacted depth. How
many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for sieve analysis?
Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis
70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous Prime Coat is to be used in the
project?
Answer: Two (2) samples
71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume of 8,250 cu.m?
Answer: Six (6) compaction tests
36
Answer: Summary of field tests and status of test
73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on how many samples
for each item of work should be tested based on the minimum testing requirements. What program or report
is this?
Answer: Quality Control Program
76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is the alternative way of reducing
sample for testing size?
Answer: apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample
77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have attained the minimum
strength requirements. If such tests are not conducted prior to the specified age the pavement shall not be
operated to traffic until _____ days after the concrete was placed.
Answer: Fourteen (14)
78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many sample has been submitted and tested
and how many samples are to be submitted, in other words the ME must refer to what report so that he/she
may be updated on the balance and on file quality test of the construction materials being used in the project?
Answer: Status of Test
79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without breaking or crumbling up to 1/8”
(3.2 mm).
Answer: Plastic Limit
80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows.
Answer: Liquid Limit
81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with base and tamping rod. After the
test, the height of concrete measured is 178 mm. what is the slump of the concrete?
Answer: 127 mm
82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing the mass percent of wear?
Answer: 30 – 33 rpm
83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: cement = 40 kgs, fine aggregates = 65
kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15 liters. What is your actual batch weights for 1 cu.m Class
“A” concrete?
Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130 liters water
84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed is equal to 21%. If this
material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH specs?
Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum
85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____?
Answer: week
86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction materials be tested:
Answer: before it is incorporated into work
87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose measurement?
Answer: 200 mm loose measurement
88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry?
Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption
89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the quantity represented, kind of
sample, original source, who sampled and who submitted it, the date sampled and date submitted and etc.
What is the common name of that tag for you as Materials Engineer?
Answer: Sample Card
90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers should a 40 cm thick
Aggregate Base Course is placed?
Answer: Three (3)
91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days of a quality test that takes
place. Since not all construction materials can be tested just for a day or even a week so, what is the lead time
should he consider for a quality test of a cement sample?
Answer: One (1) month
92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many days before testing?
Answer: Four (4)
93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its result be used in field
density test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test
37
94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are you going to pursue your
schedule? Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result
95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt mix can be done by what test?
Answer: Extraction Test
96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool
97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?
Answer: glass plate
98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?
Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60 cm interval
99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control measures and also to improve the
stability of the slope.
Answer: Berm
100. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, a soil sample was
taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required for soil was taken, except
Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits, gradation, compaction, relative density
101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be laid at least _____ above the
top of the conduit.
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m
102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 50 kgs.
Answer: Class B
103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of 25 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 20 kgs.
Answer: Class A
104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 80 kgs.
Answer: Class C
105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 1500 kgs.
Answer: Class D
38
114. Significance of plasticity index are, except
Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a binder material, measures
the shearing resistance of soil
115. Properties of concrete are, except
Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking
116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will determine the economical thickness, except
Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.
Answer: Liquidity Index
119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering under girders, beam, frames and arches.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 80%)
120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.
Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all other vertical surfaces.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to ensure that act as a unit to
support the imposed load
Answer: Pile cap
127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced substructures. The important parts of the
structure included are slabs, beams, girders, columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced abutments, retaining
walls, and reinforced footings.
Answer: Class A
128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding and gravity walls, unreinforced
or w/ only a small amount of reinforcement.
Answer: Class B
129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles, cribbing, and for filler in steel grid
floors.
Answer: Class C
130. Class of concrete used in pre – stressed concrete structures and members.
Answer: Class P
133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300
Answer: + 15 mm and – 5 mm
39
134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____
Answer: 3% to 5 %
135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____
Answer: plain bars
136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point Method shall have a flexural strength of _____ when
tested in 14 days.
Answer: 3.80 MPa
137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate sub – base shall spread and
compacted in ____
` Answer: two or more layers
138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____
Answer: 80%
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201.
