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1.

The velocity of projection of a body is increased by 2% other factors remaining unchanged,


what will be the percentage gained in maximum height gained?

A.

1%
B.

2%
C.

4%

D.

8%
Explanation:
Formula:Formula: h=v22gh=v22g Solution:Solution: Other factors remaining unchanged, h
is directly proportional to v2v2 i.e h∝v2h∝v2 When v is increased by 2%, h will will be
increased by 4%.
2. A car is having mass of 100 kg and frictional force applied to it is 200 N. When the car is
moving with the velocity of 20 m/sec what would be the power applied.

A.

24 KW
B.

4 KW
C.

20 KW
D.

4000 KW
Explanation:
Power applied is given by, P = Frictional force ×× velocity = 200 ×× 20 = 4000 Watt = 4 KW

3. Ice skaters use the principle of conservation of

A.

angular momentum

B.

inertia
C.

moment of inertia
D.

radius of gyration
Explanation:
Angular momentum characterizes an object's resistance to change in rotation. The basic idea is
the same as with linear momentum: moving things like to keep moving, and to change their
motion we have to apply a force. If no force is present, then momentum doesn't change, ie. it is
conserved. In the case of rotation, the force is called torque: when, for example, you pull the
string on a top, you are applying a torque to make it speed up. Its angular momentum increases.
It slows down after being released due to frictional torque. A spinning figure skater has a nearly
friction-less contact with the ice, and there is little net torque on her body. Her angular
momentum is nearly conserved.

4. The escape velocity of Moon of mass 7.2 * 10171017 and radius 17∗10617∗106km is

A.

1.2 km/s
B.

2.4 km/s

C.

11.2 km/s
D.

4.8 km/s
Explanation:
Formula:Formula: VeVe = 2GMR−−−−√2GMR; where M=mass of moon and R = radius of
moon. Solution:Solution: VeVe = 2GMR−−−−√2GMR
=2∗6.67∗10−11∗7.2∗101717∗106−−−−−−−−−−−−−√2∗6.67∗10−11∗7.2∗101717∗106 =2.37 km/s
=2.4 km/s Related:Related: 1. Escape velocity is the speed at which the sum of an object's
kinetic energy and its gravitational potential energy is equal to zero. 2. It is the speed needed to
"break free" from the gravitational attraction of a massive body, without further propulsion, i.e.,
without spending more propellant.
5. When a big drop splits into number of small drops then its total

A.
volume increases
B.

volume decreases
C.

surface area decreases


D.

surface area increases


Explanation:
In this case volume is conserved ( constant ) If the drops splits in Isothermal condition then area
remains conserved.

6. A metal X of mass m at 0o0oC is placed in contact with a metal Y of mass of 2m


at 100o100oC. If the ratio of the specific heat capacity of X to Y is 8, the final equilibrium
temperature of the block is

A.

20o20oC

B.

25o25oC
C.

50o50oC
D.

75o75oC
Explanation:
Heat lost= heat gain or, mysy(100−θ)=mxsxθysy(100−θ)=mxsxθ
or,2m(100−θ)=m(SxSy)θ(100−θ)=m(SxSy)θ or,2(100−θ)=8θ(100−θ)=8θ or,
θ=20oCθ=20oC
7. In the case of adiabatic expansions i)Pressure decreases ii)Internal energy decreases iii)There
is transfer of heat

A.

i) is correct
B.

ii) is correct
C.

i) and ii) are both correct

D.

None
Explanation:
In adiabatic process ,△△Q=0 But pressure decreases or increases. decreases or increases.

8. Two stars A and B radiate maximum energy of wave length of 3600 λλ and
4800λλ respectively.Then ratio of absolute temperature of A and B is

A.
4:3

B.

3:4
C.

256 :81
D.

81 : 256
Explanation:
Formula:Formula: Wein's law is λ∝1Tλ∝1T Solution:Solution: TATBTATB = 4:3
Related:Related: Wein's law is valid of short wave length. Blue star is hotter while red star is
colder.
9. A sonometer wire of length 1 m is stretched by 4 kg. Another wire of same material and
diameter is stretched by 16kg. The length of second wire whose second harmonic is same as fifth
harmonic of first is

A.

40 cm
B.

50 cm
C.
70 cm
D.

80 cm

10. What is the loudness of the sound wave whose intensity is 10−9Wm−210−9Wm−2?

A.

10 dB
B.

20 dB
C.

30 dB

D.

100 dB
Explanation:
Formula:Formula: Loudness , L = 10log10II010log10II0; where I0I0 and I2I2 are intensity at
two different points. Solution:Solution: Loudness is given by, L =
10log10II0=10log1010−910−1210log10II0=10log1010−910−12 = 10×310×3 = 30 dB
Related:Related: Loudness of sound is measured in Decibel. Here, I0I0 is the threshold of
hearing and taken 10−12W/m210−12W/m2

11. The image, of a virtual object, produced by a convex mirror is


A.

inverted
B.

diminished
C.

virtual
D.

real
Explanation:
Convex mirror always form a virtual image as light reflected from a convex mirror is always
diverging. And for virtual object, light will be converged to give real image.
12. Which method is used to measure the speed of light accurately?

A.

Fizeau's method
B.

Focault's method
C.
Michelson's method

D.

None of these
Explanation:
* Arrange these methods in the form of developmental history 1. Fizzeaw method 2. Focault's
method 3. Michelson's method * Michelsons method is the latest and most widely used method
to measure the velocity of light C = 8 mnd
13. If electron ,proton , neutron and alpha particle are deflected in the same electric field with
same velocity.What will be the deflection in them ?

A.

Proton less than electron


B.

Proton more than alpha particle


C.

Electron more than alpha particle


D.

All of the above.


