BAHASA INGGRIS

Listening Section

In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken
English. There are four parts to this section, with special directions for each part.
PART 1.
Questions Number: 1 to 4.
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and questions spoken in English. The questions
and the dialogues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must
listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.
After you listen to a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample
question.
You will hear:
Man : Where do you want to go for the next vacation, Jane? Going to Jakarta, Bandung or
Bali.
Woman : Jakarta and Bandung is so crowded so I think Bali will be more enjoyable.
Narrator: Where will Jane go for her vacation?

You will read in your test book:

A. Jakarta and Bandung
B. Bali
C. Bandung
D. Jakarta
E. Nowhere

The best answer to the question is “Bali”

Therefore, you should choose answer (B).

1. A. In an office
B. In a restaurant
C. In the library
D. On a bus
E. At home

2. A. Egg
B. Tea
C. Rice
D. Sugar
E. Nuggets

3. A. Bricklayer
B. Plumber
C. Carpenter
D. Electrician
E. Engineer

4. A. See the doctor

B. Get another job
C. Go to the counter
D. Buy some medicine
E. Ensure nothing to worry about

TPUN 2 BAHASA INGGRIS 12 SMA PRIMAGAMA – 1

 PART II.
Questions Number 5 to 7.
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some incomplete dialogues spoken in English, followed by four
responses, also spoken in English. The dialogues and the responses will be spoken twice. They will
not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are
saying. You have to choose the best response to each question.
Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear:

Man : Do you have any plans for next weekend?

Woman : I am thinking of going mountain climbing.
Man : That’s interesting. Can I go with you?
Woman : Sure. Do you have any suggestions for activities there?
Woman : …

Narrator : What does the man probably respond?

A. Sorry, but I don’t know much about that.
B. Yes, we could have a barbeque there.
C. Yes, I think that mountain is too high.
D. Yes, I really love mountain climbing.

The best answer to the question “What does the woman probably respond?” is “Yes, we could
have a barbeque there.” Therefore, you should choose answer (B).

5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

PART III
Questions 8 – 11
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or monologues spoken in English. The
dialogues or monologues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you
must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you listen to the dialogue
or monologue, look at the five pictures provided in your test book, and decide which one would be
the most suitable with the dialogue or monologue you have heard.

8. A. D.

TPUN 2 BAHASA INGGRIS 12 SMA PRIMAGAMA – 2

 B. E.

C.

9. A. D.

B. E.

C.

9. A. D.

B. E.

TPUN 2 BAHASA INGGRIS 12 SMA PRIMAGAMA – 3

 C.

10. A. D.

B. E.

C.

PART IV
Questions 12 – 15
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken twice.
They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the
speakers are saying. After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the five possible
answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.

Question 12 and 13 are based on the following description.

12. A. The river of Brisbane

B. Australian state of Queensland
C. The South – East Queensland
D. City of Brisbane
E. The business districts.

13. A. Less than 2 million people

B. 3 million people
C. 5.2 Million people
D. 2.2 Million people
E. More than 3 million people

TPUN 2 BAHASA INGGRIS 12 SMA PRIMAGAMA – 4

Questions 14 and 15 are based on the following monologue.

14. A. Storms
B. Thunderstorms
C. Cyclones
D. Hurricanes
E. Winds

15. A. A cyclone
B. A hurricane
C. A thunderstorm
D. A blizzard
E. A tornado

This is the end of the listening section

Text 1: The following text is for questions 16 to 17.

ANNOUNCEMENT
Let’s Explore the World through Reading Club
In connection with Literacy Program Development we are going to
recruit members for our new reading club that has just been
established. In the club, we are going to read and discuss various
books such as education, history, geography, psychology etc. The
meeting for discussion is held:
Day: Saturday
Time: 09.00 a.m. to 11.00 p.m.
Venue: AV room
If you have interest in reading and are committed individuals, you are
deserved to be members of the club.
For further information contact Nila: 08158030833

16. What is the announcement mainly about?

A. Recruitment for Reading Club members
B. The place of Reading Club meeting
C. Literacy Program Development
D. Exploring the world
E. Various text books

17. What is the primary reason to establish the Reading Club?

A. To go to overseas
B. To explore the world
C. To develop education
D. To read historical books
E. To develop literacy program

TPUN 2 BAHASA INGGRIS 12 SMA PRIMAGAMA – 5

Text 2: The following text is for questions 18 to 20.

