DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

PP
LAACH

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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1
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

1. An em wave is propagating in a medium with 3. The magnetic potential energy stored in a


certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
oscillating electric field of this em wave is
inductance
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
magnetic field of the em wave will be along (1) 0.138 H (2) 138.88 H
(1) –z direction (2) +z direction (3) 1.389 H (4) 13.89 H

(3) –y direction (4) –x direction Answer ( 4 )

Answer ( 2 ) S o l . Energy stored in inductor
   1 2
U Ll
Sol. E  B  V 2
 1
ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej) 25  10 –3   L  (60  10 –3 )2
2

So, B  Bkˆ 25  2  106  10–3
L
Direction of propagation is along +z direction. 3600
500
2. The refractive index of the material of a 
36
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.
= 13.89 H
One of the two refracting surfaces of the
4. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver
coating. A beam of monochromatic light from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
If the object is displaced through a distance
entering the prism from the other face will
retrace its path (after reflection from the of 20 cm towards the mirror, the
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on displacement of the image will be
the prism is (1) 30 cm away from the mirror
(1) 60° (2) 36 cm away from the mirror
(2) 45° (3) 30 cm towards the mirror
(3) 30° (4) 36 cm towards the mirror
(4) Zero Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 2 ) Sol.
f = 15 cm
S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be
normally incident on silvered face. O 40 cm

30°

M 60°
1 1 1
i 30°  
f v1 u
1 1 1
–  –
15 v1 40
 2
1 1 1
  
Applying Snell's law at M, v1 –15 40
v1 = –24 cm
sin i 2
 When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
sin30 1
mirror.
1 Now,
 sin i  2 
2
u2 = –20
1 1 1 1
sin i  i.e. i = 45°  
2 f v2 u2
2
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

1 1 1 S o l . VBE = 0
 –
–15 v2 20 VCE = 0
1 1 1 Vb = 0
 –
v2 20 15 20 V
v2 = –60 cm
IC RC = 4 k
So, image shifts away from mirror by
= 60 – 24 = 36 cm. RB
Vi Vb
5. In the combination of the following gates the Ib 500 k
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
and B as
A
(20  0)
B IC 
Y 4  103
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
Vi = VBE + IBRB
(1) A  B Vi = 0 + IBRB

(2) A  B  A  B 20 = IB × 500 × 103

20
(3) A  B  A  B IB   40 A
500  103
(4) A  B I 25  103
 C   125
Answer ( 2 ) Ib 40  106
A 7. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
Sol. A AB due to heating
B (1) Affects only reverse resistance
B Y (2) Affects only forward resistance
A
(3) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
AB
B (4) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
p-n junction
Y  (A  B  A  B)
Answer ( 4 )
6. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
will increase, so overall resistance of diode
values of IB, IC and  are given by
will change.
20 V Due to which forward biasing and reversed
biasing both are changed.
RC 4 k
8. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a
C viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
RB
Vi due to viscous force. The rate of production of
500 k B
E heat when the sphere attains its terminal
velocity, is proportional to
(1) r3 (2) r2
(3) r5 (4) r4
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250
Answer ( 3 )
(2) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200 2
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
(3) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125 VT  r 2
Answer ( 4 )
 Power  r 5
3
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

9. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and
normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
sample, is
(1) 104.3 J
11. The power radiated by a black body is P and
it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
If the temperature of the black body is now
changed so that it radiates maximum energy
3
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
4
becomes nP. The value of n is

(2) 208.7 J 3
(1)
(3) 42.2 J 4
(4) 84.5 J 4
(2)
Answer ( 2 ) 3
S o l . Q = U + W 256
(3)
 54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0) 81
 U = 208.7 J 81
(4)
10. Two wires are made of the same material and 256
have the same volume. The first wire has Answer ( 3 )
cross-sectional area A and the second wire S o l . We know,
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of
max T  constant (Wien's law)
the first wire is increased by l on applying a
force F, how much force is needed to stretch
So, max1 T1  max2 T2
the socond wire by the same amount?
(1) 9 F 3 0
 0 T  T
(2) 6 F 4
(3) 4 F 4
 T  T
(4) F 3
4 4
Answer ( 1 ) P  T  4 256
So, 2       
S o l . Wire 1 : P1  T  3 81
F 12. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,
A, 3l
are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E'
Wire 2 : and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in
F
3A, l parallel to the same battery. Then the current
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of
For wire 1,
'n' is
 F 
l    3l …(i) (1) 10 (2) 11
 AY 
(3) 20 (4) 9
For wire 2,
Answer ( 1 )
F l
Y E
3A l Sol. I  ...(i)
nR  R
 F  E
 l   l …(ii) 10 I  ...(ii)
 3AY  R
R
n
From equation (i) & (ii), Dividing (ii) by (i),
 F   F  (n  1)R
l   3l   10 
 l 1 
 AY   3AY   n  1 R
 
 F  9F After solving the equation, n = 10
4
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH
13. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' dimension.
each) which are connected in series. The f = sN
terminals of the battery are short-circuited
and the current I is measured. Which of the f
 s 
graphs shows the correct relationship N
between I and n?
16. A moving block having mass m, collides with
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
I I lighter block comes to rest after collision.
When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
(1) (2) v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
(e) will be
O O
n n (1) 0.5
(2) 0.25
I I (3) 0.8
(4) 0.4
(3) (4)
Answer ( 2 )
O O S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
n n
Answer ( 1 ) momentum,
n  mv  4m  0  4mv  0
Sol. I  
nr r v
v 
So, I is independent of n and I is constant. 4
 I v
Relative velocity of separation 4
e 
Relative velocity of approach v
1
e  0.25
4
O
n 17. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
14. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
marked with rings of different colours for its the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
identification. The colour code sequence will diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
be
(1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
(2) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
h B
(3) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
(4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
Answer ( 2 ) A
S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10% 3
 Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver (1) D (2) D
2
15. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect? 7 5
(3) D (4) D
(1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding 5 4
friction. Answer ( 4 )
(2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
proportional to normal reaction. Sol.
(3) Frictional force opposes the relative
motion. h
B
(4) Coefficient of sliding friction has
dimensions of length.
vL
Answer ( 4 ) A
5
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