Explanation:
Solution:Solution: Deflection in electric field is given by y =
12at2=12∗qEm∗(vD)212at2=12∗qEm∗(vD)2 y∝qmy∝qm or ye>yp>y∝>ynye>yp>y∝>yn
Hence option (a)(b) and (c) are all correct
14. On penetrating a uniform charged sphere, the electrical field strength E
A.

remains unchanged
B.

decreases
C.

increases
D.

is zero at all points


Explanation:
--> Electric field inside a charged sphere is zero. --> The whole charge is concentrated on the
surface of sphere. --> But potential is uniform inside sphere and surface.
15. A galvanometer having a resistance of 9 ohms is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 ohms. If
the total current is lamp, the part of it passing through the shunt will be.

A.

0.2amp
B.

0.5amp

C.
0.25amp
D.

0.5amp
Explanation:
- Shunt and galvanometer are in parallel combination. 1Req=1G+1S=19+121Req=1G+1S=19+12
=Req=1811ΩReq=1811Ω from ohm's law, V=IReqReq =1
×1811×2=911≈0.8Amp×1811×2=911≈0.8Amp
16. Sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer can be increased by decreasing

A.

number of turns in coil


B.

area of coil
C.

magnetic field
D.

couple per unit twist of suspension


Explanation:
Sensitivity = nBA/k Hence one can increase n, B or A or all of them and decrease k (this is
theory). Well for a fixed sized frame of a moving coil galvanometer, i hope the only practical
way you can increase the current sensitivity is by" 1. increasing n (NUMBER OF WINDINGS
OF COIL) or 2. increase in B (strength of fixed magnet).
17. The radius of electron's in second stationary orbit in Bohr's atom is R. The radius of third
orbit will be

A.

3R/12
B.

2.25 R

C.

9R
D.

R/3
Explanation:
We have, r ∞∞ n2n2 Now, r2r3=2232r2r3=2232 or, r3=r2.94=R∗943=r2.94=R∗94 = 2.25 R

18. The de Broglie wavelength of αα - particle accelerated by 'V' volt

A.

0.287v√Ao0.287vAo

B.

12.27v√Ao12.27vAo

C.
0.101v√Ao0.101vAo

D.

0.202v√Ao0.202vAo
Explanation:
Formula:Formula: From de Broglie principle, λλ = h2meV√h2meV; where h=plank constant,
m=mass, e = charge and V = potential difference. Solution:Solution: Put h = 6.62 *
10−3410−34 Js m = 9.1 * 10−3110−31 kg, e = 1.6 * 10−1910−19 C λλ = 12.27V√Ao12.27VAo
Related:Related: 1. Alpha particles consist of two protons and two neutrons bound together
into a particle identical to a helium nucleus. 2.They are generally produced in the process of
alpha decay, but may also be produced in other ways.
19. Gallium Arsenide (Ga - As ) is

A.

used in laser light production


B.

used in preparation of diode of computer


C.

is electronic with germanium


D.

all
Explanation:
. Ga- As is n-type of semiconductor used in preparation of diode, rectifier, oscillator computer
chip etc.
20. If the forward voltage in a diode is increased the length of depletion layer will :

A.

Increases randomly
B.

Increase proportionately with applied voltage


C.

Increase ten times the ratio of applied voltage


D.

None of the above


Explanation:
.. In forward biasing the depletion layer decreases where as it increases in reverse biasing. .. In
reverse bias depletion layer offers more resistance and it is negligible in forward biasing.
21. The atomic wt of Copper is 63.5. Its equivalent weight in the
reaction 2CuSO4+4KI→2CuI+I2+2K2SO42CuSO4+4KI→2CuI+I2+2K2SO4 is

A.

63.5

B.
137
C.

31.8
D.

35
Explanation:
Formula:Formula: Equivalent weight = Atomic weightChange in oxidation no.Atomic
weightChange in oxidation no. Solution:Solution: Oxidation no. of Cu in CuSO4CuSO4 = +2
Oxidation no. of Cu in CuI = +1 Change in oxidation no = +2 - (+1) = 1 Equivalent weight =
Atomic weightChange in oxidation no.=63.51Atomic weightChange in oxidation no.=63.51 = 63.5
Related:Related: - Equivalent wt. of acid = Molecular weightBasicityMolecular weightBasicity -
Equivalent wt. of salt = Molecular weightTotal no. of positive charges on cationMolecular weightTotal
no. of positive charges on cation
22. Milk is :

A.

Heterogenous mixture containing particles of diameter 1 - 100nm

B.

Homogenous solution containing solute particles of diameter less than 1nm


C.

Homogenous solution containing solute particles of diameter above 100nm


D.
Heterogenous mixture containing particles of diameter above 100nm
Explanation:
. Milk is emulsion of liquid and liquid as dispersed phase and dispersed medium medium
respectively. . Other examples of emulsion are milk, cream , ice - cream etc. . Milk is a type of
colloidal/ heterogenous mixture.
23. The maximum number of electrons present in a 4f orbital is

A.

B.

6
C.

10
D.

14
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: This is trick question. The maximum no. of electrons in an orbital is 2
regardless of if its s, p, d or f. Related:Related: The simple answer is a shell can contain
2n22n2 electrons where n = the shell number. A subshell can contain up to 4l + 2 electrons.
Shell = maximum electron capacity s = 2(1)22(1)2 = 2 p = 2(2)22(2)2= 8 d = 2(3)22(3)2= 18 f
= 2(4)22(4)2 = 32

24. Radioactive disintegration of 238U92238U92 by loss of an alpha particle gives

A.
234Th90234Th90

B.

234Pa91234Pa91

C.

234U92234U92

D.

234Th92234Th92
Explanation:
-> After loss of an alpha particle Ayx→Axy→ a42a24 + B y−4x−2x−2y−4 B y−4x−2x−2y−4 = B
238−492−292−2238−4 = B 2349090234 ∴∴ Th2349090234 is the answer -> ββ - particle ->
βx+1βx+1
25. Transition element generally forms coordination compound due to

A.

Completely filled d-orbitals


B.

