CBSE

Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 1
The Living World

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common

characteristics

(a) Will decrease

(b) Will increase

(c) Remain same

(d) May increase or decrease

Ans. (a) Will decrease

Explanation: Number of common characters is maximum among members of a particular

species. On the other hand, number of common characters is minimum among members of a
particular kingdom.

2. Which of the following ‘suffixes’ used for units of classification in plants indicates a
taxonomic category of ‘family’.

(a) – Ales

(b) – Onae

(c) – Aceae

(d) – Ae

Ans. (c) – Aceae

Explanation: You can consider the names of families, e.g. Solanaceae, fabaceae, etc.

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3. The term ‘systematics’ refers to:

(a) Identification and study of organ systems

(b) Identification and preservation of plants and animals

(c) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship

(d) Study of habitats of organisms and their classification

Ans. (c) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship

Explanation: In fact, the need for a proper classification system was felt because of huge
diversity of organisms. Based on certain relationships, organisms were classified into
different group and sub-groups.

4. Genus represents

(a) An individual plant or animal

(b) A collection of plants or animals

(c) Group of closely related species of plants or animals

(d) None of these

Ans. (c) Group of closely related species of plants or animals

Explanation: Taxon genus is just above the taxon species.

5. The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the classification of animals is equivalent to which

hierarchial level in classification of plants

(a) Class

(b) Order

(c) Division

(d) Family

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Ans. (c) Division

Explanation: In animal kingdom, phylum comes just after the kingdom. Similarly, in the
plant kingdom, division comes just after the kingdom.

6. Botanical gardens and zoological parks have

(a) Collection of endemic living species only

(b) Collection of exotic living species only

(c) Collection of endemic and exotic living species

(d) Collection of only local plants and animals

Ans. (c) Collection of endemic and exotic living species

Explanation: To understand this, you can visit the zoo at Delhi or Kolkata. You can also
search in Google image and you will find giraffes; along with tigers and lions. Tigers and
lions are endemic species while giraffe is an exotic species.

7. Taxonomic key is one of the taxonomic tools in the identification and classification of
plants and animals. It is used in the preparation of

(a) Monographs

(b) Flora

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b)

8. All living organisms are linked to one another because

(a) They have common genetic material of the same type

(b) They share common genetic material but to varying degrees

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(c) All have common cellular organization

(d) All of above

Ans. (b) They share common genetic material but to varying degrees

Explanation: In fact, the whole theory of evolution is based on similarity of genetic

materials which indicates towards common ancestry for living organisms. Variations in
similarity of genetic material give biodiversity which we see all around us.

9. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of living organisms?

(a) Growth

(b) Ability to make sound

(c) Reproduction

(d) Response to external stimuli

Ans. (d) Response to external stimuli

Explanation: Rest of the characters may not be apparent at every instance of time. But
response to external stimuli can always be confirmed as and when required. So, this is
considered as a defining characteristic of living organisms.

10. Match the following and choose the correct option:

A. Family (i) tuberosum.

B. Kingdom (ii) Polymoniales

C. Order (iii) Solanum

D. Species (iv) Plantae

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 E. Genus (v) Solanaceae

Options

(a) (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)-E, (iv)-B, (v)-A

(b) (i)-E, (ii)-D, (iii)-B, (iv)-A, (v)-C

(c) (i)-D, (ii)-E, (iii)-B, (iv)-A, (v)-C

(d) (i)-E, (ii)-C, (iii)-B, (iv)-A, (v)-D

Ans. (a) (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)-E, (iv)-B, (v)-A

Explanation: The order of taxa is as follows: Kingdom Order Family Genus

Species

Classification of potato:

Kingdom: Plantae

order: Solanales

Family: Solanaceae

Genus: Solanum

Species: tuberosum

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Linnaeus is considered as Father of Taxonomy. Name two other botanists known for
their contribution to the field of plant taxonomy?

Ans. G Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker. Both are famous for their work on “classification
of plants based on natural characteristics”.

2. What does ICZN stand for?

Ans. ICZN stands for International Code for Zoological Nomenclature.

3. Couplet in taxonomic key means _____.

Ans. Contrasting characters

4. What is a Monograph?

Ans. A monograph contains information on any one taxon. A monograph provides work on
primary research.

5. Amoeba multiplies by mitotic cell division. Is this phenomena growth or

reproduction? Explain.

Ans. After mitosis in Amoeba there is no growth in size of the organism rather two new
organisms are formed. Hence, formation of new cells in Amoeba is reproduction.

6. Define metabolism.

Ans. All the biological reactions in a living being are collectively called metabolism.

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Metabolism is of two types, viz, anabolism and catabolism.

7. Which is the largest botanical garden in the world? Name a few well known botanical
gardens in India.

Ans. The Royal Botanical Garden in Kew (London) is the largest botanical garden in the
world. Some of the well known botanical gardens in India are as follows:

(a) Indian Botanical Garden, Sibpur, Kolkata

(b) Lloyad Botanical Garden, Darjeeling

(c) Botanical Garden of FRI, Dehradun

(d) National Botanical Garden, Lucknow

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. A ball of snow when rolled over snow increases in mass, volume and size. Is this
comparable to growth as seen in living organisms? Why?

Ans. Yes, it is true that a snow ball gains mass, volume and size; when it is rolled over. But in
this case, the increase in size of ball is due to accumulation of material from outside. In case
of growth in a living being, the growth happens because of accumulation of material inside
the cells of the organisms when the cell cycle is carried out in the cell i.e. meiosis and mitosis
divisions leading to formation of new protoplasm and nuclear mass. Thus, growth in a
snowball is different as compared to the growth in a living being.

2. In a given habitat we have 20 plant species and 20 animal species. Should we call this
as ‘diversity’ or ‘biodiversity’? Justify your answer.

Ans. Whenever we discuss biodiversity, we consider all the life forms on the earth. In other
words, the term ‘biodiversity’ is a universal term which composed all the living organisms on
the earth. But when we consider a smaller geographical area; like an ecosystem or a
particular habitat; then the term ‘diversity’ is used. In other words diversity is the variety of
life found at one place in one time. So, the given example of the habitat visualize diversity.

3. International Code of Botanical nomenclature (ICBN) has provided a code for

classification of plants. Give hierarchy of units of classification botanists follow while
classifying plants and mention different ‘Suffixes’ used for the units.

Ans. As per the ICBN, various hierarchies of units for classifying plants and suffixes used for
such hierarchies are as follows:

Hierarchy Suffix

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Kingdom - Plantae

Division - Phyta

Class - Ae

Order - Ales

Family - Eae or – Ceae

It is the first term of scientific name of organism which usually has Latin origin
Genus
and written in italics.

It is the second term of the scientific name which usually has Latin origin and
Species
written in italics.

4. A plant species shows several morphological variations in response to altitudinal

gradient. When grown under similar conditions of growth, the morphological
variations disappear and all the variants have common morphology. What are these
variants called?

Ans. These variants are called biotypes. All biotypes are similar genetically but they are
different morphologically. The morphological difference happens because of the differences
in abiotic factors like temperature, pH of soil, climate etc. The difference in abiotic factors is
the result of different altitudinal gradients.

5. How do you prepare your own herbarium sheets? What are the different tools you
carry with you while collecting plants for the preparation of a herbarium? What

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information should a preserved plant material on the herbarium sheet provide for
taxonomical studies?

Ans. Following are the various steps of preparing herbarium:

(a) Collection: This step involves collection of a particular species.

(b) Pressing: This step involves spreading the specimen and pressing it between two sheets of
paper so as to preserve most of the parts.

(c) Drying: This step usually involves drying under the sun.

(d) Poisoning: Sometimes, antifungal treatment needs to be given to the specimen to preserve
it for longer duration.

(e) Mounting: This step involves mounting the specimen over a herbarium sheet.

(f) Labelling: This step involves writing full information and classification of the specimen.

Different tools which need to be carried while collecting plants for the preparation of a
herbarium are; digger and pruning knife, sickle, vasculum, polythene bags, old newspaper or
magazine, blotting paper, plant press, field notebooks, herbarium sheets, glue, labels, etc.

The preserved material should have thorough information and classification. This should
include the names of division, order, family, genus and species.

6. What is the difference between flora, fauna and vegetation? Eichhornia crassipes is
called as an exotic species while Rauvolfia serpentina is an endemic species in India.
What do these terms exotic and endemic refer to?

Ans. The sum of plant species in a given geographical area is called flora of that area. The
sum of animal species in a given geographical area is called fauna of that area. The term
‘vegetation’ has wider scope than the term ‘flora’. Vegetation is often used for much wider
geographical area than a particular ecosystem. In many cases, the term ‘vegetation’ is used
for all the plants on the global scale.

Endemic Species: A species which is found only in a particular geographical area is called
the endemic species for that area. For example; Rauvolfia serpentina is found only in India.

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So, it is an endemic species in India.

Exotic Species: A species which is not naturally found in a particular area but may be living
because of careful selection and breeding or because of being imported is called an exotic
species. For example, Eichhornia crassipes is native of other country but it was introduced in
India. So, it is an exotic species in India.

7. A plant may have different names in different regions of the country or world. How
do botanists solve this problem?

Ans. There are many languages and even more dialects being spoken in different parts of the
world. This means a plant may have different names in different regions of the country or
world. This compounds the problem for anybody because nobody can remember all those
names. To solve this problem, botanists have devised the system of binomial nomenclature
so that a particular species can have unique name for the purpose of scientific study. A
botanical name is usually composed of two terms, viz. genus name and species name. Care is
taken to make a unique name for a particular species.

8. Brinjal and potato belong to the same genus Solanum, but to two different species.
What defines them as seperate species?

Ans. Brinjal and potato belong to the same genus solanum because of certain common
characters in them. Phyllotaxy, venation, inflorescence, etc. are some of the common
characters in these plants which make them the member of the same genus. But breeding
between a brinjal plant and a potato plant is not possible. Since capability to interbreed is
the most defining criterion for members of a particular species; hence brinjal and potato are
kept under separate species although they belong to the same genus.

9. Properties of cell organelles are not always found in the molecular constituents of
cell organelles. Justify.

Ans. No matter what is the function of a particular cell organelle; all the cell organelles are
made up of more or less similar molecules. All the molecules come together in a particular
fashion to build up a particular cell organelle. It is similar to the same brick making a small

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house or a big mansion of a factory. The constituents remain the same but the function and
purpose of the finished product changes. Hence, properties of cell organelles are not always
found in the molecular constituents of cell organelles.

10. The number and kinds of organism is not constant. How do you explain this
statement?

Ans. This question needs to be looked upon from two perspectives, i.e number and variety.
For any organism; the population can not remain constant. In some of the generations,
pollution can be more because of favourable condition. In some other generations,
population can be less because of unfavourable conditions. The kinds of organism cannot be
constant because evolution is a never ending process. In every era new species come into
origin and some old species become extinct.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. What is meant by living? Give any four defining features of life forms.

Ans. A living organism is self replicating, evolving and self-regulating interactive system
capable of responding, to external stimuli. Growth, reproduction, nutrition, excretion, etc.
are various characteristics of living beings. But most of these characteristics cannot be
termed as defining features of life forms.

Defining features of life form are: Growth is defined as an increase in mass. Plants grow
throughout their life, while most of the animals grow up to a certain age only. But some non-
living things also grow in mass, e.g. cloud or snowball. So, growth cannot be termed as the
defining feature of life.

Reproduction is the process by which a living being produces its own kind. Majority of
organisms reproduce sexually, while many others reproduce asexually; by various methods.
On the other hand, there are many living beings which do not reproduce at all, e.g. the
worker bee in a beehive. But we consider it as a living being, So, reproduction cannot be
termed as an all inclusive defining feature of life. As non-living things cannot reproduce;
So, reproduction can be termed as a defining feature of life (with certain exceptions).

Metabolism involves various biochemical processes during which various molecules are
formed and many others get broken down. Metabolic reaction cannot occur in a cell-free
system. While some in-vitro reactions have been tried out in laboratories but they cannot be
termed as real metabolisms. So, metabolism is one of the defining features of life.

Structural organization which begin with cellular organization or upper grade of

organisation is another character of living beings. Some molecules come together and work
in perfect synchronization to form a cell organelle and various cell organelles come together
to form a cell. Eventually, cells end up forming the tissue; which become organs and finally
the whole organism is formed from the system made up of those organs. It is the finest and

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advanced level found in most of the multicellular organism. Cells are altogether different
than their constituent organelles; in terms of characters and functions. Similarly; a tissue is
entirely different than its component cells; in terms of functions. Similar demarcation and
hierarchy of organization is not possible in non-living things. Hence, cellular organization is
a defining feature of life.

External stimuli can reach in various forms to a living organism either externally as
external stimulus like temperature , light etc or internal stimulus like hormones. And the
living being responds to each stimulus in a different way.

This can be termed as consciousness to the environment. Such a consciousness is not

possible in non-living things. Hence, response to external stimuli is a defining feature of life.

2. A scientist has come across a plant which he feels is a new species. How will he go
about its identification, classification and nomenclature?

Ans. The scientist should look at various morphological features of the plant. He should
begin with broad features; such as type of roots and venation. If fibrous roots are present
then the plant may belong to monocotyledonous. In case of tap root, the plant may belong to
dicotyledonous. This can be further confirmed with the presence of parallel or reticulate
venation and number of cotyledons in the seeds.

After that, the scientist should look at the type of phyllotaxy, inflorescence, etc. Which will
help in classifying the plant in order and family. If it is a flowering plant, then a detailed
study of various floral parts can give various clues about a particular family or order. Type
of placentation can be studied by looking at the arrangement of seeds inside the fruits.

Finally, arrangement of antheridium and gynoecium can help the scientist to confirm a
particular family for the new species. The research work of scientists on the basis of these
features should be verified to conclude it as a new specie discovered.The scientist also needs
to rule out exact similarity with any other existing species before arriving at a unique name
for the new species found.

3. Brassica Campestris linn

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(a) Give the common name of the plant.

(b) What do the first two parts of the name denote?

(c) Why are they written in italics?

(d) What is the meaning of linn written at the end of the name?

Ans. (a) The common name of Brassica campestris linn is mustard.

(b) The first part denotes the genus of the plant while the second part denotes the species of
it.

(c) These names are written in italics to show their Latin origin. Moreover, it is a strict rule
to write scientific name in italics.

(d) The term ‘linn’ means that this species was first discovered and studied by Linnaeus.

4. What are taxonomical aids? Give the importance of herbaria and museums. How are
Botanical gardens and Zoological parks useful in conserving biodiversity?

Ans. Tools which help the scientists in studying about plants and animal species are called
taxonomical aids. Taxonomical aids include either live species of plants or animals or
preserved remains. In case of animals; museum specimens are kept under proper
preservation. In case of plants, herbariums are used for the keeping preserved specimens.

Importance of Herbarium: Herbarium works as a repository of specimens for future

reference. This also includes detail information about classification of a particular specimen.
In many cases, herbarium serves as a quick referral system while studying about a particular
species or about a higher taxonomical level. Herbarium is convenient to make and easier to
maintain. It is also easy to transport a herbarium.

Importance of Museums: Museums have much wider collection of plants and animal
specimen. Museums may also have skeletons of many extinct animals. Thus, a museum
offers more options of finding rich information while studying about a plant or animal.
Museums are usually maintained by educational institutions and thus they serve as
important tool of study for students as well as for the scientists’ community.

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Role of Botanical and Zoological Parks in Conserving Biodiversity: Botanical and
Zoological Parks serve the very important purpose of conserving the biodiversity. A
botanical or zoological park is probably the most secure place for plants and animals to live
in their natural habitat. Especially trained personnel take good care of plants and animal
species. They also carry out selective breeding of various plants and animals to maintain the
continuity of a particular species. Moreover, proper treatment is available in case some
disease afflicts the plants and animals in such parks. Thus, it can be said that botanical and
zoological parks play important role in conserving biodiversity.

5. Define a taxon. What is meant by taxonomic hierarchy? Give a flow diagram from
the lowest to highest category for a plant and an animal. What happens to the number
of individuals and number of shared characters as we go up the taxonomical
hierarchy?

Ans. Taxon: A level of biological classification is called a taxon, e.g. phylum, order, family,
etc.

Taxonomic Hierarchy: In taxonomy, different taxa have their own different levels. This
means that a particular taxon will come only after another particular taxon. For example;
species always comes after the genus and it can never be the other way around.

Flow Chart of Plant Categories

Kingdom Division Class--->Order Family Genus Species

Flow Chart of Animal Categories

Kingdom Phylum Class ---> Order Family Genus Species

When we go up the taxonomic hierarchy; the number of common characters becomes lesser
and lesser. For example; all members of a species will have the maximum number of
common characters. On the other hand, all members of a genus will have a lesser number of
common characters.

The number of individuals increases as we go up the taxonomical hierarchy.

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6. A student of taxonomy was puzzled when told by his professor to look for a key to
identify a plant. He went to his friend to clarify what ‘Key’ the professor was referring
to? What would the friend explain to him?

Ans. Key is an important tool to study a taxonomic category. A key is composed of two
contrasting characters. These characters generally occur in pairs and such a pair is called a
couplet. While studying a key; either of the contrasting characters is rejected or accepted.
Thus, a choice is made between the two contrasting characters in a key. Each statement in
the key is called a lead. It is important to note that a key is usually analytical in nature.
Moreover, separate keys need to be used for different taxonomic categories. Keys help in
step-by-step identification of a particular organism. For example; presence or absence of
notochord gives us a clue whether the organism belongs to sub-phylum vertebrata or
invertebrata. Similarly, presence of absence of lungs tells us if the organism belongs to
group tetrapoda or pisces.

7. Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organisms without exception. Isolated

metabolic reactions in vitro are not living things but surely living reactions. Comment.

Ans. Metabolismcan be defined as- " The sum total of all the chemical reactions occuring in a
living cell or organism". It involves formation of various molecules and many molecules get
broken down. All organisms exhibit metabolism, e.g. protozoans, algae, fungi, bacteria, etc.
Metabolic reactions cannot happen in a cell-free system. While isolated in-vitro reactions
carried out in laboratories cannot be termed as metabolism because they are conducted in
controlled environment and are simulated. But such reactions can be termed as living
reactions because they are the reactions going on inside a living system.

8. Do you consider a person in coma-living or dead?

Ans. When it comes to human beings, it is very difficult to define the living state. A person
may lie in coma for several years. By technical definition, the person is alive because he is
not brain-dead. However, most of his vital organs have stopped functioning. Such a person is
kept alive with life support system. A heart and lung machine works continuously to perform
the function of oxygenation and circulation. A dialysis unit may be in place to perform the
function of kidneys. The person gets nutrition through intraveinous fluids.

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Since the person is in comma so he is not exhibiting consciousness to his environment. In
other words, he is not able to respond to stimuli; which is one of the defining criteria for life.

Since the person is being kept alive because of life support system; metabolic activities are
going on. Hence, the person can be considered as dead.

But we should not forget that once he is put off the life support system; he will become brain-
dead immediately and will be dead by technical definition.

So, this is a difficult question whether a person in comma is dead or alive.

9. What is the similarity and dissimilarity between “whole moong daal” and “broken
moong daal” in terms of respiration and growth? Based on these parameters classify
them into living or nonliving?

Ans.

Whole moong dal Broken moong dal

(i) Seed is broken into

(i) The whole seed is intact.
pieces.

(ii) Respiration does not

(ii) Seed is capable of carrying out respiration.
take place.

(iii) Under favourable circumstances; the seed will undergo changes (iii) This will never be
and would germinate to produce a new plant. able to germinate.

(iv) This is a non-living

(iv) This is a living thing.
thing.

10. Some of the properties of tissues are not the constituents of its cells. Give three
examples to support the statement.

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Ans. It is indeed true that some of the properties of tissues are not the constituents of its
cells. Following three examples support this statement:

A muscle tissue is capable of contraction but all its constituent cells may not be
capable of doing so.
The skeletal system is composed of bones and cartilage. A bone is hard and
lightweight while cartilage is soft. But they possess diferent constituents.
Blood is capable of carrying oxygen but WBCs are not capable of doing in spite of
being the constituents of blood.

Material downloaded from myCBSEguide.com. 7 / 7

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exmplar Solutions
Chapter 2
Biological Classification

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. All eukaryotic unicellular organisms belong to

(a) Monera

(b) Protista

(c) Fungi

(d) Bacteria

Ans. (b) Protista

Explanation: Monera contains all prokaryotic organisms and bacteria come under monera.
Fungi can have unicellular as well as multicellular organisms. Hence, option ‘b’ is the correct
option.

2. The five-kingdom classification was proposed by

(a) R.H. Whittaker

(b) C. Linnaeus

(c) A. Roxberg

(d) Virchow

Ans. (a) R. H. Whittaker

Explanation: R. H. Whittaker proposed five kingdom classification in 1959. Monera, Protista,

Fungi, Plantae and Animalia are the five kingdoms according to R. H. Whittaker.

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3. Organisms living in salty areas are called as

(a) Methanogens

(b) Halophiles

(c) Heliophytes

(d) Thermoacidophiles

Ans. (b) Halophiles

Explanation: Halos means salt and phile means loving.

4. Naked cytoplasm, multinucleated and saprophytic are the characteristics of

(a) Monera

(b) Protista

(c) Fungi

(d) Slime molds

Ans. (d) Slime molds

Explanation: Slime molds were earlier kept under kingdom fungi but due to multinucleate
character and naked protoplasm, they are now considered as belonging to monera.

5. An association between roots of higher plants and fungi is called

(a) Lichen

(b) Fern

(c) Mycorrhiza

(d) BGA

Ans. (c) Mycorrhiza

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Explanation: Lichen is the association between fungi and algae, ferns belong to Pteridophyta
and BGA is short form of Blue-Green Algae. Hence, option ‘c’ is the correct answer.

6. A dikaryon is formed when

(a) Meiosis is arrested

(b) The two haploid cells do not fuse immediately

(c) Cytoplasm does not fuse

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b) The two haploid cells do not fuse immediately

Explanation: ‘Di’ means two and ‘karyon’ means nucleus.

7. Contagium vivum fluidum was proposed by

(a) D.J. Ivanowsky

(b) M.W. Beijerinek

(c) Stanley

(d) Robert Hook

Ans. (b) M.W. Beijerinek

Explanation: Beijerinek demonstrated that extracts of infected tobacco plant can cause
infection in healthy plants and termed the fluid as contagium vivum fluidum (infectious
living fluid).

8. Association between Mycobiont and Phycobiont are found in

(a) Mycorrhiza

(b) Root

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(c) Lichens

(d) BGA

Ans. (c) Lichens

Explanation: In a lichen; the fungal component is called mycobiont and algal component is
called phycobiont.

9. Difference between Virus and Viroid is

(a) Absence of protein coat in viroid but present in virus

(b) Presence of low molecular weight RNA in virus but absent in viroid

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a) Absence of protein coat in viroid but present in virus

10. With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of events

(a) Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis

(b) Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy

(c) Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis

(d) Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy

Ans. (c) Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis

11. Viruses are non-cellular organisms but replicate themselves once they infect the
host cell. To which of the following kingdom do viruses belong to?

(a) Monera

(b) Protista

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(c) Fungi

(d) None of the above

Ans. (d) None of the above

Explanation: Since viruses are considered as borderline case between living and non-living
things; no kingdom has been specified for them.

12. Members of phycomycetes are found in

(i) Aquatic habitats

(ii) On decaying wood

(iii) Moist and damp places

(iv) As obligate parasites on plants

Choose from the following options

(a) None of the above

(b) (i) and (iv)

(c) (ii) and (iii)

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d) All of the above

Explanation: Phycomycetes belong to fungi. They live in aquatic habitats, moist and damp
places, as obligate parasites on plants and on decaying wood.

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. What is the principle underlying the use of cyanobacteria in agricultural fields for
crop improvement?

Ans. Many species of cyanobacteria can carry out nitrogen fixation in soil. Hence, they are
used in agricultural fields for crop improvement.

2. Suppose you accidentally find an old preserved permanent slide without a label. In
your effort to identify it, you place the slide under microscope and observe the
following features:

(a) Unicellular

(b) Well defined nucleus

(c) Biflagellate–one flagellum lying longitudinally and the other transversely.

What would you identify it as? Can you name the kingdom it belongs to?

Ans. All unicellular eukaryotes belong to the kingdom Protista. Hence, this organism belongs
to Protista.

3. How is the five–kingdom classification advantageous over the two-kingdom

classification?

Ans. In two-kingdom classification many unrelated organisms were kept under the same
kingdom. This anomaly has been removed after the introduction of five-kingdom
classification. For example; the bacteria were kept under plant kingdom previously but
many bacteria are heterotrophic. Now, a separate kingdom has been made for bacteria.

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4. Polluted water bodies have usually very high abundance of plants like Nostoc and
Oscillatoria. Give reasons.

Ans. These organisms get plenty of nutrients in polluted water. Hence, they often bloom in
such conditions and are found in abundance in polluted water.

5. Are chemosynthetic bacteria-autotrophic or heterotrophic?

Ans. Chemosynthetic bacteria are autotrophic because they can synthesize their own food.
During chemosynthesis it uses chemicals as source of energy.

6. The common name of pea is simpler than its botanical (scientific) name Pisum
sativum. Why then is the simpler common name not used instead of the complex
scientific/ botanical name in biology?

Ans. The common name ‘pea’ is an English word and this can have different names in
different languages. It is easier to remember a standard scientific name as compared to so
many names. Hence, instead of using simple common names; it is preferred to use scientific
names which may appear complicated but universally accepted.

7. A virus is considered as a living organism and an obligate parasite when inside a host
cell. But virus is not classified along with bacteria or fungi. What are the characters of
virus that are similar to non-living objects?

Ans. Characters of virus that are similar to non-living objects:

(a) They have inert crystalline structure outside the living cell.

(b) They do not have any cell organelles.

8. In the five-kingdom system of Whittaker, how many kingdoms are eukaryotes?

Ans. In the five-kingdom system of Whittaker, four kingdoms are eukaryotes which are as
follows:

(a) Protista

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(b) Fungi

(c) Plantae

(d) Animalia

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Diatoms are also called as ‘pearls of ocean’, why? What is diatomaceous earth?

Ans. Diatoms are the main producers in marine environment. So, they are also known as the
‘pearls of ocean’. As walls of diatoms are made of silica, they have left behind a large amount
of cell deposits in their habitat. This accumulation is called diatomaceous earth.
Diatomaceous earth is gritty in nature and hence is used for polishing and, in filtration of oils
and syrups.

2. There is a myth that immediately after heavy rains in forest, mushrooms appear in
large number and make a very large ring or circle, which may be several metres in
diameter. These are called as ‘Fairy rings’. Can you explain this myth of fairy rings in
biological terms?

Ans. The mycelium of mushrooms absorbs nutrients from the ground. When nutrients at the
centre get exhausted they grow in diameter and form a circle. The ring grows in diameter
every year which are actually fruiting bodies of the fungus. This is called the ‘Fairy Ring’
especially in Europe.

3. Neurospora - an ascomycetes fungus has been used as a biological tool to understand

the mechanism of plant genetics much in the same way as Drosophila has been used to
study animal genetics. What makes Neurospora so important as a genetic tool?

Ans. Neurospora is used as a model organism to study plant genetics. Several characteristic
of this organism make it ideal to be used for genetic studies. Some of these features are
following:

Reproduces quickly
Easy to culture

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 Can survive on minimum media

4. Cyanobacteria and heterotrophic bacteria have been clubbed together in Eubacteria

of kingdom Monera as per the “Five Kingdom Classification” even though the two are
vastly different from each other. Is this grouping of the two types of taxa in the same
kingdom justified? If so, why?

Ans. All the prokaryotes have been kept under the kingdom Monera. Both cyanobacteria and
heterotrophic bacteria are prokaryotes and hence are being kept under the same kingdom.
Mode of nutrition is the major difference between cyanobacteria and heterotrophic bacteria.
So, this classification is justified.

5. At a stage of their cycle, ascomycetes fungi produce the fruiting bodies like
apothecium, perithecium or cleistothecium. How are these three types of fruiting
bodies different from each other?

Ans. The fruiting body of ascomycetes is called ascocarp. Ascocarp can be divided into three
types, namely apothecium perithecium and cleistothecium.

Apothecium is a saucer-shaped structure. It is open from the upper side.

Perithecium is a flask-shaped structure. It has a pore-like opening.
Cleistothecium is a closed structure. It has no opening.

6. What observable features in Trypanosoma would make you classify it under kingdom
Protista?

Ans. There are some characters of Trypanosoma make us classify it under kingdom Protista:

It is Unicellular organism.
It has Centrally located nucleus.
Method of reproduction is asexual.
Reserve food material in the form of granules

7. Fungi are cosmopolitan, write the role of fungi in your daily life.

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Ans. Role of fungi is daily life are following :

Some fungi rotten food materials; like stale bread, fruits and vegetables.
Fermentation is possible only because of yeast
Dangerous diseases of plants and animals are caused by some fungi.
Some fungi are used for making antibiotics.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Algae are known to reproduce asexually by variety of spores under different

environmental conditions. Name these spores and the conditions under which they are
produced.

Ans. Algae reproduce asexually by variety of spores under different environmental

conditions. These spores and the conditions under which they are produced are as follows:

Type of Conditions under which it is

Brief description
spore produced

These are thin walled, flagellated motile These are formed under favourable
Zoospore
spores as they are equipped with flagella. conditions and spread by wind.

These are thin walled,non-motile spores These are formed under

Aplanospore
and lack flagella. unfavourable conditions.

These spores have thick cell wall to tide These are formed under
Hypnospore
over unfavourable conditions. unfavourable conditions.

These are formed from vegetative cells and Formed under unfavourable
Akinetes
serve as resting cells. conditions.

These are similar to akinetes and are Formed under unfavourable

Statospores
found in diatoms. conditions.

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2. Apart from chlorophyll, algae have several other pigments in their chloroplast. What
pigments are found in blue-green, red and brown algae that are responsible for their
characteristic colours?

Ans. Algae have many other pigments in their chloroplast; in addition to chlorophyll. The
following table shows various pigments in algae and color imparted by them:

Class Common name Major pigment Colour imparted

Chlorophyceae Green algae Chlorophyll a, b Green

Chlorophyll a, c, Fucoxanthin
Phaeophyceae Brown algae Brown
(A xanthophyll pigment)

Rhodophyceae Red algae Chlorophyll a, d, r-phycoerythrin Red

3. Make a list of algae and fungi that have commercial value as source of food,
chemicals, medicines and fodder.

Ans. Some algae of commercial importance:

Type of use Description

Agar (derived from red algae

Used as culture medium in laboratory.
Gelidium and Gracilaria)

Algin (derived from brown

algae) carrageen (derived Used as gelling agent in food and in medical dressing.
from red algae)

Biofuels (different types of It is being used to produce biofuels. The concept is still at

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algae) experimental stage; with some prototypes of automobile
engine in working condition.

Fertilizer (different types of

It has been used as fertilizer in many countries.
algae)

Food (Many species of

These marine algae are used as food items; especially in the
Porphyra, Laminaria,
East Asian nations.
Sargassum)

Single cell protein (Chlorella Many algae are rich in protein and are used as food
and Spirullina) supplements.

Some fungi of commercial importance:

Type of
Description
use

The fungus Penicillium notatum is used for producing antibiotics of penicillin

Medicine
group. Many traditional Chinese medicines are prepared from fungi.

Diseases Many fungi causes disease in both animals and plants.

Food Yeast has been in use since ages for fermentation. Alcoholic beverages and
processing bakery items are made because of fermentation by yeast.

Food Some varieties of Agaricus are used as food in many countries.

Ripening
of cheese Some varieties of fungi are used for ripening of cheese.

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Spoilage
of food Rhizopus (bread mould) spoils food items; like stale bread, fruits and vegetables.

4. ‘Peat’ is an important source of domestic fuel in several countries. How is ‘peat’

formed in nature?

Ans. Peat is an accumulation of partially decayed vegetation or organic matter.

Formation of Peat: When plant material; usually in wet areas; in inhibited from decaying
fully because of acidic and anaerobic conditions, it results in formation of peat. Peat is
mainly composed of wetland vegetation. Sphagnum is the main producer of peat; but many
other plants may also be involved in peat formation. Most of the modern peats formed in
high latitudes after the retreat of glaciers at the end of the last Ice Age. This happened about
12,000 years ago. Peat accumulation is usually slow; at the rate of 1 millimeter per year.

Peat is an important source of domestic fuel in several countries; especially in Europe and
America. Peat is also used in agriculture to improve soil fertility. This is also used as water
purified in septic tanks.

5. Biological classification is a dynamic and ever evolving phenomenon which keeps

changing with our understanding of life forms. Justify the statement taking any two
examples.

Ans. This is true that biological classification is a dynamic and ever evolving phenomenon
which keeps changing our understanding of life forms.

At the beginning, living being were broadly classified into two groups, viz. animals and
plants. This classification was based on apparent morphological features which were quite
easy to understand. But when the scientists discovered certain flaws in this classification,
they began to think about a better system of classification. The most accepted system of
classification today is the Five-Kingdom Classification; proposed by Robert Whittaker.

The Five-Kingdom Classification takes into account structural organization and phylogenetic
relationship; while classifying the living beings. As per this system; all prokaryotes have been
kept under one kingdom, i.e. Monera. Furthermore, eukaryotes have been divided into four

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kingdoms. All the photosynthetic autotrophs have been kept under plant kindom and all the
eukaryotic heterotrophs (without cell wall) are kept under animal kingdom.

However, even this system of classification has certain limitations.

For example; the chemosynthetic autotrophs have been kept under the kingdom Protista.
Recently, some scientists have also suggested three domains of life and some others have
suggested a Six-Kingdom classification. Such attempts of classification are in tune with our
changing understanding of life forms.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 3
PLANT KINGDOM

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Cyanobacteria are classified under

(a) Protista

(b) Plantae

(c) Monera

(d) Algae

Ans. (c) Monera

2. Fusion of two motile gametes which are dissimilar in size is termed as

(a) Oogamy

(b) Isogamy

(c) Anisogamy

(d) Zoogamy

Ans. (c) Anisogamy

Explanation: Size of gametes is dissimilar and hence term ‘Anisogamy’ is used.

3. Holdfast, stipe and frond constitutes the plant body in case of

(a) Rhodophyceae

(b) Chlorophyceae

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(c) Phaeophyceae

(d) All of the above

Ans. (c) Phaeophyceae

4. A plant shows thallus level of organization. It shows rhizoids and is haploid. It needs
water to complete its life cycle because the male gametes are motile. Identify the group
to which it belongs to

(a) Pteridophytes

(b) Gymnosperms

(c) Monocots

(d) Bryophytes

Ans. (d) Bryophytes

Explanation: Plants from monocots and gymnosperms do not need water for fertilization.
Byrophytes and pteridophytes need water for fertilization. But pteridophytes have true
roots. Hence, ‘d’ is the correct option.

5. A Prothallus is

(a) A structure in pteridophytes formed before the thallus develops

(b) A sporophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes

(c) A gametophyte free living structure formed in pteridophytes

(d) A primitive structure formed after fertilization in pteridophytes

Ans. (c) A gametophyte free living structure formed in pteridophytes

6. Plants of this group are diploid and well adapted to extreme conditions. They grow
bearing sporophylls in compact structures called cones. The group in reference is

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(a) Monocots

(b) Dicots

(c) Pteridophytes

(d) Gymnosperms

Ans. (d) Gymnosperms

Explanation: Cones are salient features of gymnosperms. Moreover, gymnosperms are well
adapted to extreme conditions.

7. The embryo sac of an Angiosperm is made up of

(a) 8 cells

(b) 7 cells and 8 nuclei

(c) 8 nuclei

(d) 7 cells and 7 nuclei

Ans. (b) 7 cells and 8 nuclei

Explanation: The seven cells are; one egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells and one
secondary nucleus. The secondary nucleus contains two nuclei; while the other cells contain
one nucleus each.

8. If the diploid number of a flowering plant is 36. What would be the chromosome
number in its endosperm

(a) 36

(b) 18

(c) 54

(d) 72

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Ans. (c) 54

Explanation: Endosperm is formed after fusion between a haploid male gamete and diploid
secondary nucleus. Thus, endosperm has triploid nucleus; which will have three times the
number of chromosomes as in a haploid nucleus.

9. Protonema is

(a) Haploid and is found in mosses

(b) Diploid and is found in liverworts

(c) Diploid and is found in pteridophytes

(d) Haploid and is found in pteridophytes

Ans. (a) Haploid and is found in mosses

10. The giant Redwood tree (Sequoia sempervirens) is a/an

(a) Angiosperm

(b) Free fern

(c) Pteridophyte

(d) Gymnosperm

Ans. (d) Gymnosperm

Explanation: Redwood trees is a Gymnosperm which have earned many sobriquets; like
tallest tree, oldest tree, largest by trunk volume, etc.

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Food is stored as Floridean starch in Rhodophyceae. Mannitol is the reserve food

material of which group of algae?

Ans. Mannitol is the reserve food material in Phaeophyceae or Brown Algae.

2. Give an example of plants with

(a) Haplontic life cycle

(b) Diplontic life cycle

(c) Haplo- diplontic life cycle

Ans. (a) Volvox, Spirogyra

(b) Fucus

(c) Polysiphonia

3. The plant body in higher plants is well differentiated and well developed. Roots are
the organs used for the purpose of absorption. What is the equivalent of roots in the
less developed lower plants?

Ans. Rhizome

4. Most algal genera show haplontic life style. Name an alga which is

(a) Haplo-diplontic

(b) Diplontic

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Ans. (a) Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia

(b) Fucus

5. In Bryophytes male and female sex organs are called ____ and ____.

Ans. Antheridium, Archegonium

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Why are bryophytes called the amphibians of the plant kingdom?

Ans. Bryophytes need water for at least one stage of their life cycle as like as amphibians
which also need water to lay their eggs and their tadpoles develop in water. So, bryophytes
are called the amphibians of the plant kingdom.

2. The male and female reproductive organs of several pteridophytes and

gymnosperms are comparable to floral structures of angiosperms. Make an attempt to
compare the various reproductive parts of pteridophytes and gymnosperms with
reproductive structures of angiosperms.

Ans.

Structure Pteridophyte Gymnosperm Angiosperm

Gametophyte
Microsporophylls and
Main bears
megasporophylls Flower bears antheridium and
reproductive antheridia
represent the gynoecium.
part and
gametophyte.
archegonia

Male Antheridia Antheridia are composed of an anther

The male cone is highly
reproductive produce the and a slender stalk. Anther produces
reduced in size.
part male gamete. the pollen grains, i.e. male gametes.

Archegonia The megasporophyll is The gynoecium contains the ovary,

Female

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reproductive produce the large in size and is style and stigma. Fertilised egg
part female easily apparent as the develops inside the ovary and
gamete. female cone. eventually seeds are produced.

3. Heterospory i.e., formation of two types of spores – microspores and megaspores is a

characteristic feature in the life cycle of a few members of pteridophytes and all
spermatophytes. Do you think heterospory has some evolutionary significance in plant
kingdom?

Ans. Heterospory involves formation of two types of spores. Microspores are smaller in size
and megaspores are much larger in size. In some Pteridophytes, the microspores and
megaspore germinate to give rise to male and female gametophytes respectively. Finally, the
zygote develops inside the female gametophyte. From evolutionary perspective, this is a
precursor of seed habit in higher plants. Seeds have enabled gymnosperms and angiosperms
to tide over long periods of unfavourable conditions. Seeds have also enabled them to spread
to wider geographical area through seed dispersal. It has indeed helped these plants in
further evolution.

4. How far does Selaginella one of the few living members of lycopodiales
(pteridophytes) fall short of seed habit.

Ans. In case of Selaginella, the development of zygote into embryo takes place within the
female gametophyte. This female gametophyte is retained on the parent plant for variable
periods. This is considered as a precursor of seed habit because advanced version of this
phenomenon is seen in higher plants; like gymnosperms and angiosperms. But unlike seeds
in higher plants; the embryo in Selaginella needs to quickly develop to begin the new
generation. However, there could be temporary suspension of embryo growth; which is
similar to seed dormancy in higher plants.

5. Each plant or group of plants has some phylogenetic significance in relation to

evolution : Cycas, one of the few living members of gymnosperms is called as the ‘relic
of past’. Can you establish a phylogenetic relationship of Cycas with any other group of
plants that justifies the above statement?

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Ans. Cycas is considered as a living fossil because it is the only living species in the family
Cycadaceae. All other species of this family are now extinct. This plant is often considered as
the plant of the Old World; which means it is found only at those places which can be
associated with some of the oldest rocks in the world. Due to these reasons; it is called as the
‘relic of the past’. Moreover, Cycas shows more resemblance with Pteridophytes than
Gymnosperms. This shows phylogenetic relationship between Pteridophytes and
Gymnosperms.

Some of the characters of Cycas which indicate towards this are as follows:

Seeds are shed when the embryo is still mature. In other gymnosperms; seeds are
shed only when the embryo is mature.
The megasporophyllus appears like leaf.
In spite of the presence of pollen tubes, male gametes are flagellate.
Leaf base is persistent.
Circinate ptysix; which is similar as in Pteridophytes.

6. The heterosporous pteridophytes show certain characteristics, which are precursor

to the seed habit in gymnosperms. Explain.

Ans. Heterospory in pteridophytes leads to development of two different kinds of spores, i.e.
microspores and megaspores. This is similar to higher plants in which male gametes are
much smaller than female gametes. Another important feature is in situ development of
embryo; which is similar to development of embryo in higher plants. Development of
embryo inside the female gametophyte enables it to take nutrition from the female
gametophyte. This is beneficial for proper development of embryo and give certain survival
benefits to the embryo. Thus, it can be said that heterospory in pteridophytes is a precursor
to seed habit in gymnosperm.

7. Comment on the lifecycle and nature of a fern prothallus.

Ans. Fern (pteridophytes) exhibit haplo-diplontic condition. In this condition; both the
gametophytic and sporophytic phases are multicellular. The diploid sporophyte is
represented by a dominant, independent, photosynthetic, vascular plant body. The haploid
gametophyte is also independent but it lives for a shorter duration than the sporophyte

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generation. The following figure shows the life cycle of plant showing haplo-diplontic
condition.

Nature of Fern Prothallus:The prothallus represents the haploid gametophytic generation.

It is multicellular, independent, photosynthetic form which lives for a short duration. The
prothallus needs cool, damp and shady place to grow. Due to its requirement of water for
fertilization, pteridophytes are restricted to narrow geographical regions.

8. How are the male and female gametophytes of pteridophytes and gymnosperms
different from each other?

Ans.

Male gametophyte of pteridophyte Male gametophyte of gymnosperm

(i) Distinct male gametophyte may not

(i) Distinct male gametophyte is always present.
be present.

(ii) Antheridium is present. (ii) Antheridium is absent.

(iii) Male gametes are flagellated. (iii) Male gametes may or may not be flagellated

(iv) Male gametes need water as a

(iv) Male gametes reach the female gamete through
medium to swim up to the female
pollen tube. Water is not required for this purpose.
gamete.

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Female gametophyte of pteridophyte Female gametophyte of gymnosperm

(i) Distinct female gamete may not be

(i) Distinct female gamete is always present.
present.

(ii) Female gamete is not independent from the

(ii) It is largely independent.
parent plant.

(iii) It is not enclosed in an ovule. (iii) It is enclosed in an ovule.

9. In which plant will you look for mycorrhiza and coralloid roots? Also explain what
these terms mean.

Ans. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between a fungus and the roots of a vascular
plant. Mycorrhiza is found in some genus of gymnosperms; like Pinus.

Coralloid Roots: These roots too show symbiotic association but in this case, the association
is with nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria. Many nodules are formed in the roots giving them
coralloid appearance. Examples are Cycas and plants of leguminoceae.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Gametophyte is a dominant phase in the life cycle of a bryophyte. Explain.

Ans. In bryophytes, alternation in generation is found i.e. both gametophytic (haploid) and
sporophytic( diploid) generations are present. However, the dominant phase is represented
by gametophytic plant. The gametophyte is independent, photosynthetic, thalloid phase.
Antheridia and archegonia are formed on the gametophye. These organs are multicellular.
These organs bear the respective gametes, viz. male and female. The antheridium produces
biflagellated antherozoids. The archegonium is flask-shaped. It produces a single egg.
Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonium take place through water. Flagella in the
antherozoids facilitate motility. Zygote is formed after fertilization. But the zygote does not
undergo meiosis immediately after fertilization. It develops into a multicellular body called
sporophyte.
The sporophyte in bryophytes is much smaller and is not independent but attached to the
gametophyte. It gets nutrition from the gametophyte. It is clear that the gametophyte is
dominant phase in the life cycle of a bryophyte in every aspect. Gametophyte is independent
and photosynthetic. It is much larger in size compared to the sporophyte. On the other hand,
the sporophyte is not free-living but remains attached to the gametophyte so that it can get
nutrition.

2. With the help of a schematic diagram describe the haplo-diplontic life cycle pattern
of a plant group.

Ans. Both pteridophyte and bryophyte show haplo-diplontic life cycle. While the diploid
phase is not independent in bryophytes, it is independent in pteridophytes. Moreover, the
sporophyte is more conspicuous in pteridophytes than in bryophytes. Sporophyte is the
dominant phase in life cycle of pteridophyte.

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The given figure shows the haplo-diplontic life cycle.

Sporophyte: The sporophyte is well developed plant body.

It is differentiated into true roots, stem and leaves. Vascular tissue are well developed in
these parts of the plant. The sporophyte bears the sporangia. Sporangia are subtended by
leaf-like appendages called sporophylls.
Formation of Spores: The spore mother cells in the sporangia undergo reduction division to
produce spores.
Germination of Spores: Spores germinate to produce the gametophyte.
Gametophyte: Gametophyte is small but multicellular. It is free-living and usually
photosynthetic. It is called prothallus. It bears antheridia and archegonia which produce
male and female gametes. Transfer of male gamete takes place through pollen tube and then
fertilization takes place.

3. Lichen is usually cited as an example of ‘symbiosis’ in plants where an algal and a

fungal species live together for their mutual benefit. Which of the following will
happen if algal and fungal partners are separated from each other?

