Radio Navigation

RADIO NAVIGATION
Decimetric waves correspond to the frequency range:
3000 to 30000 MHz

3000 to 30000 KHz
300 to 3000 MHz
300 to 3000 KHz
Decimeter: A metric unit of length, equal to one tenth of a meter.
Decameter: A metric unit of length, equal to 10 meters.
According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally transmit?
HF/VHF
MF/HF
HF
LF/MF
A locator outer marker, or LOM, is a navigation aid used as part of an instrument landing system (ILS)
instrument approach. LOM is a non-directional beacon (NDB) co-located with the outer marker beacon in
the ILS approach, so that aircraft can navigate directly to the location using the NDB as well as be
alerted when they fly over it by the beacon.
A low or medium frequency radio beacon transmits nondirectional signals whereby the pilot of an
aircraft properly equipped can determine bearings and "home" on the station. These facilities normally
operate in a frequency band of 190 to 535 kilohertz (kHz), according to ICAO Annex 10 the frequency
range for NDBs is between 190 and 1750 kHz, and transmit a continuous carrier with either 400 or 1020
hertz (Hz) modulation. All radio beacons except the compass locators transmit a continuous three-letter
identification in code except during voice transmissions.
A marker beacon is a particular type of VHF radio beacon used in aviation, usually in conjunction with an
instrument landing system (ILS), to give pilots a means to determine position along an established route
to a destination such as a runway. Markers operate at 75 MHz (VHF).
An aircraft travelling at 330 metres a second transmits a signal at 10 GHz to a stationary receiver. If
the aircraft is flying directly towards the receiver and they are approximately at the same height the
received frequency will be:
11 MHz
10,000011 GHz
9,999989 GHz
11 GHz
Doppler Shift (Hz) = Relative velocity (metres per second) / Transmitted wavelength (metres)
Wavelength = Speed of Sound / Frequency
= 3 x 10^8 / 10 GHz or
= 300,000,000 / 10,000,000,000
= 0.03 meters
Dopler Shift = 330/0.03 = 11,000 Hz
Received frequecy = 10 GHz + 11,000 HZ = 10,000011000 Hz or 10.000011 GHz
Which of the following statements is correct in respect of a RF signal:
the plane of polarisation is dictated by the oscillator unit in the transmitter

the electrical component of the signal is parallel to the aerial
the magnetic component of the signal is parallel to the aerial
both the electrical and magnetic components are parallel to the aerial
A half wave dipole aerial suitable for transmitting an RF signal at 18 MHz should have an effective
length of:
16,67 metres
166,67 metres
83,33 metres
8,33 metres
RF signal at 18 MHz has a wavelength = Speed of sound / frequency
= 3 x 10^8 / 18 MHz
= 16.66 meters
Half wave dipole = 16.66 / 2 = 8.33 meters
Which of the following statements is true?
A broad bandwidth gives a narrow beam width

A narrow bandwidth improves beam width
A transmission's bandwidth is affected by the design of the aerial
Bandwidth must be reduced in order to reduce noise
Diffraction of a RF signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to:
reflection from the surface

passing over or through mediums of different conductivity
passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength
passing through ionised regions of the upper atmosphere
One major consideration that determines if radio waves are blocked involves the concept of diffraction.
This depends on the wavelength of the radiation and the size of the obstacle in which it is attempting to
penetrate. Low frequencies have a easier time passing over large objects such as hills, while higher
frequencies work better with small obstacles such as rooftops. This can be very useful in making a radio
wave blocked using the knife-edge diffraction method. If a wave does not have a line of sight over an
object, a sharp edge can be created, which causes the radio wave to be blocked and redirected to where
the broadcast should go.
Refraction of an electro-magnetic radiation is:
The bending of its propagation path as it passes through or over areas of different electrical
conductivity
The loss of power as it passes through or over areas of different electrical conductivity
Is bending resultant from reflection from objects
Is loss of power through reflection from objects
With regards to radio waves, which statement is true?
They are reflected by metallic objects with a size compatible to the wavelength
The longer the wavelength the greater the surface attenuation
They travel at 186,000 nm a second in a vacuum
High frequencies need large aerials
You are at an altitude of 9,000 feet. At a range of 200 nm from a VHF communications transmitter,
and you are receiving a good signal.
You should expect this since the transmitter is at a height of 2.000 feet
You should have been receiving the signal from a range of 240 nm
You are probably receiving a sky wave signal
You are probably receiving a duct propagation signal
To establish and maintain effective HF communications the frequency used at a given range: "should
be decreased at night"
sun down frequency down
Refer to figure.In the following diagram, the phase difference between the two signals is: 180°
To determine phase difference find where your wave rises through the neutral position and read the
phase of the reference wave (solid one in this fig) at that point.
Ground direction finding at aerodromes utilises what frequencies?
"VHF at civil aerodromes and UHF at military aerodromes"
The emission characteristics A3E describe:
ILS
VHF communications
HF communications
VOR
Type of Radio Emissions: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Types_of_radio_emissions
Q codes
QDR - Magnetic Bearing From

QDM - Magnetic Bearing To
QTE - True Bearing From
QUJ - True Bearing To
The gain of an aerial is a measure of its ability to:
Focus power
Transmit intelligence
Overcome transmitter line resistance
Compensate for attenuation
What is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference can be guaranteed?
3 MHz
30 MHz
300 MHz
3 GHz
Start of VHF
The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of:
100 m to 10 m
1 m to 100 cms
10 m to 1 m
100 cms to 10 cms
The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What is the frequency?
1.5 KHz
1.5 GHz
1.5 MHz
15 MHz
Frequency = Speed of Sound / Wavelength
= 3 x 10^8 / 200
= 1,500,000 or 1.5 MHz
The approximate ground waves of LF and MF are (by day) ___ and ___ respectively, with ___ suffering
more from atmospheric attenuation.
1500nm; 1000nm; MF
1000nm; 500nm; LF
1000nm; 300nm; MF
500nm; 100nm; LF
The distance a surface wave can travel is limited by surface attenuation (which decreases at lower
frequencies and over the sea). Surface waves are around:
100 NM long in the HF band.

500 NM long in the MF band.
1000 NM long in the LF band.
4000+ NM long in the VLF bands.
Surface waves and space waves occur together and the combination is called a ground wave
As the frequency of a transmitter is increased, the range of the ground wave will:
Decrease
Decrease only at night
Increase only over the sea
A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be
increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
Eight
Six
Four
Two
If an NDB with a transmitter power of 25 KW which has a range of 50 nm is adjusted to give a power
output of 100 KW the new range of the NDB will be approximately: "100 nm"
An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the
correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is: NDB: aircraft position, VOR: beacon
position
The speed of a radio wave in nm/sec is:
300,000
161,842
163,842
186,000
A radio wave with a horizontal magnetic component would be best received by a ___ aerial.
magnetic
parabolic
horizontal
vertical
The question is about a horizontal magnetic component which means the electrical component is
vertical.
Very High Frequency Direction Finding (VHF D/F or VDF)
One of the benefits of modern navigation and radio systems is that a pilot has the option of asking a
suitably equipped ground station for his relative bearing to or from that particular ground station.
This means that the pilot can determine his position (by using another VDF readout or NDB station) and
heading more accurately should he become disorientated.
Some aerodromes are equipped with radio aerials which can sense the direction of VHF-COM signals (i.e.
normal voice signals) received from an aeroplane.
This information is presented to the air traffic controller (usually the approach controller) as a radial line
on a Cathode Ray Tube similar to a radar screen or, with the most modern VDF equipment, as a very
accurate digital readout of bearing.
The controller can then advise the pilot of his bearing relative to the aerodrome. This is known as Very
High Frequency Direction Finding, and is often abbreviated to VHF D/F or VDF.
An advantage of VDF is that no specific airborne equipment is required other than a VHF-COM, i.e. a
normal VHF communications radio.
A typical VDF air/ground exchange would be a pilot requesting ATC to provide his QDM (magnetic
bearing to the ground station), followed by the controller advising it. By steering the QDM, the pilot is
able to home to the ground station, i.e. head towards it. Consequently, ground stations that are
equipped to provide VDF are designated by the term Homer.
Whereas no special equipment is required in the aeroplane for VDF other than a VHF-COM radio, it does
require a special installation at the ground station.
Two typical designs for VDF aerials at aerodromes are the H-type aerial (a double-H dipole aerial in
technical terms), or the Doppler-type VDF aerial.
Bearings that a pilot may request from a VDF operator are:
QDM: magnetic bearing TO the station;

QDR: magnetic bearing FROM the station (i.e. the reciprocal of the QDM);
QTE: true bearing from the station.
At typical light aircraft speeds, it is reasonable for the pilot to request a QDM each half-minute or so to
check tracking, and to modify heading if necessary.
Accuracy and Errors
The main problem associated with VDF is that of wind drift. If the pilot is flying in unknown wind
conditions, any bearing he is given by the ground station assumes that there is no wind, and so no
allowance is made to the bearing.
As successive bearings are obtained, the pilot should be able to see that he is drifting left or right of the
desired track and therefore make the appropriate adjustments to his heading.
The quality of the bearings obtained by VDF is classified by the VDF ground operator to the pilot as:
Class A: accurate to within +/-2°

Class B: accurate to within +/-5°
Class C: accurate to within +/-10°
Class CAP 46 also lists some Class D VDF Stations with an accuracy poorer than even +/-10°.
Most modern equipment is generally accurate to +/-1°, although accuracy may be decreased by:
VDF site errors such as reflection from nearby uneven ground, buildings, aircraft or vehicles; and VHF
propagation errors caused by irregular propagation over differing terrain, especially if the aeroplane is at
long range from the VDF ground station.
What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
VHF radio
VOR
VOR/DME
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground VDF
facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:
134 NM
Max theoretical range (in nm) = 1.23 x square root of H1 + 1.23 x square root of H2
H1 = height of the transmitter (in feet above msl)
H2 = height of the receiver (in feet above msl)
Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft

It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC
When conducting a QGH approach responsibility for interpreting the procedure rests with "the
Controller" and on a VDF approach responsibility rests with "pilot"
GCA: Ground Controlled Approach. This usually follows a QGH/controlled Descent Through Cloud (CDTC)
which ideally positions the aircraft to 5 to 10 miles in line with the landing runway at about 1,500 feet
above the ground. From there the pilot usually changes radio channels and is taken over by a ground
radar controller on the airfield. He uses the local airfield radar to talk the pilot down on to the runway.
Descent is begun at about 5 nautical miles at about 300 feet per minute.
If, when you are requesting a QDM from an airfield, you are offered a QGH, it means:
"the VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the airfield, based on VDF
bearings"
With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the ground station is a: "QTE"
In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an
aircraft's position?
When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz

When contacting ATC to join controlled airspace from the open FIR
When declaring an emergency on any frequency
On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary
Which of the following does NOT affect the accuracy of VDF bearings:
sky waves
duct propagation
ground reflections
synchronous transmissions
The range at which you can obtain a VDF bearing can be influenced by:
time of day
type of surface
height of aircraft
intensity of ionisation
The VDF Homer service provides:
Accurate bearings on demand

A QGH procedure to transiting aeroplanes
Bearings which will normally be within ±5o accuracy to a range of 200NM
Bearings which may be affected by synchronous transmissions
An aircraft wishing to use the VDF service must:
Be equipped with a VOR indicator unit

Transmit a signal for a long enough period for the bearing to be established
Ask the controller to transmit for a long enough period to establish the bearing
Be within 10NM of the VDF aerial
An aeroplane requesting a VDF bearing should:

Avoid banking during transmission
Not pass overhead VDF aerial
Ensure that ratio silence is maintained
Transmit on 121.5 MHz
The signal quality may be reduced if the aircraft does not fly straight and level. This is because the radio
signals are vertically polarised and reception is optimal when the aircraft has only a small amount of
pitch and bank. To ensure a good reception of the signal, avoid requesting bearings or heading to steer
during steep turns.
The VDF class B bearing is accurate to within:
±1°
±2°
±3°
±5°

When a pilot is conducting a VDF/QGH procedure, he will require:
an operator on the ground only for the VDF procedure

an operator on the ground only for the QGH procedure
an operator on the ground for both the VDF and QGH procedures
no operator on the ground for either VDF or QGH procedures
With reference to ground DF, the controller can refuse to give bearings if:
the requesting aircraft is not from a consenting country

conditions are poor and bearings do not fall within the station's classified limits
the pilot does not use the prescribed terminology
An aircraft is HOMING to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic
heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
left drift
right drift
a wind from the west
zero drift
Magnetic heading decreases = Wind from left = Drift towards right
An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
a beam rotating at 20 Hz
bi-local circular
a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
omnidirectional
Using an NDB it is possible to experience which of the following errors or limitations?
Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect

Night effect, station interference and latitude error
Night effect, station interference and lack of a failure warning system
Coastal refraction, timing error and lack of a failure warning system
Timing error and latitude error are the odd ones.
Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
height error - station interference - mountain effect

static interference - station interference - latitude error
static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system
coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect
Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF:
selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect

night effect, quadrantal error, lane slip
mountain effect, station interference, static interference
selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal error
Which of the following factors could cause an error of an ADF bearing of an NDB?
Scalloping
Atmospheric scatter
Phase interference
Night effect
Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day

Frequency drift at the ground station
Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
What gives the greatest error in ADF:
Coastal effect
Night effect
Static interference from thunderstorms
Quadrantal error
Which combination gives the greatest reduction in reliability of ADF:
Station interference; Static interference; Lane slip

Mountain effect; Station interference; site error
Night effect; Static interference; Quadrantal error
Nigh effect; Quadrantal error; Station interference
Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?
static interference, height effect, lack of failure warning

station interference, mountain effect, selective availability
coastal refraction, slant range, night effect
lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference
With a transmission from an NDB aerial, the ___ component travels in the ___ plane and the signal is
___ polarised.
magnetic; horizontal; vertically

electrical; horizontal; vertically
electrical; vertical; horizontally
magnetic; vertical; horizontally
The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
find the loop NULL position

stop loop rotation
hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON
hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal
The purpose of the BFO switch on the ADF receiver is to make the signal audible
When receiving an NDB signal on an ADF receiver the BFO can be selected OFF for the:
tone signal on N0NA1A

ident signal on N0NA1A
tone signal on N0NA2A
ident signal on N0NA2A
The first symbol describes the transmitted waveform, the second describes the modulation and the
third describes the type of information carried. Emission
Classification: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/v ... .php?t=809
When considering the propagation of ADF transmissions night effect is most pronounced:
at dusk and dawn

during the long winter nights
at or near the coast
when flying at low altitude
In order to obtain an ADF bearing the: "signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials"
An ADF uses a sense aerial to: "resolve ambiguous bearings".
An NDB signal crossing from land to sea will ___ speed and bend ___ the normal.
decrease, towards
increase, towards
decrease, away from
increase, away from
Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the
NDB is:
inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
When ADF equipment which incorporates a sense aerial and a loop aerial is tuned to a NDB and the
loop aerial is rotated so that a sharp null is found the aerial is:
either at right angles or in line with the incoming signals

in line with the incoming signals
at right angles to the incoming signals
aligned with the aircraft nose
Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused
by:
misalignment of the loop aerial

signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wing
signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
sky wave/ground wave contamination
Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF
bearings?
Coastal effect
Local thunderstorm activity
Quadrantal error
Precipitation interference
ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers is 190 - 1750 kHz
The D layer of the ionosphere affects the accuracy of NDB bearings:
by day and night

by day only
by night only
never
Sky waves are refracted from the ionosphere. Where the ion density changes radio waves will be
refracted. Most of the refraction occurs about 125km up, at what is known as the E layer.
Night Effect which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB
transmissions, is due to:
sky wave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk
static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band
The accuracy of ADF within the DOC (designated OP coverage) by day is: +/-5 deg
The 95% accuracy for ADF bearings of an NDB by day is:
±2°
±7°
±10°
±3°
The signal to noise ratio for an NDB is ___ allowing a maximum error of ___ on 95% of occasions
during ___
3/1, ±5 degrees, daylight hours only

3/1, ±5 degrees, 24 hours
In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within
___ of the published approach track.
+/-10°
+/- 5°
+/- 2.5°
+/- 2°
An aircraft heading 315oM shows an NDB bearing 180o on the RMI. Any quadrantal error affecting the
accuracy of this bearing is likely to be:
zero, as quadrantal errors are not found on the RMI

at a maximum
at a minimum
zero, as quadrantal errors affect only the VOR
There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the
error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extend of the error is a position
line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180o and 360o
greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090o and 270o
greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland
An aircraft 10 nm from a north-south coastline takes two three-position line fixes from an inland NDB.
The aircraft's indicated position is:
Nearer to the coastline than its actual position

Further from the coastline than its actual position
Correct because the coastal refraction errors will cancel out because two fixes have been taken
Correct in azimuth but false in range
Speed of a surface wave is affected by the surface over which it travels (faster over water than land).
This change of speed means the wave is refracted at low altitude as it passes over a coastline.
Refraction is always towards the coast. An aircraft receiving a refracted wave would give a false
indication of the beacon's position. It will place the aircraft nearer to the coast than it actually is. This
effect is worse the further back from the coast the beacon is sited. It can be avoided by:
1) Taking bearings at right angles to the coast.
2) Flying at a higher altitudes.
3) Choosing beacons closer to the coast
A long range NDB is likely to transmit on ___ and be classified as ___ Select the answer to complete
this statement.
200 Khz; A2A

800 Khz; A2A
200 Khz; A1A
800 Khz; A1A
The first symbol describes the transmitted waveform. N = Unmodulated carrier, A = Double sideband.
The second describes the modulation. 0 = No modulation, 1 = Unmodulated digtal information, 2 =

Modulated digital informaton.
The third describes the type of information carried. N = No information, A = Morse.
The common designators used in aviation are:
N0N = NDB carrier wave

A1A = NDB ident
A2A = Alternative NDB ident
For details on Emission Classification click here: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/v ... .php?t=809
Older systems interrupt the carrier wave (Keying) to send an unmodulated (but also inaudible) Morse
code ident (classified as A1A). User will have also erratic indications while the signal is interrupted in
this type of beacon. To make the unmodulated parts of the signal audible, ADF equipment incorporates
a Beat Frequency Oscillator (BF0). More modern systems imprint the ident onto the carrier wave by
'keying' an audible, AM signal, in time with the Morse Code ident (classified A2A).
The BFO:
creates the audio ident for an NDB

is used to make the ident from an A2A NDB audible
is used to make the ident from an A1A NDB audible
is used to determine the signal strength of an NDB
According to another question the answer is: "hear the IDENT of NDBs using N0N A1A transmissions"
What actually happens in the ADF receiver when the BFO position is selected?
The BFO circuit is activated, and the receiver accepts only A1A modulated signals
The BFO circuit oscillates at an increased frequency in order to allow identification of A2A NDBs
The BFO circuit is de-activated
The BFO circuit imposes a tone onto the carrier wave to make the NDB's ident audible
The nominal maximum range of an NDB with a transmitter power is 200 watts is:
50 to 60 nm
100 to 120 nm
150 to 170 nm
200 to 200 nm
In another question it is mentioned 40 to 45 NM. Anyway among the options its always less than 100.
With regard to the following types of NDB which statements is correct?
Locators have 200 W power, 50 nm range and are N0N A2A

Locators have 15 W power, 10-25 nm range and are N0N A2A
An NDB aerial is (i) so as to ensure the range is (ii) by minimising (iii) due to (iv):
(i) horizontal; (ii) maximum; (iii) diffraction; (iv) the ground wave
(i) vertical; (ii) maximum; (iii) attenuation; (iv) energy losses to the surface
(i) horizontal; (ii) maximum; (iii) refraction; (iv) the D layer
(i) vertical; (ii) maximum; (iii) attenuation; (iv) atmospheric refraction
What according to ICAO Annex 10 is the range of a locator?
50 - 100 NM
25 - 50 NM
10 - 25 NM
100 - 300 NM
Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
The range is limited to the line of sight

Aircraft height is not limiting for the reception of signals from the NDB
The range of an NDB will most likely increase at day time compared to night time
The transmitter power of the NDB station has no affect on the range
When using ADF (i)BY NIGHT, the accuracy is (ii)LESS than (iii)BY DAY, because the surface wave
is (iv) CONTAMINATED BY SKY WAVES
Snow will NOT affect ADF.
An NDB has a range of 50 nm with a power output of 80 watts: The power required to increase the
range to 75 nm is:
120 watts
150 watts
180 watts
320 watts
If an NDB signal is received at a range of 1000 nm:
The signal is a surface wave and is quite usable

It will be a ground wave and will be inaccurate
It is a space wave and will be inaccurate
It is a sky wave and is inaccurate
For long range NDBs the most common type is:
LF N0N A1A
LF N0N A2A
MF N0N A1A
MF N0N A2A
If an NDB has a published range of 30 nm, its accuracy is: "only guaranteed by day to that range"
VOR operates in the VHF, transmitting a bearing signal by means of a Rotating Limacon and
uses Phase Comparison to determine the radial.
The phase difference between the reference and variable signals on QDM 050° (VAR 10°W) for a
conventional VOR is:
050°
040°
230°
220°
An aircraft is flying on the true track 090o towards a VOR station located near the equator where the
magnetic variation is 15oE. The variation at the aircraft position is 8oE. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
255
278
262
285
90° towards VOR means on radial 270°. Variation east magnetic least. Since this is the case of VOR,
variation at VOR will be considered and not aircraft, so 270 - 15 = 255.
The frequency range of a VOR receiver is: 108 to 117.95 MHz
An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1
dot = 2o deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the
limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
6.0
3.0
4.5
1.5
1 in 60 rule. Track Error = (Distance Off Track x 60) / Distance Along Track
Airway = 10NM wide so an aircraft at the limit of the airway would be 5NM from centre line and 100NM
from the VOR.
So Distance Off Track = 5NM and the Distance Along Track = 100NM.
TE = (5 x 60) / 100
TE = 300 / 100 = 3
2° is 1 dot
1° is 1/2 dots (0.5)
3° would be 0.5 x 3 = 1.5 dots
When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly?
a constant track
a great circle track
a rhumb line track
a constant heading
Refer to figure. An aircraft is attempting to track 186°M on an airway defined by a VOR 80 nm away.
The VOR indicates the aircraft position. With these indications the aircraft is on the ___ radial and ___ the
airway.
001° outside
181° inside
001° inside
181° outside
186 course TO means radial 006.
The deviation bar is deviated to the left that means we are right of radial 006.
Each dot and the edge of the bulls eye (center circle) equates to a 2 degree deviation.
That means we are 5 degree right of radial 006. That makes it 001.
Applying the 1 in 60 rule
TE = (Distance Off Track x 60) / Distance Along Track
Distance Off Track = TE x 80 / 60
TE = 5 degrees (006 - 001)
Distance Off Track = 5 x 80 / 60 = 6.6 nm
For a 10 nm wide airway, lateral limit from the center of the airway will be be 5 nm. So 6.6 nm is out of
the airway lateral limits.
An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300o, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330. The
indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are fly:
left with FROM showing

right with TO showing
right with FROM showing
left with TO showing
Going TO the VOR with OBS 330 means radial selected is 150. This is left of radial of 120.
An aircraft is on a heading of 100 degrees (m) from a VOR. To make the VOR/ILS deviation indicator
needle centralise with the TO flag showing, the following bearing should be selected on the OBS:
100 degrees
110 degrees
290 degrees
280 degrees
The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR:
Is always directed towards the aircraft