Incompletely filled d-orbitals

C.
Half filled d-orbitals
D.

None
Explanation:
* Transition element generally forms coordination compounds due to incompletely filled d-
orbitals. * Transition element are paramagnetic. * The number of unidentate ligands in the
complex ions is called coordination number. * Methyl lithium halide is an organometallic
compound. * The unpaired electron is Ni(CO)44 is zero. * The correct structure of Fe(CO)55 is
trigonal bipyramidal. * Turnbull’e blue is ferrous ferrocyanide. * According to Lewis, the
ligands are basic in nature. * The IUPAC name of K33 [Fe(CN)66] is potassium
hexacyanoferrate (III) * NO−22− can precipitate in linkage isomerism.
26. Which of the following shows variable valency?

A.

Typical elements
B.

Normal elements
C.

Transitional elements

D.

S-block elements
Explanation:
Typical elements - Elements of 3rd period Normal elements - s-block and p-block elements
Transitional elements - d-block elements Transitional elements have variable valency because of
variable oxidation state of elements. This occurs because they have unfilled d-orbital but filled s-
orbital so electrons move from one s orbital to d orbital causing variable valency
27. Which has the smallest size ?

A.

Na++
B.

Mg2−2−
C.

Al3+3+
D.

P5+5+
Explanation:
Due to greater effective nuclear charge.
28. For which of the following molecules would the VSEPR theory predict a pyramidal structure

A.

BeF22
B.

CH44
C.
BF33
D.

NH33
Explanation:
VSEPR - valance shell electron pair repulsion theory - In every compound there is a central atom
around which other peripheral atoms are present. - There are electron pairs around central atom
which may be lone pair or bond pair. - Geometry of compound depends upon no. of electron
pairs. - Structure depends upon the arrangement of bond pairs. bp - bp bp - lp lp - lp Repulsion <
Repulsion < Repulsion - In case of BeF22 There are two bonds. For minimum repulsion angle
between these bond is 180oo and its structure is linear. - In case of CH44 There are four bond
pairs. For minimum repulsion angle between these bond is 109.5oo and its structure is
tetrahedral. - In case of BF33 There are three bond pairs. For minimum repulsion angle between
these bond is 120oo and its structure is trigonal. - In case of NH33 There are 1 lone pair and 3
bond pair. So, its geometry is tetrahedral. But lone pair doesn't give its structure & its structure is
given by 3 bond pair by pyramidal structure.

29. 100 ml of 0.5 MH2SO4MH2SO4 solution and 0.1 liter of 1 M HCl were mixed. The
normaity of the resulting solution will be

A.

1.5 N
B.

0.75 N
C.

2.0 N
D.
1N
Explanation:
N1N1 = 2 ×× 0.5 = 1 N V1V1 = 100 ml N2N2 = 1 N V2V2 = 0.1/100 ml We have, N =
N1V1+N2V2V1+V2N1V1+N2V2V1+V2 = 1×100+1×100100+1001×100+1×100100+100 =
200200200200 = 1 N

30. In the reaction NH 33 + H 22 O ⇋⇋ NH 44 ++ + OH −− ,which of the following constitutes


conjugate acid base pair?

A.

NH 33 and H 22 O
B.

NH 44 ++ and OH −−
C.

H 22 O and OH −−

D.

NH 33 and OH −−
Explanation:
In the reaction, NH3NH3 acts as a base and H2OH2O as an acid. Remember - The acid will
give a ptoyon away and the base will receive the proton. So, H2OH2O donates one proton (H)
to form OH−OH− and OH−OH− becomes conjugate base of H2OH2O.

31. Ionization constant of acetic acid is 1.82×10−51.82×10−5. The degree of ionization for 0.1
M acetic acid is
A.

0.135%
B.

1.35%

C.

1.82%
D.

18.2%
Explanation:
K=Cα2K=Cα2 [From Oswald dilution law] ∴α∴α = KC−−√=KV−−−√KC=KV ['C' is
concentration Whereas 'V' is dilution] α=KC−−√α=KC = 1.82∗10−50.1−−−−−−√1.82∗10−50.1
= 1.82∗10−4−−−−−−−−−√1.82∗10−4 = 1.351001.35100 = 1.35 %

32. When 1.5 faraday is passed through NiCl2NiCl2 solution during electrolysis no. of gram
equivalent of Nickel found.

A.

1.5

B.

3
C.
1
D.

0
Explanation:
. 1 Faraday of electricity always deposits one grams equivalent of the substance. In the problem,
1.5 faradays deposts 1.5 gm eqivalents of the Ni.
33. Given that Na++ + e= Na; E = -2.71 V and Al3+3+ + 3e = Al;E = -1.66 V. Which one is the
strongest reducing agent?

A.

Na

B.

Na++
C.

Al3+3+
D.

Al
Explanation:
* Reduction potential of Na is lower than Al. So Na oxidises easily in comparison to Al, So Na is
strongest reducing agent.
34. Which of the following equtions is not correct?
A.

△G=△H−T△S△G=△H−T△S
B.

△H=△E+P△V△H=△E+P△V
C.

△E=q−P△V△E=q−P△V
D.

△S=△H/△T△S=△H/△T
Explanation:
⧫⧫ Entropy is the measure of unavailable energy at specific temperature, not for range of
temperature. So, △S=△HT△S=△HT ⧫⧫ Increase in randomness favours a spontaneous change.
⧫⧫ Greater is the randomness, greater is its entropy. ⧫⧫ Entropy is a state function. ⧫⧫ A process
accompanied by an increase in entropy tends to be spontaneous.
35. A catalyst accelerates the reaction because

A.

it increases activation energy


B.

it forms complex with one of the reactant


C.
it lowers the activation energy

D.

it brings the reactant close


Explanation:
Activation energy is the minimum energy that must be input to a chemical system with potential
reactants to cause a chemical reaction. It is important to note that a catalyst increases the rate of
reaction without being consumed by it. In addition, while the catalyst lowers the activation
energy, it does not change the energies of the original reactants or products. Rather, the reactant
energy and the product energy remain the same and only the activation energy is altered
36. Which of this Cannot give N 22 gas on heating?

A.