(a) Both will survive and grow normally and independent from each other.

(b) Both will die

(c) Algal component will survive while the fungal component will die.

(d) Fungal component will survive while algal partner will die.

Based on your answer how do you justify this association as symbiosis.

Ans. Option ‘b’ is the correct option, i.e. both will die.

Symbiosis: This is a symbiotic association which can be defined as a relationship between

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two organisms in which both the organisms get benefitted from each other. There can be
many examples of symbiotic relationship in which removal of one may not result in death of
another partner. For example; in case of symbiotic relationship between a bird and a buffalo,
the worms and insects on buffalo’s back are not the only source of food for the bird.
Similarly, there can be some other ways for the buffalo to get rid of those pests.

But in case of lichen; both the fungal and algal components depend on each other for their
basic needs. In this case, alga is the only source of food for the fungal component. Similarly,
fungus is the only source of water and minerals for the alga. They have no alternative means
to fulfill their need and hence in case of removal of any one partner, another partner would
die.

Since it is a relationship of mutual benefit hence it will still be called symbiosis.

4. Explain why sexual reproduction in angiosperms is said to take place through double
fertilization and triple fusion. Also draw a labelled diagram of embryo sac to explain
the phenomena.

Ans. In angiosperms; one of the male gamete fuses with the female gamete. Additionally,
another male gamete fuses with the secondary nucleus. Fusion between male and female
gametes results in formation of the zygote. Apart from that, fusion between another male
gamete and the secondary nucleus results in formation of the primary endosperm nucleus
(PEN). Since, two instances of fusion of nuclei take place hence it is called double
fertilization. Two following figure shows double fertilization:

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5. Draw labelled diagrams of

(a) Female and male thallus of a liverwort.

(b) Gametophyte and sporophyte of Funaria.

(c) Alternation of generation in Angiosperm.

Ans. (a) Liverwort

(b) Funaria, Gametophyte and sporophyte

(c) Alternation of generation in Angiosperm

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 4
ANIMAL KINGDOM

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. In some animal groups, the body is found divided into compartments with serial
repetition of at least some organs. This characteristic feature is named

(a) Segmentation

(b) Metamerism

(c) Metagenesis

(d) Metamorphosis

Ans. (b) Metamerism

Explanation: Segments in such animals are called metameres and this phenomenon is called
metamerism.

2. Given below are types of cells present in some animals. Which of the following cells
can differentiate to perform different functions?

(a) Choanocytes

(b) Interstitial cells

(c) Gastrodermal cells

(d) Nematocytes

Ans. (b) Interstitial cells

Explanation: Other cells in the options cannot differentiate. But interstitial cells in testes
and ovary can differentiate.

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3. Which one of the following sets of animals share a four-chambered heart?

(a) Amphibian, Reptiles, Birds

(b) Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals

(c) Crocodiles, Lizards, Turtles

(d) Lizards, Mammals, Birds

Ans. (b) Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals

Explanation: Amphibians have two-chambered heart, while most of the reptiles have three-
chambered heart. Crocodiles, birds and mammals have four-chambered heart.

4. Which of the following pairs of animals has non-glandular skin

(a) Snake and Frog

(b) Chameleon and Turtle

(c) Frog and Pigeon

(d) Crocodile and Tiger

Ans. (b) Chameleon and Turtle

Explanation: Glandular skin is present in frog, snake and crocodile. Mammals too have
glandular skin. Hence, option ‘b’ is the correct option.

5. Birds and mammals share one of the following characteristics as a common feature.

(a) Pigmented skin

(b) Pneumatic bones

(c) Viviparity

(d) Warm blooded

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Ans. (d) Warm blooded

Explanation: Pneumatic bones and viviparity is present in birds but not in mammals.
Pigmented skin is present only in mammals. Hence, ‘d’ is the correct option.

6. Which one of the following sets of animals belong to a single taxonomic group?

(a) Cuttlefish, Jellyfish, Silverfish, Dogfish, Starfish

(b) Bat, Pigeon, Butterfly

(c) Monkey, Chimpanzee, Man

(d) Silkworm, Tapeworm, Earthworm

Ans. (c) Monkey, Chimpanzee, Man

Explanation: In option ‘c’ all organisms belong to mammalia. Option ‘a’ has dogfish and
starfish as odd ments out. Option ‘b’ has animals from three different taxa. Option ‘d’ also
has animals from three different taxa.

7. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Mesoglea is present in between ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia.

(b) Asterias exhibits radaial symmetry

(c) Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal

(d) Taenia is a triploblastic animal

Ans. (c) Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal

Explanation: Fasciola is acoelomate animal.

8. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) In cockroaches and prawns excretion of waste material occurs through malpighian
tubules.

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(b) In ctenophors, locomotion is mediated by comb plates.

(c) In Fasciola flame cells take part in excretion

(d) Earthworms are hermaphrodites and yet cross fertilization take place among them.

Ans. (a) In cockroaches and prawns excretion of waste material occurs through malpighian
tubules.

9. Which one of the following is oviparous?

(a) Platypus

(b) Flying fox (Bat)

(c) Elephant

(d) Whale

Ans. (a) Platypus

Explanation: Platypus and echidna are oviparous mammals.

10. Which one of the following is not a poisonous snake?

(a) Cobra

(b) Viper

(c) Python

(d) Krait

Ans. (c) Python

11. Match the following list of animals with their level of organisation.

Division of Labour Animal

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 (A) Organ level (i) Pheretima

(B) Cellular aggregate level (ii) Fasciola

(C) Tissue level (iii) Spongilla

(D) Organ system level (iv) Obelia

Choose the correct match showing division of labour with animal example.

(a) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), and (iv)-(A)

(b) (i)-(B), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C), and (iv)-(A)

(c) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), and (iv)-(C)

(d) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C), and (iv)-(B)

Ans. (c) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), and (iv)-(C)

12. Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals,
the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called

(a) Acoelomate

(b) Pseudocoelomate

(c) Coelomate

(d) Haemocoelomate

Ans. (b) Pseudocoelomate

13. Match the column A with column B and choose the correct option

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 Column A Column B

(A) Porifera (i) Canal system

(B) Aschelminthes (ii) Water-vascular system

(C) Annelida (iii) Muscular Pharynx

(D) Arthropoda (vi) Jointed appendages

(E) Echinodermata (v) Metameres

(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(v), (D)-(iv), (E)-(i)

(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(v), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv), (E)-(i)

(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(v), (D)-(iv), (E)-(ii)

(d) (A)-(i), (B)-(v), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv), (E)-(ii)

Ans. (c) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(v), (D)-(iv), (E)-(ii)

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Identify the phylum in which adults exhibit radial symmetry and larva exhibit
bilateral symmetry.

Ans. Echinodermata.

2. What is the importance of pneumatic bones and air sacs in Aves?

Ans. Pneumatic bones are hollow and hence are light-weight. This helps in weight reduction.
Air sacs are continuous with lungs so that extra air can be filled in air sacs. This provides
buoyancy. Thus, pneumatic bones and air sacs are flight adaptations in birds.

3. What is metagenesis? Mention an example which exhibits this phenomenon.

Ans. Cnidarians exhibit two body forms, i.e. polyp and medusa. The sessile forms are called
polyps, while the free-swimming forms are called medusa. Some of the cnidarians exhibit
alternation of generations in which one generation in polyp form is followed by the next
generation in medusa form. This phenomenon is called metagenesis.

4. What is the role of feathers?

Ans. Following are the role of feathers in birds:

(a) They create airfoil shape for wings. This provides lift during flight.

(b) They help in maintaining body temperature.

(c) Play important role in mating.

5. Which group of chordates possess sucking and circular mouth without jaws?

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Ans. Cyclostomata: These are also called jawless fish, i.e. jaws are absent in these animals.

6. Give one example each for an animal possessing placoid scales and that with cycloid
scales.

Ans. Placoid scales are found in cartilaginous fish, e.g. scoliodon. Cycoid scales are found in
bony fish, e.g. rohu.

7. Mention two modifications in reptiles required for terrestrial mode of life.

Ans. Following are the two modifications in reptiles required for terrestrial mode of life:

(a) Dry and cornified skin and epidermal scales.

(b) Internal fertilization

8. Mention one example each for animals with chitinous exoskeleton and those covered
by a calcareous shell.

Ans. Arthropods have chitinous exoskeleton, e.g. cockroach. Molluscs have calcareous shell,
e.g. Pila.

9. What is the role of radula in molluscs?

Ans. Radula is a file-like rasping organ found in molluscs. It helps in scraping and scratching
the food. It also helps in creating depressions in rocks. Such depressions are used by these
animals as home.

10. Name the animal, which exhibits the phenomenon of bioluminescence. Mention the
phylum to which it belongs.

Ans. Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana are animals which exhibit bioluminescence. These
animals belong to the phylum Ctenophora.

11. Write one example each of the following in the space provided.

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(a) Cold blooded animal _____

(b) Warm blooded animal _____

(c) Animal possessing dry and cornified skin _____

(d) Dioecious animal _____

Ans. (a) Frog

(b) Pigeon

(c) Snake

(d) Ascaris

12. Differentiate between a diplobastic and a triploblastic animal.

Ans. There are two embryonic layers in diploblastic animals, viz. ectoderm and endoderm.
There are three embryonic layers in triploblastic animals, viz. ectoderm, mesoderm and
endoderm.

13. Give an example of the following

(a) Round worm

(b) Fish possessing poison sting

(c) A limbless reptile/ amphibian

(d) An oviparous mammal

Ans. (a) Ascaris

(b) Trygon

(c) Ichthyophis

(d) Platypus

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14. Provide appropriate technical term in the space provided.

(a) Blood-filled cavity in arthropods _____.

(b) Free-floating form of cnidaria _____.

(c) Stinging organ of jelly fishes _____.

(d) Lateral appendages in aquatic annelids _____.

Ans. (a) Haemocoel

(b) Medusa

(c) Nematocytes

(d) Parapodia

15. Match the following:

Animals Locomotory Organ

(a) Octopus (i) Limbs

(b) Crocodile (ii) Comb plates

(c) Catla (iii) Tentacles

(d) Ctenoplana (iv) Fins

Ans. (a) (iii), (b) (i), (c) (iv), (d) (ii)

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Differentiate between:

(a) Open circulatory system and closed circulatory system

(b) Oviparous and viviparous characteristic

(c) Direct development and Indirect development

Ans. (a) In open circulatory system, blood flows in spaces called sinuses and cells and tissues
are directly bathed in blood. In closed circulatory system, blood flows through a network of
vessels. Arthropods and molluscs have open circulatory system, while annelids and
vertebrates have closed circulatory system.

(b) Oviparous animals lay eggs and young ones hatch from them after some time, e.g.
reptiles, birds and some mammals. Viviparous animals give birth to young ones, e.g.
scoliodon and most of the mammals.

(c) When the young ones are different from adult animals; this case is called indirect
development, e.g. frog, cockroach, silkworm, etc. When the young ones resemble the adult
animal; this case is called direct development, e.g. birds, mammals, reptiles, etc.

2. Sort out the animals on the basis of their symmetry (radial or bilateral)
coelenterates, ctenophores, annelids, arthropods, and echinoderms.

Ans. Radial Symmetry: Coelenterates, Ctenophores and Echinoderms

Bilateral Symmetry: Annelids and Arthropods

3. There has been an increase in the number of chambers in heart during evolution of

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vertebrates. Give the names of the class of vertebrates having two, three or four
chambered heart.

Ans. There has been an increase in the number of chambers in heart during evolution of
vertebrates. Give the names of the class of vertebrates having two, three or four-chambered
heart.

4. Fill up the blank spaces appropriately

Phylum/Class Excretory Organ Circulatory Organ Respiratory Organ

Arthropoda Lungs/Gills/Tracheal System

Nephridia Closed Skin/Parapodia

Metanephridia Open

Amphibian Closed Lung

Ans.

Phylum/Class Excretory Organ Circulatory Organ Respiratory Organ

Arthropoda Malpighian tubules Open Lungs/Gills/Tracheal System

Annelids Nephridia Closed Skin/Parapodia

Mollusca Metanephridia Open Gills

Amphibian Kidneys Closed Lung

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5. Match the following

Column A Column B

(a) Amphibia (i) Air bladder

(b) Mammals (ii) Cartilaginous notochord

(c) Chondrichthyes (iii) Mammary glands

(d) Ostichthyes (iv) Pneumatic bones

(e) Cyclostomata (v) Dual habitat

(f) Aves (vi) Sucking and circular mouth without jaws.

Ans. (a) (v), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (i), (e) (vi), (f) (iv)

6. Endoparasites are found inside the host body. Mention the special structure,
possessed by these and which enables them to survive in those conditions.

Ans. Endoparasites live in nutrient rich environment so most of their adaptations help them
in maximizing absorption. In tape worm and round worm; there is an absorbent layer called
tegument outside the body. This layer has villi-like structure which helps in better
absorption of food. The endoparasites living in small intestine or large intestine get pre-
digested food from their hosts so many of them may not have gut. However, some of them
have both gut and anus. Tapeworms also have suckers in mouth to absorb nutrients.

Endoparasites also show mechanisms to get transferred from one host to another.
Sometimes, a part of their life cycle is spent in an intermediary host; such as in malarial
parasite.

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7. Match the following and write correct choice in space provided

Animal Characteristics

(a) Pila (i) Jointed appendages

(b) Cockroach (ii) Perching

(c) Asterias (iii) Water vascular system

(d) Torpedo (iv) Electric organ

(e) Parrot (v) Presence of shell

(f) Dog fish (vi) Placoid scales

Ans. (a) (v), (b) (i), (c) (iii), (d) (iv), (e) (ii), (f) (vi)

8. Differentiate between:

(a) Open and closed circulatory system

(b) Oviparity and viviparity

(c) Direct and indirect development

(d) Acoelomate and pseudocoelomate

(e) Notochord and nerve cord

(f) Polyp and medusa

Ans. (a) In open circulatory system, blood flows in spaces called sinuses and cells and tissues
are directly bathed in blood. In closed circulatory system, blood flows through a network of

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vessels. Arthropods and molluscs have open circulatory system, while annelids and
vertebrates have closed circulatory system.

(b) In oviparity; animals lay eggs and young ones hatch from them after some time, e.g.
reptiles, birds and some mammals. In viviparity; animals give birth to young ones, e.g.
scoliodon and most of the mammals.

(c) When the young ones are different from adult animals; this case is called indirect
development, e.g. frog, cockroach, silkworm, etc. When the young ones resemble the adult
animal; this case is called direct development e.g. birds, mammals, reptiles etc.

(d) When body cavity is absent, the animal is called acoelomate, e.g. platyhelminthes. In
some animals; mesoderm is present as scattered pouches between ectoderm and endoderm.
Such animals are called pseudocoelomate, e.g. aschelminthes.

(e) The notochord is a flexible rod-shaped body found in embryos of all chordates. It is
composed of cells derived from the mesoderm and defines the primitive axis of the embryo.
The dorsal nerve cord is a hollow cord dorsal to the notochord. It is formed from a part of the
ectoderm that rolls, forming the hollow tube. The notochord is replaced by vertebral column
in higher vertebrates. The nerve cord develops into the central nervous system.

(f) Polyp is a sessile and cylindrical form whereas medusa is umbrella-shaped and free-
living. Polyps produces medusae asexually and medusae form the polyps sexually (e.g.
Obelia). Examples of polyps are Hydra and Adamasia whereas of medusa is Aurelia.

9. Give the characteristic features of the following citing one example of each

(a) Chondrichthyes and osteichthyes

(b) Urochordata and cephalochordata

Ans. (a) Chondrichthyes have cartilaginous endoskeleton and hence they are also called
cartilaginous fish. Their skin is covered with placoid scales. Air bladder is absent in them.
Examples: Scoliodon, Pristis etc. Osteichthyes have bony endoskeleton and hence they are
also called bony fishes. Their skin is covered with cycloid scales. Air bladder is present in
them. Example; Rohu, Catla, etc.

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(b) In Urochordata, notochord is present only in the larval tail in larval stage. In
Cephalochordata, notochord extends from head to tail region and is present throughout their
life. Ascidia and Salpa are examples of urochordate. Branchiostoma is an example of
cephalochordates. Both of these are referred to as protochordates. These are exclusively
marine animals.

10. Mention two similarities between

(a) Aves and mammals

(b) A frog and crocodile

(c) A turtle and pila

Ans. (a) Both of them are worm blooded animals and they have four-chambered heart.

(b) Both of them can live on land as well as in water. Both of them breathe through lungs.

(c) Their body is covered with a hard shell. Both are oviparous animals.

11. Name

(a) A limbless animal

(b) A cold-blooded animal

(c) A warm-blooded animal

(d) An animal possessing dry and cornified skin

(e) An animal having canal system and spicules

(f) An animal with cnidoblasts

Ans. (a) Ichtyophis

(b) Frog

(c) Parrot

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(d) Python

(e) Sycon

(f) Obelia

12. Give an example for each of the following

(a) A viviparous animal

(b) A fish possessing a poison sting

(c) A fish possessing an electric organ

(d) An organ, which regulates buoyancy

(e) Animal, which exhibits alternation of generation

(f) Oviparous animal with mammary gland

Ans. (a) Chimpanzee

(b) Torpedo

(c) Electric ray

(d) Air bladder

(e) Obelia

(f) Platypus

13. Excretory organs of different animals are given below. Choose correctly and write
in the space provided.

Animal Excretory Organ/Unit

(a) Balanoglossus (i) Metanephridia

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(b) Leech (ii) Nephridia

(c) Locust (iii) Flame cells

(d) Liver fluke (iv) Absent

(e) Sea urchin (v) Malpighian tubule

(f) Pila (vi) Proboscis gland

Ans. (a) (vi), (b) (ii), (c) (v), (d) (iii), (e) (iv), (f) (i)

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 /21*$16:(57<3(48(67,216

1. Give three major differences between chordates and non-chordates and draw a
schematic sketch of a chordate showing those features.

Ans.

Chordates Non-chordates

(i) Notochord is present in at least one stage

(i) Notochord is absent.
of the life cycle.

(ii) Pharyngeal gill slits are present. (ii) Pharyngeal gill slits absent.

(iii) Post anal tail is present. (iii) Post anal tail is absent.

(iv) Heart is ventrally located. (iv) Heart (if present) is dorsally located.

(v) Central nervous system is dorsally located (v) Central nervous system is ventrally
and is hollow. located and is solid.

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2. What is the relationship between germinal layers and the formation of body cavity in
case of coelomate, acoelomates and pseudocoelomates?

Ans. (i) Coelomate: There are two germinal layers in coelomates, viz. ectoderm, mesoderm
and endoderm. The mesoderm lines the body cavity ad thus body cavity is present.

(ii) Acoelomate: There are two germinal layers in acoelomates, viz. ectoderm and
endoderm. Body cavity is not present in coelomate.

(iii) Pseudocoelomate: There are three germinal layers in pseudocoelomate, viz. ectoderm,
mesoderm and endoderm. But mesoderm is present as scattered pouches and do not line the
cavity hence true coelom is absent.

3. Comment upon the habitats and external features of animals belonging to class,
amphibia and reptilia.

Ans.

Amphibia :
(a) Habitat: They live in freshwater and marine water. They can also live on land.
(b) External Features: Body is divided into head and trunk. Tail may be present in
some. Skin is moist and has no scales. Eyes have eyelids. Tympanum represents the
ear.

Reptilia :
(a) Habitat: They are primarily terrestrial animals. However, some are found in
aquatic habitat as well. But they cannot breathe under water. Limbs are in two pairs.
(b) External Features: Skin is dry and covered with scales. Tympanum represents the
ear. Limbs (if present) are in two pairs.

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4. Mammals are most adapted among the vertebrates. Elaborate.

Ans. It is true that mammals are most adapted among vertebrates. Following are some of the
adaptions shown by mammals:

Mammals can be found in almost all types of habitat, e.g. in mountains, deserts,
grasslands, plains and even in aquatic habitat.
Hairs on skin provide insulation.
Mammals have two pairs of limbs which help in running, jumping, walking, flying,
climbing and burrowing.
They are warm blooded animals which means they can control their body
temperature.Sexual dimorphism is well developed which is an important tool for
survival.
Mammalian skin is equipped with sweat glands which help in osmoregulation and
thermoregulation.
External ears help in catching sound waves in efficient way.
Four-chambered heart facilitates double circulation which is more efficient than
single circulation.
Most of the mammals are viviparous. This helps in longer life span of mammals.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 5
MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs)

1. Rearrange the following zones as seen in the root in vertical section and choose the
correct option.

A. Root hair zone

B. Zone of meristems

C. Rootcap zone

D. Zone of maturation

E. Zone of elongation

Options:

(a) C, B, E, A, D

(b) A, B, C, D, E

(c) D, E, A, C, B

(d) E, D, C, B, A

Ans. (a) C, B, E, A, D

Explanation: Roots cap is at the tip; followed by zone of meristems. This is followed by zone
of elongation and then root hair zone. Zone of maturation comes after all of them.

2. In an inflorescence where flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal succession, the

position of the youngest floral bud shall be

(a) Proximal

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(b) Distal

(c) Intercalary

(d) Any where

Ans. (b) Distal

Explanation: When youngest flower is at the top of the floral axis, this arrangement is called
acropetal succession.

3. The mature seeds of plants such as gram and peas, possess no endosperm, because

(a) These plants are not angiosperms

(b) There is no double fertilization in them

(c) Endosperm is not formed in them

(d) Endosperm gets used up by the developing embryo during seed development

Ans. (d) Endosperm gets used up by the developing embryo during seed development

Explanation: Endosperm is a nourishing tissue which provide nourishment to the

developing embryo either after or before germination.

4. Roots developed from parts of the plant other than radicle are called

(a) Taproots

(b) Fibrous roots

(c) Adventitious roots

(d) Nodular roots

Ans. (c) Adventitious roots

Explanation: Taproots and fibrous roots emerge from radicle. Nodular roots arise from root
nodules. Adventitious roots usually arise from stems and sometimes from leaves.

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5. Venation is a term used to describe the pattern of arrangement of

(a) Floral organs

(b) Flower in inflorescence

(c) Veins and veinlets in a lamina

(d) All of them

Ans. (c) Veins and veinlets in a lamina

Explanation: The complex net like structure in the leaves are the veins which carry food and
water. Special arrangement of veins in a leaf is called venation. Based on the arrangement of
veins and veinlets, venation is of two types, viz. parallel and reticulate.

6. Endosperm, a product of double fertilization in angiosperms is absent in the seeds of

(a) Coconut

(b) Orchids

(c) Maize

(d) Castor

Ans. (b) Orchids

Explanation: The endosperm is absorbed by embryo in non-endospermic seeds. This is what

happens in orchid seeds.

7. Many pulses of daily use belong to one of the families below (tick the correct answer)

(a) Solanaceae

(b) Fabaceae

(c) Liliaceae

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(d) Poceae

Ans. (b) Fabaceae

Explanation: Fabaceae is also referred to as Leguminosae and pulses are also known as
legumes.

8. The placenta is attached to the developing seed near the

(a) Testa

(b) Hilum

(c) Micropyle

(d) Chalaza

Ans. (b) Hilum

Explanation: Hilum is the scar on seed coat through which seed was attached to the fruit.
Chalaza is base of the ovule and thus is part of ovule. Testa is the outer covering of the seed
and micropyle is a small opening in seed coat through which water enters seed.

9. Which of the following plants is used to extract the blue dye?

(a) Trifolium

(b) Indigofera

(c) Lupin

(d) Cassia

Ans. (b) Indigofera

Explanation: The term ‘indigo’ for blue dye should give clue for this answer.

10. Match the followings and choose correct option

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 Group A Group B

(A) Aleurone layer (i) Without fertilization

(B) Parthenocarpic fruit (ii) Nutrition

(C) Ovule (iii) Double fertilization

(D) Endosperm (iv) Seed

Options:

(a) A-(i) B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)

(c) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)

(d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

Ans. (b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Roots obtain oxygen from air in the soil for respiration. In the absence or deficiency
of O2, root growth is restricted or completely stopped. How do the plants growing in
marshlands or swamps obtain their O2 required for root respiration?

Ans. Plants which grow in marshlands or swamps have pneumatophores. These are vertical
growths from roots. These are hollow and thus air enters through these roots. Thus,
pneumatophores help the plants in swamps to obtain oxygen for root respiration.

2. Write floral formula for a flower which, is bisexual; actinomorphic; sepals five,
twisted aestivation, petals five; valvate aestivation; stamens six; ovary tricarpellary,
syncarpous, superior, trilocular with axile placentation.

Ans.

3. In Opuntia the stem is modified into a flattened green structure to perform the
function of leaves (i.e., photosynthesis). Cite some other examples of modifications of
plant parts for the purpose of photosynthesis.

Ans. Stem of Euphorbia is a fleshy and cylindrical structure. The stem in this plant carries
out photosynthesis because of the presence of chlorophyll.

4. In swampy areas like the Sunderbans in West Bengal, plants bear special kind of
roots called _____.

Ans. Pneumatophores

5. In aquatic plants like Pistia and Eichhornia, leaves and roots are found near _____.

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Ans. the surface of water.

6. Reticulate and parallel venation are characteristic of _____ and _____ respectively.

Ans. monocot, dicot

7. Which parts in ginger and onion are edible?

Ans. Underground stem in ginger is edible. Modified leaves are edible in onion.

8. In epigynous flower, ovary is situated below the _____.

Ans. thalamus

9. Add the missing floral organs of the given floral formula of Fabaceae.

Ans.

10. Name the body part modified for food storage in the following

(a) Carrot

(b) Colocasia

(c) Sweet potato

(d) Asparagus

(e) Radish

(f) Potato

(g) Dahlia

(h) Turmeric

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(i) Gladiolus

(j) Ginger

(k) Portulaca

Ans. (a) Tap Root

(b) Stem

(c) Adventitious Roots

(d) Root

(e) Tap Root

(f) Stem

(g) Adventitious Roots

(h) Stem

(i) Stem

(j) Stem

(k) Adventitious Roots

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Give two examples of roots that develop from different parts of the angiospermic
plant other than the radicle.

Ans. When roots develop from different plant parts in angiosperm they are called
adventitious roots. Two examples of such roots are as follows:

Pro Roots in Banyan: Prop roots develop from branches in banyan tree. They come
down and penetrates inside the soil. These roots provide extra mechanical support to
the banyan tree.
Stilt Roots in Maize: In maize plant, stilt roots develop from nodes just above the
ground. These roots enter the ground and provide extra mechanical support to the
maize plant.

2. The essential functions of roots are anchorage and absorption of water and minerals
in the terrestrial plant. What functions are associated with the roots of aquatic plants.
How are roots of aquatic plants and terrestrial plants different?

Ans. The basic function of roots is anchorage and absorption of water and minerals. But
availability of water is not a problem for aquatic plants. Hence, roots are not well developed
in most of the aquatic plants. In free-floating plants, roots are very few and are in the form of
fine hairs. In submerged plants, roots play the role of anchorage.

3. Draw diagrams of a typical monocot and dicot leaves to show their venation pattern.

Ans.

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4. A typical angiosperm flower consists of four floral parts. Give the names of the floral
parts and their arrangements sequentially.

Ans. The arrangement of four floral parts; starting from the periphery is as follows:

Calyx Corolla Androecium Gynoecium

Calyx is composed of green leaf-like sepals. Corolla is composed of colourful petals.

Androecium is composed of stamens (filament and anther). Gynoecium is composed of
carpel (stima, style and ovary).

5. Given below are a few floral formulae of some well-known plants. Draw floral
diagrams from these formulae.

Ans.

(a)

(b)

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(c)

6. Reticulate venation is found in dicot leaves while in monocot leaves venation is of

parallel type. Biology being a ‘Science of exceptions’, find out any exception to this
generalization.

Ans. Following are some examples of exception to this rule:

Reticulate venation in monocot: Alocasia, Smilax

Parallel venation in dicot: Calophyllum, Corymbium

7. You have heard about several insectivorous plants that feed on insects. Nepenthes or
the pitcher plant is one such example, which usually grows in shallow water or in
marsh lands. What part of the plant is modified into a ‘pitcher’? How does this
modification help the plant for food even though it can photosynthesize like any other
green plant?

Ans. In a pitcher plant, leaves are modified into a pitcher. The pitcher is equipped with a lid
which is formed from the apex of the lamina. The anterior part of the petiole is coiled like a
tendril. It keeps the pitcher in vertical position.

Soil in marshlands is deficient in nitrogen. So, in spite of performing photosynthesis; these

plants need nitrogenous nutrients to make protein. Insects are rich source of protein and
thus feeding on insects provides these plants with the required nitrogenous nutrients.

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8. Mango and coconut are ‘drupe’ type of fruits. In mango fleshy mesocarp is edible.
What is the edible part of coconut? What does milk of tender coconut represent?

Ans. The edible part of coconut is the endosperm. The milk of tender coconut is the oily
endosperm in liquid form.

9. How can you differentiate between free central and axile placentation?

Ans.

Free central
Axile placentation
placentation

There is only one

There are many chambers in the ovary.
chamber in the ovary.

Ovules are borne on Septa arise from the central axis and subsequently fuse to form
the central axis. axile column. Ovules are attached to the axile column.

10. Tendrils are found in the following plants. Identify whether they are stem tendrils
or leaf tendrils.

(a) Cucumber (b) Peas (c) Pumpkins

(d) Grapevine (e) Watermelons

Ans. (a) Stem tendril (b) Leaf tendril (c) Stem tendril

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(d) Stem tendril (e) Stem tendril

11. Why is maize grain usually called as a fruit and not a seed?

In a maize grain, the seed coat is membranous and is fused with the fruit wall. In fact, a
maize grain is a ripened ovary which contains a ripened ovule. Hence, a maize grain is
usually called a fruit and not a seed.

12. Tendrils of grapevines are homologous to the tendril of pumpkins but are analogous
to that of pea. Justify the above statement.

Ans. Organs which have same basic components but serve different functions are called
homologous organs. On the other hand, organs which have different basic components but
serve same function are called analogous organs. Tendrils of grapevine and pumpkin are
modified stems and hence are called homologous organs. But tendrils of pea are modified
leaves and hence are analogous to the tendrils of grapevines.

13. Rhizome of ginger is like the roots of other plants that grows underground. Despite
this fact ginger is a stem and not a root. Justify.

Ans. Following features in rhizome of ginger show that it is a stem and not a root:

Presence of scaly leaves

Presence of nodes and internodes
Presence of adventitious roots

14. Differentiate between

(a) Bract and Bracteole (b) Pulvinus and petiole

(c) Pedicel and peduncle (d) Spike and spadix

(e) Stamen and staminoid (f) Pollen and pollenium

Ans. (a) The leaf like structure in the axil is called bract, while bracteole in borne on the stalk
of flower.

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(b) The leaf stalk is called petiole, while the swollen portion of the leaf base is called
pulvinus.

(c) The stalk of flower is called pedicel, while the stalk of the whole inflorescence is called
peduncle.

(d) Both spike and spadix are types of inflorescence. In spike, sessile flowers develop on
elongated peduncle. Moreover, the peduncle is not fleshy. In spadix, the whole inflorescence
is covered by one to a few large bracts; called spathes. Peduncle is fleshy in spadix.

(e) The male reproductive organ in flower is called stamen. The sterile stamen is called
staminoid.

(f) The male gamete in a flower is called pollen. A mass of pollen grains from the same
flower is called pollenium. In a pollenium, the pollen grains are held together by a sticky
substance and all the pollen grains are thus transferred together.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Distinguish between families Fabaceae, Solanaceae, Liliaceae on the basis of

gynoecium characteristics (with figures), Also write economic importance of any one of
the above family.
Ans.

Gynoecium
Fabaceae Solanaceae Liliaceae
Characteristics

Bicarpellary, Tricarpellary,
Carpels Monocarpellary
Syncarpous syncarpous

Superior and unilocular Superior and bilocular Superior ovary,

Ovary
ovary ovary trilocular

Placentation Marginal placentation Axile placentation Axile placentation

Economic Importance of Solanaceae:

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 Many important fruits and vegetables belong to this family, e.g. tomato, brinjal and
potato.
Chilli; which is an important spice belongs to this family.
Belladona and Ashwagandha; which are medicinal plants belong to this family.
Petunia; which is an ornamental plant belongs to this family.

2. Describe various stem modifications associated with food storage, climbing and
protection.

Ans. Modifications of Stem for food storage:

Rhizome: The rhizome is an underground modified stem. It grows horizontally and stores
food. Nodes, internodes and scaly leaves are present on it. Buds are present; which give rise
to aerial shoot. Examples: ginger, turmeric and banana.

Corm: Corm is an underground modified stem. It grows vertically. It bears nodes and
internodes. Example: Colocasia.

Tuber: Tubers arise from narrow underground branches. Tuber bears nodes and
internodes. Nodes are present as small depressions; called eye. Vegetative propagation takes
place from these ‘eyes’. Example: potato.

Bulb: The stem is underground and appears like a bulb. Internode becomes shortened to
allow leaves to become thick and fleshy to store food material. Example: onion.

Modifications of stem for climbing:

Tendril: In some plants, the axillary bud becomes elongated and coiled to form tendrils.
Tendril coils around a support and thus helps the plant in climbing. Example: grapevine,
pumpkin.

Modification of Stem for Protection:

Thorn: Stem as modified thorn is present in the leaf axil or on apex of stem. Thorns prevent
grazing animals from damaging the plant. Example: Duranta, Calamus.

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3. Stolon, offset and rhizome are different forms of stem modifications. How can these
modified forms of stem be distinguished from each other?

Ans.

Stolon Offset Rhizome

Stem first grows in upward Daughter plants come out from Stem grows
direction, followed by offsets and break away to become underground and in
downward direction. new individuals. any orientation.

Purpose of
Purpose of modification is Purpose of modification is vegetative
modification is food
vegetative propagation. propagation.
storage.

Example: ginger,
Example: mentha Example: Pistia
turmeric

4. The mode of arrangements of sepals or petals in a floral bud is known as aestivation.

Draw the various types of aestivation possible for a typical pentamerous flower.

Ans.

5. The arrangements of ovules within the ovary is known as placentation. What does
the term placenta refer to? Name and draw various types of placentations in the flower
as seen in T.S. or V.S.

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Ans. Placenta is flattened, cushion-like tissue on which one or more ovules are attached. It
supplies nutrients to the developing embryo.

6. Sunflower is not a flower. Explain.

Ans. Sunflower is not a flower rather a bunch of flowers. In fact, what appears to be a single
flower is in fact a group or bunch of very small flowers called an inflorescence. These
flowers are aestived on a receptacle in a special arrangement. This type of inflorescence is
called capitulum. Following are the key features of capitulum.

Receptacle is flattened.
Many small and sessile florets are present on the receptacle.
The youngest florets are at the centre while the oldest are at the periphery.
There are two kinds of florets in sunflower, viz. ray florets and disc florets.
Ray florets are on the rim of the receptacle. These are of yellow colour.
Disc florets are in the centre. They are bisexual and actinomorphic. The above
features show that sunflower is not a flower but an inflorescence.

7. How do you distinguish between hypogeal germination and epigeal germination?

What is the role of cotyledon (s) and the endosperm in the germination of seeds?

Ans.

Hypogeal germination Epigeal germination

(i) Rapid growth and elongation of

(i) Rapid growth and elongation of epicotyl.
hypocotyl.

(ii) Cotyledons remain inside the soil. (ii) Cotyledons emerge above the soil.

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(iii) Cotyledons remain non-green and non- (iii) Cotyledons become green and
photosynthetic. photosynthetic.

(iv) Examples: Castor, bean (iv) Examples: Maize, rice

Role of cotyledons and endosperm: Cotyledons and endosperm act as food reservoir. Food
in them becomes available to the embryo during germination. Once the first set of leaves
emerge, the sapling begins photosynthesis. Till then, food is supplied by endosperm and
cotyledons.

8. Seeds of some plants germinate immediately after shedding from the plants while in
other plants they require a period of rest before germination. The later phenomena is
called as dormancy. Give the reasons for seed dormancy and some methods to break it.

Ans. Reasons for seed dormancy:

Hard seed coat.

Impermeable layers prevent uptake of water.
ABA inhibits growth and delays germination.
Some seeds have immature embryo which delays germination.

Methods to break seed dormancy:

Physical dormancy is broken by changes in temperature and other environmental

conditions.
Physical dormancy is also broken when the seed passes through the gut of an animal.
Mechanical dormancy is broken by help from some external agents. For example; an
animal may break the hard seed coat.
Chemical dormancy is broken by enzymatic actions.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 6
ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs)

1. A transverse section of stem is stained first with safranin and then with fast green
following the usual schedule of double staining for the preparation of a permanent
slide. What would be the colour of the stained xylem and phloem?

(a) Red and green

(b) Green and red

(c) Orange and yellow

(d) Purple and orange

Ans. (a) Red and green

Explanation: Xylem is coloured red with safranin and phloem is coloured green with fast
green.

2. Match the followings and choose the correct option from below

Column A Column B

A. Meristem (i) Photosynthesis, storage

B. Parenchyma (ii) Mechanical support

C. Collenchyma (iii) Actively dividing cells

D. Sclerenchyma (iv) Stomata

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E. Epidermal tissue (v) Sclereids

Options:

(a) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(ii), E-(iv)

(b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(iv)

(c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(i), E-(iii)

(d) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i)

Ans. (b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(iv)

Explanation: Cells of meristem possess the ability for division, Parenchyma forms the bulk
of plant tissues and photosynthesis takes place in parenchyma. Collenchyma provides
mechanical support to young parts. Sclerieds are type of sclerenchyma. Stomata is an
epidermal tissue.

3. Match the following and choose the correct option from below

Column A Column B

A. Cuticle (i) Guard cells

B. Bulli form cells (ii) Single layer

C. Stomata (iii) Waxy layer

D. Epidermis (iv) Empty colourless cell

Options:

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(a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

(b) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)

(d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)

Ans. (a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

Explanation: Guard cells are present in stomata, epidermis is composed of a single layer of
cells bulliform cells are empty colourless cell and cuticle has waxy layer.

4. Identify the simple tissue from among the following

(a) Parenchyma

(b) Xylem

(c) Epidermis

(d) Phloem

Ans. (a) Parenchyma

Explanation: Xylem and phloem are complex tissues. Epidermis is also complex as it may
contain stomata; apart from normal cells.

5. Cells of this tissue are living and show angular wall thickening. They also provide
mechanical support. The tissue is

(a) Xylem

(b) Sclerenchyma

(c) Collenchyma

(d) Epidermis

Ans. (c) Collenchyma

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Explanation: Cells of xylem and sclerenchyma are dead cells. Cells of epidermis do not show
wall thickening

6. Epiblema of roots is equivalent to

(a) Pericycle

(b) Endodermis

(c) Epidermis

(d) Stele

Ans. (c) Epidermis

7. A conjoint and open vascular bundle will be observed in the transverse section of

(a) Monocot root

(b) Monocot stem

(c) Dicot root

(d) Dicot stem

Ans. (d) Dicot stem

Explanation: Open bundles are present in those parts which are capable of secondary
growth. Out of the given options, only dicot stem is capable of secondary growth.

8. Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are formed due to

(a) Cell division

(b) Cell differentiation

(c) Cell dedifferentiation

(d) Redifferentiation

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Ans. (c) Cell dedifferentiation

Explanation: The phenomenon of regeneration of permanent tissue to become meristematic

is called dedifferentiation.

9. Phellogen and Phellem respectively denote

(a) Cork and cork cambium

(b) Cork cambium and cork

(c) Secondary cortex and cork

(d) Cork and secondary cortex

Ans. (b) Cork cambium and cork

Explanation: Cork cambium generates cork and hence is called phellogen and cork is called
phellem.

10. In which of the following pairs of parts of a flowering plant is epidermis absent?

(a) Root tip and shoot tip

(b) Shoot bud and floral bud

(c) Ovule and seed

(d) Petiole and pedicel

Ans. (a) Root tip and shoot tip

Explanation: Root tip and shoot tip have meristematic cells and hence epidermis is absent.
Epidermis has differentiated cells which is not the case in case of meristem.

11. How many shoot apical meristems are likely to be present in a twig of a plant
possessing, 4 branches and 26 leaves

(a) 26

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(b) 1

(c) 5

(d) 30

(e) 4

Ans. (c) 5

Explanation: Four apical meristems are present at the tip of four branches and the fifth one
is present at the shoot apex.

12. A piece of wood having no vessels (trachea) must be belong to

(a) Teak

(b) Mango

(c) Pine

(d) Palm

Ans. (c) Pine

Explanation: Trachea is not present in gymnosperms. Rest of the options show angiosperms.

13. A plant tissue, when stained, showed the presence of hemicellulose and pectin in
cell wall of its cells. The tissue represents

(a) Collenchyma

(b) Sclerenchyma

(c) Xylem

(d) Meristem

Ans. (a) Collenchyma

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Explanation: Collenchyma cells have hemicellulose and pectin.

14. In conifers, fibres are likely to be absent in

(a) Secondary phloem

(b) Secondary Xylem

(c) Primary phloem

(d) Leaves

Ans. (b) Secondary Xylem

Explanation: Elongated cells of sclerenchyma are called fibres. Sclerenchyma is absent in

Secondary xylem and option ‘b’ is correct.

15. When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove

(a) Periderm

(b) Epidermis

(c) Cuticle

(d) Sapwood

Ans. (a) Periderm

Explanation: In some small woody stem and many non-woody stem, epidermis is replaced
by periderm. It is a kind of cork.

16. A vessel-less piece of stem possessing prominent sieve tubes would belong to

(a) Pinus

(b) Eucalyptus

(c) Grass

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(d) Trochodendron

Ans. (d) Trochodendron

Explanation: Trochodendron lacks vessel elements which is quite unusual for flowering
plants. Only one living species of trochodendron is known to exist.

17. Which one of the following cell types always divides by anticlinal cell division?

(a) fusiform initial cells

(b) root cap

(c) protoderm

(d) phellogen

Ans. (c) protoderm

18. What is the fate of primary xylem in a dicot root showing extensive secondary
growth?

(a) It is retained in the centre of the axis

(b) It gets crushed

(c) May or may not get crushed

(d) It gets surrounded by primary phloem

Ans. (a) It is retained in the centre of the axis

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 9(5<6+257$16:(5
7<3(48(67,216

1. Product of photosynthesis is transported from the leaves to various parts of the

plants and stored in some cell before being utilised. What are the cells/ tissues that
store them?

Ans. Food is stored in parenchyma.

2. Protoxylem is the first formed xylem. If the protoxylem lies next to phloem what
kind of arrangement of xylem would you call it?

Ans. If phloem lies next to protoxylem, this condition is called exarch.

3. What is the function of phloem parenchyma?

Ans. The main function of phloem parenchyma is food storage. It also helps in translocation
of food.

4. What is present on the surface of the leaves which helps the plant prevent loss of
water but is absent in roots?

Ans. Cuticle is present on the surface of leaves. It helps prevent the loss of water. Cuticle is
absent in roots.

5. What is the epidermal cell modification in plants which prevents water loss?

Ans. Bulliform cells are modified epidermal cells. These are present in grasses. They help in
closing the stomata under stressful conditions and this prevent water loss.

6. What part of the plant would show the following:

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(a) Radial vascular bundle

(b) Polyarch xylem

(c) Well developed pith

Ans. (a) Radial vascular bundle is present in roots.

(b) Polyarch xylem is present in monocot root.

(c) A well-developed pith is present in dicot stem and monocot roots.

7. What are the cells that make the leaves curl in plants during water stress?

Ans. Bulliform cells make the leaves curl in plants during water stress. This happens because
of loss of turgor pressure in these cells.

8. What constitutes the cambial ring?

Ans. Interfascicular and intrafascicular cambia together form the cambial ring.

9. Give one basic functional difference between phellogen and phelloderm.

Ans. Phellogen is a meristematic tissue, while phelloderm is a permanent tissue.

10. Arrange the following in the sequence you would find them in a plant starting from
the periphery – phellem, phellogen, phelloderm.

Ans. Phellem Phellogen Phelloderm

11. If one debarks a tree, what parts of the plant is being removed?

Ans. If bark is removed from a tree then periderm is being removed. Periderm contains
phellogen, phellem and phelloderm. Bark also contains secondary phloem.

12. The cross-section of a plant material showed the following features when viewed

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under the microscope.

(a) The vascular bundles were radially arranged.

(b) Four xylem strands with exarch condition of protoxylem.

To which organ should it be assigned?

Ans. The given cross-section should be assigned to the root.

13. What do hard wood and soft wood stand for?

Ans. Wood from gymnosperm is called softwood, while wood from angiosperm is called
hardwood.

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 6+257$16:(57<3(
48(67,216

1. While eating peach or pear it is usually seen that some stone like structures get
entangled in the teeth, what are these stone like structures called?

Ans. The fruits of peach or pear contain stone cells or sclerieds. These stone cells are type of
sclerenchyma. These cells give stone like consistency to small particles of these fruits.

2. What is the commercial source of cork? How is it formed in the plant?

Ans.The commercial source of cork is the cork tissue of Quercus suber. Cork cambium or
phellogen cell are used to form cork. Then phellogen cells divide periclinally; cutting cells
towards the inside and outside. The cells which are cut off towards the outside become
suberised and dead and form cork.

3. Below is a list of plant fibres. From which part of the plant these are obtained

(a) Coir (b) Hemp (c) Cotton (d) Jute

Ans. (a) Coconut husk (b) Stem of Cannabis sativa

(c) Epidermal growth of cotton seeds (d) Stem of Corchorus capsularis

4. What are the characteristic differences found in the vascular tissue of gymnosperms
and angiosperms?

Ans. The differences between vascular tissues of gymnosperms and angiosperms are
following:

Gymnosperms Angiosperms

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(i) Vessels are absent in xylem. (i) Vessels are present in xylem.

(ii) Companion cells are absent in phloem. (ii) Companion cells are present in phloem.

5. Epidermal cells are often modified to perform specialized functions in plants. Name
some of them and function they perform.

