DATE : 05/05/2019 Test Booklet Code

P1
SURYAA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2019
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

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4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

5. The CODE for this Booklet is P1.

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Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.

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9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

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in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
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11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.

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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)
1. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long Answer ( 1 )
wire of length L, the length of the wire
p
becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy S o l . rH 
stored in the extended wire is : eB
p
(1) Mgl (2) MgL r 
1 1 2eB
(3) Mgl (4) MgL p
2 2
rH eB
Answer ( 3 ) 
r p
Sol.
2eB
rH 2
L 
r 1

4. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u

l collides with another body B of mass 2m, at
rest. The collision is head on and elastic in
nature. After the collision the fraction of
Mg
energy lost by the colliding body A is :
1
U (work done by gravity) 1 8
2 (1) (2)
1 9 9
U  Mgl 4 5
2 (3) (4)
9 9
2. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and
Answer ( 2 )
whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most
likely to break when: S o l . Fractional loss of KE of ccolliding body

(1) the mass is at the highest point KE 4  m1m2 


(2) the wire is horizontal KE  m  m 2
1 2

(3) the mass is at the lowest point 4  4m  2m


(4) inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical  4m  2m 2
Answer ( 3 ) 32m2 8
Sol.  2

36m 9

5. In a double slit experiment, when light of

wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular
T width of the first minima formed on a screen
placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What
u
will be the angular width of the first minima, if
mg the entire experimental apparatus is immersed
mu2 in water? (water = 4/3)
T  mg 
l (1) 0.266° (2) 0.15°
mu2
T  mg  (3) 0.05° (4) 0.1°
l
Answer (2)
The tension is maximum at the lowest
position of mass, so the chance of breaking is 
maximum. S o l . In air angular fringe width 0 
D
3. Ionized hydrogen atoms and -particles with Angular fringe width in water
same momenta enters perpendicular to a  
w   0
constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of their D 
radii of their paths rH : r will be : 0.2
 = 0.15°
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 4
3
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4  
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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

6. In which of the following devices, the eddy S o l . Work required = change in kinetic energy
current effect is not used?
Final KE = 0
(1) Induction furnace
1 1 3
(2) Magnetic braking in train Initial KE = mv2  I2  mv2
2 2 4
(3) Electromagnet
(4) Electric heater 3
  100  (20  102 )2  3 J
Answer ( 4 ) 4

S o l . Electric heater does not involve Eddy |KE| = 3 J

currents. It uses Joule's heating effect.
10. The displacement of a particle executing
7. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown simple harmonic motion is given by
from a detergent solution having a surface
y = A0 + Asint + Bcost
tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside
the bubble equals at a point Z 0 below the Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given
free surface of water in a container. Taking by :
g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the
value of Z0 is : (1) A0  A2  B2

(1) 100 cm (2) 10 cm (2) A 2  B2

(3) 1 cm (4) 0.5 cm
(3) A20  (A  B)2
Answer ( 3 )
(4) A + B
4T Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Excess pressure = , Gauge pressure
R
= gZ0 Sol. B
A 2 B 2
4T
P0   P0  gZ0
R
4T A
Z0 
R  g
y = A0 + Asint + Bsint
4  2.5  102
Z0  3 m Equate SHM
10  1000  10
Z0 = 1 cm y = y – A0 = Asint + Bcost
Resultant amplitude
8. Which colour of the light has the longest
wavelength? R  A2  B2  2ABcos90
(1) Red (2) Blue
 A 2  B2
(3) Green (4) Violet
Answer ( 1 ) 11. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal
length f each, are kept coaxially in contact
S o l . Red has the longest wavelength among the with each other such that the focal length of
given options. the combination is F 1 . When the space
between the two lenses is filled with
9. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on
glycerine (which has the same refractive index
a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed
( = 1.5) as that of glass) then the equivalent
of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop
focal length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be :
it?
(1) 3 J (2) 30 kJ (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 2 J (4) 1 J (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4

Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 2 )

3
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

Sol. 14. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of

unknown length have their increase
in length independent of increase in
temperature. The length of aluminium rod is :
(Cu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and Al = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1)
(1) 6.8 cm (2) 113.9 cm
(3) 88 cm (4) 68 cm
Answer ( 4 )

S o l . CuLCu   AlL Al
1.7 × 10–5 × 88 cm = 2.2 × 10–5 × LAl
1.7  88
LAl   68 cm
2.2
15. Pick the wrong answer in the context with
rainbow.
1 1 1 2
Equivalent focal length in air    (1) When the light rays undergo two internal
F1 f f f reflections in a water drop, a secondary
When glycerin is filled inside, glycerin lens rainbow is formed
behaves like a diverging lens of focal length (–f) (2) The order of colours is reversed in the
1 1 1 1 secondary rainbow
  
F2 f f f (3) An observer can see a rainbow when his
1 front is towards the sun

f (4) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion
F1 1 refraction and reflection of sunlight

F2 2 Answer ( 3 )
12. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a S o l . Rainbow can't be observed when observer
container would lead to : faces towards sun.
(1) Increase in its mass
16. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the
(2) Increase in its kinetic energy earth. How much will it weigh half way down
(3) Decrease in its pressure to the centre of the earth ?
(4) Decrease in intermolecular distance (1) 150 N (2) 200 N
Answer ( 2 ) (3) 250 N (4) 100 N
S o l . Increase in temperature would lead to the Answer ( 4 )
increase in kinetic energy of gas (assuming Sol. g

F R d
far as to be ideal) as U nRT
2
g
13. An electron is accelerated through a potential
C
dif ference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie
wavelength is, (nearly) : (me = 9 × 10–31 kg)
(1) 12.2 × 10–13 m (2) 12.2 × 10–12 m
Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d from
(3) 12.2 × 10–14 m (4) 12.2 nm surface of earth
Answer ( 2 )
 d
S o l . For an electron accelerated through a g  g  1   ...(1)
 R
potential V
Where g = acceleration due to gravity at
10
12.27 12.27  10 earth's surface
 Å  12.27  1012 m
V 10000 Multiplying by mass 'm' on both sides of (1)

4
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

 d  R 18. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the

mg  mg  1   d   following statements is true ?
 R  2
 R  200 (1) Electrons are the majority carriers and
 200  1    2  100 N
 2R trivalent atoms are the dopants.

17. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in (2) Holes are the majority carriers and
the figure with a DC source of emf E and zero trivalent atoms are the dopants.
internal resistance. (3) Holes are the majority carriers and
The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation (4) Electrons are the majority carriers and
when two from section A and one from section
pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
B are glowing, will be :
Answer ( 2 )
A B
S o l . In p-type semiconductor, an intrinsic
semiconductor is doped with trivalent
impurities, that creates deficiencies of
valence electrons called holes which are
majority charge carriers.

19. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in

E
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4 one complete vibration is :

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 A
(1) (2) A
Answer ( 2 ) 2
S o l . (i) All bulbs are glowing
R R A2
(3) (4) Zero
2
R R
Answer ( 4 )
R R
S o l . In one complete vibration, displacement is
zero. So, average velocity in one complete
E
vibration
R R 2R
Req    Displacement y f  yi
3 3 3   0
Time interval T
E2 3E2
i 
Power (P)  ...(1)
Req 2R 20. The unit of thermal conductivity is :
(ii) Two from section A and one from section (1) J m K–1 (2) J m–1 K–1
B are glowing.
(3) W m K–1 (4) W m–1 K–1
R
R
Answer ( 4 )
R S o l . The heat current related to difference of
temperature across the length l of a
conductor of area A is
E
R 3R dH KA
Req  R   T (K = coefficient of thermal
2 2 dt 
2E2 conductivity)
Power (Pf )  ...(2)
3R
 dH
Pi 3E 2 3R  K
  9:4 A dt T
Pf 2R 2E 2
Unit of K = Wm–1 K–1

5
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

21. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm 24. In the circuits shown below, the readings of
rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. voltmeters and the ammeters will be
The torque required to stop after 2
revolutions is 10  i1
(1) 2 × 10–6 N m (2) 2 × 10–3 N m
(3) 12 × 10–4 N m (4) 2 × 106 N m V1 A1
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Work energy theorem.