(NH 44 ) 22 CO 33

B.

(NH 44 ) 22 Cr 22 O 77
C.

NaN 33
D.

NH 44 NO 22

37. The gas obtained after passing conc. HClHCl into KMnO4KMnO4 is passed hot and con.
Sodium hydroxide, the product obtained is
A.

sodium chloride + sodium chlorate + water

B.

sodium chloride + sodium hypochlorite + water


C.

sodium chloride + sodium hypochlorate + water


D.

sodium chloride + sodium hypochlorous


Explanation:
The gas after passing concentrated HClHCl to KMnO4KMnO4 is Cl2Cl2 gas. Now, 3Cl2Cl2
+ hot and conc. 6NaOH⇒5NaCl+NaClO3+2H2O6NaOH⇒5NaCl+NaClO3+2H2O
sodium chloride + sodium chlorate + water
38. The glass used in optical instrument is

A.

silica
B.

pyrex
C.
flint

D.

soda
Explanation:
Flint glass is a mixture of K and Pb used to manufacture optical instrument. Silica is a raw
material for manufacturing ordinary glass Soda glass is a soft glass that consists of sodium
carbonate, limestone and sand used for windowpanes, and glass containers (bottles and jars) for
beverages, food, and some commodity items. Pyrex glass is a mixture of sodium aluminium
borosilicates that can withstand sudden temperature changes.
39. The froth floatation process is used for the concentration of

A.

halide ores
B.

oxide ores
C.

phosphate ores
D.

sulphide ores
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: Concentration of ore Forth floatation process : For sulphide ore Gravity
separation process : For oxide, carbonate, bicarbonate, hydroxide and hydrated ores.
Related:Related: Magnetic separation process is used for separation of magnetic impurities
from non-magnetic ore (ore vice versa).
40. The flux used during extraction of copper from copper pyrite is

A.

CaO
B.

MgO
C.

SiO 22

D.

P 22 O 55
Explanation:
2FeS + 3O23O2 →→ 2FeO + 2SO22SO2 FeO + SiO2SiO2 (flux) →→ FeSiO3FeSiO3

41. A gas formed by roasting of iron pyrite can be catalytically oxidized using

A.

Fe
B.

Ni
C.

Rh
D.

Pt
Explanation:
The gas thus formed is SO2SO2 which is oxidized using Pt in process of manufacture of
H2SO4H2SO4 by contact process.
42. The non reactivity of chlorine in CH2=CH−ClCH2=CH−Cl is due to

A.

inductive effect
B.

resonance stabilization

C.

electromeric effect
D.

dipole moment
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: Resonance or mesomeric effect is the delocalization of pi electrons in
conjugate system (alternate double and single bond) such as in CH2=CH−ClCH2=CH−Cl .
This gives the stability and causes non reactivity.
43. Aromatic acidic hydrocarbon among the following is

A.

Phenol

B.

Carboxylic acid
C.

methanol
D.

acetaldehyde
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: Phenol is acidic in nature because it gives H3O+H3O+ ion in water.
C6H5−OHC6H5−OH(phenol) + H2O⇌C6H5O−+H3O+H2O⇌C6H5O−+H3O+ Acidic
nature of phenol is also shown as
C6H5−OH+Na→C6H5ONa+1/2H+C6H5−OH+Na→C6H5ONa+1/2H+
Related:Related: The acidic strength shows the following order: Carboxylic Acid > Phenols >
Alcohols

44. Sulphonation of benzene ring using fuming H2SO4H2SO4 gives

A.

Benzene suiphonic acid


B.

p - Benzene disulphonic acid


C.

o - Benzene disuiphonic acid


D.

m - Benzene sulphonic acid


Explanation:
Sulphonation of benzene ring using fuming H2SO4H2SO4 gives Benzene suiphonic acid
C6H6+conc.H2SO4→C6H5SO3HC6H6+conc.H2SO4→C6H5SO3H.
45. Traces of water of ethanol is removed by

A.

conc. H2SO4H2SO4
B.

CaCl22(anhydrous)
C.

CaO

D.
Ca(OH)22
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: CaO is used to dry traces of water in ethanol Related:Related: Ammonia
is dried over CaO. Suspension of magnesia (MgO) is used to dry H22S. P2O5P2O5 is used to
dry mostly acidic compound like CH33COOH etc.
46. Phenol & formaldehyde results to form

A.

Bakelite

B.

Phenolpthalein
C.

urotropine
D.

None
Explanation:
C6H5OH+HCHO−→−−−−−H+orOH−C6H5OH+HCHO→H+orOH− Bakellite Phenol
Formaldehyde HCHO+NH3−→△(CH2)6N4HCHO+NH3→△(CH2)6N4 formaldehyde
Hexamothylena tetramine or Urotropene (used as urinary antiseptic) C6H5OH+C6H5OH+
−→−−−−−−Conc.H2So4→Conc.H2So4 Phenol Pthalic anhydride Phenolpthalein
47. The gas obtained on treating ethylchloride with alc. KOH undergoes ozonolysis followed by
reaction with H2O/ZnH2O/Zn dust and H2OH2O. The final product is

A.
Formaldehyde

B.

Ethylene glycol
C.

Oxalic acid
D.

epoxyethane
Explanation:
The gas obtained on treating ethylchioride with alc. KOH gives ethene and
CH2=CH2+O3−→−−−−H2O/Zn2HCHO+H2OCH2=CH2+O3→H2O/Zn2HCHO+H2O
formaldehyde So, formaldehyde is formed.
48. The addition of HCN to a carboxyl compound is an example of

A.

nucleophilic substitution
B.

electrophilic addition
C.

nucleophilic addition
D.

electrophilic substitution
Explanation:
The carbon-oxygen double bond is highly polar, and the slightly positive carbon atom is attacked
by the cyanide ion acting as a nucleophile.

49. Which of the following is the most basic compound?

A.

acetanilide
B.