Ans. Some of the modifications of epidermal cells and their functions are as follow:

Root hair: Root hairs increase the surface area and thus enhances absorption.
Trichomes: Some have stinging purpose and some glandular secretions. Trichomes
also help in preventing water loss due to transpiration.

6. The lawn grass (Cyandon dactylon) needs to be mowed frequently to prevent its
overgrowth. Which tissue is responsible for its rapid growth?

Ans. The meristematic tissue in lawn grass is responsible for its rapid growth. When lawn is
mowed, it destroys the apical meristem and thus prevents growth in height. But it promotes
the growth of lateral branches; making the lawn more bushy.

7. Plants require water for their survival. But when watered excessively, plants die.
Discuss.

Ans. Excess water in soil removes the air trapped between soil particles. This results in
oxygen deprivation for roots. Hence, plants die when watered excessively.

8. A transverse section of the trunk of a tree shows concentric rings which are known as
growth rings. How are these rings formed? What is the significance of these rings?

Ans. These rings are formed due to secondary growth in the trunk. The cambium activity is
more in spring than in winter. So, the wood formed during spring has larger xylem
compared to the wood formed in winter. As a result, light-coloured wood is formed during
spring and dark-coloured wood is formed during winter. This gives the appearance of

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concentric rings. Concentric rings help in making an estimate about the age of the tree.

9. Trunks of some of the aged tree species appear to be composed of several fused
trunks. Is it a physiological or anatomical abnormality? Explain in detail.

Ans. This is an anatomical abnormality. In case of abnormal secondary growth, cortical and
medullary vascular bundles are formed. This gives rise to additional or accessory vascular
bundles which give the appearance of additional trunks which appear to be fused.

10. What is the difference between lenticels and stomata?

Ans.

Lenticels Stomata

(i) These are formed due to loosening of the (i) Stomata are specialized epidermal
epidermal and cortical tissue. cells.

(ii) Stomata are usually found on the

(ii) Lenticels are usually found in the stem.
surface of leaves.

(iii) Guard cells are absent. (iii) Guard cells are present.

(iv) The opening of lenticels is not regulated. (iv) Opening of stomata is regulated.

(v) Facilitates removal of waste. (v) Facilitates exchange of gases.

11. Write the precise function of

(a) Sieve tube (b) Interfasicular cambium

(c) Collenchyma (d) Aerenchyma

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Ans. (a) Translocation of food.

(b) It facilitates secondary growth.

(c) It provides mechanical support to young stem.

(d) It provides buoyancy to floating plants.

12. The stomatal pore is guarded by two kidney shaped guard cells. Name the epidermal
cells surrounding the guard cells. How does a guard cell differ from an epidermal cell?
Use a diagram to illustrate your answer.

Ans. The epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called subsidiary cells. Following
are the differences between guard cells and epidermal cells.

Guard Cells Epidermal Cells

(i) They are kidney-shaped. (i) They are barrel-shaped.

(ii) Chloroplast is present. (ii) Chloroplast in absent.

(iii) Smaller in size. (iii) Bigger in size.

(iv) Cell walls are not uniform and are thick. (iv) Cell walls are uniform and thin.

13. Point out the differences in the anatomy of, leaf of peepal (Ficus religiosa) and
maize (Zea mays). Draw the diagrams and label the differences.

Ans.

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 Ficus leaf Maize leaf

(i) This is a dorsiventral leaf. (i) This is an isobilateral leaf.

(ii) Stomata are equal in number on

(ii) Stomata are more on lower surface.
both the surfaces.

(iii) Mesophyll is made up of two types of tissues, viz. (iii) Mesophyll is made up of only
spongy parenchyma and palisade parenchyma. spongy parenchyma.

(iv) Parenchymatous cells or some collenchymatous (iv) Sclerenchymatous cells are found
cells are found just above and below the vascular just above and below the vascular
bundle. bundle.

(v) Bulliform cells are absent. (v) Bulliform cells are present.

14. Palm is a monocotyledonous plant, yet it increases in girth. Why and how?

Ans. In spite of being a monocotyledonous plant, palm shows secondary growth. This
happens because of division and enlargement of parenchymatous cells in the ground tissue.
This type of secondary growth is called diffused secondary growth.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as placentation. What does the
term placenta refer to? Draw various types of placentations in the flower as seen in T.S.
and V.S.

Ans. Placenta is a flattened, cushion-like tissue. One or more ovules are attached on it. Its
function is to supply nutrients to the developing embryo.

2. Deciduous plants shed their leaves during hot summer or in autumn. This process of
shedding of leaves is called abscission. Apart from physiological changes what
anatomical mechanism is involved in the abscission of leaves.

Ans. Shedding of leaves in plants is known as abscission of leaves.Several physiological as

well as anatomical changes are causes of shedding of leaves.

The abscission zone is also called the separation zone. It is formed at the base of the petiole.
It is composed of a top layer and a bottom layer. The cells in the top layer have weak cell
walls. The bottom layer expands in winter and breaks the cell walls of the top layer. This
results in shedding of leaves.

3. Is Pinus an evergreen tree? Comment.

Ans. We know that trees which shed their leaves in a particular season are called deciduous
trees. On the other hand, trees which shed their leaves throughout the year are called

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evergreen trees; because they always appear to be covered with leaves. Pinus does not shed
its leaves during any particular season rather keeps on doing so throughout the year. Hence,
pinus is considered as an evergreen tree.

4. Assume that a pencil box held in your hand, represents a plant cell. In how many
possible planes can it be cut? Indicate these cuts with the help of line drawings.

Ans. It can be cut vertically, horizontally and diagonally. Thus, it can be cut into three
planes, through three axes, i.e. x, y, and z.

5. Each of the following terms has some anatomical significance. What do these terms
mean? Explain with the help of line diagrams.

(a) Plasmadesmoses/ Plasmodesmata

(b) Middle lamella

(c) Secondary wall

Ans. (a) The microscopic channels between two cells through the cell wall are called
plasmodesmata. Plasmodesmata allows transport of materials between two cells.

(b) It is a layer in the cell wall and is made of calcium pectate. It facilities cementing between
two cells.

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(c) This is a non-extensible layer. It is made of hemicellulose. It provides rigidity to the cell.

6. Distinguish between the following:

(a) Exarch and endarch condition of protoxylem

(b) Stele and vascular bundle

(c) Protoxylem and metaxylem

(d) Interfasicular cambium and intrafasicular cambium

(e) Open and closed vascular bundles

(f) Stem hair and root hair

Ans. (a) When protoxylem is present towards the periphery and metaxylem is present
towards the centre; this condition is called exarch. When the protoxylem is present towards
the centre and metaxylem towards the periphery, this condition is called endarch.

(b) Stele is the central part of the root or stem. It includes vascular bundle ground tissue and
pericycle (if present). Vascular bundle is composed of xylem and phloem and is a part of the
stele.

(c) The xylem which is formed earlier is called protoxylem, while the xylem which is formed
later is called metaxylem. Elements of protoxylem are smaller in diameter, while those of
metaxylem are bigger in diameter.

(d) When the cambium is present between primary xylem and primary phloem, it is called
intrafascicular cambium. When the cambium is present between two vascular bundles, it is

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called interfascicular cambium. Interfascicular cambium makes a continuous ring of
cambium which is not the case with intrafascicular cambium.

(e) A vascular bundle which is not capable of secondary growth is called a closed vascular
bundle. Cambium is absent in closed vascular bundle. A vascular bundle which is capable of
secondary growth is called an open vascular bundle. Cambium is present in open vascular
bundle.

(f) Root hair are unicellular, while stem hair are multicellular. Primary function of root hair
is to increase the surface area for absorption. Primary function of stem hairs is to prevent
water loss.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 7
STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs)

1. Which one of the following types of cell is involved in making of the inner walls of
large blood vessels?
(a) Cuboidal epithelium (b) Columnar epithelium
(c) Squamous epithelium (d) Stratified epithelium

Ans. (c) Squamous epithelium

Explanation: Squamous epithelium is present in lining of internal organs.

2. To which one of the following categories does adipose tissue belong?

(a) Epithelial (b) Connective
(c) Muscular (d) Neural

Ans. (b) Connective

Explanation: Adipose tissue is of mesodermal origin and hence is an example of
connective tissue.

3. Which one of the following is not a connective tissue?

(a) Bone (b) Cartilage
(c) Blood (d) Muscles

Ans. (d) Muscles

Explanation: The other three options are of connective tissues. Muscle tissue is a
separate category of tissues.

4. The clitellum is a distinct part in the body of earthworm, it is found in?

(a) Segments 13 - 14 - 15 (b) Segments 14 - 15 - 16

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 (c) Segments 12 - 13 - 14 (d) Segments 15 - 16 - 17

Ans. (b) Segments 14 - 15 - 16

Explanation: It is present about 2 cm (0.79 in) behind the anterior end of
the body (around the 14th, 15th and 16th segments).

5. Setae help in locomotion in earthworm but are not uniformly present in all the
segments. They are present in

(a) 1st segment (b) Last segment

(c) Clitellar segment (d) 20th - 22nd segment

Ans. (d) 20th - 22nd segment

Explanation: Setae help in locomotion in earthworm, it is present in all the segments
except 1st segment, last segment and clitellar segment

6. Which one of the following statements is true for cockroach?

(a) The number of ovarioles in each ovary are ten.
(b) The larval stage is called caterpillar
(c) Anal styles are absent in females
(d) They are ureotelic

Ans. (c) Anal styles are absent in females

Explanation: Each ovary has eight ovarioles, the larval stage is absent. Cockroach is
uricotelic.

7. Match the followings and choose the correct option

A. Adipose tissue i. Nose

B. Stratified epithelium ii. Blood

C. Hyaline catilage iii. skin

D. Fluid connective tissue iv. Fat storage

Options:

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 (a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)

(d) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)

Ans. (b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)

Explanation: Adipose tissue is composed of fat, stratified epithelium is present in skin,
cartilage is present in nose, blood is the fluid connective tissue.

8. Match the followings and choose the correct answer

A. Hermaphrodite i.Produces blood cells and haemoglobin

B. Direct Development ii. Testis and ovary in the same animal

C. Chemoreceptor iii. Larval form absent

D. Blood gland in earthworm iv. Sense of chemical substances

Options:
(a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

(b) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)

(c) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)

Ans. (a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

Explanation: When both the sexes are present on the same individual, it is called
hermaphrodite. When young ones resemble adult, the development is called direct
development. Chemoreceptor is composed of two terms, viz. chemical and receptor.
Blood gland in earthworm produce blood cells and haemoglobin.

9. Match the following with reference to Cockroach and choose the correct option

A. Phallomere i. Chain of developing ova

B. Gonpore ii. Bundles of sperm

C. Spermatophore iii. Opening of the ejaculatory dust

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 D. Ovarioles iv. The external genitalia

Options:
(a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)Options:

(b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

(c) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
(d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)

Ans. (b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

Explanation: The term ‘phallomere’ comes from phallus. Opening of ejaculatory duct is
called gonopore. Bundle of sperms is called spermatophore. Ovariole is a chain of
developing ova and each ovary has 8 of them.

10. Match the followings and choose the correct answer

A. Touch i. Nasal epithelium

B. Smell ii. Foramen magnum

C. Cranial nerves iii. Sensory papillae

D. Medulla oblongata iv. Peripheral nervous system

Options:
(a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)

(b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)

(c) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)

Ans. (d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)

Explanation: Sensory papillae are touch receptors. Olfactory receptors are present in
nose. Cranial nerves are part of peripheral nervous system. Medulla oblongata passes out
through foramen magnum.

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. State the number of segments in earthworm which are covered by a prominent dark
band or clitellum.

Ans. Three segments, i.e. 14th, 15th and 16th are covered by clitellum.

2. Where are sclerites present in Cockroach?

Ans. Sclerites are present in all the body segments of cockroach.

3. How many times do nymphs moult to reach the adult form of cockroach?
Ans. The nymphs moult about 13 times to reach the adult form of cockroach.

4. Identify the sex of a frog in which sound producing vocal sacs are present.
Ans. Male frogs have sound producing vocal sacs.

5. Name the process by which a tadpole develops into an adult frog.

Ans. Tadpole develops into an adult frog through metamorphosis.

6. What is the scientific term given to earthworm’s body segments?

Ans. The body segments of earthworms are called metameres.

7. A muscle fibre tapers at both ends and does not show striations. Name the muscle
fibre.
Ans. Smooth muscle fibre.

8. Name the different cell junctions found in tissues.

Ans. Different cell junctions found in tissues are as follows:
(a) Tight junctions

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 (b) Gap junctions
(c) Adhering junctions

9. Give two identifying features of an adult male frog.

Ans. Two identifying features of an adult male frog are as follows:
(a) Vocal sac
(b) Copulatory pads present on the first digit of forelimb.

10. Which mouth part of cockroach is comparable to our tongue?

Ans. Hypopharynx in cockroach is comparable to our tongue.

11. The digestive system of frog is made of the following parts. Arrange them in an
order beginning from mouth.
Mouth, oesophagus, buccal cavity, stomach, intestine, cloaca, rectum, cloacal aperture
Ans. Mouth Buccal cavity Oesophagus Stomach Intestine Rectum Cloaca
Cloacal Aperture

12. What is the difference between cutaneous and pulmonary respiration?

Ans. When breathing takes place by diffusion through skin, it is called cutaneous
respiration. When breathing takes place through lungs, it is called pulmonary
respiration. When a frog is under water, it breathes by cutaneous respiration. When a
frog is on land, it breathes by pulmonary respiration.

13. Special Venous connection between liver and intestine and between kidney and
intestine is found in frog, what are they called?
Ans. Special venous connection between liver and intestine is called hepatic portal
system and those between kidney and intestine is called renal portal system.

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Give the location of hepatic caeca in a Cockroach. What is their function?

Ans. Hepatic caeca is located at the junction of foregut and midgut. As the prefix ‘hepatic’
suggests, it is similar to the liver in our body. It produces digestive enzymes and facilitates
digestion.

2. Frogs are beneficial for mankind, justify the statement.

Ans. Frogs are beneficial for the mankind in various ways. Some are as follows:

Frogs eat many insects and pests. Thus, frogs help prevent damage to crops.
Frogs are important link in the food chain and thus are important component of the
ecosystem for maintaining ecological balance.
In some countries the muscular legs of frog are used as food by man.

3. The body of sponges does not possess tissue level of organisation though it is made of
thousands of cells. Comment.

Ans. Although sponge is a multicellular animal but the cells do not function in coordination
with each other. Most of the cells work independently. Thus, there is no division of labour; as
seen in tissue level organization.

4. Structural organisation in animals attains different levels as cell - organ-organ

system. What is missing in this chain? Mention the significance of such an organisation.

Ans. Tissue level is missing in this chain. Tissue level is the first level of organisation which
shows the division of labour. Once some cells group together to form a tissue, they acquire
some specialised function. This is necessary to form specialised organs and organ system.

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Thus, tissue level is highly important in structural organisation of animals.

5. Stratified epithelial cells have limited role in secretion. Justify their role in our skin.

Ans. As the name suggests, stratified epithelium is made up of many strata of layers. The
main role of stratified epithelium is protection against mechanical and chemical stresses.
Hence, this tissue has limited role in secretion.

6. How does a gap junction facilitate intercellular communication?

Ans. Gap junctions are fine hydrophilic channels between two adjacent animal cells. These
are formed with the help of two protein cylinders; called connexus. Gap junctions allow
small signaling molecules to pass from one cell to another and thus they facilitate
intercellular communication. Movement through gap junctions is controlled by pH and

Ca2+ concentration.

7. Why are blood, bone and cartilage called connective tissue?

Ans. Blood bone and cartilage are called connective tissue because of following reasons:

Serve the function of making structural framework.

Connect different parts of the body.
These tissues have mesodermal origin.

8. Why are neurons called excitable cells? Mention special features of the membrane of
the neuron?

Ans. Membranes of neurons are in a polarized state. Different ions interact with the
membrane to change polarization and thus neuron becomes excited. Ability to become
polarized or depolarized is necessary for transmission of nerve impulses. Hence, neurons
are called excitable cells.

9. Why earthworm is called the friend of farmer?

Ans. Earthworms are considered to be the first ploughmen. They make the topsoil loose and

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break it into fine granules. Thus, soil becomes more permeable to air and also promotes
growth of many creatures which help in improving soil fertility. Due to this, earthworms are
called farmers’ friends.

10. How do you distinguish between dorsal and ventral surface of the body of
earthworm.

Ans. The dorsal surface of the earthworm is darker than ventral surface. Moreover, setae are
not found on the dorsal surface.

11. Correct the wrong statements among the following:

(a) In earthworm, a single male genital pore is present.

(b) Setae help in locomotion of earthworm.

(c) Muscular layer in the body wall of earthworm is made up of only circular muscles.

(d) Typhlosole is the part of intestine of earthworm.

Ans. (a) There is a pair of male genital pore in 18th segment of the earthworm.

(b) Correct statement.

(c) Muscular layer in the body wall of earthworm is made up of an outer layer of circular
muscles and an inner layer of longitudinal muscles.

(d) Correct statement

12. Why nephridia in earthworm that are basically similar in structure classified into
three types? Mention the names of each.

Ans. In earthworms, nephridia are classified into three types on the basis of their location in
the body. These are as follows:

(a) Septal nephridia: Present on both sides of intersegmental septa of segment 15 to the last.

(b) Integumentary nephridia: Attached to the lining of the body wall of segment 3 to the last.

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(c) Pharyngeal nephridia: Present as three paired tufts in 4th, 5th and 6th segments.

13. Common name of some animals are given in Column A, write their scientific name
in Column B.

Column A Column B

(a) Tiger _____

(b) Peacock _____

(c) Housefly _____

Ans. (a) Panthera tigris

(b) Pavo cristatus

(c) Musca domestica

14. Complete the following statement:

(a) In Cockroach grinding of food particle is performed by _____

(b) Malpighian tubules help in removal of _____

(c) Hind gut of Cockroach is differentiated into _____

(d) In Cockroach blood vessels open into spaces called _____

Ans. (a) gizzard

(b) nitrogenous waste

(c) ileum, colon and rectum

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(d) haemocoel

15. Mention special features of eye in Cockroach.

Ans. Special features of eye in cockroach are as follows:

(a) An eye is composed of thousands of individual photoreceptor units; called ommatidia.

(b) Each ommatidium makes a separate image of a small part of the object seen.

(c) Thus, all ommatidia together make a mosaic of thousands of images.

(d) Compared to simple eye, the view angle is very large in compound eye. This helps the
cockroach to detect even a small activity.

(e) Image are not very good in resolution; unlike in case of simple eyes.

16. Frog is a poikilotherm, exhibits camouflage and undergoes aestivation and

hibernation, how are all these beneficial to it?

Ans. Frog is a poikilotherm; which means its body temperature depends on the
surroundings. This helps in conserving energy which could have been spent on regulating
the temperature. Ability to go into hibernation or aestivation helps the frog in bypassing the
unfavourable environment. Ability to camouflage helps it in evading its predators. It also
helps in easily catching its prey.

17. Write the functions in brief in column B, appropriate to the structures given in
column A.

Column A Column B

(a) Nictitating membrane _____

(b) Tympanum _____

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(c) Copulatory pad _____

Ans. (a) It helps in underwater vision.

(b) Catches sound waves

(c) Helps in holding on to the female frog during copulation.

18. Write the appropriate type of tissues in column B according to the functions
mentioned in column A:

Column A Column B

(a) Secretion and absorption _____

(b) Protective covering _____

(c) Linking and supporting framework _____

Ans. (a) Simple columnar epithelium

(b) Stratified epithelium

(c) Connective tissue

19. Using appropriate examples, differentiate between false and true body
segmentation.

Ans.

False body segmentation True body segmentation

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 (i) Different segments are
(i) Different segments are independent of each other. interrelated.

(ii) Different segments do not work in coordination rather (ii) Different segments work in
work independently. coordination.

(iii) Example: Tapeworm (iii) Example: Earthworm

20. What is special about tissue present in the heart?

Ans. Following are the special features of the tissue present in the heart:

Muscles are striated and branched.

They are auto-excitatory in nature, i.e. have their own mechanism to initiate
contraction.
Show continuous cycle of systole and diastole throughout the life.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Classify and describe epithelial tissue on the basis of structural modifications of

cells.

Ans. Epithelial tissues can be divided into three types on the basis of structural modifications
of cells, namely squamous, cuboidal and columnar

Squamous Epithelium: This type of epithelial tissue is made up of a single thin layer
of flattened cells. The cells in this tissue have irregular boundaries. This type of
epithelium is found in the walls of blood vessels and in air sacs in the lungs. The thin
layer makes a diffusion boundary and thus facilitates diffusion of substances.

Cuboidal Epithelium: This type of epithelial tissue is composed of a single layer of

cuboidal cells. This type of tssue is found in the ducts of glands and in nephron.
Secretion and absorption are the main functions of cuboidal epithelium.
Columnar Epithelium: This type of tissue is composed of a single layer of tall and
slender cells. The nuclei of cells are located at the base. Microvilli may be present at
the top of cells. This type of tissue if found in the lining of stomach and intestine. The
main function is secrection and absorption.

Ciliated Epithelium: If cilia are present on cuboidal or columnar epithelium, they are
called ciliated epithelium. In that case, movement of substances is their main

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 function. Ciliated epithelium is found in bronchioles and fallopian tubes.

Glandular Epithelium: When cuboidal or columnar epithelium assume specialized

function of secreation, they are called glandular epithelium. These are found in
exocrine and endocrine glands.

2. Write down the common features of the connective tissue. On the basis of structure
and function, differentiate between bones and cartilages.

Ans. The common features of connective tissue are following :

Serve the function of making structural framework.

Connect different parts of the body.
These tissues have mesodermal origin.

Bones Cartilage

(i) The intercellular material is

(i) The intercellular material is solid and pliable
hard and non-pliable.

(ii) Bone cells are called osteocytes. (ii) Cartilaginous cells are called chondrocytes.

(iii) Osteocytes are present in the (iii) Chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities
spaces; called lacunae. which are secreted by the matrix.

(iv) Make the major portion of the

(iv) Makes a minuscule portion of the skeletal system.
skeletal system.

(v) Bone marrow is site of

(v) No such function is present in cartilage.
production of blood cells.

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3. Comment upon the gametic exchange in earthworm during mating.

Ans. Gametic Exchange in Earthworm

Earthworms are hermaphrodite animals; which means an individual has both the
sexes.

A pair of male genital pore is present on the ventro-lateral side of 18th segment

Four pairs of spermathecae are located in the 6th to 9th segment (one pair in each
segment).
During copulation, spermatozoa get deposited in spermathecae.
An earthworm needs to find another earthworm for mating. They juxtapose each
other so that the male genital pores of one individual are opposite to the
spermathecae of another individual.
Thus, a mutual exchange of spermatozoa takes place between the two individuals.
Spermatozoa are exchanged in the form of packets; called spermatophores.
After that, mature egg cells and sperms are deposited in cocoons. Cocoons are made
by the fluids secreted by gland cells of clitellum.
Cocoons are deposited in soil and fertilization and development of embryo takes place
inside the cocoons.

4. Explain the digestive system of Cockroach with the help of a labelled sketch.

Ans. Digestive System of Cockroach:

The alimentary canal is divided into three regions, viz. foregut, midgut and hindgut.

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(a) The foregut is composed of pharynx, oesophagus, crop and gizzard.

(b) Hepatic caeca is present between the foregut and midgut.

(c) Malpighian tubules are present between the midgut and hindgut.

(d) Hindgut can be divided into ileum, colon and rectum.

Pharynx: This is short tubular structure. Mouth opens into the pharynx.
Oesophagus: Pharynx opens into a narrow tubular passage called oesophagus.
Crop: Oesophagus opens into a bigger pouch called crop. Food is stored for some time
in the crop.
Gizzard: Crop is followed by gizzard, Gizzard is made of circular muscles. It helps in
grinding the food.
Hepatic Caeca: This is similar to the liver in our body. It secretes digestive enzymes
and helps in digestion. Digestion takes place in the midgut.
Malpighian tubules: These are the main excretory organs in earthworm. They remove
nitrogenous waste from the body.
Hindgut: The hindgut in broader than midgut. It finally opens into rectum.

5. Draw a neat and well labelled diagram of male reproductive system of a frog.

Ans.

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www.vedantu.com 18
 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 8
THE UNIT OF LIFE

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. A common characteristic feature of plant sieve tube cells and most of mammalian
erythrocytes is

(a) Absence of mitochondria

(b) Presence of cell wall

(c) Presence of haemoglobin

(d) Absence of nucleus

Ans. (d) Absence of nucleus

Explanation: Absence of nucleus gives erythrocytes maximum space to accommodate

haemoglobin. Lack of cell organelles in sieve tube cells enables them to occupy minimum
space.

2. Select one which is not true for ribosome

(a) Made of two sub units

(b) Form polysome

(c) May attach to mRNA

(d) Have no role in protien synthesis

Ans. (d) Have no role in protein synthesis

Explanation: Ribosome are responsible for protein synthesis.

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3. Which one of these is not a eukaryote?

(a) Euglena

(b) Anabena

(c) Spirogyra

(d) Agaricus

Ans. (b) Anabena

Explanation: Anabena belongs to monera and is a prokaryote.

4. Which of the following stains is not used for staining chromosomes?

(a) Basic Fuchsin

(b) Safranin

(c) Methylene blue

(d) Carmine

Ans. (b) Safranin

Explanation: Other stains in the option are used for staining chromosomes or nucleus
whereas safranin is generally used as counter stain in gram staining.

5. Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in an ascending order
of their size. Choose the correct option among the followings

(i) Mycoplasma

(ii) Ostrich eggs

(iii) Human RBC

(iv) Bacteria

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Options:

(a) (i), (iv), (iii) & (ii)

(b) (i), (iii), (iv) & (ii)

(c) (ii), (i), (iii) & (iv)

(d) (iii), (ii), (i) & (iv)

Ans. (a) (i), (iv), (iii) & (ii)

Explanation: Mycoplasma is the smallest cell and are 0.3 micron in length. Ostrich egg is the
largest living cell and is very big. RBCs are 7 micron in diameter. Bacteria are 3 to 5 micron
in diameter.

6. Which of the following features is common to prokaryotes and many eukaryotes?

(a) Chromatin material present

(b) Cell wall present

(c) Nuclear membrane present

(d) Membrane-bound sub-cellular organelles present

Ans. (a) Chromatin material present

Explanation: Nuclear membrane and membrane bound organelles are absent in

prokayrotes. Cell wall is absent in many eukaryotes. Hence, option ‘a’ is the correct answer.

7. Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane?

(a) Camillo Golgi

(b) Schleiden and Schwann

(c) Singer and Nicolson

(d) Robert Brown

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Ans. (c) Singer and Nicolson

Explanation: Camillo Golgi discovered the Golgi Complex, Schleiden and Schwann proposed
cell theory and Robert Brown was the first to describe nucleus.

8. Which of the following statements is true for a secretory cell?

(a) Golgi apparatus is absent

(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell

(c) Only Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is present

(d) Secretory granules are formed in nucleus.

Ans. (b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell

Explanation: Cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion have extensive and
continuous RER within the outer membrane of nucleus.

9. What is a tonoplast?

(a) Outer membrane of mitochondria

(b) Inner membrane of chloroplast

(c) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells

(d) Cell membrane of a plant cell

Ans. (c) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells

10. Which of the following is not true of a eukaryotic cell?

(a) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycans

(b) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm

(c) Mitochondria contain circular DNA

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(d) Membrane bound organelles are present

Ans. (a) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycans

Explanation: In eukaryotic cell, cellulose makes the cell wall.

11. Which of the following statements is not true for plasma membrane?

(a) It is present in both plant and animal cell

(b) Lipid is present as a bilayer in it

(c) Proteins are present integrated as well as loosely associated with the lipid bilayer

(d) Carbohydrate is never found in it

Ans. (d) Carbohydrate is never found in it

Explanation: Plasma membrane is made up of lipid bilayer with protein integrated in the
bilayer. Carbohydrate is also present in plasma membrane.

12. Plastid differs from mitochondria on the basis of one of the following features. Mark
the right answer.

(a) Presence of two layers of membrane

(b) Presence of ribosome

(c) Presence of thylakoids

(d) Presence of DNA

Ans. (c) Presence of thylakoids

Explanation: Two layers of membrane, ribosome and DNA are present in both plastid and
mitochondria.

13. Which of the following is not a function of cytoskeleton in a cell?

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(a) Intracellular transport

(b) Maintenance of cell shape and structure

(c) Support of the organelle

(d) Cell motility

Ans. (a) Intracellular transport

Explanation: Cytoskeleton is present inside the cell and hence cannot provide intracellular
transport.

14. The stain used to visualise mitochondria is

(a) Fast green

(b) Safranin

(c) Aceto carmine

(d) Janus green

Ans. (d) Janus green

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. What is the significance of vacuole in a plant cell?

Ans. Vacuole maintains turgidity in a plant cell. It occupies up to 90% of the volume of
the plant cell.

2. What does ‘S’ refer in a 70S & an 80S ribosome?

Ans. The letter ‘S’ means Svedberg’s Unit and it stands for sedimentation coefficient; in
ribosome.

3. Mention a single membrane bound organelle which is rich in hydrolytic enzymes.

Ans. Lysosome.

4. What are gas vacuoles? State their functions?

Ans. Gas vacuoles are freely permeable to gas. They are present in some species of
cyanobacteria. They help the bacteria to control their buoyancy.

5. What is the function of a polysome?

Ans. Polysome is a cluster of ribosome. It is held by a strand of messenger RNA (mRNA)
in rosette or helical group. They take part in translation and play a role in formation of
multiple copies of same polypeptide.

6. What is the feature of a metacentric chromosome?

Ans. In metacentric chromosome, the centromere is in the middle of the chromosome.
The two arms of metacentric chromosome are equal in length.

7. What is referred to as satellite chromosome?

Ans. Some chromosomes may have non-staining secondary constriction at certain

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location. This appears like a small fragment and is called satellite.

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Discuss briefly the role of nucleolus in the cells actively involved in protein
synthesis.

Ans.The site for active ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis is nucleolus. Ribosomal RNA are
processed further to make subunits of ribosomes. Eventually, the ribosomes take part in
protein synthesis. Thus, nucleolus plays an important role in protein synthesis.

2. Explain the association of carbohydrate to the plasma membrane and its

significance.

Ans. Plasma membranes also contain carbohydrates, predominantly glycoproteins, but with
some glycolipids. For the most part, no glycosylation occurs on membranes within the cell.
Glycosylation usually occurs on the extracellular surface of the plasma membrane. The
glycocalyx is an important feature in all cells, especially epithelia with microvilli. Glycocalyx
participates in cell adhesion, lymphocyte homing, and many others.

3. Comment on the cartwheel structure of centriole.

Ans. Centrioles are the two cylindrical structures in the centrosome. Both the centrioles in a
centrosome lie perpendicular to each other. Each centriole appears like a cartwheel. They
are made up of nine evenly spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin protein. Each of the
peripheral fibril is a triplet. The adjacent triplets are also linked. The central part of the
proximal region of the centriole is also proteinaceous and called the hub. The hub is
connected with tubules of the peripheral triplets by radial spokes made of protein.

4. Briefly describe the cell theory.

Ans. The Cell Theory is as follows:

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 Schleiden and Schwann proposed that bodies of plants and animals are composed of
cells and products of cells.
Virchow further proposed that cells are formed from pre-existing cells.
The cell theory says that no living beings can be made without cells and thus cells are
integral components of living beings. This theory also says that a cell cannot be made
out of nowhere but a pre-existing cell is necessary to make new cells.

5. Differentiate between Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) and Smooth Endoplasmic

Reticulum (SER).

Ans.

RER SER

(i) Ribosomes are present on the surface; which (i) Ribosomes are absent on the surface
give rough appearance. and hence appears as smooth.

(ii) Frequently found in cells which are actively (ii) Frequently found in cells which are
involved in protein synthesis and secretion. actively involved in lipid synthesis.

6. Give the biochemical composition of plasma membrane. How are lipid molecules
arranged in the membrane?

Ans. Plasma membrane is consist of lipid and protein. Lipid is arranged as a bilayer with
protein embedded in the matrix. The polar heads of lipid are on the outer side and
hydrophobic ends are on the inner side of the membrane. This ensures that non-polar ends
of saturated hydrocarbon molecules are protected from the aqueous environment. The lipid
component is mainly composed of phosphoglycerides.

7. What are plasmids? Describe their role in bacteria?

Ans. Apart from genomic DNA, bacterial cell also contains small circular DNA. This smaller

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DNA is called plasmid. It is used to transfer the information from one cell to another. Plasmid
DNA is used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign DNA. It confer certain unique
phenotypic characteristics to bacteria. Resistance to antibiotics is one such character.
Because of circular DNAs, bacteria are able to develop resistance against an antibiotic.

8. What are histones? What are their functions?

Ans. Histones are highly alkaline proteins. They are found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cell.
Histones package and order the DNA into structural units called nucleosomes. They act as
spools around which the DNA gets coiled and thus a very long strand of DNA can be fit into a
much smaller space. Thus, 1.8 m strand of a DNA gets spooled to make a structure which is
just 90 microns in size.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. What structural and functional attributes must a cell have to be called a living cell?

Ans. A cell must have following structural and functional attributes to be called a living cell:

Plasma Membrane: A cell should have a plasma membrane. Without plasma

membrane, the contents of the cell cannot get a container and cell won’t be able to
maintain its independent existence.
Functional Attributes of Plasma Membrane: The plasma membrane should be
selectively permeable so as to facilitate exchange of materials between the cell and its
environment.
Protoplasm: A cell must have protoplasm to be called a living cell. It is the
protoplasm which contains all the materials necessary for life to continue. If
protoplasm dries up, the cell becomes dead; as in case of sclerenchymatous cells.
Endoplasmic Reticulum: Endoplasmic reticulum is necessary for exchange of
materials between nucleoplasm and cytoplasm. It is also necessary for synthesis of
various materials; like protein and lipid. Thus, a cell must have ER to be considered a
living cell.

Mitochondria are not mandatory for all living cells. For example; Red Blood Cells do
not have mitochondria yet they are living cells. The prokaryotes do not have
mitochondria but they are living cells.

Nucleus is not mandatory for all living cells. For example; mitochondria lack nucleus.
Similarly, prokaryotic cells lack nucleus.

Another important aspect of cells is that a cell is always formed from a pre-existing
cell; as proposed in the Cell Theory.

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2. Briefly give the contributions of the following scientists in formulating the cell
theory

(a) Rudolf Virchow

(b) Schleiden and Schwann

Ans. (a) Virchow made valuable addition to the cell theory. He proposed that a cell is always
formed from a pre-existing cell. Earlier, Schleiden had suggested that cells were made
through crystallization process. Virchow proved that theory wrong and proposed his
hypothesis.

(b) Schleiden and Schwann formulated the initial parts of the cell theory. They proposed that
all living beings are made up of one or more cells. They also proposed that cells are the basic
unit of life.

All the three scientists made immense contribution by changing the very tenets of our
understanding about the basic unit of life. In fact, their contributions paved the way for the
modern version of cell theory.

Main points of the modern version of cell theory are as follows;

All living beings are made from one or more cells.

A cell is formed from a pre-existing cell.
Cell is the basic unit of life.
Energy flow occurs within cells.
Hereditary information is passed from mother cell to daughter cell.
All cells have same basic composition.

3. Is extra genomic DNA present in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? If yes, indicate their
location in both the types of organisms.

Ans. Extra genomic DNA are present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

Extra Genomic DNA in Prokaryrotes: In prokaryotes, extra genomic DNA is present

in the form of plasmid. Plasmid is circular DNA. They impart certain unique
characteristics to bacteria; such as resistance to antibiotics.

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 Extra Genomic DNA in Eukaryotes: In eukaryotes, extra genomic DNA are present
in mitochondria and plastids. Because of the presence of DNA, mitochondria and
plastids have self-replication capabilities. Because of self-replication capabilities,
these cell organelles are called semi-autonomous organelles.

4. Structure and function are correlatable in living organisms. Can you justify this by
taking plasma membrane as an example?

Ans. This is true that structure and function are correlated in living organisms. Following
aspects of structure and function of plasma membrane justify this fact.

Plasma membrane provides a boundary to the cell contents. This is made possible
because of its ability to segregate the inside of the cell with the external environment.
Plasma membrane is a semi-permeable membrane. This attribute helps the plasma
membrane to allow exchange of some selected materials between the cell and its
external environment.
We know that plasma membrane is composed of a lipid bilayer which has protein
intersperse in a mosaic like pattern. The protein molecules serve as channels for those
substances which need active transport mechanism to enter or exit a cell.
The fluid layer of lipid allows those molecules to pass through the membrane which
can easily travel through osmosis.

5. Eukaryotic cells have organelles which may

(a) not be bound by a membrane

(b) bound by a single membrane

(c) bound by a double membrane

Group the various sub-cellular organelles into these three categories.

Ans. (a) Ribosome are the organelles which are not bound by a membrane. Rather ribosome
is composed of two subunits and lie interspersed in the protoplasm. Ribosomes are also
found attached to the surface of the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum. They are also found in

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mitochondria and plastids.

(b) Lysosome is the cell organelle which is bound by a single membrane. It is a small sac-like
structure. Lysosomes are found in animal cells but not in prokaryotes. Lysosome play an
important role in destroying harmful substances and foreign materials.

(c) Most of the cell organelles are bound by double membranes. Mitochondria, plastids,
nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum are the examples of double-membrane cell organelles. These
organelles serve important functions in the cell.

6. The genomic content of the nucleus is constant for a given species whereas the extra
chromosomal DNA is found to be variable among the members of a population.
Explain.

Ans. The genomic content of the nucleus is constant for a given species because it had great
influence on the characters of a species. Each species has its own unique set of characters
which is entirely different from any other species. We know that the DNA is the carrier of
inheritable traits from one generation to another. They also transmit character from mother
cell to daughter cells during cell division. We also know that the number of chromosomes in
a particular cell of an organism is fixed. For example; a somatic cell of human beings
contains 23 pairs of chromosomes and a gametic cell of human beings contains 23
chromosomes. This unique number of chromosomes is what gives unique set of characters to
human beings. Had it not been the case, a puppy would have given birth to a kitten.

In case of extra genomic DNA, the number can be variable because the extra genomic DNAs
are not responsible for transferring traits from one generation to another. These DNAs are
only responsible for replication of a cell organelle in which they are present.

Thus, the genomic content of nucleus is always constant for a given species, but the extra
genomic content is variable among the members of the same population.

7. Justify the statement, “Mitochondria are power houses of the cell”

Ans. Mitochondrion is a small capsule-like cell organelle. Mitochondria are important

because they are the site of aerobic respiration. Respiration can be divided into main steps,

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viz. glycolysis and Kreb’s Cycle. While glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm, the next phase
of respiration, i.e. Kreb’s Cycle takes place in mitochondria. It is after the Kreb’s Cycle that
energy is produced during respiration. The energy produced at the end of respiration is not
utilized by the cell instantly rather it is a stored in mitochondria in the form of ATP
(Adenosine Triphosphate). The ATP is then utilized for getting energy when required.

Mitochondria are called the powerhouse of the cell for two reasons. The first reason is that
mitochondria are the site where energy is produced. The second reason is the energy
remains stored in mitochondria; the way we store energy in electric cells.

8. Is there a species specific or region specific type of plastids? How does one
distinguish one from the other?

Ans. Plastids are species specific. They are found in all plants and in euglenoids. Different
types of plastids impart different colours to the part in which they are found. Moreover,
different plastids also serve different functions. Based on colour, plastids can be divided into
three types which are as follows:

(a) Leucoplasts: These are colourless plastids. A plant part with this plastid is colourless, i.e.
pale or white in appearance. The main function of leucoplast is food storage. Based on a
particular type of food being stored; leucoplasts can be further divided into three categories,
viz. amyloplast, elaioplast and aleuroplast.

(i) Amyloplast: It stores starch.

(ii) Elaioplast: It stores fats.

(iii) Aleuroplast: It stores proteins.

(b) Chromoplasts: These are non-green plastids and impart colours other than green to a
plant part. Various colours of fruits and petals are because of this plastid.

(c) Chloroplasts: These are green plastids. Chloroplast contains chlorophyll which is a green
coloured pigment. Chlorophyll traps the sunlight and thus plays an important role during
photosynthesis.

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9. Write the functions of the following

(a) Centromere

(b) Cell wall

(c) Smooth ER

(d) Golgi Apparatus

(e) Centrioles

Ans. (a) Facilitates proper segregation of chromosomes.

(b) Provides structural rigidity to the plant cells. Plants cells need to be rigid because they
cannot run for safety in case of any natural stress; unlike animals.

(c) Smooth ER facilitates synthesis of lipids, metabolism of carbohydrates, regulation of

calcium concentration and drug detoxification.

(d) Golgi apparatus is involved in packaging of various substances which are manufactured
in the endoplasmic reticulum.

(e) They form the basal bodies of cilia and flagella and thus play an important role in motility
of certain cells. They also play an important role in cell division by forming asters. The aster
as spindle pole during cell division.

10. Are the different types of plastids interchangeable? If yes, give examples where they
are getting converted from one type to another.

Ans. It is true that different types of plastids are interchangeable. The interchange takes
place according to the stage of development of a plant part or due to some external
environmental factors.

Chloroplast contains chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments. A higher proportion of

chlorophyll impart green colour to the chloroplast. But when the proportion of carotenoid
pigment increases and loss of chlorophyll takes place, the chloroplast can change to
chromoplast. This happens in mature leaves which become brown or reddish-brown or

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yellowish because of loss of chlorophyll. Similarly; a flower is defined as a modified shoot
which acquires special functions. Various colours in flower is due to the presence of
chromoplast. The chromoplast in flower come because of conversion of chloroplast to
chromoplast. Many fruits are green when they are not ripe because of the presence of
chromoplast. When fruit ripens; many of them changes their colours because chloroplast
changes to chromoplast.

In Potato; leucoplast is responsible for storage of starch. When some part of potato is exposed
to sunlight, it many acquire green colour. This happens because the leucoplast changes to
chloroplast.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 9
Biomolecules

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. It is said that elemental composition of living organisms and that of inanimate

objects (like earth's crust) are similar in the sense that all the major elements are
present in both. Then what would be the difference between these two groups? Choose
a correct answer from among the following:

(a) Living organisms have more gold in them than inanimate objects

(b) Living organisms have more water in their body than inanimate objects

(c) Living organisms have more carbon, oxygen and hydrogen per unit mass than inanimate
objects.

(d) Living organisms have more calcium in them than inanimate objects.

Ans. (c) Living organisms have more carbon, oxygen and hydrogen per unit mass than
inanimate objects.

Explanation: Carbon, oxygen and hydrogen are the main components of organic
compounds. This gives the clue for the correct answer.

2. Many elements are found in living organisms either free or in the form of
compounds. One of the following is not, found in living organisms.

(a) Silicon

(b) Magnesium

(c) Iron

(d) Sodium

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Ans. (a) Silicon

Explanation: Iron is found in haemoglobin, sodium and magnesium play important role in
some metabolic activities.

3. Amino acids have both an amino group and a carboxyl group in their structure.
Which amongst the following is an amino acid?

(a) Formic acid

(b) Glycerol

(c) Glycolic acid

(d) Glycine

Ans. (d) Glycine

Explanation: The name of most of the amino acids ends with ‘ine’. This gives the clue for
glycine.

4. An amino acid under certain conditions has both positive and negative charges
simultaneously in the same molecule. Such a form of amino acid is called

(a) Acidic form

(b) Basic form

(c) Aromatic form

(d) Zwitterionic form

Ans. (d) Zwitterionic form

Explanation: The term ‘zwitterion’ comes from a German word which means a neutral
molecule with positive and negative charges.

5. Which of the following sugars have the same number of carbon as present in

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glucose?

(a) Fructose

(b) Erythrose

(c) Ribulose

(d) Ribose

Ans. (a) Fructose

Explanation: Both glucose and fructose are monosaccharides and each contains 6 atoms of
carbon.

6. An acid soluble compound formed by phosphorylation of nucleoside is called

(a) Nitrogen base

(b) Adenine

(c) Sugar phosphate

(d) Nucleotide

Ans. (d) Nucleotide

Explanation: When a phosphate group is added to a nucleoside, it becomes a nucleotide.

7. When we homogenise any tissue in an acid the acid soluble pool represents

(a) Cytoplasm

(b) Cell membrane

(c) Nucleus

(d) Mitochondria

Ans. (a) Cytoplasm

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Explanation: Scientist have found thousands of organic compounds in acid soluble pool.
Cytoplasm contains various organic compounds and hence represents acid soluble pool.

8. The most abundant chemical in living organisms could be

(a) Protein

(b) Water

(c) Sugar

(d) Nucleic acid

Ans. (b) Water

Explanation: Water composes about 70% of body weight of humans. This should give clue
for ‘water’ as the correct answer.

9. A homopolymer has only one type of building block called monomer repeated ‘n’
number of times. A heteropolymer has more than one type of monomer. Proteins are
heteropolymers usually made of

(a) 20 types of monomers

(b) 40 types of monomers

(c) 30 types of monomers

(d) only one type of monomer

Ans. (a) 20 types of monomers

Explanation: Proteins are made of 20 types of amino acids.

10. Proteins perform many physiological functions. For example, some functions as
enzymes. One of the following represents an additional function that some proteins
discharge

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(a) Antibiotics

(b) Pigment conferring colour to skin

(c) Pigments making colours of flowers

(d) Hormones

Ans. (d) Hormones

Explanation: Antibiotics which contain enzymes do contain protein but many antibiotics
may not contain enzymes or protein. Pigments are not proteins.

11. Glycogen is a homopolymer made of

(a) Glucose units

(b) Galactose units

(c) Ribose units

(d) Amino acids

Ans. (a) Glucose units

Explanation: The term ‘glyco’ is derived from glucose.