1 2
W I(f  i2 )  = 2 revolution 10 V
2
= 2 × 2 = 42 rad Circuit 1
2 10  i2
Wi  3  rad / s
60
1 1 2 2 10 
 –    mr (0  i2 ) V2
2 2 A2

2
1 1  2 
  2  (4  10 2 )  3  
 – 2 2  60 
4 2 10 V
Circuit 2
   2  106 N m (1) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2 (2) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2
22. A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in y- (3) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2 (4) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2
direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Answer ( 3 )
Work done by this force to move the particle
S o l . For ideal voltmeter, resistance is infinite and
from y = 0 to y = 1 m is
for the ideal ammeter, resistance is zero.
(1) 30 J (2) 5 J
10
(3) 25 J (4) 20 J V1  i1  10   10  10 volt
10
Answer ( 3 )
10
S o l . Work done by variable force is V2  i2  10   10  10 volt
10
yf V1 = V2
W  Fdy
yi 10 V
i1  i2  1 A
10 
Here, yi = 0, yf = 1 m
25. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly
1 1
 10y2  charged. The electric field due to the sphere
 W   (20  10y)dy  20y   = 25 J
 2 0 at a distance r from the centre
0
(1) Increases as r increases for r < R and for
23. Which of the following acts as a circuit r>R
protecting device?
(2) Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as
(1) Conductor (2) Inductor r increases for r > R
(3) Switch (4) Fuse (3) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as
Answer ( 4 ) r increases for r > R
(4) Decreases as r increases for r < R and for
S o l . Fuse wire has less melting point so when
r>R
excess current flows, due to heat produced
in it, it melts. Answer ( 2 )

6
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

Sol. + Q S o l . Angle of dip is the angle between earth's

+ + resultant magnetic field from horizontal. Dip
R is zero at equator and positive in northern
r
+ + hemisphere.
C
BH
BV B
+ +  = (+) ve
+
Charge Q will be distributed over the surface
B  = (–) ve
of hollow metal sphere.
BH
(i) For r < R (inside) BV
  q In southern hemisphere dip angle is
By Gauss law,  Ein · dS  en  0
0 considered as negative.
 Ein = 0 (∵ qen  0) 27. The total energy of an electron in an atom in
(ii) For r > R (outside) an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential
energies are, respectively:
+
+ + (1) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV
r
+ + (2) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
+ + (3) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
+
(4) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
E
Answer ( 3 )
1
E0  S o l . In Bohr's model of H atom
r2
Ein = 0 U
r  K.E.  TE 
O R 2
  q
 K.E. = 3.4 eV
 E0 · dS  en0
U = –6.8 eV
Here, qen = Q (∵ qen  Q)
28. In total internal reflection when the angle of
2Q
 E0 4 r  incidence is equal to the critical angle for the
0 pair of media in contact, what will be angle of
1 refraction?
 E0 
r2 (1) 180°
26. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle (2) 0°
of dip,  = +25°. At a point B on the earth’s
surface the angle of dip,  = –25°. We can (3) Equal to angle of incidence
interpret that: (4) 90°
(1) A and B are both located in the northern Answer ( 4 )
hemisphere. Sol.
(2) A is located in the southern hemisphere
and B is located in the northern
90°
hemisphere.
(3) A is located in the northern hemisphere iC
and B is located in the southern
hemisphere.
At i = i c , refracted ray grazes with the
(4) A and B are both located in the southern
surface.
hemisphere.
So angle of refraction is 90°.
Answer ( 3 )
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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

29. The work done to raise a mass m from the

u2
surface of the earth to a height h, which is (Stopping distance) x1 
2gsin60
equal to the radius of the earth, is:
(1) mgR (2) 2mgR u2
(Stopping distance) x2 
2gsin30
1 3
(3) mgR (4) mgR
2 2 x1 sin30 1 2
    1: 3
x2 sin60 2  3
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. 31. -particle consists of :
(1) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only
M R
h=R (2) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons
(3) 2 electrons and 4 protons only
Initial potential energy at earths surface is (4) 2 protons only
GMm Answer ( 1 )
Ui 
R S o l . -particle is nucleus of Helium which has two
protons and two neutrons.
Final potential energy at height h = R
32. The speed of a swimmer in still water is
GMm
Uf  20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and
2R
is flowing due east. If he is standing on the
As work done = Change in PE south bank and wishes to cross the river along
 W = Uf – Ui the shortest path the angle at which he should
make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by :
GMm gR2m mgR (1) 30° west (2) 0°
   (∵ GM = gR2)
2R 2R 2 (3) 60° west (4) 45° west

30. When an object is shot from the bottom of a Answer ( 1 )

long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60°
S o l . VSR  20 m/s
with horizontal, it can travel a distance x 1
along the plane. But when the inclination is VRG  10 m/s
decreased to 30° and the same object is shot N
with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance. V RG
Then x1 : x2 will be:
V SG
(1) 1: 2 (2) 2:1 W E
V SR 

(3) 1: 3 (4) 1: 2 3

Answer ( 3 ) S
  
Sol. VSG  VSR  VRG

VRG
sin   
VSR
u
60°
10
sin  
g sin60° 20

1
sin  
u 2
30°
 = 30° west
g sin30°

8
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

33. A particle moving with velocity V is acted by 2
A 
three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR. TA
The velocity of the particle will : 2
B 
P TB
 A TB T
  1
B TA T

35. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the

inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of
R Q radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between
(1) Increase the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is
(2) Decrease 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for
the cylinder to keep the block stationary when
(3) Remain constant
the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its
(4) Change according to the smallest force
 axis, will be : (g  10 m/s2 )
QR
10
Answer ( 3 ) (1) 10 rad/s (2) rad/s
2
Sol. P (3) 10 rad/s (4) 10rad/s
Answer ( 3 )

Sol.

fL
R Q 2
N mr
As forces are forming closed loop in same
mg
order

So, Fnet  0
For equilibrium of the block limiting friction

dv fL  mg
 m 0
dt
  N  mg
 v  cons tant  mr2  mg
34. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform g
circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA 
r
and rB with speed vA and vB respectively. Their
time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of g
min 
angular speed of A to that of B will be : r
(1) rA : rB (2) vA : vB
10
(3) rB : rA (4) 1 : 1 min  = 10 rad/s
0.1 1
Answer ( 4 ) 36. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear
charge densities + C/m and – C/m are
Sol. rB placed at a distance of 2R in free space. What
is the electric field mid-way between the two
line charges?
rA
2
(1) Zero (2) N/C
 0R
 
(3) N/C (4) N/C
 0R 20R
TA = TB = T
Answer ( 3 )
9
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)
(2) (1)
– – 2
S o l . + +  3Q 
+
– k 
+ E1 –
– F1   42 
+ r
R E2 –
+ –
–
+ – 9 kQ
+ –
F1 
16 r 2
+ –

9F
–X X F1 
16
38. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is
Electric field due to line charge (1) present near the bottom of a fully filled open
tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate
  ˆ of flow of water through the open hole would
E1  i N/C
2  0R be nearly
Electric field due to line charge (2) (1) 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s
  ˆ (2) 8.9 × 10–6 m3/s
E2  i N/C
2  0R (3) 2.23 × 10–6 m3/s
   (4) 6.4 × 10–6 m3/s
Enet  E1  E2
Answer ( 1 )
 ˆ  ˆ
= i i Sol.
2  0R 2 0R

 2m
= î N / C
 0R
a = 2 mm2
37. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q
Rate of flow liquid
and –Q respectively, are placed at certain
distance apart and force acting between them Q  au  a 2gh
is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then
force between the charges becomes :  2  106 m2  2  10  2 m/s
= 2 × 2 × 3.14 × 10–6 m3/s
9F
(1) F (2) = 12.56 × 10–6 m3/s
16
= 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s
16F 4F
(3) (4) +6 V
9 3 39. 0 R
Answer ( 2 ) A 1
LED (Y)
A B
S o l . +Q –Q R
r
0
kQ 2
F B 1
r2
If 25% of charge of A transferred to B then The correct Boolean operation represented by
the circuit diagram drawn is :
Q 3Q Q 3Q
qA  Q   and q B  Q   (1) AND
4 4 4 4
(2) OR
qA qB
r (3) NAND
kqA qB (4) NOR
F1  2
r Answer ( 3 )

10
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

S o l . From the given logic circuit LED will glow, 42. The radius of circle, the period of revolution,
when voltage across LED is high. initial position and sense of revolution are
+6 V indicated in the fig.
R
A
y
P(t = 0)

T=4s
B
x
Truth Table 3m
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
y - projection of the radius vector of rotating
1 1 0
particle P is :
This is out put of NAND gate.
(1) y(t) = –3 cos2t, where y in m
40. In which of the following processes, heat is
neither absorbed nor released by a system?
 t 
(1) Isothermal (2) Adiabatic (2) y(t)  4 sin   , where y in m
2
(3) Isobaric (4) Isochoric
Answer ( 2 )
 3t 
(3) y(t)  3cos   , where y in m
S o l . In adiabatic process, there is no exchange of  2 
heat.

41. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept  t 

(4) y(t)  3cos   , where y in m
perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10–5 T. When 2
the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around
any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf Answer ( 4 )
induced in the coil will be:
(1) 2 V (2) 0.2 V S o l . At t = 0, y displacement is maximum, so
equation will be cosine function.
(3) 2 × 10–3 V (4) 0.02 V
Answer ( 4 ) y
S o l . Magnetic field B = 5 × 10–5 T Pt=0

Number of turns in coil N = 800 T=4s

Area of coil A = 0.05 m2
x
Time taken to rotate t = 0.1 s
Initial angle 1 = 0°
Final angle 2 = 90°
T=4s
Change in magnetic flux 
= NBAcos90° – BAcos0°
2 2 
   rad/s
= – NBA T 4 2
= – 800 × 5 × 10–5 × 0.05
y = a cost
= – 2 × 10–3 weber

 ()2  103 Wb 
e–   0.02 V y  3cos t
t 0.1 s 2
11
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

43. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 F

1 1
is being charged by a voltage source whose  2  1%   2%   3%  3  4%
2 3
potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The
conduction current through the connecting  2%  1%  1%  12%
wires, and the displacement current through
the plates of the capacitor, would be, = 16%
respectively. 45. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying
(1) Zero, 60 A (2) 60 A, 60 A a constant current. The plot of the magnitude
of the magnetic field. B with the distance d
(3) 60 A, zero (4) Zero, zero
from the centre of the conductor, is correctly
Answer ( 2 ) represented by the figure :
S o l . Capacitance of capacitor C = 20 F B B
= 20 × 10–6 F (1) (2)
 dV  R d R d
Rate of change of potential    3 v/s
 dt  B B
q = CV (3) (4)
dq dV R d
C R d
dt dt Answer ( 3 )
ic = 20 × 10–6 × 3
Sol.
= 60 × 10–6 A
= 60 A d
As we know that id = ic = 60 A

44. In an experiment, the percentage of error

occurred in the measurement of physical
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% B
respectively. Then the maximum percentage of
1
A2B 2
error in the measurement X, where X  1
, O R d
C 3D3
Inside (d < R)
will be
Magnetic field inside conductor
 3  0 i
(1)  % (2) 16% B d
 13  2  R2
(3) – 10% (4) 10% or B = Kd ...(i)
Answer ( 2 ) Straight line passing through origin
S o l . Given At surface (d = R)

1 0 i
2 B ...(ii)
A B 2 2 R
x 1
C 3 D3 Maximum at surface
Outside (d > R)
x A 1 B
% error,  100  2  100   0 i
x A 2 B B
2 d
1 c D 1
100   100  3  100 or B  (Hyperbolic)
3 c D d

12
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

46. The number of sigma () and pi () bonds in S o l . The correct structure is
pent-2-en-4-yne is O O O
(1) 10 bonds and 3 bonds O = Br – Br – Br = O
(2) 8 bonds and 5 bonds O O O
(3) 11 bonds and 2 bonds Tribromooctaoxide
49. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the
(4) 13 bonds and no  bonds
order of decreasing energy. The correct
Answer ( 1 ) option is
H H
 (1) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d (2) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d
  
 C – C 
S o l . H – C – C = C – H
 (3) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p (4) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
 
H H
Answer ( 1 )
Number of  bonds = 10
S o l . (n + l) values for, 4d = 4 + 2 = 6
and number of  bonds = 3
5p = 5 + 1 = 6
47. The structure of intermediate A in the
following reaction, is 5f = 5 + 3 = 8
CH3 6p = 6 + 1 = 7
CH OH
CH3 O
O2 H
+  Correct order of energy would be
A + H3C CH3
H2 O 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
CH3 CH3 50. Which of the following reactions are
CH disproportionation reaction?
O – CH H3C – C – O – O – H
3
(a) 2Cu 
 Cu2   Cu0
(1) (2)
(b) 3MnO24  4H 
 2MnO4  MnO2  2H2 O
CH3 CH2 – O – O – H

O – O – CH HC
(c) 2KMnO 4   K2MnO 4  MnO2  O2
CH3
CH3 (d) 2MnO4  3Mn2   2H2 O 
 5MnO2  4H
(3) (4)
Select the correct option from the following
Answer ( 2 )
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (c)
CH3
CH3 (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) only
CH H3C – C – O – O – H
CH3
+ Answer ( 1 )
O2 H
Sol. 1
H 2O
S o l . (a) 2Cu1 

Cumene (A)
Cumene 2 0
hydroperoxide Cu2(  )  Cu0 } Disproportionation
OH 6
O ) ()
(b) 3MnO2(
4  4H 

+ H3C – C –CH3
7 4
48. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is 2MnO4  MnO2  2H2 O} Disproportionation

O O 7 6
O O O O 
(c) 2KMnO42   K2MnO4 
–
(1) O = Br – Br – Br = O (2) O = Br – Br – Br – O
O O
– 4 0
O O O O
–

–
MnO2  O2 }  Not a disproportionation
O O O
–
O O O 7 2
–
(3) O – Br – Br – Br = O (4) O = Br – Br – Br – O – (d) 2MnO 4  3Mn2(  )  2H2 O 

– –
O O O O O
– O
4
Answer ( 1 ) 5MnO2  4H }
13
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

51. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K 55. The most suitable reagent for the following
expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a conversion, is :
constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work
H3 C CH3
done by the gas is
H 3C C C CH3
(Given that 1 L bar = 100 J) H H
cis-2-butene
(1) –30 J (2) 5 kJ
(1) Na/liquid NH3
(3) 25 J (4) 30 J
(2) H2, Pd/C, quinoline
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Zn/HCl
S o l .  Wirr = – Pext V
= – 2 bar × (0.25 – 0.1) L (4) Hg2+/H+, H2O

= – 2 × 0.15 L-bar Answer ( 2 )

= – 0.30 L-bar H3C CH3
H2, Pd/C,
= – 0.30 × 100 J S o l . H3C C C CH3 C C
quinoline
H H
= – 30 J
cis-2-butene
52. Among the following, the one that is not a 56. Which is the correct thermal stability order
green house gas is
for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
(1) Nitrous oxide (2) Methane
(1) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(3) Ozone (4) Sulphur dioxide
(2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
Answer ( 4 )
(3) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
S o l . Fact
(4) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S
SO2 (g) is not a greenhouse gas.
53. For the cell reaction Answer ( 3 )
S o l . On going down the group thermal stability
2Fe3 (aq)  2I (aq)  2Fe2 (aq)  I2 (aq)
order for H2E decreases because H–E bond
EΘ
cell  0.24 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs
energy decreases
energy (r GΘ ) of the cell reaction is :  Order of stability would be:-
[Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol–1] H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(1) – 46.32 kJ mol–1 (2) – 23.16 kJ mol–1
57. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
(3) 46.32 kJ mol–1 (4) 23.16 kJ mol–1
(1) PbF4 is covalent in nature
Answer ( 1 )
(2) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed
S o l . GΘ =  nF Ecell
Θ
(3) GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than
= – 2 × 96500 × 0.24 J mol–1 GeX2
= – 46320 J mol–1 (4) SnF4 is ionic in nature
= – 46.32 kJ mol–1
Answer ( 1 )
54. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer
S o l . PbF4 and SnF4 are ionic in nature.
require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the
cofactor. M is : 58. Match the following :
(1) Be (2) Mg (a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine
(3) Ca (4) Sr (b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid
Answer ( 2 )
(c) Contact process (iii) Ammonia
S o l . All enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate
(d) Deacon’s process (iv) Sodium azide or
transfer require magnesium(Mg) as the
co-factor. Barium azide
14
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

Which of the following is the correct option?  2 

S o l . Ca(OH)2  Ca  2OH
(a) (b) (c) (d)
pH = 9 Hence pOH = 14 – 9 = 5
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) [OH–] = 10–5 M

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 105

Hence [Ca2+] =
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 2
Answer ( 4 ) Thus Ksp = [Ca2+][OH–]2
S o l . (a) Pure nitrogen : Sodium azide or  105  5 2
Barium azide =   (10 )
 2 
(b) Haber process : Ammonia
= 0.5 × 10–15
(c) Contact process : Sulphuric acid
63. If the rate constant for a first order reaction
(d) Deacon’s process : Chlorine is k, the time (t) required for the completion
59. Which of the following diatomic molecular of 99% of the reaction is given by:
species has only  bonds according to
(1) t = 0.693/k
Molecular Orbital Theory?
(2) t = 6.909/k
(1) O2 (2) N2
(3) C2 (4) Be2 (3) t = 4.606/k

Answer ( 3 ) (4) t = 2.303/k

S o l . MO configuration C2 is: Answer ( 3 )

2 2 S o l . First order rate constant is given as,
1s2, *1s2, 2s2, *2s2, 2p x  2p y
60. For the second period elements the correct 2.303 [A ]
k log 0
increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is: t [A]t
(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne 99% completed reaction,
(2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
2.303 100
k log
(3) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne t 1
(4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
2.303
 log102
Answer ( 2 ) t
S o l . ‘Be’ and ‘N’ have comparatively more stable
2.303
valence sub-shell than ‘B’ and ‘O’. k  2log10
t
 Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy
is: 2.303 4.606
t 2 
k k
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
61. The biodegradable polymer is: 4.606
t
k
(1) Nylon-6,6 (2) Nylon-2-Nylon 6
64. The non-essential amino acid among the
(3) Nylon-6 (4) Buna-S
following is:
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Valine
S o l . Nylon-2-Nylon 6
(2) Leucine
62. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The
solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is: (3) Alanine
(1) 0.5 × 10–15 (2) 0.25 × 10–10 (4) Lysine
(3) 0.125 × 10–15 (4) 0.5 × 10–10 Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . Alanine
15
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

65. Among the following, the reaction that S o l . Solutions showing negative deviation from
proceeds through an electrophilic Raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotrope
substitution, is:
Water and Nitric acid  forms maximum
+ –
Cu 2Cl2 boiling azeotrope
(1) N 2CI CI + N 2
67. For the chemical reaction
AlCl 3
(2) + Cl2 CI + HCl  2NH3 (g)
N2 (g)  3H2 (g) 

CI CI The correct option is:

UV light 1 d[H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]

(3) + Cl2 CI CI (1)  
3 dt 2 dt

CI CI d[N2 ] d[NH3 ]
(2)  2
dt dt
heat
(4) CH 2OH + HCl
d[N2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]
(3)  
CH 2Cl + H 2O
dt 2 dt

d[H2 ] d[NH3 ]
Answer ( 2 ) (4) 3 2
dt dt
Cl
Answer ( 3 )
AlCl 3
Sol. + Cl2 + HCl
 2NH3
S o l . N2  3H2 

Generation of electrophile: Rate of reaction is given as

.. + –
Cl Cl
.. + AlCl3 Cl Cl AlCl3
..

d[N2 ] 1 d[H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]

  
dt 3 dt 2 dt
.. + –
Cl
.. + AlCl4
68. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules
..