As track is frictionless, so total mechanical 20. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
energy will remain constant distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
T.M.EI =T.M.EF directed electric field E. The direction of
electric field is now reversed, keeping its
1
0  mgh  mvL2  0 magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
2 fall from rest in it through the same vertical
vL2 distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in
h
2g comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR (1) Smaller (2) 5 times greater
5gR 5 5 (3) 10 times greater (4) Equal
h  R D
2g 2 4 Answer ( 1 )
18. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin 1 eE 2
Sol. h  t
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each 2 m
have the same mass M and radius R. They all 2hm
spin with the same angular speed  about  t
eE
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would  t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and
satisfy the relation proton.
(1) WC > WB > WA (2) WA > WB > WC ∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
smaller time.
(3) WB > WA > WC (4) WA > WC > WB
21. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
Answer ( 1 ) sufficiently high building and is moving freely
S o l . Work done required to bring them rest to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator.
W = KE The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
1 2 position. The time period of oscillation is
W  I
2 (1) 2 s (2)  s
W  I for same  (3) 2 s (4) 1 s
Answer ( 2 )
2 1
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2 S o l . |a| = 2y
5 2
 20 = 2(5)
2 1   = 2 rad/s
= : :1
5 2 2 2
T  s
= 4 : 5 : 10  2
 WC > WB > WA 22. The electrostatic force between the metal
19. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor
a glass tube. The length of the air column in C having a charge Q and area A, is
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. (1) Independent of the distance between the
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive plates
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm (2) Linearly proportional to the distance
of column length. If the frequency of the between the plates
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in (3) Proportional to the square root of the
air at 27ºC is distance between the plates
(1) 330 m/s (2) 339 m/s (4) Inversely proportional to the distance
between the plates
(3) 350 m/s (4) 300 m/s
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1] Q2
Fplate 
= 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2 2A0
= 339.2 ms–1 F is Independent of the distance between
= 339 m/s plates.
6
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

23. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
 n
V  V0 ˆi (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field N  1

N0  2 

E  –E0 ˆi (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its t
150  1  t 1/2

600  2 
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-
Broglie wavelength at time t is
t
2
0  1  1  t 1/2
(1)
 eE0  2  2
   
1 t
 mV0  t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10
 eE0  = 20 minute
(2) 0  1  t
 mV0  25. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is
(3) 0t threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
(4) 0
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
Answer ( 1 ) incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the
S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
h
0  ...(i)
mV0 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
E0
Answer ( 1 )
F V0
1
S o l . E  W0  mv2
Acceleration of electron 2

eE0 1
a h(20 )  h0  mv12
m 2
Velocity after time ‘t’ 1
h 0  mv12 …(i)
2
 eE0 
V   V0  t
 m  1
h(50 )  h0  mv22
2
h h
So,   
1
mV  eE  4h0  mv22
m  V0  0 t  …(ii)
 m  2
h 0 Divide (i) by (ii),
  …(ii)
 eE0   eE0 
mV0 1  t  1  t 1 v12
mV mV 
 0   0  4 v22
Divide (ii) by (i),
v1 1
0 
 v2 2
 eE0 
1  t 26. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
 mV0 
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
24. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 atom, is
minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1
disintegration of 450 nuclei is (3) 2 : –1 (4) 1 : –2
(1) 20 (2) 10 Answer ( 2 )
(3) 30 (4) 15 S o l . KE = –(total energy)
Answer ( 1 ) So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1

7
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

27. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at Sol. N cos
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
N
by

(1) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ 

ma N sin
(2) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ (pseudo) 

(3) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ

mg a

(4) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
In non-inertial frame,
Answer ( 4 )
N sin  = ma ...(i)
Sol. Y
N cos  = mg ...(ii)

a
F tan  
g
A r  r0
P a = g tan 
r0 29. A toy car with charge q moves on a
r frictionless horizontal plane surface under 
the influence of a uniform
 electric field E .
O X Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
    from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
  (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
that instant the direction of the field is
  ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k) reversed. The car continues to move for two
more seconds under the influence of this field.
 0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ The average velocity and the average speed
ˆi ˆj kˆ of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
 respectively
  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
4 5 6 (1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (2) 1 m/s, 3 m/s

28. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth (3) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s (4) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
Answer ( 2 )
in the figure. The wedge is given an
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The Sol. t = 0 a t=1 –a
t=2
relation between a and  for the block to A –1 B
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0
remain stationary on the wedge is C
t=3 –a
A
–1
m v = –6 ms

60
a Acceleration a   6 ms2
1

C B For t = 0 to t = 1 s,
g 1
(1) a  S1   6(1)2 = 3 m
cosec  2
...(i)
g
(2) a  For t = 1 s to t = 2 s,
sin 
(3) a = g cos  1
S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii)
(4) a = g tan  2
Answer ( 4 ) For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,

8
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

1 S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays

S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii) are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
2
with electric field vector perpendicular to the
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m plane of incidence.
3
Average velocity   1 ms 1
3
Total distance travelled = 9 m i

9
Average speed   3 ms 1
3 
30. A student measured the diameter of a small
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
zero of circular scale division coincides with 32. In Young's double slit experiment the
25 divisions above the reference level. If separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and
the correct diameter of the ball is distance D between the screen and slits is
(1) 0.521 cm 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe
(2) 0.525 cm angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the
(3) 0.053 cm separation between the slits needs to be
changed to
(4) 0.529 cm
(1) 1.8 mm
Answer ( 4 )
(2) 1.9 mm
S o l . Diameter of the ball
(3) 2.1 mm
= MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
(4) 1.7 mm
= 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004) Answer ( 2 )
= 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004

= 0.529 cm S o l . Angular width 
d
31. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a

plane surface of a material of refractive index 0.20  …(i)
''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is 2 mm
found that the reflected and refracted rays are 
0.21  …(ii)
perpendicular to each other. Which of the d
following options is correct for this situation?
0.20 d
(1) Reflected light is polarised with its Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm
electric vector parallel to the plane of
incidence  d = 1.9 mm
33. An astronomical refracting telescope will
(2) Reflected light is polarised with its
have large angular magnification and high
electric vector perpendicular to the plane
angular resolution, when it has an objective
of incidence
lens of
 1
(3) i  sin1   (1) Small focal length and large diameter
 (2) Large focal length and small diameter
 1
(4) i  tan1   (3) Large focal length and large diameter
 (4) Small focal length and small diameter
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 3 )

9
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic

f
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification = 0
fE 3v

4l
So, focal length of objective lens should be
large. For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency

D v
Angular resolution = should be large. 
1.22 2l 
So, objective should have large focal length Given,
(f0) and large diameter D. 3v v

34. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies 4l 2l 
with its temperature (T), as shown in the 4l 2l
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to  l  
32 3
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a
2  20
change from state A to state B, is   13.33 cm
3
36. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
between the freezing point and boiling point of
water, is
(1) 26.8%
(2) 20%
(3) 6.25%
2 2
(1) (2) (4) 12.5%
5 3
Answer ( 1 )
1 2
(3) (4)  T 
3 7 S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,    1 2 
 T1 
Answer ( 1 )
T2 : Sink temperature
S o l . Given process is isobaric
T1 : Source temperature
dQ  n Cp dT
 T 
%   1  2   100
5   T1 
dQ  n  R  dT
2 
 273 
  1   100
dW  P dV = n RdT  373 

 100 
dW nRdT 2    100  26.8%
Required ratio     373 
dQ 5  5
n  R  dT
2  37. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
35. The fundamental frequency in an open organ escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
(Given :
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
pipe is Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
(1) 13.2 cm (1) 2.508 × 104 K
(2) 8 cm (2) 8.360 × 104 K
(3) 12.5 cm (3) 5.016 × 104 K
(4) 16 cm (4) 1.254 × 104 K
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 2 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s 2