Is like a figure of 8
Is a pencil beam
Rotates at 30 revolutions per second
The VOR ground station consists of a cylindrical cover containing a horizontal dipole which is spinning
clockwise at a rate of 30 revolutions a second.
Slots in the cylinder combined with the rotating dipole produce a limacon shaped polar diagram which
also rotates at 30 revolutions a second. The ADF cardioid has a sharp null, but VOR limacon does not. To
a receiver listening to the signal the amplitude appears to go up and down 30 times a second as the
limacon rotates.
Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional
VOR is correct?
The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it rotates
The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the
characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation
The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side of the allocated
frequency each time it rotates
The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the reference signal
The basic principle of operation of a standard VOR is by:
phase comparison between a 108 Mhz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal
phase difference between a frequency modulated reference signal and an amplitude
modulated variable signal
phase comparison between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a frequency modulated
variable signal
phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 108 Mhz variable signal
Just to remember (for conventional/standard VORs), "ReFerence" has an "F" so it is "F" (Frequency)
Modulated.
The received signal is amplitude modulated (AM) at 30 Hz. The exact phase of the AM signal differs
depending on the bearing of the aircraft from the VOR.
To detect this phase difference, an omni-directional reference signal (also at 30 Hz) is also sent out by
the transmitter. In order that the two 30 Hz modulations can be distinguished the reference signal is
frequency modulated (FM).
The signals are arranged so that the reference signal and the variphase signal are in phase to the
magnetic north of the station. Anywhere else will show a phase difference between 0° and 360°. The
receiving aircraft looks at the phase difference between the FM reference signal and the AM variphase
signal and displays it as a radial, a QDR. No phase difference means the receiver is on the 360° radial. A
phase difference of 150° means it is on the 150° radial.
If true bearings are desired the variation at the station must be used in the conversion. This is because
the radials are referenced to magnetic north at the station, rather than at the aircraft.
The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90o out of phase on
magnetic EAST.
Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?
Scalloping
Coastal refraction
Quadrantal error
Night effect
Reflections from terrain and man made obstructions can cause errors as two signals with different
phase differences intefere. This will cause the course deviation indicator on the VOR indicator to move
rapidly from side to side - too fast for an aircraft to follow - and it will make the needle on an RMI
wobble. The effect is known as scalloping or, when reflections come from very near the beacon, site
error. The unauthorised use of Passenger Electronic Devices can create a similar effect. Scalloping
should be differentiated from 'beam bends' which are also caused by reflections from buildings but
which are more predictable slight curves within the system tolerances.
Because of its higher frequency and line of sight transmission VOR is free from sky wave interference
and coastal refraction. Any bending of the signal by the structure of the aeroplane would not affect the
indicated bearing so quadrantal error does not exist with VORs.
The quoted accuracy of VOR is valid:
At all times
By day only
By night only
At all times except dawn and dusk
Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
static interference
uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
night effect
quadrantal error
The VOR system is limited to about 1o of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM represents a width of:
2.0 NM
3.5 NM
2.5 NM
3.0 NM
1 in 60 rule. Distance off track = 200/60 = 3.33 nm (3.5 the closest answer)
Using a VOR outside the DOC may result in interference from:
other beacons
other aircraft
sky waves
ground waves
interference from other VORs operating on the same frequency, interference from other transmitters.
With reference to the VOR:
Failure of the monitor will cause the beacon to cease its ident
A typical VOR frequency is 118.15 Mhz
The TO/FROM indicator shows whether the aircraft is heading towards or away from the beacon
Wide coverage is obtained from only a few beacons
VOR transmitter is monitored to make sure it puts out bearings accurate to ± 1°. If the monitor detects
a greater bearing error the transmitter is shut down and a standby transmitter is brought on line. A
station will also be shut down if the signal strength drops by more than 15% or if the monitor fails.
During the transfer period the station ident ceases or is replaced by a continuous tone. The ident is
resumed when the standby transmitter is operating within limits.
An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus
or minus 5.5o. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum
distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
165 NM
50 NM
105 NM
210 NM
1 in 60.
TE = Dist Off Track/Dist Along Track x 60
5.5 = 5 / Dist Along Track x 60
Dist Along Track = 54.5
Between two VORs = 54.5 x 2 = 109 nm
An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading
of 090o. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135o.
The available information from the VOR is:
Radial 315o, relative bearing unknown

Radial unknown, relative bearing 225o
Radial unknown, relative bearing 045o
Radial 135o, relative bearing unknown
For explanation see the following links:
http://www.easaatp.com/forums/11/118-fr ... vor-radial
http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=12618
http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=6502
If the compass providing information to the RMI suddenly gets a 20o deviation:
the magnetic track to the VOR station may be read on the compass card under the tip of the VOR
the number of the received radial may still be read on the compass card under the tail of the VOR
needle
the relative bearing to the VOR, as observed on the RMI, will jump 20o
all 3 answers are correct
Refer to the diagram of a VOR/ILS deviation indicator. Assume that the indicator is set to define the
centreline of an airway, that the aircraft is 90 nm from the VOR and inbound to the facility. At the time of
observation the aircraft was located on radial:
063
253
245
243
OBS 248 with TO indication means selected radial is 068. Each dot and the edge of the bulls eye (center
circle) equates to a 2 degree deviation. That means we are right of radial 068 by 5 degrees. So the
aircraft is on radial 063.
The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR:

Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR
Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the VOR
Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should manoeuvre the aircraft towards or from the
CDI needle
Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI indication
Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an airway at 100 nm from
the VOR beacon?
1.5 dots
1 in 60 rule. TE = 5/100 x 60 = 3 degrees
In a 5 dot CDI, 1 dot is 2 degrees. So 3 degree would be 1.5 dots
An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable
VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
10 deg or more
In a conventional VOR the direction of rotation of the signal will be (i) and the variable signal is (ii). In
doppler VOR the reference signal is (iii) and the direction of rotation will (iv):
(i) Clockwise; (ii) FM; (iii) FM; (iv) Clockwise

(i) Anticlockwise; (ii) AM; (iii) AM; (iv) Clockwise
(i) Clockwise; (ii) AM; (iii) AM; (iv) Anticlockwise
(i) Anticlockwise; (ii) FM; (iii) AM; (iv) Anticlockwise
A VOT is: "A Test VOR"
With reference to a VOR, the cone of confusion is: "the area directly overhead a VOR"
An aircraft on a heading of 270o (M) has 093 set on the OBS and TO indicated on the VOR L/R
deviation indicator. The needle shows two dots fly left.
The aircraft is on the:
277 radial
089 radial
097 radial
269 radial
093 set on OBS with TO indication means the aircraft intends to fly radial 273 inbound towards the VOR.
Fly left indication means the aicraft is right of radial 273 (facing the VOR since the indication is TO).
You are on a compass heading of 090o on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course 190o on
your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
Full scale deflection right with a from indication

Full scale deflection left with a from indication
Full scale deflection left with a to indication
Full scale deflection right with a to indication
Give attention to the question where it says From a VOR, otherwise on radial 255 with TO indication, full
scale deflection towards right is also possible and is given in the answers. Here's a tool to visualize
[http://www.visi.com/~mim/nav]
Your aircraft is heading 075oM. The OBI is set to 025o. The VOR indications are TO with the needle
showing right deflection. Relative to the station, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
115 and 205

295 and 025
025 and 115
205 and 295
Locate your position, draw the radials and see in which quadrant you are.
A frequency most suitable for a terminal VOR would be:
108.20
108.15
108.10
118.05
Frequencies are between 108 MHz and 117.975 MHz. Between 108 MHz and 112 MHz the band is shared
with ILS so VOR frequencies are only allocated at EVEN 100 KHz spacing.
The Declared Operational Coverage of a VOR is:
An altitude and range limited by transmitter power

A range limited by transmitter power
An altitude and range limited by signal to noise ratio
A range limited by signal to noise ratio
When comparing conventional and Doppler VOR, which of the following applies to the Doppler VOR:
The reference and variphase signals are reversed but the phase difference remains the
same
The reference and variphase signals are the same but the phase difference is reversed
The reference and variphase signals are reversed and the phase relationship remains the same
The reference and variphase signals are reversed and the phase relationship is reversed
What are the indications to show that you are receiving a Doppler VOR: "There is no difference from
the conventional VOR indications"
With regard to the monitoring of a VOR, the monitor will remove the identification or switch off the
VOR transmitter if there is a change of measured bearing greater than: "1 degree"
An aircraft is inbound to VOR X on the 073 radial and has a Doppler drift of 12oL. A position report is
required when crossing the 133 radial from VOR Y. If the aircraft is on track the RMI indications at the
reporting point will be:
Heading ; 085 ; X Pointer ; 073 ; Y Pointer ; 133

When the term radial is used in reference to VOR it means: "The magnetic bearing from the VOR
station"
The maximum width of the cone of silence above a VOR at 30,000 ft is:
4.1 nm
8.2 nm
11.6 nm
5.8 nm
The ICAO limits of the cone of confusion are up to 50° from the vertical. 1 in 60 rule is a rule of thumb
used based on the small-angle approximation, so it will not give the correct answer. Trigonometry will
have to be used:
Tan of angle = opposite / adjacent
adjacent = height of aircraft (30,000 feet or 4.93 nm)
opposite = radius of the cone
Tan of 50° = Radius of the cone / 4.93
Radius of the cone = 5.87
Width of the cone = 5.87 x 2 = 11.74
A VOR indication of 240o FROM is given. Variation at the aircraft is 9W and at the VOR is 7W. The
heading o(T) in nil wind to reach the station is:
231
051
053
233
Magnetic radial 240, with 7W variation becomes 233 True. Going towards the station on radial 233, will
make the heading 053 (true).
An aircraft is maintaining an airway centreline of 000o defined by a VOR ahead of the aircraft.
Variation at the VOR is 5E. At 60 nm to go the QDM is 004. The aircraft's position relative to the airway
lateral boundary is:
3 nm inside the airways eastern boundary

1 nm inside the airways western boundary
1 nm outside the airways western boundary
1 nm inside the airways eastern boundary
A CDI indicates 275/TO with the needle showing 2.5 dots fly right. The aircraft is 20 nm from the
beacon on a heading of 330 M. The radial that the aircraft is on and the correct way to turn after
intercepting the required track to fly to the facility is:
092 right
100 left
272 right
280 left
275 TO means radial 095. Fly right 2.5 dots means left of radial 095 by 5 degrees which makes it 100.
Thats enough to select the right answer. However left turn is required to decrease the intercept angle
since on a heaing of 330 the intercept angle will be (330-275) 55 degrees.
You are homing to overhead a VORTAC and will descent from 7500 QNH to be 1000 AMSL by 6 nm
DME. Your ground speed is 156 knots and the ROD will be 800 fpm. At what range from the VORTAC do
you commence the descent?
27.1 nm
15.8 nm
11.7 nm
30.2 nm
Height to loose 7500-1000 = 6500 feet
ROD = 800 fpm
Time required = 6500/800 = 8.125 minutes or 0.1354 hours
Distance = GS (156) x Time (0.1354) = 21.12 nm
Since the level off is at 6 nm before VORTAC the distance to start descent is 21.12 + 6 = 27.1 nm[/img]
Given that the compass heading is 270°, the deviation is 2°W, the variation is 30°E and the relative
bearing of a beacon is 316°, determine the QDR:
044
048
074
224
Deviation west compass best, so magnetic heading will be 268.
Relative bearing is the bearing measured from the aircraft fore and aft axis.
Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing = Magnetic Bearing TO (QDM)
268 + 316 = 584
If the sum is more than 360 then subtract 360 from it to find the bearing.
584 - 360 = 224
If QDM = 224 then QDR = 044 (reciprocal of 224).
A relative bearing indicator shows 030o. The heading of the aeroplane is 090o M. The intercept angle
for a course to the NDB of 180o M is:
120°
030°
150°
060°
If you are flying a heading of 090°M and the Relative Bearing to the NDB is 030°R then the bearing to
the NDB is 120°M.
HDG + RB = BEARING TO
090°M + 030°R = 120°M

A course TO the NDB of 180°M is equal to a course FROM the NDB of 360°M. The quickest way to
intercept the course of 360°M FROM the NDB is to continue your heading of 090°M, which isn't an option
provided. Flying 120°M will take you directly to the NDB. Flying 150°M will take you South of the NDB,
intercepting a course of 180°M FROM the NDB. Flying 030°M or 060°M WILL take you to the course of
360°M FROM the NDB but not in the shortest route. Of the options provided I would go for 060°M as the
quickest option but 030°M will give you an intercept angle of 030°. A very poorly worded question
indeed!!!
Source: [http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=13473]
An RMI shows the bearing of an NDB as 020o. The heading of the aeroplane is 020o M. In order to
intercept an outbound course of 330o (from the NDB) at an angle of 40o, the aeroplanes heading should
be altered to:
010
330
300
040
An aeroplanes RMI shows an NDB bearing 070°, w/v calm. The aeroplane is to join a right hand
holding pattern at the NDB, the inbound leg of which is 330°. The aeroplane should:
fly to the NDB and join the pattern

fly to the NDB then fly outbound on 150° for 1 minute
fly to the NDB then fly a teardrop with an outbound heading of 120o for 1 minute and a rate one turn to
join in bound
fly to the NDB then fly choose either (B) or (C) above as preferred
An aeroplane is flying parallel to a coast. Which of the following NDBs will give the greatest costal
refraction LOP error?
NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 330

NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 300
An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316o from an aircraft.

Given:
Compass heading 270

At aircraft deviation 2W, Variation 30E
At station Variation 28E
Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft:
252
254
072
074
Since its NDB and not VOR, aircraft variation/deviation will be used.
Deviation west compass best, so magnetic heading will be 268.
Relative bearing is the bearing measured from the aircraft fore and aft axis.
Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing = Magnetic Bearing TO
268 + 316 = 584

If the sum is more than 360 then subtract 360 from it to find the bearing.
584 - 360 = 224
So Magnetic bearing TO (To NDB from A/C) = 224
Variation East magnetic least.
So True bearing TO (To NDB from A/C) = 224+30 = 254.
Given:
W/V (T): 230/20 kt

Var: 6E
TAS: 80 kt
What relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of
257o (M) from overhead the beacon?
172
188
008
352
This can be done without calculations. On an outbound course of 257 from overhead the beacon with no
wind, relative bearing would be 180. With wind from left and heading towards the wind to maintain
track, relative bearing will increase a little from 180. 188 is a reasonable option amongst others.
If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090 and the ADF pointer indicates 225, the relative bearing to the
station will be:
135
Impossible to read, due to the RMI failure
315
225
Just visualize.
Heading + RB = Bearing TO
RB = 225 - 090 = 135
On the QDR of 075o (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295o, the relative
bearing on the ADF indicator is:
140
040
220
320
Heading + RB = Bearing TO
QDR = 75 so QDM = 255
RB = 255 - 295 = -40
Just visualize
-40 + 360 = 320

On which of the following displays are you able to get a direct read-out (no calculation is necessary
from the pilot) of the magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB? "Moving card ADF and RMI"
An aircraft is tracking 060o (T) in still air. The relative bearing of an NDB is 035o at 1300. 12 min later
the relative bearing is 070o. If the G/S is 180kt, what is the aircraft's distance from the NDB at 1312:
18 nm
36 nm
24 nm
30 nm
Groundspeed = 180 knots

Time from A to B = 12 minutes
Therefore, distance from A to B = 36 NM
Relative Bearing from A to NDB at A = 035°

Relative Bearing from B to NDB at B = 070°
A triangle is formed (A - B - NDB)

Internal angle at A = 035°
Internal angle at B = 110°
Therefore, Internal angle at NDB = 180° - (110° + 035°) = 035°
Angles at A and NDB are equal, therefore this is an Isosceles Triangle and as such the adjacent lines at A
- B and B - NDB must also be equal.
A - B = 36 NM
Therefore, B - NDB = 36 NM
To maint ain the 314o QDR inbound to a NDB with 7o starboard drift, the heading in oM and relative
bearing will be:
321; 173
127; 007
141; 353
307; 183
Without drift the QDM and therefore heading will be 134. Starboard drift means wind from the left. So to
maintain track, heading into the wind. 134 - 7 = 127.
The indications of a VOR in an aircraft tracking towards a VOR are 075o (M) TO and deviation indicator
central. A co-located NDB shows 012o relative. What are the drift and heading in o(M)?
12S; 087
12P; 063
12S; 063
12P; 087
012 relative bearing means the wind is from the left. Had it been from the right, the relative bearing
would have been 348. It's measured clockwise from the nose of the aircraft.
Which of the following lists information required to input a way point or Phantom Station into a basic
VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the way point or Phantom Station
Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the way point or Phantom Station
Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the way point or Phantom Station
Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the way point or Phantom Station
A common general aviation RNAV system is the track-line computer (TLC), based on azimuth and
distance information from a VORTAC. It is also called the RHO-THETA system. With the track-line
computer the pilot effectively moves or off-sets the VORTAC to any desired location if it is within
reception range.
This "phantom station" is created by setting the distance (RHO) and the bearing (THETA) of the
waypoint from a convenient VORTAC in the appropriate windows of the waypoint selector. A series of
these "phantom stations" or waypoints make up an RNAV route.
The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
VOR/DME
TACAN
VOR
Airport
The colour of a VORTAC which is not in use by the FMC is: CYAN
ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft
operation on any desired flight path:
within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the
capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these
outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum
of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of
one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum
of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids
Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of: +/- 5 NM or better for 95% of the flight time.
Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of: "±1.0nm for 95% of the flight time"
Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system?
It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme

It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance
indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint
It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav- Mode and continues working by
memory in case one of the two necessary stations goes off the air
It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches
In an RNAV system which combination of external reference will give the most accurate position?
GPS/rho
Rho/theta
Rho/rho
GPS/theta
Rho is the Greek letter R, which stands for range. Theta is an angle. Thus a a rho/rho fix is made from
two ranges (e.g. DME/DME) and a rho/theta fix is a fix made from a range and an angle (e.g. VOR/DME).
On a 5 dot HSI in the RNAV approach mode (APR RNAV) what does one dot indicate?
0.25 nm
0.5 nm
1.0 nm
2.0 nm
In the RNAV Approach mode, maximum deflection of the CDI typically represents 1.25 NM on either side
of the selected course. That makes one dot equal to 0.25 nm (1.25/5).
The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system may be generated by:
VOR/DME
twin VOR
twin DME
any of the above
The operation of a 2D RNAV system may be seriously downgraded:
because the computer cannot determine if the aircraft is within the DOC of the programmed
facilities
because the computer cannot determine if the heading and altitude input are in error
because the pilot cannot verify the correct frequency has been selectged
if the selected navigation facility is in excess of about 70 nm
In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR:
has to be positively identified by one of the pilots

does not have to be in range when entered or used
must be in range
does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used
Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation
System Phantom Station:
because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other than 180o/360o)
it takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary information
when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the reference
station
when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station when the Phantom Station is out of range
RNAV routes are:
usually specified by waypoints co-incident with point source aids such as VOR, DME or NDB facilities
specified by waypoints defined as a position in latitude and longitude based on the WGS 84
system
selected according to TCAS inputs
none of the above are correct
With regard to RNAV, what are hybrid navigation systems?
RNAV systems which use and merge information from a selection of self- contained and
externally referenced navigation system
VOR/DME system
Loran C system
GNSS
What is an example of a self contained RNAV system?
GPS
DME/DME
VOR/DME
INS
With VOR/DME basic area navigation, the displacement of the CDI needle represents:
angular displacement from the course line (eg. 5 dots = 5o off track)
angular displacement from the course line (eg. 5 dots = 10o off track)
distance off track (eg. 5 dots = 5 nm off track)
distance off track (eg. 5 dots = 10 nm off track)
Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME bsed Area Navigation Equipment
when using a "Phantom Station" at position "X"?
11 NM
14 NM
8 NM
9 NM
In an FMS, how does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
the pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range on the VOR/DME Area navigation control panel
The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own VHF NAV tuner and the system itself
tunes the DME stations providing the best angular position lines
The VOR/DME Area Navigation system uses whatever stations are tuned on the aircraft's normal VHF
NAV selector
The VOR/DME Area Navigation System has its own VHF NAV tuner and it always tunes the DME stations
closest to the aircraft position
On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead reckoning mode?
Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs; TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the
aircraft compass
TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass
Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs
TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass; the last computed W/V
In navigation, dead reckoning (also ded (for deduced) reckoning or DR) is the process of calculating
one's current position by using a previously determined position, or fix, and advancing that position
based upon known or estimated speeds over elapsed time, and course.
Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead
Reckoning mode?
VOR/DME Area Navigation Computer is not receiving information from the Air Data Computer
VOR/DME Area Navigation Computer is receiving neither radial nor distance data information
from VOR/DME stations
VOR/DME Area Navigation Computer is not receiving information from the aircraft compass system
When "DR" is selected by the pilot
Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead
Reckoning mode?
The system is receiving information from only one VOR

The system is receiving information from one VOR and one DME
The system is receiving information from one VOR and two DMEs
The system is receiving information from the two DMEs
i.e. not enough data is being provided.
Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System
when tracking inbound to a phantom waypoint?
Wind velocity
Aircraft position in latitude and longitude
Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance
True airspeed; drift angle
When operating in an RNAV mode using multiple DME, inaccuracy can be due to:
Sky wave interference