12. The number of ‘ends’ in a glycogen molecule would be

(a) Equal to the number of branches plus one

(b) Equal to the number of branch points

(c) One

(d) Two, one on the left side and another on the right side

Ans. (a) Equal to the number of branches plus one

13. The primary structure of a protein molecule has

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(a) Two ends

(b) One end

(c) Three ends

(d) No ends

Ans. (a) Two ends

14. Which of the following reactions is not enzyme-mediated in biological system?

(a) Dissolving CO2 in water

(b) Untwining the two strands of DNA

(c) Hydrolysis of sucrose

(d) Formation of peptide bond

Ans. (a) Dissolving CO2 in water

Explanation: Reactions in b, c and d are enzyme-mediated while ‘a’ is the correct option.

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Enzymes are proteins. Proteins are long chains of amino acids linked to each other by
peptide bonds. Amino acids have many functional groups in their structure. These
functional groups are, many of them at least, ionisable. As they are weak acids and
bases in chemical nature, this ionization is influenced by pH of the solution. For many
enzymes, activity is influenced by surrounding pH. This is depicted in the curve given,
explain briefly.

Ans. This graph shows a curve which rises and then falls. It means that an enzyme shows
optimum activity at a particular pH. Below this pH, the enzyme will show least action.
Similarly, when the pH rise more than the optimum pH, the enzymatic action slows down
again.

2. Is rubber a primary metabolite or a secondary metabolite? Write four sentences

about rubber.

Ans. Rubber is a secondary metabolite. Metabolites which do not have any identifiable
function in the host organism are called secondary metabolites. Rubber does not have any
known function for the plant and hence it is called secondary metabolite. However, rubber
has certain economic significance for human beings. Rubber is used for making a variety of

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useful items; like tyre, eraser, toys, insulation layer, gloves, etc.

3. Schematically represent primary, secondary and tertiary structures of a hypothetical

polymer say for example a protein.

Ans. Following diagrams show primary, secondary and tertiary structures of protein:

4. Nucleic acids exhibit secondary structure, justify with example.

Ans. We know that when a long chain of polymer is arranged as helix; the helix is called
secondary structure. We also know that DNA is a double helix structure. Even RNA forms a
single helix. Both DNA and RNA are nucleic acids. Since they show helices; they exhibit
secondary structure.

5. Comment on the statement “living state is a non-equilibrium steady-state to be able

to perform work”.

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Ans. According to the law of physics; a system in equilibrium can not work. The same logic is
true for any biological system. A biological system is always in non-equilibrium and is in
steady state. The state of non-equilibrium ensures that the biological system is always in
working mode. Various processes in the living being are attempts towards preventing it from
falling into equilibrium. This is done by providing energy inputs through metabolic
processes. Synchronisation among various metabolic processes maintain the steady state of
the biological system.

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Medicines are either man made (i.e., synthetic) or obtained from living organisms
like plants, bacteria, animals etc. and hence the latter are called natural products.
Sometimes natural products are chemically altered by man to reduce toxicity or side
effects. Write against each of the following whether they were initially obtained as a
natural product or as a synthetic chemical.

(a) Penicillin

(b) Sulfonamide

(c) Vitamin C

(d) Growth Hormone

Ans. (a) Natural product

(b) Synthetic chemical

(c) Natural product

(d) Natural product

2. Select an appropriate chemical bond among ester bond, glycosidic bond, peptide
bond and hydrogen bond and write against each of the following.

(a) Polysaccharide

(b) Protein

(c) Fat

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(d) Water

Ans. (a) Glycosidic bond

(b) Peptide bond

(c) Ester bond

(d) Hydrogen bond

3. Write the name of any one amino acid, sugar, nucleotide and fatty acid.

Ans. (a) Amino acid: glycine

(b) Sugar: Fructose

(c) Nucleotide: Adenosine triphosphate

(d) Fatty acid: Palmitic acid

4. Reaction given below is catalysed by oxidoreductase between two substrates A and

A’, complete the reaction.

A reduced + A’ oxidized

Ans. A reduced + A’ oxidized A oxidized + A’ reduced

5. How are prosthetic groups different from co-factors?

Ans. Enzymes are composed of one or several polypeptide chains. But in many cases, non-
protein constituents called co-factors are bound to the enzyme. A co-factor makes the
enzyme catalytically active. There are three types of co-factors, viz. prosthetic groups, co-
enzymes and metal ions.

Prosthetic groups are different from other co-factors in the sense that they are tightly bound
to the apoenzyme. For example; haem is the prosthetic group and it is a part of the active site
of the enzyme.

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6. Glycine and Alanine are different with respect to one substituent on the -carbon.
What are the other common substituent groups?

Ans. In Glycine and Alanine; other common substituent groups are NH2, COOH and H. The

following diagram shows this:

7. Starch, Cellulose, Glycogen, Chitin are polysaccharides found among the

following. Choose the one appropriate and write against each.

(a) Cotton fibre

(b) Exoskeleton of cockroach

(c) Liver

(d) Peeled potato

Ans. (a) Cellulose

(b) Chitin

(c) Glycogen

(d) Polysaccharide

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Formation of enzyme-substrate complex (ES) is the first step in catalysed reactions.

Describe the other steps till the formation of product.

Ans. An enzyme catalyses a reaction, it means it hastens the rate of reaction.Thus, if under
normal circumstances a particular number of units of product is formed; one can get many
times more units in the same time when the reaction is enzyme mediated.

An enzyme-mediated reaction can be broken into three main steps, which are as follows:

(a) Formation of enzyme-substrate complex (ES)

(b) Transient Stage

(c) Formation of Product

In the first step, the enzyme binds to the substrate at ‘active site’. This results in formation of
enzyme-substrate complex.

Transient Phase: This is the altered structure state of the substrate. This is the unstable
stage. Had there been no enzyme, the required activation energy would have been much
higher. But because of the presence of enzyme, the reaction takes place with a less amount of
energy.

Formation of Product: Once the transient phase is over, final product is formed. With this
the potential energy of the system also comes down drastically. This can be shown by the
following graph. Once the product is formed, the enzyme becomes free to bind with another
substrate.

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2. What are different classes of enzymes? Explain any two with the type of reaction they
catalyse.

Ans. Enzymes are divided into six classes. Each class is further subdivided into 4 to 13 sub-
classes. Following are the six classes of enzymes:

(a) Oxidoreductase/Dehydrogenase: Enzymes which catalyse oxidoreduction between two

substrates are called oxidoreductase Following is an example of oxidoreductase reaction:

S reduced + S’ oxidized S oxidized + S’ reduced

(b) Transferase: Enzymes which facilitate transfer of a group (other than hydrogen)
between two substrates are called transferase. The following example shows a transferase
reaction:

S-G+S’ S+S’-G

(c) Hydrolase

(d) Lysase

(e) Isomerase

(f) Ligase

3. Nucleic acids exhibit secondary structure. Describe through Watson-Crick Model.

Ans. We know that when a long chain of polymer is arranged as helix; the helix is called
secondary structure. We also know that DNA is a double helix structure. Even RNA forms a

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single helix. Both DNA and RNA are nucleic acids. Since they show helices; they exhibit
secondary structure. The following diagram shows the model of DNA as proposed by Watson
and Crick.

4. What is the difference between a nucleotide and nucleoside? Give two examples of
each with their structure.

Ans. There are many biomolecules which have heterocyclic rings. Some of them are nitrogen
bases. When nitrogen bases are found attached to a sugar; they are called nucleosides. When
nitrogen bases and sugar are found attached to a phosphate group; they are called
nucleotides. Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, uridine, and cytidine are nucleosides.
Adenylic acid, thymidylic acid, guanylic acid, uridylic acid and cytidylic acid are nucleotides.

Following are structures of some of them:

5. Describe various forms of lipid with a few examples.

Ans. Lipids can be divided into three main types, viz. simple, compound and derived lipids.

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Simple Lipids: Esters of fatty acids are called simple lipids. They can be further
divided into following:
(a)Fats: Esters of higher fatty acids with glycerol are called fats.
(b) Waxes: Esters of higher fatty acids with alcohol are called waxes.

Compound Lipids: When esters of fatty acids with glycerol and alcohol contain other
groups also; they are called compound lipids. These can be further divided into
following:
(a) Glycerophospholipids: As the name suggests, they contain phosphorus group.
They are also called phospholipids. Examples: Lecithin, cephalin, etc.
(b) Sphingo Lipids: When phospholipids contain
(c) Glycolipids: As the name suggests, these contain monosaccharides. Examples:
cerebrosides and gangliosides.

(iii) Derived Lipids: When lipid is composed of a hydrocarbon ring and a long
hydrocarbon chain, it is called derived lipid. Example: Cholesterol.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 10
Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs)

1. Meiosis in diploid organisms results in

(a) Production of gametes

(b) Reduction in the number of chromosomes

(c) Introduction of variation

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d) All of the above

Explanation: Meiosis results in reduction of number of chromosomes and gametes are

formed only after meiosis. Crossing over during meiosis leads to variations. Hence, all the
options are correct.

2. At which stage of meiosis does the genetic constitution of gametes is finally decided

(a) Metaphase I

(b) Anaphase II

(c) Metaphase II

(d) Anaphase I

Ans. (d) Anaphase I

Explanation: In anaphase I of meiosis, each homologous chromosome with its two

chromatids and undivided centromere; moves to the opposite poles of the cell. So the actual
reduction occurs in this stage which decides the genetic constitution of gamete.

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3. Meiosis occurs in organisms during

(a) Sexual reproduction

(b) Vegetative reproduction

(c) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a) Sexual reproduction

Explanation: There is no need of meiosis during vegetative reproduction. Hence, option ‘a’ is
the correct answer.

4. During anaphase-I of meiosis

(a) Homologous chromosomes separate

(b) Non-homologous autosomes separate

(c) Sister chromatids separate

(d) Non-sister chromatids separate

Ans. (a) Homologous chromosomes separate

Explanation: Homologous chromosomes separate during Anaphase I.

5. Mitosis is characterised by

(a) Reduction division

(b) Equal division

(c) Both reduction and equal division

(d) Pairing of homologous chromosomes

Ans. (b) Equal division

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Explanation: No reduction in chromosome number takes place and hence mitosis is also
called an equal division.

6. A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of

(a) Two chromatids and one centromere

(b) Two chromatids and two centromere

(c) Four chromatids and two centromere

(d) Four chromatids and four centromere

Ans. (c) Four chromatids and two centromere

Explanation: Bivalent is formed by pairing of two chromosomes. Thus, bivalent contains

four chromatids and four centromeres.

7. Cells which are not dividing are likely to be at

(a) G1

(b) G2

(c) G0

(d) S phase

Ans. (c) G0

Explanation: Phase G0 is also called quiescent phase and no cell division takes place during

this phase.

8. Which of the events listed below is not observed during mitosis?

(a) Chromatin condensation

(b) Movement of centrioles to opposite poles

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(c) Appearance of chromosomes with two chromatids joined together at the centromere.

(d) Crossing over

Ans. (d) Crossing over

Explanation: Crossing over takes place only during prophase I of meiosis.

9. Identify the wrong statement about meiosis

(a) Pairing of homologus chromosomes

(b) Four haploid cells are formed

(c) At the end of meiosis the number of chromosomes are reduced to half

(d) Two cycles of DNA replication occur

Ans. (d) Two cycles of DNA replication occur

Explanation: Since number of chromosomes in daughter cells is going to become half, there
is no need for an additional cycle of DNA replication.

10. Select the correct statement about G1 phase

(a) Cell is metabolically inactive

(b) DNA in the cell does not replicate

(c) It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules

(d) Cell stops growing

Ans. (b) DNA in the cell does not replicate

Explanation: During G1 phase, cell is metabolically active, continuously grows and carries

out synthesis of macromolecules, but DNA synthesis does not take place during this phase.

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Between a prokaryote and a eukaryote, which cell has a shorter cell division time?

Ans. Prokaryote

2. Which of the phases of cell cycle is of longest duration?

Ans. Interphase

3. Name a stain commonly used to colour chromosomes.

Ans. Acetocarmine and Giemsa stain

4. Which tissue of animals and plants exhibits meiosis?

Ans. Germ cells of male and female reproductive organs in animals and plants exhibit
meiosis.

5. Given that the average duplication time of E. coli is 20 minutes, how much time will
two E. coli cells take to become 32 cells?

Ans. 1 hour 20 minutes

Number of cells after 20 minutes = 4

Number of cells after 40 minutes = 8

Number of cells after 60 minutes = 16

Number of cells after 80 minutes = 32

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6. Which part of the human body should one use to demonstrate stages in mitosis?

Ans. Any part containing somatic cell can be used to demonstrate stages in mitosis in human
beings.

7. What attributes does a chromatid require to be classified as a chromosome?

Ans. There should be two identical sister chromatids attached at centre by centromere; to be
classified as a chromosome.

8. The diagram shows a bivalent at prophase-I of meiosis. Which of the four chromatids
can cross over?

Ans. In this case, non-sister chromatids can cross over. It is important to remember that
crossing over always takes place between two non-sister chromatids and never between two
sister chromatids.

9. If a tissue has at a given time 1024 cells, how many cycles of mitosis had the original
parental single cell undergone?

Ans.

The above equation shows that a cell must undergo 10 rounds of mitosis to produce 1024
cells.

10. An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells must have been
there to produce them?

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Ans. 1200 / 4 = 300 (because one mother cell produces four daughter cells after meiosis).
Hence, there must have been 300 pollen mother cells to produce 1200 pollen grains.

11. At what stage of cell cycle does DNA synthesis take place?

Ans. DNA synthesis takes place during S phase of the cell cycle.

12. It is said that the one cycle of cell division in human cells (eukaryotic cells) takes 24
hours. Which phase of the cycle, do you think occupies the maximum part of cell cycle?

Ans. Interphase occupies the maximum part of the cell cycle.

13. It is observed that heart cells do not exhibit cell division. Such cells do not divide
further and exit _____ phase to enter an inactive stage called _____ of cell cycle. Fill in the
blanks.

Ans. G1 phase, quiescent phase

14. In which phase of meiosis are the following formed? Choose the answers from hint
points given below.

(a) Synaptonemal complex _____

(b) Recombination nodules _____

(c) Appearance/activation of ____ enzyme recombinase

(d) Termination of chiasmata ____

(e) Interkinesis _____

(f) Formation of dyad of cells _____

Hints: 1) Zygotene, 2) Pachytene, 3) Pachytene, 4) Diakinesis, 5) After Telophase-I /before

Meosis-II, 6) Telophase-I /After Meiosis-I.

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Ans. (a) Zygotene

(b) Pachytene

(c) Telophase - I/After Meiosis – I

(d) Diakinesis

(e) After Telophase - I/before Meiosis – II

(f) Pachytene

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. State the role of centrioles other than spindle formation.

Ans. Centrioles also serve other purposes apart from its role in spindle formation it formed
the basal body of cilia and flagella. They also help in formation of microtubules and sperm
tail.

2. Mitochondria and plastids have their own DNA (genetic material). What is known
about their fate during nuclear division like mitosis?

Ans. The DNA in mitochondria and plastids is extra-genomic DNA. It has no correlation with
the nuclear division during mitosis. Hence, karyokinesis during cell division has no effect on
extra-genomic DNAs.

3. Label the diagram and also determine the stage at which this structure is visible.

Ans. This figure shows the transition from prophase to metaphase during mitosis.

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4. A cell has 32 chromosomes. It undergoes mitotic division. What will be the
chromosome number (N) during metaphase? What would be the DNA content (C)
during anaphase?

Ans. The number of chromosomes does not change during metaphase or anaphase. So, the
number will remain 32. We know that DNA replication takes place during S phase and hence,
the DNA content becomes double just after the S phase; and will remain so during mitosis.

5. While examining the mitotic stage in a tissue, one finds some cells with 16
chromosomes and some with 32 chromosomes. What possible reasons could you assign
to this difference in chromosome number? Do you think cells with 16 chromosomes
could have arisen from cells with 32 chromosomes or vice versa?

Ans. This can happen because of mosaicism. Mosaicism denotes the presence of two
populations of cells with different genotypes in one individual. Mosaicism can happen
because of various reasons, viz. non-disjunction, anaphase lag and endoreplication.
Anaphase lag appears to be the prime reason of mosaicism. In this case, the cells with 16
chromosomes must have arisen from those with 32 chromosomes.

6. The following events occur during the various phases of the cell cycle, Name the
phase against each of the events.

(a) Disintegration of nuclear membrane

(b) Appearance of nucleolus

(c) Division of centromere

(d) Replication of DNA

Ans. (a) Prophase

(b) Telophase

(c) Anaphase

(d) S-phase

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7. Mitosis results in producing two cells which are similar to each other. What would be
the consequence if each of the following irregularities occur during mitosis?

(a) Nuclear membrane fails to disintegrate

(b) Duplication of DNA does not occur

(c) Centromeres do not divide

(d) Cytokinesis does not occur.

Ans. (a) If nuclear membrane fails to disintegrate, then the spindle fibres would not be able
to reach chromosomes. As a result, the chromosomes would not be able to reach the opposite
poles of the cell.

(b) If DNA duplication does not take place, then the cell may not be able to reach the M
phase. This will result in cessation of the cell cycle.

(c) If division of centromeres does not take place, then one of the daughter cells will get a
complete pair of chromosomes and another daughter cell will get none. This may result in
trisomy. Trisomy is a type of abnormal number of chromosomes, i.e. aneuloploidy.

(d) If cytokinesis does not occur, then a cell with multinucleate condition would be formed.

8. Both unicellular and multicellular organisms undergo mitosis. What are the
differences, if any, observed in the process between the two?

Ans. In unicellular organisms, the cell is directly divided into two parts. This type of cell
division is called amitosis. In case of multicellular organisms, karyokinesis (division of
nucleus) takes place before the division of cytoplasm. In amitosis; duplication of DNA content
takes place simultaneously with the division of nucleus. In case of multicellular organisms,
there is a separate S phase for duplication of DNA.

9. Name the pathological condition when uncontrolled cell division occurs.

Ans. Malignancy is the pathological condition when uncontrolled cell division occurs. The
disease which happens because of malignancy is called cancer.

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10. Two key events take place, during S phase in animal cells, DNA replication and
duplication of centriole. In which parts of the cell do events occur?

Ans. DNA replication takes place in the nucleus. Duplication of centriole takes place in the
cytoplasm.

11. Comment on the statement – Meiosis enables the conservation of specific

chromosome number of each species even though the process per se, results in
reduction of chromosome number.

Ans. Meiosis is called reduction division because the number of chromosomes in daughter
cells becomes half of the number of chromosomes in mother cells. In spite of this, meiosis
enables the conservation of specific chromosome number of each species. In fact, has there
been no meiosis, organisms would not have been able to evolve to sexual mode of
reproduction. We know that fertilization involves fusion of male and female gametes. Thus,
zygote gets the chromosome pool from two cells and the number of chromosomes in a zygote
becomes double that of the gametes. To ensure conservation of specific chromosome number
after fertilization, it is necessary that the gametes should have half the number of
chromosomes compared to what it is in somatic cells.

12. Name a cell that is found arrested in diplotene stage for months and 1 years.
Comment in 2-3 lines how it completes cell cycle?

Ans. This happens in mammalian oocytes. In female mammals, the formation of eggs begins
while the female is still in the womb. But meiosis gets arrested in diplotene stage itself. This
pause continues till the female attains sexual maturity. Once the adolescence phase begins,
meiosis gets resumed but this does not happen to all the oocytes. This happens in a phased
manner because in each ovulation cycle; only a certain number of eggs are released by the
ovary. For example; in human beings, only one egg is released at roughly once in a month.
This process continues till the cessation of reproductive capability in the female.

13. How does cytokinesis in plant cells differ from that in animal cells?

Ans.

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 Cytokinesis in Plant Cell Cytokinesis in Animal Cell

(i) Division of cytoplasm takes place by cell plate (i) Division of cytoplasm takes place by
formation. formation of cleavage.

(ii) Cell plate formation begins at the centre and (ii) Cleavage begins at the periphery and
moves towards periphery. moves towards centre.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Comment on the statement — Telophase is reverse of prophase.

Ans. Following contrasting features of prophase and telophase show that telophase is
reverse of prophase.

Prophase Telophase

(i) Mitochondria, ER, Golgi Complex, etc. (i) Mitochondria, ER, Golgi Complex, etc.
disappear. reappear.

(ii) Nuclear membrane disintegrates. (ii) Nuclear membrane gets formed.

(iii) Chromosomes become clearly visible. (iii) Chromosomes lose their visible identity.

2. What are the various stages of meiotic prophase-I? Enumerate the chromosomal

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events during each stage?

Ans. Following are the various stages of meiotic prophase – I:

(a) Leptotene: During this stage, chromosomes become gradually visible under light
microscope. The compaction of chromosome continues through this stage. The sister
chromatids are so tightly bound that one cannot be differentiated from another.

(b) Zygotene: At this stage, chromosomes start forming pairs. This process is called synapsis.
Formation of synapsis is accompanied by formation of synaptonemal complex. Each pair is
called a bivalent or tetrad.

(c) Pachytene: At this stage, the bivalent chromosomes become distinct. Recombinaton
nodules appear on the tetrads. The recombination nodule is the site at which crossing over
takes place. Crossing over takes place between non-sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes. Crossing over facilitates exchange of genes between two homologous
chromosomes.

(d) Diplotene: At this stage, the synaptonemal complex gets dissolved. The recombined
chromosomes begin to separate from each other. But they are attached at the site of crossing
over. This makes X-shaped structure called chiasmata.

(e) Diakinesis: Chiasmata is terminated at this stage. Nucleolus disappears and so does the
nuclear membrane.

3. Differentiate between the events of mitosis and meiosis.

Ans.

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 Events Mitosis
Prophase is of shorter duration.
Chromosomes do not become
distinct at this stage.
Chromosomes show two distinct
Prophase
chromatids. No crossing over
takes place during this stage.
Prophase is simple and is not
distinguishable into sub-stages.
A single metaphasic plate is
formed. Chromosomes are
independent and do not show
connections. Limbs of
Metaphase
chromosomes are in various
directions. Two chromatids of a
chromosome are genetically
similar.
Centromere splits along its length
to form two centromeres.
Chromosomes are single
Anaphase
stranded. Similar chromosomes
move towards the opposite poles.
Telophase is of longer duration. It
Telophase
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Meiosis
Prophase–I is of longer duration, while
prophase–II is of shorter duration.
Chromosomes are quite distinct.
Chromosomes of prophase–I do not show
distinct chromatids. Chiasmata is formed
and crossing over takes place.
Two metaphasic plates are formed during
metaphase–I but a single metaphasic plate
is formed during metaphase–II.
Homologous chromosomes are
interconnected. Limbs of chromosomes
point towards the centre. Two chromatids
of a chromosome are usually genetically
different.
During anaphase–I, centromeres do not
divide, but division of centromere takes
place during anaphase–II. Double
stranded chromosomes are present in
anaphase–I, but during anaphase–II, single
stranded chromosomes are present.
Dissimilar chromosomes move towards
the opposite poles.
Telophase–I is shorter.
16
 produces interphase nuclei.

Cytokinesis does not happen after

Cytokinesis happens after every
meiosis–I but is happens after meiosis–II.
Cytokinesis mitosis. Two daughter cells are
Four daughter cells are formed at the end
formed at the end.
of meiosis–II.

4. Write brief note on the following

(a) Synaptonemal complex

(b) Metaphase plate

Ans. (a) Synaptonemal complex is made up of protein. It is formed between two homologous
chromosomes during meiosis. This is the site of pairing, synapsis and recombination. During
prophase–I of meiosis, the homologous chromosomes get paired through the synaptomnemal
complex. Exchange of genes takes place through this complex. Thus, recombination of
genetic characters takes place through synaptonemal complex.

(b) Metaphase plate is an imaginary line which is equidistant from the two centrosome
poles. During metaphase, the chromosomes assemble at the metaphase plate. The even
alignment of chromosomes is because of the opposing kinetochore microtubules.

5. Write briefly the significance of mitosis and meiosis in multicellular organism.

Ans. Significance of Mitosis:

Mitosis facilitates development of single-cell zygote into a full-grown organism.

It facilitates growth of an organism.
It facilitates repair of worn out or damaged tissues.
It facilitates vegetative propagation in flowering plants.
It facilitates regeneration in some animals; like planaria.

Significance of Meiosis:

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 Meiosis ensures that number of chromosomes becomes diploid in gametes. This helps
in ensuring conservation of specific chromosomal number in each species.
Meiosis facilitates genetic variability in populations. This is brought about because of
crossing over during prophase–I.

6. An organism has two pair of chromosomes (i.e., chromosome number = 4).

Diagrammatically represent the chromosomal arrangement during different phases of
meiosis-II.

Ans. The following diagram shows different phases of meiosis—II of an organism which has
two pairs of chromosomes.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 11
TRANSPORT IN PLANTS

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs)

1. Which of the following statements does not apply to reverse osmosis?

(a) It is used for water purification.

(b) In this technique, pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied to the system

(c) It is a passive process

(d) It is an active process

Ans. (d) It is an active process

Explanation: Osmosis is a passive process but reverse osmosis needs energy.

2. Which one of the following will not directly affect transpiration?

(a) Temperature

(b) Light

(c) Wind speed

(d) Chlorophyll content of leaves

Ans. (d) Chlorophyll content of leaves

Explanation: Chlorophyll has no role to play in transpiration. As transpiration depends on

rate of evaporation so temperature, light and wind speed affect rate of transpiration.

3. The lower surface of leaf will have more number of stomata in a

(a) dorsiventral leaf

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(b) isobilateral leaf

(c) both a and b

(d) none of the above

Ans. (a) Dorsiventral leaf

Explanation: In isobilateral leaf, number of stomata is same on both surfaces.

4. The form of sugar transported through phloem is

(a) Glucose

(b) Fructose

(c) Sucrose

(d) Ribose

Ans. (c) Sucrose

Explanation: Sucrose is a disaccharide. It is the most inactive form of sugar so used in

transport.

5. The process of guttation takes place

(a) when the root pressure is high and the rate of transpiration is low.

(b) when the root pressure is low and the rate of transpiration is high

(c) when the root pressure equals the rate of transpiration

(d) when the root pressure as well as rate of transpiration are high.

Ans. (a) When the root pressure is high and the rate of transpiration is low

Explanation: Guttation takes place in the absence of transpiration; especially in low light
conditions (early morning). Guttation leads to formation of water droplets on tips of leaves
while transpiration releases water vapour.

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6. Which of the following is an example of imbibition

(a) uptake of water by root hair

(b) exchange of gases in stomata

(c) swelling of seed when put in soil

(d) opening of stomata

Ans. (c) swelling of seed when put in soil

Explanation: In fact, seeds are able to germinate after they take up water by imbibition.

7. When a plant undergoes senescence, the nutrients may be

(a) Accumulated

(b) Bound to cell wall

(c) Translocated

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c) Translocated

Explanation: Nutrients are withdrawn from senescent parts and then relocated to other
parts for optimum use.

8. Water potential of pure water at standard temperature is equal to

(a) 10

(b) 20

(c) Zero

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c) Zero

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Explanation: By convention, water potential of pure water at standard temperature is taken
as zero.

9. Choose the correct option mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of fungus with root
system which helps in

A. Absorption of water

B. Mineral nutrition

C. Translocation

D. Gaseous exchange

Options:

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(c) both A and B

(d) both B and C

Ans. (c) both A and B

Explanation: Mycorrhiza plays no role in translocation and gaseous exchange.

10. Based on the figure given which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Movement of solvent molecules will take place from chamber A to B.

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(b) Movement of solute will take place from A to B.

(c) Presence of a semipermeable is a pre-requisite for this process to occur.

(d) The direction and rate of osmosis depends on both the pressure gradient and
concentration gradient.

Ans. (b) Movement of solute will take place from A to B

Explanation: Movement of solvent always takes place from high solvent concentration to
low solvent concentration. Solute never moves through a semipermeable membrane.

11. Match the followings and choose the correct option

Column A Column B

A. Leaves (i) Anti-transpirant

B. Seed (ii) Transpiration

C. Roots (iii) Negative osmotic potential

D. Aspirin (iv) Imbibition

E. Plasmolyzed cell (v) Absorption

Options:

(a) A-(ii), B-(iv), c-(v), D-(i), E-(iii)

(b) A-(iii), B-(ii), c-(iv), D-(i), E-(v)

(c) A-(i), B-(ii), c-(iii), D-(ii), E-(v)

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(d) A-(v), B-(iv), c-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i)

Ans. (a) A-(ii), B-(iv), c-(v), D-(i), E-(iii)

Explanation: Transpiration happens mainly through stomata which are present on leaves.
‘A’ is being matched with ‘ii’ only in this option hence option ‘a’ is the correct answer.

12. Mark the mismatched pair.

(a) Amyloplast: store protein granule

(b) Elaioplast: store oils or fats

(c) Chloroplasts: contain chlorophyll pigments

(d) Chromoplasts: contain coloured pigments other than chlorophyll

Ans. (a) Amyloplast: store protein granules

Explanation: Amyloplast stores starch granules.

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Smaller, lipid soluble molecules diffuse faster through cell membrane, but the
movement of hydrophilic substances are facilitated by certain transporters which are
chemically _____.

Ans. proteins

2. In a passive transport across a membrane, when two protein molecules move in

opposite direction and independent of each other, it is called as _____.

Ans. antiport

3. Osmosis is a special kind of diffusion, in which water diffuses across the cell
membrane. The rate and direction of osmosis depends upon both _____.

Ans. pressure gradient and concentration gradient

4. A flowering plant is planted in an earthen pot and irrigated. Urea is added to make
the plant grow faster, but after some time the plant dies. This may be due to _____.

Ans. exosmosis

5. Absorption of water from soil by dry seeds increases the _____, thus helping seedlings
to come out of soil.

Ans. pressure

6. Water moves up against gravity and even for a tree of 20m height, the tip receives
water within two hours. The most important physiological phenomenon which is

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responsible for the upward movement of water is _____.

Ans. transpiration pull

7. The plant cell cytoplasm is surrounded by both cell wall and cell membrane. The
specificity of transport of substances are mostly across the cell membrane, because
_____.

Ans. cell membrane is selectively permeable.

8. The C4 plants are twice as efficient as C3 plants in terms of fixing CO2 but lose only

_____ as much water as C3 plants for the same amount of CO2 fixed.

Ans. half

9. Movement of substances in xylem is unidirectional while in phloem it is

bidirectional. Explain.

Ans. Movement in xylem is facilitated by various means of passive transport, while

movement in phloem is active transport. Due to this, only unidirectional movement is
possible in xylem. On the other hand, bidirectional movement is possible in phloem.

10. Identify the process occurring in I, II and III

Ans. (I) Uniport, (II) Antiport, (III) Symport

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11. Given below is a table. Fill in the gaps

Property Simple diffusion facilitated transport Active Transport

Property Simple diffusion Facilitated transport Active transport

Highly selective …………. Yes ………….

Uphill transport …………. …………. Yes

Requires ATP …………. …………. ………….

Ans.

Property Simple diffusion Facilitated transport Active transport

Highly selective No Yes Yes

Uphill transport No No Yes

Requires ATP No No Yes

12. Define water potential and solute potential.

Ans. The kinetic energy of water is called water potential. Water potential reduces when a
solute is dissolved in it. The magnitude of lowering of water potential because of solute is
called solute potential.

13. Why is solute potential always negative? Explain

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Ans. When a solute is dissolved in water, it reduces the water potential because
concentration of water in a solution is less than that in pure water. The measure of reduction
in water pollution because of solute is called solute potential. Since, solute potential always
has a negative impact on water potential, so its value is always negative.

For a solution at atmospheric pressure, its water potential is equal to solute potential. When
a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied, then water potential of the solute
increases. This is illustrated by following equation:

Here; yw is water potential, ys is solute potential and yp is pressure potential.

14. An onion peel was taken and

(a) Placed in salt solution for five minutes.

(b) After that it was placed in distilled water.

When seen under the microscope what would be observed in a and b?

Ans. In case of ‘a’ the cells of onion peel would lose water. This will show shrunk cells in
microscope.

In case of ‘b’ the cells of onion peel would gain water. This will show normal cells in
microscope.

In both the cases, movement of water takes place because of osmotic gradient.

15. Differentiate between Apoplast and Symplast pathways of water movement. Which
of these would need active transport?

Ans.

Apoplast Pathway Symplast Pathway

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(i) The apoplastic movement of water (i) The symplastic movement of water occurs
occurs exclusively through the through the cells—their cytoplasm, intercellular
intercellular spaces and the walls of the movement is through the plasmodesmata.
cells.

(ii) The apoplast pathway does not (ii) The symplast pathway provide a little barrier
provide any barrier to water movement. to water movement.

(iii) It consists of the non-living parts of

(iii) It consists of living parts of the plant body.
the plant body.

(iv) Movement of water in this pathway (iv) Movement of water in this pathway is
is faster. relatively slower.

None of these pathways need active transport.

16. How does most of the water moves within the root?

Ans. Most of the water moves within the root through apoplast pathway since the cortical
cells are loosely packed. Only a minor portion of water moves through symplast pathway.
Presence of casparian strip prevents water movement through apoplast pathway. In that
case, symplast pathway is the preferred pathway for movement of water.

17. Give the location of casparian strip and explain its role in the water movement.

Ans. Casparian strip is present at the boundary of the endodermis. It is made up of suberin.
Casparian strip is impervious to water and thus water cannot enter it through apoplast
pathway. Water needs to enter the vascular bundle through symplast pathway.

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18. Differentiate between guttation and transpiration.

Ans.

Transpiration Guttation

(i) Loss of water through stomata is called (i) Loss of water through leaf apex is called
transpiration. guttation.

(ii) Facilitated by evaporation. (ii) Facilitated by root pressure.

(iii) Takes place in most of the plants. (iii) Takes place in grasses only.

(iv) Takes place throughout the day; in

(iv) Takes place early in the morning.
sunshine.

19. Transpiration is a necessary evil in plants. Explain.

Ans. Transpiration plays important role in plant physiology. Transpiration creates the
transpiration pull which is responsible for ascent of sap; especially in tall plants.
Transpiration also helps in getting rid of excess water. But transpiration leads to a huge
wastage of water which could otherwise been conserved. Only a minuscule fraction of water
reaching to the leaves is utilized for photosynthesis and rest of it is wasted through
transpiration. But since transpiration plays an important role in ascent of sap, so it is called a

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necessary evil.

20. Describe briefly the three physical properties of water which helps in ascent of
water in xylem.

Ans. Following are the three physical properties of water which help in ascent of water in
xylem.

Cohesion: The ability of water molecules to stick to each other is called cohesion.

Adhesion: The ability of water molecules to stick to a surface is called adhesion.

Surface Tension: Any liquid has the tendency to occupy the smallest possible surface area.
This property is called surface tension.

Adhesion cohesion and surface tension enable water to make a continuous column of water
in the xylem vessels. Thus, water is pulled as a column by the transpiration pull.

21. A gardener forgot to water a potted plant for a day during summer, what will
happen to the plant? Do you think it is reversible? If yes, how?

Ans. If a potted plant is not watered for a day during summer, the plant will wilt. This
happens because of excessive water loss due to transpiration. In most of the cases, this is
reversible by watering the plant in time. But if a long delay is made then, the plant cannot be
revived.

22. Identify a type of molecular movement which is highly selective and requires
special membrane proteins, but does not require energy.

Ans. The type of molecular movement which is highly selective and require special
membrane proteins, but does not require energy is called facilitated diffusion. Diffusion of
any substance across a membrane depends on its solubility in lipid. If a substance has
hydrophilic moiety, it cannot diffuse through a membrane. To facilitate the diffusion of such
a molecule, special membrane proteins are present. In this case also, diffusion takes place
from higher concentration to lower concentration and hence energy is not spent in the form
of ATP. Facilitated diffusion is highly selective. It allows cells to select particular substances

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for energy.

23. Correct the statements

(a) Cells shrink in hypotonic solutions and swell in hypertonic solutions.

(b) Imbibition is special type of diffusion when water is absorbed by living cells.

(c) Most of the water flow in the roots occurs via the symplast.

Ans. (a) Cells swell in hypotonic solutions and shrink in hypertonic solutions.

(b) Imbibition is a special type of diffusion when water is absorbed by solids – colloids.

(c) Most of the water flow in the roots occurs via the apoplast.

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Minerals absorbed by the roots travel up the xylem. How do they reach the parts
where they are needed most? Do all the parts of the plant get the same amount of the
minerals?
Ans. Minerals are supplied to different plant parts according to the need. Once minerals are
in the xylem; they are transported because of the transpiration pull. They go up to a cell
through passive transport and then taken up by the cell through active transport. Young and
growing parts of a plant need more minerals and hence these parts are supplied with mote
minerals.

Relocation of minerals also takes place in a plant. MInerals get relocated to the parts where
they needed most from the old and sesecing parts.Thus, plant ensures optimum utilization of
minerals.

2. If one wants to find minerals and in the form, they are mobilised in the plant, how
will an analysis of the exudate help?

Ans. An Analysis of xylem exudates helped up in recognizing the forms and ways in which
minerals transported in plant. For example; the analysis of xylem exudates has revealed that
most of the nitrogen is transported in the form of organic molecules rather than in the form
of inorganic molecules. Small amounts of phosphorus and Sulphur are transported in the
form of organic compounds. Some exchange of materials also takes place between xylem and
phloem. So, it cannot be clearly said that xylem transports only inorganic compounds and
phloem transports only organic compounds.

3. From your knowledge of physiology can you think of some method of increasing the
life of cut plants in a vase?

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Ans. The life of a cut plant can be increased by following methods:

(a) Immediately put the cut plant in water.

(b) Some mineral nutrients should be added to water.

(c) A spray of hormone cytokinin also helps in prolonging the life of the cut plant.

4. Do different species of plants growing in the same area show the same rate of
transpiration at a particular time? Justify your answer.

Ans. Plant factors which affect the rate of transpiration are: number and distribution of
stomata, percent of open stomata, water status, canopy structure, etc. These factors may be
different in different plant species Thus, different species in the same area may show
different rates of transpiration at a particular time.

5. Water is indispensable for life. What properties of water make it useful for all
biological processes on the earth?

Ans. Following properties of water make it useful for all biological processes on the earth.

Water is a universal solvent; which means it can dissolve most of the substances.
Water is the major component of protoplast and thus a major ingredient of all the
cells.
In case of external fertilization in animals, water is the medium through which the
male gamete travels up to the female gamete.
Oxygen easily dissolves in water and thus becomes available for breathing by aquatic
organisms.
In many plants, water is an agent of pollination.
Water helps in temperature control in living beings because specific, heat of water
helps in attaining cooling effect.

6. How is it that the intracellular levels of K+ are higher than extracellular levels in
animal cells?

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Ans. The membrane potential of a quiescent cell is relatively static. This stage is called
resting potential. When a cell membrane is in resting potential, then intracellular levels of

K+ are higher than extracellular levels in animal cells. This is brought about by Na+/K+ -

ATPase which is also called sodium/proton pump. This pump makes 2K+ ions to enter the cell

for every 3Na+ ions leaving the cell. Thus, for every 3 positive charges going out; only 2

positive charges go in. This results in a higher concentration of K+ inside the cell than outside
it.

7. Cut pieces of beetroot do not leave colour in cold water but do so in hot water.
Explain.

Ans. When cut pieces of beetroot are kept in hot water, it results in leakage of the plasma
membrane. As a result, beetroot pigments are released in water and water becomes
coloured. In case of cold water, the temperature is not enough to cause leakage in plasma
membrane and hence beetroot pieces do not leave colour in cold water.

8. In a girdled plant, when water is supplied to the leaves above the girdle, leaves may
remain green for some time then wilt and ultimately die. What does it indicate?

Ans. In a girdled plant, when water is supplied to the leaves above the girdle, leaves remain
green for some time. This happens because leaves can carry on photosynthesis in the
presence of water. But leaves are unable to translocate the food prepared by them because
girdling also results in damage to the phloem. This will finally result in death of the leaves
above the girdle; even if they are given a regular supply of water.

9. Various types of transport mechanisms are needed to fulfill the mineral

requirements of a plant. Why are they not fulfilled by diffusion alone?

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Ans. Minerals are present in the form of ions in soil. Mineral ions cannot move across root
walls through diffusion because concentration of minerals in roots is always more than that
in soil. Another reason is, charge particles cannot move across cell membranes. Hence,
mineral requirements of plant cannot be met by diffusion alone.

10. How can plants be grown under limited water supply without compromising on
metabolic activities?

Ans. When a plant gets limited water supply, it brings some changes in physiology to
conserve water. For example; in xerophytes water loss is prevented by preventing
transpiration. Even in normal plants, leaves wilt during summer days in order to prevent
excessive transpiration. Thus, plants have learnt to manage with limited supply of water and
they can carry on other metabolic activities.

11. Will the ascent of sap be possible without the cohesion and adhesion of the water
molecules? Explain.

Ans. Root pressure, capillary action, adhesion-cohesion and transpiration are the factors
involved in ascent of sap in plants. Root pressure can only result in movement of water up to
the base of the stem. Capillary action can raise the water only up to a few centimeters and
hence can be effective in herbs only. Transpiration pull will only work when there is a water
column underneath to be pulled. Hence, it is clear that ascent of sap is not possible without
adhesion-cohesion of water molecules.

12. Keep some freshly cut flowers in a solution of food colour. Wait for some time for
the dye to rise in the flower, when the stem of the flower is held up in light, coloured
strands can be seen inside. Can this experiment demonstrate which tissue is conducting
water up the stem?

Ans. Coloured strands show that there is a continuous column of water through the stem. We
have seen that water molecules make continuous column because of adhesion-cohesion. We
have also seen that water moves through xylem in plants. Hence, this experiment can
demonstrate that xylem is conducting water up the stem.

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13. When a freshly collected Spirogyra, filament is kept in a 10% potassium nitrate
solution, it is observed that the protoplasm shrinks in size:

(a) What is this phenomenon called?

(b) What will happen if the filament is replaced in distilled water?

Ans. (a) This phenomenon is called plasmolysis.

(b) When the filament is replaced in distilled water, it will result in water entering the cells.
Cells would once again come to their original shape and size.

14. Sugar crystals do not dissolve easily in ice cold water. Explain.

Ans. The kinetic energy of water reduces with reduction in temperature. Hence, sugar
crystals can quickly dissolve in hot water. They will take some more time to dissolve in water
at room temperature. They will take even longer time to dissolve in ice cold water.

15. Salt is applied to tennis lawns to kill weeds. How does salting tennis lawns help in
killing of weeds without affecting the grass?

Ans. This is a misconception that applying salt will only kill weeds and will not affect grass.
When salt is applied to a plant. water from plant cells come out because of osmosis.
Excessive loss of water kills the plant cells and eventually the plant. Applying salt to weeds is
a popular practice among gardeners but it has its own drawbacks. Salt can also damage the
useful plants. To limit the damage to useful plants, salt is used as solution in water and care
is taken to directly sprinkle the weeds only with this solution. So, using salt as a weedicide is
not a full proof method of getting rid of weeds without damaging the useful plants.

16. What is the chemical composition of xylem and phloem sap?

Ans. Exudates of xylem and phloem have been studied. The xylem sap mainly contains
inorganic compounds. Most of the sulphur and potassium are in the form of inorganic
compound. However, most of the nitrogen is in the form of organic compound. In case of
phloem sap also; both organic and inorganic compounds are found. Organic compounds are
more in phloem sap because it carries the food. But it also has inorganic compound because

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exchange of materials takes place between phloem and xylem.

17. If you are provided with two tubes (A and B), where one is narrow and the other is
relatively wider and if both are immersed in a beaker containing water as shown in the
given figure. Why does B show higher water rise than A?

Ans. The lumen of tube B is smaller than that of A. Tube B creates more capillary effect than
tube A because of smaller lumen. Due to this, the water rises higher in tube B than in tube A.

18. What are ‘aquaporins’? How does presence of aquaporins affect osmosis?

Ans. Aquaporins are integral membrane proteins. They belong to a large family of Major
Intrinsic Proteins (MIP). Aquaporins form pores in membranes of biological cells.
Aquaporins hasten the rate of osmosis.

19. ABA (Abscisic acid) is called a stress hormone.

(a) How does this hormone overcome stress conditions?

(b) From where does this hormone get released in leaves?

Ans. (a) In case of scarcity of water, ABA gives signal to stomata. This results in stomata
getting closed. Thus, transpiration is stopped and water is conserved. This explains how ABA
overcomes stress situations.

(b) ABA is released from stem apex to leaves.

20. We know that plants are harmed by excess water. But plants survive under flooded

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condition. How are they able to manage excess water?

Ans. Some varieties of rice survive under flooded conditions. These varieties of rice have
certain adaptations which help them survive the flood. The stems of these plants grow
quickly in case of flood. This ensures that some part of the foliage is always above water.
Stems are hollow which allows exchange of gases. Thus, certain varieties of rice can survive
up to one month in flooded condition.

21. Differentiate between diffusion and translocation in plants.

Ans.

Diffusion Translocation

(i) This is a passive process. (i) This is an active process.

(ii) Energy is not required. (ii) Energy is required.

(iii) Facilitates movement of water and (iii) Facilitates movement of organic

gases. compounds.

22. How is facilitated diffusion different from diffusion?

Ans.

Diffusion Facilitated diffusion

(i) During diffusion, movement is along (i) During facilitated diffusion, movement is
osmotic gradient. against osmotic gradient.

(ii) It is a slow process. (ii) It is a fast process.

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(iii) It is not dependent on a living (iii) It is dependent on a living system.
system.

23. Explain the mass flow hypothesis of transport in phloem.

Ans. The Pressure Flow Hypothesis is also known as the Mass Flow Hypothesis. It is the most
accepted theory of movement of food through phloem. It was proposed by Ernst Munch in
1930s. A high concentration of glucose in the cells of phloem at the source sets up osmotic
gradient. This results in movement of water from xylem into phloem. After this, the phloem
sap moves sugar from source to sink because of turgor pressure. Since pressure is involved
hence it is called pressure flow hypothesis. The movement of substance takes place in bulk
and hence this is also called mass flow hypothesis.

24. Observe the diagram and answer the following;

(a) Are these types of guard cells found in monocots or dicots?