Electrophile required to produce 20 moles of ammonia

Cl H through Haber's process is :

+ (1) 10
Cl+
(i) etc
(2) 20

Cl Cl (3) 30
H
+ (4) 40
(ii)
Answer ( 3 )

S o l . Haber's process
66. The mixture that forms maximum boiling
azeotrope is:
N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
(1) Water + Nitric acid
20 moles need to be produced
(2) Ethanol + Water
(3) Acetone + Carbon disulphide 2 moles of NH3  3 moles of H2

(4) Heptane + Octane 3  20

Hence 20 moles of NH3   30 moles of H2
Answer ( 1 ) 2

16
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

69. The compound that is most difficult to 72. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the
protonate is : formation of negatively charged colloidal
[Agl]l– sol ?
O
(1) H H (1) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
O (2) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI
(2) H3C H (3) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
O (4) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI
(3) H3C CH3
Answer ( 2 )
O S o l . Generally charge present on the colloid is due
(4) Ph H to adsorption of common ion from dispersion
Answer ( 4 ) medium. Millimole of KI is maximum in
option (2) (50 × 2 = 100) so act as solvent and
S o l . Due to involvement of lone pair of electrons in
anion I– is adsorbed by the colloid AgI formed
resonance in phenol, it will have positive
charge (partial), hence incoming proton will
not be able to attack easily.
70. For an ideal solution, the correct option is :
(1) mix S = 0 at constant T and P 73. Among the following, the narrow spectrum
(2) mix V  0 at constant T and P antibiotic is :

(3) mix H = 0 at constant T and P (1) Penicillin G

(4) mix G = 0 at constant T and P (2) Ampicillin

Answer ( 3 ) (3) Amoxycillin

S o l . For ideal solution, (4) Chloramphenicol

mixH = 0 Answer ( 1 )

mixS > 0 S o l . Penicillin G

mixG < 0 74. An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O

gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar
mixV = 0 ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B"
ii
71. Conjugate base for Br onsted acids H2O and as the major product. The structure of
HF are : product "B" is:

(1) OH– and H2F+, respectively CH3

(2) H3O+ and F–, respectively (1) Cl–CH2–CH2–CH
(3) OH– and F–, respectively CH3
(4) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively CH2Cl
Answer ( 3 )
(2) H3 C–CH2 –CH–CH3
–
OH Conjugate base
CH3
S o l . H2O
+ (3) H3C–CH2–C–CH3
H3O Conjugate acid

HF on loss of H + ion becomes F – is the Cl

conjugate base of HF CH3
Example : (4) H3C–CH–CH
– +
HF + H2O F + H3O Cl CH3
Acid Base Conjugate Conjugate
base acid Answer ( 3 )

17
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

Sol. Axial bond

Cl
240 pm
Cl 90°
Sol. 120° P Cl Equatorial bond
Cl 202 pm

Cl

(1) True
Cl

(2) True P 180°

Cl
(3) True
75. What is the correct electronic configuration Axial bond : 240 pm
of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on
crystal field theory? Equatorial bond : 202 pm

4 (4) False
(1) t 2g e2g
Due to longer and hence weaker axial
6 0
(2) t 2g e g bonds, PCl5 is a reactive molecule.
77. Which will make basic buffer?
(3) e3 t 23
(1) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M
(4) e 4 t 2
2
CH3COOH
(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M
Answer ( 2 )
NaOH
S o l . K4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M
Fe ground state: [Ar]3d64s2 NH4OH
Fe2+: 3d64s0 (4) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M
NaOH
eg
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.
In (1)
Energy CH3COOH  NaOH  CH3COONa  H2O
Spherical t2g
field Before 25 mL 50 mL
Fe
2+ 0
× 0.1 M × 0.1M
t 62g e0g In the presence of
– = 2.5 mmol = 5 mmol
6CN strong field
After 0 2.5 mmol 2.5 mmol
76. Identify the incorrect statement related to
This is basic solution due to NaOH.
PCl5 from the following:
(1) Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an This is not basic buffer.
angle of 120° with each other (2)
CH3COOH  NaOH  CH3COONa  H2O
(2) Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of Before 100 mL 100 mL
180° with each other 0
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M
(3) Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than  10 mmol  10mmol
equatorial P–Cl bonds After 0 0 10 mmol

(4) PCl5 molecule is non-reactive Hydrolysis of salt takes place.

Answer ( 4 ) This is not basic buffer.

18
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

(3) HCl  NH4OH  NH4Cl  H2O 79. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I
Before 100 mL 200 mL with its structure in Column-II and assign the
0 correct code:
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M
 10 mmol  20 mmol Column-I Column-II
After 0 10 mmol 10 mmol (a) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
This is basic buffer (b) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
(4) HCl  NaOH  NaCl  H2O (c) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral
Before 100 mL 100 mL
0 (d) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M
 10 mmol  10 mmol Code:
After 0 0 10 mmol (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
 Neutral solution
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
78. The major product of the following reaction
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
is:
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
COOH
strong heating Answer ( 2 )
+ NH3
COOH F F
S o l . (a) XeF4 : Xe  Square planar
O F F
COOH
(1) (2) NH F

CONH 2 F F
O (b) XeF6 : Xe  Distorted
octahedral
COOH NH2 F F
(3) (4) F
NH2 NH2
F F
Answer ( 2 ) (c) XeOF4 : Xe  Square
F F pyramidal
– +
COOH COO NH4 O
Sol. + NH3
COOH
–
COO NH4
+ Xe O
(d) XeO3 : Pyramidal
O
– 2H2O  O
80. The manganate and permanganate ions are
CONH 2 tetrahedral, due to :
(1) The -bonding involves overlap of
p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
CONH 2
manganese
– NH3 Strong heating (2) There is no -bonding

O (3) The -bonding involves overlap of

p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of
C manganese
NH
(4) The -bonding involves overlap of
C d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
O manganese
Phthalimide Answer ( 1 )

19
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

O 83. Which of the following is an amphoteric

hydroxide?
S o l . • Manganate (MnO42–) : Mn O
–
O –
(1) Sr(OH)2
O
(2) Ca(OH)2
 -bonds are of d–p type

O (3) Mg(OH)2

(4) Be(OH)2
• Permanganate (MnO4–) : Mn O
O – Answer ( 4 )
O
 -bonds are of d–p type S o l . Be(OH)2 amphoteric in nature, since it can
react both with acid and base
81. Which of the following species is not stable?
Be(OH)2 + 2HCl  BeCl2 + 2H2O
(1) [SiF6]2–
(2) [GeCl6]2– Be(OH)2 + 2NaOH  Na2 [Be(OH)4]

(3) [Sn(OH)6]2– 84. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume
20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas
(4) [SiCl6]2–
under the same conditions. The correct
Answer ( 4 ) option about the gas and its compressibility
factor (Z) is :
S o l . • Due to presence of d-orbital in Si, Ge and
Sn they form species like SiF62–, [GeCl6]2–, (1) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
[Sn(OH)6]2–
(2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
• SiCl 62– does not exist because six large
chloride ions cannot be accommodated (3) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
around Si4+ due to limitation of its size.
(4) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
82. For a cell involving one electron E°cell = 0.59 V
at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell Answer ( 3 )
reaction is :
Vreal
 2.303 RT  Sol. • Compressibility factor(Z) =
 0.059 V at T = 298 K  Videal
Given that F 
∵ Vreal < Videal; Hence Z < 1
(1) 1.0 × 102
(2) 1.0 × 105 • If Z < 1, attractive forces are dominant
among gaseous molecules and
(3) 1.0 × 1010 liquefaction of gas will be easy.
(4) 1.0 × 1030
85. A compound is formed by cation C and
Answer ( 3 ) anion A. The anions form hexagonal close
packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy
0.059 75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the
S o l . Ecell = E°cell – log Q ...(i)
n compound is :
(At equilibrium, Q = Keq and Ecell = 0) (1) C2A3
0.059
0 = E°cell – log Keq (from equation (i)) (2) C3A2
1
(3) C3A4
E°cell 0.59
log Keq = = = 10
0.059 0.059 (4) C4A3

Keq = 1010 = 1 × 1010 Answer ( 3 )

20
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

Sol. • Anions(A) are in hcp, so number of anions 88. The method used to remove temporary
(A) = 6 hardness of water is :

Cations(C) are in 75% O.V., so number of (1) Calgon's method

cations (C)
(2) Clark's method
3
= 6× (3) Ion-exchange method
4
(4) Synthetic resins method
18
= Answer ( 2 )
4
S o l . Clark's method is used to remove temporary
9 hardness of water, in which bicarbonates of
= calcium and magnesium are reacted with
2
slaked lime Ca(OH)2
• So formula of compound will be
Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3 + 2H2O
C 9 A6  C9 A12
Mg(HCO3)2 + 2Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3  + Mg(OH)2 
2

+ 2H2O
C9A12  C3A4
89. Which one is malachite from the following?
86. In which case change in entropy is negative?