Mutual interference between the DMEs
Inability to confirm the aircraft is within the DOC of the DMEs because of identification
problems
The DMEs locking onto each other's returns
The range to a required waypoint presented by RNAV system is:
plan range or slant range depending on RNAV settings

plan range
slant range
neither plan range nor slant range
If the RNAV system is using DME as an input then this will introduce slant range errors. Modern RNAV
systems compensate for slant range errors, but earlier systems probably do not do so.
Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation
System?
Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance; angular course deviation

Aircraft position in latitude and longitude
Wind velocity
True airspeed; drift angle
Given:
Aircraft heading 160o (M)

Aircraft is on radial 240o from a VOR
Selected course on HSI is 250o
The HSI indications are deviation bar:
ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing

ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
On an HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator) used in combination with a VOR receiver:
A pictorial presentation of aircraft deviation relative to VOR radials is provided

The lubber line will indicate the reciprocal value of the received radial
The lubber line will indicate the selected radial
There will be no Omni Bearing Selector knob, as this function is automatic on this type of indicator
When using a two dot HSI, a deviation of one dot from the computed track represents
a) 2°
b) 5°
c) 5 nm
d) 2 nm
The phrase "computed track" suggests an RNAV system. On a 2 dot HSI, one dot = 2.5 nm (assuming
enroute phase). I guess option (d) is the closest if my assumptions are correct. Incase of VOR navigation,
on a 2 dot HSI, one dot = 5°
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the: "UHF band and is a secondary radar system"
The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
329 to 335 MHz

962 to 1213 KHz
962 to 1213 MHz
108 to 118 MHz
What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the same
identification?
2000 m
60 m
600 m
6m
Associated beacons are beacons with the same ident. For VORs and DMEs to be associated they must be
less than 100ft (30m) apart if used as a terminal aid. If used for any other purpose they must be less
than 2000ft (600m) apart. Associated TACANs and VORs are called VORTACs.
When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in the Morse code every 30
seconds?
4 identifications in the same tone

4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone
4 identifications with the DME at a lower tone
no DME identification, but if the VOR identification is present and a range is indicated then this shows
that both are serviceable.
When beacons are associated the three letter Morse ident is sent every seven and a half seconds. One
comes from the DME, the next three from the VOR. The pitch of the DME ident is often higher than the
VOR ident. If beacons fail to meet these criteria they may be given similar idents. A DME within 6NM of
an en-route VOR might have the last letter of its ident changed to Z. e.g. the VOR ident might be LIP
and the DME LIZ.
A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the call sign. Having
heard the same call sign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
VOR and DME call signs were the same and broadcast with the same pitch
DME call sign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation
DME call sign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times
DME call sign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once
A VOR and DME are frequency paired. The DME identification ends with Z. This denotes that:
The two beacons are co-located

The beacons are supporting the same site but are not co-located
The beacons are greater than 2000 m apart
The beacons are at the same location but are more than 1000 m apart
In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is coding STZ. This means that
the distance between the two beacons is in excess of: "600 m"
An aircraft at FL 360 is 10 nm plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft will be: "11.7
nm"
a = height (36000 feet = 5.92 nm)

b = Plan range (10 nm)
c = Slant Range (DME reading)
The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmission and reject replies to other
aircraft interrogations because:
transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft

pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed from each other
pulse pairs are discrete to a particular aircraft
The aircraft transmits a stream of pairs of pulses to the ground station. The two pulses in each pair are
separated by 12 micro seconds. After a short delay of 50 microseconds the ground station then
retransmits them. The time delay between sending and receiving the pulses is converted to a range
readout. The aircraft equipment is known as the interrogator, as it initiates the exchange. The ground
equipment is called a transponder as it replies. The aeroplane must distinguish between its own pulses
returning and those of other aircraft. So the pulse trains are made unique to each aeroplane by using a
random or "jittered" PRF. Therefore the time interval between the paired pulses is random and the
chance of two pulse trains being identical is effectively nil. The aeroplane must distinguish between
retransmitted pulses from the transponder and reflected pulses from the ground. To overcome this the
transponder on the ground retransmits at a different frequency, 63 MHz apart from the interrogator. To
make sure that the ground equipment is not triggered by other UHF transmissions it will only reply to
pairs of pulses separated by 12 micro seconds.
An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
the pulse recurrence rates are varied

DME transmits twin pulses
they are not on the receiver frequency
DME uses the UHF band
A DME that has difficulty obtaining a lock-on: (NOTE: PRF = pulse recurrence frequency, PPS = pulses
per second)
alternates search mode with periods of memory mode lasting 10 seconds

stays in search mode without a reduction in PRF
stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 100 seconds
stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 15000 pulse pairs have been
transmitted
Although the PRF is randomised, it averages out to about 150 pulses per second when the aircraft starts
to interrogate the DME. It drops to 60 pulses per second after 15,000 pulse pairs. The airborne
equipment searches through the possible ranges looking for a match at which point it locks on and the
PRF drops to about 24 pulses a second. The ground equipment has a limited capacity and adjusts its
gain to only handle the strongest 2700 pulses a second. Since the PRF averages out to about 150 pulses
per second when the aircraft starts to interrogate the DME. This means that only 18 (2700/150)
searching aircraft can use the facility or 112 (2700/24) locked on aircraft as the PRF drops to about 24
pulses a second after lock on. In practice there is a bit of each and about 100 aircraft can be served at
once. Ground equipment will answer the strongest signals not the nearest aircraft.
The DME ground transponder has a PRF of: 2700 pulses per second
For a conventional DME facility Beacon Saturation will occur whenever the number of simultaneous
interrogations exceeds:
80
100
200
60
How many aircraft will DME accommodate before reaching saturation: 100
The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment
(DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second.
The slant range from the ground transponder was:
165 NM
186 NM
296 NM
330 NM
Source: [http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=10911].
The Interrogation signal travels from the Airborne Interrogator to the Ground Transponder where the
frequency is adjusted by +/- 63 MHz, a process which takes 50 microseconds; the Reply signal then
returns to the Interrogator. Using the process of Propagation Delay (Distance = Speed x Time) the
Interrogator then calculates the distance to the Transponder, i.e. the direct line-of-sight DME Slant Range
to the DME Ground Station.
The simplest way of calculating this is to remember that 1 Radar Mile = 12.36 microseconds, which is
the time taken for a signal to travel from a Radar to a Target and back to the Radar.
For DME distance, simply take the time delay, subtract 50 microseconds and divide by 12.36
microseconds and you have your answer.
2000 - 50 = 1950
1950 / 12.36 = 158 NM
Other wise the normal calculation is Distance = Velocity x Time
= ( 3 x 10^8 ) x ( 1950 x 10^-6 )
= 585000 meters or 315.6 nm
Since 315.6 nm is from interrogator to transponder and then back to interrogator, the diatnce between
the two is 315.6/2 = 158
If a VOR station and a DME station, having different locations, are selected to provide a fix:
two difference IDs will have to be checked

two positions, being ambiguous, will be presented
two sets, with separate frequency control, are required in the aircraft
all 3 answers above are correct
In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most
closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL 400?
When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it

When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more
When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit
When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM
DME indicates the slant range to the beacon. At distances in nautical miles greater than the aircraft
height in thousands of feet this difference is negligible. Close to the beacon it is not. Groundspeed is not
accurate when passing abeam a station, only when flying directly TO or FROM the beacon.
A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the
equipment in the first instance to:
standby mode
search mode
memory mode
signal controlled search
There is a memory function that allows the range to continue counting down at the same rate if the
signal is temporarily interrupted. After 8 to 10 seconds the off flag will come up or, with an LED display,
the range will not be displayed.
The accuracy of a DME:

is approximately ±0.5nm
decreases with increase of range
increases with increase of altitude
is approximately ±2 nm
ICAO require accuracy of 0.25 nm plus 1.25% in slant range measurement for systems installed before
01 January 1989. Systems installed after that date must have a slant range error of less than 0.2 NM on
95% of occasions.
ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should
not exceed:
+ or - 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance measured whichever is the greater

+ or - 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured
+ or - 0.25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a maximum of 5 NM
+ or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured
The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error
should not exceed:
+ or - 1.5 NM
+ or -3 NM
+ or -0.25 NM
+ or - 1.25 NM
0.25 nm plus 1.25%
1.25% of 100 is 1.25, so 1.25 + 0.25 = 1.5
Groundspeed measurement using DME equipment is most accurate flying:
from the station at long range

over the station
towards the station at short range
past the station at short range
The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL 210, fails to achieve lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210 nm.
The reason for this is:
the beacon is saturated

the aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME
the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
the aircraft signal is too weak at that range to trigger a response
Where a DME uses mechanical counters for displaying the range, continuous rotation of the counters
means: "The DME is in a search mode"
On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:
ground equipment failure

airborne equipment failure
the airborne receiver is conducting a range search
the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search
A DME transmitter is operating in the search-for-lock phase. Which of the following statements is
correct?
the PRF increases, the range counters count down from maximum, the output power is increased
The PRF increases and the range counters count up from 300 to maximum
The PRF increases and the range counters count down from the maximum
The PRF increases and the power is increased
Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
A VOR station sited on the flight route

A DME station sited across the flight route
A DME station sited on the flight route
An ADF sited on the flight route
The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
DME pulse recurrence rates are varied

aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies
reflections are subject to Doppler frequency shift
DME transmits twin pulses
Height error has the greatest effect on accuracy when an aeroplane is:
over the base line extensions at low altitude

at the base line bisector at low altitudes
at the base line bisector at high altitude
over the base line extension at high altitude
An aircraft at FL 300, with a ground speed of 300 kt, is about to pass overhead a DME station at MSL.
The DME receiver is capable of determining ground speed. One minute before the overhead, DME speed
and distance indications are respectively:
300 kt and 7 NM
less than 300 kt and 7 NM
less than 300 kt and 5 NM
300 kt and 5 NM
What the question means is that the DME receiver installed in the aircraft can output both Distance and
Groundspeed, as opposed to merely Distance. DME equipment in isolation does not have a height input,
therefore it can only calculate direct, line-of-sight, Slant Range to the target. This is not the same as
Ground Range. In order to calculate an accurate Groundspeed we would need an accurate distance
OVER THE GROUND and an accurate time. Without a height input we cannot calculate an accurate
distance over the ground, based merely on time only. It must therefore rely on the Rate of Change of
Range, e.g. how much has the range changed over the last minute. At greater distances the RoCoR is
fairly constant and relatively slow whereas, as the aircaft approaches the DME the RoCoR increases. As
a result, at close ranges where DME Slant Range and Ground Range differ significantly, the DME has a
steep RoCoR to input against time which outputs an innacurate Groundspeed, always under-reading
slightly. Source: [http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=12418]
Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?
Two lines of position obtained from two different DME's give an unambiguous fix
The DME operating frequencies are in the UHF frequency band
DME is a radar type of facility and its maximum range is limited by:
The pulse repetition interval
The height of the aeroplane
The transmitter power
The receiver sensitivity
In DME interrogation and responses are separated by 63 MHz in order to:
Avoid station saturation

Differentiate between precision and ordinary DME
Facilitate channel selection
Prevent self-triggering
A DME which is listed as operating on an 'X' channel is one which:
Is paired exclusively with an ILS frequency

Is paired exclusively with a TACAN frequency
Responds on a frequency 63 MHz higher than the interrogation frequency
Responds on a frequency 63 MHz lower than the interrogation frequency
See this link for detailed explanation: http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=4230
Interrogator and transponder operating frequencies are grouped into pairs, the two frequencies being
63 MHz apart. The airborne interrogator uses frequencies from 1025 MHz to 1150 MHz for
transmissions, while the ground based transponder answers on frequencies in two groups, 962 MHz to
1024 MHz (low) and from 1051 MHz to 1213 MHz high).The range of the interrogator frequencies from
1025 to 1150 gives 126 channels. To double the available channels to 252 the responses are split into
groups 63MHz higher or lower. For the first 63 interrogation channels from 1 to 63 an X beacon would
respond 63MHz lower and the Y beacon 63MHz higher. Where the interrogator channels are from 64 to
126 the X beacon would respond 63MHz higher and the Y beacon 63MHz lower.
The nominal maximum coverage of a DME station is:
150 nm at 20,000 ft
175 nm at 25,000 ft
190 nm at 25,000 ft
200 nm at 30,000 ft
How does the DME tell different aircraft apart: "By using a jittered PRF"
If a DME beacon becomes saturated by interrogations it:
It switches off its identification signal

Adjusts the gain to reply to the 100 strongest signals
Adjusts its PRF to cope with all aircraft
Replies to the nearest 100 aircraft
100 strongest not nearest signals.
When in tracking mode, the airborne interrogator operates at:
A PRR variable between 24 and 30 pulses per second

A PRR fixed at a rate selected from the range 24 to 30 PPS
A PRR of 150 PPS
A PRR of 2700 PPS
What use if any does TACAN provide to civilian users:
Bearing information only

Bearing and range information
Range information only (DME)
It is of no use to civilian pilots
A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to:
the surface of the runway

less than 50 ft
less than 100 ft
less than 200 ft
The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of:
300 MHz and is modulated by Morse at two dashes per second

200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in Morse
75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in Morse
75 MHz and is modulated by Morse at two dashes per second
The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are:
A blue light and 2 dashes per second of a 1300 Hz modulated tone

An amber light and alternate dots and dashes of a 1300 Hz modulated tone
A white light and 6 dots per second of a 30 Hz modulated tone
A blue light and 2 dashes per second of 400 Hz modulated tone
The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually
by a series of:
alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing

two dashes per second and a blue light flashing
dots and a white light flashing
dashes and an amber light flashing
The colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon is "blue - amber -
white"
Every 10 kt decrease in ground speed, on a 3o ILS glide path, will require an approximate:
increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
On a 3 degree Glide Path:
Rate of Descent = Ground Speed x 5
e.g. AT 150 kts Rate of descent should be (150 x 5) = 750 fpm.
10 kt decrease in GS means (10 x 5) 50 ft decrease in rate of descent.

The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25o glide slope at a ground speed of 140 kt is
approximately:
850 FT/MIN
800 FT/MIN
670 FT/MIN
700 FT/MIN
On Glide Paths other than 3 degrees:
Rate of Descent = Ground Speed x 5 x (Glide Path/3)
Rate of Descent = 140 x 5 x (3.25/3) = 758 fpm
An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from
both the localiser and glide path transmitters.
The ILS indication will show:

Fly right and fly down
Fly left and fly down
Fly right and fly up
Fly left and fly up
Using the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height on a 3 degree glide path of an aircraft 4.5 NM from
touchdown.
1480 ft
1420 ft
1370 ft
1230 ft
3 = height/4.5 x 60
height = 1368 feet
The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200o. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localiser needle
will be:
right of centre
left of centre
centred
centred with the fail flag showing
The sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter when: "category II/III ILS operations are
in progress"
ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from: "multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical
plane"
For a category one ILS glide path of 3.3 degrees the coverage is:
1.49 to 5.77 degrees

The glidepath beams do not go all the way down to the surface. The lower lobe starts at 0.45 x GP angle
and the upper lobe ends at 1.75 x GP angle.
Lower Limit 3.3 x 0.45 = 1.49
Upper Limit 3.3 x 1.75 = 5.77
For detailed explanation see: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... .php?t=833
The coverage of the ILS glide slope with respect to the localiser centreline is: +/- 8 deg to 10 nm
The coverage of the ILS localiser at 17 nm is guaranteed up to an angle either side of the extended
centreline of: 35 degrees
Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit
display represent: 0.5 degrees
2.5/5 = 0.5
In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit? UHF
Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated? "On the
non-approach end of the runway about 300m from the runway on the extended centreline".
An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the
approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle: "may receive false course indications"
At 5.25 nm from the threshold an aircraft on an ILS approach has a display showing it to be 4 dots low
on a 3 degree glide path. Using an angle of 0.15o per dot of glide slope deviation and the 1 in 60 rule
calculate the height of the aircraft from touchdown.
1280 ft
1325 ft
1375 ft
1450 ft
4 dots x 0.15° = 0.6°
3° - 0.6° = 2.4°
Height = 2.4 x 5.25 / 60 = 1276 ft
If the given distance (5.25nm) was from the point where the 3° glide started (beyond the threshold),
then 1276 ft would have been the height from touch down. But since the distance is given from the
threshold (i.e about 1000 feet less), we have to add 50 feet (glide path height over the threshold) to get
the right answer.
1276 + 50 = 1326 ft
Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

112,10 MHz
108,25 MHz
110,20 MHz
109,15 MHz
The ILS localiser works in the VHF band from 108 MHz to 111.95 MHz. This is shared with VORs, so the
localiser only uses odd 100 KHz frequencies and the odd frequencies plus 50 KHz.
The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are
transmitted on SAME frequencies and carry DIFFERENT MODULATION FREQUENCIES.
What frequency is assigned to all ILS marker beacons? 75 MHz
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A localiser back beam should only be used for approaches if there is a published procedure
All localisers have back beams. They provide guidance in the event of a missed approach
Localiser back beams are never checked for accuracy
A localiser back beam will always provide reversed steering signals
On a localiser the modulations are at 150 Hz and 90 Hz. Which of the following statements is correct?
The 90 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line

The 150 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line
If the 150 Hz modulations predominates, the needle on the CDI moves to the right of centre
When both modulations are received, the aeroplane will be on the centre line
The upper limit of the vertical coverage of the localiser must be:
not less than 300 m above the highest point on the approach
not less than 7° above the horizontal (drawn from the localiser)
not less than 600 m above the horizontal
not less than 35° above the horizontal
The glide path signals must be received to a range of 10 nm over a sector:
10o each side of the localiser centre line

10o wide centred on the localiser centre line
each side of the localiser centre line
8o wide centred on the localiser centre line
Which of the following is TRUE in respect of using ILS?
When using a CDI you must set the OBS to the localiser course
When using a CDI in the overshoot sector you must disobey the needles
When using an HSI you must set the course arrow to the localiser course
When using an HSI the glide path must be set before approach
A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from
coverage limit down to:
runway surface
200 feet above the inner marker
200 feet above the runway threshold
50 feet above ILS reference point
According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation below the glide path during
ILS approach? "Half scale deflection"
Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
2.5° above or below the correct glide path

On a typical 5 dot display: One dot of glideslope deviation is the equivalent of 0.15° displacement with
full scale deflection being 0.75° and one dot of localiser deviation is the equivalent of 0.5° displacement
with full scale deflection being 2.5°
What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
The difference in phase between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation
The difference in depth between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation
The bearing to the localiser antenna found by means of a loop antenna
The difference in time between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation
What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?
400 Hz
1300 Hz
3000 Hz
75 MHz
All ILS marker beacons transmit on the same carrier wave frequency of 75Mhz. The amplitude
modulation superimposed on that carrier that is different for the three markers. Outer marker 400Hz AM,
Middle marker 1300Hz AM, Inner marker 3000Hz AM.
Which of the following is correct regarding false beams on a glide path?
False beams will only be found more than 10 degrees

False beams will only be found above the correct glide path
False beams are only present when flying a back beam ILS approach
False beams will only be found below the correct glide path
Which range facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group?
Locator
Inner marker
Outer marker
Glide path
All radio beacons (NDB) except the compass locators transmit a continuous three-letter identification in
code except during voice transmissions. When a radio beacon is used in conjunction with the Instrument
Landing System markers, it is called a Compass Locator. Compass locator transmitters are often situated
at the MM and OM sites. They transmit two letter identification groups. The outer locator transmits the
first two letters of the localizer identification group, and the middle locator transmits the last two letters
of the localizer identification group.
Which of the following is true with respect to marker beacons?
An airway marker and an ILS inner marker carry the same modulation
Airway markers and ILS middle markers have the same modulations
Airway markers and ILS outer markers have the same modulations
No two markers have the same modulations
ILS marker beacons do not interfere with each other because:
They operate on different modulations

They operate at different frequencies
They transmit in narrow vertical beams
They transmit low power signals, which cannot be detected by the aeroplane's receiver
The azimuth and area coverage of a Cat I ILS localiser is: "35° at 17 nm, 10° at 25 nm"
An ILS localiser can give reverse sense indications on the approach side and outside the protected
coverage:
Beyond 25 nm
Beyond 35o azimuth either side of the approach
Beyond 10o azimuth either side of the approach
At anytime
The emission characteristics of the ILS and a typical localiser frequency are:
A9W329.30 MHz
A8W110.30 MHz
A9W110.70 MHz
A8W113.30 MHz
A = Double sideband (Transmitted waveform)
8 = Multi channel analogue informaton (Modulation)
W = Morse and voice (Information carried)
Emission Classification: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... .php?t=809
An aircraft is flying downwind outside the coverage of the ILS. The CDI indications will be: "unreliable
in azimuth and elevation"
In which band does the ILS glide path operate: "Decimetric".