Answer: ± 10 mm
140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard
Answer: No. 40
141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density is _____
Answer: 1,120 kg/m3
142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete specimens for PCCP which 10% to
less than 15%
Answer: 70%
143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes in
the concreting operation
Answer: Transverse Construction Joint
144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge between contacts with the surface
in Item 310
Answer: 6.0 mm
145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after the completion of the final rolling, the surface will be
treated with bituminous curing seal, how much is the rate of application?
Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2
146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required number of CBR test is _____
Answer: four (4)
147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except
Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density
148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except
Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion of soil, fineness and shape
of grain, Atterberg limits
149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except
Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4
150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material
Answer: Group Index
151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half width per paving day, how many
sets of concrete beam samples shall be required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230
mm
Answer: 353 sets
152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 30%
153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 6%
154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit exceeds
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively
155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is
Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower
156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 90
157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 89
158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer
Answer: 95%
159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment
Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long
40
160. At least how many in – situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m2 of each layer of compacted
fill?
Answer: three (3)
161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200
Answer: 12%
164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 96
167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by
Answer: AASHTO T 193
168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base course
Answer: 100%
169. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be made in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 191
170. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non – available, the use _____
allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog) blended with crushed stones or gravel.
Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)
171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B
Answer: 1 ½ inch
173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of Item 202
Answer: 50%
178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate, lime, water in proper
proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a prepared subgrade/subbase.
Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)
41
180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203
Answer: 50%
181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B
Answer: 2”
183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be added to the soil aggregate?
Answer: 3% to 12%
188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup and passing a small test flame
Answer: flash point
189. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from the surface profile which
may be expressed in terms of International Roughness Index.
Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device
190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the structural properties of existing pavement with unbound
granular properties.
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer
192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine the casting length of the regular
piles?
Answer: Test Pitting
193. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints of a concrete pavement, to
determine the modulus of the existing slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and to determine the
remaining life of existing pavement.
Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer
194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails and other metals embedded in concrete
before cutting or drilling?
Answer: Rebar Locator
195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test of concrete and asphalt pavements as
soon as he concrete has hardened sufficiently or as soon as the asphalt mix has been initially compacted?
Answer: 3 – meter straight edge
196. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming radioactive material which is commonly used in the
compaction control of earth and asphalt road construction and in the measurement of moisture content?
Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge
197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle wheel loadings. The results
of the elastic deformation tests are used to evaluate the structural condition of roads, and to help in the design
of road strengthening measures and road capacity improvement.
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Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials such as rocks and concrete?
This instrument is a non – destructive portable instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x 180 mm x 160 mm
and its main uses includes the determination of concrete strength (either in – situ or pre – cast),also to
determine the presence of voids, cracks and other imperfections.
Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester
200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state.
Answer: LIQUID LIMIT
201. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid to plastic state.
Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT
202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid.
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT
203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs together are called _____
Answer: tie bars
204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15 mm in a 3 – m straight edge. The concrete in the area
represented by these high spots _____
Answer: shall be removed and replaced (but if high spots being noted exceeds 3 mm but not exceeding
12 mm, it shall be ground down only.
207. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the bituminous mixture?
Answer: 2”
208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the Marshall Stability Method for
heavy traffic is ____
Answer: 1800 lbs
209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load resistance that a specimen will
develop at _____
Answer: 60°
210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end for a heavy traffic design under
the Marshall Stability Method?
Answer: 75 blows
211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt?
Answer: 85 – 100
212. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of pozzolan shall be used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P
213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when tested by the midpoint method.
Answer: 4.50 MPa
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Answer: Steel forms of an approved section
215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____
Answer: Within 24 hours
217. The required slump of concrete using slip – form method of paving is _____
Answer: 1 ½ inches
218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of contract price allowed is _____
Answer: 25% or more
219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured?
Answer: 1,000 ln.m
220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln. m
222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from each 330 sq. m of pavement
of fraction thereof placed each day?
Answer: 1 set
223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved?
Answer: 80% of the designed 28 – day compressive strength
224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 – 20 mm Ø reinforcing steel.
Answer: 6d (20 mm – 25 mm Ø = 8d: 28 mm Ø and above = 10d)
227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course preparatory to the construction of a
bituminous surface course.
Answer: Prime Coat
229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job – mix formula for Item 310?