(b) Which of these shows a higher water content (i) or (ii)?

(c) Which element plays an important role in the opening and closing of stomata?

Ans. (a) The guard cells are bean shaped and hence these are found in dicots.

(b) Stomata in fig. (i) shows higher water content as it is turgid and open and that in fig. (ii)
shows lower water content as it is flaccid and close.

(c) Potassium

25. Define Uniport, Symport and Antiport. Do they require energy?

Ans. Some carrier proteins allow movement only when two types of molecules move

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together. Based on this criterion, such a movement can be of three types:

(a) Uniport: When both the molecules move across a membrane independent to each other,
this is called uniport.

(b) Antiport: When both types of molecule move in mutually opposite directions; this is
called antiport.

(c) Symport: When both types of molecule move in the same direction; this is called symport.

These are types of facilitated diffusion and hence do not require energy.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Minerals are present in the soil in sufficient amounts. Do plants need to adjust the
types of solutes that reach the xylem? Which molecules help to adjust this? How do
plants regulate the type and quantity of solutes that reach xylem?

Ans. Minerals are present in the soil in sufficient amounts, but plants need to adjust the
types of solutes that reach the xylem. Minerals are present as ions in soil. Some of them are
passively transported from soil to the root hairs, while some others are transported actively.
Special membrane proteins in the epidermal cells of root hairs control the active transport of
mineral ions. The endodermal cells also have transport proteins. These transport proteins
are selective in uptake of mineral ions. This means that they allow only certain kinds of ions
to enter the cells and do not permit some other kinds of ions to enter the cells. The transport
proteins of endodermal cells are the control points which govern the entry of particular type
and quantity of solutes entering the xylem. Moreover, the layer of suberin in the endodermis
facilitates only one way movement of ions.

2. Plants show temporary and permanent wilting. Differentiate between the two. Do
any of them indicate the water status of the soil?

Ans.

Temporary Wilting Permanent Wilting

(i) There is temporary loss of

(i) There is permanent loss of turgidity in cells.
turgidity in cells.

(ii) This happens when rate of (ii) This happens when rate of transpiration is more

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transpiration is more than the rate than the rate of water supply. But the difference is
of water supply. below critical level.

(iii) Wilting disappears as soon as (iii) Wilting does not disappear even after water
water supply resumes to normal. supply resumes to normal.

(iv) Plant recovers its normal

(iv) Plant eventually dies.
activity.

3. Which of these is a semipermeable membrane (S.P) and which is selectively

permeable (S.L)

(a) Animal Bladder (b) Plasmalemma (c) Tonoplast (d) Parchment membrane

(e) Egg membrane

Ans. (a) Semi-permeable

(b) Selectively permeable

(c) Selectively permeable

(e) Semi-permeable

(d) Semi-permeable

4. Halophytes may show precell pressure very much higher than atmospheric pressure.
Explain how this can happen?

Ans. Plants which are adapted to live in saline water are called halophytes. In such cases, the
water potential in soil is less than that in plant cells. This can result in low availability of
water for the plant and may result in water stress for the plant. But these plants show
various adaptations to deal with the situation. These plants store excess salt; especially
sodium and potassium salts; in their vacuoles. This helps the plant in maintaining the pre-
cell pressure which is much higher than atmospheric pressure.

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5. The radio labelled carbon in carbon dioxide supplied to potato plants in an
experiment was seen in the tuber eventually. Trace the movement of the labelled
carbon dioxide.

Ans. The radio labelled carbon dioxide can be supplied to the plant to observe the formation
of carbohydrate and eventual movement of starch to various parts of the plant. We know

that photosynthesis takes place in leaves. So, the radioactive carbon dioxide; containing C14;
will first move to parenchyma in leaves. After photosynthesis, the radioactive carbon can be
detected in carbohydrate in leaves. This will also be detected in starch which is formed just
after photosynthesis.

Once carbohydrate gets converted to starch, this is moved to the sink, i.e. the storage organs
of the plant. In case of potato, most of the starch is stored in tubers. So, radioactive carbon
would be detected finally in the tubers. Before proceeding to the tuber, the radioactive
carbon would move through the phloem tissue down the stem and finally to the tuber. The
movement of radioactive carbon can be shown by following flow chart.

Leaves Phloem in veins Phloem in stem Tuber

6. Water molecule is very polar. Polar end of molecule attracts opposite charges on
another water molecule (acts like magnet). How will you explain this property of water
with reference to upward movement of water? Comment on the upward movement of
water given the intermolecular hydrogen bonding in water.

Ans. Water is a polar molecule. When two water molecules approach one another, the
slightly negatively charged oxygen atom of one forms a hydrogen bond with a slightly
positively charged hydrogen atom in the other. This attractive force, along with other
intermolecular forces, is one of the principal factors responsible for the occurrence of
surface tension in liquid water. It also allows plants to draw water from the root through the
xylem to the leaf.

Cohesion between water molecules helps in making a continuous column of water in xylem.
This; along with adhesion and surface tension; helps the transpiration pull to pull up the
water column in plants. Thus, a multitude of factors are work during ascent of sap in plants.

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7. Comment on the experimental setup

(a) What does the setup demonstrate?

(b) What will happen to the level of water if a blower is placed close to setup?

(c) Will the mercury level fluctuate (go up/down) if phenyl mercuric acetate is sprayed
on leaves?

Ans. (a) The setup demonstrates effect of wind speed on rate of transpiration.

(b) If blower is placed close to the setup, this will decrease the level of water. This happens
because increased wind speed increases the rate of transpiration.

(c) Phenyl mercuric acetate will reduce the rate of transpiration. As a result, mercury level
would go down.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 12
MINERAL NUTRITION
Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs)

1. Which one of the following roles is not characteristic of an essential element?

(a) being a component of biomolecules

(b) changing the chemistry of soil

(c) being a structural component of energy related chemical compounds

(d) activation or inhibition of enzymes

Ans. (b) changing the chemistry of soil

Explanation: Soil is not a living thing and hence essential elements have no role to play in
soil chemistry.

2. Which one of the following statements can best explain the term critical
concentration of an essential element?

(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.

(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes enhanced.

(c) essential element concentration below which plant remains in the vegetative phase.

(d) none of the above

Ans. (a) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes retarded.

Explanation: Critical concentration is the minimum threshold concentration required for

proper growth and development. If concentration of essential element fall below this level,
growth will be compromised.

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3. Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves. It indicates
that the element is relatively immobile. Which one of the following elemental
deficiency would show such symptoms?

(a) Sulphur

(b) Magnesium

(c) Nitrogen

(d) Potassium

Ans. (a) Sulphur

4. Which one of the following symptoms is not due to manganese toxicity in plants?

(a) Calcium translocation in shoot apex is inhibited

(b) Deficiency in both Iron and Nitrogen is induced

(c) Appearance of brown spot surrounded by chlorotic veins

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b) Deficiency in both Iron and Nitrogen is induced

Explanation : the prominent symptom of manganese toxicity is the appearance of brown

spots surrounded by chlorotic veins. It is important to know that manganese competes with
iron and magnesium for uptake and with magnesium for binding with enzymes. Manganese
also inhibit calcium translocation in shoot apex. Therefore, excess of manganese may, in fact,
induce deficiencies of iron, magnesium and calcium

5. Reaction carried out by N2 fixing microbes include

(a)

(b)

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Which of the following statements about these equations is not true

(a) step (i) is carried out by Nitrosomonas or Nitrococcus

(b) step (ii) is carried out by Nitrobacter

(c) both steps (i) and (ii) can be called nitrification

(d) bacteria carrying out these steps are usually photoautotrophs

Ans. (d) bacteria carrying out these steps are usually photoautotrophs

Explanation: Bacteria which assist in nitrogen fixation are heterotrophs and that is why
they enter into symbiotic association.

6. With regard to the Biological Nitrogen Fixation by Rhizobium in association with

soybean, which one of the following statement/ statements does not hold true.

(a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning.

(b) Nitrogenase is Mo- Fe protein

(c) Leg-hemoglobin is a pink coloured pigment.

(d) Nitrogenase helps to convert N2 gas into two molecules of ammonia.

Ans. (a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning

Explanation: Nitrogenase does not require oxygen for its functioning.

7. Match the element with its associated functions/roles and choose the correct option
among given below

Column I Column II

A. Boron (i) Splitting of H2O to liberate O2 during photosynthesis

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 B. Manganese (ii) Needed for synthesis of auxins

C. Molybdenum (iii) Component of nitrogenase

D. Zinc (iv) Pollen germination

E. Iron (v) Component of ferredoxin

Options

(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D.(iv), E-(v)

(b) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(v)

(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(v), E-(i)

(d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(i), E-(iv)

Ans. (b) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(v)

8. Plants can be grown in (Tick the incorrect option)

(a) soil with essential nutrients.

(b) water with essential nutrients.

(c) either water or soil with essential nutrients.

(d) water or soil without essential nutrients.

Ans. (d) water or soil without essential nutrients.

Explanation: Plants can be grown in either soil or water or in both with essential nutrients.
But it cannot grow in water or soil deficient in nutrients.

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Name a plant, which accumulate silicon.

Ans. Oryza sativa (rice), Triticum aestivum (wheat)

2. Mycorrhiza is a mutualistic association. How do the organisms involved in this

association gain from each other?

Ans. Mycorrhiza is a mutualistic association between a fungus and a vascular plant. In this
relationship, the fungus gets shelter and food and carries out nitrogen fixation for the benefit
of the vascular plant.

3. Nitrogen fixation is shown by prokaryotes and not eukaryotes. Comment?

Ans. Eukaryotes do not possess the enzyme nitrogenase which is required for nitrogen
fixation. This enzyme is present in some prokaryotes only. Hence, nitrogen fixation is shown
by prokaryotes and not by eukaryotes.

4. Carnivorous plants like Nepenthes and Venus fly trap have nutritional adaptations.
Which nutrient do they especially obtain and from where?

Ans. These plants obtain nitrogenous nutrients from insects.

5. Think of a plant which lacks chlorophyll. From where will it obtain nutrition? Give
an example of such a type of plant.

Ans. Cuscuta (amarbel) is a plant which lacks chlorophyll. This plant lives as parasite on
another plant and derives nutrition from its host.

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6. Name an insectivorous angiosperm.

Ans. Urticularia

7. A farmer adds Azotobacter culture to soil before sowing maize. Which mineral
element is being replenished?

Ans. Azotobacter helps in replenishing nitrogenous nutrients.

8. What type of conditions are created by leghaemoglobin in the root nodule of a

legume?

Ans. Leghaemoglobin works as oxygen scavenger and thus creates anaerobic conditions in
the root nodule of a legume. Nitrogenase is highly sensitive to oxygen and hence needs
anaerobic condition to maintain its existence. Thus, leghaemoglobin creates a condition so
that nitrogenase can carry out nitrogen fixation.

9. What is common to Nepenthes, Utricularia and Drosera with regard to mode of

nutrition?

Ans. All of them are insectivorous plants.

10. Plants with zinc deficiency show reduced biosynthesis of _____.

Ans. Auxin

11. Yellowish edges appear in leaves deficient in _____.

Ans. Nitrogen

12. Name the macronutrient which is a component of all organic compounds but is not
obtained from soil.

Ans. Carbon

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13. Name one non-symbiotic nitrogen fixing prokaryote.

Ans. Azotobacter

14. Rice fields produce an important greenhouse gas. Name it.

Ans. Methane CH4

15. Complete the equation for reductive amination

__?__

Ans.

16. Excess of Mn in soil leads to deficiency of Ca, Mg and Fe. Justify.

Ans. Manganese competes with iron and magnesium for uptake and with magnesium for
binding to specific enzyme. It also inhibits calcium translocation in shoot apex. Hence, excess
of magnesium may induce deficiency of Ca, Mg and Fe.

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. How is sulphur important for plants? Name the amino acids in which it is present.

Ans. Sulphurs is the main constituent of several coenzymes, vitamins and ferredoxin. It is
present in two amino acids; cysteine and methionine

2. How are organisms like Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus of great significance in

nitrogen cycle?

Ans. Nitrates present in soil are reduced to nitrogen through a process called denitrification.
Denitrification is carried out by Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus. Thus, Pseudomonas and
Thiobacillus have great importance in nitrogen cycle.

3. Carefully observe the following figure:

(a) Name the technique shown in the figure and the scientist who demonstrated this
technique for the first time.

(b) Name at least three plants for which this technique can be employed for their
commercial production.

(c) What is the significance of aerating tube and feeding funnel in this setup?

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Ans. (a) This figure is showing the technique of hydroponics. This was first demonstrated by
Julius von Sachs in 1860.

(b) This technique can commercially applied for many plants. Three of them are as follows:
Tomato, seedless cucumber and lettuce.

(c) The aerating tube supplies oxygen to the roots. Feeding funnel is used to add water and
nutrients as per requirement.

4. Name the most crucial enzyme found in root nodules for N2 fixation? Does it require

a special pink coloured pigment for its functioning? Elaborate.

Ans. Nitrogenase is the most important enzyme found in root nodules for nitrogen fixation.
It requires a pink-coloured pigment called leghaemoglobin. Leghaemoglobin works as
oxygen scavenger and thus creates anaerobic conditions in the root nodule of a legume.
Nitrogenase is highly sensitive to oxygen and hence needs anaerobic condition to maintain
its existence.

5. How are the terms ‘critical concentration’ and ‘deficient’ different from each other in
terms of concentration of an essential element in plants? Can you find the values of
‘critical concentration’ and ‘deficient’ for minerals — Fe & Zn.

Ans. The concentration below which plant growth is retarded is called critical concentration
for an essential element. Any concentration below the critical concentration is called
deficiency.

Element Critical concentration Deficient

Zn 0.5 – 1% <0.5%

Fe 3.5 – 5% <3.5%

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6. Carnivorous plants exhibit nutritional adaptation: Citing an example explain this
fact.

Ans. Plants which grow in marshes and swamps are not able to get nitrogenous nutrients
from soil. So, these plants feed on insects to fulfill their need of nitrogen. Venus fly trap and
Pitcher plant are examples of insectivorous plants.

These plants show various adaptations to trap insects. For example; leaf of pitcher plant can
be modified into a pitcher with lid. The inner wall of the pitcher has suckers to absorb body
fluid from insect.

7. A farmer adds/ supplies Na, Ca, Mg and Fe regularly to his field and yet he observes
that the plants show deficiency of Ca, Mg and Fe. Give a valid reason and suggest a way
to help the farmer improve the growth of plants.

Ans. Plants require micronutrients in very low amounts. Any increase in this limit may
result in toxicity because of high level of a particular nutrient. In this case, the plants may be
suffering from manganese toxicity. Most of the farmers use broad-spectrum fertilizer. Most
broad-spectrum fertilizers contain manganese.

Manganese competes with iron and magnesium for uptake and with magnesium for binding.
It also inhibits calcium translocation shoot apex. Hence, excess of manganese may induce
deficiency of Ca, Mg and Fe.

Cure for manganese toxicity in plants:

Manage water efficiently. Mn absorption may be accelerated under condition of

surface drainage.
Balance the use of fertilizers (NPK or NPK + lime) to avoid nutrient stress as a source
of Mn toxicity Apply lime on acid soils to reduce the concentration of active Mn.
Do not apply excessive amounts of organic matter (Manure, straw) on soils containing
large concentrations of Mn and organic matter, and on poorly drained soils.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. It is observed that deficiency of a particular element showed its symptoms initially in

older leaves and then in younger leaves.

(a) Does it indicate that the element is actively mobilized or relatively immobile?

(b) Name two elements which are highly mobile and two which are relatively immobile.

(c) How is the aspect of mobility of elements important to horticulture and agriculture?

Ans. (a) This indicates that the element is actively mobilized. Elements which are actively
mobilized show deficiency symptoms first in older parts of a plant.

(b) Nitrogen and potassium are highly mobile, while calcium and potassium are relatively
immobile.

(c) The aspect of mobility of elements is highly important to horticulture and agriculture. By
observing the prevalence of deficiency symptoms in older or younger parts; a farmer or
agriculture scientist can analyse whether the deficiency is because of relatively mobile
elements or because of immobile elements. Further plans for treating the plants can be made
on the basis of this observation.

2. We find that Rhizobium forms nodules on the roots of leguminous plants. Also,
Frankia another microbe forms nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of non-leguminous
plant Alnus.

(a) Can we artificially induce the property of nitrogen fixation in a plant-leguminous or

non–leguminous?

(b) What kind of relationship is observed between mycorrhiza and pine trees?

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(c) Is it necessary for a microbe to be in close association with a plant to provide
mineral nutrition? Explain with the help of one example.

Ans. (a) Scientists have made attempts to artificially induce the property of nitrogen fixation
in plants. But these experiments have shown a very low success rates. So, till date no viable
alternative to natural nitrogen fixation is available.

(b) This is a symbiotic relationship.

(c) It is indeed necessary for a microbe to be in close association with a plant to provide
mineral nutrition. This can be illustrated by example of Rhizobium and leguminous plants.
Rhizobium is a bacterium which lives in the root nodules of leguminous plants. The bacteria
get shelter and food in the root nodules. In lieu of that, these bacteria help in nitrogen
fixation in soil.

3. What are essential elements for plants? Give the criteria of essentiality? How are
minerals classified depending upon the amount in which they are needed by the plants?

Ans. An element which fulfills the criteria of essentiality is called an essential element for
plants. Following are the various criteria for essentiality.

(a) The element must be absolutely essential for supporting normal growth and reproduction
in plant.

(b) The requirement of element must be specific and not replaceable by any other element.

(c) The element must be directly involved in metabolism in the plant.

On the basis of the amount in which minerals are needed by plants, they are divided into two
categories, viz. macronutrients and micronutrients.

Macronutrients: Elements which are present in large amounts, i.e. more than 10 m mole per
kg of dry matter are called macronutrients. Examples: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen,
etc.

Micronutrients: Elements which are present in small amounts, i.e. less than 10 m mole per
kg of dry matter are called micronutrients. Examples: iron, calcium, magnesium, etc.

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4. With the help of examples describe the classification of essential elements based on
the function they perform.

Ans. On the basis of function, essential elements can be classified into four categories which
are as follows:

(a) Components of Biomolecules: These are also called structural elements of cells, e.g.
carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen.

(b) Components of Energy Related Compounds: Examples: magnesium in chlorophyll and

phosphorus in ATP.

(c) Elements which activate or inhibit enzymes: Examples: magnesium and zinc.

(d) Elements which can alter osmotic potential of cells, example: potassium.

5. We know that plants require nutrients. If we supply these in excess, will it be

beneficial to the plants? If yes, how/ If no, why?

Ans. Essential elements are required in very low quantity by plants and this especially holds
true for micronutrients. Even a slight deviation from this quantity can be detrimental to the
plant. If the level of micronutrients increases even by 10%; this can produce toxicity in
plants.

Let us take an example of manganese which is an important micronutrient for plants.

Manganese shows following properties:

(a) It competes with iron and magnesium for uptake.

(b) It competes with magnesium for binding to specific enzymes.

(c) It inhibits translocation of calcium to shoot apex.

Thus, excess of manganese can hamper the uptake of iron and magnesium and plant may
begin to suffer from deficiency of iron and magnesium. Excess of manganese can prevent
magnesium from binding with certain enzymes. This can hamper many metabolic activities.
Inhibition of translocation of calcium to shoot apex can result in stunted growth.

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Thus, excess of any micronutrient can never be beneficial for the plant rather it would be
detrimental for the plant.

6. Trace the events starting from the coming in contact of Rhizobium to a leguminous
root till nodule formation. Add a note on importance of leg-haemoglobin.

Ans. Nodule Formation:

(a) Rhizobium bacteria contact a susceptible root hair and begin to divide near it.

(b) After successful infection, the root hair curls.

(c) The infected thread of the root carries the bacteria to the inner cortex. The bacteria gets
modified into rod-shaped bacteroids. This causes the inner cortical and pericycle cells to
divide.

(d) Division and growth of cortical and pericycle cells results in nodule formation.

(e) A mature nodule is complete with vascular tissues which are continuous with the
vascular tissues of the root.

Importance of Leghaemoglobin: Leghaemoglobin works as oxygen scavenger and thus

creates anaerobic conditions in the root nodule of a legume. Nitrogenase is highly sensitive
to oxygen and hence needs anaerobic condition to maintain its existence.

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7. Give the biochemical events occurring in the root nodule of a pulse plant. What is the
end product? What is its fate?

Ans. The root nodule contains all the necessary biochemical components required for
nitrogen fixation. For example; it contains the enzyme nitrogenase and a pigment
leghaemoglobin. Nitrogenase is Mo-Fe protein. It catalyses the conversion of atmospheric
nitrogen into ammonia. Ammonia is the first stable product of nitrogen fixation. Conversion
of atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia can be shown by following equation:

N2 + 8e- + 8H- + 16ATP 2NH3 + H2 + 16 ADP + 16Pi

The following figure shows the conversion of nitrogen into ammonia:

Fate of Ammonia: Ammonia gets converted into ammonium ion. Most of the plants can
assimilate nitrate and ammonium ions. But ammonium ion is quite toxic and cannot
accumulate in plants. Hence, ammonium ion is converted into amino acids; through
transamination and reductive amination.

8. Hydroponics have been shown to be a successful technique for growing of plants. Yet
most of the crops are still grown on land. Why?

Ans. Hydroponics appears to be a successful technique for commercial production of plants.

Many plants have been grown using this technique. But crops are still grown on land
because of certain limitations of hydroponics.

(a) Hydroponics is still at experimental stage and more developments need to happen before
it can be used on mass scale.

(b) The initial cost of set up is very high and thus growing plants through technique cannot
be commercially viable.

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(c) There is frequent problem of maintaining a high level of sterilization while growing
plants through this technique.

(d) Plants grown through this method need frequent input of nutrients and air which is
highly cumbersome at present.

(e) Plants can be highly susceptible to environmental conditions because they are being
grown in laboratory conditions.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 13
PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which metal ion is a constituent of chlorophyll?

(a) Iron

(b) Copper

(c) Magnesium

(d) Zinc

Ans. (c) Magnesium

Explanation: Chlorophyll is a chlorine pigment. At the centre of chlorine ring is a

magnesium ion.

2. Which pigment acts directly to convert light energy to chemical energy?

(a) Chlorophyll a

(b) Chlorophyll b

(c) Xanthophyll

(d) Carotenoid

Ans. (a) Chlorophyll a

Explanation: Maximum absorption of light takes place by chlorophyll a.

3. Which range of wavelength (in nm) is called photosynthetically active radiation

(PAR)?

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(a) 100 – 390

(b) 390 – 430

(c) 400 – 700

(d) 760 – 10,000

Ans. (c) 400 – 700

4. Which light range is least effective in photosynthesis?

(a) Blue

(b) Green

(c) Red

(d) Violet

Ans. (b) Green

Explanation: Because chlorophyll, the pigment involved in photosynthesis is green (for the
most part, there are other forms that are not green) and because it is green it reflects green
wavelengths of light and does not absorb them. Plants need to absorb light to perform
photosynthesis.

5. Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy from

(a) Sun

(b) Infra-red rays

(c) Organic substances

(d) Inorganic chemicals

Ans. (d) Inorganic chemicals

Explanation: Chemosynthetic bacteria utilize inorganic chemicals to make organic

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chemicals.

6. Energy required for ATP synthesis in PSII comes from

(a) Proton gradient

(b) Electron gradient

(c) Reduction of glucose

(d) Oxidation of glucose

Ans. (a) Proton gradient

7. During light reaction in photosynthesis the following are formed:

(a) ATP and sugar

(b) Hydrogen, O2 and sugar

(c) ATP, hydrogen donor and O2

(d) ATP, hydrogen and O2 donor

Ans. (c) ATP, hydrogen and O2 donor

Explanation: Water molecule is split during light reaction; releasing hydrogen and
O2 donor.

8. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because

(a) It can occur in dark also

(b) It does not depend on light energy

(c) It cannot occur during day light

(d) It occurs more rapidly at night

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Ans. (b) It does not depend on light energy

Explanation: Splitting of water molecule and formation ATP are directly driven by light and
hence are called light reactions. Rest of the steps are not directly light driven and hence are
called dark reactions (as per convention). This does not mean that they happen in dark and
not during the day.

9. PEP is primary CO2 acceptor in

(a) C4 plants

(b) C3 plants

(c) C2 plants

(d) Both C3 and C4 plants

Ans. (a) C4 plants

Explanation: Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is present in mesophyll cells and the primary
CO2 acceptor in C4 plants.

10. Splitting of water is associated with

(a) Photosystem I

(b) Lumen of thylakoid

(c) Both Photosystem I and II

(d) Inner surface of thylakoid membrane

Ans. (d) Inner surface of thylakoid membrane

11. The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light reaction is

(a) PSII, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSI, ferredoxin

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(b) PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSII, ferredoxin

(c) PSI, ferredoxin, PSII,

(d) PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSII, ferredoxin

Ans. (a) PSII, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSI, ferredoxin

12. The enzyme that is not found in a C3 plant is

(a) RuBP Carboxylase

(b) PEP Carboxylase

(c) NADP reductase

(d) ATP synthase

Ans. (b) PEP Carboxylase

Explanation: PEP is absent in C3 plants and PEP carboxylase is also absent.

13. The reaction that is responsible for the primary fixation of CO2 is catalysed by

(a) RuBP carboxylase

(b) PEP carboxylase

(c) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase

(d) PGA synthase

Ans. (c) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase

Explanation: RuBP carboxylase in C3 plants and PEP carboxylase in C4 plants.

14. When CO2 is added to PEP, the first stable product synthesised is:

(a) Pyruvate

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(b) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

(c) Phosphoglycerate

(d) Oxaloacetate

Ans. (d) Oxaloacetate

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Examine the figure

(a) Is this structure present in animal cell or plant cell?

(b) Can these be passed on to the progeny? How?

(c) Name the metabolic processes taking place in the places marked (1) and (2).

Ans. (a) This structure is present in plant cell.

(b) Chloroplast has the ability to self-replicate and hence it can be passed on to the progeny.

(c) (1) shows dark reaction and (2) shows the site of replication of chloroplast.

2.

Based on the above equation, answer the following questions:

(a) Where does this reaction take place in plants?

(b) What is the significance of this reaction?

Ans. (a) It shows the decomposition of water molecule. It takes place in PS II. It is located on
the inner surface of thylakoid membrane.

(b) Splitting of water continuously provides electrons to the electron transport chain; for

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further steps of photosynthesis.

3. Cyanobacteria and some other photosynthetic bacteria don’t have chloroplasts. How
do they conduct photosynthesis?

Ans. Cyanobacteria and some other photosynthetic bacteria do not have chloroplasts. But
they have folds in their inner membrane where photosynthesis occurs. They have bluish
pigment phycocyanin which captures solar energy to carry out photosynthesis.

4. (a) NADP reductase enzyme is located on _____.

(b) Breakdown of proton gradient leads to release of _____.

Ans. (a) outer side of thylakoid membrane.

(b) ATP molecules.

5. Can girdling experiments be done in monocots? If yes, How? If no, why not?

Ans. Girdling experiments cannot be done in monocots. The stem of monocot has vascular
bundles scatter all over the width of the stem. Hence, we cannot reach a specific band of
phloem for girdling.

6. 3CO2 + 9ATP + 6NADPH + Water glyceraldehyde 3–phosphate +9 ADP+6 NADP++ 8 Pi

Analyze the above reaction and answer the following questions:

(a) How many molecules of ATP & NADPH are required to fix one molecule of CO2?

(b) Where in the chloroplast does this process occur?

Ans. (a) 3 molecules of ATP are required for phosphorylation and 2 molecules of NADPH are
required for reduction of carbon dioxide.

(b) This reaction occurs in the stroma of chloroplast.

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7. Does moonlight support photosynthesis? Find out.

Ans. Moonlight does not have enough energy to excite chlorophyll molecules. Hence,
moonlight cannot support photosynthesis.

8. Some of these terms/chemicals are associated with the C4 cycle. Explain.

(a) Hatch slack pathway

(b) Calvin cycle

(c) PEP carboxylase

(d) Bundle sheath cells

Ans. (a) The process of synthesis of glucose in C4 plants is called Hatch and Slack Pathway. It

was discovered by M D Hatch and C R Slack in 1977.

(b) The steps after splitting of water molecule lead to formation of carbohydrate. This
happens in a cyclical manner and is called Calvin Cycle. This was first discovered by Melvin
Calvin and his coworkers.

(c) PEP carboxylase is an enzyme. It is present in mesophyll cells of C4 plants. It fixes carbon

to form oxaloacetate.

(d) The specialized sclerenchymatous cells present around vascular bundles in the veins of
C4 plants are called bundle sheath cells.

9. Where is NADP reductase enzyme located in the chloroplast? What is the role of this
enzyme in proton gradient development?

Ans. NADP reductase enzyme is located on the outer side of thylakoid membrane. It
facilitates breakdown of proton gradient to release energy, i.e. NADPH.

10. ATPase enzyme consists of two parts. What are those parts? How are they arranged
in the thylakoid membrane? Conformational change occur in which part of the

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enzyme?

Ans. ATPase enzyme consists of two parts; called F0 head and F1 head. The F0 head is

towards the inner side of thylakoid, while F1 is towards the outer side of thylakoid. The

conformational change occurs in F1 part of the enzyme.

11. Which products formed during the light reaction of photosynthesis are used to drive
the dark reaction?

Ans. ATP and NADPH

12. What is the basis for designating C3 and C4 pathways of photosynthesis?

Ans. In case of C3 pathways, carbon is fixed into a 3-carbon compound, i.e. 3-PGA. On the

other hand, in case of C4 pathways, carbon is fixed into a 4-carbon compound, i.e. oxaloacetic

acid. Thus, number of carbon atoms in the end product is the basis for designating C3 and

C4 pathways of photosynthesis.

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Succulents are known to keep their stomata closed during the day to check
transpiration. How do they meet their photosynthetic CO2 requirements?

Ans. Succulent plants are known to keep their stomata closed during the day to check
transpiration. This also prevents entry of carbon dioxide during the day. These plants have
devised a special method to ensure the supply of carbon dioxide during daytime. These
plants fix carbon dioxide in the form of malic acid during night.

2. Chlorophyll ‘a’ is the primary pigment for light reaction. What are accessory
pigments? What is their role in photosynthesis?

Ans. Pigments which assist chlorophyll in trapping solar radiation are called accessory
pigments. Chlorophyll b, xanthophylls and carotenoids are the accessory pigments. They
help in harvesting solar radiation and pass it on to chlorophyll a. Thus, accessory pigment
play supportive role in light harvesting.

3. Do reactions of photosynthesis called, as ‘Dark Reaction’ need light? Explain.

Ans. Dark Reaction involves the biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis during which synthesis
of carbohydrate takes place. This part of the photosynthesis is not directly dependent on light
and hence is called Dark Reaction. However, this does not mean that dark reaction takes
place in complete darkness rather it continues even during daytime. So, dark reaction
indirectly needs light but does not depend on light to continue.

4. How are photosynthesis and respiration related to each other?

Ans. Photosynthesis and respiration are related to each other in certain ways. We know that

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respiration involves oxidation of carbohydrates to produce energy. Since carbohydrates for
respiration are prepared during photosynthesis, hence respiration cannot happen without
photosynthesis. Moreover, respiration also needs oxygen which is a byproduct of
photosynthesis. Similarly, carbon dioxide is an important raw material for photosynthesis
and much of the carbon dioxide comes as a byproduct of respiration.

5. If a green plant is kept in dark with proper ventilation, can this plant carry out
photosynthesis? Can anything be given as supplement to maintain its growth or
survival?

Ans. If a plant is kept in dark with proper ventilation, it will continue to get carbon dioxide.
But it is devoid of sunlight. Hence, this plant cannot carry out photosynthesis. For
maintaining its survival, the plant can be supplied proper amount of water. But the plant
would eventually die because of lack of nutrients.

6. Photosynthetic organisms occur at different depths in the ocean. Do they receive

qualitatively and quantitatively the same light? How do they adapt to carry out
photosynthesis under these conditions?

Ans. Light is rarely a limiting factor for photosynthesis because light saturation occurs at
10% of the full sunlight. So, except for plants in shade or dense forest; light is rarely a
limiting factor. Photosynthetic organisms in oceans are found at various depths and the
amount of light available to them is enough for carrying out photosynthesis. Moreover, these
organisms show great variations in photosynthetic pigments. These pigments help these
organisms to carry out photosynthesis even in low light conditions.

7. In tropical rain forests, the canopy is thick and shorter plants growing below it,
receive filtered light. How are they able to carry out photosynthesis?

Ans. We know that light is rarely a limiting factor for photosynthesis because just 10% of the
full sunlight is sufficient to ensure light saturation. In plants which grow under thick canopy
in forests; less amount of light may slow down the rate of photosynthesis but it cannot stop
photosynthesis during daytime. Hence, these plants are able to carry on photosynthesis.

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8. What conditions enable RuBisCO to function as an oxygenase? Explain the ensuing
process.

Ans. RuBisCO has affinity with carbon dioxide as well as with oxygen. But RuBisCO’s binding
with either of them is competitive. This means that in case of a higher concentration of CO2,

the enzyme would act as carboxylase. But in case of a higher concentration of O2, the enzyme

would act as oxygenase.

9. Why does the rate of photosynthesis decrease at higher temperatures?

Ans. Photosynthesis is an enzyme mediated process. We know that enzymes work in

optimum range of temperature. When the temperature goes beyond this range, an enzyme
cannot work. Due to this, the rate of photosynthesis decreases at higher temperature.

10. Explain how during light reaction of photosynthesis, ATP synthesis is a

chemiosmotic phenomenon.

Ans. The movement of ions across a semi-permeable membrane and down an electronic
gradient is called chemiosmotic movement. In ATP synthesis during light reaction of
photosynthesis, movement of ions takes place across the thylakoid membrane which is a
semi-permeable membrane.

Moreover, ions are pumped by a proton pump using a proton gradient; and finally ATP is
synthesized. Due to these factors, ATP synthesis during light reaction is called a
chemiosmotic phenomenon.

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11. Find out how Melvin Calvin worked out the complete biosynthetic pathway for
synthesis of sugar.

Ans. Melvin Calvin and his coworkers discovered the complete pathway for synthesis of
sugar by conducting experiments at the University of California. For this, they used following
steps:

For this experiment, carbon dioxide was labeled with C14 (a radioactive isotope of
carbon), and was supplied to the plants.

After that, the pathway of C14 was observed and analysed under different conditions,
e.g. in dark and light.
Once the experiment with the live plant was over, the plant was killed and the labeled
compound was extracted from the dead plant for further analysis.

Based on the analysis in live and dead plants, Calvin and his coworkers finally discovered the
pathway during light independent reactions.

12. Six turns of Calvin cycle are required to generate one mole of glucose. Explain.

Ans. During Calvin cycle, 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH are required for
reduction of one molecule of CO2. We know that glucose is a 6-carbon compound, so 6

molecules of carbon dioxide are needed to make one molecule of glucose. Hence, six turns of
Calvin Cycle are required to generate one mole of glucose.

13. Complete the flow chart for cyclic photophosphorylation of the photosystem-I

Ans.

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14. In what kind of plants do you come across ‘Kranz’ anatomy? To which conditions are
those plants better adapted? How are these plants better adapted than the plants,
which lack this anatomy?

Ans. Kranz anatomy is found in C4 plants; such as maize, sugarcane, etc. These plants can

tolerate high temperature and high intensity of light. These plants are also adapted to live in
limited supply of nitrogen and carbon dioxide. These plants do not carry photorespiration;
unlike C3 plants. This helps in making optimum amount of glucose. Hence, C4 plants produce

more biomass compared to C3 plants.

15. A process is occurring throughout the day, in ‘X’ organism. Cells are participating in
this process. During this process ATP, CO2 and water are evolved. It is not a light

dependent process.

(a) Name the process.

(b) Is it a catabolic or an anabolic process?

(c) What could be the raw material of this process?

Ans. (a) Respiration

(b) This is a catabolic process.

(c) Carbohydrate

16. Tomatoes, carrots and chillies are red in colour due to the presence of one pigment.

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Name the pigment. Is it a photosynthetic pigment?

Ans. The colour of tomatoes, carrots and chillies is red because of the pigment Lycopene.
This is not a photosynthetic pigment. This pigment is present in the plastid called
chromoplast.

17. Why do we believe chloroplast and mitochondria to be semi-autonomous organelle?

Ans. Chloroplast and mitochondria have extra genomic DNA. Due to this, these organelles
can replicate themselves. Hence, these are called semiautonomous organelles.

18. Observe the diagram and answer the following.

(a) Which group of plants exhibits these two types of cells?

(b) What is the first product of C4 cycle?

(c) Which enzyme is there in bundle sheath cells and mesophyll cells?

Ans. (a) Monocot plants show bundle sheath cells and mesophyll cells.

(b) Oxaloacetic acid

(c) PEPcarboxylase or PEPcase.

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19. A cyclic process is occurring in C3 plant, which is light dependent, and needs O2.

This process doesn’t produce energy rather it consumes energy.

(a) Can you name the given process?

(b) Is it essential for survival?

(c) What are the end products of this process?

(d) Where does it occur?

Ans. (a) Photorespiration

(b) It is not essential for survival.

(c) Hydrogen peroxide

(d) It occurs in chloroplast, mitochondria and peroxisome.

20. Suppose Euphorbia and Maize are grown in the tropical area.

(a) Which one of them do you think will be able to survive under such conditions?

(b) Which one of them is more efficient in terms of photosynthetic activity?

(c) What difference do you think are there in their leaf anatomy?

Ans. (a) Euphorbia, because it is a CAM plant.

(b) Maize is a C4 plant and hence it is more efficient in terms of photosynthetic activity.

(c) Kranz anatomy is seen in maize plants, while it is absent in Euphorbia plants.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Is it correct to say that photosynthesis occurs only in leaves of a plant? Besides

leaves, what are the other parts that may be capable of carrying out photosynthesis?
Justify.

Ans. If the part of plant is green in colour then photosynthesis can occur in that part also.
So, it is wrong to say that photosynthesis occurs only in leaves of a plant. Most of the other
plant parts are capable of carrying out photosynthesis. Some examples are following:

(a) Roots of Trapa and Tinospora have chlorophyll and they carry out photosynthesis.

(b) In Opuntia, stem is modified into fleshy green structure and leaves are modified into
thorns to reduce transpiration. In these plants, photosynthesis takes place in stem. The
modified stem of Opuntia is called phylloclade.

(c) In most of the plants, sepals are green in colour and carry out photosynthesis.

2. The entire process of photosynthesis consists of a number of reactions. Where in the

cell do each of these take place?

(a) Synthesis of ATP & NADPH _____

(b) Photolysis of water _____

(c) Fixation of CO2 _____

(d) Synthesis of sugar molecule _____

(e) Synthesis of starch _____

Ans. (a) Outer side of thylakoid membrane

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(b) Inner side of thylakoid membrane

(c) Stroma of chloroplast

(d) Chloroplast

(e) Cytoplasm

3. Which property of the pigment is responsible for its ability to initiate the process of
photosynthesis? Why is the rate of photosynthesis higher in the red and blue regions of
the spectrum of light?

Ans. Pigments are substances which can absorb light at specific wavelengths. It means that
different pigments can absorb light of different colours. So, if pigment A can get in excited
state by colour X, pigment B may get excited by colour Y. Once a pigment gets excited after
absorbing light, it provides energy so that light energy can be utilized for further steps of
photosynthesis.

Chlorophyll a is the most abundant pigment in plants. This pigment shows optimum
efficiency between the wavelengths of blue and red light.

As shown by these graphs, other pigments also show their optimum efficiency between blue

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and red light. When this graph is correlated with the graph (showing rate of photosynthesis),
it is clear that photosynthesis is at optimum level between blue and red wavelengths. This
primarily happens because of chlorophyll a. But this also happens because of action of
accessory pigments. Due to this, rate of photosynthesis is higher in the range of red and blue
lights.

4. What can we conclude from the statement that the action and absorption spectrum
of photosynthesis overlap? At which wavelength do they show peaks?

Ans. To understand this, we need to analyse the following graphs.

The first graph shows the rate of photosynthesis; as measured by release of oxygen. The
second graph show absorption of different wavelengths of light by chlorophyll a;
superimposed with the rate of photosynthesis. Both the graphs appear to be mimicking each
other; in their peaks and troughs. The graphs are peaking at more than 400 nm wavelength
which is equivalent to blue colour. After that, both the graphs show trough. Then they peak
again between 600 and 700 nm which is equivalent to red colour. So, this shows that action
and absorption spectra overlap. The black line shows the action spectrum of photosynthesis,
while the blue line shows the absorption spectrum. 430 - 470 nm and 660 - 670 nm are the
peak wavelengths.

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5. Under what conditions are C4 plants superior to C3?

Ans. C4 plants are superior to C3 plants under following conditions:

C4 plants can perform photosynthesis even at low CO2 concentration. C4 plants show

saturation at about 360 L-1, while C3 plants show saturation only beyond 450 L-1. This

means that availability of CO2 is a limiting factor for C3 plants; which is not the case with

C4 plants.

C4 plants show higher temperature optimum but C3 plants show a lower temperature

optimum. So, C4 plants can carry on photosynthesis even at high temperature; which is not

the case with C3 plants.

C4 plants are not affected by high oxygen levels in atmosphere because of the Kranz

anatomy. Kranz anatomy ensures that photorespiration does not take place in C4 plants. But

this is not the case with C3 plants.

6. In the figure given below, the black line (upper) indicates action spectrum for
photosynthesis and the lighter line (lower) indicates the absorption spectrum of
chlorophyll a, answer the followings:

(a) What does the action spectrum indicate? How can we plot an action spectrum?
Explain with an example.

(b) How can we derive an absorption spectrum for any substance?

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(c) If chlorophyll a is responsible for light reaction of photosynthesis, why do the action
spectrum and absorption spectrum not overlap?

Ans. (a) Action spectrum indicates the rate of photosynthesis. This is measured by release of
oxygen. We can plot an action spectrum by plotting the amount of oxygen released on y-axis
and wavelength on x-axis. This can be shown by plotting absorption of different wavelengths
by any pigment, e.g. chlorophyll a as shown in this graph.

(b) This can be done by plotting the absorption of different wavelengths for a particular
pigment; like chlorophyll a, or chlorophyll b or any other pigment.

(c) This happens because of presence of other pigments as well. Other pigments; known as
the accessory pigments; help in optimum utilization of solar energy. Thus, action spectrum is
always at a higher level compared to absorption spectrum. Thus, the action spectrum does
not overlap the absorption spectrum.

7. What are the important events and end products of the light reaction?

Ans. Important events and end products of light reaction are as follows. It is important to
note that these events are not in the order as they happen but in the order of their discovery
by the scientists.

Light Absorption: Light absorption is carried out by Light Harvesting Complex (LHC).
Each photosystem has all the pigments (except one molecule of chlorophyll a) forming
a light harvesting system. These pigments are also called the antennae. These
pigments absorb light of different wavelengths and thus make the system more
efficient. The single chlorophyll a molecule works as the reaction centre.
Water Splitting: Energy from sunlight is utilized to split the water molecule into

hydrogen ion and oxygen. Extra electron released after the split is utilized NADP+ to
NADPH.
Oxygen Release: Oxygen which is released after splitting of water molecule goes out
through stomata.
Formation of High Energy Intermediates (ATP and NADPH): At the end of light
reaction, two energy rich compounds ATP and NADPH are formed.

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8. In the diagram shown below label A, B, C. What type of phosphorylation is possible in
this?

Ans. This figure shows cyclic phosphorylation.

9. Why is the RuBisCO enzyme more appropriately called RUBP Carboxylase-Oxygenase

and what important role does it play in photosynthesis?

Ans. RuBisCO enzyme has affinity towards carbon dioxide as well as towards oxygen. But
this binding is competitive. It has a greater affinity towards carbon dioxide than towards
oxygenation. It is the relative concentration of CO2 and O2 which affects the binding of

RuBisCO to a particular molecule. Since it acts like carboxylase as well as like oxygenase; it is
more appropriately called RUBP Carboxylase–Oxygenase.

Importance of RuBisCO:

In C3 plants, RuBisCO binds with CO2 to produce 3PGA.

In C3 plants, some of the RuBisCO binds with O2 to produce phosphoglycerate and

phosphoglycolate through a process called photorespiration. Photorespiration

reduces carbon fixation in C3 plants.

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 In C4 plants, because of increased concentration of CO2 in the vascular bundle,

RuBisCO catalyses the production of oxaloacetic acid. Photorespiration is prevented in

this case and carbon fixation is more efficient.

10. What special anatomical features are displayed by leaves of C4 plants? How do they

provide advantage over the structure of C3 plants?

Ans. The C4 plants have special anatomy in leaves. There is a sheath of large cells around the

vascular bundles in leaves. This is called Kranz Anatomy. Several layers of cells around the
bundle cell are especially impregnated with chloroplast. The thick walls of these cells are
impervious to gaseous exchange. Intercellular space is absent in the sheath.

The bundle sheath provides a sure shot advantage to C4 plants over C4 plants. This sheath

helps in increasing carbon dioxide concentration in the leaves. We know that binding of
RuBisCO to carbon dioxide and oxygen is competitive. We also know that the relative
concentration of carbon dioxide and oxygen affects the binding of this enzyme to a
particular molecule. The high concentration of carbon dioxide in the leaves of these plants
ensures that all the RuBisCO binds with carbon dioxide and there is not binding with oxygen.
Thus, photorespiration does not take place in these plants. This helps in avoiding wastage of
resources and carbon fixation is highly efficient in these plants. Eventually, these plants
create a higher amount of biomass compared to the C3 plants.

11. Name the two important enzymes of C3 and C4 pathway, respectively? What

important role do they play in fixing CO2?

Ans. The two important enzymes of C3 and C4 pathway are RuBisCO and PEPcase

respectively. RuBisCO is the primary CO2 acceptor in C3 plants, while PEPcase is the primary

CO2 acceptor in C4 plants.

