PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

JEE Main 2019 Mock Tests-1 (Code:100312.1)

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes sp ecifically for this purpose.

Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.

6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruct

(one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be
treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.

8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room /
Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Atomic No.: H=1, He=2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al = 13, Si = 14,
P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar =18, K=19, Ca=20,Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu=29, Zn=30,
As=33, Br = 35, Ag = 47, Si = 21, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92, V = 50.

Atomic masses: H =1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al=27,
Si=28, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5,
Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________

Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 2

(Single Correct Answer Type)

This part contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2
1. Unpolarized light of intensity 32 Wm passes through three polarizers such that transmission axis of
the first and second polarizer makes and angle 30 with each other and the transmission axis of the
last polarizer is crossed with that of the first. The intensity of final emerging light will
be :
2 2
(A) 32 Wm (B) 3 Wm
2 2
(C) 8 Wm (D) 4 Wm

2. White light may be considered to be a mixture of waves with

= 1.4, then the
film appear bright for
(B)
(D)

3. In order to obtain an output Y = 1 from the A

circuit of the figure, the inputs must be
B
(A) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 Y
(B) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0 C
(C) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
(D) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
4. In the circuit shown in the figure, the base current IB is
10 A and the collector is 5.2 mA. The value of VBE is RB 500 k RC = 1 k
+5.5 V
(A) 0.1 V
(B) 0.3 V VCC
(C) 0.5 V VBE IE
(D) 0.7 V

Rough work
IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 3

5. In the following circuits, PN junction diode D1, D2 D1

R
and D3 are ideal for the following potential of A and
B. The correct increasing order of resistance
D2
between A and B will be R
(i) 10 V, 5 V
(ii) 5 V, 10 V R R
D3
4 R 4
(iii) 4 V, 12 V
(A) (i) < (ii) < (iii) A B
(B) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
(C) (ii) = (iii) < (i)
(D) (i) = (iii) < (ii)

6. slit experiment, the slits are 0.5 mm apart and the interference is observed on a
screen at a distance of 100 cm from the slits. It is found that the ninth bright fringe is at a distance of
7.5 mm from the second dark fringe from the centre of the fringe pattern. The wavelength of the light
used is
5000
(B)
7
2500
(D)
7
7. The plane of dip circle is set in the geographic meridian and the apparent dip is 1. It is then set in a
vertical plane perpendicular to the geographic meridian. Now, the apparent dip is 2. The angle of
declination at that place is apparent dip is 2. The angle of declination at that place is
2 2
(A) tan tan 1 tan 2 (B) tan tan 1 tan 2

tan 1 tan 2
(C) tan (D) tan
tan 2 tan 1

Rough work
IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 4

8. A, B, C, D, E and F are conducting plates each of area A, and A B C D E F

two consecutive plates are separated by a distance d. The net
energy stored in the system after the switch S is closed is
2 0A 2 5 0A 2
(A) V (B) V
2d 12d
A A
(C) 0 V 2 (D) 0 V 2
2d d
V s

9. A point charge q = 30 C is located at distance 3R from the centre of a

neutral conducting sphere (radius R) as shown in the figure. When the
switch S is closed, the amount of charge flowing form the sphere into q
the ground will be
(A) 5 C (B) 10 C
(C) 10 C (D) zero 3R
S

10. A sph
container containing liquid of density as shown in the figure. What is
the pressure force experienced on the upper hemispherical portion of
the sphere (P0 = atmospheric pressure). 4r r
r2 r2
(A) 3P0 7r g (B) 3P0 7r g
3 2
(C) r 2 3P0 7r g (D) 2 r 2 3P0 7r g

Rough work
IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 5

11. A spring mass system executes damped harmonic oscillations given by the equation
bt 2
2m
k b
y Ae sin( ' t ) where ' ,
m 4m2
where the symbols have their usual meanings.
If a 2 kg mass (m) is attached to a spring of force constant(K) 1250 N/m, the period of the oscillation
is ( alue.
(A) 9.8 kg/s (B) 2.8 kg/s
(C) 98 kg/s (D) 28 kg/s