Answer: ± 0.4%
230. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with or without the application of aggregate on
existing bituminous surface?
Answer: Seal Coat
231. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item 310.
Answer: ± 10°C
232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full day’s operation?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm Ø
233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed?
Answer: 107°C
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234. The required speed in rolling in Item 310.
Answer: 5 kph
236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a diameter of at least ______
Answer: 100 mm
237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _____
Answer: ± 1.0 mass %
238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D stones for riprap.
Answer: 800 mm (Class A – 300 mm; Class B – 500 mm; Class C – 600 mm)
239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or cement concrete surface with
bituminous materials preparatory to the construction of bituminous surface course.
Answer: Tack Coat
240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement?
Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2
241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut – back asphalt?
Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2
242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from the testing edge of the
straight edge between any two contacts with the surface?
Answer: 6 mm
244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by AASHTO T 65?
Answer: 70% minimum
245. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.
Answer: ±7
246. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive).
Answer: ±4
247. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve.
Answer: ±2
248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load.
Answer: stability
249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water, temperature and traffic.
Answer: durability
250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage of wheel loads.
Answer: fatigue resistance
251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to gradual settlements and
moments of the base and subgrade.
Answer: flexibility
253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the cohesion of the mix?
Answer: Immersion – Compression Test
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254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used grade of asphalt cement?
Answer: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100
255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion – Compression Test is performed.
Answer: stability
256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability.
Answer: decrease
257. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is used?
Answer: armored thermometer
259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub – base or base course construction?
Answer: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the equipment used and the construction
method.
260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road?
Answer: excessive asphalt content
263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three – edge bearing test machine?
Answer: 0.3 mm crack
264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be continuous without shock at a constant rate
within the range of _____
Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); 125 – 175 psi/second (flexural)
265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is already doubt as to its quality
should:
Answer: be retested prior to use
266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a particular purpose.
Answer: Stabilization
267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test is taken. What will be this
test?
Answer: referee test
268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it allowed in DPWH specs to use
core samples to determine the strength. What is the required compressive strength?
Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days
269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the application of asphalt mix?
Answer: tacky
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273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered ___
Answer: normal
276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the result. True or false?
Answer: true
278. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what alternative should be used?
Answer: oven – dry the sample @ 60°C
279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?
Answer: Method A & B – use sample passing No. 4
Method C & D – use sample passing ¾ inch
280. What is the difference between T – 99 and T – 180 compaction test method?
Answer: T – 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12” drop while T – 180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs) rammer
with an 18” drop.
282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with chemicals?
Answer: distilled water
283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through a height of _____?
Answer: 10 mm
284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit be rotated?
Answer: 2 rps
285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break?
Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8”)
290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under Item 104?
Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3” openings and not more than 15 mass % will pass
0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)
291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201?
47
Answer: 100%
292. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density relation test or compaction
test?
Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum moisture content (OMC)
293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?
Answer: Any clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained No. 200 sieve
296. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption be soaked in water?
Answer: 15 to 19 hours
297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition?
Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test for surface moisture. If the molded shape of fine
aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that it has reached a surface dry condition
299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast – iron spheres used in abrasion test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each weighing between 390 – 455 grams
300. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading A with 12 as
number of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams
302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?
Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)
303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
Answer: 14 days
304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third point?
Answer: R = PL
bd2
305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at center point?
Answer: R = 3PL
2bd2
306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the tamping end rounded to a hemispherical tip of the same
Ø as the rod.
307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are required?
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units)
308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?
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Answer:
Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum
309. What is the strength requirement for non – load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum
314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours
316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many pieces of RCCP?
Answer: 25 pieces
318. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities, weather, etc. are recorded in a
_____
Answer: Materials logbook
319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in – situ test that measures what?
Answer: depth of soil layer
320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is called _____
Answer: segregation
321. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m on each side of the pavement
was designed to have subbase and base courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of
the subbase is 125 mm, the spreading and compaction of the base and subbase courses shall be carried out in
_____?
Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m
322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of loading shall be permitted?
Answer: higher
323. Quality of factory – produced RCCP may be best established through what?
Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples
324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade preparation. If you were the ME
assigned to the project, what is the most effective and cheaper method that you would recommend to
stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the subbase course?