V 
S o l . Pav   RMS  R
Say at temperature T it attains Vescape  Z 

3kB T
So,  11200 m/s 1 
2
mO2 
Z  R2   L   56 
 C 
On solving,
2
 
10
T = 8.360 × 104 K  Pav    50  0.79 W

  
2 56 

38. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 40. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth between the poles of an electromagnet. When
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° the current in the electromagnet is switched
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out
slide down by flowing a current through it of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the
when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
acting on it in the vertical direction. The work required to do this comes from
current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary
(1) The current source
is
(2) The magnetic field
(1) 7.14 A
(3) The lattice structure of the material of the
(2) 5.98 A rod
(3) 14.76 A (4) The induced electric field due to the
changing magnetic field
(4) 11.32 A
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Energy of current source will be converted
S o l . For equilibrium, into potential energy of the rod.
°
B 30
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s
co
41. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
llB galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
mg ° 30° llB
30
I tan30 sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
lB n
si applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
g
m 30° galvanometer is
0.5  9.8
  11.32 A
0.25  3 (1) 40 

39. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a (2) 25 

resistor 50  are connected in series across
(3) 250 
a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power
loss in the circuit is (4) 500 

(1) 0.79 W Answer ( 3 )

(2) 0.43 W S o l . Current sensitivity

(3) 2.74 W
NBA
IS 
(4) 1.13 W C

Answer ( 1 ) Voltage sensitivity

11
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

44. The kinetic energies of a planet in an

NBA
VS  elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B
CRG and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
So, resistance of galvanometer at the position of the Sun S as shown in the
IS 51 5000 figure. Then
RG   3
  250 
VS 20  10 20
B
42. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
and the universal gravitational constant were
A C
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the S
following is not correct?

(1) Raindrops will fall faster

(1) KA < KB < KC
(2) Walking on the ground would become
more difficult (2) KA > KB > KC
(3) Time period of a simple pendulum on the (3) KB < KA < KC
Earth would decrease
(4) KB > KA > KC
(4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 )

S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes Sol. B

VC
ten times, then G = 10 G perihelion
A C
S
So, acceleration due to gravity increases. aphelion
VA
i.e. (3) is wrong option.
Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.
43. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
motion a body possesses translational kinetic So, VA > VB > VC
energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio So, KA > KB > KC
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is 45. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
(1) 7 : 10 symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
(2) 5 : 7 Which of the following physical quantities
(3) 10 : 7 would remain constant for the sphere?

(4) 2 : 5 (1) Angular velocity

Answer ( 2 ) (2) Moment of inertia

1 (3) Rotational kinetic energy

S o l . Kt  mv 2
2
(4) Angular momentum
2
1 1 1 1 2  v 
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2   mr 2   Answer ( 4 )
2 2 2 25  r 
S o l . ex = 0
7
 mv2 So,
dL
0
10 dt
i.e. L = constant
Kt 5
So, 
Kt  Kr 7 So angular momentum remains constant.

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

46. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic

acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH
pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product
at STP will be
(1) 1.4
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is
also formed in significant yield.
48. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
nature?

(2) 3.0 (1) MgO (2) BeO

(3) 2.8 (3) BaO (4) CaO

(4) 4.4 Answer ( 2 )

Answer ( 3 ) S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO


Conc.H2 SO4
S o l . HCOOH 
 CO(g)  H2 O(l) Basic character increases.
 1  1
2.3 g or  mol  mol
 20  20 So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given
Conc.H2SO4
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l) oxides are basic.
1 1
mol mol
COOH 20 20 49. The difference between amylose and
 1  amylopectin is
4.5 g or  mol 
 20 
(1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when
1 6 -linkage
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO. (2) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
-linkage
So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO
is (3) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
1  6 -linkage
2
 28  2.8 g (4) Amylose is made up of glucose and
20
galactose
So, the correct option is (3) Answer ( 1 )
47. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
also gives m-nitroaniline because D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
(1) Inspite of substituents nitro group always linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
goes to only m-position. Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
and 1  6 -linkages.
(2) In electrophilic substitution reactions
amino group is meta directive. So option (1) should be the correct option.

(3) In absence of substituents nitro group 50. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
always goes to m-position. which of the following statements is
incorrect?
(4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is
present as anilinium ion. (1) They contain covalent bonds between
various linear polymer chains.
Answer ( 4 )
(2) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
NH2 NH3 monomers.

H (3) Examples are bakelite and melamine.

Sol.
(4) They contain strong covalent bonds in
Anilinium ion their polymer chains.

13
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding

in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence
S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed
boiling point increases and become more
from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
and contain strong covalent bonds between
and alcohols of comparable molecular
various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
masses.
melamine etc. Option (4) is not related to
cross-linking. 53. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
So option (4) should be the correct option.
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
51. In the reaction smell.
– +
OH O Na A and Y are respectively

CHO
+ CHCl3 + NaOH (1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2

The electrophile involved is

(2) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2

(1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  


CH – CH3 and I2
(2) Formyl cation CHO  
 (3)
OH
CH3
(3) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  

(4) CH3 OH and I2
(4) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Option (3) is secondary alcohol which on
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to (Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
the following reaction NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
.–.
CHCl3  OH– 
 CCl3  H2 O 2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O

.–.
 : CCl2  Cl–
CCl3  CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3
Electrophile
OH O
Acetophenone
(A)
52. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of I2
COONa + CHI3
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their Iodoform
NaOH

Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)

(1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding

(2) Formation of carboxylate ion

54. The correct difference between first and
(3) More extensive association of carboxylic second order reactions is that
acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
(4) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding depend on reactant concentrations; the
rate of a second-order reaction does
Answer ( 4 ) depend on reactant concentrations

14
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

(2) The half-life of a first-order reaction does Answer ( 4 )

not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a
1 0
o
second-order reaction does depend on S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V
2
[A]0
1 5
(3) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a  BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V
second-order reaction cannot be BrO3 /HBrO
catalyzed o
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does
o o
depend on reactant concentrations; the Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo
2 BrO3 /HBrO
rate of a second-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations = 1.595 – 1.5
= 0.095 V = + ve
Answer ( 2 )
Hence, option (4) is correct answer.
0.693 57. In which case is number of molecules of
Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k water maximum?
which is independent of initial (1) 18 mL of water
concentration of reactant. (2) 0.18 g of water
(3) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
1
 For second order reaction, t 1/2  , 273 K
k[A0 ]
(4) 10–3 mol of water
which depends on initial concentration of
Answer ( 1 )
reactant.
S o l . (1) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g

55. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic 18

Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
character is 18
(1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2 = NA
(2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
0.18
(3) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2 (2) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18
(4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
= 10–2 NA
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the 0.00224
(3) Moles of water = = 10–4
group metallic character of metals increases 22.4
so ionic character of metal hydride increases. Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
Hence the option (1) should be correct option. (4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
56. Consider the change in oxidation state of 58. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
Bromine corresponding to different emf values an ionic compound. If the ground state
as shown in the diagram below : electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
the simplest formula for this compound is
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V
BrO4 BrO3 HBrO
(1) Mg2X3
– (2) MgX2
Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
(3) Mg2X
Then the species undergoing
(4) Mg3X2
disproportionation is
Answer ( 4 )
(1) BrO3 (2) BrO4
S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration
(3) Br2 (4) HBrO 1s2 2s2 2p3

15
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

So, valency of X will be 3. S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum

Valency of Mg is 2. multiplicity, the correct electronic
configuration of N-atom is
Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
be Mg3X2.
59. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to 1s2 2s2 2p3
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming OR
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
constant with temperature) is
2 2 3
3 1s 2s 2p
(1)
2  Option (3) violates Hund's Rule.
61. Consider the following species :
4 3
(2) CN+, CN–, NO and CN
3 2
Which one of these will have the highest bond
3 3 order?
(3)
4 2 (1) NO (2) CN–
(3) CN+ (4) CN
1
(4) Answer ( 2 )
2
S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z) 2 ,
Answer ( 3 ) (2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
4r 10  5
S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a  BO =  2.5
3 2
CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r = (2py)2,(2pz)2
 ZM  10  4
 N a3  BO = 3
d25C  A  BCC 2
  CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
d900C  ZM 
 N a3  = (2py)2,(2pz)1
 A  FCC
9 4
3 BO =  2.5
2  2 2 r 3 3 2
  
4 4r   4 2  CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
 
 3  = (2py)2
60. Which one is a wrong statement?
8 4
(1) Total orbital angular momentum of BO = 2
2
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero
Hence, option(2) should be the right answer.
(2) An orbital is designated by three quantum
numbers while an electron in an atom is 62. Which of the following statements is not true
designated by four quantum numbers for halogens?
(3) The electronic configuration of N atom is (1) All form monobasic oxyacids
2 2 1 1 1
1s 2s 2p
x 2p
y 2p
z (2) All are oxidizing agents
(3) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
states
(4) The value of m for dz2 is zero
(4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
Answer ( 3 )
enthalpy

16
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

Answer ( 3 ) S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al'

can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the
S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
correct option.
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in 66. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
HOF. elements is
63. Which one of the following elements is unable (1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
to form MF63– ion?
(2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(1) Ga
(3) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
(2) Al
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
(3) B
Answer ( 4 )
(4) In
Sol.
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence Elements B Ga Al In Tl
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170
4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.
BF63(–). 67. The correct order of N-compounds in its
decreasing order of oxidation states is
Hence, the correct option is (3).
(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
64. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is (2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2

(1) One (3) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2

(2) Two (4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
(3) Four Answer ( 1 )
(4) Three
5 2 0 –3
S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl
Answer ( 2 ) 3 4

S o l . The structure of ClF3 is Hence, the correct option is (1).

 
 

 

F 68. On which of the following properties does the

coagulating power of an ion depend?
 
 

F Cl (1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion

 
alone
 

 

F (2) Size of the ion alone

 
(3) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
The number of lone pair of electrons on
the ion
central Cl is 2.
65. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the (4) The sign of charge on the ion alone
following metals can be used to reduce Answer ( 3 )
alumina?
Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using
(1) Fe an electrolyte depends on the charge
(2) Zn present (positive or negative) on colloidal

(3) Mg particles as well as on its size.

(4) Cu • Coagulating power of an electrolyte

depends on the magnitude of charge
Answer ( 3 )
present on effective ion of electrolyte.

17
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

69. Following solutions were prepared by mixing Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2

different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
= (1.04 × 10–5)2
different concentrations :
= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2
M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH 71. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
10 10
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and
M M 3.59, which one of the following gases is most
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10 easily liquefied?

M M (1) NH3
c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5 (2) H2
(3) O2
M M
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10 (4) CO2

pH of which one of them will be equal to 1? Answer ( 1 )

(1) b (2) a Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies
(3) d (4) c intermolecular forces of attraction.

Answer ( 4 ) • Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be

the liquefaction of gas.
1
Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15 72. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
5
B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
1 together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
• Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
5 in the order

• Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10 (1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl

• Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture (2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
10 1 (3) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
= 
100 10
(4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
 1 Answer ( 4 )
pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0
 10 
C2H5O Na+
Na
S o l . C2H5OH
70. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 (A) (B)
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
(Ksp) will be PCl5

(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1) C2H5Cl

(1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2 (C)
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
(2) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2 C2H5OC2 H5
(B) (C)
(3) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2
So the correct option is (4)
(4) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2
73. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
Answer ( 1 ) substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
2.42  103
S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1) hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
233
atoms. (A) is
= 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1)
(1) CH  CH (2) CH2  CH2
 Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)
BaSO 4 (s)  (3) CH3 – CH3 (4) CH4
s s
Answer ( 4 )

18
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

Br2/h (1) 16 5 2
S o l . CH4 CH3Br
(A) (2) 2 5 16
Na/dry ether
Wurtz reaction (3) 2 16 5
CH3 — CH3 (4) 5 16 2

Hence the correct option is (4) Answer ( 2 )

74. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following Reduction
reactions: +7 +3 +4
S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O
3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl
C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C Oxidation

The product 'C' is n-factor of MnO4  5
(1) m-bromotoluene n-factor of C2 O24  2
(2) o-bromotoluene

(3) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
(4) p-bromotoluene
 The balanced equation is
Answer ( 1 )
CH3 CCl3 CCl3 2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O

3Cl 2
77. Which one of the following conditions will
Br2
Sol.  favour maximum formation of the product in
Fe
Br the reaction,
(C7H8) (A) (B)
Zn HCl  X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g) 

CH3 (1) Low temperature and high pressure

(2) Low temperature and low pressure
(3) High temperature and high pressure
Br
(C) (4) High temperature and low pressure
So, the correct option is (1) Answer ( 1 )
75. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
 X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g) 
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
due to natural and human activity? On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a
(1) N2O5 direction where pressure decreases i.e.
forward direction.
(2) NO2
On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts
(3) N2O
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
(4) NO So, high pressure and low temperature
Answer ( 1 ) favours maximum formation of product.
S o l . Fact 78. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
equation corresponds to
76. For the redox reaction
(1) Density of the gas molecules
MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O (2) Volume of the gas molecules

The correct coefficients of the reactants for (3) Electric field present between the gas
the balanced equation are molecules
(4) Forces of attraction between the gas
MnO4 C2 O24 H+
molecules