12. Four point charges are kept on y axis at (0, a), (0, 2a), (0, - y
a), (0, -2a) as shown in the figure. Which of the following
A +1e
graphs best represents the variation of electrostatic
potential V(x) as a function of distance x from the origin, B +1e
on the x-axis.
x
O P
C -1e

D -1e

(A) (B)

V=0

(C) (D)

Rough work
IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 6

13. A block of mass 2kg is kept gently on a moving tape of a machine in

which the rotating cylinders have angular speed of 20 rad/sec and
there radius is 20cm. If coefficient of friction between the tape and
block is 0.5 and there is no slipping between tape and cylinder. Then
2
(take g = 10 m/s )
(A) The distance travelled by the block before relative motion with tape ceases is 1.6 m
(B) Work done by friction on the block is 8 N
(C) Work done by friction on the block is 16 N
(D) Linear velocity of tape is 40 m/s

14. A current carrying loop lies in the x-y plane. The magnetic field in the y

region is given by B B0k j . Then choose incorrect statement.

(A) net force acting on the loop is zero for all real .
(B) initial angular acceleration is minimum then = 0 O
(C) for x
(D) for = 0, the loop rotate.
z

15. A ray of light moving along the vector i 2j undergoes refraction at an interface of two media, which
5
is the x z plane. The refractive index of y > 0 is 2 while for y < 0 it is . The unit vector along the
2
direction of the refracted ray is
3i 5j 4i 3 j
(A) (B)
34 5
3i 4 j 3i 5j
(C) (D)
5 34

Rough work
IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 7

16. In the figure D is an ideal diode and an alternating voltage of R

peak value 10 volts is connected as input v1, Which of the D
following figures represents the correct waveform of output ~ +
5V v0
voltage v0? v1
(A) +5V (B)
0 0
0 0
15V
(C) +5V (D) +10V

0 0 +5V
0V
10V

17. The electrostatic flux in SI unit through shaded portion z

OAB due a point charge Q, kept at point P(a, 0, a) as B(0,a,0)
O
shown in the figure. (given Q = 96 0 coulomb, y
numerically) (OA = OB = a)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(a, 0, 0) A

18. The density of a liquid varies with depth h from the free surface as = kh. A small body of density 1
is released from the surface of liquid. The body will
2 1
(A) come to a momentary rest at a depth from the free surface
k
1
(B) execute simple harmonic motion about a point at a depth from the surface
k
1
(C) execute simple harmonic motion of amplitude
k
(D) all of the above

Rough work
IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 8

19. Three mass particles A, B and C having masses m, 2m and 3m, respectively, are rigidly attached to a
ring of mass m and radius R which rolls on a horizontal surface without slipping. At a certain instant, the
velocity of the centre of the ring is v0 as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of the
system is B
2 2
(A) 7m v 0 (B) 9m v 0 v
0
A C
7
(C) m v 20 (D) m v 02
2

20. The average translational energy and the rms speed of molecules in a sample of oxygen at 300 K are
-21
6.21 10 J and 484 m/s, respectively. The corresponding values at 600 K are nearly (assuming
ideal gas behavior).
-21 -21
(A) 12.42 10 J, 968 m/s. (B) 6.21 10 J, 968 m/s
-21 -21
(C) 8.78 10 J, 684 m/s (D) 12.42 10 J, 684 m/s

21. Regarding transistor what is not correct.

(A) For transistor to act an amplifier EB junction should be forward biased and CB junction should be
reverse biased
(B) IE = IB + IC in any configuration and for any transistor.
(C) where and transistor parameter
1

(D) .
1

22. A spring and block is placed on a fixed smooth wedge as shown. Block
Following conclusion can be drawn about block. m
(i) magnitude of its momentum will be max when F net on block is
zero.
(ii) its kinetic energy will be max when Fnet on block is zero Spring
(iii) KE of block is max when block just touches the spring. Fix Wedge
(iv) net force on block is maximum when KE = 0
(A) (i), (iii), (iv) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iv).