Answer: geotextiles
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325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6” x 6” x 21” beam mold be rodded?
Answer: 63 blows/layer
326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce excessive _______ or
_______.
Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate, displacement of the mixture
327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than ____
Answer: 29ºC
328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?
Answer: 12 sets
329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall be subjected to test?
Answer: 6 pcs RCCP
330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its workability (provided concrete
does not excced specified slump), how many minutes after the initial time of mixing does adding water be
permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water – cement ratio is not exceeded.
331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous mixture?
Answer:
TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products of the distillation of crude oil.
338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit the job – mix formula?
Answer: three (3) weeks
50
d. temperature of mixture upon delivery or time of compaction
341. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed?
Answer: 66ºC to 107ºC
342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density?
Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable
343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the required density?
Answer: trial section
344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great significance in the strength of
the resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature
347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____
Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density
352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing?
Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds
353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is added to the mix until the concrete
is deposited in – place at the site?
Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non – agitating trucks and 90 minutes if hauled in
truck mixers or agitators
355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of a keyway is used?
Answer: longitudinal construction joint
356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding problem?
Answer: deformed steel tie bars
357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw?
Answer: not less than 50 mm
359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of sawing?
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Answer: sawing shall be omitted
361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer device held in a position parallel to the surface and center
line of the slab of pavement?
Answer: dowel
362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with _____
Answer: thin film of bitumen
364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the pavement?
Answer: 1.5 mm
365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of _____
Answer: 72 hours
368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 (bluebook ’95)?
Answer: the placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and fine sand
369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the _____?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of construction materials for use in the
project based on test results?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing sieve?
Answer: No. 200
52
378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is
Answer: 121ºC - 188ºC
386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can be used to estimate shear
strength and bearing capacity
Answer: Standard Penetration Test
391. How many group of three in – situ densities are required if the compacted volume of embankment laid was
estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness of 200 mm/layer?
Answer: fifteen (15)
393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a deformed and plain billet steel bar is
Answer: 0.06%
53
396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is
Answer: air – dried condition
400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast – iron spheres or steel spheres.
Answer:
GRADING A – 12 spheres
GRADING B – 11 spheres
GRADING C – 8 spheres
GRADING D – 6 spheres
401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all ingredients including water is in the drum is
Answer: 100 rpm
402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and finishing when this method is
used (Item 206)
Answer: two (2) hours
403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in excess of _____ until the asphaltic material has
set.
Answer: 40 kph
405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should be followed is
Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed concrete.
406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of your firm, what will you
recommend?
Answer: conduct recoring
407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or doomed up and a load suddenly
appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates
Answer: excessive asphalt
408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?
Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893)
409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order to determine the liquid limit of
the soil.
Answer: Flow curve
411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix that produces a slump of 76.2
mm?
Answer: 24.7 liters
54
412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____
Answer: 2.75
414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting that prevents rapid
evaporation of water from the mix.
Answer: curing compound
415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces which is rapid drying,
resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and possess improved visibility at night.
Answer: reflectorized paint
416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.
Answer: glass beads
418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test.
Answer: Triple spot test
419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating.
Answer: Single spot test
420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint made with varnish as the vehicle.
Answer: Enamel
421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of good drainage and
adequate compaction. The supporting value of a material as subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its
group index, that is a group index of zero indicates
Answer: good subgrade material
422. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on each course of material
to be compacted.
Answer: Control strips
423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its fina position.
Answer: tremie with 250 mm Ø
430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous paving mixture.
Answer: vernier caliper
55
431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of compaction of the asphalt pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated surface dry specimens.
434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
Answer: Distillation
438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%
441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
Answer: seven (7)
442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
Answer: two (2)
446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate particle.
Answer: raveling
447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an alligator’s skin or chicken wire.
Answer: alligator cracking
448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the kind and number of test of each item of
work.
Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements
449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
Answer: 10 mass %
450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
Answer: 12 mass %
452. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated solutions of sodium sulfate or
magnesium sulfate.