Details: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... .php?t=809
To remember, VHF (the most common we use) is metric (the most familiar). Rest you can figure out.
The minima for a CAT 1 ILS are: Height: 200 ft ; RVR: 550 m
The minima for a CAT II ILS are: Height: 100 ft ; RVR: 300 m
JAA 300m, ICAO 350m

An ILS category II ground installation is one that is capable of providing guidance to a height of:
15m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold

60m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold
15m on QNH
60m on QNH
The errors of an ILS localiser beam are due to:
Emission side lobes

Ground reflections
Spurious signals from objects near the runway
Interference from other systems operating on the same frequency
The middle marker is usually located at a range of 1 km, with an audio frequency of 1300 Hz and
illuminates the amber light.
Accurate glide path signals cannot be guaranteed above a certain angle relative to the horizontal.
That angle is:
0.45 x the glide path angle

0.45 x the glide path angle is the lower limit
Which of the following statements is TRUE in respect to microwave landing system?
Azimuth and elevation signals use the same aerial on a time share basic
Azimuth and elevation signals are transmitted at the same UHF frequency
A special precision DME, operating in the SHF band, provides range information
Range information is provided by precision DME operating in the UHF
For complete explanation: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/v ... .php?t=835
The MLS system uses separate transmitters producing two scanning beams (one in azimuth and one in
elevation) and a precision DME (DME/P) which allows the aircraft to fix its position very accurately in
three dimensions. Unlike ILS the beams both use the same frequency, one of 200 available channels in
the SHF band from 5031 MHz to 5090.7 MHz. Precision DME operates on normal DME frequencies and is
usually associated with MLS installations. The twin pulses of DME/P are much sharper than ordinary DME
allowing more accurate range measurement. When used with MLS the accuracy is about 30 metres.
Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?
Can be used in inhospitable terrain

Uses the same aircraft equipment as ILS
Has a selective access ability
Is not affected by heavy precipitation
The coverage of MLS is ___ either side of the centre line to a distance of ___
40 deg ; 40 nm
40 deg ; 20 nm
20 deg ; 20 nm
20 deg ; 40 nm
The azimuth limits of coverage are 40° left or right of the centreline out to a maximum of 20nm.
Elevation limits are from 0.9° to 20° from the horizontal, up to 20,000 ft and out to 20NM. DME/P
coverage goes out to 22NM.
Which answer correctly completes the following statement? The characteristics of an MLS installation
are that it uses:
an azimuth transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an elevation transmitter at the upwind end
of the runway and two frequencies
one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and two frequencies
one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and a single frequency
an elevation transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an azimuth transmitter at the
upwind end of the runway and a single frequency
Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an
Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth) transmitter
It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to
use an ILS
The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or DME) to determine
range
There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because there is an
unlimited number of frequency channels available
MLS has the ability to interrupt the transmitted signal to avoid reflection by stationary objects (such as
obstructions in the appropach path) which makes the system less sensitive to geographic location. This
and the relatively low cost of the system are its main advantages. Subsidiary advantages are the ability
of MLS equipped aircraft to fly approach paths other than straight in and the single frequency used
avoiding the requirement for frequency pairing.
In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate? "SHF"
Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate
distance from the runway threshold?
Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the MLS station to
the aircraft
Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from the aircraft to
MLS station
Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation transmissions
A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters
The principle of operation of MLS is:
time referenced scanning beams

phase comparison directional beams
lobe comparison of scanning beams
frequency comparison of reference beams
In a MLS the time that elapses between the passage of the TO scan and the FROM scan at the aircraft
position is:
not related to the angular position of the aircraft
indirectly proportional to the angular position of the aircraft
directly proportional to the angular position of the aircraft
none of the above are correct
Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing
System (MLS)?
Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner marker beacons
Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker beacons
Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility
Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility
MLS consists of:
an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter on separate frequencies and a DME

an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter operating on a shared frequency and a
DME
Microwave Landing Systems allow the aircraft to fix its position accurately in three dimensions by
means of:
timing the interval between pulses in azimuth and elevation and timing the delay for pulses to reach the
aircraft to define range
information from four satellites transmitting microwaves
timing the passage of two scanning beams integrated with DME
directional aerials and DME
The main factor which affects the maximum range of a pulse radar is:
the pulse repetition frequency

the size of the radar screen
the frequency of the radar transmission
the aerial system size
Factors Affecting Radar Range: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... .php?t=837
Radar Theory: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... .php?t=836
The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
pulse recurrence rate

power output
size of parabolic receiver aerial
height of the transmitter above the ground
Max Unambiguous Range = c / 2 x PRF
Where c = speed of light (3 x 10^8 m/s or 162,000 nautical miles/second)
What most determines a primary radars ability to accurately determine target range:
Aerial rpm
Beam width
Transmitter power
Pulse length
In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR) signifies
the:
ratio of pulse period to pulse width

delay after which the process re-starts
the number of cycles per second
number of pulses per second
In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency signify?
The radar frequency used

The number of revolutions performed by the radar antenna per minute
The number of pulses transmitted per second
The time between each transmission of pulses
The advantages of CW radar systems over pulse radar systems are:
they are more reliable

the transmitter/receiver aerial system is smaller and less complex
there is no minimum range
they offer better long range performance
Pulse radar sends out a short burst of energy and then determines the range of the target from the time
it takes the pulse to return. It has its limitations regarding its maximum and minimum ranges. In a
continuous wave radar the frequency is cycled up and down at the transmitter. The frequency of the
returning signal will indicate how long ago it was transmitted and therefore give an indication of the
range of the target. Continuous wave radar has no minimum range limitation.
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the use in primary radar of continuous
wave transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions?
A smaller common transmitter and receiver aerial can be used

It eliminates the minimum target reception range
The equipment required is more complex in continuous wave radar but this is offset by greater reliability
and accuracy
It is less effective in short range radars but more effective in long range radars
The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is
pulse:
repetition rate
amplitude
length
frequency
Minimum range = c x Pulse Length / 2
Where c = speed of light (3 x 10^8 m/s or 162,000 nautical miles/second)
The main advantage of a slotted scanner is:
reduces side lobes and directs more energy into the main beam
removes the need for azimuth slaving
side lobe suppression
can produce simultaneous map and weather information
Types of Aerials: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... .php?t=812
All dish aerials produce side lobes. The main transmission lobe has sidelobes of wasted energy.
Sidelobes can be the source of errors and interference in beamed aerial systems. An efficient aerial
system (phase array and slottted scanners) produce smaller sidelobes. A parabolic antenna can waste
two thirds of the energy directed into it whereas a well designed slotted aerial will waste less than half
that.
For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power
output must be increased by a factor of:
2
16
4
8
Intensity decreases as the square of range. Double the range, and the power received decreases by 4.
So for the signal to be strong enough to be detected, the output power must be multiplied by 4.
The point here is that its PRIMARY radar, so the power is being reflected for a two way trip.
In order to detect the target at double the range you need to bounce 4 times as much power off it.
But at the same time, as the range is doubled, only 1/4 as much power is even reaching the target in
the first place. We'd need to transmit 4 times as much energy just to get the same amount of energy
reflected, let alone the factor of 4 we need to make the return trip.
So the required power output goes up by 4x4=16.
In summary:
1 way trips require (New Range / Old Range)^2

2 way trips require (New Range / Old Range)^4
A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a
maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
135 NM
69 NM
270 NM
27 NM
Max Theoretical Range = c / 2 x PRF
If speed of light = 3 x 10^8 m/s then:
Max range = 3 x 10^8 / 2 x 1200
= 125,000 meters or 67.4 nm
or to get in straight in nautical miles, if speed of light is 162,000 nautical miles/second, then:

= 162000 / 2 x 1200 = 67.5 nm
Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary
radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
375 pps
782 pps
308 pps
405 pps
Where c = speed of light 3 x 10^8 m/s
If using C as m/s then also convert 200 nm to meters
or use C as 162,000 nautical miles / second
200 = 162000 / 2 PRF
PRF = 405 pps
If the pulse length used in a radar is 4 micro seconds, ignoring receiver recovery time, the minimum
range at which a target can be detected is:
1200 metres
2400 metres
600 metres
0 metres
Minimum range = c x Pulse Length / 2
= 3 x 10^8 x 0.000004 / 2
= 600 meters
The interval in time between the commencement of two consecutive pulses is: "pulse recurrence
period"
A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
transponder interrogation
pulse technique
phase comparison
continuous wave transmission
The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the (i); the
maximum unambiguous range by the (ii)
(i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

(i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output
(i) pulse length (ii) length of the time-base
(i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:

target discrimination
maximum measurable range
beam width
minimum measurable range
The term Doppler shift refers to:
the change in depression angle measured at the receiver

the change in the speed measured at the receiver
the change in phase angle measured at the receiver
the change in frequency measured at the receiver
Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
Short pulse length and narrow beam

Long pulse length and wide beam
Long pulse length and narrow beam
Short pulse length and wide beam
The pulse recurrence frequency of a signal having a pulse interval (pulse recurrence period) of 5
microseconds is:
6 MHz
200 KHz
60 MHz
2000 KHz
A shorter PRP would mean more pulses a second and a higher PRF. If you halve the period you double
the frequency. Expressing this relationship between period and frequency as a formula we have:
PRP = 1/PRF
or
PRF= 1/PRP
So PRP is the period or time it takes to send and receive one pulse. And PRF is the number of pulses a
second.
Regarding the question, make sure the time is in seconds and not micro seconds. There are a million
micro seconds in a second so divide 5 by a million or move the decimal place six point to the left to find
5 micro seconds = 0.000005 seconds.
Now PRF = 1/PRP
= 1/0.000005
= 200,000 or 200 KHz
The beam width from a parabolic reflector aerial is:
dependant on the transmitted pulse length

dependant on the transmitted pulse repetition frequency
dependant on the transmitted pulse repetition interval
dependant on the transmitted frequency
In a Cathode Ray Tube the grid is used to:

control the focus
control the brilliance
drain electrons from the tube
deflect the electron stream to form a time-base
In a cathode ray tube the grid potential is:
negative with respect to the cathode

the same as the cathode
zero
the same as the second anode
The terms anode and cathode are used in electronics as synonyms for positive and negative terminals.
For example, you could refer to the positive terminal of a battery as the anode and the negative
terminal as the cathode. In a cathode ray tube, the "cathode" is a heated filament (not unlike the
filament in a normal light bulb). The heated filament is in a vacuum created inside a glass "tube." The
"ray" is a stream of electrons that naturally pour off a heated cathode into the vacuum. Electrons are
negative. The anode is positive, so it attracts the electrons pouring off the cathode. In a TV's cathode
ray tube, the stream of electrons is focused by a focusing anode into a tight beam and then accelerated
by an accelerating anode. This tight, high-speed beam of electrons flies through the vacuum in the tube
and hits the flat screen at the other end of the tube. This screen is coated with phosphor, which glows
when struck by the beam. Source: [http://electronics.howstuffworks.com/tv3.htm]
What technique is employed by primary radar employing a single aerial dish:
Pulse technique
Continuous wave
Phase comparison
Pseudo random noise
If a radar has a beam width of 3° and a pulse length of 4 micro seconds, the target azimuth resolution
at a range of 60 NM will be approximately:
4 NM
3 NM
2 NM
1 NM
Use the 1 in 60 rule.
RADAR RESOLUTION: The image painted on a PPI (plan position indicator) display from a point target will
not be a single point but will appear as a rectangle, known as the radar resolution rectangle i.e. the
target appears to be stretched both radially and in azimuth. The dimensions of the rectangle depend
upon the pulse length, the beam width and the spot size. The radial resolution is dependent upon half
the pulse length. For example, a pulse length of 1 micro second would stretch the target by 150 metres
(distance that an electromagnetic wave travels in 0.5 micro seconds). If two targets happen to be within
the 150 m they will be illuminated simultaneously by the pulse and return only a single echo to the
receiver. The azimuth resolution is dependent upon the full beam width. Therefore a 3 beamwidth at a
range of 120 km would stretch the target in azimuth by 6 km (using the 1 in 60 rule).
The size of a target on a primary radar screen is governed in azimuth by i) and in range by (ii):
(i) Beam width; (ii) Pulse length

(i) Pulse width; (ii) Pulse length
(i) Pulse length; (ii) Beam width
(i) Pulse width; (ii) Beam width
Short range aerodrome radars will have ___ wave lengths:
millimetric
centimetric
decimetric
metric
VHF (metric), UHF (decimetric), SHF (centimetric), EHF (milimetric),
Aerodrome Surface Movement Radars or Indicators (ASMR or ASMI) operate at very short wavelengths
of about 3.8cm (SHF). The beams are narrow with high rotation rates (60 RPM). On occasions it is
possible even to identify aircraft types from the return. More higher frequencies of EHF are rarely used
because of scattering and absorption of the signal by moisture and particles in the atmosphere which
make them impractical.
Which is the most suitable radar for measuring short ranges:
millimetric pulse
continuous wave primary
centimetric pulse
continuous wave secondary
The definition of a radar display will be best with: "Narrow beam width and narrow pulse width"
A radio facility transmits on a wave length of 2.22 cm. The facility could be a ___ operating on a
frequency of ___
VDF; 135 MHz

DME; 1350 MHz
Doppler; 13500 MHz
radio altimeter; 13500 MHz
frequency = c / wavelength
= 3 x 10^8 / 0.0222
= 1.35 x 10^10
or 13513513513.5
or 13,500 MHz
Doppler radar can be divided into several different categories according to the wavelength of the radar.
The different bands are L,S,C,X,K. The names of the radars originate from the days of WWII.
X band radars operate on a wavelength of 2.5-4 cm and a frequency of 8-12 GHz. Because of the
smaller wavelength, the X band radar is more sensitive and can detect smaller particles. These radars
are used for studies on cloud development because they can detect the tiny water particles and also
used to detect light precipitation such as snow. X band radars also attenuate very easily, so they are
used for only very short range weather observation. Also, due to the small size of the radar, it can
therefore be portable like the Doppler on Wheels. (DOW) Most major airplanes are equipped with an X
band radar to pick up turbulence and other weather phenomenon. This band is also shared with some
police speed radars and some space radars. Source: [http://www.everythingweather.com/weathe ...
ands.shtml]
Aviation radio altimeters are usually designed as short-range FM radars operating in the 4.2-4.4GHz
frequency band. Their main application are instrumented approaches and landings of large commercial
aircraft. The accuracy and resolution of aviation altimeters is usually limited to a few feet due to the
limited available bandwidth of 200MHz in the 4.3GHz frequency band. This accuracy is considered
sufficient even for the flare during an autoland manoeuvre of a large commercial jet aircraft. Source:
[http://lea.hamradio.si/~s53mv/radalt/radalt.html]
A radar has a PRF of 800 pps. What is the maximum theoretical range and the PRP?
325 nm, 0.0125 micro seconds

325 nm, 1250 micro seconds
187.5 km, 0.0125 micro seconds
187.5 km, 1250 micro seconds
Range = C / 2 x PRF
PRP = 1/800 = 0.00125 seconds or 1250 micro seconds (0.00125 x 1000,000)
Which one of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system when compared to a primary
radar system?
The relatively small ground antenna transmits no side lobes, thus eliminating the danger of false replies
from the airborne transponder
The required power of transmission from the ground equipment is reduced
Possibility of obtaining speed information for aircraft within range
Is not limited to line of sight
What is the minimum PRI for a radar with a design range of 200 NM? "2470 microseconds"
First find the PRF from the range formula and then PRP by 1/PRF.
An area surveillance radar is most likely to use a frequency of:
350 MHz
600 MHz
100 Hz
150 Hz
In which of the following meteorological conditions would you expect to encounter an increased
distance to the radar horizon:
surface inversion of temperature and humidity

surface steep lapse rate of temperature and humidity
a steep lapse rate of temperature with an inversion of humidity
an inversion of temperature with a steep lapse rate of humidity
When atmospheric conditions are right, radio waves in the VHF, UHF, SHF and EHF bands can find an
atmospheric duct that allows them unusually long range propagation. Ducts near the surface need a
marked temperature inversion and a rapid decrease in humidity with height. Air mass subsidence can
produce an elevated duct. Apart from these generalisations atmospheric ducting is unpredictable. There
is nearly always some ducting which typically extends line of sight ranges by about 15%.
The radar Horizon is a critical area of performance for aircraft detection systems that is defined by the
distance at which the radar beam raise enough above the Earth surface to make detection of a target at
low level impossible. It is associated with the low elevation region of performance and its geometry
depends upon terrain, radar height, and signal processing. This is associated with the notions of radar
shadow, the clutter zone, and the clear zone. Airborne objects can exploit the radar shadow zone and
clutter zone to avoid radar detection by using a technique called nap-of-the-earth
navigation. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Radar_horizon
If a radar pulse contains 300 cycles of RF energy at a frequency of 600 MHz, the physical length of the
pulse is:
1550 metres
150 metres
1.5 metres
0.15 metres
Wavelength = c / frequency
Wavelength = 0.5 metres
Pulse length = cycles x wavelength
Pulse length = 300 x 0.5 m/cycle = 150 metres
A wavelength of 8.5 mm corresponds to a frequency of:
2833.3 MHz
35294 MHz
3529.4 MHz
28333 MHz
Wavelength = c/.0085 meters
= 3.5294117650
Shift the decimal towards right to leave 6 digits on the right side of decimal (MHz = 000,000)
= 35294.117650
= 35294 Mhz
To increase the maximum theoretical range of a pulse radar system:
reduce the PRF and increase the power

increase the PRF and reduce the power
reduce the PRF and increase the PRF
maintain the PRF and increase the power
A Moving Target Indicator:
Rejects all moving targets

Is only effective if the target moves directly towards the ground unit
Rejects all stationary targets
Is not effective if the target moves directly towards the ground unit
Moving target indication (MTI) is a mode of operation of a radar to discriminate a target against clutter.
In contrast to another mode, stationary target indication, it takes advantage of the fact that the target
moves with respect to stationary clutter. The most common approach takes advantage of the Doppler
effect. For a sequence of radar pulses the moving target will be at different distance from the radar and
the phase of the radar return from the target will be different for successive pulses, while the returns
from stationary clutter will arrive at the same phase shift.
On what principle does primary ATC radar work?
pulse technique
pulse comparison
continuous wave
transponder interrogation
An SRA may be flown to:
0.5 nm using QNH unless the pilot advises the controller the approach is to be flown on QFE
2.0 nm using QFE unless the pilot advises the controller the approach is to be flown on QNH
0.5 nm using QNH only
2.0 nm using QFE only
SRA - Surveillance Radar Approach - When using a precision surveillance radar the controller will
continue to give information to the pilot up to 0.5nm from touchdown.
A precision approach (PAR): This is one in which a controller provides highly accurate navigational
guidance in azimuth and elevation to a pilot. Pilots are given headings to fly, to direct them to, and keep
their aircraft aligned with the extended centerline of the landing runway. They are told to anticipate
glidepath interception approximately 10–30 seconds before it occurs and when to start descent. The
published decision height will be given only if the pilot requests it. If the aircraft is observed to deviate
above or below the glidepath, the pilot is given the relative amount of deviation by use of terms
“slightly” or “well” and is expected to adjust the aircraft rate of descent/ascent to return to the
glidepath. Trend information is also issued with respect to the elevation of the aircraft and may be
modified by the terms “rapidly” and “slowly” (e.g., “well above glidepath, coming down rapidly”). Range
from touchdown is given at least once each mile. If an aircraft is observed by the controller to proceed
outside of specified safety zone limits in azimuth and/or elevation and continue to operate outside these
prescribed limits, the pilot will be directed to execute a missed approach or to fly a specified course
unless the pilot has the runway environment (runway, approach lights, etc.) in sight. Navigational
guidance in azimuth and elevation is provided the pilot until the aircraft reaches the published decision
height. Advisory course and glidepath information is furnished by the controller until the aircraft passes
over the landing threshold, at which point the pilot is advised of any deviation from the runway
centerline. Radar service is automatically terminated upon completion of the approach.
A surveillance approach: This is one in which a controller, in ASR, provides navigational guidance in
azimuth only. The pilot is furnished headings to fly to align the aircraft with the extended centerline of
the landing runway. Since the radar information used for a surveillance approach is considerably less
precise than that used for a precision approach, the accuracy of the approach will not be as great and
higher minimums will apply. Guidance in elevation is not possible but the pilot will be advised when to
commence descent to the minimum decision altitude (MDA) or, if appropriate, to an intermediate
stepdown fix Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA) and subsequently to the prescribed MDA. In addition, the
pilot will be advised of the location of the MAP prescribed for the procedure and the aircraft position
each mile on final from the runway, airport, heliport, or MAP, as appropriate. If requested by the pilot,
recommended altitudes will be issued at each mile, based on the descent gradient established for the
procedure, down to the last mile that is at or above the MDA. Normally, navigational guidance will be
provided until the aircraft reaches the MAP. Controllers will terminate guidance and instruct the pilot to
execute a missed approach unless at the MAP the pilot has the runway, airport, or heliport in sight or, for
a helicopter point-in-space approach, the prescribed visual reference with the surface is established.
Also, if, at any time during the approach the controller considers that safe guidance for the remainder of
the approach cannot be provided, the controller will terminate guidance and instruct the pilot to
execute a missed approach. Similarly, guidance termination and missed approach will be effected upon
pilot request and, for civil aircraft only, controllers may terminate guidance when the pilot reports the
runway, airport, heliport or visual surface route (point-in-space approach) in sight or otherwise indicates
continued guidance is not required. Radar service is automatically terminated at the completion of a
radar approach.
A high resolution surveillance radar will be terminated at a range from touchdown of:
0.25 nm
0.5 nm
1 nm
2 nm
In a primary radar system:
the radar is primarily used for range-finding

all radio frequency energy is produced by the radar located at the radar site
the aircraft plays the secondary role, just listening to the radar signals from the ground radar
the radar is the primary aid for ATC
Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on frequencies in the
(i) band employing an antenna that rotates at approximately (ii) revolutions per minute; it is (iii) possible
to determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen.
(i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) always

(i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) never
(i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes
(i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never
An aerodrome ground movement radar is likely to operate in the SHF band with a scan rate
of 60 revolutions per minute.
Why does surface movement radar use a frequency in the SHF band and not EHF?
SHF gives better definition of aircraft type than EHF

EHF is absorbed and scattered by moisture in the air. Switching to SHF reduced the problem
The power requirements of EHF were unsustainable in the UK
EHF is potentially hazardous to personnel on the area. This was completely overcome by switching to
SHF
EHF is likely to detect more moisture in the atmosphere
Which of the following types of radar systems are most suited for short range operation?
Primary continuous wave

Centimetric pulse
Millimetric pulse
Secondary continuous wave
The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
100 NM
200 NM
300 NM
400 NM
What is the range of long range ground radar? 300 nm
What is a typical range for an EN-route surveillance radar (RSR)? "Up to 250 nm"
What is the typical range for a Terminal Area surveillance Radar (TAR)? "80 NM"
Following radar equipments operate by means of the pulse technique:
1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar

2. Airborne Weather Radar
3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
One directional antenna both for transmitting and for receiving

A directional antenna for transmitting, and an omni-directional antenna for receiving
One directional antenna for transmitting and one for receiving
An omni-directional antenna for transmitting, and a directional antenna for receiving
When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's
presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level in increments of: "100 Feet"
An ATC radar unit, which is used in the approach, has a high aerial rotation rate. This is so that:
Target information is rapidly refreshed

Compensation can be made for the long PRI
Compensation is made for the narrow beam width
The rigidity of the aerial can be improved by inertia
A surveillance radar element (SRE) used to provide approach guidance:
Does not have a height determination capacity