Rough work
IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 9
+
23. A proton, within a nucleus, decays into a neutron during a process called decay, which occurs in
some unstable nuclei. This process is represented by the equation:
A A
ZX Z 1 Y e
A A
Let m ZX represent the mass of an atom of Z X, and c represent the velocity of light in vacuum.
Assume that (neutrino) is massless. The Q value of the process is given by
A A
(A) m ZX m Z 1Y 2me c 2 (B) m A
ZX m A
Z 1Y c2
A A
(C) m ZX m Z 1Y me c 2 (D) m A
ZX m A
Z 1Y me c 2 .

24. A mass m on a frictionless table is attached to a hanging mass by a

spring (of spring constant K and natural length 0 ) and a cord
m
through a hole in the table. If the hanging mass remains stationary
and the mass m moves on a circular path with angular velocity the
radius of its circular path is
m 2 0
(A) 0 (B)
K m 2
K 0 K 0
(C) (D)
(K m 2 ) K m 2

volt Metal oxide R

25. A metal oxide follows the relation V a I where a = 1 1/2
, V
(ampere)
is potential drop across the oxide and I is current through it. If heat
produced in resistor and metal oxide is same then value of R is
E=6V
1
(A) 3 (B)
3
(C) 6 (D) 9

Rough work
IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 10

26. An insect of mass m is initially at one end of the stick of length L and mass M, which rests on a
smooth horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction between the insect and stick is k. The minimum time
in which the insect can reach the other end of the stick is t. Mark all the correct statements.
kmg
(A) the centre of mass of the plank has velocity magnitudes t w.r.t. horizontal floor at
M
time t.
2LM
(B) t
k(M m)g
(C)
(D) all the above

27. A fixed chamber isolated from surrounding is divided into two C

equal half A and B as shown in the figure. Part A contains one
mole of oxygen and Part B contains one mole of helium, the A B
separator C is thermally conducting and kept fixed. Initial O2 He
temperature of oxygen chamber is 600 K and that of helium
300 K. Specific heat capacity of separator and chamber is
negligible. Choose the correct statement.
(A) change of temperature of helium is equal to change in temperature of oxygen
(B) change in internal energy of helium is equal to 200 R joule (R represents the value of the gas
constant in SI)
(C) temperature of oxygen in steady state condition is 487 K (approx)

28. A planet of radius R has an acceleration due to gravity of g s on its surface. A deep smooth tunnel is
R
dug on this planet, radially inward, to reach a point P located at a distance of from the centre of the
2
planet. Assume that the planet has uniform density. The kinetic energy required to be given to a small
body of mass m, projected radially outward from P, so that it gains a maximum altitude equal to the
thrice the radius of the planet from its surface, is equal to
63 3
(A) mgsR (B) mgsR A
16 8
9 21 O P
(C) mgsR (D) mgsR .
8 16

Rough work
IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 11

29. Two long parallel wires A and B situated perpendicular to the plane A
of the paper at a distance 2a are carrying equal current I in
opposite directions as shown in the figure. The value of magnetic a r
induction at point P situated at equal distance r from both the wires P
will be
a
ia
0 ia
0 r
(A) (B)
4 r2 2 r2 B
2 2
ia
0 0 i r a
(C) (D)
r2 r2
30. Light is incident normally on face AB of a prism as shown in the figure. Liquid
A liquid of refractive index is placed on face AC of the prism. The A C
prism is made of glass of refractive index 3/2. The limits of for which
total internal reflection takes place on face AC is
3 3 3
(A) (B) B
2 4
3
(C) 3 (D)
2

Rough work
IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 12

(Single Correct Answer Type)

This part contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Find out anti aromatic compound among the following :