Answer: Soundness test
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453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on
Answer: Absolute Design Method
454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than
Answer: 45 minutes
456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement
Answer: Ottawa sand
457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air permeability
Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement in the laboratory.
Answer: Gillmore needle
461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave?
Answer: crumbled
463. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall sue every precaution to obtain samples that will show the
nature and condition of the materials which they represent.
Answer: sampling
464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing aggregations of particles into sizes which will pass
certain sieves.
Answer: disturbed samples
465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory tests of structural properties.
Answer: thin – walled tube sampling
467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited laboratory.
Answer: government
468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any drilling equipment that provides clean hole
before insertion of thin – walled tubes that is, both the natural density and moisture content are preserved as much as
practicable.
Answer: undisturbed samples
469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete.
Answer: retarder
470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength of concrete.
Answer: accelerator
473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate base course?
Answer: 0 – 12%
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474. The rate of application of special curing agent
Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m
475. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river channel.
Answer: sounding
476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be performed?
Answer: Liquid limit test
477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into the surface of timber is
Answer: 20mm
478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating process of timber.
Answer: 10 days
479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ maximum clear opening.
Answer: 2mm
480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury using gravity hammer.
Answer: 2.5m – 3.5 (concrete)
4.5m (timber)
481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and gradation.
Answer: Compaction
482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as engineering materials.
Answer: liquid limit of fines
483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the expected traffic and the modulus of the
cracked and seated pavement section.
Answer: 3” to 5”
484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is ____ or the differential deflection is ____.
Answer: greater than 0.14”, greater than 0.002”
485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and increase the 24 – hour strength by _____.
Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%
486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas that have previously patched by asphalt by _____ with
nominal _____ air pressure.
Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100 psi
487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air on the form moist in concrete during mixing without
significantly altering the setting or the rate of characteristic of concrete.
Answer: air entraining admixtures
488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speed task to make – up for the past or future loss
of time.
Answer: Delivery control
490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the pavement.
Answer: corrugation
493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from the point of deposit by pneumatic means.
Answer: 3 meters
494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase and subgrade.
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Answer: base course
496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures except pavements conforming to the lines, grade
and dimension.
Answer: Structural concrete
498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the roadway structure.
Answer: transom
499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by using split spoon sampler and the depth needed is _____.
Answer: one (1) meter, 30m
504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for 300 VPD traffic.
Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade)
505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for less than 300 VPD traffic.
Answer: 500m (along centerline)
506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new road on swampy or marshy ground.
Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road)
508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area of dam.
Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along centerline
Depth = ½ times base width
512. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area of 180mm x 140mm.
Answer: Flush Surface Reflector
516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite infestation.
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Answer: Cordoning
522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on concrete/steel pile at each stroke.
Answer: 831.48 kg/m
523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of the splice below ground line or seabed.
Answer: 2.5 meters
524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or esteros and other bodies of water.
Answer: dredging
528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building outline has been established on the ground.
Answer: Minor excavation
530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and above.
Answer: Boring test
531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure on the ground.
Answer: 700mm
533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually provided to support a column.
Answer: Spread footing
534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of _____ of the manufactured state.
Answer: ± 3%
535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade indicates that
Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction specs and needs additional compaction
537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least
Answer: 100% modified proctor
538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials are different from the on tested passed. If you
are in doubt, what will you do?
Answer: conduct immediate re – testing for verification
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539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer?
Answer:
a. sampling of material
b. analysis of test result of material
c. scheduling of delivery of materials
d. design of concrete mix
541. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the ff statement is true?
Answer:
a. granular, well graded soil generally have fairly high maximum density at low optimum moisture
content
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil
c. granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at OMC
d. none of the above
542. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of 10% higher than the optimum moisture
content?
Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and compact
543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness
Answer: - 5mm
547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements
except grading. What will you recommend?
Answer: reprocess the materials by blending
549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties?
Answer: organic
550. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition of water as lubricant?
Answer: Moisture – Density relation test
551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is
Answer: No. 10
552. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for AASHTO T – 180 D method in compaction test?