(1) Evaporation of water (1) CuFeS2

(2) Expansion of a gas at constant (2) Cu(OH)2

temperature
(3) Fe3O4
(3) Sublimation of solid to gas
(4) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
(4) 2H(g)  H2(g)
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Malachite : CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (Green colour)
Sol. •  H2 O  v  , S  0
H2 O     90. The correct order of the basic strength of
methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution
• Expansion of gas at constant
is :
temperature, S > 0

• Sublimation of solid to gas, S > 0 (1) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N

(2) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH

• 2H(g) 
 H2(g), S < 0 (∵ ng < 0)
(3) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
87. Which of the following series of transitions in
the spectrum of hydrogen atom fall in visible (4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
region?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Lyman series
S o l . In aqueous solution, electron donating
(2) Balmer series inductive effect, solvation effect (H-bonding)
(3) Paschen series and steric hindrance all together affect basic
strength of substituted amines
(4) Brackett series
Basic character :
Answer ( 2 )
(CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
S o l . In H-spectrum, Balmer series transitions fall
in visible region. 2° 1° 3°

21
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

91. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 94. The shorter and longer arms of a
1992 was called submetacentric chromosome are referred to
(1) to reduce CO 2 emissions and global as
warming (1) s-arm and l-arm respectively
(2) for conservation of biodiversity and (2) p-arm and q-arm respectively
sustainable utilization of its benefits (3) q-arm and p-arm respectively
(3) to assess threat posed to native species (4) m-arm and n-arm respectively
by invasive weed species
Answer ( 2 )
(4) for immediate steps to discontinue use of
S o l .  Sub metacentric chromosome is
CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
Heterobrachial.
Answer ( 2 )
 Short arm designated as 'p' arm
S o l . Earth Summit (Rio Summit)-1992, called upon
(p = petite i.e. short)
all nations to take appropriate measures for
conservation of biodiversity and sustainable  Long arm designated as 'q' arm
utilisation of its benefits
95. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin
92. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by is
mother during the initial days of lactation is (1) 0.9
very essential to impart immunity to the new (2) 0.7
born infants because it contains
(3) 0.07
(1) Natural killer cells
(4) 0.09
(2) Monocytes
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Macrophages
Amount of CO2 released
(4) Immunoglobulin A Sol. Respiratory Quotient 
Answer ( 4 ) RQ  Amount of O2 consumed

S o l . Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted by the 2(C51H98O6) + 145O2  102CO2 + 98H2O
mother during initial days of lactation is very
Tripalmitin + Energy
essential to impart immunity to the new born
infant because it contains Immunoglobulin A. 102 CO2
It will impart naturally acquired passive RQ   0.7
145 O2
immunity to the newborn

93. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry 96. Which of the following is a commercial blood
weather. Select the most appropriate reason cholesterol lowering agent?
from the following (1) Cyclosporin A
(1) Closure of stomata (2) Statin
(2) Flaccidity of bulliform cells (3) Streptokinase
(3) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy (4) Lipases
mesophyll Answer ( 2 )
(4) Tyloses in vessels Sol.  Statin is obtained from a yeast (Fungi)
Answer ( 2 ) called Monascus purpureus
S o l . Bulliform cells become flaccid due to water  It acts by competitively inhibiting the
loss. This will make the leaves to curl inward enzyme responsible for synthesis of
to minimise water loss cholesterol.
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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

97. Match the following structures with their 100. Consider following features
respective location in organs (a) Organ system level of organisation
(a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas (b) Bilateral symmetry
(b) Glisson's Capsule (ii) Duodenum (c) True coelomates with segmentation of
(c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small body

intestine Select the correct option of animal groups

which possess all the above characteristics
(d) Brunner's Glands (iv) Liver
(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
Select the correct option from the following
(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer ( 1 )
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
S o l . True segmentation is present in Annelida,
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) Arthropoda and Chordata. They also have
Answer ( 3 ) organ system level of organisation, bilateral
symmetry and are true coelomates
S o l . Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in small
intestine. Glisson's capsule is present in liver. 101. Select the correct sequence of organs in the
Islets of langerhans constitutes the endocrine alimentary canal of cockroach starting from
portion of pancreas. Brunner's glands are mouth
found in submucosa of duodenum. (1) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Crop  Gizzard
 Ileum  Colon  Rectum
98. Which of the following is the most important
cause for animals and plants being driven to (2) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard  Crop
extinction?  Ileum  Colon  Rectum
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation (3) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard 
Ileum  Crop  Colon  Rectum
(2) Drought and floods
(4) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Ileum  Crop
(3) Economic exploitation
 Gizzard  Colon  Rectum
(4) Alien species invasion Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . The correct sequence of organs in the
S o l . Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most alimentary canal of cockroach starting from
important cause driving animals and plants to mouth is :
extinction. Pharynx  Oesophagus Crop  Gizzard 
eg: Loss of tropical rainforest reducing the Ileum  Colon  Rectum
forest cover from 14 % to 6 %.
102. Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly
99. Which part of the brain is responsible for responsible for green house effect?
thermoregulation? (1) Ozone and Ammonia
(1) Cerebrum (2) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(2) Hypothalamus (3) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide
(3) Corpus callosum (4) Carbon dioxide and Methane
(4) Medulla oblongata Answer ( 4 )

Answer ( 2 ) S o l . Relative contribution of various greenhouse

gases to total global warming is
S o l . Hypothalamus in the thermoregulatory centre
of our brain. It is responsible for maintaining  CO2 = 60%
constant body temperature.  CH4 = 20%
23
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

 CFC = 14% Select the correct option.

 N2O = 6% (a) (b) (c) (d)
 Therefore CO 2 and CH 4 are the major (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
greenhouse gases (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)
(3) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)
103. Which of the following muscular disorders is
inherited? (4) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)

(1) Tetany Answer ( 1 )

(2) Muscular dystrophy S o l . In ECG P-wave represents depolarisation of

atria. QRS complex represents depolarisation
(3) Myasthenia gravis of ventricles. T-wave represents
(4) Botulism repolarisation of ventricle i.e. return from
excited to normal state. Reduction in the size
Answer ( 2 )
of T-wave i.e. if the T-wave represents
S o l . Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle insufficient supply of oxygen i.e. coronary
mostly due to genetic disorder is muscular ischaemia.
dystrophy where as tetany is muscular spasm
106. Which one of the following is not a method of
due to low calcium in body fluid. Myasthenia
in situ conservation of biodiversity?
gravis is an anto immume disorder leading to
paralysis of skeletal muscles. Botulism is rare (1) Biosphere Reserve
and dangerous type of food poisoning caused (2) Wildlife Sanctuary
by bacterium Clostridium Botulinum. (3) Botanical Garden

104. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to
move particles or mucus in a specific
direction. In humans, these cells are mainly
present in
(1) Bile duct and Bronchioles
(4) Sacred Grove
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Botanical garden - ex - situ conservation (off-
site conservation) i.e. living plants (flora) are
conserved in human managed system.

(2) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct 107. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges
(3) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive
(4) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes whereas 99% of the infants born with weight
Answer ( 4 ) from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type
of selection process is taking place?
S o l . Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes are lined with
ciliated epithelium to move particles or mucus (1) Directional Selection
in a specific direction. (2) Stabilizing Selection
(3) Disruptive Selection
105. Match the Column-I with Column-II
(4) Cyclical Selection
Column-I Column-II
Answer ( 2 )
(a) P - wave (i) Depolarisation of
S o l . The given data shows stabilising selection as
ventricles
most of the newborn having average weight
(b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of between 3 to 3.3 kg survive and babies with
ventricles less and more weight have low survival rate.
(c) T - wave (iii) Coronary ischemia
108. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle
(d) Reduction in the (iv) Depolarisation of is
size of T-wave atria (1) M  G1  G2  S (2) G1  G2  S  M
(v) Repolarisation of (3) S  G1  G2  M (4) G1  S  G2  M
atria Answer ( 4 )
24
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)
S o l . The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is
G1  S  G2  M
109. How does steroid hormone influence the
cellular activities?
(1) Changing the permeability of the cell
membrane
(2) Binding to DNA and forming a gene-
hormone complex
(3) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell
membrane
(4) Using aquaporin channels as second
messenger
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Steroid hormones directly enter into the cell
and bind with intracellular receptors in
nucleus to form hormone receptor complex.
Hormone receptor complex interacts with the
genome
110. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
(1) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic
enzymes
(2) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are
active under acidic pH
(3) Lysosomes are membrane bound
structures
(4) Lysosomes are formed by the process of
packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Lysosomes bud off from trans face of Golgi
bodies.
Precursor of lysosomal enzymes are
synthesised by RER and then send to Golgi
bodies for further processing.
111. Which one of the following statements
regarding post-fertilization development in
flowering plants is incorrect?
(1) Ovary develops into fruit
(2) Zygote develops into embryo
(3) Central cell develops into endosperm
(4) Ovules develop into embryo sac
Answer ( 4 )
25
S o l . Following are the post-fertilisation changes.
• Ovule  Seed
• Ovary  Fruit
• Zygote  Embryo
• Central cell  Endosperm
112. Concanavalin A is
(1) an alkaloid (2) an essential oil
(3) a lectin (4) a pigment
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Concanavalin A is a secondary metabolite e.g
is lectin, it has the property to agglutinates
RBCs.
113. Which one of the following equipments is
essentially required for growing microbes on
a large scale, for industrial production of
enzymes?
(1) BOD incubator
(2) Sludge digester
(3) Industrial oven
(4) Bioreactor
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . To produce enzyme in large quantity
equipment required are bioreactors. Large
scale production involves use of
bioreactors.
114. Consider the following statement :
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly
bound to enzyme protein is called
prosthetic group.
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with
its bound prosthetic group is called
apoenzyme.
Select the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(2) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) is false but (B) is true.
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to
enzyme protein is called prosthetic group. A
complete catalytic active enzyme with its
bound prosthetic group is called holoenzyme.
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

115. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are S o l . The correct match of hominids and their brain
sizes are :
(1) Adenine and thymine
Homo habilis — 650-800 cc
(2) Adenine and guanine
Homo neanderthalensis — 1400 cc
(3) Guanine and cytosine
Homo erectus — 900 cc
(4) Cytosine and thymine
Homo sapiens — 1350 cc
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Purines found both in DNA and RNA are 118. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by
Hugo de Vries are
Adenine and guanine
(1) random and directional
116. Select the correct sequence for transport of
(2) random and directionless
sperm cells in male reproductive system.
(3) small and directional
(1) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia 
(4) small and directionless
Rete testis  Inguinal canal  Urethra
Answer ( 2 )
(2) Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis 
Vasa efferentia  Epididymis  Vas S o l . According to Hugo de Vries, mutations are
deferens  Ejaculatory duct  Urethra  random and directionless.
Urethral meatus Devries believed mutation caused speciation
(3) Seminiferous tubules  Vasa efferentia  and hence called saltation (single step large
mutation).
Epididymis  Inguinal canal  Urethra
(4) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia  119. Which of the following pair of organelles does
Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct  not contain DNA?
Inguinal canal  Urethra  Urethral (1) Mitochondria and Lysosomes
meatus (2) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
Answer ( 2 ) (3) Lysosomes and Vacuoles
S o l . The correct sequence for transport of sperm (4) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria
cells in male reproductive system is
Answer ( 3 )
Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Vasa
efferentia  Epididymis  Vas deferens  S o l . Lysosomes and Vacuoles do not have DNA.
Ejaculatory duct  Urethra  Urethral 120. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and
meatus pollutants, many people in urban areas are
suffering from respiratory disorder causing
117. Match the hominids with their correct brain
wheezing due to
size :
(1) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc cavity
(b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc (2) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc (3) proliferation of fibrous tissues and
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc damage of the alveolar walls

Select the correct option. (4) reduction in the secretion of surfactants

by pneumocytes.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer ( 2 )
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) bronchioles. It can be due to increasing air
born allergens and pollutants. Asthma is an
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
allergic condition. Many people in urban areas
Answer ( 3 ) are suffering from this respiratory disorder.

26
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

121. Select the incorrect statement. 124. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Male fruit fly is heterogametic (1) Inbreeding increases homozygosity
(2) In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have (2) Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines
no sex-chromosome in any animal.
(3) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive
(3) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny
genes that reduce fertility and productivity
depends on the type of sperm rather than
egg (4) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of
superior genes and elimination of
(4) Human males have one of their sex- undesirable genes
chromosome much shorter than the other
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes
S o l . In birds female heterogamety is found thus sex that are eliminated by selection. It also helps
of progeny depends on the types of egg rather in accumulation of superior genes and
than the type of sperm. elimination of less desirable genes. Therefore
this is selection at each step, increase the
eg. productivity of inbred population. Close and
 sperm = A + Z type (100%)
continued inbreeding usually reduces fertility
Birds and even productivity.
(fowls) A + Z (50%)
 eggs
A + W (50%) 125. Match the following organisms with the
products they produce
122. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of (a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
biomolecules can be achieved by treatment
(b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd
with cerevisiae
(1) Isopropanol (c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid
(2) Chilled ethanol (d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread
(3) Methanol at room temperature (v) Acetic Acid
(4) Chilled chloroform Select the correct option.
Answer ( 2 ) (a) (b) (c) (d)

S o l . During the isolation of desired gene, chilled (1) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
ethanol is used for the precipitation of DNA. (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
(3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
123. Select the correct group of biocontrol
agents. (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic
virus, Aphids S o l . Microbes are used in production of several
household and industrial products –
(2) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus
Lactobacillus – Production of curd
thuringiensis
Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Bread making
(3) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
Aspergillus niger – Citric acid production
(4) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
Acetobacter aceti – Acetic acid
Answer ( 2 )
126. What is the direction of movement of sugars
S o l . Fungs Trichoderma, Baculoviruses (NPV) and
in phloem?
Bacillus thuringiensis are used as biocontrol
(1) Non-multidirectional
agents.
(2) Upward
Rhizobium, Nostoc, Azospirillum and
Oscillatoria are used as biofertilisers, (3) Downward
whereas TMV is a pathogen and aphids are (4) Bi-directional
pests that harm crop plants. Answer ( 4 )
27
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

S o l . The direction of movement of sugar in phloem
is bi-directional as it depends on source-sink
relationship which is variable in plants.
127. In some plants, the female gamete develops
into embryo without fertilization. This
phenomenon is known as
130. What would be the heart rate of a person if
the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and
at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?
(1) 50 beats per minute
(2) 75 beats per minute

(1) Autogamy (3) 100 beats per minute

(2) Parthenocarpy (4) 125 beats per minute

(3) Syngamy Answer (3)

(4) Parthenogenesis S o l . Cardiac output = stroke volume × Heart rate

Answer ( 4 )  Cardiac output = 5L or 5000 ml

S o l . The phenomenon in which female gamete  Blood volume in ventricles at the end of
develops into embryo without getting fused diastole = 100 ml
with male gamete (fertilisation) is called  Blood volume in ventricles at the end of
parthenogenesis. systole = 50 ml

128. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as Stroke volume = 100 – 50

(1) Chalaza = 50 ml.

(2) Perisperm So,

(3) Hilum 5000 ml = 50 ml × Heart rate

(4) Tegmen So, Heart rate = 100 beats per minute.

Answer ( 2 ) 131. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in

carrying out
S o l . Persistent Nucellus is called Perisperm
(1) Nitrogen fixation
e.g.: Black pepper, Beet
(2) Chemoautotrophic fixation
129. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the
(3) Nitrification
construction of genetic maps?
(4) Denitrification
(1) A unit of distance between two expressed
genes representing 10% cross over. Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Thiobacillus denitrificans cause denitrification
(2) A unit of distance between two expressed
i.e., conversion of oxides of nitrogen to free
genes representing 100% cross over.
N2.
(3) A unit of distance between genes on
chromosomes, representing 1% cross 132. Which of the following factors is responsible
over. for the formation of concentrated urine?
(4) A unit of distance between genes on (1) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
chromosomes, representing 50% cross (2) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards
over. inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.
Answer ( 3 ) (3) Secretion of erythropoietin by
S o l . 1 map unit represent 1 % cross over. Juxtaglomerular complex
Map unit is used to measure genetic distance. (4) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular
filtration
This genetic distance is based on average
number of cross over frequency. Answer (2)