P-nitro aniline
C.

benzylamine

D.

aniline
Explanation:
The basicity of compound depends upon the strength to donate the lone pair of electrons. Aryl
alkyl amines i.e. amines with both aryl and alkyl group (eg benzyl amine) is more basic than
aniline because the lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom in benzyl amines cannot delocalize to
benzene ring and can be easily donated but in aniline it involves in resonance.
50. Cane sugar becomes black on the treatment with conc. sulphuric acid due to:

A.

oxidation
B.

Hydrolysis
C.

Dehydration

D.

Hydration
Explanation:
Cane sugar becomes black on treatment with conc sulphuric acid which is called charring of
sugar.
C6H12O6+conc.H2SO4→6C+H2SO4+6H2OC6H12O6+conc.H2SO4→6C+H2SO4+6H
2O Black residue is of carbon. - Conc. H2SO4H2SO4, acts as oxidising agent, dehydrating
agent. - it is also used to remove moisture from different chemicals. - It cannot be used as
reducing agent because sulphur in H2SO4H2SO4,is at highest O.S. So it only acts as oxidizing
agent. - Those compound whose O.S is minimum can only act as reducing agent. - The
compound showing both oxidizing & reducing properties has intermediate os. Ex:
H2S+4O3→H2S+4O3→ only oxidizing agent H2S+6O4→H2S+6O4→ , both oxidizing a&
reducing agent H2S−22→H2S2−2→ only reducing agent

51. Keratinised dead layer of keratin is made up of ................. epithelium

A.

stratified squamous
B.

simple cuboidal
C.

simple columnar
D.

stratified columnar
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: - A stratified squamous epithelium consists of squamous (flattened)
epithelial cells arranged in layers upon a basal membrane. - Stratified squamous epithelium
include epidermis of the palm of the hand and sole of the foot, and the masticatory mucosa.
52. Creation of new taxa is focused in

A.

Macro evolution

B.

Symptaric speciation
C.

Theory of panagenesis
D.
Theory of special creation
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: - Macroevolution : Change that occurs at or above the level of species -
Sympatric speciation : Process through which new species evolve from a single ancestral species
while inhabiting the same geographic region. - Theory of Pangenesis : Charles Darwin proposed
this developmental theory of heredity. All cells in an organism are capable of shedding minute
particles he called gemmules, which are able to circulate throughout the body and finally
congregate in the gonads - Theory of special creation : Proposed by Hebrew et al, spiritual theory
53. Amphiblastula is the larva of

A.

Sponge

B.

Hydra
C.

Fasciola
D.

None
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: The characteristic larva of the Calcarea and of some members of the
Demospongiae (e.g., Oscarella), called an amphiblastula. Related:Related: The sponges differs
from other animals in having Collar cells. Nerve cells are not found.
54. Tracheal system of respiration is found in

A.
insects

B.

crayfish
C.

millipede
D.

spider
Explanation:
Trachea opens outside by opening called sterigmata/spiracles. Insects, Centipedes, Millipedes,
Ticks - Trachea
55. Structure and function of the kidney of frog suggest that they are:

A.

nephros type
B.

pronephros type
C.

mesonephros type

D.
metanephros type
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: - Kidneys are pronephric in tadpole and mesonephric in adult, not
differentiated into cortex and medulla and composed of uriniferous tubules/ nephrons. -
Metanephric kidney: Mammals (man, rabbit) - No. of nephron= 2000-2500 per kidney.
56. Oxygen is mainly carried by:

A.

Erythrocytes

B.

Plasma
C.

Granulocytes
D.

Lymphocytes
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: Erythrocytes (R.B.C.) contain haemoglobin (Hb) which is mainly
concerned for transportation of O2O2 and CO2CO2 gases. - 100 mL of blood carries 20 mL of
Oxygen. Related:Related: - 70% of CO2 is transported as bicarbonate. - 23% of CO2 is
transported by binding with Hb. - Chloride shift/Hamburger phenomenon : Exchange of chloride
of plasma with bicarbonate of RBC
57. Graffian follicles are found in:

A.
Testis
B.

Stomach
C.

Ovary

D.

Spleen
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: - Ovary is covered by a thin cubical epithelium called the germinal
epithelium. - Cortex region of ovary contains ovarian follicles. A fully matured follicle is called
Graffian follicle. - Graffian follicle secretes oocyte from Graffian follicle is known as ovulation.`
Related:Related: - Graffian follicles develops under influence of FSH of anterior pituitary. -
The empty ruptured follicle changes into corpus luteum.
58. The malarial parasite cause malaria. At which time maximum no. of malarial parasites can be
obtained from the body of patient

A.

At the time of rigor

B.

At the time of inoculation


C.
At any time
D.

5 hours after fever


Explanation:
--> Diagnostic period of plasmodium is shizogony in liver. --> Quinine (extracted from bark of
cinchona tree) use for treatment of malaria. --> Chill in fever is due to relese of haemozoin
pigment in blood.
59. A projection in the alimentary canal of earthworm that increases absorptive surface area is

A.

Villi
B.

typhlosole

C.

Gizzard
D.

Stomach
Explanation:
. In earth worm typhlosole presents in earthworm - 26th26th seg on wards post. typhlosole
presents in - last 25th25th segment

60. Which nephridia in earthworm is related to blood gland?


A.

septal nephridia
B.

pharyngeal nephridia

C.

integomentory nephridia
D.

all
Explanation:
The blood glands are located in the 4th, 5th and 6th segments. These blood glands produce blood
cells and hemoglobin. on the anterior part of the alimentary tube of certain species of earthworms
are found numerous minute spherical bodies either isolated or in small groups they have however
communication with the alimentary lumen but are connected with the blood vessels of this
region.
61. The hormones essential for regeneration, development of secondary sexual characters and
reproduction of earthworm are secreted by

A.

Cells in cerebral ganglia

B.

Chlorogen cells
C.

Globet cells
D.

Syphlozole
Explanation:
--> Chloragogen cells are also called liver cells of earthworm. --> Cells in cerebral ganglia
secrete the essential hormones for the regeneration, development of secondary sexual characters
and reproduction. --> Earthworm is protandrous, hermaphrodite. --> It breeds during night of
rainy season.
62. During hibernation, frog respires by

A.

