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Dr. Harvey Laranang Microbiology
Dr. Harvey Laranang Microbiology
FINAL EXAM
NAME ____________________________
SECTION _________________________
Direction: MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the BEST answer that will complement the given question. Shade the letter of your choice on
the provided answer sheet. GOOD LUCK and GOD BLESS!
1. All of the following are true statements concerning binary fission of microbial cells EXCEPT:
a. the chromosome of the cell is replicated
b. Elongation of the cell occurs and the chromosomes are pushed apart
c. A septum is formed across the midline of the cell
d. Daughter cells produced can be of different sizes
e. Cells can remain attached after division is complete
2. In a gram-negative organism, how do small molecules move into the periplasm from outside the cell?
a. They diffuse freely through the peptidoglycan layer
b. They are transported by lipid A
c. They pass through porins
d. Via binary fission
3. Lipid A is also known as
a. Endotoxin
b. teichoic acid
c. Pilin
d. mycolic acid
e. lipopolysaccharide
4. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Endospores are for reproduction
b. endospores allow a cell to survive adverse environmental changes
c. Endospores are heat sensitive
d. A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing
e. A cell can produce many endospores
5. Translation of gene products in bacteria is faster than in eukaryotes because:
a. mRNA can interact with the ribosome in the cytoplasm as soon as it is transcribed
b. mRNA passes through a thinner nuclear membrane to react with ribosomes in the cytoplasm
c. bacterial genes are shorter and lesser in number
6. the intervening nucleotide sequences made during synthesis of lagging daughter strand, EXCEPT
a. RNA primer
b. RNA transcript
c. Okazaki fragment
7. The point at which replication of DNA starts
a. Replication fork
b. Start codon
c. Promoter region
8. The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of DNA is called
a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA gyrase
c. DNA ligase
d. Helicase
9. During which of the following process a new copy of DNA molecule is precisely synthesized?
a. Transformation
b. Translation
c. Transcription
d. Replication
10. Which of the following enzymes unwind short stretches of DNA helix immediately ahead of a replication fork?
a. DNA polymerases
b. Helicases
c. Single-stranded binding proteins
d. Topoisomerases
11. The synthesis of DNA by DNA polymerase occurs in the
a. 3’ to 5’ direction
b. 5’ to 5’ direction
c. 5’ to 3’ direction
d. 3’ to 3’ direction
12. Site in the ribosome from which the tRNA donated amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain is
a. P site
b. O site
c. T site
d. A site
13. What are the Svedberg values for the subunits of the 70S ribosomes of E. coli?
a. 40S and 30S
b. 50S and 20S
c. 50S and 30S
d. 40S and 20S
14. Which of the following statement described plasmids?
a. Another name for a protoplast
b. A complex membrane structure that covers the chromosome of bacteria
c. Small, circular DNA molecules that can exist independently of chromosomes commonly found in bacteria
d. None of the above
15. Type of mutation that allows microorganisms to exhibit new phenotypic traits, EXCEPT:
a. Frameshift mutation
b. Neutral point mutation
c. Missense point mutation
16. Mutation differs from genetic recombination in that:
a. Adaptive phenotypic traits are acquired
b. Phenotypic traits acquired are permanent
c. Phenotypic traits are enhanced
17. Degeneracy of the genetic code allows:
a. Exact transmission of genes from generation to generation
b. Genotypic change without a phenotypic change
c. Phenotypic change without a genotypic change
18. The following does not occur when substrate is present:
a. Structural genes for the enzyme is transcribed and translated
b. Inducer becomes inactive
c. Polymerase binds with promoter region of the gene
18. Promoter region in transcribable DNA strand is the nucleotide sequence:
a. AUG
b. UAC
c. TAC
19. Which of the following structures contains genes for enzymes and antibiotic resistance
a. Plasmid
b. Pilus
c. Capsule
d. Plasma Membrane
20. Which one of the following is TRUE of both DNA and RNA?
a. both contain the base U, uracil
b. both contain the base T, thymine
c. both are polymers of nucleotides
d. both are found double stranded in all living cells
e. both are built up from ribonucleotides
21. Which one of the following is required for TRANSCRIPTION?
a. the enzyme, RNA polymerase
b. all 20 different types of transfer-RNAs (t-RNAs)
c. the start or stop codons
d. ribosomal attachment and activity
e. obviously all of above are required
22. The mutation which will not affect the length of a protein is
a. Nonsense mutation
b. Missense mutation
c. Frameshift mutation
d. All of these
23. A nonsense mutation may result into
a. An abnormal elongation of a polypeptide
b. A large deletion within the reading frame of a gene
c. A premature termination of the synthesis of a polypeptide
d. Modification of mRNA
24. Which of the following mutation affects only a single nucleotide?
a. Aerial mutation
b. Site mutation
c. Point mutation
d. Regional mutation
25. A mutagen is defined as
a. An enzyme that repairs mutations
b. A chemical or physical agent that induces mutations
c. An inhibitor of gene modification
d. A molecule which stabilizes DNA this prevents mutations from occurring.