N
(A) (B) B
N CH3

(C) (D)
O S
O

2. The correct statement about compounds (P), (Q) and (R) :

COOCH 3 COOH COOH
H OH H OH H OH
H OH H OH HO H
COOH COOCH 3 COOCH 3
(P) (Q) (R)
(A) P and Q are identical (B) P and Q are diastereomers
(C) P and R are enantiomers (D) P and Q are enantiomers

3. 2
H2 O2
2
Product
D
D
H
(A) (B)
D
H
D
H
(C) (D) Both (B) and (C)
H
D

Space for rough work

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 13

4. Arrange the following reactions in decreasing order of electrophilic addition reaction:

H3C H3C H C 3
HCl
C CH2 C CH2 HCl
C CH2 HCl

H3C H3C O H3C NH

P Q R
(A) P > Q > R (B) Q > R > P
(C) R > Q > P (D) P = Q = R

O
O CH3 MgBr (1Mole)
5. Product
H3 O

O
OH O
O
(A) (B)

O O
O O OH
(C) (D)
OH

6. Arrange the following in decreasing order of SN2 reaction

Cl Cl Cl Cl

CH 3 H3 C CH 3

P Q R S
(A) P > R > S > Q (B) P > Q > R > S
(C) P > R > Q > S (D) R > Q > S > P

Space for rough work

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 14

7. What are reactant X and product Y in the following sequence of reactions ?

O
O
H3C S Cl
H3 C O S CH3
O
' X'
H H O
NaN3
Reactant 'X' ethanol-water
Product 'Y'
H3C OH H3C N3 H3C OH H3C H
(A) (B)
H H H H H H H N3
H3C H H3C H H3C H
(C) (D) No reaction
H OH H N3 H OH

8. Which of the following sets of reagents would accomplish the following conversion ?
O CH3
C CH3 CH CH CH2CH 3
OH
(A) CH3CH2CH2MgBr ; H / H2O, PCC, CH2Cl2
(B) CH3CH2CH2MgBr ; H / H2O ; H2SO4 , ; PCC, CH2Cl2
o
(C) Ph3P CHCH2CH3 ; B2H6 , H2O2 , OH
(D) Ph3P CHCH2CH3 ; H2SO4 , H2O

9. Find out major products of following reaction

O

Conc.H2 SO4

OH OH OH OH

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for rough work

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 15

10. Find the product of following reaction :

O O O
NaOH
Ph CH2 C CH2 Ph Ph C C Ph
O O
Ph Ph Ph Ph
(A) (B) HO OH

Ph Ph Ph Ph
O
Ph C C CH 2 Ph
(C) Ph C C Ph (D) None of these

11. An element has successive ionization enthalpies as 940 (first), 2080, 3090, 4140, 7030, 7870, 16000
1
and 19500 kJ mol . To which group of the periodic table does this element belong ?
(A) 14 (B) 15
(C) 16 (D) 17

12. What is the geometry of the IBr2 ion ?

(A) Linear (B)
(C) (D)

13. In which of the following transformations, the bond order has increased and the magnetic behaviour
has changed ?
(A) C2 C2 (B) NO NO
(C) O2 O2 (D) N2 N2

14. [CoCl2 (NH3 )4 ] Cl [CoCl3 (NH3 )3 ] NH3 .

If in this reaction two isomers of the product are obtained, which is true for the initial (reactant)
complex:
(A) compound is in cis-form (B) compound is in trans-form
(C) compound is in both (cis and trans) form (D)

15. The incorrect order of solubility in water is

(A) Ca(OH)2 Sr(OH)2 Ba(OH)2 (B) Li2CO3 Na2CO3 K 2CO3
(C) CsNO3 RbNO3 KNO3 (D) BaS2O3 MgS2O3 CaS2O3

Space for rough work

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 16
th
16. The incorrect statement regarding 15 group hydrides (EH3). [E = N, P, As, Sb, Bi]
(A) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 : Thermal stability
(B) N H > P H > As H > Sb H > Sb H > Bi H : E H bond dissociation enthalpy
(C) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 : Reducing character
(D) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 : Basicity