Can be used to give guidance both horizontally and vertically
Can only be used to a point 3 miles from threshold
May not be used in heavy rain because of the high levels of signal loss
This is different from PAR (precision approach radar) which has vertical guidance.
In order to be able to penetrate cloud, a primary radar signal must have:
a short pulse length

a high frequency
a long wavelength
a high PRF
Longer wavelength microwave radiation can penetrate through cloud cover, haze, dust, and all but the
heaviest rainfall as the longer wavelengths are not susceptible to atmospheric scattering which affects
shorter optical wavelengths. This property allows detection of microwave energy under almost all
weather and environmental conditions so that data can be collected at any time. Source:
[http://www.nrcan.gc.ca/earth-sciences/g ... ntals/2021]
In a primary pulsed radar the ability to discriminate in azimuth is a factor of: "Beam width"
In ATC surveillance radar procedures, if primary radar fails but coverage continues to be provided by
SSR:
Full radar control with standard radar separation will be maintained

Non-radar separation standards will be introduced as soon as possible
All radar assistance will be terminated immediately
Radar assistance will be terminated after standard separation has been introduced
Precision Approach Radars are required under the ICAO specifications to indicate an aircraft within the
following parameters:
Azimuth: 10°, Vertical: 4o, Range: 7 nm

Azimuth: 20°, Vertical: 7°, Range: 9 nm
The PAR must be capable of providing detection to a range of 9NM up to an elevation of 7° within 10° of
the runway centre line.
A monochrome radar operating in the contour mode ___ and indicates them as hollow centres:
adjusts the gain to exclude returns above the iso-echo level

is incapable of painting returns above the iso-echo level because of the limitations of the system
cancels returns above the iso-echo level
adjusts the gain to exclude returns below the iso-echo level
A circuit in weather radar that reverses signal strength above a specified intensity level. In this mode,
there is a void on the scope where echoes are most intense, and a turbulent cloud area appears as
either dark or colored. The width of this void is indicative of a rain or turbulence gradient. Also called a
contour mode. Source: http://www.answers.com/topic/isoecho
Airborne Weather Radar in normal WEA (Weather), CONTOUR (Iso-Echo) or MAN (Manual) Mode utilises a
Pencil or Conical Beam, with a beam divergence of 3-5 degrees (actually about 3.75 degrees in the EKCO
160 / 190).
The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
give an indication of cloud tops

detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud
inhibit unwanted ground returns
extend the mapping range
In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar systems operate?
"SHF"
Weather radar operates between 9 GHz and 10 GHz in the SHF band. A frequency of 9 GHZ gives a
wavelength of 3cm.
A frequency of airborne weather radar is:
9375 MHz
9375 GHz
9375 kHz
93.75 MHz
On switching on the AWR a single line appears on the display. This means that:
the transmitter is unserviceable
the receiver is unserviceable
the CRT is not scanning
the antenna is not scanning
In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and
turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from: "green to yellow to red"
Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
Roll, pitch and yaw

Roll and pitch
Pitch and yaw
Roll and yaw
yaw is odd
In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern?
MAPPING
CONTOUR
WEATHER
MANUAL
Older radars produce a wide fan shaped beam (cosec^2 beam) by placing parasitic elements in front of
the radar dish to deflect the beam. It is also referred to as the spoil beam. The Cosec^2 beam provides
a wider coverage than the conical beam at short range and its transmission pattern has the effect of
compensating for range by sending more power to the top part of the beam which hits more distant
objects. The cosec beam works out to between 60NM and 150NM (depending on type). Beyond that
range there is not enough power in the beam to produce reasonable returns so the more concentrated
conical beam should be used instead in the weather mode. The radar display of ground returns does not
always look like the terrain would look like on a map. Hills can cause "shadowing" at low altitude,
masking the terrain behind them and giving a false impression of water. In arctic regions returns from
ice can mask the true shape of the coastline.
In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range

fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM
pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM
pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM
Comes from an age when the maximum range achievable was 50-60nm on old RAF radars. The CAA are
still stuck in this era unfortunately and think 50-60nm is correct. In reality (something the CAA isn't
working in) radars can have a much longer range than that in mapping mode
[http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=1565]
The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for
the determination of ground features:
when approaching coast-lines in polar regions

beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the mapping mode
beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definition
beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam
In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in Mapping mode enables:

better reception of echoes on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea
scanning of a large ground zone producing echoes whose signals are practically independent
of distance
a greater radar range to be achieved
higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture
The Cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because:
a greater range can be achieved

a wider beam is produced in azimuth to give a greater coverage
a larger area of ground is illuminated by the beam
it allows cloud detection to be effected whilst mapping
If the AWR transmitter is required to be switched on before take-off the scanner should be tilted up
with:
either of these modes selected

the mapping mode selected
the weather mode selected
none of these
The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are:
the size of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna reflector
the scanner rotation rate and the frequency/wavelength
the size of the water droplets and the wavelength/frequency
the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud
Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
detect the larger water droplets

transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam
detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large
Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the
weather beam?
Stratus
Cirrocumulus
Cumulus
Altostratus
In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the
height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a beam width of 5°)
2.5° up
5° up
0°
2.5° down
With zero tilt and 5° beam width, 2.5° will be up and 2.5° will be down. To get the lower 2.5° at level
with the longitudinal axis of the plane (to see if it hits the weather) the tilt will have to be set to 2.5° up.
In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected
are: "size of the water drops and wavelength/frequency used"
When using the AWR to detect long range ground features the most suitable mode of operation or
beam selected would be:
the manual mode

the fan shaped beam
the mapping mode
the contour mode
On the AWR display the most severe turbulence will be shown:
in flashing red
by a black hole
by a steep colour gradient
alternating red and white
When switching on the weather radar, after start-up a single very bright line appears on the screen.
This means that the:
a) scanner is not rotating

b) transmitter is faulty
scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty
d) receiver is faulty
On switching on the AWR a single line appears on the display. This means that:
the transmitter is unserviceable

the receiver is unserviceable
the CRT is not scanning
the antenna is not scanning
The main difference appears to be the use of the words "very bright" in question one. If the electron gun
in the CRT is repeatedly scanning either vertically or horizontally, instead of both vertically and
horizontally, this will concentrate the energy in a single line. This concentration of energy is likely to
make the line very bright. In this case the most accurate answer would be "scanning of the cathode ray
tube is faulty". For the second question, if the CRT is working correctly but the antenna is not scanning,
then only the radar returns from the area in line with the scanner would be displayed. Whether or not
these would produce a very bright line would depend upon what returns were being received from that
area. Source: [http://www.pprune.org/professional-pilo ... ost7648094]
Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar?
Dry hail; clear air turbulence

Snow; clear air turbulence
Clear air turbulence; turbulence in cloud with precipitation
Snow; turbulence in clouds with precipitation
The radar does detect: Ice crystals, dry hail and dry snow. However, these three elements give small
reflections. In descending order of reflectivity, radar detects:
• Wet Hail
• Rain
• Wet Snow
• Dry Hail
• Dry Snow
• Drizzle
Radar does not detect clouds, fog or wind, windshear (except when associated with a microburst), clear
air turbulence, sandstorms or lightning.
The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot detect:
snow
moderate rain
dry hail
wet hail
See explanation above
A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system
because:
the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively small
greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets
static interference is minimised
less power output is required in the mapping mode
The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams

virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more energy in the main
beam
have a wide beam and as a consequence better target detection
eliminate the need for azimuth slaving
The tilt angle on the AWR at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 4 degrees up. If
the beam width is 5 degrees and the range of the cloud is 40 NM use the 1 in 60 rule to calculate the
approximate height of the cloud relative to the aircraft.
4000 above
6000 above
4000 below
6000 below
For explanation: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... .php?t=499
AWR in the ___ mode progressively ___ as distances ___ to equalise screen brightness
weather, decreases gain, increase

mapping, decreases power, decrease
weather, increases power, decrease
mapping, increases gain, decrease
In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) the areas of greatest
turbulence are indicated on the screen by:
large areas of flashing red colour

iso-echo areas which are coloured black
colour zones being closest together
blank iso-echo areas where there is no colour
On a colour radar, the greatest turbulence is likely in an area where the targets:
coloured red
coloured magenta
show a clearly defined hole
show a rapid gradient of change from magenta to yellow
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the: "pulse
recurrence frequency"
Before commencing a flight the weather radar should:
be switched to stand-by but not used until airborne

not be switched on until clear of buildings
be switched to a range function after push back to make sure it is functioning
be kept at stand-by until line up with the runway
Weather radar is used by the pilot to assist in the:
detection and avoidance of all turbulence

detection and avoidance of potentially turbulent cloud cells
detection and determination of a route through active cloud formations
detection of other aircraft through clouds
A height ring can be used:
to determine that the weather radar is functioning

to determine the aeroplanes height above the surface
as a range marker
as the zero point for range measurement
The directional properties of the radar produce side lobes. One side lobe goes vertically down to the
ground and is received back by the weather radar receiver. This received signal produces a height ring
on the display. The ring indicates that the radar is working and appears at the approximate height of the
aeroplane above the gound. An aeroplane flying at 12000ft will have a permanent return at
approximately 2nm. Source: [http://www.pprune.org/professional-pilo ... beams.html]
A side lobe from the aerial of a weather radar may produce an echo on the screen known as A height
ring. The pilot can use this:
to determine that the weather radar is functioning

to determine the aeroplane's height above the surface
as a range marker
as the zero point for range measurement
AWR in the contour mode is used for:
identifying areas of maximum turbulence within a cloud

identifying rain bearing clouds
long range mapping
short range mapping
Isoecho Contour Mode: A mode of operation of a monochromatic weather radar. When the button for
this mode is pressed, areas of precipitation corresponding to red on a color screen turn black. This
leaves the lighter green portion around the black area, allowing changes in rainfall intensity to be better
evaluated. A thin line of green indicates a rapid change in rainfall rates (steep rainfall gradient), and
such an area should not be penetrated because of the inferred high degree of turbulence. Source:
[http://www.answers.com/topic/isoecho-contour-mode]
The iso-echo feature of an airborne weather radar can be used to detect:
Wake turbulence
CAT
Turbulence in clouds
Areas of possible turbulence in clouds
In an Airborne Weather Radar the areas of greatest turbulence are usually indicated on the screen by:
colour zones of green and yellow

blank areas where there is no colour
colour zones of red and magenta
areas which are coloured black
Which of the following wavelengths would give the best penetration of weather?
25 cm
50 cm
10 cm
3 cm
The largest
An airborne weather radar unit transmits a 5o beam from a parabolic dish aerial reflector assembly. If
the wavelength is 4 cm, the diameter of the dish is:
20 cm
87.5 cm
87.5 ins
56.0 cm
Beam width = 70 x Wavelength / Antenna Diameter
If you forget the formula in the exam then just concentrate on the items mentioned in the question. Just
write them down in the same sequence as they are mentioned in the question like:
Beam Wavelength Diameter of Dish
To set in the right signs for the equation, just think of the relation of the first item (beam) with others
like:
Beam has a direct relation with the wavelength
Beam has an inverse relation with dish diameter (large dish small beam width).
So that makes Beam width = Wavelength / Antenna Diameter
and you just have to fit in the 70.
So Beam width = 70 x Wavelength / Antenna Diameter
Antenna Diameter = 70 x Wavelength / Beam width
= 70 x 4 / 5 = 56cm
On a colour radar, a bright red echo indicates:
An area of strong wind shear

An area of extreme turbulence
Strong rising air currents
Heavy concentrations of liquid/solid water
An airborne weather radar, with a beam width of 4o in azimuth, is used in mapping mode. At what
maximum range would it be able to detect a 1 NM wide opening in a facing sea cliff?
15 NM
4 NM
60 NM
45 NM
Use 1 in 60
Track Error = (Dist Off Track / Distance Along Track) x 60
4 = 1/Distance Along Track x 60
Distance Along Track = 1/4 x 60 = 15
An aircraft flying at 25,000 ft is equipped with AWR. The beam width is 5o with the radar tilted up at
3.5o. The radar is showing the top of a cloud return at 105 nm. The approximate height of the cloud is:
14,300 ft
25,600 ft
30,300 ft
35,600 ft
Height of Cloud above or below the aircraft (ft) = Range in NM x (Tilt - 1/2 Beam Width) x 100
Since the beam has a width of 5 degrees, the bottom of the beam is above the horizon.
Just use the formula and preserve the sign of the angles.
= 105 (3.5-2.5) x 100 = +10,500
Since the sign is positive, the cloud tops are 10,500 ft above the aircraft level (25000+10500) = 35,500
feet.
If the sign was negative then the cloud tops would have been below the aircraft level.
Basically the same 1 in 60 rule if you can visualize.
The AWR can be used on the ground provided:
i. The aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles

ii. The conical beam is selected
iii. Maximum uplift is selected
iv. The AWR must never be operated on the ground
All correct except iv

A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM,
the return on the radar screen should:
decrease in area and move to the top of the screen

increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
increase in area and move to the top of the screen
The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver
respectively operating in the following frequencies (transmitter; receiver):
1090 MHz; 1090 MHz

1090 MHz; 1030 MHz
1030 MHz; 1090 MHz
1030 MHz; 1030 MHz
Interrogation 1030, response 1090
With SSR, interrogation and response signals:
are separated by 63 MHz

must be set by the pilot but are always 60 MHz apart
are at standard frequencies separated by 60 MHz
are at variable frequencies set by the controller but are always 63 MHz apart
With regard to SSR: The interrogator is on the ground and the transponder is in the aircraft.
The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is: 1030 +/- 0.2 Mhz
The ATC transponder system excluding Mode S contains: two modes, each 4096 codes
Meaning A and C. Mode A has 4096 possible codes because there are four digits in the transponder
code, each digit can be anywhere from 0 to 7, a total of 8. The number of combinations is 8 x 8 x 8 x 8 =
4096. This is sent to the ground station in a 12 bit pulse stream which, not by coincidence, can also
handle 4096 combinations of numbers. The Mode C response is actually three digits from FL000 to
FL999, a total of 1000 possible sequences but it uses the same 12 bit pulse train as Mode A. Source:
[http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=1263]
With normal SSR mode A coding the aircraft replies by sending back a train of up to 12 pulses
contained between 2 framing pulses with:
4096 codes in 4 boxes

The accuracy of SSR height as displayed to the air traffic controller is:
+/- 25 ft
+/- 50 ft
+/- 75 ft
+/- 100 ft
SSR Mode C Correspondence Error. As the Mode C transponder reports the Flight Level, which has a
resolution of 100 ft, the error introduced from this resolution is a maximum of ±50 ft (on the basis that
Flight Level data are rounded to the nearest 100 ft).
When a Mode C check is carried out, and assuming the equipment is working without error, the Mode
C will report a pressure altitude of 35.064 ft as flight level:
350
35064
3506
351
Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?
The frequency is too high

SSR does not use the echo principle
The PRF is jittered
By the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving returns
Secondary radars use different frequencies for transmission and reception therefore they are not
susceptible to reflections from very active clouds.
The electronic principle on which radar operates is very similar to the principle of sound-wave reflection.
If you shout in the direction of a sound-reflecting object (like a rocky canyon or cave), you will hear an
echo. If you know the speed of sound in air, you can then estimate the distance and general direction of
the object. The time required for an echo to return can be roughly converted to distance if the speed of
sound is known. The radio-frequency (rf) energy is transmitted to and reflected from the reflecting
object. A small portion of the reflected energy returns to the radar set. This returned energy is called an
ECHO, just as it is in sound terminology. Radar sets use the echo to determine the direction and
distance of the reflecting object. Source: [http://www.radartutorial.eu/01.basics/rb06.en.html]
When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
height based on QFE

altitude based on regional QNH
aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
flight level based on 1013.25 hPa
With regard to the advantages of SSR which of the following statements is correct?
Little power is required to effect longish range

No aircraft manoeuvres are necessary for identification
Range, bearing and height can be calculated from reply signals
All of the above
The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation between
aircraft using TCAS II
collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability
continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision
avoidance using TCAS II
air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft
surveillance capability
The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:
phase differences
pulses
frequency differences
amplitude differences
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Secondary_ ... ance_radar
The aircraft's response on 1090 MHz is a stream of pulses 20.3 micro seconds long framed by two frame
pulses. Between the frame pulses there is space for 12 additional pulses, known as a 12 bit code. The
pulse train is effectively a binary code in which 2^12 or 4096 possible number combinations can be
sent.
The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode:
A
C
S
All
Which statement regarding Mode S transponders is most correct?
Mode S transponders reduce RT traffic and provide a datalink facility

Mode S transponders are used with TCAS III
Mode S transponders are used to assist GPS positioning
Mode S and Mode C transponders operate on different frequencies
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
The principle of echo return is not used in secondary radar

The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder
malfunction? 0000
With reference to SSR, what code is used to indicate transponder altitude failure? 0000
Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft
entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required? 2000
The SSR conspicuity code is: 7000
Conspicuity codes are for aircraft which have not been allocated a transponder setting. It is 7000 for
aircraft operating within UK airspace and is 2000 for aircraft coming into UK airspace from another FIR.
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to: 7500
What transponder code is selected in the event of radio failure: 7600

In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
transponder should be set to: 7700
Which one of the following switch positions should be used when selecting a code on the
Transponder?
NORMAL
OFF
STBY (Standby)
IDENT (Identification)
SSR uses wide aperture aerials to:
reduce side lobe effects

improve bearing discrimination
improve range discrimination
reduce the vertical beam width
SSR, in ATC use: is complementary to primary radar
In the SSR response, the operation of the transponder ident button:
transmits the aeroplanes registration or flight number as a data coded sequence

sends a special pulse after the normal response pulse train
sends a special pulse before the normal response pulse train
sends a special pulse in the X position on the pulse train
An additional identification pulse can be transmitted 4.35 micro seconds after the pulse train which
causes the return on the radar screen to bloom for 25 seconds. This extra pulse is known as ident or
Special Position Identification (SPI).
Data transmission and exchange is conducted in:
Mode A
Mode C
Mode D
Mode S
Garbling is caused by:
an aeroplane's transponder responding to side lobes or reflections of the interrogation signal

aeroplane is in close proximity responding to the same interrogation
aeroplane at range responding to interrogations from another ATC, SSR
Doppler effect on targets moving radially towards or away from the SSR
If two aircraft are on the same bearing from the ground station and closer together than 1.7NM they
may produce overlapping replies to the ground interrogator. This is garbling.
Fruiting is caused by:
Aeroplanes in close proximity responding to the same interrogation

An aeroplane's transponder responding to side lobes or reflctionsof the interrogation signal
Aeroplane at range responding to interrogations from another ATC, SSR
Doppler effect on targets moving radially towards or away from the SSR
FRUIT (False Replies Unsynchronized with Interrogator Transmissions or alternatively False Replies
Unsynchronized In Time). If aircraft are in range of two ground interrogators they may reply to both. The
received replies may be for the wrong station, this is called fruiting.
A mode S transponder will:
not respond to interrogations made on mode A

respond normally to mode A/C interrogations
respond to mode A interrogations but not mode C
not respond to mode A/C as it is on the different frequency
Following the transition to this new configuration both modern Mode S and legacy Mode A/C
transponders will continue to reply to interrogations, as Mode S is backward compatible - a Mode A/C
transponder will respond A/C to a Mode S interrogation.
Why do clouds not appear on secondary radar screens:
Too high a frequency

Too low a frequency
They do not provide an echo by returning signals
The transmit and receive signals are on different frequencies
In SSR, the interrogations use different modes. If altitude reporting is required, the aeroplane's
transponder should be set to ALT and will respond to:
Mode C interrogations only

Mode A interrogations only
Mode C and A interrogations
Mode C and Ident interrogations
A mode A/C transponder will:
Not respond to interrogations made on mode S

Respond to mode S interrogations but cannot send data
Respond to mode S interrogations with limited data
Not respond to mode S as it is on a different frequency
colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured:
magenta
flashing red
white or magenta
high colour gradient
The colours to be used are specified in:
Certification Specifications and Acceptable Means of Compliance for Large Aeroplanes CS25
Goto Page 829 where the colour coding is mentioned and see Table 11.
colour code rules, features displayed in green on an electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
indicate:
engaged modes
cautions, abnormal sources
the earth
the ILS deviation point
colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS) a selected heading is coloured:
white
green
magenta
yellow
colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and values are
coloured:
green
white
magenta
yellow
colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
indicate:
the sky
engaged modes
the flight director bar(s)
flight envelope and system limits
colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS) increasing intensity of precipitation
are coloured in the order: "green, amber/yellow, red, magenta"
The colour recommended for armed AFCS modes is:
green
yellow
white
magenta
the colour red is used on an EFIS screen for:
(i) Warnings
(ii) Flight envelope and system limits
(iii) Cautions, abnormal sources
(iv) Scales and associated figures
(i) and (ii) Correct
In colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight Instrument System
(EFIS) indicate:
cautions, abnormal sources

flight envelope and system limits
warnings
engaged modes
colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), current data and values are
coloured:
red
cyan
white
magenta
The colour recommended for the active route is:
cyan
magenta
green
amber
colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), armed modes are coloured:
white
green
magenta
amber/yellow
The recommended colour for a downpath waypoint is:
white
green
magenta
cyan
The colour for the present track line in the expanded mode is:
white
green
magenta
cyan
The range arcs in the expanded and map modes are recommended to be coloured: White
The recommended colour for an off route waypoint is: Cyan
The recommended colour for the aircraft symbol is: White

Refer to figure. What wind velocity is indicated?
030° (M) / 20 KT
255° (M) / 20 KT
285° (M) / 20 KT
105° (M) / 20 KT
Watch out the track/heading before jumping to conclusion.
What drift is being experienced?
20° Right
20° Left
12° Right
8° Left
Track is 272 and Heading is 280
What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
097° (T)
170° (M)
140° (M)
280° (T)
Its the PLAN mode as indicated by the True North arrow in lower right corner of the screen. Dont confuse
it with Magnetic TRK 073 shown at the top.
In the NAV and EXP NAV modes one dot on the EHSI represents:
2 nm
2°
5 nm
5°
Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
screen modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) WITH THE EXCEPTION OF:
EXP VOR/ILS, PLAN and MAP

FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN
FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN
FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP
Which EHSI modes cannot show AWR information:
FULL VOR/ILS/NAV and MAP