Anybody who is over the age of six knows that there is nowhere safe for skateboarders to
skate. This prevents young people from enjoying an active, energetic and adventurous pastime.

Just watch a local street for a short while and note the steady stream of skaters speeding up and
down the footpaths. Toddlers can be trampled on and old ladies can be knocked down as they
struggle home carrying their cat food from supermarkets.

Skateboarding is a serious sport that improves young people’s health. It increases fitness, improves
balance and strengthens the joints in knees and ankles. Although it appears to be a solo sport,
when groups practice together and compete to perform stunts or runs they form firm friendships.

Young people should be prevented from becoming overweight couch potatoes. If they are actively
involved in skating, they do not smoke, take drugs or break laws for fun.

Kids will always seek thrills and excitement. They need to practice their 180s, 360s and Ollie’s free
from restrictions. We must build skate parks in the suburbs so that streets are safe for small children
and senior citizens and skaters have spaces where they can race, chase, speed, and soar towards
the sun.

18. Where do the kids usually ride their skateboard?

A. In the main roads and foot paths.
B. In front of the supermarket.
C. In front of their home.
D. In the suburbs.
E. In the park.

19. The writer’s purpose in writing the text is ….

A. to invite the local teenagers to skate in a park built specifically for skaters.
B. to convince the readers that they need a safe place for skaters to skate.
C. to provoke youngsters into the local government policy.
D. to promote the writer’s business of skateboarding class.
E. to inform parents about the goodness of skateboarding.

20. “They need to practice their 180s, 360s and Ollie’s free from restrictions.” (Paragraph 5)
The synonym of the underlined word is ….
A. Approval
B. Allowance
C. Improvement
D. Prevention
E. Limitation

21. Which is the best statement below that is best to close an application letter?
A. I am writing to you to express my interest regarding your advertisement i Weeks currently.
B. I have enclosed my resume for your consideration with copies of my certificates and
qualification.
C. I would like the opportunity to work as part of an enthusiastic office team.
D. I would be glad if you would consider my qualification for the position you advertised.
E. I feel that this provides sufficient evidence of my commitment to post involving the
environment.

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22. Look carefully!
1. Your address
2. Middle paragraph
3. Salutation
4. Signature
5. Opening paragraph
6. Complementary
7. Date
8. Closing paragraph
9. Company address
The correct order of an application letter is ........
A. 1 – 7 – 3 - 4 – 5 - 2 - 8 – 6– 9
B. 1 – 7 – 9 - 3 – 5 - 6 - 2 – 8 – 9
C. 1 – 2 – 3 - 4 – 5 - 6 - 7 – 8 – 9
D. 1 – 7 – 9 - 3 – 5 - 2 - 8 – 6 – 4
E. 1 – 7 – 9 - 4 – 5 - 2 - 7 – 8 – 3

Text 3: The following text is for questions 23 to 25.

Long, long ago, when the gods and goddesses used to mingle in the affairs of mortals, there
was a small kingdom on the slope of Mount Wayang in West Java. The King, named Sang Prabu,
was a wise man. He had an only daughter, called Princess Teja Nirmala, who was famous for her
beauty but she was not married. One day Sang Prabu made up his mind to settle the matter by a
show of strength.
After that, Prince of Blambangan, named Raden Begawan had won the competition.
Unfortunately, the wicked fairy, Princess Segara fell in love with Raden Begawan and used magic
power to render him unconscious and he forgot his wedding. When Sang Prabu was searching,
Raden Begawan saw him and soon realized that he had been enchanted by the wicked fairy. The
fairy could not accept this, so she killed Raden Begawan. When Princess Teja Nirmala heard this,
she was very sad. So a nice fairy took her to the Kahyangan.