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

Answer ( 4 ) 81. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the

following sequence of reactions:
 2 
S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT Anhydrous
 V2  AlCl3
 + CH3CH2CH2Cl
van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies
intermolecular forces of attraction. (i) O2
P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R
79. When initial concentration of the reactant is
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order P Q R
reaction
CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO
(1) Is halved
(1) , , CH3CH2 – OH
(2) Is doubled
(3) Is tripled
CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
(4) Remains unchanged
(2) , ,
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Half life of zero order CH(CH3)2 OH
(3) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
[A ]
t 1/2  0
2K
OH
t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial CH(CH3)2
concentration. (4) , , CH3 – CO – CH3

80. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and

XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the Answer ( 4 )
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
Cl
dissociation energy of X2 will be
S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + Al
(1) 200 kJ mol–1 3 2 2

Cl Cl
(2) 100 kJ mol–1
(3) 800 kJ mol–1 + 1, 2–H + –
Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
(4) 400 kJ mol–1 (Incipient carbocation)

Answer ( 3 ) Cl
–
S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY) AlCl3
1 1
X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g) Now,
2 2
CH3
X
Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X CH – CH3
2
respectively CH3 – CH – CH3 O2

X X
 H      X  200 (P)
2 4
CH3
On solving, we get
OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H
O
X X +

   200 H /H2O
2 4 CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Rearrangement
(R) (Q)
 X = 800 kJ/mole

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

82. Which of the following compounds can form a S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
zwitterion?
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
(1) Aniline
Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
(2) Acetanilide Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
(3) Benzoic acid MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1
(4) Glycine Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic

Answer ( 4 ) MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]

Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic

 
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
–

(Zwitterion form)
85. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
(1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
H2N – CH2 – COO–
(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
83. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
(3) Square planar geometry and
[CoCl2(en)2] is
paramagnetic
(1) Geometrical isomerism
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
(2) Coordination isomerism Answer ( 2 )
(3) Ionization isomerism S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
(4) Linkage isomerism ∵ CO is a strong field ligand
Answer ( 1 ) Configuration would be :

S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co 3

sp -hybridisation
is 6 and this compound has octahedral
geometry.
×× ×× ×× ××

CO CO CO CO

For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be

sp 3 and thus the complex would be
diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry.
CO

• As per given option, type of isomerism is

Ni
geometrical isomerism. CO
OC
84. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
transition and paramagnetism as well? CO
86. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
(1) CrO42–
(1) Tetranuclear
(2) Cr2O72–
(2) Mononuclear
(3) MnO4–
(3) Trinuclear
(4) MnO42–
(4) Dinuclear
Answer ( 4 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

Answer ( 2 ) 88. Which of the following is correct with respect

to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms
present in a complex, they are classified (1) – NH2 < – OR < – F
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and (2) – NR2 < – OR < – F
so on.
(3) – NH2 > – OR > – F
eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear (4) – NR2 > – OR > – F
Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear Answer ( 1 * )

Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear S o l . –I effect increases on increasing

electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
Hence, option (2) should be the right –I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
answer.
*Most appropriate Answer is option (1),
87. Match the metal ions given in Column I with however option (2) may also be correct answer.
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given 89. Which of the following carbocations is
in Column II and assign the correct code : expected to be most stable?
Column I Column II
NO2 NO2
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM

b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM (1) (2)

c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM Y H Y H

d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM NO2 NO2

H 
v. 15 BM
(3) H (4) Y
a b c d
Y 
(1) iv v ii i
Answer ( 3 )
(2) i ii iii iv
S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
(3) iv i ii iii with increase in distance. In option (3)
positive charge present on C-atom at
(4) iii v i ii maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
is minimum and stability is maximum.
Answer ( 1 )
90. Which of the following molecules represents
S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4 the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
left to right atoms?
Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM
(1) HC  C – C  CH
Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3 (2) CH2 = CH – C  CH
(3) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5 Answer ( 2 )

Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM sp2 sp2 sp sp

Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2
Spin magnetic moment =
S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH
Number of orbital require in hybridization
2(2  2)  8 BM = Number of -bonds around each carbon
atom.

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

91. The experimental proof for semiconservative S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
replication of DNA was first shown in a pleiotropic gene.
(1) Fungus (2) Bacterium Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
matched.
(3) Plant (4) Virus
95. Which of the following flowers only once in its
Answer ( 2 ) life-time?
S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first (1) Bamboo species (2) Jackfruit
shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
(3) Mango (4) Papaya
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
Answer ( 1 )
92. Select the correct statement
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’ generally only once in its life-time after 50-
(2) Punnett square was developed by a British 100 years.
scientist Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic
i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in
(3) Spliceosomes take part in translation
their life-time.
(4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
96. Select the correct match
Answer ( 2 ) (1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus
S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British pneumoniae
geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett. (2) Alfred Hershey and - TMV
– Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative Martha Chase
mode of replication.
(3) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder and F. Stahl
and Laderberg.
(4) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon
– Spliceosome formation is part of post-
Jacques Monod
transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
Answer ( 4 )
93. Offsets are produced by
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed
(1) Meiotic divisions (2) Mitotic divisions model of gene regulation known as operon
(3) Parthenocarpy (4) Parthenogenesis model/lac operon.

Answer ( 2 ) – Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting

technique.
S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi-
by mitosis.
conservative DNA replication in E. coli.
– Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic – Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase –
cells. Proved DNA as genetic material not
– Parthenogenesis is the formation of protein
embryo from ovum or egg without 97. Which of the following has proved helpful in
fertilisation. preserving pollen as fossils?
– Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without (1) Pollenkitt (2) Cellulosic intine
fertilisation, (generally seedless) (3) Oil content (4) Sporopollenin
94. Which of the following pairs is wrongly Answer ( 4 )
matched? S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
(2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.
(3) XO type sex : Grasshopper
Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of
determination pollen grain known as intine made up
(4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage cellulose & pectin.
Answer ( 1 ) Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.

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98. Stomatal movement is not affected by 103. Which among the following is not a
(1) Temperature prokaryote?