Buccal Cavity
B.

Moist skin

C.

Pulmonary sac
D.

Buccopharyngeal cavity
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: During activation and inactivation, Frog lives in moist areas and exhibits
cutaneous respiration. It's metablic rate becomes low and energy required is obtained by the
oxidation of stored fats. Related:Related: - Cutaneous respiration: 30% occurs during
hibernation and aestivation. - Bucco-pharyngeal respiration : 50%,occurs when oxygen
requirement is less. during rest over land and while floating in water. - Pulmonary respiration:
65%, occurs when oxygen demand is high or the frog is more active as during swimming,
jumping.
63. How many teeth are found in the lower jaw of frog?

A.

No

B.

2
C.

3
D.

4
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: - Lower jaw of frog is devoid of teeth. - Upper jaw with semicircular row of
submarginal maxillary teeth and two patches of vomerine teeth in between internal nares and
bulging eyes. - Dentition: Homodont, acrodont and polyphyodont. Related:Related:

64. Septo- maxillary bones are present in the skull of:

A.

rabbit
B.
man
C.

rat
D.

frog
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: - Olfactory capsule of Frog contain 3 bones: i. Nasals (dorsally) ii. Vomers
(ventrally) iii. septomaxillaries (irregular/ infront). Related:Related: - There are two optic
capsules which enclose the eye balls but they are not attached to the cranium. - In the tadpole
stage the cranium is exclusively cartilaginous.
65. Cnemial crest is present in:

A.

tibia

B.

fibula
C.

radius
D.
ulna
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: - Cnemial crest : Tibia Related:Related: - Humerus : Tuberosities, Deltoid
ridge, coronoid fossa, olecranon fossa - Ulna : Olecranon process, sigmoid notch - Femur :
Trochanter - Pectoral girdle : Acromian process, Metacromian process, Coracoid process
66. In the rabbit

A.

Incisors are poorly developed


B.

RBCs are nucleated


C.

Clavicle is largest bone in pectoral girdle


D.

The corpus callosum is well developed


Explanation:
--> The corpous callosum is well developed. --> Largest bone of pectoral girdle is scapula. --> In
mammals RBC is anucleated except Llama & camel. --> Clavicle is also called beauty
bone/collar bone is first bone to be ossified.
67. Which of the following is bacterial disease

A.

TB
B.

Measles
C.

Rabies
D.

Scabies
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: Disease →→ Causative agent TB →→ Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Measles →→ Paramyxovirus (RNA virus) Rabies →→ Rhabdovirus (lyssa virus type I)/ Bullet
virus Scabies →→ Sarcoptes scabei (mite)

68. The cheek-bone in rabbit is the

A.

Lacrimal
B.

Zygomatic

C.

Maxilla
D.
Temporal
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: Cheek prominence is due to zygomatic arches. In rabbit, zygomatic arch is
formed by Maxilla, Jugal and squamosal.
69. Sigmoid notch in rabbit is found in

A.

Radio-ulna

B.

Tibio-fibula
C.

Femur
D.

Humerus
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: -Radius and ulna-possesses olecranon process and sigmoid notch.
Related:Related: -Tibia and fibula bears prominent cnemial crest near proximal end -Femur
contain trochanter -Humerus contain tuberosities, deltoid ridge, trochlea, coronoid fossa.
70. In rabbit, the presence of the odontoid process in the centrum is a characteristic of:

A.
atlas vertebrae
B.

typical cervical vertebrae


C.

axis vertebrae

D.

thoracic vertebrae
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: -2nd cervical vertebra is called Axis which has odontoid process(dens). It
forms atlantoaxial joint. Related:Related: - Odontoid process - Axis vertebrae - Coronoid
process - Dentary - Acromian process - pectoral girdle - Coracoid process = Scapula - Olecranon
process = Ulna
71. Which of the following is endocrine gland?

A.

salivary gland
B.

gall bladder
C.

gastric gland
D.

enzyme secreting part of pancrease


Explanation:
Solution:Solution: - Gastric gland is mixed gland i.e. both exocrine and endocrine:- - Chief
cell or peptic cell or zymogen cell = secrete enzymes - Argentaffin cells secrete hormone =
gastrin - Gall bladder is not any gland, only stores bile. - Salivary gland is an exocrine gland in
the mouth secreting saliva that contains enzyme 'Ptylin'.
72. The pituitary gland in human body is attached to the:

A.

Pineal stalk of Diencephalon


B.

Infundibulum of Diencephalon

C.

Optic lobe
D.

Olfactory lobe
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: - Pituitary gland is a master gland, develops from ectoderm which lies in
the pituitary fossa or sella turcica of the sphenoid bone and is attached to the infundibulum of
diencephalon. - Works under the control of hypothalamus. Related:Related: - Thyroid is a
butterfly-shaped gland situated at floor of tongue. - Parathyroid are 2 pairs, situated in posterior
surface of thyroid gland. - Adrenal glands are situated above kidneys. - Pineal gland is situated in
roof of 3rd ventricle. - Thymus gland is situated in front of heart in upper part of sternum.
73. Response of organisms to stimulus of touch is called:

A.

phototaxis
B.

thermotaxis
C.

hydrotaxis
D.

thigmotaxis
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: Thigmotaxis is the response of an organism to physical contact(e.g. rats
preferring to swim near the edge of a water maze). Related:Related: Hygrotaxis - Moisture
Rheotaxis - Air/water current Thermotaxis - Temperature
74. Anadromous fishes move from:

A.

Esturian water to sea


B.