17. By which of the following methods, H2O2

(A) Addition of ice cold H2SO4 on BaO2
(B) Addition of ice cold H2SO4 on PbO2
(C) Aerial oxidation of 2-ethyl anthraquinol
(D) Electrolysis of (NH4)2SO4 at a high current density

18. Copper (II) ions gives reddish brown precipitate with potassium ferrocyanide. The formula of the
precipitate is
(A) Cu4[Fe(CN)6] (B) Cu3[Fe(CN)6]
(C) Cu3[Fe(CN)6] (D) Cu3[Fe(CN)6]2

19. Which of the following reaction(s) is relevant to the microcosmic slat bead test ?
(A) Cr2O3 3B2O3 2Cr(BO2 )3
(B) CoO + ZnO CoZnO2
(C) CoO + NaPO3 NaCoPO4
(D) Al2(SO4)3 + 3Na2CO3 Al2O3 + 3Na2SO4 + 3CO2

20. The correct statement about the following disaccharide is

CH 2OH
OH
H O H O H
H
OH H H HO
O CH 2OH
HO
H OH OH H
(A) LHS ring is pyranose with -glycosidic linkage
(B) LHS ring is furanose with -glycosidic linkage
(C) RHS ring is furanose with -glycosidic linkage
(D) RHS ring is pyranose with -glycosidic linkage

21. al gas if the constants

(A) a and b are small (B) a is large and b is small
(C) a is small and b is large (D) a and b are large

22. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 L to 10 L. The
change in internal energy, U, for the gas in this process is
(A) 163.7 cal (B) zero
(C) 1381.1 cal (D) 9 L-atm

23. The solubility of NaCl(s) in water at 298 K is about 6 moles per litre. Suppose you add 1 mole of
NaCl(s) to a litre of water. For the reaction:
NaCl(s) H2O NaCl(aq)
(A) G 0, S 0 (B) G 0, S 0
(C) G 0, S 0 (D) G 0, S 0

Space for rough work

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 17

24. This reaction is set up in aqueous medium. We start with 1 mol of I 2 and 0.5 mol of I in 1 L flask. After
equilibrium is reached, excess of AgNO 3 gave 0.25 mol of yellow precipitate. Equilibrium constant is
(A) 1.33 (B) 2.66
(C) 0.375 (D) 0.75

25. An aqueous solution is prepared by dissolving 0.1 mole H 2CO3 in sufficient water to get 100 ml
2CO3, Ka1 4.0 10 6 and Ka2 5.0 10 11. The only incorrect equilibrium
concentration is
(A) [H ] 6.32 10 4 M (B) [HCO3 ] 2 10 3 M
(C) [CO32 ] 5 10 11
M (D) [OH ] 5 10 12
M

26. Spinel is an important class of oxides consisting of two types of metal ions with the oxide ions
arranged in CPP pattern. The normal spinel has one-eighth of the tetrahedral holes occupied by one
type of metal ion and one-half of the octahedral hole occupied by another type of metal ion. Such a
2+ 3+ 2
spinel is formed by Zn , Al and O . The simplest formula of such spinel is
(A) ZnAl2O4 (B) Zn2AlO4
(C) Zn2Al3O4 (D) ZnAlO2

27. In which of the following liquid pair, there is not contraction in volume on mixing ?
(A) CHCl3 C6H6 (B) H2O HCl
(C) H2O HNO3 (D) H2O C2H5OH

28. The suggested mechanism for the reaction : CHCl3 (g) Cl2 (g) CCl4 (g) HCl(g), is
K1
Cl2 K2
2Cl (fast)
K3
CHCl3 Cl HCl CCl3 (slow)
K4
CCl3 Cl CCl4 (fast)
The experimental rate law consistent with the mechanism is
(A) rate = K3[CHCl3][Cl2] (B) rate = K4[CCl3][Cl]
(C) rate = Keq[CHCl3][Cl2] (D) rate K 3K1/2
eq [CHCl3 ][Cl2 ]
1/2