23. So a nice fairy took her to the Kahyangan. (Paragraph 2) The word her in the sentence refers
to…
A. The wicked fairy
B. The nice fairy
C. Princess Teja Nirmala
D. Raden Begawan
E. The prince of Blambangan

24. The similarity between fairy and human according to the text.
A. The place they live
B. The jealousy that they posses
C. The way they don’t feel a love
D. The strength they have
E. Their life that is immortal

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25. What do you think will happen if gods or goddesses cannot mingle in the affairs of people in
the earth at that time?
A. Princess Segara will not have married with Raden Begawan
B. Sang Prabu will not hold strength competition.
C. Raden Begawan will not be married.
D. Teja Nirmala will stay in the Kahyangan.
E. Wicked Fairy will not take Raden Begawan’s life.

Text 4: The following text is for questions 26 to 28.

Natural Bridge National Park is luscious tropical rainforest.

It is located 110 kilometers from south of Brisbane and is reached by following the Pacific Highway
to Nerang and then by travelling through the Numinbah Valley. This scenic roadway lies in the
shadow of Lamington National Park.
The phenomenon of the rock formed into a natural ‘arch’ and the cave through which a waterfall
cascades is a short one-kilometer walk below a dense rainforest canopy from the main picnic area.
Swimming is permitted in the rock pools. Night-time visitors to the cave will discover the unique
feature of the glow worms. Picnic areas offers toilets, barbeque, shelter sheds, water and fireplaces;
however, overnight camping is not permitted.

26. Where is the Natural Park located?

A. 110 kilometers from South of Brisbane
B. 110 kilometers from Pacific Highway
C. 110 kilometers from Numinbah Valley
D. 110 kilometers from Lamington National Park
E. 110 kilometers from Nerang

27. What is the communicative purpose of the text?

A. to present two points of views about natural bridge national park
B. to explain the bridge national park
C. to describe the bridge national park in particular
D. to retell the bridge national park
E. to persuade readers to treat preserve the bridge national park

28. The word ‘luscious’ in the text means………..

A. Succulent
B. Dense
C. Dull
D. Dry
E. Clogged

Text 5: Read the following text to answer questions number 29 and 30!

Soft and sweet, a state of bliss

Our mommy-to be is expecting a girl
Let’s shower Lianty Zahira with love
Friday, March 1st, 2019
At 4 p.m.

RSVP by March 1st, 2019-3-1

Candra– 083855576876

TPUN 2 BAHASA INGGRIS 12 SMA PRIMAGAMA – 8

29. From the text we can infer that ….
A. Lianty Zahira is going to deliver a baby
B. The party will be held in the morning
C. Lianty Zahira has delivered a baby boy
D. Lianty Zahira is a mother to be
E. The party will be on Saturday noon.

30. Rachel has taken a Spanish course.

The Passive construction is ….
A. Rachel has been taken a Spanish course
B. A Spanish course taken by Rachel
C. A Spanish course has been taken by Rachel
D. Spanish courses have taken by Rachel
E. A Spanish course will be taken by Rachel

31. Arina said Riono, “May I borrow your worksheet tomorrow?”. What did Arina say to Riono…
A. Arina said Riono to borrow her worksheet tomorrow
B. Arina said Riono if/whether he might borrow her worksheet the following day
C. Arina said Riono whether she might borrow her worksheet the following day
D. Arina said Riono to borrow her worksheet the following day
E. Arina said Riono if/whether she might borrow her worksheet the following day

Text 6: Read the following text to answer questions number 32 to 34!