26. To which of the following adenine always binds?
a. Guanine
b. Cytosine
c. Thymine
d. None of these
27. Which is mismatched?
a. Replication=formation of 2 identical DNA molecules
b. Transcription=mRNA synthesized from a DNA template
c. TRANSLATION=tRNA transfers amino acids to the ribosomes based on mRNA codons
d. Nonsense codons=terminator codons
e. Anticodon=sequence of 3 nitrogenous bases on the genes
28. Concerning Streptococcus mutans:
a. S. mutans is extremely aciduric, growing well at a pH range of 4.5 to 5
b. S. mutans produces large amounts of lactic acid from aerobic respiration
c. S. mutans produces a cell wall-bound glucosyl transferase that splits fructose to form glucose and sucrose, and it then
transfers the glucose to a growing polysaccharide chain to form a large extracellular glycan.
d. A & B are correct
e. A,B and C are correct
29. In the passive diffusion, solute molecule cross the membrane as a result of:
a. Concentration difference
b. Pressure difference
c. Ionic difference
d. All of these
30. The acquisition energy by glucose fermentation requires
a. Substrate level phosphorylation
b. Electron transport of electrons from NADH
c. Long chain fatty acid oxidation
d. The enzyme formic-hydrogen lyase
31. Entner-Deudoroff pathway is found in
a. Aerobic prokaryotes
b. Anaerobic prokaryotes
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Aerobic eukaryotes
32. The major route for incorporation of ammonia (NH4+) into organic compounds is via:
a. Reduction of pyruvate or alpha-ketoglutarate by enzymes
b. Atmospheric nitrogen fixation
c. Oxidation of pyruvate
d. All of these
33. Competitive inhibition of enzyme action involves:
a. Alteration of the enzyme’s active site
b. Irreversible binding to the enzyme active site
c. Competition with the substrate for binding at the active site
d. Destruction of the enzyme substrate
e. Competition for binding at the enzyme allosteric site
34. Unlike eukaryotes, in prokaryotes chemiosmosis:
a. Moves iron instead of protons across the membrane
b. Does not require ATP synthase
c. Does not require a membrane
d. Occurs at the plasma membrane and not the mitochondria
e. Electrons are eventually passed to organic molecules instead of inorganic acceptors.
35. Streptococcus bacteria lack an ETC. How many molecules of ATP can a streptococcus cell net from one molecule of glucose?
a. 10
b. 2
c. 38
d. 36
36. The energy produced in the electron transport chain during oxidative phosphorylation:
a. Collectively form a phosphate group that can be added to ADP to form ATP
b. It is used to power the mechanism that drives hydrogen ions outside of the cell membrane
c. Is used to power up hydrogen atoms to enter within cell via cell membrane
37. Converging pathways for bacterial anabolism allow synthesis of macromolecule from the intermediate or end-products
a. Of the original nutrient molecule
b. Of other nutrient molecules
c. Of ATP
38. Viruses ______________.
a. Have a protein core and nucleic acid coat
b. Have a protein coat and nucleic acid core
c. Have a cell nucleus inside a bacterial shell
d. Have a nucleic acid very different from their host cell
e. Lack enzymes necessary for nucleic acid replication
39. In order for virus to replicate
a. The capsid must enter the host cell cytoplasm
b. The host cell must be undergoing mitosis
c. The genome must be released in the cytoplasm
40. A virus is called a virion when, EXCEPT:
a. It is infectious
b. It is being replicated
c. It is in extracellular phase
41. The intracellular stage of viral infection is characterized by:
1. The absence of a demonstrable virion
2. An increase in number of viral particles
3. Attainment of eclipse phase
4. Nucleocapsid
a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 2, 1, 4
42. Susceptibility of prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells to virus infection involves
a. Reception for its envelope
b. Random encounters
44. Match the following types of persistent infections with the definitions below: Chronic infections, latent infections
1. Virus is detectable in tissue samples, multiplying at slow rate; symptoms mild or absent
2. After a lytic cycle, virus enters a dormant phase; generally not detectable, no symptoms, can reactivate and result
in recurrent infections.
a. Chronic infections= 1, latent infections =2
b. Latent infections= 1, chronic infections =2
c. The definitions given do not match the terms given