28
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)
S o l . The proximity between loop of henle and vasa
recta as well as counter current in them help
in maintaining an increasing osmolalrity
towards the inner medullary interstitium. This
mechanism help to maintain a concentration
gradient in medullary interstitium so human
urine is nearly four times concentrated than
initial filtrate formed.
133. Which of the following statements regarding
mitochondria is incorrect?
(1) Outer membrane is permeable to
monomers of carbohydrates, fats and
proteins.
(2) Enzymes of electron transport are
embedded in outer membrane.
(3) Inner membrane is convoluted with
infoldings.
(4) Mitochondrial matrix contains single
circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.
Answer (2)
S o l . In mitochondria, enzymes for electron
transport are present in the inner membrane.
134. Xylem translocates.
(1) Water only
(2) Water and mineral salts only
(3) Water, mineral salts and some organic
nitrogen only
(4) Water, mineral salts, some organic
nitrogen and hormones
Answer (4)
S o l . Xylem is associated with tanslocation of
mainly water, mineral salts, some organic
nitrogen and hormones.
135. Cell in G0 phase :
(1) exit the cell cycle
(2) enter the cell cycle
(3) suspend the cell cycle
(4) terminate the cell cycle
Answer (1)
S o l . Cells in G0 phase are said to exit cell cycle.
These are at quiescent stage and do not
proliferate unless called upon to do so.
29
136. Which of the statements given below is not
true about formation of Annual Rings in trees?
(1) Annual ring is a combination of spring
wood and autumn wood produced in a
year
(2) Differential activity of cambium causes
light and dark bands of tissue early and
late wood respectively.
(3) Activity of cambium depends upon
variation in climate.
(4) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of
temperate region.
Answer (4)
S o l . Growth rings are formed by the seasonal
activity of cambium. In plants of temperate
regions, cambium is more active in spring and
less active in autumn seasons. In temperate
regions climatic conditions are not uniform
throughout the year. However in tropics
climatic conditions are uniform throughout
the year.
137. Which of the following ecological pyramids is
generally inverted?
(1) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
(2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
(4) Pyramid of biomass in a sea
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . In an aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of
biomass is generally inverted.
TC = Large fishes
SC = Small fishes
PC = Zooplanktons
PP = Phytoplanktons
138. Placentation in which ovules develop on the
inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is
(1) Basal
(2) Axile
(3) Parietal
(4) Free central
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In parietal placentation the ovules develop on
the inner wall of ovary or in peripheral part.
eg. Mustard, Argemone etc.
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

139. Which of the following protocols did aim for S o l . Tidal Volume = 500 ml
reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into Expiratory Reserve Volume = 1000 ml
the atmosphere?
Expiratory Capacity = TV + ERV
(1) Montreal Protocol
= 500 + 1000
(2) Kyoto Protocol
= 1500 ml
(3) Gothenburg Protocol
(4) Geneva Protocol 142. What is the fate of the male gametes
discharged in the synergid?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) One fuses with egg other(s) degenerate
S o l . To control the deleterious effect of the (s) in the synergid.
stratospheric ozone depletion an
international treaty was signed at Montreal, (2) All fuse with the egg.
Canada in 1987. It is popularly known as (3) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s)
Montreal protocol. with synergid nucleus.
(4) One fuses with the egg and other fuses
140. Which of the following contraceptive methods
with central cell nuclei.
do involve a role of hormone?
Answer ( 4 )
(1) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency
contraceptives. S o l . In flowering plants, out of the two male
gametes discharged in synergids, one fuses
(2) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea,
with the egg and other fuses with the
Pills.
secondary or definitive nucleus present in
(3) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives. central cell.
(4) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier Egg (n) + 1st male gamete (n)  Zygote (2n)
methods.
Secondary nucleus  2nd male gamete (n) 

Answer ( 1 ) (2n)
(central cell nuclei)
S o l .  In lactational amenorrhoea, due to high PEN (3n)
prolactin level, gonadotropin level
decreases. 143. What is the site of perception of photoperiod
necessary for induction of flowering in
 Oral pills are either progestogens or
plants?
progestogen-estrogen combinations used
by the females. (1) Lateral buds (2) Pulvinus
 Emergency contraceptives includes the (3) Shoot apex (4) Leaves
administration of progestogens or Answer ( 4 )
progestogen-estrogen combination or
S o l . During flowering, photoperiodic stimulus is
IUDs within 72 hour of coitus.
perceived by leaves of plants.
So, lactational amenorrhoea, oral pills and
emergency contraceptives involve a role of 144. Select the correctly written scientific name of
hormone. Mango which was first described by Carolus
Linnaeus
141. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume
of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL, (1) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
respectively. What will be his Expiratory (2) Mangifera indica Linn.
Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL? (3) Mangifera indica
(1) 1500 mL
(4) Mangifera Indica
(2) 1700 mL
Answer ( 2 )
(3) 2200 mL S o l . According to rules of binomial nomenclature,
(4) 2700 mL correctly written scientific name of mango is
Answer ( 1 ) Mangifera indica Linn.

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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

145. Following statements describe the (1) This experiment does not follow the
characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Principle of Dominance.
Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect (2) Pink colour in F 1 is due to incomplete
statement. dominance.

(1) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at 1 2 1

(3) Ratio of F 2 is (Red) : (Pink) :
identified position within the DNA. 4 4 4
(White)
(2) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites
(4) Law of Segregation does not apply in this
and cuts only one of the two strands.
experiment
(3) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate Answer ( 4 )
backbone at specific sites on each strand.
S o l . Genes for flower colour in snapdragon shows
(4) The enzyme recognizes a specific incomplete dominance which is an exception
palindromic nucleotide sequence in the of Mendel's first principle i.e. Law of
DNA. dominance.

Answer ( 2 ) Whereas Law of segregation is universally

applicable.
S o l . Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules at a
particular point by recognising a specific 148. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate,
sequence. Each restriction endonuclease the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is
catalyzed by
functions by inspecting the length of a DNA
sequence. Once it finds its specific (1) Aldolase
recognition sequence, it will bind to the DNA (2) Hexokinase
and cut each of the two strands of the double (3) Enolase
helix at specific points in their sugar- (4) Phosphofructokinase
phosphate backbone.
Answer ( 2 )
146. From evolutionary point of view, retention of S o l . Hexokinase catalyse the conversion of
the female gametophyte with developing Glucose to Glucose-6 phosphate. It is the first
young embryo on the parent sporophyte for step of activation phase of glycolysis.
some time, is first observed in 149. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by
(1) Liverworts (1) methylation of morphine
(2) Mosses (2) acetylation of morphine
(3) Pteridophytes (3) glycosylation of morphine
(4) Gymnosperms (4) nitration of morphine

Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In Pteridophyte, megaspore is retained for
some times in female gametophyte, however
the permanent retention is required for seed
formation in Gymnosperms.
That's why Pteridophytes exhibit precursor to
seed habit only.
147. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower
was crossed with a white flower and in F 1
generation pink flowers were obtained. When
pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation
showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose
the incorrect statement from the following :
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Heroin, commonly called smack and is
chemically diacetylmorphine which is
synthesized by acetylation of morphine.
150. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine
Devices.
(1) Vaults, LNG-20
(2) Multiload 375, Progestasert
(3) Progestasert, LNG-20
(4) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone
releasing IUDs which make the uterus

31

unsuitable for implantation and the cervix
hostile to sperms.
151. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the
frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then
what will be the frequency of homozygous
dominant, heterozygous and homozygous
recessive individuals in the population?
(1) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
(2) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(3) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(4) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Frequency of dominant allele (say p) = 0.4
Frequency of recessive allele (say q)
= 1 – 0.4 = 0.6
 Frequency of homozygous dominant
individuals (AA)
= p2 = (0.4)2 = 0.16
Frequency of heterozygous individuals (Aa)
= 2pq = 2(0.4)(0.6) = 0.48
Frequency of homozygous recessive
individuals (aa)
= q2 = (0.6)2 = 0.36
152. Which of the following is true for Golden
rice?
(1) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from
daffodil
(2) It is pest resistant, with a gene from
Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) It is drought tolerant, developed using
Agrobacterium vector
(4) It has yellow grains, because of a gene
introduced from a primitive variety of rice
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Golden rice is vitamin A enriched rice, with a
gene from daffodil and is rich in carotene.
153. Pinus seed cannot germinate and established
without fungal association. This is because :
(1) its embryo is immature.
(2) it has obligate association with
mycorrhizae.
(3) it has very hard seed coat.
(4) its seeds contain inhibitors that present
germination.
Answer ( 2 )
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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)
S o l . Fungus associated with roots of Pinus
increases minerals & water absorption for
the plant by increasing surface area and in
turn fungus gets food from plant. Therefore,
mycorrhizal association is obligatory for Pinus
seed germination
154. Which of the following features of genetic
code does allow bacteria to produce human
insulin by recombinant DNA technology?
(1) Genetic code is not ambiguous
(2) Genetic code is redundant
(3) Genetic code is nearly universal
(4) Genetic code is specific
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In recombinant DNA technology bacteria is
able to produce human insulin because
genetic code is nearly universal.
155. Which of the following sexually transmitted
diseases is not completely curable?
(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Genital warts
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Chlamydiasis
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Genital herpes is caused by type-II-herpes
simplex virus. At present there is no cure for
type-II-herpes simplex virus and therefore the
disease caused, genital herpes. Other non-
curable STIs are hepatitis-B and HIV.
156. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
(1) Viroids lack a protein coat.
(2) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(3) Infective constituent in viruses is the
protein coat.
(4) Prions consist of abnormally folded
proteins.
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Infective constituent in viruses is either DNA
or RNA, not protein.
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)
157. Match the following organisms with their S o l . Yeast is an unicellular sac fungus. It lacks
respective characteristics : filamentous structure or hyphae.
(a) Pila (i) Flame cells
160. Match Column - I with Column - II
(b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates
Column - I Column - II
(c) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula
(a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic association
(d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules of fungi with plant
Select the correct option from the following : roots
(a) (b) (c) (d) (b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition of
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) dead organic
materials
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (c) Lichens (iii) Living on living
plants or animals
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic
Answer ( 2 )
association of algae
S o l . (a) Pila is a Mollusc. The mouth contains a file and fungi
- like rasping organ for feeding called
Choose the correct answer from the option
radula.
given below
(b) Bombyx is an Arthropod. In Bombyx
excretion takes place through malpighan (a) (b) (c) (d)
tubules. (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) Pleurobrachia is Ctenophore. The body (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
bears eight external rows of ciliated comb
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
plates, which help in locomotion.
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) Taenia is a platyhelminth specialised cells
called flame cells helps in osmoregulation Answer ( 4 )
and excretion S o l . Saprophytes - Decomposition of dead
158. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to : organic materials