29. On adding AgNO3 solution into KI solution, a negatively charged colloidal sol is obtained when they
are in
(A) 100 ml of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 100 ml of 0.1 M KI
(B) 100 ml of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 ml of 0.2 M KI
(C) 100 ml of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 ml of 0.1 M KI
(D) 100 ml of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 100 ml of 0.15 M KI

30. Number of nodal surface in 5s orbital is

(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 0

Space for rough work

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 18

(Single Correct Answer Type)

This part contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If the standard deviation of x1, x2 n is 3.5, the standard deviation of

2x1 3, 2x2 2xn 3 is
(A) 7 (B) 4
(C) 7 (D) 1.75

t 2 f(x 1) (x 1)2 f(t)

2. Let f(x) be a differentiable function in [ 1, ) and f(0) = 1 such that lim 1.
t x 1 f(t) f(x 1)
ln(f(x)) ln2
Find the value of lim
x 1 x 1
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) does not exist

4
3. If xi2 yi2 2x1x3 2x2 x 4 2y 2 y3 2y1y 4 then points (x 1, y1), (x2, y2), (x3, y3), (x4, y4) are
i 1
(A) vertices of a rectangle (B) collinear
(C) concyclic (D) none of these

4. Which of the following statement is a tautology?

(A) p q ^ ~ q ~p (B) p q ^ ~q p
(C) p q ^ q ~p (D) p q ^ q p

Space for rough work

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 19

5. A pair of standard 6 sided fair dice is rolled once. The sum of the numbers rolled determines the
diameter of a circle. What is the probability that the numerical value of the area of the circle is less
s circumference?
1 1
(A) (B)
36 12
1 1
(C) (D)
6 4

6. Let W denotes the set of words in the English dictionary. Define the relation R by
R = {(x, y) words x and y have at least one letter in common}. Then R is
(A) reflexive, symmetric not transitive (B) reflexive, symmetric and transitive
(C) reflexive, not symmetric, and transitive (D) Not reflexive, symmetric and transitive

7. If [.] denotes the greatest integer function then domain of the real valued function log x 1/ 2 x2 x 6
is
1 3
(A) ,1 (1, ) (B) 0, (2, )
2 2
3 3
(C) ,2 (2, ) (D) 0, 1 ,
2 2

1 2p 3
2 2
8. If p, q R and p + q pq p q+1 0 then 3q 1 5p is equal to
p q p
(A) 1 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 0
2 2
9. The locus of the middle points of chords of hyperbola 3x 2y + 4x 6y = 0 parallel to y = 2x is
(A) 3x 4y = 4 (B) 3y 4x + 4 = 0
(C) 4x 4y = 3 (D) 3x 4y = 2

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 20

10. A flag staff of 5 m height stands on a building 25 m high. At an observer at a height of 30 m, the flag
staff and the building subtend equal angles. The distance of the observer from the top of flag staff is
5 3 3
(A) (B) 5
2 2
2
(C) (D) None of these
3

2
11. The area bounded by the curves y = x 2x + 2, x 1 and its inverse is given by
1 2
(A) (B)
3 3
5 4
(C) (D)
3 3

x
12. Let f(x) = t2 2t 2 dt , where x is set of real numbers satisfying the inequation
0

log2 1 6x x 2 8 0 . If f(x) [ , ] then maximum value of | | is

103 104
(A) (B)
3 3
106
(C) (D) none of these
3

3 2 1 1 2 1
13. If A , then trace of A is equal to
7 5 2 1 0 4
(A) 25 (B) 21
(C) 15 (D) 11

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 21

14. An insurance company believes that people can be divided into two classes; those who are
accident prone and those who are not. Their statistics show that an accident prone person will not
have an accident in a yearly period with probability 0.4 whereas this probability is 0.2 for the other
kind. Given that 30% of people are accident prone. The probability that a new policyholder will have
an accident within a year of purchasing a policy is
(A) 0.74 (B) 0.28
(C) 0.34 (D) 0.66