Role of RuBisCO: RuBisCO is also called RUBP Carboxylase Oxygenase. As the name suggests;
it has both carboxylase and oxygenase activities. This enzyme has more affinity towards
carbon dioxide than towards oxygen. However, some of this enzyme binds to oxygen in

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C3 plants through a process called photorespiration. Photorespiration is a wasteful process

because it does not create any useful product for the plants. Moreover, it also reduces carbon
fixation in C3 plants.

Role of PEPcase: This is the primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 plants. However,

RuBisCO is also present in these plants. PEPcase binds with carbon dioxide to produce a 4-
carbon compound oxaloacetic acid (OAA). OAA is eventually converted into carbon dioxide.
Carbon dioxide finally enters the Calvin cycle and carbohydrate is produced. It is important
to remember that Calvin Cycle is common in both C3 and C4 plants.

12. Why is RuBisCO enzyme the most abundant enzyme in the world?

Ans. RuBisCO catalyses the first step in conversion of carbon dioxide into sugar during
Calvin Cycle. This enzyme is present in all the photosynthetic organisms of the world. Right
from the cyanobacteria to the leaves of huge trees; RuBisCO is literally present everywhere.
It can be said that all the carbon in biosphere is derived from carbon fixation carried out by
RuBisCO. Hence, this is the most abundant enzyme in the world.

13. Why does not photorespiration take place in C4 plants?

Ans. The bundle sheath provides a sure shot advantage to C4 plants over C3 plants. This

sheath helps in increasing carbon dioxide concentration in the leaves. We know that binding
of RuBisCO to carbon dioxide and oxygen is competitive. We also know that the relative
concentration of carbon dioxide and oxygen affects the binding of this enzyme to a
particular molecule. The high concentration of carbon dioxide in the leaves of these plants
ensures that all the RuBisCO binds with carbon dioxide and there is no binding with oxygen.
Thus, photorespiration does not take place in these plants.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 14
RESPIRATION IN PLANTS

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs)

1. The ultimate electron acceptor of respiration in an aerobic organism is:

(a) Cytochrome
(b) Oxygen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Glucose

Ans. (b) Oxygen

Explanation: Electrons which are removed from hydrogen are accepted by O2 molecules.

2. Phosphorylation of glucose during glycolysis is catalysed by

(a) Phosphoglucomutase
(b) Phoshpoglucoisomerase
(c) Hexokinase
(d) Phosphorylase

Ans. (c) Hexokinase

Explanation: Glucose is phosphorylated by hexokinase and glucose-6-phosphate is
produced.

3. Pyruvic acid, the key product of glycolysis can have many metabolic fates. Under
aerobic conditions it forms
(a) Lactic acid
(b) CO2 + H2O

(c) Acetyl CoA + CO2

(d) Ethanol + CO2

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 Ans. (c) Acetyl CoA + CO2

Explanation: Pyruvic acid undergoes dehydrogenation and the reaction produces Acetyl
CoA, CO2 and NADH.

4. Electron Transport System (ETS) is located in mitochondrial

(a) Outer membrane
(b) Inter membrane space
(c) Inner membrane
(d) Matrix

Ans. (c) Inner membrane

Explanation: ETS is present in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

5. Which of the following exhibits the highest rate of respiration?

(a) Growing shoot apex
(b) Germinating seed
(c) Root tip
(d) Leaf bud

Ans. (b) Germinating seed

Explanation: Growth is taking place in case of all the options. But growth rate is
maximum in germinating seed. So germinating seed exhibit highest rate of respiration.

6. Choose the correct statement:

(a) Pyruvate is formed in the mitochondrial matrix.
(b) During the conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid a molecule of ATP is
synthesized.
(c) Oxygen is vital in respiration for removal of hydrogen.
(d) There is complete breakdown of glucose in fermentation.

Ans. (c) Oxygen is vital in respiration for removal of hydrogen.

7. Mitochondria are called powerhouses of the cell. Which of the following

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 observations support this statement?
(a) Mitochondria synthesise ATP
(b) Mitochondria have a double membrane
(c) The enzymes of Krebs cycle and the cytochromes are found in mitochondria
(d) Mitochondria are found in almost all plant and animal cells

Ans. (a) Mitochondria synthesise ATP

Explanation: ATP is the energy currency and hence option ‘a’ is correct.

8. The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is

(a) NADH
(b) Oxygen
(c) ADP
(d) ATP + H2O

Ans. (d) ATP + H2O

9. Match the following and choose the correct option from those given below:

Column I Column II

A. Molecular oxygen (i) -Ketoglutaric acid

B. Electron acceptor (ii) Hydrogen acceptor

C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase (iii) Cytochrome C

D. Decarboxylation (iv) Acetyl CoA

Options:

(a) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv) D – (i)

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(b) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii) D – (i)

(c) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii) D – (iv)

(d) A – (iv) B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)

Ans. (a) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Energy is released during the oxidation of compounds in respiration. How is this

energy stored and released as and when it is needed?

Ans. The energy released during respiration is stored in the form of ATP in mitochondria.
The mitochondria release ATP whenever energy is needed. ATP is broken down to get
energy.

2. Explain the term “Energy Currency”. Which substance acts as energy currency in
plants and animals?

Ans. ATP is used as currency to store energy. It is also used as currency whenever energy is
required. Due to this, ATP is called the “Energy Currency”. ATP is the energy currency in
plants as well as in animals.

3. Different substrates get oxidized during respiration. How does Respiratory Quotient
(R.Q.) indicate which type of substrate, i.e. carbohydrate, fat or protein is getting
oxidized?

R.Q. = A/B

(a) What do A and B stand for?

(b) What type of substrates have R.Q. of 1, < 1 or > 1?

Ans. (a) A stands for volume of CO2 evolved and B stands for volume of O2 consumed.

(b) Carbohydrates have R.Q. = 1; while protein and fat have R.Q. less than 1. No subtract has
R.Q. > 1.

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4. F0 – F1 particles participate in the synthesis of is ………

Ans. ATP

5. When does anaerobic respiration occur in man and yeast?

Ans. Yeast carries out anaerobic respiration when oxygen is not available. In humans,
anaerobic respiration occurs in special cases in muscle cells. For example; during strenuous
exercise, muscles need extra energy which is fulfilled by anaerobic respiration in muscles.

6. Which of the following will release more energy on oxidation? Arrange them in
ascending order.

(a) 1 gm of fat

(b) 1 gm of protein

(c) 1 gm of glucose

(d) 0.5 g of protein + 0.5 g of glucose

Ans. (a) < (b) < (d) < (c)

This means 1 gm of glucose will release more energy compared to any other in this group.

7. The product of aerobic glycolysis in skeletal muscle and anaerobic fermentation in

yeast are respectively ……… and ………

Ans. Carbon dioxide, ethanol

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. If a person is feeling dizzy, glucose or fruit juice is given immediately but not a
cheese sandwich, which might have more energy. Explain.

Ans. Both glucose and fat are energy giving food but glucose is an instant source of energy
and undergoes aerobic cellular respiration to release energy molecules, carbon dioxide, and
water molecules. Glucose gets absorbed by body at a faster rate than fat. Hence, if a person is
feeling dizzy; he is given glucose or fruit juice instead of a cheese sandwich because he needs
instant energy.

2. What is meant by the statement “aerobic respiration is more efficient.”?

Ans. In case of aerobic respiration, there is complete oxidation of substrate into energy and
carbon dioxide. But this does not happen in anaerobic respiration. As a result, more energy
is produced in aerobic respiration than in anaerobic respiration for per gm of substrate
being oxidized. Due to this, it is said that aerobic respiration is more efficient.

3. Pyruvic acid is the end product of glycolysis. What are the three s metabolic fates of
pyruvic acid under aerobic and anaerobic conditions? Write in the space provided in
the diagram.

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Ans. (a) Lactic acid

(b) Ethanol

(c) Acetyl CoA

4. The energy yield in terms of ATP is higher in aerobic respiration than during
anaerobic respiration. Why is there anaerobic respiration even in organisms that live
in aerobic condition like human beings and angiosperms?

Ans. Aerobic respiration yields more energy than anaerobic respiration. In spite of this,
many organisms (living in aerobic condition) carry out anaerobic respiration. This happens
under exigencies. For example; yeast carries out anaerobic respiration when it is faced with
deficiency of oxygen. In humans, anaerobic respiration takes place when the muscles are
exhausted and their cells have to fulfill sudden excess demand of energy.

5. Oxygen is an essential requirement for aerobic respiration but it enters the

respiratory process at the end. Discuss.

Ans. Oxygen is an essential requirement for aerobic respiration but it has role only at the
terminal stage of the process. Oxygen drives the whole process by removing hydrogen from
the system. Oxygen acts as the final acceptor of hydrogen.

6. Respiration is an energy releasing and enzymatically controlled catabolic process

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which involves a step-wise oxidative breakdown of organic substances inside living
cells. In this statement about respiration explain the meaning of (1) Step-wise oxidative
breakdown (2) Organic substances (used as substrates).

Ans. Step-wise oxidative breakdown: The respiratory substrate is not oxidized at one go
rather in many steps. This is done because cells need energy also for making other useful
substances. If energy is released in a single step then the amount of energy released would
be large enough to be coupled with ATP synthesis. This ensures optimum utilization of
energy by the cell.

Organic Substances: The substances which are normally found in living organisms and
oxidized during respiration to get energy are called organic substances, e.g. carbohydrates,
fats and proteins.

7. Comment on the statement - Respiration is an energy producing process but ATP is

being used in some steps of the process.

Ans. Respiration is an energy producing process but ATP is being used in some steps of
this process also. In fact, ATP is used so that some important intermediates could be formed
during the process. During respiration, ATP is utilized twice. Once, it is utilized to convert
glucose into glucose 6-phosphate. ATP is also utilized to convert fructose 6 - phosphate into
fructose 1, 6 - biphosphate. Finally, when respiration of one molecule of glucose is complete;
there is a net gain of 36 molecules of ATP. It is the net gain of ATP which is more important
and which shows that respiration is an energy yielding process.

8. The figure given below shows the steps in glycolysis. Fill the missing steps A, B, C, D
and also indicate whether ATP is being used up or released at step E?

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Ans. A fructose 6 – phosphate

B fructose 1, 6 biphosphate

C triose phosphate

D triose biphosphate

At step E, energy is being used up.

9. Why is respiratory pathway referred to as an amphibolic pathway? Explain.

Ans. Respiratory pathway is conventionally understood as catabolic pathway because it

involves breaking down the respiratory substrates. For example; carbohydrates, fats and
proteins are broken down to produce energy. But whenever the organism needs to make
fatty acid or protein; it needs some intermediate products of respiration. For example; Acetyl
CoA would be withdrawn from the respiratory pathway if there is a need to manufacture
fatty acid or protein.It is seen that respiratory pathway is involved in both catabolic and
anabolic processes. Hence, respiratory pathway is referred to as an amphibolic pathway.

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10. We commonly call ATP as the energy currency of the cell. Can you think of some
other energy carriers present in a cell? Name any two.

Ans. NADP and NADPH are the other energy carriers present in cell.

11. ATP produced during glycolysis is a result of substrate level phosphorylation.

Explain.

Ans. When formation of ATP happens by direct transfer of a phosphoryl (PO3) group to ADP

from a phosphorylated reactive intermediate; this is called substrate level phosphorylation.

During glycolysis, ATP is formed at two stages because of direct transfer of phosphoryl group
to ADP.

(a) When BPGA (biphosphoglyceric acid) is converted into PGA (phosphoglyceric acid).

(b) When PEP (phosphoenolpyruvate) is converted into pyruvic acid.

12. Do you know any step in the TCA cycle where there is substrate level
phosphorylation. Which one?

Ans. During the TCA cycle, there is one instance of substrate level phosphorylation. This
happens when succinyl CoA is converted into succinic acid. As a result, a molecule of GTP
(Guanosine triphosphate) is formed from GDP.

13. In a way, green plants and cyanobacteria have synthesized all the food on the earth.
Comment.

Ans. This is true to a great extent that all the food on the earth have been synthesized by
cyanobacteria and green plants. In fact, there are some other autotrophs as well but their
contribution to the food basket of other organisms is negligible. Cyanobacteria are the major
producers in aquatic environment, while green plants are the major producers in terrestrial
environment. All other organisms directly or indirectly depend on these producers for food.

14. When a substrate is being metabolized, why does not all the energy that is produced
get released in one step? It is released in multiple steps. What is the advantage of step-

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wise release?

Ans. Following are the advantages of step-wise release of energy during oxidation of a
substrate:

(a) Energy is prevented from being used all at once.

(b) Small installments of energy help in producing ATP which could be stored for later use.

(c) Some energy can be utilized to make intermediaries during the process.

(d) Energy can also be used to make many other substances by the organism.

15. Respiration requires O2. How did the first cells on the earth manage to survive in an

atmosphere that lacked O2?

Ans. Scientists believe that the first cells on the earth were anaerobes. Even today, many
organisms are anaerobes. While some organisms are facultative anaerobes, many others are
obligate anaerobes which means they carry on anaerobic respiration under special
circumstances. Thus, all the organisms have the capability to partially oxidize glucose
without the help of oxygen. It is this ability of organisms which must have helped the first
cells on the earth to survive without oxygen.

16. It is known that red muscle fibres in animals can work for longer periods of time
continuously. How is this possible?

Ans. Red muscle fibres are thin muscle fibres. They can work for longer periods without
fatigue. This is possible because of following reasons:

Plenty of myoglobin means plenty of oxygen supply.

They depend on aerobic respiration for energy. Hence, lactic acid is not formed in
these muscles.
There are plenty of mitochondria in these muscles; which means plenty of stored ATP.
These muscles work slowly and hence work for longer.

17. The energy yield in terms of ATP is higher in aerobic respiration than during

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anaerobic respiration. Explain.

Ans. In aerobic respiration, complete oxidation of glucose takes place; while incomplete
oxidation of glucose takes place during anaerobic respiration. As a result, energy production
is more during aerobic respiration than during anaerobic respiration. Aerobic respiration
can produce 36 molecules of ATP per one molecule of glucose, while this number is just 2
molecules of ATP in case of anaerobic respiration.

18. RuBP carboxylase, PEPcase, Pyurvate dehydrogenase, ATPase, cytochrome oxidase,

Hexokinase, Lactate dehydrogenase. Select/choose enzymes from the list above which
are involved in

(a) Photosynthesis

(b) Respiration

(c) Both in photosynthesis and respiration

Ans. (a) RuBP carboxylase, PEPcase

(b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase, Hexokinase, Lactate dehydrogenase

(c) ATPase, cytochrome oxidase

19. How does a tree trunk exchange gases with the environment although it lacks
stomata?

Ans. A tree trunk is covered with woody bark. The bark is interspersed with lenticels.
Exchange of gases takes place through lenticels; in this case.

20. Write two energy yielding reactions of glycolysis.

Ans. Two energy yielding reactions of glycolysis are as follows:

(a) Conversion of BPGA (biphosphoglyceric acid) to PGA (phosphoglyceric acid)

(b) Conversion of PEP to Pyruvic acid (phosphoenolpyruvate)

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21. Name the site (s) of pyruvate synthesis. Also, write the chemical reaction wherein
pyruvic acid dehydrogenase acts as a catalyst.

Ans. Pyruvate is formed in cytoplasm.

Decarboxylation of pyruvate is facilitated by pyruvic acid dehydrogenase. This reaction can

be shown by following equation:

Pyruvic acid + CoA + NAD+ Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH + H+

Decarboxylation of pyruvate yields Acetyl CoA.

22. Mention the important series of events of aerobic respiration that occur in the
matrix of the mitochondrion as well as one that take place in inner membrane of the
mitochondrion.

Ans. The important events of aerobic respiration are as follows:

(a) Complete oxidation of pyruvate happens in the matrix of mitochondria. This happens by
step-wise removal of all the hydrogen atoms. Finally, 3 molecules of carbon dioxide are left.

(b) This event happens in the inner membrane of mitochondria. Electrons removed as part of
the hydrogen atoms are passed on to molecular oxygen. Synthesis of ATP takes place
simultaneously.

23. Respiratory pathway is believed to be a catabolic pathway. However, nature of TCA

cycle is amphibolic. Explain.

Ans. During TCA cycle, glucose is broken down which shows catabolic pathway. Additionally,
FADH2 and ATP are synthesized during this cycle. Thus, both catabolic and anabolic

processes are taking place during TCA cycle. Hence, TCA cycle can said to be amphibolic.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. In the following flow chart, replace the symbols a, b, c and d with appropriate terms.
Briefly explain the process and give any two applications of it.

Ans.

This figure shows major pathways of anaerobic respiration. Glycolysis is shown on the left-
hand side, while further processing of pyruvic acid is shown on the right hand side.

In certain organisms, pyruvic acid is processed to produce lactic acid. In certain organisms,
pyruvic acid is processed to produce ethanol and carbon dioxide. Some amount of energy is
released in both the cases.

Two applications of anaerobic respiration are as follows:

(a) In making fluffy cakes and bread anaerobically reproducing fungi yeast is used.

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(b) In making curd lactobacillus is added as inoculum.

2. Given diagram is showing ATP synthesis during aerobic respiration. Replace the
symbols A, B, C, D and E by appropriate terms given in the box.

F1, Particle, Pi, 2H+, Inner mitochondrial membrane, ATP, F0 particle, ADP

Ans.

3. Oxygen is critical for aerobic respiration. Explain its role with respect to ETS.

Ans. In the Electron Transport System, NADH + H+ and FADH2 are energy carriers and are

utilized to produce ATP. Electrons are transferred through a sequence of events and finally
to the oxygen molecule. The oxygen molecule works like the final acceptor of hydrogen to
form water molecules. Although oxygen comes at the end but it is critical for aerobic
respiration. Oxidative phosphorylation involves a chain of events in which electrons are
transferred through electron gradient. This is like flow of water through a tap. Until the tap
is not open to allow the first drop of water, subsequent drops of water cannot flow down.
Oxygen acting as hydrogen acceptor is like a receptacle collecting the first electron so that

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subsequent flow of electrons through ETS could be maintained. Hence, presence of oxygen is
necessary to create a gradient through which electrons could be transferred passively.

4. Enumerate the assumptions that we undertake in making the respiratory balance

sheet. Are these assumptions valid for a living system? Compare fermentation and
aerobic respiration in this context.

Ans. Following assumptions are made while calculating the respiratory balance sheet:

Respiration involves a sequential and orderly pathway.

NADH which is synthesized during glycolysis is transferred to mitochondria where it
undergoes oxidative phosphorylation.
None of the other intermediates in the pathway are utilized to synthesise any other
compound.
Only glucose is undergoing oxidation. No other substrate is being utilized at any
intermediate stage.

But these assumptions are not valid for a living system. All pathways work simultaneously
and they cannot always work one after another, i.e. in sequence. ATP is utilized as and when
needed. Glucose is not the only substrate. In spite of the practical limitations, this calculation
is quite useful.

Fermentation Aerobic respiration

(i) Partial breakdown of glucose happens during (i) Complete breakdown of glucose takes
this process into ethanol. place into carbon dioxide.

(ii) There is a net gain of only two ATP (ii) There can be a net gain of 36 molecules
molecules. of ATP.

(iii) Oxidation of NADH to NAD+ is slow. (iii) Oxidation of NADH to NAD+ is very fast.

5. Give an account of Glycolysis. Where does it occur? What are the end products?

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Trace the fate of these products in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

Ans. Glycolysis involves breakdown of glucose into pyruvic acid. This happens in the
cytoplasm and involves partial oxidation of glucose. This is also called the EMP (Embden,
Meyerhof, Parnas) pathway; based on the scientists first explained the pathway. Following
are the important steps of glycolysis.

Glucose undergoes phosphorylation to produce glucose-6-phosphate.

Fructose-6-phosphate is then converted into PGAL (Phosphoglyceraldehyde).
Each molecule of PGAL then undergoes several steps to produce Pyruvic Acid.
There is a net gain of two molecules of ATP during glycolysis of one molecule of
glucose.

Fate of Pyruvate:

Aerobic Respiration: Pyruvic acid is completely oxidized to produce carbon dioxide and
energy.

Anaerobic Respiration: Depending upon the availability of oxygen in some organisms,

pyruvic acid is converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide when there is complete absence of
oxygen. In some other organisms, pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid when there is
incomplete oxygen supply.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 15
PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Ethylene is used for

(a) Retarding ripening of tomatoes
(b) Hastening of ripening of fruits
(c) Slowing down ripening of apples
(d) Both b and c

Ans. (b) Hastening the ripening of fruits

2. Coconut water contains

(a) ABA
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin

Ans. (c) Cytokinin

3. The affect of apical dominance can be overcome by which of the following hormone:
(a) IAA
(b) Ethylene
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Cytokinin

Ans. (d) Cytokinin

4. Match the following:

Column I Column II

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 A. IAA (i) Herring sperm DNA

B. ABA (ii) Bolting

C. Ethylene (iii) Stomatal closure

D. GA (iv) Weed-free lawns

E. Cytokinins (v) Ripening of fruits

Options:
(a) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (v), D – (ii), E – (i)
(b) A – (v), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (ii), E – (i)
(c) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (v), D – (iii), E – (ii)
(d) A – (v), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i), E – (iv)

Ans. (a) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (v), D – (ii), E – (i)

5. Apples are generally wrapped in waxed paper to

(a) Prevent sunlight for changing its colour
(b) Prevent aerobic respiration by checking the entry of O2

(c) Prevent ethylene formation due to injury

(d) Make the apples look attractive

Ans. (b) Prevent aerobic respiration by checking the entry of O2

Explanation: Aerobic respiration will hasten rotting of apple.

6. Growth can be measured in various ways. Which of these can be used as parameters
to measure growth
(a) Increase in cell number
(b) Increase in cell size
(c) Increase in length and weight

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 (d) All the above

Ans. (d) All the above

7. The term synergistic action of hormones refers to

(a) When two hormones act together but bring about opposite effects
(b) When two hormones act together and contribute to the same function
(c) When one hormone affects more than one function
(d) When many hormones bring about any one function

Ans. (b) When two hormones act together and contribute to the same function

8. Plasticity in plant growth means that

(a) Plant roots are extensible
(b) Plant development is dependent on the environment
(c) Stems can extend
(d) None of the above

Ans. (b) Plant development is dependent on the environment.

9. To increase sugar production in sugarcanes, they are sprayed with

(a) IAA
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Ethylene

Ans. (c) Gibberellin

Explanation: Gibberellin increases the length of stem and thus increases the amount of
sugar in sugarcane.

10. ABA acts antagonistic to

(a) Ethylene
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellic acid
(d) IAA

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 Ans. (c) Gibberellic acid
Explanation: ABA acts as growth inhibitor. While gibberellin promotes growth.

11. Monocarpic plants are those which

(a) Bear flowers with one ovary
(b) Flower once and die
(c) Bear only one flower
(d) All of the above

Ans. (b) Flower once and die.

12. The photoperiod in plants is perceived at

(a) Meristem
(b) Flower
(c) Floral buds
(d) Leaves

Ans. (d)Leaves
Explanation:Leaves are the main recipients of light energy and thus are the main player
in photo period.

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Fill in the blanks with appropriate word/words

(a) A phase of growth which is maximum and fastest is ………

(b) Apical dominance as expressed in dicotyledonous plants is due to the presence of

more ……… in the apical bud than in the lateral ones.

(c) In addition to auxin, a ……… must be supplied to culture medium to obtain a good
callus in plant tissue cultures.

(d) ……… of a vegetative plants are the sites of photoperiodic perception.

Ans. (a) exponential phase

(b) auxin

(c) cytokinin

(d) Leaves

2. Plant growth substances (PGS) have innumerable practical application. Name the
PGS you should use to

(a) Increase yield of sugarcane

(b) Promote lateral shoot growth

(c) Cause sprouting of potato tuber

(d) Inhibit seed germination

Ans. (a) Gibberellic acid

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(b) Cytokinin

(c) Ethylene

(d) Abscissic acid

3. A primary root grows from 5 cm to 19 cm in a week. Calculate the growth rate and
relative growth rate over the period.

Ans. Absolute Growth rate can be calculated as follows:

W1 = W0 ert

Where, W1 = final size (weight, height, number etc.)

W0 = initial size at the beginning of the period

r = growth rate

t = time of growth

e = base of natural logarithms

Here, r is the relative growth rate

Given W1 = 19 cm

W0 = 5 cm

t = 7 days

Or, 19 =

Or,

Or, 3.8 =

Or, log 3.8 = 7r log 2.7

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Or, 0.5798 = 7r 0.4314

Or, r = =0.1907

Relative growth rate can be calculated as follows:

r =

= = 3.8 cm

Absolute growth rate = 0.1907

Relative growth rate = 3.8 cm

4. Gibberellins were first discovered in Japan when rice plants were suffering from
bakane (the foolish seedling disease) caused by a fungus Gibberella fujikuroi.

(a) Give two functions of this phytohormone.

(b) Which property of Gibberellin caused foolish seedling disease in rice?

Ans. (a) Gibberellin induces bolting, i.e. growth of internode in rosette plants. Gibberellin
also induces seed germination by breaking seed dormancy.

(b) The fungus produces excess amount of Gibberellin. This promotes too much growth in
internodes and the plant becomes too tall to hold its own weight.

5. Gibberellins promote the formation of ………… flowers on genetically ………… plants

in Cannabis whereas ethylene promotes formation of ………… flowers on genetically
………… plants.

Ans. Gibberellins promote the formation of male flowers on genetically female plants in
Cannabis whereas ethylene promotes formation of female flowers on
genetically male plants.

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6. Classify the following plants into Long-Day Plants (LDP), Short Day Plants (SDP) and
Day Neutral Plants (DNP): Xanthium, Henbane (Hyoscyamus niger), Spinach, Rice,
Strawberry, Bryophyllum, Sunflower, Tomato, Maize.

Ans. Long Day Plants (LDP): Bryophyllum, Spinach, Henbane

Short Day Plants (SDP): Xanthium, Rice, Strawberry

Day Neutral Plants (DNP): Sunflower, Tomato, Maize

7. A farmer grows cucumber plants in his field. He wants to increase the number of
female flowers in them. Which plant growth regulator can be applied to achieve this?

Ans. Ethylene

8. Where are the following hormones synthesized in plants

(a) IAA

(b) Gibberellins

(c) Cytokinins

Ans. (a) Growing apices of plant, e.g. shoot tip, leaf primordial and developing seeds.

(b) apical shoot buds, young leaves, root tips and developing seeds

(c) These are synthesized mainly in roots

9. In botanical gardens and tea gardens, gardeners trim the plants regularly so that
they remain bushy. Does this practice have any scientific explanation?

Ans. Apical dominance in these plants prevent the growth of lateral branches. Removing
shoot apex helps in promoting lateral growth and thus, plants become more bushy.

10. Light plays an important role in the life of all organisms. Name any three
physiological processes in plants which are affected by light.

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Ans. Three physiological processes in plants which are affected by light are; photosynthesis,
transpiration and flowering.

11. In the figure of Sigmoid growth curve given below, label segments 1, 2 and 3.

Ans. (1) Lag phase, (2) Exponential phase and (3) Stationary phase

12. Growth is one of the characteristic of all living organisms? Do unicellular organisms
also grow? If so, what are the parameters?

Ans. Unlike multicellular organisms, unicellular organisms do not grow in size or volume.
Growth in unicellular organisms is marked by mitosis which produces daughter cells. Thus,
asexual reproduction by amitosis shows growth in these organisms.

13. The rice seedlings infected with fungus Gibberella fujikuroi is called foolish
seedlings? What was the reason behind it?

Ans. Rice plants infected with fungus Gibberella fujikuroi show too much growth in length.
The length becomes too much for the plant to support its own weight and the plant
ultimately dies. Hence, this phenomenon is called foolish seedlings.

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Nitcotiana tabacum, a Short-Day Plant, when exposed to more than critical period of
light fails to flower. Explain.

Ans. Short day plants are the plants which require the exposure of light period much shorter
than critical light period. This plant flowers only when photoperiod is below the critical
period i.e. uninterrupted long dark period is needed. When these plants are exposed to a
photoperiod longer than critical period, they fail to produce flowers. Flowering is induced by
a hormone in plants. The hormone is present in leaves and migrate to shoot apices in
response to the required period of photoperiod.

2. What are the structural characteristics of

(a) Meristematic cells near root tip

(b) The cells in the elongation zone of the root

Ans. (a) Meristematic cells near root tip are in active state of cell division. The cells are thin
walled, have dense cytoplasm and large nucleus.

(b) In this zone, the cells have a large number of small vacuoles. These vacuoles fuse to form
one large central vacuole. As a result, cells become elongated and produce longitudinal
growth in this region.

3. Does the growth pattern in plants differ from that in animals? Do all the parts of
plant grow indefinitely? If not, name the regions of plant, which can grow indefinitely.

Ans. While animals show determinate growth, plants show indeterminate growth. This
means most of the plant parts grow indefinitely. But this does not mean that all plant parts
grow indefinitely. Indeterminate growth is only seen in selected plant parts like root apex

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and shoot apex.

4. Explain in 2-3 lines each of the following terms with the help of examples taken from
different plant tissues:

(a) Differentiation

(b) De-differentiation

(c) Redifferentiation

Ans. (a) When meristematic cells become specialised for a particular function, they stop
dividing. This phenomenon is called differentiation. During differentiation, cells undergo
major structural changes in protoplasm and cell wall.

(b) The living differentiated cells can regain the capacity of division under special conditions.
This phenomenon is called de-differentiation. For example; formation of meristems from
fully developed parenchyma happens because of de-differentiation.

(c) When de-differentiated cells become mature and assume specialized function once again,
this is called redifferentiation. For example; cambium redifferentiates to form the cortex.

5. Auxins are growth hormones capable of promoting cell elongation. They have been
used in horticulture to promote growth, flowering and rooting. Write a line to explain
the meaning of the following terms related to auxins.

(a) Auxin precursors

(b) Anti-auxins

(c) Synthetic auxins

Ans. (a) The raw materials required for initial synthesis of auxins are called auxin
precursors.

(b) Compounds which inhibit the action of auxins are called anti-auxins, e.g. p–
chlorophenoxy isobutyric acid (PCIB) and TIBA.

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(c) Auxins which are made artificially are called synthetic auxins, e. g. 2,4-D, NAA.

6. The role of ethylene and abscissic acid is both positive and negative. Justify this
statement.

Ans. Following examples show that ethylene and abscissic acid have both positive and
negative roles.

Positive Effects of Ethylene:

Promotes horizontal growth.

Promotes positive geotropism in stem.
Promotes apical dominance.
Breaks seed and bud dormancy.
Promotes fruit ripening and root initiation.

Negative Effects of Ethylene:

Inhibits longitudinal growth.

Enhances senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits.
Prolongs dormancy of lateral buds.

Positive Effects of Abscissic Acid:

Helps in reducing transpiration and thus in preventing water loss.

Induces root initiation and flowering in some plants.
Promotes seed dormancy and bud dormancy.
Helps plants develop resistance against cold and other types of stress.

Negative Effects of Abscissic Acid:

Promotes senescence of leaves.

Retards cambial activity.
Inhibits the function of growth hormones.
Inhibits seed germination.

7. While experimentation, why do you think it is difficult to assign any affect seen to

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any single hormone?

Ans. Plant hormones often work in combination. Some plant hormones may have
antagonistic effects, while some others may have augmentative effects. It is almost
impossible to pinpoint any single hormone for a particular effect in a plant part. Moreover,
plant hormones bring out their effect in coordination with various extrinsic factors. Hence, it
is difficult to assign any effect seen to any single hormone.

8. What is the mechanism underlying the phenomenon by which the terminal/apical

bud suppresses the growth of lateral buds? Suggest measures to overcome this
phenomenon.

Ans. This phenomenon is called apical dominance. The growing shoot apex inhibits the
growth of lateral branches. This happens because of a high concentration of auxins in shoot
apex. To prevent apical dominance, shoot apex is trimmed. This helps auxins to move to
other meristematic regions and to promote lateral branching.

9. In animals, there are special glands secreting hormones, whereas there are no glands
in plants. Where are plant hormones formed? How are the hormones translocated to
the site of activity?

Ans. Plant hormones are produced by individual cells; in regions where they are required by
the plants. For example; auxin is synthesize in the cells of growing shoot apices. Plant
hormones are translocated through the vascular system of plants. For example; auxin from
the shoot apex may get mobilized to the lateral buds or flower buds. Similarly, some plant
hormones may be mobilized to senescent parts.

10. Many discoveries in science have been accidental. This is true for plant hormones
also. Can you justify this statement by giving an example? Also, what term is used for
such accidental findings?

Ans. This is true that the plant hormones have been discovered accidentally. For example;
auxin was accidentally discovered by Charles Darwin and his son Francis Darwin. They
observed that coleoptiles of canary grass responded to unilateral illumination by growing

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towards the source of light. Auxin was later isolated from coleoptiles of oat seedlings by F W
Went.

The term 'serendipity' is used for accidental discovery.

11. To get a carpet like grass lawns are mowed regularly. Is there any of scientific
explanation for this?

Ans. While mowing, the apices of grass are removed. This helps in preventing apical
dominance and in preventing longitudinal growth of grass. After removal of apices, auxins
get mobilized to lateral buds and promote growth of lateral branches. This helps in giving
carpet-like lawns.

12. In a slide showing different types of cells can you identify which type of the cell may
be meristematic and the one which is incapable of dividing and how?

Ans. In a slide showing different types of cells, presence of following characteristics would
indicate meristematic cells:

(a) Thin cell wall

(b) Dense cytoplasm

(c) Cells showing cell division.

(d) Smaller vacuoles or negligible vacuoles.

If above features are absent then the cells are incapable of division.

13. A rubber band stretches and reverts to its original position. Bubble gum stretches,
but it would not return to its original position.

Is there any difference between the two processes? Discuss it with respect to plant
growth. [Hint: Elasticity (reversible) Plasticity (irreversible)]

Ans. From the theory of physics, we know that if a substance regains its original shape after
the removal of deforming forces, the substance is said to exhibit elasticity. On the other

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hand, if a substance fails to regain its original shape after the removal of deforming forces,
the substance is said to exhibit plasticity. In above examples; rubber band is showing
elasticity. But bubble gum is showing plasticity.

14. Label the diagram

(a) This is which part of a dicotyledonous plant?

(b) If we remove part 1 from the plant, what will happen?

Ans. (a) This diagram shows the shoot apex.

(b) Removal of part 1 will prevent apical dominance. This will help in growth of lateral
branches.

15. Both animals and plants grow. Why do we say that growth and differentiation in
plants is open and not so in animals? Does this statement hold true for sponges also?

Ans. In animals, once a particular type of tissue is formed it cannot change to any other
tissue. Moreover, growth in all the organs stop after a certain age of the animal. On the
contrary, growth in plant is indeterminate because a plant part can grow into infinitely
many numbers. A senescent part is usually replaced in plants. Differentiated cells undergo
dedifferentiation in plants if a need arises.

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Sponges are exceptions in the animal kingdom. A sponge shows open type of growth.

16. Define parthenocarpy. Name the plant hormone used to induce parthenocarpy.

Ans. When development of fruits happen without fertilisation, this phenomenon is called
parthenocarpy. A parthenocarpic fruit does not contain seeds, e.g. banana and some
varieties of papaya. Auxins and gibberellins can be used to induce parthenocarpy.

17. While eating watermelons, all of us wish it was seedless. As a plant physiologist can
you suggest any method by which this can be achieved?

Ans. It would always be better to have seedless watermelons. Parthenocarpy can be induced
in watermelons to get seedless fruits. This can be done by spraying auxin and gibberellins on
watermelons plants.

18. A gardener finds more broad-leaved dicot weeds growing in his lawns. What can be
done to get rid of the weeds efficiently?

Ans. The broad-leaved weeds can be removed by spraying 2,4-D; which is a type of auxin.
This is a synthetic auxin and is widely used by farmers to get rid of weeds.

19. On germination a seed first produces shoots with leaves, flowers appear later,

(a) Why do you think this happens?

(b) How is this advantageous to the plant?

Ans. (a) After germination of seed, shoots with leaves are produced at first. This marks the
vegetative growth of plant. This is important for synthesizing enough resources which could
be utilized in sexual reproduction. And hence, flowering follows after this phase.

(b) Vegetative phase of growth helps the plant gain maturity. A mature plant would be in a
better position to withstand the demands of bearing flowers and fruits. Thus, vegetative
phase of growth helps in survival of the plant species.

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20. Fill in the blanks:

(a) Maximum growth is observe in ………… phase.

(b) Apical dominance is due to …………

(c) ………… initiate rooting.

(d) Pigment involved in Photoperception in flowering plants is …………

Ans. (a) Exponential

(b) Auxin

(c) Cytokinin

(d) Phytochrome

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Some varieties of wheat are known as spring wheat while others are called winter
wheat. Former variety is sown, and planted in spring and It is harvested by the end of
the same season. However, winter varieties; if planted in spring, fail to flower or
produce mature grains within a span of a flowering season. Explain, why?

Ans. In some plants, flowering is either quantitatively or qualitatively dependent on

exposure to low temperature. This phenomenon is called vernalisation. For example; wheat
comes in two varieties, i.e. spring wheat and winter wheat. The spring wheat is sown, and
planted in spring and is harvested by the end of the same season. During this period, this
variety of wheat gets the desired exposure to low temperature. But if winter variety of wheat
is planted in spring; it fails to get the desired period of low temperature. As a result, the
plants fail to flower or produce mature grains within a span of a flowering season.

2. It is known that some varieties of wheat are sown in autumn but are harvested
around next mid-summer.

(a) What could be the probable reason for this?

(b) What term is used for this promotion of flowering under low temperature?

(c) Which plant hormone can replace the cold treatment?

Ans. (a) These plants germinate and grow as seedlings during winter. They resume growth
during summer and finally are harvested around next midsummer. This happens because
these plants are able to complete their vegetative phase of growth during winter and
summer.

(b) This process is called vernalisation.

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(c) Gibberellin hormone if given can replace the cold treatment with same results.

3. Name a hormone which

(a) is gaseous in nature

(b) is responsible for phototropism

(c) induces femaleness in flowers of cucumber

(d) is used for killing weeds (dicots)

(e) induces flowering in long day plants

Ans. (a) Ethylene hormone is gaseous in nature.

(b) Auxin hormone is responsible for phototropism.

(c) Ethylene hormone induces female characters.

(d) Synthetic auxin (2,4-D) is used as weedicide.

(e) Gibberellin hormone induces flowering in long photo period requiring plants.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 16
DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION

Exercise

Multiple iChoice Questions (MCQs)

1. Select what is not true of intestinal Villi among followings

(a) They possess microvilli

(b) They increase the surface area

(c) They are supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels

(d) They only participate in digestion of fats

Ans. (d) They only participate in digestion of fats

Explanation: Digestion of all the nutrients is completed in small intestine.

2. Hepato-pancreatic duct opens into the duodenum and carries

(a) Bile

(b) Pancreatic juice

(c) Both bile and pancreatic juice

(d) Saliva

Ans. (c) Both bile and pancreatic juice

Explanation: Bile comes from hepatic route and pancreatic juice comes from pancreatic
routes.

3. One of the following is not a common disorder associated with digestive system

(a) Tetanus

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(b) Diarrhea

(c) Jaundice

(d) Dysentery

Ans. (a) Tetanus

Explanation: Tetanus interferes with muscle contractions.

4. A gland not associated with the alimentary canal is

(a) Pancreas

(b) Adrenal

(c) Liver

(d) Salivary glands

Ans. (b) Adrenal

Explanation: Adrenal gland is situated above kidney which is not a part of digestive system.

5. Match the two columns and select the correct among options given

Column I Column II

A. Biomacromolecules of food (i) Alimentary canal and associated gland

B. Human digestive system (ii) Embedded in jawbones

C. Stomach (ii) Outer wall of visceral organs

D. Thecodont (iv) Converted into simple substances

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 E. Serosa (v) J-shaped bag like structure

Options:

(a) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (v), D – (iii), E – (iv)

(b) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (v), D – (ii), E – (iii)

(c) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv), E – (v)

(d) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (iv), E – (v)

Ans. (b) A – (iv), B – (i), c – (v), D – (ii), E – (iii)

6. Match the two columns and select the right one among options given

Column I Column II

A. Duodenum (i) A cartilaginous flap

B. Epiglottis (ii) Small blind sac

C. Glottis (iii) U shaped structure emerging from the stomach

D. Caecum (iv) Opening of wind pipe

Options:

(a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)

(b) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

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(c) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii)

(d) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)

Ans. (c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)

7. Match the enzyme with their respective substrate and choose the right one among
options given

Column I Column II

A. Lipase (i) Dipeptides

B. Nuclease (ii) Fats

C. Carboxypeptidase (iii)Nucleic acid

D. Dipeptidases (iv) Proteins, peptones and proteoses

Options:

(a) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv)

(b) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i)

(c) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii)

(d) A – (ii), B – (iii), c – (iv), D – (i)

Ans. (d) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)

8. Dental formula in human beings is

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (b)

Explanation: Two incisors, one canine, two premolars and 3 molars on each side of a jaw.

9. Liver is the largest gland and is associated with various functions, choose one which
is not correct

(a) Metabolism of carbohydrate

(b) Digestion of fat

(c) Formation of bile

(d) Secretion of hormone called gastrin

Ans. (d) Secretion of hormone called gastrin

Explanation: Gastrin is secreted by stomach.

10. Mark the right statement among the following

(a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme

(b) Trypsinogen is secreted by intestinal mucosa

(c) Enterokinase is secreted by pancreas

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(d) Bile contains trypsin

Ans. (a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme

Explanation: Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme secreted by pancreas, which is activated by

enterokinase secreted by intestine.

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. The food mixes thoroughly with the acidic gastric juice of the stomach by the
churning movements of its muscular wall. What do we call the food then?

Ans. Chyme

2. Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme of pancreatic juice. An enzyme, enterokinase,

activates it. Which tissue/ cells secrete this enzyme? How is it activated?

Ans. Trypsinogen is secreted by intestinal mucosa. It is activated by enterokinase into

trypsin.

3. In which part of alimentary canal does absorption of water, simple sugars and
alcohol takes place?

Ans. Stomach

4. Name the enzymes involved in the breakdown of nucleotides into sugars and bases?

Ans. Nucleases

5. Define digestion in one sentence.

Ans. Conversion of complex food substances into simple absorbable forms is called
digestion.

6. What do we call the type of teeth attachment to jaw bones in which each tooth is
embedded in a socket of jaws bones?

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Ans. Thecodont

7. Stomach is located in upper left portion of the abdominal cavity and has three major
parts. Name these three parts.

Ans. The three major parts of stomach are:

(a) Cardiac

(b) Fundus

(c) Pylorus

8. Does gall bladder make bile?

Ans. No, gall bladder does not make bile.

9. Correct the following statements by deleting one of entries (given in bold).

(a) Goblet cells are located in the intestinal mucosal epithelium and secrete
chymotrypsin / mucus.

(b) Fats are broken down into di- and monoglycerides with the help of amylase / lipases.

(c) Gastric glands of stomach mucosa have oxyntic cell/ chief cells which secrete HCI.

(d) Saliva contains enzymes that digest starch / protein.

Ans. (a) Goblet cells are located in the intestinal mucosal epithelium and secrete mucus.

(b) Fats are broken down into di – and monoglycerides with the help of lipases.

(c) Gastric glands of stomach mucosa have oxyntic cells which secrete HCI.

(d) Saliva contains enzymes that digest starch.

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. What is pancreas? Mention the major secretions of pancreas that are helpful in
digestion.

Ans. Pancreas is a compound gland, i.e. both endocrine and exocrine gland. It is situated
between the limbs of U-shaped duodenum. The exocrine portion of this gland secretes
pancreatic juice released in duodenum and which contains digestive enzymes. The digestive
enzyme is alkaline in nature and neutalises the acid present in the food coming from
stomach into duodenum.The endocrine portion of this gland secretes the hormones insulin
and glucagon to maintain the level of sugar in blood.

2. Name the part of the alimentary canal where major absorption of digested food takes
place. What are the absorbed forms of different kinds of food materials?

Ans. Major absorption of digested food takes place in the small intestine. This happens in
jejunum and ileum which are parts of small intestine and lined by finger like projections
called villi. Carbohydrate is absorbed in the form of glucose. Proteins are absorbed in the
form of amino acids. Fats are absorbed in the form of fatty acids and glycerol.

3. List the organs of human alimentary canal and name the major digestive glands with
their location.

Ans. Major organs of human alimentary canal are as follows:

Mouth, Oesophagus, Stomach, Small Intestine, Large Intestine and Rectum

Major Digestive Glands are as follows:

(a) Salivary gland: Mouth

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(b) Gastric glands: Stomach

(c) Liver: adjacent to stomach

(d) Pancreas: Below stomach

4. What is the role of gall bladder? What may happen if it stops functioning or is
removed?

Ans. Gall bladder stores bile juice secreted by liver and releases it as and when required in
the duodenum. If the gall bladder stops functioning or is removed, there is no problem with
the digestive functions. After removal of gall bladder, bile directly moves to small intestine. It
won't be as concentrated as earlier, but the body learns to adjust to this change.

5. Correct the statement given below by the right option shown in the bracket against
them

(a) Absorption of amino acids and glycerol takes place in the. (small intestine/ large
intestine)

(b) The faeces in the rectum initiate a reflex causing an urge for its removal. (neural
/hormonal)

(c) Skin and eyes turn yellow in infection. (liver /stomach)

(d) Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice in (infants / adults).

(e) Pancreatic juice and bile are released through. (intestine-pancreatic/ hepato-
pancreatic duct)

(f) Dipeptides, disaccharides and glycerides are broken down into simple substances in
region of small intestine. (jejunum/ duodenum)

Ans. (a) Absorption of amino acids and glycerol takes place in the small intestine.

(b) The faeces in the rectum initiate a neural reflex causing an urge for its removal.

(c) Skin and eyes turn yellow in liver infection.

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(d) Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice in infants.

(e) Pancreatic juice and bile are released through hepato-pancreatic duct.

(f) Dipeptides, disaccharides and glycerides are broken down into simple substances in
duodenum region of small intestine.