(2) Light (1) Saccharomyces (2) Mycobacterium

(3) Nostoc (4) Oscillatoria
(3) O2 concentration
Answer ( 1 )
(4) CO2 concentration
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote
Answer ( 3 )
(unicellular fungi)
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2
Mycobacterium – a bacterium
affect opening and closing of stomata while
they are not affected by O2 concentration. Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.
99. The stage during which separation of the 104. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
paired homologous chromosomes begins is (1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene cells
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene (2) It is a membrane-bound structure
Answer ( 2 ) (3) It takes part in spindle formation
S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates. (4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e. synthesis
chiasmata start to shift towards end. Answer ( 4 )
100. The two functional groups characteristic of S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure
sugars are and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.
(1) Hydroxyl and methyl 105. The Golgi complex participates in
(2) Carbonyl and methyl (1) Fatty acid breakdown
(3) Carbonyl and phosphate (2) Formation of secretory vesicles
(4) Carbonyl and hydroxyl (3) Respiration in bacteria
Answer ( 4 ) (4) Activation of amino acid
S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote Answer ( 2 )
carbohydrate.
S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde, secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
ketone or their derivatives, which means they
106. In stratosphere, which of the following
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of
101. Which of the following is not a product of light ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
reaction of photosynthesis?
(1) Carbon (2) Cl
(1) ATP (2) NADH (3) Fe (4) Oxygen
(3) NADPH (4) Oxygen Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
reaction, while NADH is a product of method converting into oxygen
respiration process. Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
102. Stomata in grass leaf are ozone layer depletion
(1) Dumb-bell shaped (2) Kidney shaped 107. Which of the following is a secondary
pollutant?
(3) Rectangular (4) Barrel shaped
(1) CO (2) CO2
Answer ( 1 )
(3) SO2 (4) O3
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell
shaped stomata in their leaves. Answer ( 4 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
formed by the reaction of primary pollutant. pyramid of biomass, usually found in
aquatic ecosystem.
CO – Quantitative pollutant
• Pyramid of energy is always upright
CO2 – Primary pollutant
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
SO2 – Primary pollutant are not possible, as the data depicts
primary producer is less than primary
108. Niche is
consumer and this is less than secondary
(1) all the biological factors in the organism's consumers.
environment 111. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
(2) the physical space where an organism (1) 5th June (2) 21st April
lives (3) 16th September (4) 22nd April
(3) the range of temperature that the Answer ( 3 )
organism needs to live S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th
(4) the functional role played by the organism September.
where it lives 5th June - World Environment Day

Answer ( 4 ) 21st April - National Yellow Bat Day

22nd April - National Earth Day
S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It
refers the functional role played by the 112. Which of the following is commonly used as a
organism where it lives. vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
human lymphocytes?
109. Natality refers to
(1) Retrovirus (2) Ti plasmid
(1) Death rate (3)  phage (4) pBR 322
(2) Birth rate Answer ( 1 )
(3) Number of individuals leaving the habitat S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
introducing a DNA fragment in human
(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat lymphocyte.
Answer ( 2 ) Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
patient are grown in culture outside the body,
S o l . Natality refers to birth rate.
a functional gene is introduced by using a
• Death rate – Mortality retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.
• Number of individual – Immigration 113. In India, the organisation responsible for
entering a habitat is assessing the safety of introducing
genetically modified organisms for public use
• Number of individual – Emigration is
leaving the habital
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
110. What type of ecological pyramid would be (2) Council for Scientific and Industrial
obtained with the following data? Research (CSIR)
Secondary consumer : 120 g (3) Research Committee on Genetic
Manipulation (RCGM)
Primary consumer : 60 g
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
Primary producer : 10 g (GEAC)
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass Answer ( 4 )

(2) Pyramid of energy S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation

such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
(3) Upright pyramid of numbers Committee) which will make decisions
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass regarding the validity of GM research and
safety of introducing GM-organism for public
Answer ( 1 ) services. (Direct from NCERT).

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

114. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a Answer ( 4 )

foreign company, though such varieties have
S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
been present in India for a long time. This is
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
related to
Each cycle has three steps
(1) Co-667 (2) Sharbati Sonora
(I) Denaturation
(3) Lerma Rojo (4) Basmati
Answer ( 4 ) (II) Primer annealing

S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent (III) Extension of primer

rights on Basmati rice through the US patent 118. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
and trademark office that was actually been are produced by
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
(1) Apical meristems
The diversity of rice in India is one of the
richest in the world, 27 documented varieties (2) Vascular cambium
of Basmati are grown in India. (3) Phellogen
Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf (4) Axillary meristems
varieties and claimed as an invention or a
Answer ( 2 )
novelty.
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
of wheat. • Form secondary xylem towards its inside
115. Select the correct match and secondary phloem towards outsides.

(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid • 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is

produced than secondary phloem.
(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
119. Pneumatophores occur in
(3) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(4) G. Mendel - Transformation (1) Halophytes

Answer ( 1 ) (2) Free-floating hydrophytes

S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic (3) Carnivorous plants
acid. (4) Submerged hydrophytes
116. Use of bioresources by multinational Answer ( 1 )
companies and organisations without
authorisation from the concerned country and Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have
its people is called pneumatophores.

(1) Bio-infringement (2) Biopiracy  Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots

having lenticels called pneumathodes to
(3) Biodegradation (4) Bioexploitation
uptake O2.
Answer ( 2 )
120. Sweet potato is a modified
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use
of bioresources by multinational companies (1) Stem
and other organisation without proper (2) Adventitious root
authorisation from the countries and people
(3) Tap root
concerned with compensatory payment
(definition of biopiracy given in NCERT). (4) Rhizome
117. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Answer ( 2 )
Chain Reaction (PCR) is
S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing for storage of food
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation • Rhizomes are underground modified stem
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing • Tap root is primary root directly elongated
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension from the redicle

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

121. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
gymnosperms
(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
Salvinia is homosporous
(3) Horsetails are gymnosperms
(4) Stems are usually unbranched in both
Cycas and Cedrus
Answer ( 1 )
125. Which one is wrongly matched?
(1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
(2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(3) Gemma cups – Marchantia
(4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
where asexual spores and gametes are
non-motile or non-flagellated.

Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. • Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
matched
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary
126. Match the items given in Column I with those
122. Select the wrong statement : in Column II and select the correct option
(1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi given below:
and Plantae Column I Column II
(2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a
(3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding collection of preserved
structures in Sporozoans plants and animals
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates
(4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
methodically all the
cell in all kingdoms except Monera
species found in an area
Answer ( 3 ) with brief description
S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in aiding identification
sarcodines (Amoeboid) c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried
123. Casparian strips occur in and pressed plant
specimens mounted on
(1) Epidermis sheets are kept
(2) Pericycle d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
(3) Cortex list of characters and
their alternates which
(4) Endodermis
are helpful in
Answer ( 4 ) identification of various
Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial taxa.
and inner tangential wall. a b c d
• It is suberin rich. (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
124. Plants having little or no secondary growth (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
are (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(1) Grasses (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) Deciduous angiosperms Answer ( 4 )
(3) Conifers Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant
specimen
(4) Cycads
• Key – Identification of various
Answer ( 1 ) taxa
S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually • Museum – Plant and animal
do not have secondary growth. specimen are preserved
Palm like monocots have anomalous • Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of
secondary growth. species

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

127. Winged pollen grains are present in 131. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
(1) Mustard (2) Cycas in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