Diana was born in 1961 as the third daughter of Edward John Spencer and his wife Ruth
Burke Roche. Diana grew up in a very privileged family that had a long history of close ties with
the royal family. When Diana’s paternal grandfather passed away in 1975, Diana’s father became
the 8th Earl of Spencer and Diana gained the title of “Lady”.
In 1969, Diana’s parents divorced. Her mother’s affair helped court decide to give custody
of the couple’s four children to Diana’s father. Both of her parents eventually remarried, but the
divorce left an emotional scar on Diana.
Diana attended school at West Heath in Kent and spent a short time a finishing school in
Switzerland. Although she was not an excellent student academically, her determined personality,
caring nature, and cheerful outlook helped her through it. After returning from Switzerland, Diana
rented an apartment with two friends, worked with children at the Young England Kindergarten,
and watched movies and visited restaurants in her free time.
It was about this time that Prince Charles, in his early 30, was under increasing pressure
to choose a wife. Diana’s vibrancy, cheerfulness, and good family background caught the attention
of Prince Charles and the two began dating during in mid-1980. It was a whirlwind romance for on
February 24, 1981, Buckingham Palace officially announces the couple’s engagement. At the time,
Lady Diana and Prince Charles seemed truly in love and whole world was awed by what seemed
like a fairytale romance.

32. The custody of the couple’s four children was given to Diana’s father because…….
A. her outlook was cheerful
B. her mother had an affair
C. she determined her personality
D. she had her very privileged family
E. her paternal grandfather was dead

33. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about Diana Spencer?
A. Diana’s father became the 8th Earl of Spencer
B. In 1969, Diana’s parents divorced
C. Prince Charles was under increasing pressure to choose a wife
D. Lady Diana and Prince Charles were not truly in love and dislike a fairytale.
E. Diana attended school at West Heath in Kent

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34. We found in the text that ....
A. Diana attended school at West Heath in Kent and spent a long time a finishing school
academy.
B. Diana’s parents were still together.
C. Diana worked with children at the Young England Kindergarten.
D. Prince Charles was under 30 years and ready to marry someone
E. Lady Diana and Prince Charles didn’t seem truly in love and whole world.

Text 7: Read the following text to answer questions number 35 and 37!

The polar bear is a very big white bear. We call it the polar bear because it lives inside the Arctic
Circle near the North Pole. The are no polar bear at the South Pole.
The polar bears live in the North Pole. The is only snow, ice and water. The is not any land.
These bears are three meters long and weight 450 kilos. They can stand up on their back legs
because they have very wide feet. They can use their front legs like arms. The polar bears can
swim very well. They can swim 120 kilometers out into the water. They catch fish and sea animals
for food. They go into the sea when they are afraid.
People like to kill the polar bears for their beautiful white coats. The government of Canada,
The United States, and Russia say that no one can kill polar bears now. They do not want all of
these beautiful animals to die.

35. What is the main idea of the last paragraph?

A. Polar bears are very big animals
B. The polar bears are tame animals
C. Polar bears live at the North Pole
D. There are no polar bears at the South Pole
E. Polar bears are hunted because of the beautiful white coats.

36. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about a polar bear?
A. A polar bear can swim 120 kilometers out into the water
B. A polar bear weighs 450 kilos
C. A polar bear is three meters long
D. A polar bear catches fish for food
E. A polar bear goes into the sea when it is angry

37. What does the passage mainly discus?

A. The size of polar bear
B. Where polar bears live
C. A brief description of polar bears
D. The habitats of polar bears.
E. Why people hunt polar bears

How to grow potted gerbera daisies indoors

1. Fertilize the plant monthly during growing periods.

2. Choose a container with good drainage.
3. Fill the container with the light potting mix.
4. Dig up the daisies from the garden.
5. Deadhead old blooms.
6. Plant the daisy in the pot.
7. Water the plant every 3 to 5 days.
8. Place the pot where it will get morning sun.
Adapted from http://www.wikihow.com

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38. Arrange the sentences above based on the appropriate procedural text….
A. 2 – 3 – 4 – 6 – 7 – 5 – 1 – 8
B. 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6 – 7 – 8 – 1
C. 2 – 3 – 4 – 6 – 7 – 8 – 1 – 5
D. 2 – 4 – 3 – 6 – 7 – 8 – 1 – 5
E. 3 – 2 – 4 – 5 – 6 – 7 – 8 – 1

Text 8: The following text is for questions number 39 to 42.

Rian Powell
201 Dribble Drive
Hobart, IL 33456
Policy Number:
A987 8907 E08

Car Description:

1997 Ford Escort

Enclosed is your latest dividend check. Since Battelle’s claim costs continue to be less than
anticipated, our Board of Directors has authorized payment of this dividend on your auto insurance
policy.