Answer: 0.002124 m3
553. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and which will pass 2.00mm sieve and be
retained on the 0.075mm sieve
Answer: sand
556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a revised laboratory
testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with the latest methods as prescribed under
Answer: ASTM & AASHTO
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557. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have laboratory equipments or apparatus in pre –
bidding qualifications?
Answer: large
560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the specimen
Answer: 25mm
561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel or sand and containing silt – clay materials
Answer: soil aggregates
562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi – rounded with an average dimension between 75mm – 305mm
Answer: boulders
563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them denser and grow straight.
Answer: Pruning
568. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade
material for road construction is classified as
Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method
569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted which showed a lump
Answer: remove and replace the pavement area with irregularity
571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured immediately after final placement especially during the
first seven days?
Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks
575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit or loose sand having high void rather and
usually not high water content
Answer: Weak Subgrade
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Answer: the material shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of the fill by means of bulldozer. This
method is only applicable to fill ≥ 1.2 m in depth. It shall not be placed within 600 mm of the other grade
579. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement?
Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to frustration move also be considered)
582. Mixture of fine – grained aggregates, bituminous binder and water for surface sealing
Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry)
584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass – like reflecting surface that usually becomes
quite sticky
Answer: bleeding
585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by excessive expansion of the slabs during hot weather
Answer: buckling
586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete pavement
Answer: crushing
587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the of the free haul distance
Answer: Overhaul
588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio?
Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water
589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates in Item 204?
Answer: 6 – 10 mass % of the dry soil
596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level?
Answer: 4 – 5 feet
597. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to produce good grading on gravel, sand, silt
and clay?
Answer: Mechanic Stabilization
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598. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of soil or liquid and hydroscope in nature? It
is an aid in the compaction process by slowing the rate of evaporation of moisture from the soil
Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt
600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction aside from asphalt cement?
Answer: It was introduced in order to save heating costs and from convenience in road – mixing or priming
602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to depend on
Answer: cement type, cement content and water content
604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type II
607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type V
608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement?
Answer: Type 1S
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Answer: hydration
621. Calcium Silicate Gel (C–S–H) and lime [Ca(OH)2] are developed when _____ is added to Portland cement
Answer: water
623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with water takes care of the concrete’s
Answer: alkalinity
626. Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on admixture is added because it contains
Answer: chloride
632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be workable, but making it so will only result to
sacrifice in
Answer: strength
633. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if the average strength of the cores is equal to
or at least _____ of the specified strength, fc’ and no single core is less than _____
Answer: 85% of f’c, 75% of f’c
634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for organic impurities
Answer: Colormatic Test
639. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity
Answer: consistency
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642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many equal segments?
Answer: five (5)
643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement occur leading to failure
Answer: bearing capacity
645. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance should be sensitive up to
Answer: 0.1g
646. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time after being removed from the oven, it will placed inside a
Answer: dessicator
647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry ay constant weight/mass
Answer: 4 hours
648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has been removed from the oven within
Answer: 1 hour
649. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe temperature; the drying time depends on the
kind of soil and size of sample. A 25-gram sample of sandy material will be dried in about
Answer: 2 hours
657. A concrete where compression is induced before the application of working load so that tension under these loads is
reduced
Answer: Pre – stressing
658. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus content of steel materials?
Answer: Phospho - molydate
659. What chemical property in the composition of steel material that will cause brittleness or cold shortness when its content
goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10%
Answer: phosphorous
660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed concrete pavement
Answer: 0.60 m
661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do you it?
Answer:
± 10 mm slump = ± 2 kg/m3 from (water)
± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/ m3 of average (water)
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Answer: 8% - 3% (small – bigger aggregates)
664. For a constant water – cement ratio, what will happen if air content is involved?
Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced
665. What will happen if you lower the water – cement ratio and maintaining other values of its ingredients?
Answer: it will acquire strength
667. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch made by mix will be disallowed beyond ____
Answer: 1 ½ hours
668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled before batching starts?
Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or binned for draining
670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged within 1 hour or 250 revolutions of the drum or loader.
Why?
Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete
671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the maximum size of pipe that is negligible in the volume
computation?
Answer: pipes with Ø of 4” or less
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