PLAN, CTR MAP and EXP VOR/ILS/NAV
CTR MAP and PLAN
PLAN and FULL VOR/ILS/NAV
The track line on an EFIS display indicates:
that a manual track has been selected

that a manual heading has been selected
the actual aircraft track over the ground, which will coincide with the aircraft heading when
there is zero drift
the aircraft actual track which will coincide with the planned track when there is zero drift
On the B737-400 EHSI what happens if the selected VOR fails?
the display blanks and a fail warning appears

the deviation bar is removed
a fail flag is displayed alongside the display bar
the display flashes
If range indications are screen/hidden, this means:
The transponder is out of service

The aeroplane is out of range
The aeroplane's equipment is in search mode
The DME unit is in memory mode
Positions on a Flight Management Computer are updated with information from:
DME/VOR
DME/DME or DME/VOR
DME/DME
VOR/ADF
What is the period of validity of the navigational database for a Flight DATA Storage Unit? "28 Days"
The FMC position is:
the average of the IRS positions

the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions
computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions
computer generated from the radio navigation positions
Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route
waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
Elapsed time on route

ETD
ATA
ETO
The Estimated Time of Overflight (ETO) is an event in the future following the passing of the previous
Actual Time of Departure (ATD) or Actual Time of Overflight (ATO) and may therefore be used to
calculate the progress of the flight between the last event and the next event.
In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated by the Flight
Management Computer (FMC) be correct?
When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds calculated from the actual take-off time
When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the correct GS
When the FMC positions and GS are accurate
When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the actual cruising Mach number is
equal to the FMC calculated Mach number
The ETA generated by the FMS will be most accurate:
when the forecast W/V equals the actual W/V and the FMS calculated Mach No. equals the actual Mach
No.
If the ground speed and position are accurate
If the forecast W/V at take-off is entered
If the ground speed is correct and the take-off time has been entered
See the discussion about this contradiction here: http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=2205
So what to do if it turns up in the exam
Simple! If the statement (option) says "Mach Number" then its right but if it says "Mach No" Then NO
that's not right.
In an Electronic flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation is provided by:
Inertial Reference Systems, Aircraft Mapping Radar, Navigation radios

Navigation radios, Flight Management Computer, Inertial Reference Systems
Flight Management Computer, Aircraft Mapping Radar, Navigation radios
Inertial Reference Systems, Navigation radios, True airspeed and drift inputs
The databases on a FMC:
can be read or written on to at any time

can be modified by the pilot
are read only
are updated once every 28 weeks
The FMS database can be:
altered by the pilots between the 28 day updates

read and altered by the pilots
only read by the pilots
altered by the pilots every 28 days
The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that:
the main navigation database of the FMC is created by the pilot

the pilot is able to modify the main navigation database in the FMC between two updates
the main navigation database of the FMC is valid for one year
the main navigation database is read only to the pilot
the navigation database in the FMC:
is read only for the pilots

can be modified by the pilots to meet route requirements
can be amended by the pilots to update navigational data
is inaccessible to the flight crew
The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way that the pilot can:
modify the database every 28 days

only read the database
insert navigation data between two updates
read and write at any time in database
Read the discussion about this one at http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?p=47074
almost all answers are "read only" except this one which says "insert navigation data". Remember the
word "insert"
Which of the following can be input manually to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alphanumerics?
Waypoints, latitude and longitude, SIDs and STARs

ICAO aerodrome designators, navigation facilities, SIDs and STARs
Waypoints, airways designators, latitude and longitude
Navigation facilities, reporting points, airways designators
Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays
on the EADI and EHSI?
Flight Control Computer

Flight Management Computer
Symbol Generator
Navigation database
The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an
Electronic Flight Instrument System:
indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown

corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns
indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection
represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it coincides with the desired
track, wind influence is compensated for
When is the IRS position updated:
at VOR beacons on route by the pilots

continuously by the FMC
at significant waypoints only
on the ground only
FMC position is updated inflight not the IRS position
When is the FMS position likely to be least accurate?

TOD
TOC
Just after take-off
On final approach
The 737 manual quotes that the FMC position should be considered to be the most inaccurate at TOD. I
would amplify that to say that the FMC position will be least accurate the longer the time the a/c is out
of radio updating range (no GPS input). Source: [http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=10538]
With regard to FMS, what are the possible modes of operation for dual FMC installations?
Dual
Dual and single
Dual, independent, and single
None of the above
What is Back Up FMS navigation mode?
When only one FMS is operational

When one FMS is a Master and the other is a Slave
When one FMS operates independently from the other
When the FMC is suffering from some failure but there is still lmited FMS function
Why is gate number requested by the FMC? "So that the FMS can convert the gate position into a
WGS 84 co-ordinate for the inertial navigation system"
Why is an IRS known as a self-contained system? "Because it derives navigational data from relative
movement via in-built sensors"
The FMS is composed of:
the command display unit and the flight management computer

the automatic flight control system and the power management controls system
the flight management computer only
the EFIS and EICAM displays
In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to
aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
auto flight computers

air data computer
navigation database
performance database
cruising speeds is stored in the:
navigation database
air data computer
auto flight computers
flight plans is stored in the:
air data database
navigation database
auto flight database
Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when it is possible to change the route in the active
flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft?
Only once the aircraft is airborne

Only before take-off
Only before the flight plan is activated
At any time before take-off and throughout the flight
The inputs the pilot will make to the FMC during the pre-flight initialisation will include:
ETD, aircraft position, and planned route

Planned route, aircraft position, and departure runway
Navigation database, aircraft position and departure aerodrome
Departure runway, planned route and ETD
When midway between two waypoints how can the pilot best check the progress of the aircraft:
by using the ATD at the previous waypoint

by using the computed ETA for the next waypoint
by using the ATA at the previous waypoint
by using the ETA at the destination
Doppler Navigation System
A Doppler Navigation System uses the Doppler principle to measure an aircraft's ground speed and drift.
The Doppler radar functions by continuous measurement of Doppler shift and converting the measured
values to groundspeed and drift angle. In early systems the aircraft's departure point was loaded into a
navigation computer, which then converted the aircraft's heading and Doppler ground speed/drift inputs
into a continuous display of aircraft position; this was then displayed as latitude and longitude, and/ or
as distance to go along track and position left or right of track, in nautical miles.
A Doppler navigation system:
a) is completely self-contained and requires no ground based navigation aids.

b) is usable worldwide.
c) is most accurate overland.
d) is less accurate during flight over the sea because the surface winds, tides and currents move the
surface in random directions.
e) sometimes fails to measure a ground speed and drift during flight over a smooth, glassy sea.
The latest improved Doppler Navigation Systems combine the inherent accuracy of Doppler ground
speed and drift measurement with information from Decca, Inertial Reference Units, Loran C, Global
Positioning Systems and VOR/DME, in various combinations to suit customer requirements. These
navigational inputs also help to eradicate the errors of the original Doppler Navigation Systems, caused
by inaccurate heading reference and degradation, or loss, of Doppler ground speed and drift when flying
over large expanses of water.
The Doppler principle is also utilized in other navigation systems, such as VOR and VDF, and some radar
equipments.
Doppler principle
Whenever there is a relative motion between a transmitter and receiver a frequency shift (change)
occurs which is proportional to their relative motion. This change in frequency, fd, is known as the
Doppler shift, Doppler effect, or Doppler frequency.
In an airborne Doppler system the transmitter and receiver are screened from each other, but share the
same aerial. An array of beams are transmitted towards the earth's surface at a depression angle of
between 60°and 70° and the receiver measures the reflected frequency shift, which is caused by the
aircraft's speed along track, ground speed, and speed across track, drift.
Airborne Doppler
A typical slotted waveguide antenna consists of separate transmitting and receiving arrays designed to
produce one ofthe common aerial beam configurations.
This technique of using opposing beams is called a JANUS array after the Roman god of doorways; he
was able to face both ways simultaneously. A commonly adopted system is the four beam X array.
Each aerial of a particular array transmits at a depression angle, 0, of between 60° and 70°. This is a
compromise. If O is too close to 90° the Doppler shift approaches zero; if O is too small the
transmissions would strike the surface at a shallow angle, causing the signals to reflect away from the
aircraft, resulting in weak un-measurable Doppler shift returns at the aircraft's receiver.
Using the four beam Janus array, zero drift and an aircraft traveling forwards: the received frequency
from the two front beams is shifted upwards and that from the two rear beams is shifted downwards,
equally, in proportion to the aircraft's ground speed.
If the aircraft is drifting then there will be a difference in the frequencies received from the port and
starboard beams; this information is electronically converted in modern fixed aerial equipments to a
continuous indication of drift. In earlier mechanical systems, with pitch stabilized, rotating aerials, the
difference in shifts was converted to an electrical signal which actuated a motor. The motor then rotated
the aerial until it was aligned with the aircraft's track; at this instant the port and starboard shifts were
equalized and the drift equaled the difference between the aircraft's heading and the aerial's track
alignment.
The higher the Doppler system frequency the more sensitive and efficient it becomes at assessing the
frequency shifts to be converted to ground speed and drift, and the narrower the beam widths (1° to 5°)
for a given aerial dimension. An excessive increase in the transmitted frequency causes absorption and
reflections from precipitation. Therefore, the compromise frequencies allocated are 8800MHz or
13300MHz, the SHF band.
Janus arrays also reduce errors caused by minor variations in the transmitted frequency; pitch, roll and
vertical speed changes and unlocking during flight over an uneven surface. When a Doppler system
unlocks it reverts to "memory" and ceases to compute ground speed and drift.
In the Control Display Unit (CDU) the STBY (Standby) function is selected when the aircraft is close to
structures and people. This safeguards the equipment, prevents damaging the health of people in the
radiation path and allows the equipment to be energized for immediate use when the aircraft is
clear.The SEA indicator illuminates when the aircraft is flying over the sea or large expanses of water. As
stated previously the reflected returns from water are less than, those from land due to "spillage" of
reflected energy from the front of the forward beams and the rear of the rearward beams. This results in
a smaller measured fd spectrum from the four beams, evidenced by a reduction in the actual ground
speed readout. Circuitry within the computer will compensate for this ground speed reduction and
increase the readout for the assessed ground speed loss.
Questions
An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity
will occur when:
the transmitter moves away from the receiver

the transmitter moves towards the receiver
the receiver moves towards the transmitter
both transmitter and receiver move towards each other
Due to Doppler effect an apparent decrase in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the
transmitters velocity, will occur when: "the transmitter moves away from the receiver"
The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
Doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System

radio waves refraction in the ionosphere
radar principles using frequency shift
phase comparison from ground station transmissions
Doppler navigation systems use ___ to determine aircraft ground speed and drift:
DVOR
Phase comparison of signals from ground stations
Frequency shift in signals reflected from the ground
DME range measurement
In day to day use the greatest cause of error in Doppler is:
input error
sea movement error
weight error
pitch error
The largest error and source of error on a Doppler derived position is:
Cross track due to compass error

Along track due to TAS computation error
Cross track due to errors in drift measurement
Cross track due to error in drift bias
Updating Doppler is undertaken when:
the co-ordinates are reset to revise the position base on alternative information
a new database is loaded
the equipment is re-initialised with the data and time, and the atomic clock is actuated
all of the above
After a long period in memory, Doppler:
falls back to INS

requires updating
should be switched to manual
will have wandered more over land than over sea
Sea bias error:
is due to the movement of the seea and can be partially corrected by the land/sea switch
is due to the movement of the sea and is not affected by the land/sea switch
is due to a change in Doppler shift over water and is not affected by the land/sea switch
is due to a change in Doppler shift over water and is partially corrected by the land/sea
switch
With regard to Doppler navigation system:
updating is the process of entering co-ordinates after taking a fix

updating can be achieved using VOR/DME fix
updating must be carried out as soon as possible after a prolonged period in memory
all of the above are correct
What frequencies are allocated to Doppler Navigation systems?
8.8 Hz and 13.3 Hz

8.8 KHz and 13.3 KHz
8.8 MHz and 13.3 MHz
8.8 GHz and 13.3 GHz
SHF Band
A radio facility transmits on a wavelength of 2,22 cm. The facility could be a:
radio altimeter
Doppler
LORAN-C
DME
The 4-beam moving Janus array aligns with the aircraft centre line by:
rotating the array towards the beams with the smallest Doppler shift
rotating the array until matched pairs of beams receive the same difference in Doppler shift
measuring the drift and rotating the array by the same amount
all of the above
Which of the following statements is correct when considering a Doppler navigation system?
aerial misalignment will produce an error to drift angle

sea bias can be reduced by using a gyro stabilised aerial array
sea movement error produces higher frequency, and thus ground speed as indicated will be too low
all of the above
Doppler may unlock over:
shallow fast running water

a calm sea
a desert surface
ice
Which of the following statements is TRUE in respect of Doppler?
The lower the vehicle speed, the higher the transmission frequency used
The higher the vehicle speed, the higher the transmission frequency used
Aerials are stabilised to reduce pitching errors
Aerials are stabilised to reduce climb errors
When a transmitter is moving towards a receiver, the correct description of Doppler Effect is:
There is a decrease in apparent wavelength which is dependent on the transmitter velocity
There is a decrease in apparent wavelength which is independent of the transmitter velocity
There is a increase in apparent wavelength which is dependent on the transmitter velocity
There is an increase in apparent wavelength which is independent of the transmitter velocity
Questions on LORAN
•Q
u K.Haroon » Sun Jan 27, 2013 6:19 pm
Pby
oo
st
te
Questions
A LOP is inaccurate and may be ambiguous:
in the vicinity of the base line bisector

in the vicinity of the base line extensions
at extreme ground wave range
at night due to sky wave effect
The most accurate position lines, for a Loran C pair, are found:
behind the master station

behind the Slave station
on any base line extension
along the base line bisector
In a hyperbolic navigation system accuracy is greatest:
along the right bisector of the baseline

along the baseline
along the baseline extension
within a 30 nm radius of either station
The frequencies used by LORAN C are:
70 - 130 KHz
90 - 110 KHz
108 - 112 MHz
190 - 1750 KHz
In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous string of pulses on a
frequency close to 100 KHz?
Loran C
GPS
Decca
Doppler
Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct?
It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of range measurement by phase
It is a navigation system based on secondary radar principles; position lines are obtained in
sequence from up to eight ground stations
It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of differential range by
pulse technique
It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges being received from a minimum of four
ground stations
Loran C coverage is:
global
confined to certain limited areas of the world
unrestricted between latitudes 80oN and 70oS
unrestricted over the oceans and adjacent coastlines but limited over the major continental land
masses
Which of the following correctly gives the principle of operation of the Loran C navigation
system?
Differential range by phase comparison

Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions
Differential range by pulse technique
Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions
The accuracy of Loran is given as:
±½ km on 95% of occasions between 900 km and 1000 km over the sea

±1 nm on 95% of occasions between 900 nm and 1000 nm over the sea
±1 km on 95% of occasions between 900 km and 1000 km over the sea
±½ nm on 95% of occasions between 900 nm and 1000 nm over the sea
A Loran C chain is designated according to:
a Group Repetition Interval

a colour coding
a chain sequential number
a frequency
On a Loran C station pair, the lowest value of propagation delay time difference will be found:
on the base line bisector

on the slave base line extension
on the master base line extension
at various points depending on the particular pair
Loran is available for use:
in North and south America

worldwide, pole to pole
North America, North Atlantic, parts of Europe and the Mediterranean
every where except the old eastern bloc
Loran position lines/fixes in the coverage area are:
available both day and night

unreliable at down and dusk
unreliable at night
unreliable along the baseline
The time difference is measured in a Loran receiver by:
crystal oscillation
indexing
phase comparison
phase measurement
A hyperbola is a line of surface:
of constant range from two fixed points

on which all points have a constant range difference from each other
on which all points have the same difference or range from two fixed points
which intersects the base line at 90o in all planes except the vertical
A hyperbolic position line joins all points of:
equal range between two ground stations

zero phase difference between two signals
equal difference in range between two stations
equal time taken by two simultaneous transmissions
Propagation error is due to:
coastal refraction
sky wave effect
super refraction
differences in surface conductivity
LORAN C:
is a hyperbolic navigation system

operates using red, green and purple lanes
sends coded radio transmissions from satellites in close Earth orbit
utilises very high frequency radio transmissions
LORAN C operates using ___ which one ___ as master and the others arranged around it and
known as ___ secondary (slave) ___
networks or chains of stations; stations; W, X, Y and Z stations
satellites; satellite; W, X, Y and Z; satellites
networks or chains of stations; station; red, green and purple; stations
Satellites; Satellites; X, Y and Z; satellites
In Loran C, if range difference is determined by using phase difference measurements on the

carrier wave, the accuracy of these measurements is no better than:
±10 micro seconds

±1 micro seconds
±50 micro seconds
±5 micro seconds
The master and slave stations of a hyperbolic navigation system are between 50 to 100 nm
apart. What factor will govern the maximum fixing accuracy:
The power output of the transmitters

The maximum in-phase differences
the cut of the position lines
The lanes which are based on the positions of zero phase difference
Using a hyperbolic navigation system a position is plotted that is 20 nm further from X than Y. X
and Y are 100 nm apart. The hyperbola crosses the baseline:
50 nm from Y
30 nm from Y
40 nm from Y
40 nm from X
LORAN calculations are out of syllabus.
A hyperbola cuts the base line 60 Km from the Master end and 150 Km from the Slave end.
When on the same hyperbola at a range of 90 Km from the Master, the range from the Slave will
be:
180 km
240 km
150 km
300 km
LORAN calculations are out of syllabus.
The principle of operation of DECCA is:
identification of equal time differences from signals with coded group repetition intervals (GRI)
comparison of phase shift
analysis of time referenced scanning beam
analysis of time of arrival and time difference by phase comparison
Propagation errors may cause distortion of the hyperbola. They result from:
Master and slave signals travelling over different surfaces to reach the receiver
Sky wave effect
slave signal having a higher frequency than the master
Atmospheric refraction
In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term inclination denotes the angle
between the:
orbital plane and the equatorial plane

horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite
orbital plane and the earth's axis
horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite
What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellites orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
55°
45°
35°
65°
The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:
6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a
geostationary orbital plane 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane
6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
An all in view satellite navigation receiver is one which:
monitors all 24 satellites

tracks selected satellites
selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four
tracks the closest satellites
In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, All in View is a term used when a receiver:
is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of the 4 with the best geometric
coverage
is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace any lost signal with
another already being monitored
is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational satellites simultaneously
requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation purposes
Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
recognition of Selective Availability (SA)

fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites
assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate satellite
correction of receiver clock error
The orbiting satellites transmit accurately timed radio signals modulated on the L1 frequency. The
digital signals contain a unique satellite identifier and a timing message. This unique navigational signal
repeats every millisecond and is called the pseudo random noise (PRN) code. The receiving equipment
uses its internal electronic clock to measure how long the message has been in transit for and converts
the time delay into a distance from the satellite (a sphere of range).
How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals
belongs to which satellite?
Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency

The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this information
with the calculated positions of the satellites
Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo
Random Noise code
In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:
differentiate between satellites

pass satgellite ephemeris information
pass satellite time and ephemeris information
pass satellite time, ephemeris and other information
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
is the biggest part of the total error, it cannot be corrected

is corrected by using signals from four satellites
can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the satellite clocks
is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks installed in the satellites
The clock in the aircraft is less accurate than its atomic counterpart. So the initial range (pseudo range)
is inaccurate. This error is known as receiver clock bias. The pseudo range from several satellites will
not produce a precise fix. So a correction for the receiver clock bias is needed. The aircraft receiver
changes the ranges all by the same amount at the same time until a near pinpoint fix is achieved. The
amount the range has to be corrected by translates to a receiver clock correction. With the correction
applied this process is run again and again to get the most precise fix possible whilst simultaneously
removing receiver clock error. This method is called an iterative process. The correction for receiver
clock bias also means that by the time a fix position is calculated the receiver is completely
synchronised to satellite time. For this system to work the receiver must be aware of the satellite
positions, called their "ephemeris". The expected positions are stored in receiver memory as an
almanac. The first three sub-frames send data on the clock correction and the satellite position (its
ephemeris).
In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:
reduce ionospheric and tropospheric errors

determine satellite range
eliminate satellite clock and ephemeris errors
remove recediver clock error
The distance measured between a satellite and a receiver is known as a pseudo-range because:
it is measured using pseudo-random codes

it includes receiver clock error
satellite and receiver are continually moving in relation to each other
it is measured against idealised Keplerian orbits
NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by:

regular auto-synchronisation with the satellite clocks
adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error
synchronisation with the satellite clocks on initialisation
having an appropriate atomic time standard within the receiver
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the
complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)

12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)
12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)
24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
In addition to the PRN code the satellite also sends a data stream called the NAV message with
correction factors and information to update the receiver almanac. This is superimposed on the L1
frequency in five sub-frames. Each set of five sub-frames make up a frame lasting 30 seconds. There
are 25 frames in all. To send the entire navigation message takes a total of 12.5 minutes (25 x 30).
In the NAV message, the "ephemeris" refers to the exact:
Position and orbit of all the satellites in the constellation

Position and orbit of all the satellites in the same orbit
Position and orbit of the observed satellite
The observed satellite clock corrections
What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System
(GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation? 3
What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate

independent 3-D position fix? 4
The receiving equipment uses its internal electronic clock to measure how long the message has been
in transit for and converts the time delay into a distance from the satellite (a sphere of range). Ranges
from two satellites produce a circular position line where the spheres intersect. This produces an
ambiguous position. Therefore ranges from three satellites are needed for a two dimensional fix. For a
three dimensional fix, either a separate altitude information or a fourth satellite is needed.
How many GPS satellites must be in view of a receiver in order to resolve clock bias? 3
Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential
technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver position in relation to a D-GPS
ground station
The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the position
fix
A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more accurate position fix
Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for Non Precision Approaches
GPS signals are received on the ground by a continuous receiver at an accurately surveyed location.
The ground installation then computes the difference between its known position and that from the GPS
and sends the correction to any aircraft within 30km using an ACARS datalink. The refined position will
be accurate from 1 to 3m.
The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:

determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the
speed of light
calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies
calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known positions of the satellite and the
receiver
determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the speed of light
Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights under IFR
conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric altitude