If you have any questions about your auto policy, or about insurance for your home, life, or health,
please call me.
We are pleased to send you this dividend and to take this opportunity to thank you for selecting
Battelle as your insurer.

Sincerely,

Dannys Sullivan
Battelle Insurance Agent

39. What is the passage about?

A. a business letter
B. a business invitation
C. an association meeting
D. a ceremony conferences
E. an inauguration ceremony

40. For what insurance is the coverage on the above policy?

A. Life
B. Home
C. health.
D. education
E. automobile

41. What has Dannys Sullivan received from his insurance company?
A. a payment on a claim
B. a rebate on his payment
C. a bill for insurance coverage
D. a notice of his policy cancellation
E. a dividend checks

TPUN 2 BAHASA INGGRIS 12 SMA PRIMAGAMA – 11

42. “ … to take this opportunity to thank you …” (last paragraph)
The underlined word refers to ….
A. Profit
B. Notification
C. Chance
D. Payment
E. information

Text 9: Read the following text to answer questions number 43 and 45!

Plastic recycling is the process of recovering scrap or waste plastics and reprocessing the
material into useful products, sometimes completely different in form from their original state.
Typically, a plastic is not recycled into the same type of plastic, and products made from recycled
plastics are often not recyclable. When compared to other materials like glass and metal materials,
plastic polymers require greater processing to be recycled. Plastics have a low entropy of mixing,
which is due to the high molecular weight of their large polymer chains. When different types of
plastics are melted together they tend to phase-separate, like oil and water, and set in these layers.
For some waste plastics, technical devices called recycle bots enable a form of distributed recycling.
Preliminary life-cycle analysis (LCA) indicates that such distributed recycling of HDPE to make
filament of 3D printers in rural regions is energetically favorable to either using virgin resin or
conventional recycling processes because of reductions in transportation energy .
The question that remains is which types of plastics can be recycled by local recycling
centers. In many communities, not all types of plastics are accepted for sidewalk recycling collection
programs due to the high processing costs and complexity of the equipment required to recycle
certain materials. There is also sometimes a seemingly low demand for the recycled product
depending on a recycling center's proximity to entities seeking recycled materials. Another major
barrier is that the cost to recycle certain materials and the corresponding market price for those
materials sometimes does not present any opportunity for profit. The best example of this is
polystyrene (commonly called Styrofoam), although some communities, like Brookline,
Massachusetts, are moving toward banning the distribution of polystyrene containers by local food
and coffee businesses.

43. What is plastic recycling mean?

A. The process of how to make a bottle of plastic.
B. The process of recovering scrap or waste plastics and reprocessing the material into useful
product.
C. The way to collect plastics.
D. Step to selling plastics’ product.
E. low demand for the recycled product depending on a recycling center's

44. From the text, it can be concluded that ….

A. recycled product isn’t depending on a recycling center's proximity
B. polystyrene is moving toward banning the distribution of polystyrene containers
C. the process of how to make a ceramic of plastic from polystyrene.
D. the technical devices called recyclebots enable a form of distributed recycling.
E. banning the distribution of polystyrene containers by modern food and coffee businesses.

45. What makes recycled products are low in demands?

A. They do not seem to give profit to business owner.
B. The products are not aesthetically pleasing.
C. The customers are not sure towards the quality of recycled products.
D. The products are not widely available.
E. The price of the products is way too cheap.

TPUN 2 BAHASA INGGRIS 12 SMA PRIMAGAMA – 12

Text 10: Read the following text to answer questions number 46 and 47!