Sea water to fresh water

C.
Sea water to sea water
D.

Fresh water to sea water


Explanation:
Solution:Solution: - Anadromous migrate from sea to fresh water (adults do not die) eg.
salmon, sea lamprey, Hilsa Related:Related: - Catadromous migrate from fresh water to
sea(Adults die after laying eggs)eg. European and American eels - Amphidromous migrate form
sea to fresh water or vice versa (NOT for breeding) eg, Gobies - Potamodromous migrate from
fresh water to fresh water eg. Carp, trout - Ocenodromous migrate from Sea to sea eg. Herrings,
tunas.
75. In ecological sense the desert animals are termed as

A.

arboreal
B.

benthos
C.

cursorial
D.

xerocles
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: - In ecological sense the desert animals are termed as xerocles.
76. Ontogony repeats phylogeny where ontogeny means:

A.

Life history of single organism

B.

Life history of ancestors


C.

Structuring according to development


D.

Evolutionary history of the race


Explanation:
* Ontogeny – life history of single organism. * Phylogeny – evolutionary history of organism. *
Haeckel proposed ‘The theory of recapitulation of biogenetic law ’ which states that ontogeny
repeats phylogeny. * The recapitulation theory means that the life history of an animal’s reflects
its evolutionary history. * The presence of gill clefts in vertebrate embryo provides strong
evidence in support of organic evolution. * Atavism is the sudden appearance of the ancestral
organs for e.g. functional nipple in male. * Vestigial organs were functional in ancestors but non-
functional in descendents E.G. muscles of ear pinna, mammary glands of male. * Analogous
organs have different origin but perform similar functions. E.g. wings of insects, birds and bats. *
Homologous organs have common origin but perform different functions. E.g. human hand and
wings of bird.
77. The relationship between comparable structure is called

A.

Homology
B.
Analogy
C.

Ontogeny

D.

Phylogeny
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: Ontogeny : The origin and development of an individual organism from
embryo to adult. Phylogeny : The history of the evolution of a species or group Homology is the
existence of shared ancestry between a pair of structures, or genes, in different species. Analogy :
Appear similar due to their adaptation for similar function but are very different in basic
structural and embryonic development Related:Related: - Ontogeny repeats phylogeny :
Proposed by Hackel
78. The fossil of Cro-magnon were discovered by:

A.

Fuhlrott
B.

Mac Gregor

C.

Gregor Mendel
D.
Wallace
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: Fulrott discovered fossil of neanderthal man in Neanderthal valley
(Germany). Wallace in correspondence with Charles Darwin wrote book 'Origin of species"
Related:Related: Homo habilis - By Leakey Java man/Pithecanthropous erectus - Java, China
by Eugene Dubois Peking man - By W.C.Pie Cro-Magnon - France by Mac Gregor
79. Type of cleavage in frog's zygote is

A.

Holoblastic and equal


B.

Holoblastic and unequal

C.

Meroblastic
D.

Diploblastic
Explanation:
Cleavage is the process of rapid mitotic divisions of zygote. Development of a fertilized egg
starts with cleavage. Unequal holoblastic cleavage occurs in mesolecithal or telolecithal type of
eggs which produce unequal sized blastomeres called micromeres & macromeres eg:
Amphibians (frog).
80. In gastrula, epiboly is characterized by

A.
rapid multiplication of megameres
B.

rapid multiplication of micromeres


C.

megameres spread over micromeres


D.

micromeres spread over megameres


Explanation:
Overgrowth (epiboly)- spreading of cells of animal half (micromeres) over those of the
vegetative half (megameres)
81. Mesosome which is unique characterstic of bacteria (prokaryote) is meant for

A.

reproduction
B.

excretion
C.

respiration
D.

digestion
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: -Mesosomes are folded invaginations in the plasma membrane of bacteria
into the cytoplasm in the form of convoluted tubules and vesicles. -Mesosomes on their surface
have respiration associated enzymes and thus help in respiration. -Mesosomes are known as the
mitochondria of prokaryotic cell. Related:Related: -Mesosomes are also thought to be involved
in DNA replication and equal division is cell material.
82. Prokaryotic cell structure is found in

A.

Chlamydomonas
B.

Nostoc

C.

Spirogyra
D.

Vaucheria
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: -Nostoc comes under Cyanophyceae /Myxophyceae /blue green algae. -All
blue green algae are prokaryotic in nature. Related:Related: Prokaryote cells have:- 1) False
nucleus / not organized nucleus i.e. nuclear membrane, nucleoplasm and nucleolus absent. Also
called incipient nucleus, or prokaryon or prochromose or diffused nucleoid. 2) Histone protein is
absent but has polyamine as the basic protein. 3) Intracellular compartment 4) DNA lies in
cytoplasm and is doble stranded, naked circular, non-repetitive, without histone and folded with
the help of RNA polyamine.
83. Pyrenoids are:

A.

protein surrounded by oil droplets


B.

starch surrounded by protein grains


C.

protein surrounded by starch grains

D.

starch surrounded by oil drops


Explanation:
* Pyrenoids are protein surrounded by starch grains and present in chloroplast of algae. *
Anthocerous primitive bryophyte also contains pyrenoids.
84. Which one of the following has stomata?

A.

Spores
B.

Foot
C.

Seta
D.

Apophysis
Explanation:
. Apophysis is the basal sterile part of capsule of funaria. . Stomata in apophysis are surrounded
by annular one cells. . Apophysis is assimilatory in function.
85. Which one of the following statements is not true for Cycas?

A.

presence of circinate vernation in foliage leaf


B.

presence of latex vessel

C.

presence of motile sperms


D.

Absence of vessels in xylem


Explanation:
cycas: . Circinate vernation, ramenta covering young leaves & multiciliate antherozoids →→
fern- like characters. . Absence of vessels - non porous wood. . Cycas have coralloid root,
Manoxylic or soft wood & polyxylic xylem . Germination is hypogeal with orthotropous ovule.
86. Epiphyllous buds of Bryophyllum serve the function of

A.

respiration
B.

protection
C.

photosynthesis
D.

reproduction
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: -Due to the presence of adventitious foliar buds or epiphyllous buds, leaves
of certain plants are capable of producing new plant through vegetative propagation. E.g:
Begonia, Bryophyllum -Fleshy leaves of Bryophyllum on their notches bear adventitious buds.
87. Which one of the following has no cotyledon but is placed in Dicot?