(3) Mango (4) Pinus (1) –120°C (2) –80°C

Answer ( 4 ) (3) –196°C (4) –160°C

S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It Answer ( 3 )

is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years
form the wings of pollen. It is the in liquid nitrogen at –196°C
characteristic feature, only in Pinus. (Cryopreservation)
Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are 132. In which of the following forms is iron
not winged shaped. absorbed by plants?
128. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores (1) Ferric
are produced exogenously in (2) Ferrous
(1) Neurospora (2) Alternaria (3) Free element
(3) Agaricus (4) Saccharomyces (4) Both ferric and ferrous
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 1 * )
Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes), S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric
basidiospores or meiospores are ions. (According to NCERT)
produced exogenously. *Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and
 Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes) Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)
produces ascospores as meiospores but 133. Double fertilization is
endogenously inside the ascus.)
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
 Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes) tube with two different eggs
does not produce sexual spores.
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
 Saccharomyces (Unicellular nuclei
ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
(3) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
endogenously.
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion
129. What is the role of NAD + in cellular
respiration? Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon
(1) It functions as an enzyme.
that occur in angiosperms only.
(2) It functions as an electron carrier.
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization
(3) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
134. Which of the following elements is responsible
(4) It is the final electron acceptor for for maintaining turgor in cells?
anaerobic respiration.
(1) Magnesium (2) Sodium
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Potassium (4) Calcium
S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron
Answer ( 3 )
carrier.
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of
130. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis
cells.
by
135. Which one of the following plants shows a
(1) Green sulphur bacteria
very close relationship with a species of moth,
(2) Nostoc where none of the two can complete its life
(3) Cycas cycle without the other?
(4) Chara (1) Hydrilla (2) Yucca
Answer ( 1 ) (3) Banana (4) Viola
S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as Answer ( 2 )
source of proton, therefore they do not evolve S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a
O2. species of moth i.e. Pronuba.

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH
136. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
maintain pregnancy are
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
glucocorticoids
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which
stimulates the Corpus luteum during
pregnancy to release estrogen and
progesterone and also rescues corpus
luteum from regression. Human placental
lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of
mother and breast. Progesterone maintains
pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by
increasing uterine threshold to contractile
stimuli.
137. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen
and prevents ovulation in females.
(3) is an IUD.
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
pill. It contains centchroman and its
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
Receptor modulation.
138. The difference between spermiogenesis and
spermiation is
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
formed.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
formed, while in spermiation spermatids
are formed.
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed.
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
are released from sertoli cells into the
cavity of seminiferous tubules.
Answer ( 4 )
29
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas
spermiation is the release of the sperms from
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
tubule.
139. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
from
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm
(2) endoderm and mesoderm
(3) mesoderm and trophoblast
(4) ectoderm and endoderm
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are
amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
side and ectoderm on inner side.
Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
endoderm in inner side.
140. In a growing population of a country,
(1) pre-reproductive individuals are more
than the reproductive individuals.
(2) reproductive individuals are less than the
post-reproductive individuals.
(3) reproductive and pre-reproductive
individuals are equal in number.
(4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
the reproductive individuals.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
the younger population size is larger than the
reproductive group, the population will be an
increasing population.
141. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
conservation’ except
(1) Wildlife safari parks
(2) Sacred groves
(3) Botanical gardens
(4) Seed banks
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
 Represent pristine forest patch as
protected by Tribal groups.
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142. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain 145. Which of the following events does not occur
the drug “Smack”? in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
(1) Flowers (2) Latex (1) Protein folding
(3) Roots (4) Leaves (2) Protein glycosylation

Answer ( 2 ) (3) Cleavage of signal peptide

S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is (4) Phospholipid synthesis

formed by acetylation of morphine. It is Answer ( 4 )
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of
S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in
Poppy plant.
RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are
143. Match the items given in Column I with those involved in lipid synthesis.
in Column II and select the correct option
146. Which of these statements is incorrect?
given below :
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
Column-I Column-II mitochondrial matrix
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation (2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation (3) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient supplied with NAD that can pick up
enrichment hydrogen atoms

d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal (4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
outer mitochondrial membrane
a b c d
Answer ( 4 )
(1) ii i iii iv
S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner
(2) i iii iv ii mitochondrial membrane.
(3) iii iv i ii 147. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
(4) i ii iv iii mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
Answer ( 3 ) termed as
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient (1) Polysome (2) Polyhedral bodies
enrichment
(3) Plastidome (4) Nucleosome
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal
Answer ( 1 )
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation
S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
144. Which one of the following population formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
interactions is widely used in medical science ergasomes.
for the production of antibiotics? 148. Select the incorrect match :
(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism (1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
(3) Parasitism (4) Amensalism chromosomes

Answer ( 4 ) (2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes

S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –) (3) Submetacentric – L-shaped

chromosomes chromosomes
 Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which (4) Polytene – Oocytes of
harm other microbes (eg : chromosomes amphibians
Staphylococcus) Answer ( 4 )
 It has no effect on Penicillium or the S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary
organism which produces it. glands of insects of order Diptera.

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149. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the
(1) Proteins and lipids urine. This is observed when blood glucose
level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
(2) DNA and RNA
is called renal threshold value for glucose.
(3) Nucleic acids and SER
Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals
(4) Free ribosomes and RER in the joint.
Answer ( 4 )
Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and phosphate produced in the pelvis of the
even extend into the dendrite but absent in kidney.
axon and rest of the neuron.
Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
condition of glomerulus characterised by
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
proteinuria and haematuria.
protein synthesis.
150. Which of the following terms describe human 152. Match the items given in Column I with those
dentition? in Column II and select the correct option
given below:
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont Column I Column II
(3) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont (Function) (Part of Excretory
(4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont system)
Answer ( 2 ) a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
S o l . In humans, dentition is b. Concentration ii. Ureter
 Thecodont : Teeth are present in the of urine
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
 Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are urine
replaced by a set of permanent or adult d. Storage of iv. Malpighian
teeth.
urine corpuscle
 Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
of different types of teeth namely incisors, v. Proximal
canine, premolars and molars.
convoluted tubule
151. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option a b c d
given below : (1) iv v ii iii
Column I Column II (2) iv i ii iii
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
(3) v iv i ii
uric acid in joints
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised (4) v iv i iii
salts within the Answer ( 2 )
kidney
S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in particles having molecular weight less than
glomeruli 68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle.
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of
Concentration of urine refers to water
nephritis glucose in urine
absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result
a b c d of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by
(1) iii ii iv i counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
(2) i ii iii iv Urine is carried from kidney to bladder
(3) ii iii i iv through ureter.
(4) iv i ii iii Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of
Answer ( 4 ) urine.

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153. The similarity of bone structure in the 156. Which of the following characteristics
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in
of humans?
(1) Homology a. Dominance
(2) Analogy b. Co-dominance

(3) Convergent evolution c. Multiple allele

(4) Adaptive radiation d. Incomplete dominance

e. Polygenic inheritance
Answer ( 1 )
(1) b, c and e (2) a, b and c
S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs
are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in (3) b, d and e (4) a, c and e
different way as per their adaptation, hence Answer ( 2 )
example of homology.
Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
154. Which of the following is not an autoimmune relationship
disease?  IAIB - Codominance
(1) Psoriasis  IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis forms of a gene
(multiple allelism)
(3) Alzheimer's disease
157. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
(4) Vitiligo pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
Answer ( 3 ) lymphatic vessels?