The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude
GPS altitude
Barometric altitude
In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential
technique (D-GPS)?
Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce the characteristical receiver
noise error
The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2 frequencies are processed by the receiver
to determine an error correction
Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a
suitablereceiver on the aircraft
Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas which are located a fixed distance apart. This
enables a suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognise and correct for multipath errors
INMARSAT coverage is limited to below 80oN and 80oS because:
the satellites cross the equator at 55o and therefore do not traverse the polar region
the aurora borealis affects the satellite operation
the satellite orbits are geostationary
polar cap absorbtion affects the signals beyond those latitudes
A geostationary orbit, or Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO), is a circular orbit 35,786 kilometres (22,236
mi) above the Earth's equator and following the direction of the Earth's rotation. An object in such an
orbit has an orbital period equal to the Earth's rotational period (one sidereal day), and thus appears
motionless, at a fixed position in the sky, to ground observers. Communications satellites and weather
satellites are often given geostationary orbits, so that the satellite antennas that communicate with
them do not have to move to track them, but can be pointed permanently at the position in the sky
where they stay. A geostationary orbit is a particular type of geosynchronous orbit.
The height derived by a receiver from the NAVSTAR/GPS is:
above mean sea level

above ground level
above the WGS84 ellipsoid
pressure altitude
Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is
approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
NNSS-Transit
NAVSTAR/GPS
COSPAS-SARSAT
GLONASS
What is the purpose of the GPS control segment?
To control the use of the satellites by unauthorised users

To monitor the satellites in orbit
To maintain the satellites in orbit
Degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorised users
How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
12 days
Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day)
Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day)
365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit
The satellites orbit the earth at a height of 20,200 km once every twelve hours.
The GPS Navstar system transmits in the L1 and L2 frequency bands. Which bands are used for the P
codes and which for the C/A codes?
Higher frequency for the C/A code and lower frequency for the P code
Higher frequency for the C/A and P codes
Higher frequency for the P code only
Lower frequency for the C/A code and higher frequency for the P code
The GPS satellites transmit ranging signals on two frequencies in UHF. These are usually referred to as
'L' band. L1 is 1575.42 MHz and L2 is 1227.6 MHz. Control of the satellite is maintained by an up-link in
the 'S' band. Two modulations are used. The Precise (P) modulation or P (Y) code is used only for military
and survey purposes and is transmitted on both L1 and L2 frequencies. This is called the Precise
Positioning Service (PPS). The second modulation which is less accurate and available for general use is
known as Coarse Acquisition (C/A). It is transmitted only on L1 band. This service is called the Standard
Positioning Service (SPS).
Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-
Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS)?
Satelliite to ground time lag; atmospheric propagation; satellite clock

Satellite mutual interference; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation
Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation
Satellite mutual interference; frequency drift; satellite to ground time lag
The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are:
space, control, user

space, control, ground
space, control, air
space, ground, air
The satellites are called the space segment. The timing of each satellite's transmissions is controlled by
four on board atomic clocks. This in turn is monitored by atomic clocks maintained by the Master
Control Station (MCS). MCS send correction signals to the satellite when necessary. The MCS also
uploads navigation data to the satellites. Master Control Stations are distributed around the world near
the equator, collectively known as the "control segment". The receiver is called the "user segment"
During flight using NAVSTAR/GPS and conventional navigation systems, you see a large error between
the positions given by the systems. The action you should take is:
continue the flight in VMC
continue using the conventional systems
continue using the GPS
switch off the faulty system after determining which one is in error
Which of the following statements is correct concerning the principle behind the correction of one of
the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system errors by the transmission of the signal on two frequencies
(L1 and L2)?
The effect of signal reflections (multipath effect) can be reduced due to the interference of both
frequencies
The effect of receiver noise can be reduced due to the interference of both frequencies
The path delay of the signals in the earth atmosphere is proportional to the inverse of the
carrier frequency squared
The influence of shadowing on the GPS signals is proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency
squared
Atmospheric or Ionospheric Error: Variations in ionospheric density and atmospheric conditions are the
largest individual source of error. Satellites that are overhead have the least errors and provide the
most accurate ranges. The delay in the transmission time caused by the ionosphere and atmosphere is
proportional to 1/f^2 (where f is the frequency of the carrier wave). Military receivers operating on two
frequencies can compare the delays on their two frequencies to compute a near total correction for
ionospheric error. A civilian receiver operating on one frequency (C/A signal) can not take advantage of
this method and relies instead on a mathematical model of the ionosphere which is downloaded from
the satellites as part of the data message and subsequently stored in its memory. The latter method
only reduces the error by about 50%, down to plus or minus 4m.
Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1
and L2 frequencies?
Ionospheric
Multipath
Tropospheric
Receiver noise
In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?
EHF
VHF
UHF
SHF
L1 is 1575.42 MHz and L2 is 1227.6 MHz
Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate
position fixes in air navigation?
GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT

NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term Receiver
Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)?
It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code
transmitted by the satellites
it is the abilityof the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data transmitted by the monitoring
stations of the ground segment
it is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the navigation information
It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed monitor stations (ground segment)
automatically determines the integrity of the navigation message
Which one of the following is an advantage of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global
navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?
The average position calculated from data provided by both systems increases overall accuracy
The activation of Selective Availability can be recognised by the INS
The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS
The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy
The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS,
defined as WGS 84, is
an ellipsoid
a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
a sphere
a geoid
GPS satellite transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are
generally available for use by civil aviation?
L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)

L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)
L1-precise (P)
L2-selected availability (S/A)
The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
select appropriate satellites automatically to track the signals and to measure the time
taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver
transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the distance to the satellite
to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to measure the time
monitor the orbital planes of the satellites
What are the basic elements transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
i. offset of the satellite clock from GMT

ii. edphemeris data
iii. health data

iv. ionospheric delays
v. solar activity
Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS
position fix?
3 satellites with an azimuth of 120o from each other and an elevation of 45° above the horizon
3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120° from each other
together with a fourth directly overhead
4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low elevation above the horizon
4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the horizon
The optimum geometry for four satellites is to have three separated by 120° in azimuth and elevated a
little above the horizon with a fourth directly overhead. On the other hand, if the satellites are close
together, the angle of cut between the range lines will be shallow and the fix is liable to be less
accurate. The term used to describe this effect in GPS fixing is Geometric Dilution Of Precision (GDOP).
In respect of the use of GNSS, Dilution of Precision (DOP) is a loss of accuracy due to:
relative position of the visible satellites

ionospheric effects
multi-path signals from some satellites
use of satellites at low altitudes
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, Selective Availability (SA) is the artificial degradation
of the navigation accuracy by:
shutting off selected satellites

dithering the satellite clock
using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal processing
offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined constant amount
In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy
of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available satellites

It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellitie signals
It increases because only signals from satellites in the roost suitable geometric constellation are
selected by the receiver
It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals, the computing process in the
receiver is quicker
The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment:
provides X, Y and Y co-ordinates and monitoring of the accuracy of the satellite data
provides X. Y, Z and T co-ordinates and the constellation data
monitors the accuracy of the satellite data and provides system time
provides geographic position and UTC
Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking
signals from 4 different satellites?
Latitude, longitude and altitude

Latitude and longitude
Latitude, longitude and time
Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
The height of the GPS Navstar system above the earth in km is: 20,200 Km
The GPS satellite navigation system suffers from the following errors:
Interference from other satellites, clock bias, time lag

Ephemeris, clock bias, propogation
Ephemeris, interference from other satellites, propagation
Ephemeris, time lag, interference from other satellites
Rule out interference from other satellites
The GPS satellite navigation system operates by:
measuring the time for the signal to travel to the receiver and back
measuring the time for the signal to reach the receiver
phase comparison
measuring the phase of the incoming signal
To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for the loss of one satellite requires 6 SVs.
The receiver normally tracks four satellites to give a 3D fix. Every twenty seconds data from one of the
four satellites is replaced by data from a fifth. If the position changes either the satellite that was
rejected or the new one is in error. By continuously sampling the satellites a faulty one can be identified.
This means that whereas a 2D fix normally requires 3 satellites and a 3D fix requires four, when RAIM is
monitoring the navigation solution four satellites are needed for a 2D fix and requires five to monitor a
3D fix. If an error is found a further satellite must be available for RAIM to continue to function. So the
ideal is to have two 'spare' over and above the minimum needed for a fix.
Without RAIM Monitoring, number of satellites required for 2D Fix = 3 and for a 3D Fix = 4.
With RAIM Monitoring, number of satellites required for 2D Fix = 4 and for a 3D Fix = 5.
With RAIM Monitoring and with one reduntant satellite, number of satellites required for 2D Fix = 5 and
for a 3D Fix = 6.
In order for a GPS receiver to conduct RAIM it must use a minimum of:
Three satellites plus a barometric input

Four satellites
Five satellites
Five satellites plus a barometric input
Assuming a 3D Fix
Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so
called Navigation Message transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
Time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix (Selective Availability SA)
Almanac data; satellite status information
Data to correct receiver clock error; almanac data
Time; position of the satellites
Which GPS frequencies are available for commercial air transport?
1227.6 MHz only

1575.42 MHz only
1227.6 MHz and 1575.42 MHz
1227.6 MHz or 1575.42 MHz
1227.6 is L2 for military
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:

timing the period that is taken for a satellites transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver
the aircrafts receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known
position
timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and
return from a satellite in a known position
the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum number
of satellites
Unauthorised civilian users of NAVSTAR/GPS can access: C/A Code
The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle above the horizon
minimised by computing the average of all signals
minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing signals
transmitted by the satellites
negligible
Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation

system is to be used in combination with a multi-sensor system?
Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions
The prescribed IFR-equipment must be in working correctly and the navigation information continuously
displayed
The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to monitor all prescribed navigation systems
The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operational
The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is:
multiplex
multi-channel
sequential
fast multiplex
Single-Channel: This type uses just one channel which moves from one satellite to another to collect
data for navigational purposes. As the data is not simultaneous the movement of the receiver can
degrade overall accuracy.
Multi-Channel Receivers: With three channels, one channel is used to calculate range whilst the others
read the NAV messages. Compared to a single channel receiver time to first fix is reduced and the
receiver can maintain tracking at moderate speeds.
Multiplex Receivers: Multiplex receivers use a single channel which switches every 5 milliseconds
between satellites in view. They provide a high quality fix but are susceptible to jamming, either real or
accidental.
Continuous Receivers: Continuous receivers are used in specialised circumstances such as survey work
or for scientific purposes. Operating on between four and twelve channels they give instantaneous read
out of position and speed. Normally the four satellites that are predicted to give the best geometric
solution are tracked. This minimises GDOP. Continuous receivers track all visible satellites
simultaneously. The disadvantage is their high cost.
How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and
azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the navigation message
It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites
The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code
The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of the antenna
The skysearch carried out by a GNSS receiver:
is done prior to each fix

is done when the receiver position is in error
involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before determining which satellites
are in view
is the procedure carried out by the monitoring stations to check the accuracy of the satellite data
In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, Search the Sky is a:
continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for satellites rising above the
horizon
procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored satellite data
available
continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites
procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming operational
Airborne GNSS receivers are protected from the effects of selective availability (SA) by:
warning transmitted on the satellite Nav message

use of RAIM techniques
warning transmitted from the ground segment
NOTAMS
How many clocks are installed in each NAVSTAR/GPS satellite? 4
The timing of each satellite's transmissions is controlled by four on board atomic clocks. This in turn is
monitored by atomic clocks maintained by the Master Control Station (MCS).
What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? Atomic
Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the LAAS (local area
augmentation system) of the satellite navigation system of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
A LAAS corrects the position of the aircraft by relaying the information via a geo-stationary satellite
The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the aircraft position in relation to the LAAS
ground reference station
A LAAS cannot correct for satellite timing and orbital position error
The closer the receiver is to a LAAS ground reference station, the more accurate is the
aircraft position fix
The visibility of GPS satellites is:
dependent on the location of the user

greatest at the equator
greatest at the poles
the same at all points on and close to the surface of the earth
Where on the Earth would you have the most satellites visible:
At the Equator
At the Poles
It will be the same anywhere on the Earth
Depends on the time of day
The GNSS receiver determines the aeroplane velocity by:
Integrating measured change of position with time

Determining satellite/aeroplane relative velocities from Doppler shift measurements
Determining the Doppler shift of the receiver frequency
Determining the rate of change of pseudo ranges
Satellites are considered to be in view for the SPS if they are:
More than 10° above the horizon

Above the horizon
Which of the following is not improved by the application of differential GPS?
Multi-path effects
Tropospheric delays
Satellite clock error
Selective availability
DGPS corrects for errors induced by satellite clocks, ephemeris and ionospheric propagation. It cannot
correct for receiver errors, multipath signals or some atmospheric propagation errors.
The Glonass satellite system differs from the Navstar GPS system in that:
the satellites are at a lower orbital height

it is intended to use less satellites
the orbital paths are at a smaller angle to the plane of the equator
the satellites are geostationary
The satellites fly at a height of approximately 19,100 km, lower than GPS.
On an aeroplane the GNSS receiver aerial should be located: "On top of the fuselage"
In a Pseudolite DGPS a data link is provided:
To communicate satellite position information to the reference station

To communicate navigation signals from the satellite to the aeroplane's GNSS receiver
To communicate DGPS corrections and integrity information to the aeroplane's GNSS
receiver
To communicate corrections of clock and position from the reference station to the satellite
Pseudolites: A development of dGPS is to include an extra ground station that acts like another satellite,
a pseudo satellite or pseudolite. The pseudolite sends satellite type signals to the receiver and sends
the dGPS correction. The benefit is greater than "raw" dGPS because the pseudolite gives another range
input to increase the accuracy of the fix, particularly in the vertical plane reducing the VDOP (Vertical
Dilution of Precision). Pseudolites are short range devices intended to increase GPS position accuracy in
the approach. Since they are placed on the ground, they can have problems with the aircraft fuselage
screening the receiver aerial. For this reason they tend to be placed off to the side of the approach path.
In a Wide Area Augmentation Shystem the corrections for an aeroplane's GNSS receiver are
broadcast:
from the monitor stations

by the Wide Area master station
via a geostationary satellite
via the GNSS constellation
Both dGPS and pseudolites provide a high level of accuracy over a small area. Satellite Based
Augmentation Systems take the ideas of dGPS and apply them over a wide area. There are four systems
under development, all of which work on the same basic principle. One of them is the Wide Area
Augmentation System (WAAS), developed in the US.
In GPS the satellite Nav message is repeated:
Every 12.5 minutes

At a rate of 1 subframe every 12.5 minutes
Every 12.5 seconds
As dictated by the master control station
Each set of five sub-frames make up a frame lasting 30 seconds. There are 25 frames in all. To send the
entire navigation message takes a total of 12.5 minutes (25 x 30).
Which of the following affects the User Equivalent Range Error (UERE)?
Errors in the receiver processor's ionospheric model

Errors in the receiver clock
Failure of the altitude input
Poor geometry of satellites
"UERE" is the umbrella term for all of the error sources which contribute to the total error budget e.g.
Errors relating to:
1. Satellite clock
2. Upper atmosphere (ionosphere)
3. Receiver clock
4. Satellite orbit
5. Lower atmosphere
6. Multipath
Which of the following will cause the greatest GPS error:
Ephemeris error
Satellite clock error
Ionospheric error
Latitude error
According to some sources its "Satellite Clock Error" e.g. https://www.e-education.psu.edu/natureo ...
5_p20.html
The coverage of the maritime satellite communications system (IMMARSAT) is: Between 80°N and
80°S
Inmarsat - International Maritime Satellite Organization
If, during a manoeuvre, a satellite being used for position fixing is shadowed by the wing, the effect
on position will be:
none
the position accuracy can be degraded
another satellite will be selected, so there will be no degradation of position
The GPS will maintain lock using reflections of the signals from the fuselage
The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is:
in the fin
on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver
on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
under the fuselage
The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS SVs includes:
satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information

satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error
position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error
ionospheric propagation information, X, Y and Z co-ordinates and corrections, satellite clock time and
error
The azimuth and elevation of the satellites is:
determined by the satellite and transmitted to the receiver

determined by the receiver from the satellite almanac data
transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac
transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac
The function of the receiver in the GNSS user segment is to:
Interrogate the satellites to determine range

Track the satellites to calculate time
Track the satellites to calculate range
Determine position and assess the accuracy of that position
The task of the control segment is to:
determine availability to users

monitor the SV ephemeris and clock
apply selective availability
all of the above
An aircraft travelling at 330 metres a second transmits a signal at 10 GHz to a stationary receiver. If
the aircraft is flying directly towards the receiver and they are approximately at the same height the
received frequency will be:
11 MHz
10,000011 GHz
9,999989 GHz
11 GHz
Wavelength = Speed of Sound / Frequency
= 3 x 10^8 / 10 GHz or
= 300,000,000 / 10,000,000,000
= 0.03 meters
Dopler Shift = 330/0.03 = 11,000 Hz
Received frequecy = 10 GHz + 11,000 HZ = 10,000011000 Hz or 10.000011 GHz
A half wave dipole aerial suitable for transmitting an RF signal at 18 MHz should have an effective
length of:
16,67 metres
166,67 metres
83,33 metres
8,33 metres
RF signal at 18 MHz has a wavelength = Speed of sound / frequency
= 3 x 10^8 / 18 MHz
= 16.66 meters
Half wave dipole = 16.66 / 2 = 8.33 meters
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground VDF
facility sited 325 FT above MSL is: 134 NM
The VDF class B bearing is accurate to within: ±5°

The emission characteristics A3E describe: VHF communications
The BFO is used to make the ident from an A1A NDB audible

A1A = NDB ident
code ident (classified as A1A). User will have also erratic indications while the signal is interrupted in this
type of beacon. To make the unmodulated parts of the signal audible, ADF equipment incorporates a
Beat Frequency Oscillator (BF0). More modern systems imprint the ident onto the carrier wave by
'keying' an audible, AM signal, in time with the Morse Code ident (classified A2A).
When receiving an NDB signal on an ADF receiver the BFO can be selected OFF for the: ident signal
on N0NA2A
A long range NDB is likely to transmit on 200 Khz and be classified as A1A
For long range NDBs the most common type is: LF N0N A1A
The accuracy of ADF within the DOC (designated OP coverage) by day is: +/-5 deg
The 95% accuracy for ADF bearings of an NDB by day is: ±7°
The signal to noise ratio for an NDB is 3/1 allowing a maximum error of ±5° on 95% of occasions
during daylight hours only
In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy
within +/-10° of the published approach track.
The nominal maximum range of an NDB with a transmitter power is 200 watts is: 50 to 60 nm (in
another question it is mentioned 40 to 45 NM.
Among the options availale, its always less than 100).
Locators have 15 W power, 10-25 nm range and are N0N A2A
An NDB has a range of 50 nm with a power output of 80 watts: The power required to increase the
range to 75 nm is: 180 Watts
ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers is 190 - 1750 kHz
The basic principle of operation of a standard VOR is by: phase difference between a frequency
modulated reference signal and an amplitude modulated variable signal. "ReFerence" has an "F"
so it is "F" (Frequency) Modulated. However incase of a doppler VOR its just the opposite i.e. reference
signal is amplitude modulated and variable signal is frequency modulated.
Concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR: The rotation of the variable
signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation. The
rotation is clockwise for a conventional VOR and anticlockwise for a doppler VOR.
DVOR (doppler vor) improves range
The Declared Operational Coverage of a VOR is: An altitude and range limited by signal to noise
ratio
With regard to the monitoring of a VOR, the monitor will remove the identification or switch off the
VOR transmitter if there is a change of measured bearing greater than: 1 degree
Relative bearing questions: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... =1161#1161
On a 5 dot HSI in the RNAV approach mode (APR RNAV) what does one dot indicate? 0.25
With VOR/DME basic area navigation, the displacement of the CDI needle represents: distance off
track (eg. 5 dots = 5 nm off track)
When using a two dot HSI, a deviation of one dot from the computed track represents 2 nm
The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies: 962-1213 MHz
What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the same
identification? 600m
A DME that has difficulty obtaining a lock-on stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS
after 15000 pulse pairs have been transmitted
When in tracking mode, the airborne interrogator operates at: A PRR variable between 24 and 30
pulses per second
How many aircraft will DME accommodate before reaching saturation: 100
The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment
(DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return of the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second.
The slant range from the ground transponder was: 165 NM 2000-50 / 12.36
ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should
not exceed: + or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured. The accuracy of a DME
decreases with increase of range.
A DME which is listed as operating on an 'X' channel is one which: Responds on a frequency 63
MHz lower than the interrogation frequency
The glidepath beams do not go all the way down to the surface. The lower lobe starts at 0.45 x GP
angle and the upper lobe ends at 1.75 x GP angle.
On Glide Paths other than 3 degrees: Rate of Descent = Ground Speed x 5 x (Glide Path/3)
The coverage of the ILS glide slope with respect to the localiser centreline is: +/- 8 deg to 10 nm
The azimuth and area coverage of a Cat I ILS localiser is: 35° at 17 nm, 10° at 25 nm
The upper limit of the vertical coverage of the localiser must be: not less than 7° above the
horizontal (drawn from the localiser)
Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is 0.7° above or below the correct
glide path
An airway marker and an ILS inner marker carry the same modulation
The emission characteristics of the ILS and a typical localiser frequency are: A8W110.30 MHz
An ILS category II ground installation is one that is capable of providing guidance to a height of: 15m
above the horizontal plane containing the threshold. A category III ILS system provides accurate
guidance down to: the surface of the runway.
MLS Coverage: The azimuth limits of coverage are 40° left or right of the centreline out to a maximum
of 20nm. Elevation limits are from 0.9° to 20° from the horizontal, up to 20,000 ft and out to 20NM.
DME/P coverage goes out to 22NM.
MLS is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to use an
ILS.
MLS operates on one of 200 channels in the band 5.03 GHz to 5.09 GHz (SHF band). The principle of
operation is time referenced scanning beams.
PRP = 1/PRF
Max Radar Range = C / 2 x PRF and Min Radar Range = C x Pulse Length / 2
If a radar has a beam width of 3° and a pulse length of 4 micro seconds, the target azimuth resolution
at a range of 60 NM will be approximately:
3nm Use 1 in 60 rule.
Pulse length = cycles x wavelength
An SRA may be flown to: 2.0 nm using QFE unless the pilot advises the controller the approach is to
be flown on QNH
A high resolution surveillance radar will be terminated at a range from touchdown of: 0.5 nm
Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates in SHF band with RPM of 60 and sometimes picks up the
aircraft type.
An area surveillance radar is most likely to use a frequency of: 600 Mhz
The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately: 300
nm
What is a typical range for an EN-route surveillance radar (RSR)? "Up to 250 nm"
What is the typical range for a Terminal Area surveillance Radar (TAR)? "80 NM"
The PAR must be capable of providing detection to a range of 9NM up to an elevation of 7° within 10°
(either side) of the runway centre line (20° in total).
Weather radar operates between 9 GHz and 10 GHz in the SHF band. A frequency of 9 GHZ gives a
wavelength of 3cm.
In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a fan shaped beam (cosec^2 beam)
effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range
In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in Mapping mode enables: scanning of a large ground
zone producing echoes whose signals are practically independent of distance
Calculating cloud height: (Tilt - Half of Beam Width) x 100 x Range in NM
An airborne weather radar unit transmits a 5o beam from a parabolic dish aerial reflector assembly. If
the wavelength is 4 cm, the diameter of the dish is 56 cm: Beam width = 70 x Wavelength / Antenna
Diameter
Surveillance Radar (SSR) frequency: Interrogation 1030 MHz, Response 1090 MHz
Conspicuity codes are for aircraft which have not been allocated a transponder setting. It is 7000 for
aircraft operating within UK airspace and is 2000 for aircraft coming into UK airspace from another FIR.
EFIS Colour code rules:
Green: Selected or Engaged Modes
White or Magenta: Turbulence
White: Current Data and Values, Downpath waypoints, present track line, aircraft symbol, range arcs.
Cyan: Off Route waypoint, sky.