Nine traditional Balinese dances have been recognized as part of the world’s intangible
cultural heritage following a UNESCO session in Namibia on Wednesday. Balinese dances included
on the list were the Barong Ket, Joged Bumbung, Legong Keraton, Topeng Sidhakarya, Baris
Upacara, Sanghyang Dedari and Rejang dances, as well as the Wayang Wong and Gambuh dance
dramas.
"We are very pleased with the recognition; it enables Bali to receive protection in terms of
traditional dance preservation as well as economic benefits in the future," said Bali Cultural Agency
head Dewa Putu Beratha on Wednesday night as quoted by Antara news agency.
During the UNESCO session, Indonesia's proposal regarding the dances reportedly ranked
18th among a total of 35 countries. "The nine dances represent Balinese dance as a whole based
on their historical concept, function and style," said Dewa.
According to Dewa, the Rejang, Sanghyang Dedari and Baris Upacara dances represented
the Wali dance, which is usually performed during processions. Meanwhile, the Topeng Sidhakarya
dance and Gambuh and Wayang Wong dance dramas are part of the Bebali dance, known as a
semi-sacred and ceremonial dance. The Legong Keraton, Joged Bumbung and Barong Ket dances
are a representation of the Balih-Balihan dance that serves social and entertainment purposes.
The Wali dance is said to have originated between the eighth and 14th centuries. The
Bebali dance and Balih-Balihan dances are believed to have come from the 14th-19th century and
19th centuries, respectively.
"The community has actively played an important role in preserving these traditional
dances, especially the Wali dance. Meanwhile, the Bali provincial administration and its city and
regency administrations should increase their role in preserving the Bebali and Balih-Balihan dances
during tourist events," said Dewa.

46. What is the main idea of the text?

A. UNESCO recognises nine Balinese dances.
B. Nine Balinese dances are the part of the world’s cultural heritages.
C. Bali receives recognising on the local dances from UNESCO.
D. Nine Balinese dances represent Balinese dances.
E. Balinese community play an important role in preserving their traditional dances.

47. Which statement that supports the text?

A. The Bebali dance is believed originated in 19th century.
B. The Balih-Balihan dance is said to have come from the 14th-19th century.
C. The nine Balinese dances represent the culture and life of its community.
D. Indonesia’s proposal regarding the dances ranked well among the 35 countries.
E. The UNESCO recognition on the nine Balinese dances will be economically beneficial for
Bali.

Text 11: Read the following text to answer questions number 48 and 50!

As known, a cell phone is a great gadget in this modern world. A cell phone is actually a
radio in certain way. We can communicate to other people with a cell phone in real time. Million
people use cell phone for their communication. Even nowadays, people use cell phones to
communicate in voice, written and data.
In this era, Alexander Graham Bell was a person made great change in way people
communicate to each other. He invented a telephone in 1876 while wireless radio was formally
known in 1894 presented by Guglielmo Marconi. By the two technologies, then a cell phone was
invented and launched.
Moreover, a cell phone work is really wonderful. A cell phone or cellular phone works by
transmitting signal of radio to towers of cellular. The towers are networked to a central switching
station. The connection usually uses wire, fiber optic-cables, or microwave.

TPUN 2 BAHASA INGGRIS 12 SMA PRIMAGAMA – 13

 In addition, the central switching station handling calls in certain given area is directed
connecting to the wire-based telephone system. Cellular phones are picked up by the towers and
related to another cellular telephone user or the user of wire-based telephone network.
Furthermore, the tower varies in the capacity, and the capacity receives signals. Some can
receive the signal from short distances and the others can receive more distances. However, there
are usually more than one tower in a certain given area so that the system can handle the increasing
telephone traffic.

48. What does the writer mainly report in the text above?
A. The history of a cell phone invention
B. The story of Alexander Graham Bell
C. A cell phone as a tool of communication
D. The importance of cell phone for people nowadays
E. A cell phone as a medium of communication and gaining knowledge

49. Why are there more than one tower in a certain given area?
A. The tower can receive the signal from distances
B. The increasing telephone traffic can be handled by the system
C. Tower is directed connected to the wire-base d telephone system
D. The tower varies in the capacity and the capacity to receive signal
E. The connection usually uses wire, fiber optic-cables, or microwave.

50. What is the main idea of the second paragraph?

A. Alexander made great change of communication.
B. Alexander found two technologies.
C. Marconi invented wireless radio.
D. Marconi launched a cell phone.
E. Alexander invented a telephone.

TPUN 2 BAHASA INGGRIS 12 SMA PRIMAGAMA – 14