S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune (1) Elephantiasis

disorder in which antibodies are produced (2) Ascariasis
against the synovial membrane and cartilage.
(3) Ringworm disease
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also (4) Amoebiasis
characterised as autoimmune disorder.
Answer ( 1 )
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy
S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm,
or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
Culex mosquito.
due to deficiency of neurotransmitter
acetylcholine. 158. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount of
155. Among the following sets of examples for
divergent evolution, select the incorrect (1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin A
option : (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin E
(1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah Answer ( 3 )
(2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk.
(3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah  It has enriched presence of vitamins
specially Vit-B12.
(4) Eye of octopus, bat and man
159. Which of the following is an amino acid
Answer ( 4 ) derived hormone?
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same (1) Epinephrine (2) Ecdysone
structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of
(3) Estradiol (4) Estriol
vertebrates which have developed along
different directions due to adaptation to Answer ( 1 )
different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino
and man are examples of analogous organs acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a
showing convergent evolution. catecholamine.

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160. Which of the following structures or regions is
incorrectly paired with its functions?
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
and cardiovascular
reflexes.
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibre
tracts that
interconnect
different regions of
brain; controls
movement.
(3) Hypothalamus : production of
releasing hormones
and regulation of
temperature,
hunger and thirst.
(4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
connecting left and
right cerebral
hemispheres.
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
all emotions in our body but not movements.
161. Which of the following hormones can play a
significant role in osteoporosis?
163. Which of the following animals does not
undergo metamorphosis?
(1) Earthworm (2) Tunicate
(3) Moth (4) Starfish
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
larva into adult.
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
to have indirect development.
In earthworm development is direct which
means no larval stage and hence no
metamorphosis.
164. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
digestive system
(1) Amphibia (2) Reptilia
(3) Aves (4) Osteichthyes
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional
chambers in their digestive system as crop
and Gizzard.
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.

(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to

crush food grain.
(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone
165. Which of the following organisms are known
(3) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
as chief producers in the oceans?
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(1) Dinoflagellates
Answer ( 3 )
(2) Diatoms
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female (3) Cyanobacteria
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of (4) Euglenoids
estrogen. Parathormone promotes
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood. Answer ( 2 )
Excessive activity of parathormone causes S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
demineralisation leading to osteoporosis.
166. Which one of these animals is not a
162. The transparent lens in the human eye is held homeotherm?
in its place by
(1) Macropus (2) Chelone
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
(3) Camelus (4) Psittacula
(2) ligaments attached to the iris
Answer ( 2 )
(3) smooth muscles attached to the iris
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
body constant body temperature, irrespective of
surrounding temperature.
Answer ( 1 )
Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
body. which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.

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167. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in 170. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
(1) using flagella for locomotion
given below :
(2) having a contractile vacuole for removing
Column I Column II
excess water
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
(3) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
and left ventricle
(4) having two types of nuclei b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
Answer ( 4 ) ventricle and
pulmonary artery
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
having two types of nuclei. c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
atrium and right
eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e. ventricle
macronucleus & micronucleus.
a b c
168. Which of the following features is used to
identify a male cockroach from a female (1) iii i ii
cockroach? (2) i iii ii
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the (3) i ii iii
9th abdominal segment
(4) ii i iii
(2) Presence of caudal styles
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Forewings with darker tegmina
S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present
(4) Presence of anal cerci between right atrium and right ventricle.
Answer ( 2 ) Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between
left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal are present at the openings of aortic and
styles which are absent in females. pulmonary aorta.
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal 171. Match the items given in Column I with those
segment in male cockroach. in Column II and select the correct option
given below:
169. Which of the following options correctly
represents the lung conditions in asthma and Column I Column II
emphysema, respectively?
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
respiratory surface
volume
(2) Increased number of bronchioles;
Increased respiratory surface c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
(3) Increased respiratory surface; volume
Inflammation of bronchioles
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
(4) Decreased respiratory surface;
a b c d
Inflammation of bronchioles
(1) iii ii i iv
Answer ( 1 )
(2) iii i iv ii
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and (3) i iv ii iii
bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder
(4) iv iii ii i
in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
which respiratory surface is decreased. Answer ( 2 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-PP) LAACH

S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start
expired during normal respiration. It is developing, hence, called follicular phase.
approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
volume is additional volume of air a person mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve the endometrium maintained by
volume is additional volume of air a person progesterone.
can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
averages 1000 – 1100 mL. Menstruation occurs due to decline in
progesterone level and involves breakdown of
Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
overgrown endometrial lining.
lungs even after forceful expiration. This
averages 1100 – 1200 mL. 175. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
172. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
inherited by
strand of a gene. What will be the
corresponding sequence of the transcribed (1) Only daughters
mRNA? (2) Only sons
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(3) Only grandchildren
(3) ACCUAUGCGAU (4) UCCAUAGCGUA
(4) Both sons and daughters
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by Sol. • Woman is a carrier
‘U’–Uracil in mRNA. • Both son & daughter inherit
173. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism X–chromosome
of evolution is • Although only son be the diseased
(1) Multiple step mutations 176. All of the following are part of an operon
(2) Saltation except
(3) Phenotypic variations (1) an operator
(4) Minor mutations
(2) structural genes
Answer ( 2 )
(3) an enhancer
S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous (4) a promoter
phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/ Answer ( 3 )
saltation. Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in
174. Match the items given in Column I with those eukaryotes.
in Column II and select the correct option
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes.
given below :
177. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
Column I Column II
help in erythropoiesis?
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
(1) Chief cells (2) Mucous cells
endometrial
lining (3) Goblet cells (4) Parietal cells

b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase Answer ( 4 )

c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and
a b c intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can
(1) iii ii i
be absorbed easily and used during
(2) i iii ii erythropoiesis.
(3) ii iii i Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
(4) iii i ii of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes
Answer ( 3 ) pernicious anaemia.

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178. Match the items given in Column I with those Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
in Column II and select the correct option many folds in the sarcoplasm.
given below :
 Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
Column I Column II
(troponin "C") which is masking the active
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
site on actin filament and displaces the
b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting sub-unit of troponin.
c. Albumin (iii) Defence
 Once the active site is exposed, head of
mechanism
the myosin attaches and initiate
a b c
contraction by sliding the actin over
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) myosin.
(2) (i) (ii) (iii)
180. Which of the following is an occupational
(3) (i) (iii) (ii)
respiratory disorder?
(4) (ii) (iii) (i)
(1) Anthracis
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during (2) Silicosis
coagulation. These strands forms a network
(3) Botulism
and the meshes of which are occupied by
blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot. (4) Emphysema
Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
Answer ( 2 )
of plasma proteins which means globulins are
involved in defence mechanisms. S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly dust in the workers involved grinding or stone
responsible for BCOP. breaking industries.
179. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation
contraction because it
leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious
(1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking lung damage.
of active sites on actin for myosin.
(2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused
it. by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a
(3) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
filament. chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
damaged due to which respiratory surface is
(4) Prevents the formation of bonds between
the myosin cross bridges and the actin decreased.
filament. Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused
Answer ( 1 ) by Clostridium botulinum.

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