A.

Iberis
B.

Cascuta

C.
Opuntia
D.

Asparagus
Explanation:
Leaves of the embroyo are called cotyledons. Dicot plants with no cotyledon --> Cascuta,
Monotrapa Dicot plants with unequal cotyledon --> Trapa Dicot plant with several cotyledon -->
Loranthus Single shield- shaped cotyledon of monocot is called Scutellum.

88. Floral formula EBr ⊕ K(5) C(5) A5←→−−− G(2–)⊕ K(5) C(5) A5↔ G(2_)

A.

solanaceae

B.

Gramineae
C.

Cucurbitaceae
D.

Liliaceae
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: The formula represents -Ebracteate (flowers not covered by involucre or
bract) -actinomorphic (radially symmetrical) -5 calyx gamosepalous -5 corolla gamopetalous -5
stamen polyandrous and epipetalous(stamen fused with petals) -bicarpellary syncarpous
gynoecieum.
89. Vessels in xylem of gymnosperm are

A.

Present
B.

Absent
C.

Absent except gnetales

D.

Present except gnetales


Explanation:
Solution:Solution: -In gymnosperms, generally the xylem contains only tracheids and xylem
parenchyma. -Vessels are absent except in Gnetum. Related:Related: -In gymnosperm, phloem
consists of sieve tubes and phloem parenchyma. -Companion cells are absent and instead of
them, albuminous tissue is present.
90. Rate of transpiration is affected by humidity in

A.

land plants only


B.

water plants only


C.

both

D.

None
Explanation:
. Not only in land plant but also in aquatic plant except submerged hydrophytes have stomata
humidity also affect the rate of transpiration in aquatic plant . Rate of transpiration a. In stagnant
wind - normal transpiration. b. Slow blowing wind - transpiration increases. c. in voilentely
blowing wind - transpiration stop. (due to partial closer of stomata.)
91. Net production of ATP from complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose is

A.

30
B.

38

C.

24
D.

18
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: Net ATP Production Aerobic respiration = 38 Aerobic respiration in
prokaryotes = 38 Aerobic respiration in eukaryotes = 36 or 38 Aerobic respiration in muscles and
nerves = 36 Aerobic respiration in kidney, liver and heart = 38
92. Genes not located within nucleus are present in

A.

Cytoplasm

B.

Cytoskeleton
C.

Organelle
D.

Cytosol
93. Ability of a plant or animal cell to repeatedly divide and differentiate into a complete
organism is

A.

Cloning
B.

Breeding
C.
Cellular totipotency

D.

Mitosis
Explanation:
⧫⧫ The main principle of Tissue culture is "Cellular Totipontency" . ⧫⧫ The progeny of a single
plant obtained by vegetative propagation is called clone. ⧫⧫ Breeding is an applied branch of
biology concerned with the production of improved and new crop varieties, which are superior to
the existing varieties with several characteristics.
94. The most widely used method for prenatal detection of genetic disorders is:

A.

Family tree
B.

Amniocentesis

C.

Karyotyping
D.

None of them
Explanation:
. Family tree/pedigree analysis: Diagrammatic record of inheritance of particular trait over two or
more generation in a family tree. Used for finding possibility of inheritance trait like hemophilia
and colour blood blindness. . Amniocentesis: Analysis of amniotic fluid and looking for sex of
child during pregnancy and genetic disorder. . Karyotyping :Process if arranging chromosome in
order.
95. In angiosperms, the female gametophyte is

A.

Egg apparatus
B.

Embryo
C.

Synergids
D.

Embryo sac
Explanation:
--> Homology between gymnosperm & angiosperm Stamen →→ Microscporophyll Carpel/
ovary →→ Megasporophyll Pollen sac →→ Microsporangia Ovule/ Nucellus →→
Microsporangium Pollen grain →→ Microspore Pollen tube →→ Male gametetophyte Enbryo
sac →→ Female gametophyte

96. Which of the following is male gametophyte in higher plant?

A.

Microspore
B.
Male gamete
C.

Pollen grain

D.

Micorsporangium
Explanation:
Solution:Solution: Homologies of flowering parts: 1) Carpel: Megasporophyll 2) Ovule:
Megasporangium 3) Embryo sac: Female gametophyte 4) Egg: Female gamete 5) Stamen:
Microsporophyll 6) Anther (pollen sac): Microsporangium 7) Pollen or pollen grain: Microspore
8) Pollen with pollen tube: Male gametophyte
97. Endosperm in angiosperm is

A.

Haploid
B.

Diploid
C.

Triploid

D.
Tetraploid
Explanation:
--> A male gamete from generative cell fuses with secondary nuclei in ovule to form endosperm
.i.e. male gamete (n) +2oo - nuclei (2n) →→ primary endosperm nucleus (3n). --> Characteristic
feature of angiosperms is double fertilization and triple fusion discovered by Nawaschin in
Fritilaria and Lilium (Liliaceae).
98. Endangered species according to '1973 act of government of Nepal' is

A.

Red deer
B.

Swamp deer

C.

Spotted deer
D.

Hog deer
Explanation:
A total of 27 species of mammals, 9 species of birds and 3 species of reptiles are under
endangered category.
99. In order to obtain disease free plants through tissue culture techniques, the best methods is

A.

proplast culture
B.

meristem culture

C.

embryo rescue
D.

anther culture
Explanation:
Meristems ( Root apex, shoot apex ) have rapidly developing cells so not easily attacked by
viruses.
100. Fermentation is carried out by enzyme

A.

Zymase

B.

Lipase
C.

Invertase
D.
Enlerokinase
Explanation:
⧫⧫ Fat + Lipase (Steapsin) →→ fatty acid + glycerol. ⧫⧫ Sucrose + Invertase →→ glucose +
fructose. ⧫⧫ trysinogen ( pancreatic) + Enterokinase / Enteropeptidase in small intestine →→
Trypsin

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