6. What are three major types of cells found in the gastric glands? Name their
secretions.

Ans. Major cells in gastric glands and their secretions are as follows:

Glands Secretion

Mucous neck cells Mucus

Peptic or chief cells Pepsinogen, Prorennin

Parietal or oxyntic cells HCI and Intrinsic Factor

7. How is the intestinal mucosa protected from the acidic food entering from stomach?

Ans. The intestinal mucosal epithelium has goblet cells which secrete mucus. The mucus
along with the bicarbonates from the pancreas protects the intestinal mucosa from acid.

8. How are the activities of gastro-intestinal tract regulated?

Ans. The activities of gastro-intestinal tract also called "GI- tract" are regulated by the neural
system and hormonal system. There are many intrinsic and extrinsic nerves connecting the
GI tract. These nerves help in coordinated functioning of various parts of the alimentary
canal. Moreover, some hormones also play important role in coordination of these functions.

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9. Distinguish between constipation and indigestion. Mention their major causes.

Ans.

Constipation Indigestion

(i) Bowel movement is irregular and faeces (i) Improper indigestion of food gives a
are retained in the rectum. feeling of fullness.

(ii) This can happen because of inadequate

(ii) This can happen because of intake of less
enzyme secretion, food poisoning or
water and roughage in the diet.
anxiety.

(iii) This can be usually cured by improving

intake of water and roughage and by (iii) This may need medicines for cure.
exercise.

10. Describe the enzymatic action on fats in the duodenum.

Ans. First of all bile carries out emulsification of fat. After that, fat is broken down by the
enzyme lipase into di- and monoglycerides.

Fats diglycerides Monoglycerides

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. A person had roti and dal for his lunch. Trace the changes in those during its passage
through the alimentary canal.

Ans. Roti mainly contains carbohydrate and fibres while dal contains protein. Dal may also
contain fat because of addition of oil or ghee during cooking. Following changes would
happen in these food items during their passage through the alimentary canal.

Oral Cavity:

In the oral cavity, food is chewed so that it can change into a semisolid paste. Saliva is mixed
with food. Saliva makes it easier to swallow the food. Moreover, salivary amylase in saliva
digests starch. Starch is converted into maltose during this process.

Starch Maltose

Stomach:

After buccal cavity, the food reaches the stomach through oesophagus. No digestion occurs in
the oesophagus. In stomach, food is further churned into even finer paste. Hydrochloric acid
gets mixed with the food. HCI kills germs in the food, if any, and provides acidic pH for
optimum activity of pepsin. Partial digestion of protein takes place in the stomach. Here,
protein of the dal is converted by pepsin into peptones and proteoses.

Protein + Pepsin Peptones + Proteoses

Small Intestine:

Pancreatic juice contains pancreatic amylase. Amylase in pancreatic juice converts

polysachharides into disaccharides. This step shows further processing of carbohydrates
from the roti.

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Polysaccharides (starch) Disaccharides

Chymotrypsin from pancreatic juice digests peptones and proteoses into dipeptides.

Fats Diglycerides Monoglycerides

Intestinal juice contains various enzymes; which help in digestion of all the nutrients.
Digestion of various nutrients in roti and dal can be shown as follows:

Dipeptides Amino acids

Maltose Glucose + Glucose

Lactose Glucose + Galactose

Sucrose Glucose + Fructose

Di and Monoglycerides Fatty acids + Glycerol

Once all the nutrients are converted into simple substances, the simple substances are
absorbed by the walls of the small intestine. After that, undigested food is sent to the large
intestine and finally to the rectum.

2. What are the various enzymatic types of glandular secretions in our gut helping
digestion of food? What is the nature of end products obtained after complete digestion
of food?

Ans. Following are the different types of glandular secretions in our gut which help in
digestion of food.

Secretions from Gastric Glands: The gastric glands secrete gastric juice which contains
hydrochloric acid and the enzyme pepsin. In infants, rennin is also secreted by the stomach.

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Rennin helps in digestion of milk.

Secretions from Liver: Liver makes the bile juice. Bile does not contain any enzyme but
plays an important role in digestion. Bile facilitates emulsification of fats so that digestion of
fat can be easier. Bile also provides alkaline medium so that the enzymes in the small
intestine can work properly.

Secretions from Pancreas: Pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which contains inactive
enzymes; like amylase, lipase, nuclease; trypsinogen and chymotrypsinogen. Trypsinogen is
activated by an enzyme enterokinase, secreted by intestinal mucosa into active trypsin.
Trypsin then activate other enzymes in the pancreatic juice. While amylase digests
carbohydrate; trypsin/chymotrypsin digests protein.

Secretions from Small Intestine: Small intestine secretes succus entericus which contains
various enzymes; like dipeptidase, lipase, lactase, etc.

End Products of Digestion: The end products of digestion are simple substances like
glucose, amino acids, fatty acids and glycerol. These substances can be easily absorbed by the
villi present in small intestine.

3. Discuss mechanisms of absorption.

Ans. The end products of digestion are mainly absorbed by the Villi in small intestine.
Absorption of digested food happens through passive, active or facilitated transport
mechanisms. Following are the details of absorption mechanisms of various end products of
digestion.

Simple Diffusion: Small amounts of monosaccharides, amino acids and some electrolytes
are absorbed by diffusion. The passage of these substances into the blood depends on
concentration gradient.

Facilitated Transport: Fructose and some amino acids are absorbed with the help of carrier

ions like Na+. This method is called facilitated transport.

Transport of Fatty Acids and glycerols: These substances cannot be absorbed into the
blood because these are insoluble. They are first made into small droplets; called micelles.

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The micelles move to the intestinal mucosa. In the intestinal mucosa, these micelles are
converted into very small protein-coated globules. Such globules are called chylomicrons.
The chylomicrons are transported into the lymph vessels in the villi. The lymph vessels then
release them into the blood stream.

4. Discuss the role of hepato–pancreatic complex in digestion of carbohydrate, protein

and fat components of food.

Ans. The hepato-pancreatic complex plays a major role in digestion of carbohydrate, protein
and fat.

Role of Liver: Liver makes the bile juice. Bile does not contain any enzyme but plays an
important role in digestion. Bile facilitates emulsification of fats so that digestion of fat can
be easier. Bile also provides alkaline medium so that the enzymes in the small intestine can
work properly.

Role of Pancreas: Pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which contains inactive enzymes; like
amylase, lipase, nuclease, trypsinogen and chymotrypsinogen. Trypsinogen is activated by
an enzyme enterokinase, secreted by intestinal mucosa into active trypsin. Trypsin then
activate other enzymes in the pancreatic juice. While amylase digests carbohydrates;
trypsin/chymotrypsin digest proteins. Lipase converts triglycerides into di- and
monoglycerides.

Polysaccharides (starch) Disaccharides

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Fats Diglycerides Monoglycerides

5. Explain the process of digestion in the buccal cavity with a note on the arrangement
of teeth.

Ans. In the oral cavity, food is chewed so that it can change into a semisolid paste. Saliva is
mixed with food. Saliva helps in making the food particles into a bolus. Saliva makes it easier
to swallow the food. It can be said that oral cavity performs the function of masticating the
food and swallowing the food. Moreover, salivary amylase in saliva digests starch. Starch is
converted into maltose during this process.

Starch Maltose

Arrangement of Teeth: In human beings, each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone.
This type of attachment of teeth is called the phycodont. Human beings get two sets of teeth
in their lifetime, i.e. temporary teeth and permanent teeth. Temporary teeth or milk teeth
are deciduous and are replaced by permanent teeth. This type of arrangement is diphyodont.

There are four types of teeth in human beings, viz. incisors, canines, premolars and molars.
They are represented as I, C, PM and M in short. Each half of a jaw contains certain number
of each type of teeth. This can be shown by following dental formula:

This shows that there are 2 incisors for cutting , I canine for tearing, 2 premolars and 3
molars teeth for grinding and crushing in each half of a jaw. Thus, there are 32 teeth in a
human adult.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 17
BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Respiration in insects is called direct because

(a) The cells exchange O2/ CO2 directly with the air in the tubes

(b) The tissues exchange O2/ CO2 directly with coelomic fluid

(c) The tissues exchange O2/ CO2 directly with the air outside through body surface

(d) Tracheal tubes exchange O2/ CO2 directly with the haemocoel which then exchange the

same with tissues

Ans. (a) The cells exchange O2/ CO2 directly with the air in the tubes

2. Which of the following does not occur during breathing?

(a) Humidifies the air

(b) Brings the air to body temperature

(c) Diffusion of gases

(d) Cleans up the air

Ans. (c) Diffusion of gases

3. A person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to
the lungs its effect could be

(a) Reduced breathing rate

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(b) Rapid increase in breathing rate

(c) No change in respiration

(d) Cessation of breathing

Ans. (d) Cessation of breathing

Explanation: Chest cavity works like an air-tight chamber. Any puncture will hamper
inflation or deflation and thus breathing will stop.

4. It is known that exposure to carbon monoxide is harmful to animals because

(a) It reduces CO2 transport

(b) It reduces O2 transport

(c) It increases CO2 transport

(d) It increases O2 transport

Ans. (b) It reduces O2 transport

Explanation: Carbon monoxide binds with haemoglobin; leaving less haemoglobin free for
binding with oxygen.

5. Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing

(a) Inspiration is a passive process where as expiration is active

(b) Inspiration is a active process where as expiration is passive

(c) Inspiration and expiration are active processes

(d) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes

Ans. (b) Inspiration is an active process whereas expiration is passive.

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6. A person breathes in some volume of air by forced inspiration after having a forced
expiration. This quantity of air taken in is

(a) Total lung capacity

(b) Tidal volume

(c) Vital capacity

(d) Inspiratory capacity

Ans. (c) Vital capacity

7. Mark the incorrect statement in context to O2 binding to Hb

(a) Higher pH

(b) Lower temperature

(c) Lower pCO2

(d) Higher pO2

Ans. (a) Higher pH

Explanation: Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of

O2. In alveoli, high pO2, low pCO2, less H+concentration and lower temperature facilitate

formation of oxyhaemoglobin.

8. Mark the correct pair of muscles involved in the normal breathing process in
humans

(a) External and internal intercostal muscles

(b) Diaphragm and abdominal muscles

(c) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

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(d) Diaphragm and intercostal muscles

Ans. (d) Diaphragm and intercostal muscles

9. Incidence of Emphysema – a respiratory disorder is high in cigarette smokers. In

such cases

(a) The bronchioles are found to be damaged

(b) The alveolar walls are found to be damaged

(c) The plasma membrane is found to be damaged

(d) The respiratory muscles are found to be damaged

Ans. (b) The alveolar walls are found to be damaged

10. Respiratory process is regulated by certain specialized centres in the brain. One of
the following listed centres can reduce the duration of inspiration upon stimulation

(a) Medullary inspiratory centre

(b) Pneumotaxic centre

(c) Apneustic centre

(d) Chemosensitive centre

Ans. (b) Pneumotaxic centre

11. CO2 dissociates from carbamino-haemoglobin when

(a) pCO2 is high & pO2 is low

(b) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low

(c) pCO2 and pO2 are equal

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(d) None of the above

Ans. (b) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low

Explanation: In alveoli, pCO2 is low and pO2 is high. Due to this CO2 dissociates from

haemoglobin.

12. In breathing movements, air volume can be estimated by

(a) Stethoscope

(b) Hygrometer

(c) Sphygmomanometer

(d) Spirometer

Ans. (d) Spirometer

Explanation: Stethoscope is used for hearing sounds from chest. Hygrometer is used for
measuring density of liquid. Sphygmomanometer is used for measuring blood pressure.

13. From the following relationships between respiratory volume and capacities, mark
the correct option

(i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal Volume + Residual Volume

(ii) Vital Capacity (VC) = Tidal Volume (TV) + Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) + Expiratory
Reserve Volume (ERV).

(iii) Residual Volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) – Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)

(iv) Tidal Volume (TV) = Inspiratory Capacity (IC) – Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) Options:

(a) (i) Incorrect, (ii) Incorrect, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct

(b) (i) Incorrect, (ii) Correct, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct

(c) (i) Correct, (ii) Correct, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct

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(d) (i) Correct, (ii) Incorrect, (iii) Correct, (iv) Incorrect

Ans. (b) (i) Incorrect, (ii) Correct, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct

14. The oxygen – haemoglobin dissociation curve will show a right shift in case of

(a) High pCO2

(b) High pO2

(c) Low pCO2

(d) Less H+ concentration

Ans. (a) High pCO2

Explanation: The oxygen haemoglobin curve shifted to right when pO2 decreases,

pCO2 increases, H+ concentration increases, pH decreases and body temperature increases.

15. Match the following and mark the correct options

Animal Respiratory organ

A. Earthworm (i) Moist cuticle

B. Aquatic arthropods (ii) Gills

C. Fishes (iii) Lungs

D. Birds/Reptiles (iv) Trachea

Options:

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(a) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)

(b) A – (i), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (iii)

(c) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (iv)

(d) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (iii)

Ans. (b) A – (i), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (iii)

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Define the following terms?

(a)Tidal volume

(b) Residual volume

(c) Asthma

Ans. (a) Volume of air inspired or expired under normal breathing is called tidal volume. In
a normal individual, this is 500 mL; which means tidal volume is 6000 to 8000 mL per
minute.

(b) Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forceful expiration. In normal
individual, it is 1100 to 1200 mL.

(c) Difficulty in breathing due to inflammation of bronchi or bronchioles. A person makes a

wheezing sound while breathing during asthmatic attack.

2. A fluid filled double membranous layer surrounds the lungs. Name it and mention its
important function.

Ans. The double membranous layer around the lungs is called pleura. It reduces friction on
the lungs and acts as a protective covering of the lungs.

3. Name the primary site of exchange of gases in our body?

Ans. Alveoli are the primary sites of exchange of gases in our body.

4. Cigarette smoking causes emphysema. Give reason.

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Ans. Smoking results in damage to alveolar wall. As a result, respiratory surface is reduced.
This causes emphysema.

5. What is the amount of O2 supplied to tissues through every 100 mL of oxygenated

blood under normal physiological conditions?

Ans. 5 mL oxygen is delivered to the tissues through every 100 mL of oxygenated blood.

6. A major percentage (97%) of O2 is transported by RBCs in the blood. How does the

remaining percentage (3%) of O2transported?

Ans. The remaining 3% of oxygen is transported in dissolved state through plasma.

7. Arrange the following terms based on their volumes in an ascending order

(a) Tidal Volume (TV)

(b) Residual Volume (RV)

(c) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)

(d) Expiratory Capacity (EC)

Ans. TV (500 mL) < RV (1100 to 1200 mL) < EC (1500 to 1600 mL) < IRV (2500 to 3000 mL)

8. Complete the missing terms

(a) Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = _____ +IRV

(b) _____ = TV + ERV

(c) Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) = ERV + _____

Ans. (a) TV

(b) Expiratory Capacity (EC)

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(c) RV

9. Name the organs of respiration in the following organisms:

(a) Flatworm - ______

(b) Birds - ______

(c) Frog - ______

(d) Cockroach – ______

Ans. (a) Body surface

(b) Lungs

(c) Lungs and skin

(d) Trachea

10. Name the important parts involved in creating a pressure gradient between lungs
and the atmosphere during normal respiration.

Ans. Diaphragm and Intercostal muscles

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. State the different modes of CO2 transport in blood.

Ans. Different modes of transport of CO2 in blood are as follows:

About 20 – 25% of CO2 is transported by RBCs. In this case, carbon dioxide is

transported as carbamino-haemoglobin.
About 70% of CO2 is carried as bicarbonate. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase

facilitates the following reaction in this case:

CO2 + H2O H2CO3 HCO3 + H+

About 7% of CO2 is carried in dissolved state through plasma.

2. Compared to O2, diffusion rate of CO2 through the diffusion membrane per unit

difference in partial pressure is much higher. Explain.

Ans. We know that solubility of CO2 is 20 – 25% higher than O2. Due to this, the diffusion rate

of CO2 through diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much higher

than the diffusion rate of O2.

3. For completion of respiration process, write the given steps in sequential manner

(a) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar membrane.

(b) Transport of gases by blood.

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(c) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2

(d) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar

air is released out.

(e) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.

Ans. Following is the correct sequence:

(a) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar membrane.

(b) Transport of gases by blood.

(c) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2.

(d) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is

released out.

(e) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.

4. Differentiate between

(a) Inspiratory and expiratory reserve volume

(b) Vital capacity and total lung capacity

(c) Emphysema and occupational respiratory disorder

Ans. (a) Additional volume of air a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration is called
inspiratory reserve volume (IRV). Additional volume of air a person can expire by a forced
expiration is called expiratory reserve volume (ERV). In a normal individual, IRV is about
2500 to 3000 mL while ERV is about 1000 to 1100 mL.

(b) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration, or the
maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration is called Vital
Capacity. The total volume of air in lungs at the end of a forced inspiration is called Total
Lung Capacity.

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(c) Alveoli walls are damaged in emphysema, while any other part of the respiratory system
could be damaged in occupational respiratory disorder. Smoking is a major cause of
emphysema. Fine particles generated during some mechanical processes are the cause of
occupational respiratory disorder.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Explain the transport of O2 and CO2 between alveoli and tissue with diagram.

Ans. The following diagram shows the transport of O2 and CO2 between alveoli and tissue

fluid

In alveoli, pO2 is 104 mm Hg and pCO2 is 40 mm Hg. In deoxygenated blood, pO2 is 40

mm Hg; which is less than the partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli. Due to this oxygen
enters the blood in alveoli.
In deoxygenated blood, pCO2 is 45 mm Hg; which is more than the partial pressure of

CO2 in alveoli. Due to this, carbon dioxide exits from tissue cells and enter the alveoli.

Once blood reaches the tissues, partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated blood is 95
mm Hg which is more than partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated blood (40 mm
Hg). Hence, oxygen from blood enters the tissues.
At the tissue level, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in deoxygenated blood is
more than that in oxygenated blood. Hence, carbon dioxide exits from the tissues.

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2. Explain the mechanism of breathing with neat labelled sketches.

Ans. Following are the steps involved in breathing.

Inspiration: The intercostal muscles initiate contraction of diaphragm. This increases the
volume of the thoracic chamber. Ribs and diaphragm are moved upwards. As a result,
pressure inside the lungs becomes less than atmospheric pressure. This difference in
pressure causes air to move inside the lungs.

Expiration: The intercostal muscles and the diaphragm relax and move to their original
position. Ribs and sternum return to their original position. The volume inside the thoracic
chamber reduces. As a result, pressure inside the lungs becomes more than the atmospheric
pressure and air is forced out of the lungs.

3. Explain the role of neural system in regulation of respiration.

Ans. The neural system plays an important role in regulation of respiration. Regulation of
respiration depends on various intrinsic and extrinsic factors.

The respiratory rhythm centre is present in medulla. This is a specialized centre and
is primarily responsible for the regulation of respiration.
The pneumotaxic centre is present in the pons region of the brain. It can moderate the
functions of the respiratory rhythm centre. Nerve signals from pneumotaxic centre
can reduce the duration of inspiration and can thus alter the respiratory rate.
A chemosensitive area is present adjacent to the rhythm centre. This is highly
sensitive to CO2 and hydrogen ions. Increase in these substances can activate this

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centre. Then, the chemosensitive area can give signal to the rhythm entre to make
necessary adjustments so that these substances can be eliminated.
There are receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery. These receptors

can also recognize changes in CO2 and H+concentration. After that, they send

necessary signals to the rhythm centre so that corrective actions can be taken.
The role of oxygen is quite insignificant in the regulation of respiratory rhythm
centre.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 18
BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which of the following cells does not exhibit phagocytic activity?

(a) Monocytes

(b) Neutrophil

(c) Basophil

(d) Macrophage

Ans. (c) Basophil

Explanation: Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin etc. and are involved in
inflammatory reactions and do not perform phagocytic activity.

2. One of the common symptoms observed in people infected with Dengue fever is

(a) Significant decrease in RBC count

(b) Significant decrease in WBC count

(c) Significant decrease in platelets count

(d) Significant increase in platelets count

Ans. (c) Significant decrease in platelets count

Explanation: Low platelet count is used as diagnostic tool to assess the severity of dengue.
The virus attacks on the platelets and reduce their count.

3. Which among the followings is correct during each cardiac cycle?

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(a) The volume of blood pumped out by the Rt and Lt ventricles is same.

(b) The volume of blood pumped out by the Rt and Lt ventricle is different

(c) The volume of blood received by each atrium is different

(d) The volume of blood received by the aorta and pulmonary artery is different

Ans. (a) The volume of blood pumped out by the Rt and Lt ventricles is same.

Explanation: Volume of blood entering the lungs is same as the volume leaving the lungs
after oxygenation. Otherwise it will lead to congestive heart failure due to varying pressure.

4. Cardiac activity could be moderated by the autonomous neural system. Tick the
correct answer:

(a) The parasympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke volume

(b) The sympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke volume

(c) The parasympathetic system decreases the heart rate but increase stroke volume

(d) The sympathetic system decreases the heart rate but increase stroke volume

Ans. (b) The sympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke volume

Explanation: Sympathetic system plays excitatory role, while parasympathetic system plays
inhibitory role thus stimulate the heart rate.

5. Mark the pair of substances among the following which is essential for coagulation of
blood.

(a) Heparin and calcium ions

(b) Calcium ions and platelet factors

(c) Oxalates and citrates

(d) Platelet factors and heparin

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Ans. (b) calcium ions and platelets factors

Explanation- calcium ions help in conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin so that blood can be
coagulated.

6. ECG depicts the depolarisation and repolarisation processes during the cardiac cycle.
In the ECG of a normal healthy individual one of the following waves is not
represented.

(a) Depolarisation of atria

(b) Repolarisation of atria

(c) Depolarisation of ventricles

(d) Repolarisation of ventricles

Ans. (b) Repolarisation of atria

Explanation: P wave shows depolarisation of atria. QRS complex shows depolarisation of

ventricles T wave shows repolarisation of ventricles.

7. Which one of the following types of cells lack nucleus in humans?

(a) RBC

(b) Neutrophils

(c) Eosinophils

(d) Erythrocytes

Ans. (a) RBC

Explanation- RBC's are the only mammalian cell lacking nucleus and mitochondria.

8. Which one of the following blood cells is involved in antibody production.

(a) B-Lymphocytes

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(b) T-Lymphocytes

(e) RBC

(d) Neutrophils

Ans. (a) B-Lymphocytes

Explanation- B- lymphocytes assisted by T-Lymphocytes

9. The cardiac impulse is initiated and conducted further upto ventricle. The correct
sequence of conduction of impulse is

(a) SA Node AV Node Purkinje fiber A V Bundle

(b) SA Node Purkinje fiber AV Node A V Bundle

(c) SA Node AV Node AV Bundle Purkinje fiber

(d) SA Node Purkinje fiber AV Bundle AV Node

Ans.

(c) SA Node AV Node AV Bundle Purkinje fiber

10. Agranulocytes responsible for immune response of the body are

(a) Basophils

(b) Neutrophils

(c) Eosinophils

(d) Lymphocytes

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Ans. (d) Lymphocytes

Explanation- lymphocytes are responsible for immune response by producing antibodies.

11. The second heart sound (dubb) is associated with the closure of

(a) Tricuspid valve

(b) Semilunar valves

(c) Bicuspid valve

(d) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves.

Ans. (b) Semilunar valve

12. Which of the following correctly explains a phase/ event in cardiac cycle in a
standard electrocardiogram?

(a) QRS complex indicates atrial contraction.

(b) QRS complex indicates ventricular contraction.

(c) Time between S and T represents atrial systole.

(d) P-wave indicates beginning of ventricular contraction.

Ans. (b) QRS complex indicates ventricular contraction

13. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) A person of ‘O’ blood group has anti ‘A’ and anti ‘B’ antibodies in his blood plasma.

(b) A person of ‘B’ blood group can’t donate blood to a person of ‘A’ blood group.

(c) Blood group is designated on the basis of the presence of antibodies in the blood plasma.

(d) A person of AB blood group is universal recipient.

Ans. (c) Blood group is designated on the basis of the presence of antibodies in the blood

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plasma.

14. What would be the cardiac output of a person having 72 heart beats per minute and
a stroke volume of 50 mL?

(a) 360 mL

(b) 3600 mL

(c) 7200 mL

(d) 5000 mL

Ans. (b) 3600 mL

Explanation: Volume in one beat = 50 mL,

Volume in 72 beats = 72 50 ml = 3600 mL.

15. Match the terms given under Column ‘A’ with their functions given under Column
‘B’ and select the answer from the options given below:

Column A Column B

A. Lymphatic system (i) Carries oxygenated blood

B. Pulmonary vein (ii) Immune response

C. Thrombocytes (iii) To drain back the tissue fluid to the circulatory system

D. Lymphocytes (iv) Coagulation of blood

Options:

(a) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv)

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(b) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii)

(c) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iv)

(d) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv)

Ans. (b) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii)

16. Read the following statements and choose the correct option

Statement 1: Atria receive blood from all parts of the body which subsequently flows to
ventricles.

Statement 2: Action potential generated at sino-atrial node passes from atria to ventricles.

(a) Action mentioned in Statement 1 is dependent on action mentioned in Statement 2

(b) Action mentioned in Statement 2 is dependent on action mentioned in Statement 1

(c) Action mentioned in Statements 1 and 2 are independent of each other.

(d) Action mentioned in Statements 1 and 2 are synchronous.

Ans. (d) Action mentioned in Statements 1 and 2 are synchronous.

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Name the blood component which is viscous and straw coloured fluid.

Ans. Plasma which constitutes about 90% of blood and allows blood cells to float in it.

2. Complete the missing word in the statement given below:

(a) Plasma without _____ factors is called serum.

(b) _____ and monocytes are phagocytic cells.

(c) Eosinophils are associated with _____ reactions.

(d) _____ ions play a significant role in clotting.

(e) One can determine the heart beat rate by counting the number of _____ in an ECG.

Ans. (a) Clotting

(b) Neutrophils

(c) Allergic

(d) Calcium

(e) QRS complex

3. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of a standard ECG. Label its

different peaks.

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Ans.

4. Name the vascular connection that exists between the digestive tract and liver.

Ans. Hepatic Portal System

5. Given below are the abnormal conditions related to blood circulation. Name the
disorders.

(a) Acute chest pain due to failure of O2 supply to heart muscles

(b) Increased systolic pressure

Ans. (a) Angina Pectoris

(b) Hypertension

6. Which coronary artery disease is caused due to narrowing of the lumen of arteries?

Ans. Atherosclerosis

7. Define the following terms and give their location?

(a) Purkinje fibre

(b) Bundle of His

Ans. (a) The conducting fibres which relay the contraction impulses from AV node to the
walls of ventricles are called Purkinje fibres. They are present in the ventricular
musculature.

(b) The Purkinje fibres along with left and right bundles are known as Bundle of His. The

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Bundle of His is present in the ventricular musculature.

8. State the functions of the following in blood

(a) Fibrinogen

(b) Globulin

(c) Neutrophils

(d) Lymphocytes

Ans. (a) Fibrinogen gets converted to fibrin and makes the fine mesh on the clot.

(b) They are mainly involved in immunity.

(c) They are phagocytic cells and destroy foreign materials.

(d) They are responsible for immune responses.

9. What physiological circumstances lead to erythroblastosis foetalis?

Ans. A special case of Rh incompatibility between Rh negative mother and Rh positive foetus
may be present during second pregnancy. This can be fatal to the foetus and cause severe
anemia in the baby. This condition leads to erythroblastosis foetalis. Mother's life is also at
risk.

10. Explain the consequences of a situation in which blood does not coagulate.

Ans. If blood does not coagulate, it can lead to excessive blood loss resulting in death.
Excessive blood loss is called haemorrhage.

11. What is the significance of time gap in the passage of action potential from sino-
atrial node to the ventricle?

Ans. The time gap in the passage of action potential from SA node to the ventricle gives the
ventricle enough time to relax. This results in a fall in ventricular pressure and allows the

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closing of semilunar valves. This prevents the backflow of blood into ventricles.

12. How will you interpret an electrocardiogram (ECG) in which time taken in QRS
complex is higher.

Ans. If QRS complex is normal, it shows normal functioning of heart. A longer QRS complex
shows myocardial infarction (heart attack).

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. The walls of ventricles are much thicker than atria. Explain.

Ans. The walls of ventricles are much thicker than atrial walls. Ventricles have to pump the
blood out of the heart and hence need to exert a greater force. Thicker walls enable the
ventricles to pump with greater force without any heart choke, throb or cardiac infarction.

2. Differentiate between

(a) Blood and Lymph

(b) Basophils and Eosinophils

(c) Tricuspid and bicuspid valve

Ans. (a)

Blood Lymph

(i) RBCs are present. (i) RBCs are absent.

(ii) Blood flows through blood vessels. (ii) Lymph flows through lymphatic system only.

(b)

Basophils Eosinophils

(i) Have 3-lobed nucleus and less number of coarse (i) Have bilobed nucleus and coarse

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granules. granules.

(ii) They take basic stain. (ii) They take acidic stain.

(iii) They comprise 1 – 6% of the blood

(iii) They comprise 0 – 1% of the blood volume.
volume.

(c)

Tricuspid valve Bicuspid valve

(i) Present between right auricle and right (i) Present between left auricle and left
ventricle. ventricle.

(ii) Has three flaps. (ii) Has two flaps.

(iii) Also, known as right atrioventricular

(iii) Also, known as mitral valve.
valve.

3. Briefly describe the followings:

(a) Anaemia

(b) Angina Pectoris

(c) Atherosclerosis

(d) Hypertension

(e) Heart failure

(f) Erythroblastosis foetalis

Ans. (a) Less than normal number of RBCs in blood reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of

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blood. This condition is known as anaemia.

(b) Any pain is called angina. The pain in the chest region is called angina pectoris. It is an
important symptom of underlying heart disease.

(c) Deposition of plaque in arteries is called atherosclerosis. Plaques are formed because of
increased level of cholesterol in blood. Atherosclerosis can result in hypertension and
cardiac diseases.

(d) An elevated blood pressure is called hypertension. Hypertension can happen without a
known cause or can be caused by some other conditions.

(e) Stoppage of pumping action of heart is called heart failure. This is also called cardiac
arrest.

(f) A special case of Rh incompatibility between Rh negative mother and Rh positive foetus
may be present during second pregnancy. This can be fatal to the foetus and cause severe
anemia in the baby. The case of severe anemia in foetus is called erythroblastosis foetalis.

4. Explain the advantage of the complete partition of ventricle among birds and
mammals and hence leading to double circulation.

Ans. Complete partition of ventricle among birds and mammals results in complete
separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. This results in double circulation which
is more efficient than single circulation in other animals.

5. What is the significance of hepatic portal system in the circulatory system?

Ans. Significance of Hepatic Portal System:

(a) More efficient metabolism of various nutrients is possible because from the digestive
system they are first taken to the liver.

(b) Many drugs are metabolized by the liver and thus hepatic portal system enhances the
action of many drugs.

(c) It helps in removing many toxic materials from the body.

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(d) It helps in venous drainage from pancreas and spleen.

6. Explain the functional significance of lymphatic system?

Ans. Functional significance of lymphatic system:

(a) It collects interstitial fluid from tissues.

(b) It plays special role in immunity building and memory generation.

(c) It transports many important nutrients and hormones.

(d) Fat is only absorbed through the lymph from small intestine. Thus, lymphatic system
plays an important role in absorption of fat.

7. Write the features that distinguish between the two

(a) Plasma and Serum

(b) Open and closed circulatory system

(c) Sino-atrial node and Atrio-ventricular node

Ans. (a)

Plasma Serum

(i) The fluid without blood corpuscles is called (i) The fluid without clotting elements is
plasma. called serum.

(ii) Fibrinogen and other clotting materials

(ii) Clotting materials are absent.
are present.

(iii) Plays important role in blood clotting. (iii) Has no role in blood clotting.

(b)

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 Open circulatory system Closed circulatory system

(i) Blood is directly showered on target (i) Blood is supplied to organs through a closed
organs. network of vessels.

(ii) Respiratory pigment is absent in most

(ii) Respiratory pigment is present in all cases.
of the cases.

(iii) Present in annelids, some molluscs and all

(iii) Present in arthropods and molluscs.
vertebrates.

(c)

Sino-atrial Node Atrio-ventricular Node

(i) Present on the upper side of the right (i) Present at the junction of right auricle and right
auricle. ventricle.

(ii) Takes impulse from SA node and forwards it

(ii) Initiates the heartbeat.
further.

8. Thrombocytes are essential for coagulation of blood. Comment.

Ans. Coagulation of blood is an important safety feature which helps in preventing excessive
blood loss. Thrombocytes or platelets play an important role in blood coagulation. These are
the thrombocytes which form the bulk of the blood clot. They coalesce together to make the
clot. The network of fibrin makes a mesh around the cluster of platelets Hence, along with
fibrin, platelets are essential for blood coagulation.

9. Answer the following

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(a) Name the major site where RBCs are formed.

(b) Which part of heart is responsible for initiating and maintaining its rhythmic
activity?

(c) What is specific in the heart of crocodiles among reptilians?

Ans. (a) In adults, RBCs are produced in bone marrow. In embryos, RBCs are made in liver.

(b) SA Node (Sino-Atrial Node)

(c) While most of the reptiles have three-chambered hearts, crocodiles have four-chambered
heart.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Explain Rh-incompatibility in humans.

Ans. The absence or presence of Rh factor in blood is the basis of Rh grouping of blood. At
first this Rh-factor was recorded in Rhesus monkeys and thus name Rh - factor. If Rh factor is
present then the blood group is said to be Rh positive; otherwise it is called Rh negative. If
the blood group of a person is B +ve, then the person cannot be given B –ve blood. Doctors
also need to match the Rh grouping while performing blood transfusion in a patient.

A special case of Rh incompatibility exists between Rh negative mother and Rh positive

foetus. During the first pregnancy the Rh antigens of the foetus do not get exposed to the Rh
negative blood of the mother because placenta ensures complete separation of blood flowing
in the mother and the foetus. But the possibility of exposure of mother's blood to Rh antigens
from foetus can be there. If that happens, the mother starts preparing antibodies against Rh
antigens. In case of subsequent pregnancies, Rh antibodies from the mother can leak into the
Rh positive foetus. This can be fatal to the foetus. This can also cause severe anaemia and
jaundice to the baby. This condition is called erythroblastosis foetalis. To tackle the problem,
the mother is given antidote to Rh antibodies just after the delivery of the first child.

2. Describe the events in cardiac cycle. Explain “double circulation”.

Ans. The sequential events in a heart-beat comprise the cardiac cycle. Following events take
place in a cardiac cycle:

At the beginning of a cardiac cycle, all the four chambers of heart is in diastole.
When the tricuspid and bicuspid valves open, blood from pulmonary veins and vena
cava flows respectively into the left and right auricles. At this stage, semilunar valves
are closed.
At this stage, the SA Node generates action potential. As a result, both the atria

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 undergo systole. This pushes the blood into ventricles.
Now, the action potential is conducted to the ventricles by AV node and both the
ventricles contract. This pushes the blood from right ventricle into pulmonary artery.
This also pushes the blood from left ventricle into the major aorta.
When the ventricles contract, both the auricles undergo diastole.
When the ventricle contract, the increases pressure in ventricles closes the tricuspid
and bicuspid valves due to attempted backflow of blood into atria.
Ventricular pressure opens the semilunar valves. This helps in directing the blood
flow to pulmonary artery on the right side and to the aorta on the left side.

Double Circulation: During a cardiac cycle, blood flows through the heart twice which is
called double circulation. In human heart, the deoxygenated blood circulates through the
right side of the heart and oxygenated blood moves through the left side of the heart.
Deoxygenated blood enters the right auricle and is pumped into pulmonary circulation by
the right ventricle. Oxygenated blood enters the left auricle and is pumped into systemic
circulation by the left ventricle. In double circulation, there is complete separation of
oxygenated and deoxygenated blood because left and right portions of heart are separated
by a wall called septum. This makes the circulatory system highly efficient.

3. Explain different types of blood groups and donor compatibility by making a table.

Ans.

Blood group Antigens Antibodies Donor group

A A B A, O

B B A B, O

AB A, B Nil A, B, AB, O

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O Nil A, B O

Blood group A: The blood group A has antigen A and antibody B in it. A person with A blood
group can be given blood from A and O groups.

Blood group B: The blood group B has antigen B and antibody A in it A person with B blood
group can be given blood from B and O groups.

Blood group AB: The blood group AB has antigens A and B but none of the antibodies is
present in it. A person with AB blood group can be given blood from any of the blood groups.
Hence, AB is also called universal acceptor.

Blood group O: The blood group O has no antigen and has A and B antibodies. A person with
O group can get blood only from O group. But a person with O blood group can donate blood
to any other blood group. Hence, O group is also called the universal donor.

4. Write short note on the following

(a) Hypertension

(b) Coronary Artery Disease

Ans. (a)Hypertension is elevated blood pressure.Normal blood pressure in an adult is 120/80

mm Hg. The pressure on the higher side is called systolic blood pressure, while that on the
lower side is called diastolic blood pressure. If blood pressure consistently shows 140/90 mm
Hg or more in successive readings, then the person can be diagnosed to be suffering from
hypertension. Hypertension can have serious long term repercussions because it can give
rise to coronary artery disease, damage to kidneys, liver, retina and brain.

(b) When atherosclerosis happens in coronary artery; it diminishes the blood supply to the
cardiac muscles: This condition is known as coronary artery disease (CAD). Long term
repercussions of coronary artery disease include damage to the heart muscle and can also
end up in myocardial infarction.

5. In the diagrammatic presentation of heart given below, mark and label, SAN, AVN,

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AV bundles, bundle of His and Purkinje fibres.

Ans.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 19
EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. The following substances are the excretory products in animals. Choose the least
toxic form among them?

(a) Urea

(b) Uric acid

(c) Ammonia

(d) Carbon dioxide

Ans. (b) Uric acid

Explanation: Level of toxicity in decreasing order is:

Ammonia > Urea > Uric acid

2. Filtration of the blood takes place at

(a) PCT

(b) DCT

(c) Collecting ducts

(d) Malpighian body

Ans. (d) Malpighian body

Explanation: Malpighian body is another name for glomerulus.

3. Which of the following statements is correct

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(a) ADH — prevents conversion of angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin

(b) Aldosterone — facilitates water reabsorption

(c) ANF — enhances sodium reabsorption

(d) Renin — causes vasodilation

Ans. (b) Aldosterone — facilitates water reabsorption

4. A large quantity of one of the following is removed from our body by lungs.

(a) CO2 only

(b) H2O only

(c) CO2 and H2O

(d) Ammonia

Ans. (c) CO2 and H2O

5. The pH of human urine is approximately

(a) 6.5

(b) 7

(c) 6

(d) 7.5

Ans. (c) 6

6. Different types of excretory structures and animals are given below. Match them
appropriately and mark the correct answer from among those given:

Excretory structure organ Animals

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A. Protonephridia (i) Prawn

B. Nephridia (ii) Cockroach

C. Malpighian tubules (iii) Earthworm

D. Green gland or Antennal gland (iv) Flatworms

Options:

(a) D – (i), C – (ii), B – (iii), A – (iv)

(b) B – (i), D – (ii), A – (iii), C – (iv)

(c) D – (i), C – (ii), A – (iii), B – (iv)

(d) B – (i), C – (ii), A – (iii), D – (iv)

Ans. (a) D – (i), C – (ii), B – (iii), A – (iv)

7. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Birds and land snails are uricotelic animals.

(b) Mammals and frogs are ureotelic animals

(c) Aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are ammonotelic animals

(d) Birds and reptiles are ureotelic

Ans. (d) Birds and reptiles are ureotelic

Explanation: Birds and reptiles are uricotelic.

8. Which of the following pairs is wrong?

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(a) Uricotelic ----- Birds

(b) Ureotelic ----- Insects

(c) Ammonotelic ----- Tadpole

(d) Ureotelic ----- Elephant

Ans. (b) Ureotelic ----- Insects

Explanation: Insects are uricotelic.

9. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary
pyramids projecting into the calyces.

(b) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal
pelvis.

(c) Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule is called the renal corpuscle.

(d) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of
the nephron are situated in the cortical region of kidney.

Ans. (b) Inside the kidney, the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as
renal pelvis.

10. The condition of accumulation of urea in the blood is termed as

(a) Renal Calculi

(b) Glomerulonephritis

(c) Uremia

(d) Ketonuria

Ans. (c) Uremia

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Explanation: Kidney stones are called renal calculi. Ketonuria is accumulation of ketone.

11. Which one of the following is also known as antidiuretic hormone?

(a) Oxytocin

(b) Vasopressin

(c) Adrenaline

(d) Calcitonin

Ans. (b) Vasopressin

Explanation: Vasopressin facilitates water reabsorption from latter parts of the tubule,
thereby preventing diuresis. Thus, it is known as antidiuretic hormone.

12. Match the terms given in Column I with their physiological processes given in
Column II and choose the correct answer

Column I Column II

A. Proximal convoluted tubule (i) Formation of concentrated urine

B. Distal convoluted tubule (ii) Filtration of blood

C. Henle's loop (iii) Reabsorption of 70 – 80% of electrolytes

D. Counter current mechanism (iv) Ionic balance

E. Renal corpuscle (v) Maintenance of concentration gradient in medulla

Options:

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(a) A – (iii), B – (v), C – (iv), D – (ii), E – (i)

(b) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (v), E – (ii)

(c) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (v), E – (iv)

(d) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (v), E – (ii)

Ans. (b) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (v), E – (ii)

13. Match the abnormal conditions given in Column A with their explanations given in
Column B and Choose the correct option

Column A Column B

A. Glycosurea (i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints

B. Renal calculi (ii) Inflammation of glomeruli

C. Glomerular nephritis (iii) Mass of crystallized salts within the kidney

D. Gout (iv) Presence of glucose in urine

Options:

(a) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (iv)

(b) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (i)

(c) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

(d) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i)

Ans. (c) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

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14. We can produce a concentrated/ dilute urine. This is facilitated by a special
mechanism. Identify the mechanism.

(a) Reabsorption from PCT

(b) Reabsorption from Collecting Duct

(c) Reabsorption/ Secretion in DCT

(d) Counter current mechanism in Henle's loop/ Vasa recta

Ans. (d) Counter current mechanism in Henle's loop/Vasa recta

Explanation: Counter current mechanism operates between the two limbs of loop of Henle
and those of Vasa recta. The filtrate becomes concentrated when it moves down the
descending limb but is diluted by the ascending limb.

15. Dialysing unit (artificial kidney) contains a fluid which is almost same as plasma
except that it has

(a) High glucose

(b) High urea

(c) No urea

(d) High uric acid

Ans. (c) No urea

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Where does the selective reabsorption of Glomerular filtrate take place?

Ans. Proximal convoluted tubule

2. What is the excretory product from kidneys of reptiles?

Ans. Uric acid

3. What is the composition of sweat produced by sweat glands?

Ans. Sweat contains sodium chloride, small amount of urea, lactic acid, etc.

4. Identify the glands that perform the excretory function in prawns.

Ans. Antennal glands or green glands

5. What is the excretory structure in amoeba?

Ans. Since amoeba is a unicellular organism, no special excretory structure is present. Waste
products are removed through plasma membrane by osmosis.

6. The following abbreviations are used in the context of excretory functions, what do
they stand for?

(a) ANF

(b) ADH

(c) GFR

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(d) DCT

Ans. (a) Atrial Natriuretic Factor

(b) Anti Diuretic Hormone

(c) Glomerular Filtration Rate

(d) Distal Convoluted Tubule

7. Differentiate Glycosuria from Ketonuria.

Ans.

Glycosuria Ketonuria

(i) Presence of ketone bodies in urine is

(i) Presence of glucose in urine is called glycosuria.
called ketonuria.

(ii) This situation occurs when the person suffers (ii) This situation occurs at the time of
from diabetes mellitus. longtime fasting.

8. What is the role of sebaceous glands?

Ans. Sebaceous glands secrete sebum which makes the skin and hair waterproof.

9. Name two actively transported substances in Glomerular filtrate.

Ans. Glucose, Amino acid

10. Mention any two metabolic disorders, which can be diagnosed by analysis of urine.

Ans. Diabetes, Jaundice

11. What are the main processes of urine formation?

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Ans. The main processes of urine formation are as follows:

(a) Glomerular filtration

(b) Reabsorption

(c) Secretion

12. Sort the following into actively or passively transported substances during
reabsorption of GFR.

Glucose, amino acids, nitrogenous wastes, Na+, water

Ans. Glucose, amino acids and Na+ are actively transported, while nitrogenous wastes,

Na+ and water are passively transported during reabsorption of GFR.

13. Complete the following:

(a) urinary excretion = tubular reabsorption + tubular secretion —

(b) Dialysis fluid = Plasma —

Ans. (a) Glomerular filtration

(b) Nitrogenous wastes

14. Mention the substances that exit from the tubules in order to maintain a
concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium.

Ans. Sodium chloride, water and urea

15. Fill in the blanks appropriately

Organ Excretory wastes

(a) Kidneys ………

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(b) Lungs ………

(c) Liver ………

(d) Skin ………

Ans. (a) Urea

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) bile, drugs

(d) sterols, hydrocarbons

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Show the structure of a renal corpuscle with the help of a diagram.

Ans. The following figure shows the structure of a renal corpuscle. It has following parts:

Bowman's Capsule: This is a capsule-shaped structure. Filtrates from arteriole are collected
in this and sent through the Proximal convoluted tubule.

Afferent Arteriole: This arteriole brings blood to the glomerulus.

Efferent Arteriole: This arteriole takes away blood from the glomerulus.

2. What is the role played by Renin-Angiotensin in the regulation of kidney function?

Ans. Role of Renin-Angiotensin:

Renin converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I and then to Angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is

a powerful vasoconstrictor. It increases the blood flow to the glomerulus and thus increases
glomerular filtration rate.