(1) Genes expressed as RNA Parasites - Grow on/in living plants and
animals
(2) Polypeptide expression
Lichens - Symbiotic association of
(3) DNA polymorphism
algae and fungi
(4) Novel DNA sequences
Mycorrhiza - Symbiotic association of fungi
Answer ( 1 ) with plant roots
S o l . Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) are DNA
sequences (genes) that are expressed as 161. Which of the following glucose transporters is
mRNA for protein synthesis. These are used in insulin-dependent?
human Genome Project. (1) GLUT I
159. Which is of the following statements is (2) GLUT II
incorrect? (3) GLUT III
(1) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies. (4) GLUT IV
(2) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids
Answer ( 4 )
and LSD.
S o l . GLUT-IV is insulin dependent and is
(3) Conidia are produced exogenously and
responsible for majority of glucose transport
ascospores endogenously.
into muscle and adipose cells in anabolic
(4) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long conditions. Whereas GLUT-I is insulin
thread-like hyphae. independent and is widely distributed in
Answer ( 4 ) different tissues.
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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)
162. Which of the following immune responses is S o l . Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen
responsible for rejection of kidney graft? and corneal epithelium. It is the most
(1) Auto-immune response sensitive part of eye.
(2) Humoral immune response 165. The frequency of recombination between
(3) Inflammatory immune response gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
(4) Cell-mediated immune response measure of the distance between genes was
explained by :
Answer ( 4 )
(1) T.H. Morgan (2) Gregor J. Mendel
S o l . The body is able to differentiate self and
nonself and the cell-mediated response is (3) Alfred Sturtevant (4) Sutton Boveri
responsible for graft rejection. Answer ( 3 )
163. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis S o l . Alfred Sturtevant explained chromosomal
may result in : mapping on the basis of recombination
frequency which is directly proportional to
(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
distance between two genes on same
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions chromosome
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from
gastro-intestinal tract 166. Match the following genes of the Lac operon
with their respective products :
(d) Reduced RBC production
(a) i gene (i) -galactosidase
Which of the following options is the most
appropriate? (b) z gene (ii) Permease
(1) (a) and (b) are correct (c) a gene (iii) Repressor
(2) (b) and (c) are correct (d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
(3) (c) and (d) are correct Select the correct option.
(4) (a) and (d) are correct (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer ( 3 ) (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
S o l . a and b statements are incorrect because (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
dialysis eliminates urea and potassium from
the body whereas, c and d are correct. As (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
phosphate ions are eliminated during dialysis, (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
along with that calcium ions are also
Answer ( 3 )
eliminated. So, there will be reduced
absorption of calcium ions from S o l . In lac operon
gastrointestinal tract. RBC production will be i gene Repressor
reduced, due to reduced erythropoietin
hormone. z gene -galactosidase
y gene Permease
164. Which of the following statements is
correct? a gene  Transacetylase

(1) Cornea is an external, transparent and
protective proteinacious covering of the
eye-ball.
(2) Cornea consists of dense connective
tissue of elastin and can repair itself.
(3) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which
is highly vascularised.
(4) Cornea consists of dense matrix of
collagen and is the most sensitive portion
the eye.
Answer ( 4 )
167. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to
produce flowers. Which combination of
hormones can be applied to artificially induce
flowering in pineapple plants throughout the
year to increase yield?
(1) Auxin and Ethylene
(2) Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid
Answer ( 1 )

34
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

S o l . Plant hormone auxin induces flowering in The entry of sperm into the ovum induces
pineapple. Ethylene also helps in completion of the meiotic division of the
synchronization of flowering and fruit set up secondary oocyte.
in pineapple. Entry of sperm causes breakdown of
metaphase promoting factor (MPF) and turns
168. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the
on anaphase promoting complex (APC).
lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various
enzymes. 172. Under which of the following conditions will
(1) Chief Cells (2) Goblet Cells there be no change in the reading frame of
following mRNA?
(3) Oxyntic Cells (4) Duodenal Cells
5AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Insertion of G at 5th position
S o l . Goblet cells secrete mucus and bicarbonates
(2) Deletion of G from 5th position
present in the gastric juice which plays an
important role in lubrication and protection of (3) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions
the mucosal epithelium from excoriation by respectively
the highly concentrated HCl. (4) Deletion of GGU from 7 th , 8 th and 9 th
positions
169. Which of the following can be used as a
Answer ( 4 )
biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant
disease? Sol.
(1) Trichoderma (2) Chlorella 5 3
m-RNA - A A C A G C G G U G C U A U U
(3) Anabaena (4) Lactobacillus
Answer ( 1 )
Deletion
S o l . Fungus Trichoderma is a biological control
5 3
agent being developed for use in the
treatment of plant diseases. A A C A G C G C U A U U
No change in reading frame of m-RNA.
170. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks :
(1) Albuminous cells and sieve cells 173. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula”
regarding cell division was first proposed by
(2) Sieve tubes only
(1) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Companion cells only
(2) Theodor Schwann
(4) Both sieve tubes and companion cells
(3) Schleiden
Answer ( 4 )
(4) Aristotle
S o l . Phloem in Gymnosperms lacks both sieve
Answer ( 1 )
tube and companion cells.
S o l . Concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula” regarding
171. Extrusion of second polar body from egg cell division was proposed by Rudolph
nucleus occurs : Virchow.
(1) after entry of sperm but before fertilization 174. What triggers activation of protoxin to active
(2) after fertilization Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll
worm?
(3) before entry of sperm into ovum
(1) Body temperature
(4) simultaneously with first cleavage
(2) Moist surface of midgut
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Alkaline pH of gut
S o l . Extrusion of second polar body from egg
nucleus occurs after entry of sperm but (4) Acidic pH of stomach
before fertilization. Answer ( 3 )

35
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)

S o l . Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals S o l . Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled

during a particular phase of their growth.
These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal
protein. These protein exist as inactive
protoxins but once an insect ingest the
inactive toxin, it is converted into an active
form of toxin due to alkaline pH of the gut
which solubilize the crystals. The activated
toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial
cells and create pores that cause cell
swelling and lysis and eventually cause death
of insect.
175. Identify the correct pair representing the
causative agent of typhoid fever and the
confirmatory test for typhoid.
(1) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test
(3) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
(4) Salmonella typhi / Widal test
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Salmonella typhi is the causative agent.
Confirmatory test = Widal test, it’s based on
antigen antibody reaction.
modified plastic waste. The mixture is mixed
with bitumen that is used to lay roads
178. Which of these following methods is the most
suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?
(1) Shoot the waste into space
(2) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover
(3) Dump the waste within rocks under deep
ocean
(4) Bury the waste within rocks deep below
the Earth's surface
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Storage of nuclear waste should be done in
suitably shielded containers and buried within
rocks deep below the earth's surface (500 m
deep)
179. Match the following hormones with the
respective disease
(a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease
(b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly

176. What is the genetic disorder in which an (d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre
individual has an overall masculine (v) Diabetes mellitus
development gynaecomastia, and is sterile ?
Select the correct option.
(1) Turner's syndrome
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(1) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) Edward syndrome
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) Down's syndrome
(3) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer ( 2 )
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
S o l . Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome have
Answer ( 3 )
trisomy of sex chromosome as 44 + XXY (47).
They show overall masculine development, Sol.  Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes
gynaecomastia and are sterile. mellitus

177. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified  Hypersecretion or hyposecretion of

plastic, has proved to be a good material for thyroxine can be associated with
enlargement of thyroid gland called goitre
(1) Making plastic sacks
 Deficiency of corticoids (Glucocorticoid +
(2) Use as a fertilizer
mineralocorticoid) leads to Addison's
(3) Construction of roads disease
(4) Making tubes and pipes  Growth hormone hypersecretion in adults
Answer ( 3 ) leads to Acromegaly

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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1)
180. Select the correct option.
(1) 8th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs articulate
directly with the sternum.
(2) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to
the sternum with the help of hyaline
cartilage.
(3) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs
are connected dorsally to the thoracic
vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum.
(4) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal,
three pairs of vertebrochondral and two
pairs of vertebral ribs.
Answer ( 4 )
‰‰‰
37
Sol. • Vertebrosternal ribs are true ribs, dorsally
they are attached to the thoracic
vertebrae and ventrally connected to the
sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
First seven pairs of ribs are called true
ribs.
• 8 th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs do not
articulate directly with the sternum but
join the seventh ribs with the help of
hyaline cartilage. These are
vertebrochondral or false ribs.
• Last 2 pairs (11 & 12) of ribs are not
connected ventrally and are therefore,
called floating ribs.
• Only first seven pairs of ribs are ventrally
connected to the sternum.