2n
Hi Hi
15. If H1, H2, H3 2n + 1 are in H.P., then ( 1)i 1
is equal to
i 1
Hi Hi 1
(A) 2n 1 (B) 2n + 1
(C) 2n (D) 2n + 2

12
16. Sum of all the rational terms in the expansion of 31/4 41/3 , is
(A) 27 (B) 256
(C) 283 (D) none of these

17. All possible values of a such that

2 2
sin2 x asin x sin 1 x2 10x 26 cos 1
x 2 10x 26 0 has atleast one solution
5 5
is/are
(A) , 2 2 , (B) , 2 ,

(C) 2 , 2 (D) none of these

18. Which of the following is always correct?

(A) if f (x) > 0 x domain, then f(x) cannot be periodic
(B) if f (x) < 0 x domain, then f(x) cannot be many one
(C) if |f(x)| is differentiable at x = a then f(x) is also differentiable at x = a
(D) if f(x) is continuous at x = a, f(a) = 5 and x = a is the point of local minima of f(x), then [f(x)]
is also continuous at x = a (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 22

19. sin 101x sin99 x dx equals

100 100
sin 100x sin x cos 100x sinx
(A) C (B) C
100 100
100 101
cos 100x cos x sin 100x sin x
(C) C (D) C
100 101

20. The equation of the plane through the intersection of the planes x + 2y + z 1 = 0 and
2x + y + 3z 2 = 0 and perpendicular to the plane x + y + z 1 = 0 and x + ky + 3z 1 = 0. Then the
value of k is
5 3
(A) (B)
2 2
5 3
(C) (D)
2 2
n
21. Let 1, 1, 2, 3, ..... n 1 + x+ = 0 where i j if i j then the value of
1 2 1 3 1 4 ..... 1 n 1 is
n 2
(A) n n 1 1 (B) n C2 n 2
1
n 1
(C) n 1 (D) 0

22. Mr. X has 5 children, and Mr. Y has 3 children. Of the either children it is known that there are 5 girls
and 3 boys. Then probability that atleast one of the family have only girls as their children
1 9
(A) (B)
56 56
11 10
(C) (D)
56 56

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 23

23. The value of lim n n ln n ln n 1 1 is

n
1
(A) e (B)
e
1 1
(C) (D)
2 4

24. Pair of straight lines through A (1, 1) are drawn to intersect the line 2x + 4y = 5 at C and D. If angle
between the pair of straight line is , then the locus of incentre of ACD is
3
2 2
(A) 11h2 k2 16hk 10h 10k 5 0 (B) 11k h + 16hk 10k + 20 = 0.
2 2 2 2
(C) 11h k 16hk 10h 10k 5 0 (D) 11k h + 16hk 10h 30k + 15 = 0

2
25. If a focal chord of y = 4ax makes an angle , 0, with the positive direction of x-axis, then
4
minimum length of this focal chord is
(A) 6a (B) 2a
(C) 8a (D) none of these

n
n
26. lim 2
,x 0 is equal to
n
k 1 n k 2 x2
1 1
(A) x tan (x) (B) tan (x)
tan 1 x tan 1 x
(C) (D)
x x2

27. Let a, b, c and d are non-zero vectors and no three of them are coplanar and no two are
b c a d c a b d
orthogonal, then is equal to
a b d c

a b b c c a
(A) a b c (B)
b c d
(C) 1 (D) none of these

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-1-(100312.1)-PCM 24
2
28. The equation to the orthogonal trajectories of the system of parabolas y = ax is
x2 y2
(A) y2 c (B) x 2 c
2 2
x2 y2
(C) y2 c (D) x 2 c
2 2

8 8
29. If z = 1 cos i sin , then the principal value of argument of z is
5 5
4 4
(A) (B)
5 5
2
(C) (D)
5 5
1 1
30. The range of the function f (x) = cos x + tan x is
3 3
(A) , (B) ,
4 4 2 2
5 5
(C) , (D) ,
3 4 4 4

Space for rough work