3. Aquatic animals generally are ammonotelic in nature whereas terrestrial forms are
not. Comment.

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Ans. Ammonia is a highly toxic substance and there is a need of plenty of water to remove
ammonia from the body. In aquatic habitat, availability of water is not a problem. Hence,
aquatic animals are usually ammonotelic i.e. ammonia excreting animals. But availability of
water is an issue in terrestrial habitats. Hence, terrestrial animals do not show
ammonotelism rather show ureotelism or uricotelism habit.

4. The composition of glomerular filtrate and urine is not same. Comment.

Ans. The glomerular filtrate contains too much water and electrolyte. In a healthy
individual, the GFR is about 180 litre per day. On the other hand, average daily urine output
in a normal individual is 1.5 litre. This shows that more than 90% of glomerular filtrate is
reabsorbed. This is done to conserve water and electrolytes. Thus, urine is more
concentrated than glomerular filtrate. Due to this, the composition of glomerular filtrate and
urine is not the same.

5. What is the procedure advised for the correction of extreme renal failure? Give a
brief account of it.

Ans. In extreme case of renal failure, kidney transplant is advised for the patient. For this, a
suitable donor is found. Care needs to be taken so that tissue rejection does not happen after
the transplant. Usually, the kidney of a blood relative is chosen for transplant. In some cases,
kidney of a brain dead person can also be utilized for the purpose.

6. How have the terrestrial organisms adapted themselves for conservation of water?

Ans. Conservation of water is highly important for terrestrial organisms because water is not
available in plenty in case of terrestrial habitats. Removal of nitrogenous wastes from the
body involves removal of lot of water from the body. But to tackle the problem, terrestrial
organisms have adopted to ureotelism and uricotelism modes of excretion. These modes
require less water than ammonotelism. Animals which live in extremely dry conditions have
adopted to uricotelism because it is the best mode as far as conservation of water is
concerned.

7. Label the parts in the following diagram.

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Ans.

8. Explain, why a haemodialysing unit called artificial kidney?

Ans. The haemodialysing unit filters nitrogenous wastes from blood. The dialyzing unit is
composed of a cellophane membrane surrounded by a dialyzing fluid. Blood from a
convenient artery is channelized to the dialyzing unit. Nitrogenous wastes are filtered
through the cellophane membrane because of osmosis. After that filtered blood is
channelized back into the body. Since, a dialyzing unit substitutes the function of kidney
hence it is called an artificial kidney.

9. Comment upon the hormonal regulation of selective reabsorption.

Ans. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) or vasopressin plays an important role in regulation of

selective reabsorption in kidneys. Osmoreceptors are present in the body. These are
activated in case of any change in haemodynamics of the body. In case of excessive loss of
fluid from the body, osmoreceptors get activated and send signals to the hypothalamus. It
releases ADH from neurohypophysis. ADH facilitates reabsorption of water from latter parts
of the tubule. Thus, loss of fluid is checked in the body. When the volume of body fluid
increases, it switch off the osmoreceptors and suppress the ADH release to complete the
feedback.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Explain the mechanism of formation of concentrated urine in mammals.

Ans. Ability to produce concentrated urine is seen in mammals. The Henle's loop and Vasa
recta play an important role in this.

Counter Current Mechanism: The flow of filtrate in two limbs of Henle's loop is in opposite
direction. This forms a counter current. Similarly, the flow of blood through two limbs of
vasa recta also produces counter current. The proximity between the Henle's loop and vasa
recta and also the counter current in them help in maintaining an increasing osmolarity
towards the inner medullary interstitium. Thus, osmolarity increases from 300 mOsmol/L in
the cortex to about 1200 mOsmol/L in the inner medulla.

Role of NaCl and Urea: The osmotic gradient is mainly caused by NaCl and urea. NaCl is
transported by the ascending limb of Henle's loop. NaCl is exchanged with the descending
limb of vasa recta. After that, NaCl is returned into the interstitium by the ascending limb of
vasa recta. A small amount of urea enters the ascending limb of Henle's loop and is
transported back to the interstitium by the collecting tubule.

Effect of Omsotic Gradient: The presence of osmotic gradient in the interstitium helps the
water to easily exit from the collecting tubule. This results in increased concentration of
urine. So, compared to the initial filtrate; human urine is nearly four times concentrated.

2. Draw a labelled diagram showing reabsorption and secretion of major substances at

different parts of the nephron.

Ans. During the formation of urine there occur 3-steps:

1) Glomerular filteration

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2) Tubular reabsorption

3) urinary secretion

Following key points are apparent from this figure.

(a) NaCl is transported from ascending limb of Henle's loop to the descending limb of vasa
recta.

(b) NaCl is returned to the ascending limb of vasa recta.

(c) Similarly, small amounts of urea enter the thin segment of the ascending limb of Henle's
loop which is transported back to the interstitium by the collecting duct.

(d) Presence of interstitial gradient helps in easy passage of water from the collecting tubule's
membrane.

(e) Osmolarity in cortex is 300 mOsmol/L and that in medulla is 1200 mOsmol/L.

3. Explain briefly, micturition and disorders of the excretory system.

Ans. Micturition: The passage of urine out of the urinary bladder is called micturition. It is a
brain mediated activity and somehow voluntary. It involves following steps:

Urinary bladder becomes stretched as it gets filled with urine.

The stretch receptors on the bladder wall send signal to the CNS.

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 CNS sends motor message to the smooth muscles in urinary bladder.
Muscles in urinary bladder contract and urine rushes out of bladder and sphincter of
urethra becomes relaxed. This results in flow of urine to the outside.

Disorders of Excretory System:

(a) Renal Impairment: In renal impairment, the filtration does not remain optimum. This
leads to accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the body. This also results in altered
osmoregulation which causes various complications. Cases of renal impairment are
managed through dialysis. In case of extreme renal failure, kidney transplant is the only
option.

(b) Renal calculi: Stone or insoluble mass of crystals in kidney are called renal calculi. In
many cases, they usually come out on their own. In extreme conditions, surgical intervention
is needed to remove the stones.

(c) Glomerulonephritis: Inflammation of glomerulus is called glomerulonephritis. This can

happen because of infection or because of some other underlying disease.

4. How does tubular secretion help in maintaining ionic and acid-base balance in body
fluids?

Ans. Tubular secretion helps in maintaining ionic and acid-base balance in the body fluids.
This can be explained as follows:

In Proximal Convoluted Tubule: Selective secretion of hydrogen ions, ammonia and

potassium takes place in PCT. Moreover, absorption of bicarbonate ions happens in DCT. This
helps in maintaining ionic balance in body fluids. This also helps in maintaining the pH.

In Distal Convoluted Tubule: Selective secretion of hydrogen ions, ammonia and potassium
takes place in DCT. Moreover, absorption of bicarbonate ions happens in DCT. This has same
effect on ionic balance and pH as secretion and absorption in PCT has.

In Collecting Duct: There is selective secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions in collecting
duct. This helps in maintaining ionic balance and pH.

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5. The glomerular filtrate in the loop of Henle gets concentrated in the descending and
then gets diluted in the ascending limbs. Explain.

Ans. The descending limb of Henle's loop is more permeable to water and almost
impermeable to electrolytes. As a result, filtrate gets concentrated as it moves down the
descending limb of Henle's loop.

The ascending limb of Henle's loop is impermeable to water but permeable to electrolytes. As
a result, the filtrate gets diluted as it moves up the ascending limb of Henle's loop.

6. Describe the structure of a human kidney with the help of a labelled diagram.

Ans. Structure of Kidney: Each kidney is 10 – 12 cm long, 5 – 7 cm wide and 2 – 3 cm thick. It

weighs around 120 – 170 g. Kidneys are located on either sides of vertebral column. There is
notch towards the centre of the inner concave surface of the kidney. This notch is called the
hilum. Ureter, blood vessels and nerves enter the kidney through this notch.

Renal Pelvis: There is a broad funnel-shaped space inner to the hilum. This space is called
the renal pelvis. There are two zones inside the kidney. The outer zone is called cortex and
the inner zone is called medulla.

Medulla: The medulla divides into a few conical masses called medullary pyramids. The
medullary pyramids project into the calyces.

Cortex: The cortex extends in the between the medullary pyramids as renal columns. The
renal columns are better known as Columns of Bertini.

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Nephrons: Nephrons are the functional unit of kidneys. Each kidney has about one million
complex tubular structures; called nephrons. Nephron is the functional unit of kidney. Each
nephron is composed of two parts, viz. glomerulus and tubule. Filtration of blood happens in
the glomerulus. It filters toxic nitrogenous waste ammonia, some salts, water, protrins and
other nutrients which are present in excess in blood.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 20
LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Match the following and mark the correct option

Column I Column II

A. Fast muscle fibres (i) Myoglobin

B. Slow muscle fibres (ii) Lactic acid

C. Actin filament (iii) Contractile unit

D. Sarcomere (iv) I-band

Options:

(a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (iii)

(b) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv)

(c) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)

(d) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (i)

Ans. (c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)

2. Ribs are attached to

(a) Scapula

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(b) Sternum

(c) Clavicle

(d) Ilium

Ans. (b) Sternum

3. What is the type of movable joint present between the atlas and axis?

(a) Pivot

(b) Saddle

(c) Hinge

(d) Gliding

Ans. (a) Pivot

4. ATPase of the muscle is located in

(a) Actinin

(b) Troponin

(c) Myosin

(d) Actin

Ans. (c) Myosin

5. Intervertebral disc is found in the vertebral column of

(a) Birds

(b) Reptiles

(c) Mammals

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(d) Amphibians

Ans. (c) Mammals

6. Which one of the following is showing the correct sequential order of vertebrae in
the vertebral column of human beings?

(a) Cervical — lumbar — thoracic — sacral — coccygeal

(b) Cervical — thoracic — sacral — lumbar — coccygeal

(c) Cervical — sacral — thoracic — lumbar — coccygeal

(d) Cervical — thoracic — lumbar — sacral — coccygeal

Ans. (d) Cervical — thoracic — lumbar — sacral — coccygeal

7. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect?

(a) Hinge joint — between Humerus and Pectoral girdle

(b) Pivot joint — between atlas and axis

(c) Gliding joint — between the carpals

(d) Saddle joint — between carpals metacarpals of thumb

Ans. (a) Hinge joint — between Humerus and Pectoral girdle

Explanation: Ball and socket joint is present between humerus and pectoral girdle.

8. Knee joint and elbow joints are examples of

(a) Saddle joint

(b) Ball and socket joint

(c) Pivot joint

(d) Hinge joint

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Ans. (d) Hinge joint

9. Macrophages and leucocytes exhibit

(a) Ciliary movement

(b) Flagellar movement

(c) Amoeboid movement

(d) Gliding movement

Ans. (c) Amoeboid movement

Explanation: They are able to do phagocytosis due to amoeboid movement.

10. Which one of the following is not a disorder of bone?

(a) Arthritis

(b) Osteoporosis

(c) Rickets

(d) Atherosclerosis

Ans. (d) Atherosclerosis

Explanation: Atherosclerosis is the deposition of cholesterol in artery.

11. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) Heart muscles are striated and involuntary

(b) The muscles of hands and legs are striated and voluntary

(c) The muscles located in the inner walls of alimentary canal are striated and involuntary

(d) Muscles located in the reproductive tracts are unstriated and involuntary

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Ans. (c) The muscles located in the inner walls of alimentary canal are striated and
involuntary.

Explanation: These are smooth muscles which are non-striated.

12. Which one of the following statements is true:

(a) Head of humerus bone articulates with acetabulum of pectoral girdle.

(b) Head of humerus bone articulates with glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle.

(c) Head of humerus bone articulates with a cavity called acetabulum of pelvic girdle.

(d) Head of humerus bone articulates with a glenoid cavity of pelvic girdle.

Ans. (b) Head of humerus bone articulates with glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle.

13. Muscles with characteristic striations and involuntary are

(a) Muscles in the wall of alimentary canal

(b) Muscles of the heart

(c) Muscles assisting locomotion

(d) Muscles of the eyelids

Ans. (b) Muscles of the heart

Explanation: Cardiac muscles are striated and involuntary.

14. Match the followings and mark the correct option

Column I Column II

A. Sternum (i) Synovial fluid

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B. Glenoid cavity (ii) Vertebrae

C. Freely movable joint (iii)Pectoral girdle

D. Cartilaginous joint (iv) Flat bones

Options:

(a) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv)

(b) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)

(c) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)

(d) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iv)

Ans. (b) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
QUESTIONS

1. Name the cells/tissues in human body which

(a) exhibit ameboid movement

(b) exhibit ciliary movement

Ans. (a) Macrophages

(b) Ciliated epithelium

2. Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated activity of muscular, _____ systems

Ans. skeletal and neural

3. Sarcolemma, sarcoplasm and sarcoplasmic reticulum refer to a particular type of

cell in our body. Which is this cell and to what parts of that cell do these names refer
to?

Ans. This is muscle cell. The lining over muscle fibre is called sarcolemma. The protoplasm
in the muscle fibre is called sarcoplasm. The endoplasmic reticulum in muscle fibre is called
sarcoplasmic reticulum.

4. Label the different components of actin filament in the diagram given below.

Ans.

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5. The three tiny bones present in middle ear are called ear ossicles. Write them in
correct sequence beginning from ear drum.

Ans. Malleus, Incus and Stapes

6. What is the difference between the matrix of bones and cartilage?

Ans. The bone matrix is very hard due to presence of calcium salts, while the cartilage
matrix is pliable due to chondroitin salts.

7. Which tissue is affected by Myasthenia gravis? What is the underlying cause?

Ans. Skeletal muscle is affected by Myasthenia gravis. It happens because of immune

disorder.

8. How do our bone joints function without grinding noise and pain?

Ans. The heads of bones in a movable joint have cartilaginous covering. Moreover, the joint
is enclosed in a capsule which is filled with a lubricating fluid. This helps in movement of
joints without grinding noise and pain.

9. Give the location of a ball and socket joint in a human body

Ans. Ball and socket joint is present between the humerus and pectoral girdle. It is also
present between the femur and pelvic girdle.

10. Our fore arm is made of three different bones. Comment.

Ans. Our fore arm is made of three different bones, viz. humerus, radius and ulna.

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. With respect to rib cage, explain the following:

(a) Bicephalic ribs

(b) True ribs

(c) Floating ribs

Ans. (a) Each rib has two articulation surfaces at its dorsal end. Hence, ribs are called
bicephalic ribs.

(b) First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs because they are attached to the thoracic
vertebrae dorsally and to the sternum ventrally.

(c) Last two pairs of ribs are not connected ventrally and hence they are called floating ribs.

2. In old age, people often suffer from stiff and inflamed joints. What is this condition
called? What are the possible reasons for these symptoms?

Ans. In old age, people often suffer from stiff and inflamed joints. This condition is called
arthritis. This happens because of wear and tear of the joint. With increasing age bones
become hard due to loss of water content and so is easy to break but difficult to repair.

3. Exchange of calcium between bone and extracellular fluid takes place under the
influence of certain hormones

(a) What will happen if more of Ca++ is in extracellular fluid?

(b) What will happen if very less amount of Ca++ is in the extracellular fluid?

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Ans. (a) This will result in reduced heart rate and increased contractility of heart.

(b) This will result in tetani which is manifested as rapid spasms in muscles.

4. Name at least two hormones which result in fluctuation of Ca++ level.

Ans. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormones affect the level of calcium ion in blood. When
plasma level of calcium rises beyond a certain point, it is controlled by calcitonin. When
plasma level of calcium falls below a certain point, it is controlled by parathryroid hormone.

5. Rahul exercises regularly by visiting a gymnasium. Of late he is gaining weight. What

could be the reason? Choose the correct answer and elaborate.

(a) Rahul has gained weight due to accumulation of fats in body.

(b) Rahul has gained weight due to increased muscle and less of fat.

(c) Rahul has gained weight because his muscle shape has improved.

(d) Rahul has gained weight because he is accumulating water in the body.

Ans. ‘c’ is the correct answer which says that weight gain is because of improved muscle
shape. About 40 – 50% of our body weight is composed of muscles. When someone begins
rigorous exercise, he builds up muscles. It is true that fat is burnt during exercise but the rate
at which muscle is building up may be more than the rate at which fat is being burnt. These
are the reasons that some people tend to gain weight when they begin regular exercise.

6. Radha was running on a treadmill at a great speed for 15 minutes continuously. She
stopped the treadmill and abruptly came out. For the next few minutes, she was
breathing heavily/fast. Answer the following questions.

(a) What happened to her muscles when she did strenuous exercise?

(b) How did her breathing rate change?

Ans. (a) During strenuous exercise, the muscles have to work more. This increases the strain
on the muscles.

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(b) Her breathing rate changed from normal to high while running on a treadmill. Due to
increased workload on the muscles, the energy consumption of muscles increased. As a
result, there was higher demand of carbohydrates by the muscles. Moreover, the oxygen
demand by the muscles also increased. This could be fulfilled by an increased blood supply
to the muscles. Hence, heart and lungs would need to-work at a faster pace to fulfill the
increased demand.

7. Write a few lines about Gout.

Ans. Recurrent attack of acute inflammatory arthritis is called gout. It usually affects the big
toe but also affects other joints. This happens because of accumulation of uric acid crystals in
joints, tendons and surrounding tissues. This is manifested as throbbing pain in the affected
area.

8. What is the source of energy for muscle contraction?

Ans. ATP (Adenosine Tri Phosphate) is the main source of energy for muscular contraction.
The red muscles contain a large amount of mitochondria. These mitochondria supply ATP for
the muscle contraction. The white muscles contain less number of mitochondria and hence
are supplied with less ATP. Due to this, during excess demand, the white muscles are
dependent on anaerobic respiration for ATP.

9. What are the points for articulation of Pelvic and Pectoral girdles?

Ans. In pelvic girdle, the point for articulation is the acetabulum. The acetabulum lies at the
point of fusion of three component bones of the pelvic girdle. It articulates with the femur. In
pectoral girdle, glenoid cavity is the point of articulation. It articulates with the humerus.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Calcium ion concentration in blood affects muscle contraction. Does it lead to tetany
in certain cases? How will you correlate fluctuation in blood calcium with tetany?

Ans. Calcium plays an important role in muscle contraction. Muscle contraction is initiated
by a neural signal from the central nervous system throug a motor neuron.this process
occurs due to gradient of calcium ions. When calcium ions enter the muscle cells, sliding of
actin and myosin filaments towards each other takes place. This results in contraction of
muscle. When calcium ions come out of the muscle cells, actin and myosin filaments move
back to their original positions and the muscle relaxes. So, a higher level of calcium ions in
blood means a lower level of calcium in muscles. This will lead to poor contractility of
muscles. This can be manifested as lethargy in the person. When the level of calcium in
blood is low, this means a higher level of calcium in muscles. This may result in uncontrolled
contraction of muscles which is called tetany. The level of calcium in body fluids is controlled
by parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.

2. An elderly woman slipped in the bathroom and had severe pain in her lower back.
After X-ray examination doctors told her it is due to a slipped disc. What does that
mean? How does it affect our health?

Ans. A rubber-like disc is present between each consecutive vertebra. This disc works like a
shock absorber. In certain cases, the disc can get displaced and the condition is called slipped
disc or prolapsed disc. The slipped disc puts pressure especially on the nerve coming out of
the vertebral column. This can cause severe pain in the back. This can also cause pain and
numbness in the area which is under control of the affected nerve.

Slipped disc can also cause sciatica pain. The pain in this case begins from the upper thigh
and radiates up to the lower legs. In some cases, pins and needle sensation can also persist

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for a long duration.

Slipped disc can badly affect the quality of life of the patient.

3. Explain sliding filament theory of muscle contraction with neat sketches.

Ans. The sliding filament theory explains the contraction of muscles. It was first introduced
in 1954 by two research teams. One team was from the University of Cambridge and another
was from MIT.
As per this theory, when actin and myosin filaments slide towards each other; muscle
contraction takes place.

A neural signal reaching to neuromuscular junction releases a neurotransmitter

(Acetyl choline) which generates an action potential in the sarcolemna.
Once the action potential is generated, calcium channels in the muscle cells open and
allow the entry of calcium ions.

Increase of Ca++ levels result in binding of calcium to troponin on the actin filament
and bring about conformational changes. This removes the masking of active sites on
myosin filaments.
Myosin a polymer of meromyosins has a head, arm and tail as its important parts.
The head also called heavy meromyosin(HMM) utilizes the energy from ATP
hydrolysis and binds with the active site on actin. This results in formation of a cross-
bridge between actin and myosin. This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the
centre of 'A' band. The Z-line attached to actin are also pulled inwards and contraction
of muscle fibre happens.

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4. How does a muscle shorten during its contraction and return to its original form
during relaxation?

Ans. As per sliding filament theory, muscle contraction takes place because of sliding of actin
and myosin filaments towards each other. When actin and myosin filaments slide away from
each other, relaxation of muscles happens. In striated muscles, the striations appear because
of alternate bands of actin and myosin. The band of actin is light in colour and is called the I
band. The myosin band is darker in colour and is called the A band. The actin filaments are
held in the middle by an elastic band called Z line. The myosin filaments are held in the
middle by an elastic band called M line. During contraction, position of Z line changes in
relation to M line and muscle fibre becomes shorter. During relaxation, the actin filaments
move to their original position and the muscle fibre appears longer.

5. Discuss the role of Ca2+ ions in muscle contraction. Draw neat sketches to illustrate
your answer.

Ans. Calcium ions play an important role in muscle contraction. There are minute channels
in muscle cells through which calcium ions enter. These are called calcium channels. When a
neurotransmitter enters the muscle cell, it initiates action potential. As a result, calcium
channels open and allow entry to calcium ions. Calcium ion binds to the troponin on action
filament.

This results in removal of masking from the active site on myosin. Myosin then utilizes
energy from ATP and moves towards actin to form a cross-bridge. This subsequently results
in actin sliding towards each other and eventually muscle contracts.

After that, the calcium ions move out from the muscle cells and actin filaments move back to

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their original position. This results in relaxation of muscle.

6. Differentiate between Pectoral and Pelvic girdle.

Ans.

Pectoral girdle Pelvic girdle

(i) It is composed of two bones. (i) It is composed of three bones.

(ii) It is present in the anterior portion of (ii) It is present in the posterior portion of the
the body. body.

(iii) Glenoid cavity is the articulation

(iii) Acetabulum is the articulation point.
point.

(iv) Humerus bone articulates with

(iv) Femur articulates with pelvic girdle.
pectoral girdle.

(v) Its function is to help in articulation of (v) Its function is walking, standing, jumping ànd
bones of fore limbs, lifting, etc. articulation of bones of hind limbs.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 21
NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Chemicals which are released at the synaptic junction are called

(a) Hormones

(b) Neurotransmitters

(c) Cerebrospinal fluid

(d) Lymph

Ans. (b) Neurotransmitters

2. Potential difference across resting membrane is negatively charged. This is due to

differential distribution of the following ions

(a) Na+ and K+ ions

(b) CO3++ and Cl- ions

(c) Ca++ and Mg++ ions

(d) Ca4+ and Cl- ions

Ans. (a) Na+ and K+ ions

3. Resting membrane potential is maintained by

(a) Hormones

(b) Neurotransmitters

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(c) Ion pumps

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c) Ion pumps

4. The function of our visceral organs is controlled by

(a) Sympathetic and somatic neural system

(b) Sympathetic and para sympathetic neural system

(c) Central and somatic nervous system

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b) Sympathetic and para sympathetic neural system

Explanation: These are parts of autonomous neural system.

5. Which of the following is not involved in Knee-jerk reflex?

(a) Muscle spindle

(b) Motor neuron

(c) Brain

(d) Inter neurons

Ans. (c) Brain

Explanation: Knee-jerk reaction is controlled at the level of nerve cord.

6. An area in the brain which is associated with strong emotions is

(a) Cerebral cortex

(b) Cerebellum

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(c) Limbic system

(d) Medulla

Ans. (c) Limbic system

7. Mark the vitamin present in Rhodopsin

(a) Vit A

(b) Vit B

(c) Vit C

(d) Vit D

Ans. (a) Vit A

8. Human eyeball consists of three layers and it encloses

(a) Lens, iris, optic nerve

(b) Lens, aqueous humor and vitreous humor

(c) Cornea, lens, iris

(d) Cornea, lens, optic nerve

Ans. (b) Lens, aqueous humor and vitreous humor

9. Wax gland present in the ear canal is called

(a) Sweat gland

(b) Prostate gland

(c) Cowper's gland

(d) Sebaceous gland/ ceruminous gland

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Ans. (d) Cowper's gland

10. The part of internal ear responsible for hearing is

(a) Cochlea

(b) Semicircular canal

(c) Utriculus

(d) Sacculus

Ans. (a) Cochlea

11. The organ of corti is a structure present in

(a) External ear

(b) Middle ear

(c) Semi-circular canal

(d) Cochlea

Ans. (d) Cochlea

Explanation: Organ of corti are present on the sensory ridge of basilar membrane of
cochlea. Hair cells which act as auditory receptors are present in organ of corti.

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Rearrange the following in the correct order of involvement in electrical impulse

movement- Synaptic knob, dendrites, cell body, Axon terminal, Axon

Ans. Dendrites Cell body Axon Axon terminal Synaptic knob

2. Comment upon the role of ear in maintaining the balance of the body and posture.

Ans. Internal ear has vestibular apparatus. It is composed of semi-circular canals and otolith.
The semi-circular canals are in three different planes. Relative orientation of these canals
send signals to the brain and maintain balance and posture of the body.

3. Which cells of the retina enable us to see coloured objects around us?

Ans. Cone cells

4. Arrange the following in the order of reception and transmission of sound wave from
the ear drum: Cochlear nerve, external auditory canal, ear drum, stapes, incus,
malleus, cochlea.

Ans. External auditory canal Ear drum Malleus Incus Stapes Cochlea
Chochlear nerve

5. During resting potential, the axonal membrane is polarised, indicate the movement
of +ve and –ve ions leading to polarization diagrammatically.

Ans.

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6. Name the structures involved in the protection of the brain.

Ans. Following structures are involved in the protection of the brain:

Skull and Cerebrospinal Fluid

7. Our reaction like aggressive behavior, use of abusive words, restlessness etc. are
regulated by brain, name the parts involved.

Ans. The limbic system; along with hypothalamus; is involved in controlling extreme
emotions.

8. What do grey and white matter in the brain represent?

Ans. There is high concentration of neuron cell bodies in cerebral cortex. This gives the
cortex a greyish appearance and hence the name grey matter. The cerebral medulla has high
concentration of axons. Hence, medulla is lighter in colour and is called white matter. The
sequence of grey and white matters is reversed in the nerve cord; with white matter at the
periphery and grey matter in the centre.

9. Where is the hunger centre located in human brain?

Ans. Hypothalamus

10. Which sensory organ is involved in vertigo (sensation of oneself or objects spinning
around)?

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Ans. Ears are involved in sense of vertigo. The semi-circular canals in the internal ear are
responsible for this.

11. While travelling at a higher altitude, a person complains of dizziness and vomiting
sensation. Which part of the inner ear is disturbed during the journey?

Ans. Semi- circular canal

12. Complete the statement by choosing appropriate match among following-

(a) Resting potential (i) chemicals involved in the transmission of impulses at synapses.

(b) Nerve impulse (ii) gap between the pre-synaptic and post synaptic neurons

(c) Synaptic cleft (iii) electrical potential difference across the resting neural membrane

(d)
(iv) an electrical wave like response of a neuron to a stimulation.
Neurotransmitters

Ans. (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (ii), (d) (i)

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. The major parts of the human neural system are depicted below. Fill in the empty
boxes with appropriate words.

Ans.

2. What is the difference between electrical transmission and chemical transmission?

Ans.

Electrical transmission Chemical transmission

(i) Impulses are sent in the form of electric

(i) Impulses are sent through chemicals.
potential.

(ii) Signals in the neural system are sent (ii) Signals in the hormonal system are sent
through this. through this.

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(iii) It is fast in action. (iii) It is slow in action.

3. Neural system and computers share certain common features. Comment in five lines.
(Hint: CPU, input-output devices).

Ans. Neural system and computers share certain common features. Following are some
examples:

The brain functions like the CPU (central processing unit).

The sense organs function like input devices; the way keyboard, mouse and scanners
do in computer.
Olfactory and tactile receptors can be compared to keyboard and mouse.
Eyes can be compared to web camera and scanner.
Ears can be compared to mike.
Response to external stimuli is output; the way information is displayed on computer
screen.

4. If someone receives a blow on the back of neck, what would be the effect on the
person's CNS?

Ans. Brain and spinal cord constiture the CNS . A blow on the back can result in serious
injury to the spinal cord and eventually to the nerve cord. Nerve cord is an integral part of
the CNS. Any damage to the CNS can hamper many normal functions in the body. A person
can also be paralysed.

5. What is the function described to Eustachian tube?

Ans. The middle ear (tympanic cavity) is an air filled chamber which is connected to
pharynx by Eustachian tube. It helps in equalizing pressures on either side of the ear drum
and organ of corti is the structural unit of hearing. Thus, it helps in proper reception and
transmission of sound waves to the internal ear.

6. Label the following parts in the given diagram using arrow.

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(a) Aqueous chamber

(b) Cornea

(c) Lens

(d) Retina

(e) Vitreous chamber

(f) Blind spot

Ans.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Explain the process of the transport and release of a neurotransmitter with the help
of a labelled diagram showing a complete neuron, axon terminal and synapse.

Ans. The junction between two neurons is called synapse. A synapse is made by membranes
of pre-synaptic neuron and post-synaptic neuron. A gap; called synaptic cleft; may or may
not be present in between.

In a chemical synapses, the axon terminal called synaptic knob contains a number of
synaptic vesicles, which contain the neurotransmitter.
The Nerve impulse arrives at axon terminal and travels through the axon in the form
of electrical signals.
There are small vesicles filled with chemical transmitters in the axon terminal. When
an electrical impulse comes, the vesicle empties chemotransmitters into the synaptic
cleft. This happens by vesicle's fusion with the plasma membrane.
Once the neurotransmitters are released in the synapse; they are taken up by
specialized channels present on the membrane of post-synaptic neuron.
Entry of neurotransmitters into post-synaptic neuron completes the transmission of

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 neural signals.

2. Name the parts of human forebrain indicating their respective functions.

Ans. The forebrain consists of cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus. Their functions are as
follows:

Part of brain Functions

Cerebrum Motor and sensory functions.

Thalamus Coordination of sensory and motor signaling.

Hypothalamus Body temperature, hunger and thirst.

3. Explain the structure of middle and internal ear with the help of diagram.

Ans. Structure of Middle Ear: The middle ear (tympanic cavity) is composed of the
tympanic membrane and bony ossicles. Tympanic membrane separates middle ear from
external ear and the middle ear is connected to pharynx by eustachian tube.The three bony
ossicles are; malleus, incus and stapes. Tympanic membrane is also called the ear drum. It
catches the sound waves and transfers them to the bony ossicles. The bony ossicles pick the
waves one by one and transmit them to the inner ear.

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Structure of Inner Ear: Inner ear is a fluid filled chamber called labyrinth. It is composed of
two parts, outer bony labyrinth and inner membranous labyrinth. Labyrinth is divided into
two parts viz. cochlea and semi-circular canals. An oval window in the cochlea receives
sound waves from the stapes. Cochlea is the part which is coiled and sends auditory signals
to the brain. Semi-circular canals are involved in maintaining balance and posture of the
body.

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 CBSE Class 11 Biology
NCERT Exemplar Solutions
Chapter 22
CHEMICAL COORDINATION AND INTEGRATION

Exercise

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Select the right match of endocrine gland and their hormones among the options
given below

Column I Column II

A. Pineal (i) Epinephrine

B. Thyroid (ii) Melatonin

C. Ovary (iii) Estrogen

D. Adrenal medulla (iv) Tetraiodothyronine

Options:
(a) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i)

(b) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)

(c) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iii)

(d) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (i)

Ans. (d) A-(ii), B-(iv), c-(iii), D-(i)

2. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by anterior pituitary gland?

(a) Growth hormone

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(b) Follicle stimulating hormone

(c) Oxytocin

(d) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone

Ans. (c) Oxytocin

Explanation: Oxytocin is produced by posterior pituitary gland.

3. Mary is about to face an interview. But during the first five minutes before the
interview she experiences sweating, increased rate of heart beat, respiration etc.
Which hormone is responsible for her restlessness?

(a) Estrogen and progesterone

(b) Oxytocin and vasopressin

(c) Adrenaline and noradrenaline

(d) Insulin and glucagon

Ans. (c) Adrenaline and noradrenaline

Explanation: These are also called stress hormones.

4. The steroid hormone responsible for balance of water and electrolytes in our body is

(a) Insulin

(b) Melatonin

(c)Testosterone

(d) Aldosterone

Ans. (d) Aldosterone

Explanation: Aldosterone stimulates reabsorption of Na+ and water and excretion of K+ and
phosphate ions. Thus, it maintains balance of water and electrolytes.

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5. Thymosin is responsible for

(a) Raising the blood sugar level

(b) Raising the blood calcium level

(c) Differentiation of T lymphocytes

(d) Decrease in RBC

Ans. (c) Differentiation of T lymphocytes

6. In the mechanism of action of a protein hormone, one of the second messengers is

(a) Cyclic AMP

(b) Insulin

(c) T3

(d) Gastrin

Ans. (a) Cyclic AMP

Explanation: Hormones which interact with membrane-bound receptors normally do not

enter the target cell, but generate second messengers (Cyclic AMP, IP3, Ca++, etc.)

7. Leydig cells produce a group of hormones called

(a) Androgens

(b) Estrogens

(c) Aldosterone

(d) Gonadotropins

Ans. (a) Androgens

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8. Corpus luteum secretes a hormone called

(a) Prolactin

(b) Progesterone

(c) Aldosterone

(d) Testosterone

Ans. (b) Progesterone

9. Cortisol is secreted from

(a) Pancreas

(b) Thyroid

(c) Adrenal

(d) Thymus

Ans. (c) Adrenal

10. A hormone responsible for normal sleep-wake cycle is

(a) Epinephrine

(b) Gastrin

(c) Melatonin

(d) Insulin

Ans. (c) Melatonin

11. Hormones are called chemical signals that stimulate specific target tissues. Which is
the correct location of these receptors in case of protein hormones?

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(a) Extra cellular matrix

(b) Blood

(c) Plasma membrane

(d) Nucleus

Ans. (c) Plasma membrane

12. Choose the correct option among the following

Column I Column II

A. Epinephrine (i) Stimulates muscle growth

B. Testosterone (ii) Decrease in blood pressure

C. Glucagon (iii) Breakdown of liver glycogen

D. Atrial natriuretic factor (iv) Increases heart beat

Options:
(a) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv)

(b) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii)

(c) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)

(d) A – (i), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (iii)

Ans. (b) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii)

13. Which of the following do not play any role in calcium balance in the human body?

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(a) Vitamin D

(b) Parathyroid hormone

(c) Thyrocalcitonin

(d) Thymosin

Ans. (d) Thymosin

Explanation: Thymosin is responsible for differentiation of T-lymphocyte.

14. Which of the following organs in mammals does not consist of a central ‘medullary’
region surrounded by a cortical region?

(a) Ovary

(b) Adrenal

(c) Liver

(d) Kidney

Ans. (c) Liver

15. Which of the following conditions is not linked to deficiency of thyroid hormone?

(a) Cretinism

(b) Goitre

(c) Myxedema

(d) Exophthalmosis

Ans. (d) Exophthalmosis

Explanation: Exophthalmosis happens due to hyperthyroidism.

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 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. There are many endocrine glands in human body. Name the gland which is absent in
male and the one which is absent in female.

Ans. Ovary is absent in male and testis is absent in female.

2. Which of the two adrenocortical layers, zona glomerulosa and zona reticularis lies
outside enveloping the other?

Ans. Zona glomerulosa is the outermost layer and zona reticularis is the innermost layer of
adrenal gland.

3. What is erythropoiesis? Which hormone stimulate it?

Ans. Formation of RBCs from the bone marrow is called erythropoiesis. It is stimulated by
the hormone erythropoietin.

4. Name the only hormone secreted by pars intermedia of the pituitary gland.

Ans. Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH)

5. Name the endocrine gland that produces calcitonin and mention the role played by
this hormone.

Ans. Calcitonin or thryocalcitonin is secreted by thyroid gland. Calcitonin regulates blood

calcium level.

6. Name the hormone that helps in cell – mediated immunity.

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Ans. Thymosin

7. What is the role of second messenger in the mechanism of protein hormone action?

Ans. Second messenger regulates cell metabolism. Hormones which interact with membrane
bound receptors normally do not enter the cell. Instead, they generate second messengers
and thus affect the functioning of the target cells.

8. State whether true or false:

(a) Gastrointestinal tract, kidney and heart also produce hormones.

(b) Pars distalis produces six trophic hormones.

(c) B-lymphocytes provide cell-mediated immunity.

(d) Insulin resistance results in a disease called diabetes mellitus.

Ans. (a) True

(b) True

(c) False

(d) True

9. A patient complains of constant thirst, excessive passing of urine and low blood
pressure. When the doctor checked the patients' blood glucose and blood insulin level,
the level were found to be normal or slightly low. The doctor diagnosed the condition as
diabetes insipidus. But he decided to measure one more hormone in patient's blood.
Which hormone does the doctor intend to measure?

Ans. Vasopressin or Anti Diuretic Hormone because low level of this hormone can result in
excessive passing of urine and low blood pressure.

10. Correct the following statements by replacing the term underlined.

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(a) Insulin is a steroid hormone.

(b) TSH is secreted from the corpus luteum.

(c) Tetraiodothyronine is an emergency hormone.

(d) The pineal gland is located on the anterior part of the kidney.

Ans. (a) Insulin is a peptide hormone.

(b) TSH is secreted from anterior pituitary gland.

(c) Tetraiodothyronine is a maintenance hormone.

(d) The adrenal gland is located on the anterior part of the kidney.

11. Rearrange the following hormones in Column I so as to match with their chemical
nature in Column II.

Column I Column II

(a) Oxytocin (i) Amino acid derivative

(b) Epinephrine (ii) Steroid

(c) Progesterone (iii)Protein

(d) Growth hormone (iv) Peptide

Ans. (a) (iii), (b) (i), (c) (ii), (d) (iv)

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What is the role played by luteinizing hormone in males and females respectively?

Ans. Luteinizing hormones play following roles:

In Males: It stimulates Leydig cell production of testosterone.

In Females: It stimulates ovulation.

2. What is the role of second messenger in hormone action?

Ans. Extracellular substances such as some hormones which do not cross the plasma
membrane are called first messenger. In such cases, second messengers are released to enter
the cell. Second messengers trigger various physiological changes in a cell. Thus, second
messengers play the role of relaying the signals from first messengers.

3. On an educational trip to Uttaranchal, Ketki and her friends observed that many
local people were having swollen necks. Please help Ketki and her friends to find out
the solutions to the following questions.

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(a) Which probable disease are these people suffering from?

(b) How it is caused?

(c) What effect does this condition have on pregnancy?

Ans. (a) These people are suffering from goitre.

(b) Goitre is caused by dietary iodine deficiency.

(c) If a woman is suffering from goitre (which is associated with hypothyroidism); it can have
deleterious effects on the foetus. It causes defective development and maturation of the
growing baby leading to stunted growth (cretinism), mental retardation, abnormal skin,
deaf-mutism, etc.

4. George comes on a vacation to India from US. The long journey disturbs his biological
system and he suffers from jet lag. What is the cause of his discomfort?

Ans. Body's biological clock follows a set pattern during the 24 hours. This pattern is called
circadian rhythm. When a person travels through different time zones encompassing long
hours of journey, his circadian rhythm gets disturbed. As a result, the person may suffer
from jet lag. This would be manifested in sleep disturbance, bowel habits, anorexia, etc.

5. Inflammatory responses can be controlled by a certain steroid. Name the steroid, the
source from which it is obtained and also mention its other important functions.

Ans. Cortisol is the steroid which controls inflammatory responses. This hormone is secreted
by adrenal cortex. Cortisol is one of the many cortisoids produced by adrenal gland. Cortisol
also stimulates RBC production, influences or modulates many of the changes that occur in
the body in response to stress etc.

6. Old people have weak immune system. What could be the reason?

Ans. The thymus gland secretes the hormone thymosin which plays a major role in
differentiation of T-lymphocytes. T-lymphocytes are responsible for cell mediated immune
response. In old age, the thymus gland gets degenerated resulting in reduced production of

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thymosin. Hence, old people have weak immune system.

7. What are the effects of hypothyroidism (observed during pregnancy) on the

development and maturation of a growing baby?

Ans. If a woman is suffering from hypothyroidism; it can have deleterious effect on the
development and maturation of the foetus. There can be stunted growth (cretinism) of the
foetus which may result in an underweight newborn. The effects of hypothyroidism remains
even after birth. The child's brain may not develop properly and show mental retardation.
The child can also exhibit abnormal skin and deaf-mutism.

8. Mention the difference between hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism.

Ans.

Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism

(i) Involves less than normal production (i) Involves more than normal production of
of thyroid hormone. thyroid hormone.

(ii) Reduces metabolic rate. (ii) Increases metabolic rate.

(iii) May happen because of iodine (iii) May happen because of development of
deficiency. tumor or nodules in thyroid gland.

(iv) Symptoms include fatigue, dry hair, (iv) Symptoms include feeling hot, forgetfulness,
dry skin, muscle cramps, decreased sweating, increased heart rate, disturbed bowel
menstrual flow, etc. movement, etc.

9. You have learnt that a characteristic feature of endocrine system is the presence of
feedback loops. By this what is meant if hormone A stimulates gland ‘X’ to secrete

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hormone B, the production of ‘A’ could be modified when the level of B changes in our
blood. An example is the relation between hormones LH and estrogen (E2). An old

woman exhibits the following features. High levels of LH in blood but low levels of E2 in

the blood. Another woman exhibits high level of LH in blood and also high level of E2 in

the blood. Where lies the defect in both these women? Provide suitable diagram to
support the answer.

Ans. Level of LH in blood is usually low before puberty and it increases during reproductive
phase. LH levels in blood during the reproductive phase depend on the particular phase of
the ovulation cycle. When ovulation is about to happen, the LH level peaks and so does the
level of E2. This shows a perfectly normal condition.

But in older women, LH level is higher accompanied by low level of E2. Low level of E2 shows

cessation of reproductive phase. We know that menopause marks the end of the
reproductive phase. After the menopause, no or negligible oocytes are left in the ovary.
Hence, LH is not being utilized the way it was during reproductive phase. This explains the
increased level of LH in blood in older women.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. A milkman is very upset one morning as his cow refuses to give any milk. The
milkman's wife gets the calf from the shed. On fondling by the calf, the cow gave
sufficient milk. Describe the role of endocrine gland and the pathway associated with
this response?

Ans. Milk secretion in mammals is stimulated by hormone oxytocin which works on positive
feedback mechanism.

(a) When the calf sucks the cow's udder; it triggers nerve impulses.

(b) Nerve impulses send signals to the hypothalamus which starts secreting oxytocin.

(c) Oxytocin causes the contraction of smooth muscles around the alveoli (in udder)and milk
is released.

The following figure shows the positive feedback mechanism of oxytocin.

2. A sample of urine was diagnosed to contain high content of glucose and ketone
bodies. Based on this observation, answer the following:

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(a) Which endocrine gland and hormone is related to this condition?

(b) Name the cells on which this hormone acts.

(c) What is the condition called and how can it be rectified?

Ans. (a) Pancreas is the endocrine gland and insulin is the hormone which is related to this
condition.

(b) Insulin acts on hepatocytes (liver cells) and adipocytes (cells of fat tissue).

(c) This condition is called diabetes. This can be managed by changing dietary habit,
medications etc. In some cases, the patient may need to take insulin on a daily basis.

3. Calcium plays a very important role in the formation of bones. Elaborate the role of
endocrine glands and hormones responsible for maintaining Calcium homeostasis.

Ans. Movement of calcium ions between the body fluids and cells can be termed as calcium
homoeostasis. Calcium plays an important role in various metabolic processes and is also an
integral part of the bones. Hence, relative levels of calcium in body fluids, cells and bones are
highly important. Both thyroid and parathyroid hormones play significant roles in calcium
homeostasis.

Role of Thyrocalcitonin (TCT): This hormone is secreted by thyroid gland. It reduces the

blood Ca++ level. Thus, it helps in increasing the availability of calcium to the bones.

Role of Parathyroid Hormone: This hormone is secreted by parathyroid gland. It increases

the blood Ca++ level. Thus, it ensures the availability of calcium for many other metabolic
functions.

It can be said that the roles of TCT and PTH are antagonistic to each other. Thus, they balance
the effects of each other.

4. Illustrate the differences between the mechanism of action of a protein and a steroid
hormone.

Ans.

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 Protein hormones Steroid hormones

(i) They interact with membrane

(i) They interact with intracellular receptors.
bound receptors.

(ii) They generate second messenger

(ii) They do not generate second messenger.
for further action.

(iii) Effect of these hormones alters (iii) Effect of these hormones regulates gene
cellular metabolism. expression or chromosome function.

(iv) Examples: insulin, glucagon, etc. (iv) Examples: cortisol, testosterone, etc.

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5. Hypothalamus is a super master endocrine gland. Elaborate.

Ans. Hypothalamus contains several groups of neurosecretory cells called nuclei which
produces hormones. These hormones regulate the synthesis and secretion of pituitary
hormones. It produces two types of hormones, i.e. releasing hormones (that stimulate
secretion of pituitary hormones) and inhibiting hormones (that inhibit secretion of pituitary
hormones) Pituitary gland secretes the maximum number of hormones. But many hormones
secreted from pituitary gland control the function of other endocrine glands. In fact; all the
other endocrine glands are controlled by the hormones secreted by the pituitary gland.
Following are some examples:

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) controls the function of thyroid gland.

Adernocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) controls the function of adrenal gland.
Luteinizing Hormone (LS) controls the function of gonads.

Hence, pituitary gland is often termed as the ‘Master Gland’. But the hormones secreted by
hypothalamus controls the secretion of hormones from the pituitary gland. Due to this,
hypothalamus can be termed as the “Super Master Gland”.

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