Ground DME responders respond at a frequency:
a) the same as the interrogation signal

b) 63 MHz greater than interrogation frequency
c) 63 MHz lower than interrogation frequency
d) 63 MHz different from interrogation frequency, either above or below
b) marked correct whereas (d) seems to be correct. (for exam id, there seems to be no other similar to
this)
At a height of 5,000 feet you might expect to receive a VHF signal, from a transmitter at sea level, at
a range of:
a) 88,4 nm
b) 88,4 nm
c) 70,7 nm
d) 200 km
a) correct but both a) and b) are same.
An aircraft, on a heading of 180oM is on a bearing of 270oM from a VOR. The bearing you should
select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle is:
a) 360
b) 270
c) 090
d) 180
c) marked correct whereas both (c) and (b) can be correct. This was appealed and the UK CAA agreed
there was an error and say they have modifed the question to make the given answer the only correct
one. So we need to see the correct question. (for exam id, there seems to be no other similar to this)
If you correctly tuned in a VOR situated to your east, your RMI should read ___ and your OBS would
read ___
a) 000; 000 with needle central and TO indicated

b) 090; 090 with needle central and FROM indicated
c) 000; 000 with needle central and FROM indicated
d) 090; 090 with needle central and TO indicated
c) marked correct whereas (d) seems to be correct. (for exam id, there seems to be no other similar to
this).
An aircraft carrying out a 3o glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in ground speed from
150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in ground speed on
the aircrafts rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
a) 150 FT/MIN
b) 250 FT/MIN
c) 50 FT/MIN
d) 100 FT/MIN
c) marked correct whereas (a) is correct (for exam id, the unique part is FT/MIN)
On a 3 degree Glide Path.
Rate of Descent = Ground Speed x 5

AT 150 kts (150 x 5) = 750
AT 120 kts (120 x 5) = 600
The difference is 150 not 50
On Glide Paths other than 3 degrees:
Rate of Descent = Ground Speed x 5 x (Glide Path/3)
Another similar question marked correctly is:
An aircraft on a 3o ILS approach is flying a ground speed of 150 knots. At the outer marker (4.5 nm from
the threshold) the speed must be reduced to 120 knots. The ROD should be reduced by:
a) 120 fpm
b) 150 fpm
c) 170 fpm
d) 190 fpm
b) correct and marked correct.
On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?
a) Same frequency as the localiser

b) 75 MHz
c) Same frequency as the glide path
d) 3000 Hz
d) marked correct whereas (b) is correct. (for exam id, there seems to be no other similar to this)
For reliable navigation information the approximate coverage of a 3o ILS glide slope is:
a) 0.7o above and below the glide path and 8o either side of the localiser centre line
b) 0.45o from the horizontal to 1.75o above the glide path and 8o either side of the localiser centre line
c) 1.5o to 5o from the horizontal and 8o either side of the localiser
d) 3o above and below the glide path and 10o either side of the localiser centre line
c) marked correct whereas (b) is correct.
Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "For reliable navigation information the approximate coverage.."
PAR at a military airfield has both azimuth and an elevation element. It must be able to provide an
accuracy within:
a) ±30 feet elevation, ±20 feet azimuth

b) ±30 feet azimuth, ±20 feet elevation
c) ±30 feet elevation and azimuth
d) ±20 feet elevation and azimuth
a) marked correct whereas b) is correct.
Ref: PAK CAA / RADIO NAVIGATIONAL AIDS / AIR NAVIGATION ORDER / PAR Accuracy / Page 43,44
[http://www.caapakistan.com.pk/downloads ... TS-1.0.pdf]
With the AWR set at 100 nm range a large cloud appears at 50 nm. If the range is reduced to 50 nm:
a) The image will decrease in area and remain where it is

b) The image will decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
c) The image will increase in area and move to the bottom of the screen
d) The image will increase in area and move to the top of the screen
b) marked correct whereas (d) seems correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it
comes in the exam) is the appearance of the phrase "AWR set at 100 nm".
Other similar questions are:
1) A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM,
the return on the radar screen should:
a) decrease in area and move to the top of the screen

b) increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
c) decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
d) increase in area and move to the top of the screen <-- Marked Correct
A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in:
a) mode C only
b) mode A only
c) all modes
d) mode S
d) marked correct whereas (c) seems correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it
comes in the exam) is the appearance of "4096" twice in the question.
1) The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode:
a) A
b) C
c) S
d) All <-- Marked Correct
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
a) 7000
b) 7700
c) 7600
d) 7500
d) marked correct, whereas (c) is correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in
the exam) is that all four answer choices are in digits in the decreasing order 7700, 7600, 7500.
1) What transponder code is selected in the event of radio failure:
a) 7000
b) 7500
c) 7600 <-- Marked Correct
d) 7700
2) The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
a) an emergency
b) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
c) transponder malfunction
d) radio communication failure <-- Marked Correct
3) In special Condition signals, to signify radio failure, which of the following codes should you select on
your transponder?
a) 7700
b) ident
c) 7500
d) 7600 <-- Marked Correct
4) The SSR code for a total radio failure is:
a) A7500
b) A7600 <-- Marked Correct
c) A7500 plus mode C
d) A7600 plus mode C
SSR is not affected by weather clutter because:
a) It uses different frequencies for transmission and reception

b) The wavelength is too short to be reflected from cloud droplets
c) The equipment uses a moving target indicator
d) The frequency used penetrates clouds
d) marked correct whereas (a) is correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in
the exam) is the phrase "weather clutter" in the question. There is another one which is correctly
marked but it has the phrase "storm clutter" in the question.
Which of the following systems use pulse technique?
a) secondary surveillance radar

b) airborne weather radar
c) distance measuring equipment
d) primary radar
a) marked correct whereas all options use pulse technique.
What is the PRF given 50 micro second pulse width and a range of 30 nm:
a) 1620 pps
b) 810 pps
c) 3240 pps
d) 3086 pps
a) marked correct. There seems to be a typo in the question. With 30nm PRF comes out to be 2700,
however with 50nm it is 1620.
There is another question in the database which is correct:
The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to
detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:
(pps = pulses per second)

a) 610 pps
b) 3240 pps
c) 1620 pps
d) 713 pps
c) is marked correct and is correct.
Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "50 micro second pulse width". The 50 micro second pulse width given in the question does not
affect the maximum range, but will determine the minimum range.
In the approach phase with a two dot lateral deviation HSI display, a one dot deviation from track
would represent:
a) 5 nm
b) 0.5 nm
c) 5°
d) 0.5°
d) marked correct
If its the the RNAV Approach mode, maximum deflection of the CDI typically represents 1.25 NM on
either side of the selected course. That makes one dot equal to 0.625 nm. This questions was deleted
from the CQB years ago because they refer to a particular RNAV installation (no idea which) and have no
generally correct answer.
What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot RNAV system in the approach mode?
a) 10 NM
b) 0.5°
c) 10°
d) 0.5 NM
b) marked correct.
In the RNAV Approach mode, maximum deflection of the CDI typically represents 1.25 NM on either side
of the selected course. That makes one dot equal to 0.625 nm. This questions was deleted from the CQB
years ago because they refer to a particular RNAV installation (no idea which) and have no generally
correct answer.
What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot basic RNAV system in the en-route mode?
a) 1 NM
b) 5 NM
c) 2 NM
d) 10 NM
b) marked correct
If full scale deflection is 5 nm on one side then one dot should represent 2.5 nm. This questions was
deleted from the CQB years ago because they refer to a particular RNAV installation (no idea which) and
have no generally correct answer.
The principle of operation of LORAN C is:
a) differential range by phase comparison

b) differential range by pulse technique
c) range by pulse technique
d) range by phase comparison
a) marked correct whereas (b) is correct.
Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the phraseology of the
question which strats with "The principle of operation". Other correctly marked questions are as under:
1) Which of the following correctly gives the principle of operation of the Loran C navigation system?
Differential range by phase comparison

Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions
Differential range by pulse technique
Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions
2) Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct?
It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of range measurement by phase
It is a navigation system based on secondary radar principles; position lines are obtained in sequence
from up to eight ground stations
It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of differential range by pulse
technique
It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges being received from a minimum of four ground
stations
3) Which statement is most correct?
Loran C creates hyperbolic position lines based on differential range by pulse technique
Loran C creates hyperbolic lines based on a low sweep rate frequency modulated continuous wave
Loran C creates hyperbolic lines based on an atomic time standard
Loran C creates elliptical lines based on differential range by Doppler
4) Loran C is a navigation system which uses:
differential range measurements

rho/theta measurements
pseudo range measurements
slant range measurements
In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites placed?
a) Geo-stationary
b) Elliptical
c) Circular
d) Pole to pole
b) marked correct whereas (c) is correct.
A geostationary orbit, or Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO), is a circular orbit 35,786 kilometres (22,236
mi) above the Earth's equator and following the direction of the Earth's rotation. An object in such an
orbit has an orbital period equal to the Earth's rotational period (one sidereal day), and thus appears
motionless, at a fixed position in the sky, to ground observers. Communications satellites and weather
satellites are often given geostationary orbits, so that the satellite antennas that communicate with
them do not have to move to track them, but can be pointed permanently at the position in the sky
where they stay. A geostationary orbit is a particular type of geosynchronous orbit.
The orbital height of geostationary satellites is:
a) 15330 km
b) 20180 km
c) 10898 nm
d) 10313 nm
b) marked correct whereas (b) and (c) are almost the same except the units.
A microwave landing system operates:
a) on one of 200 channels in the band 5030 to 5090 GHz

b) on one of 200 channels in the band 5.03 GHz to 5090 GHz
c) on one of 400 channels in the band 5030 GHz to 5090 GHz
d) on one of 400 channels in the band 5.03 GHz to 5.09 GHz
b) marked correct whereas the correct answer is not given. It should be "one of 200 available channels
in band 5031 MHz to 5090.7 MHz or 5.03 GHz to 5.09 GHz or a combination thereof" It cant be 5090
GHz.
When using a DVOR, the pilot should be aware that the reference and variable signals are reversed.
This:
a) does not affect the VOR indications in any way

b) reverses the indications
c) improves the accuracy
d) improves the range
d) marked correct whereas out of the available options (c) is correct. C is also marked correct in other
databases.
Radio Theory
To produce a radio wave all that is needed is an oscillating electrical current and an aerial.
The electrons moving backwards and forwards in the aerial produce a changing electromagnetic field.
Electromagnetic field moves away at the speed of light.
The free electromagnetic wave is sometimes called radio frequency (RF) energy.
When the changing electromagnetic wave passes over the electrons in a receiving aerial they are
moved.
Movement of electrons produces a current identical to the one that was transmitted.
Frequency and Wavelength
The speed of light is constant (in a vacuum) at 3 x 10^8 metres per second (roughly 162,000 nautical
miles per second).
An alternating current that cycles once in one second will produce one wave in that time.
At the end of one second, the front of the wave is 3 x 10^8 metres away so the wave length is 3 x 10^8
metres.
As the wave has cycled once in a second it is said to have a frequency of one cycle a second i.e. one
Hertz (Hz).
Doubling the frequency will halve the wavelength.
1000 Hz = Kilohertz (KHz)
1,000,000 Hz = Megahertz (MHz)
1,000,000,000 Hz = Gigahertz (GHz)
The relationship between frequency and wavelength can be expressed by the following formula:
Wavelength = Speed of light / Frequency
Units for this formula are:
Wavelegth in meters.
Frequency in Hz
Speed of light in meters per second
See some sample questions here https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... .php?t=495
Radio Frequency Spectrum
The radio frequency spectrum has eight bands:
Emission Classification
Radio transmissions are classified by a three digit code:
The first symbol describes the transmitted waveform.
N = Unmodulated carrier
A = Double sideband
H = Single sideband
J = Single sideband with suppressed carrier
P = Unmodulated pulses
The second describes the modulation.
0 = No modulation
1 = Unmodulated digtal information
2 = Modulated digital informaton
3 = Analogue information
7 = Multi channel digital information
8 = Multi channel analogue informaton
9 = Composite digital and analogue informaton
The third describes the type of information carried.
N = No information
A = Morse
E = Voice
W = Morse and voice
The common designators used in aviation are:

A1A = NDB ident
Radio Frequency Modulation
The frequency of the radio wave on its own is not audible.
Information to be transmitted must be laid on top of the basic frequency (the carrier wave) before
transmission. This is modulation.
Then it is to be decoded on reception. This is demodulation.
Amplitude Modulation and Sidebands
It is to vary the amplitude of the carrier wave to transmit information.
Radio wave now (after amplitude modulation) has the carrier wave frequency and also the intelligence
frequencies both above and below the line.
Three frequencies are transmitted together (original carrier wave, carrier wave + intelligence, carrier
wave - intelligence)
The two new frequencies are called sidebands.
The intelligence is duplicated on the sidebands.
So it is possible to reduce the amount of space taken up by the transmission, the bandwidth, by not
transmitting the carrier wave and one of the sidebands.
This also reduces the power required by the transmitter.
Electrical systems that do this are said to produce single sideband (SSB) transmissions when only the
sideband is suppressed.
When the carrier wave is also removed then "Single Sideband Suppressed Carrier".
HF Volmet and two-way communications both use SSB transmissions with suppressed carrier waves.
Frequency Modulation
In the frequency modulated (FM) signal, the frequency is varied.
An FM receiver will pick up the same interference and static with the signal as an AM receiver.
However it has the capability to clip the signal to remove any extraneous variations in amplitude.
The variations in frequency which carry the intelligence are unaffected
Thus an FM audio signal will produce a high fidelity reproduction of the original without interference
from static.
With frequency modulation the mixture of frequencies is much more complex than AM and the
bandwidth is much wider.
FM sidebands are wider than AM.
An FM transmission will require more power and more than twice the bandwidth of an equivalent single
sideband AM signal.
Due to greater bandwidth occupied by a station, FM signals are restricted to low power.
Therefore the ranges are short.
Reason is to avoid congesting the airwaves.
For FM More complex receiving equipment is required.
Pulse Modulation
Information such as morse signals can be transmitted by interrupting (keying) the carrier wave.
This sends a series of dots and dashes.
More complex systems can send digitised information in a binary code.
Phase and Phase Difference
Positions on a radio wave are described in degrees from 0 to 360.
By convention the measurement starts where the amplitude of the wave is increasing through zero.
If two transmissions with the same wavelength start at the same point and time, the waves will be
synchronised and in phase.
If one starts slightly after another they will be out of phase by an amount measured in degrees.
For phase comparison the amplitude of the waves may differ but the wavelength, and thus the
frequency, must be the same.
The two signals being compared must have the same frequency and wavelength but must be
distinguishable.
Two signals must be prevented from cancelling each other out (if they are 180° out of phase).
The phase of zero is where the amplitude is zero and rising.
To determine phase difference find where your wave rises through the neutral position and read the
phase of the reference wave at that point.
In the diagram below the high amplitude wave is 225° out of phase with the reference wave.
Phase Modulation and Phase Key shifting
Phase Modulation allows information to be sent in the form of instantaneous variations in the phase of
the carrier wave.
Its derivative is Phase Key Shifting.
The simplest form is Binary Phase Key Shifting.
It transmits digital information by reversing the phase of the carrier wave.
Phase Key Shifting is used in the GPS system, in wireless Local Area Network (LAN) communication, and
by Bluetooth.
Polarisation
Radio waves are composed of two elements.
An electrical or E field.
A magnetic field at right angles to the electrical field called the H field.
Both the E and the H field, as well as being orthogonal, are also in phase and at right angles to the
direction of propagation.
A vertically polarised wave is a wave in which all the electrical oscillation is in the vertical plane.
A vertical aerial will produce a vertically polarised wave and will require a vertical aerial to receive it.
A horizontal aerial will produce a horizontally polarised wave.
VHF communications frequencies are vertically polarised (vertical aircraft aerials).
Navigation frequencies are horizontal (horizontal aerials).
Types of Aerials
Dipoles
The simplest aerial is a vertical or horizontal conductor (orientation depending on polarisation).
This is a di-pole aerial.
The ideal aerial size is either half the wavelength or a quarter of the wavelength.
Polar diagrams show the radiation pattern for a quarter wave vertical dipole aerial.
The view from above is symmetrical or omni-directional, showing that the aerial transmits equally well in
all directions.
From the side it can be seen that the aerial transmits well horizontally but there is an area overhead
where there is no transmission, and therefore no signal will be received.
Parabolic Aerials
To transmit directional signals a parabolic aerial or dish aerial can be used.
The particular property of a parabolic shape that makes it useful as a reflector is that transmissions from
one point (called "focus"), all reflect in the same direction.
The parabolic aerial produces a "pencil beam" ideal for target tracking such as might be used in aircraft
weather radar.
Phase Array Aerials
A modern alternative to the parabolic dish is the phase array aerial.
In this type a series of conducting elements like small dipoles are arranged in a line and are fed signals
in phase with each other.
The interference pattern they produce acts like a pencil beam.
Slotted Scanners
Work more or less the same way as phase array aerials except that the vertical dipole element is
replaced by a slot.
The slot acts as a resonant cavity to produce the radio signal.
Most modern aircraft radars (particularly military types) use slotted scanners.
Sidelobes
All dish aerials produce side lobes.
The main transmission lobe has sidelobes of wasted energy.
Sidelobes can be the source of errors and interference in beamed aerial systems.
An efficient aerial system (phase array and slottted scanners) produce smaller sidelobes.
A parabolic antenna can waste two thirds of the energy directed into it whereas a well designed slotted
aerial will waste less than half that.
Helical Antennae
Helical aerials are formed by winding the receiving aerial into a spiral or helix shape around a central
non-conducting former.
A helical transmitter produces a circularly polarised transmission.
A helical receiver (because of its peculiar shape) can receive any linearly polarised signal as well as
circularly polarised signals.
Thus helical aerial systems are well suited to transmissions where:
1) Alignment of the transmitter and receiver aerials cannot be controlled.
2) In environments where the received signal is a multipath signal (part reflected, part direct) such as
with mobile telephone and satellite systems.
Radio
Q Wave Propagation
P
•u
oby
o K.Haroon » Fri Dec 21, 2012 9:52 am
st
te
Refraction
When light passes through a lens it is bent or refracted at the edge of the glass because the
speed of the wave is changed.
Any change in density of the medium a radio wave passes through or over will produce a similar
effect.
The amount of refraction depends on:
a) Speed change of the wave

b) Wavelength
c) Angle at which it hits the new medium
Longer wavelengths, lower frequencies, are refracted most.
Diffraction
When a wave is directed through a narrow hole a circular waveform appears on the other side.
The hole has acted like a point source and effectively retransmitted the wave.
This diffraction effect also occurs where a wave passes over a sharp object.
Diffraction is greater at longer wavelengths.
Reflection
Reflection depends on:
a) Density of the materials.

b) Wavelength of the radio waves.
c) Angle they hit at.
Reflection also occurs (where otherwise it might not) if the waves hit a surface or (in some
circumstances) changes in density in the atmosphere at a very shallow angle.
In radar systems reflection is an integral part of the design.
Radar reflection is most likely when the wavelength is compatible with the target size.
Attenuation
Attenuation is the loss of signal strength of a wave.
Atmospheric Attenuation
As a radio wave passes through the atmosphere the electrons in dust and water droplets absorb some of
the energy causing atmospheric attenuation.
In a vacuum there is no attenuation as the radio wave has nothing to give up its energy to.
Atmospheric attenuation increases as the frequency increases becoming significant above 1 GHz.
Surface Attenuation
Radio waves passing over the earth's surface also lose their energy and slow down
Surface attenuation is greatest and speed is lowest over the ice caps, then desert areas, then over other
land.
There is least attenuation and the wave travels fastest over the sea.
Surface attenuation increases as frequency increases.
Ionospheric Attenuation
Waves passing through ionosphere are likewise attenuated.
Ionospheric attenuation increases as frequency decreases (unlike atmospheric and surface attenuation).
Space Waves
Space waves are line of sight waves.
All radio frequencies use this method of propagation although its range is limited by obstructions and by
the curvature of the earth.
Ground reflected waves are also included in this category
Surface Waves
At lower frequencies radio waves passing over hills and buildings are diffracted.
The effect is increased by the slower speed of the wave front near the earth's surface (caused by ground
conductivity).
This creates a downward component to the movement.
This tends to make the surface wave follow the curvature of the earth.
The distance a surface wave can travel is limited by surface attenuation (which decreases at lower
frequencies and over the sea).
Surface waves are around:
100 NM long in the HF band.

500 NM long in the MF band.
1000 NM long in the LF band.
4000+ NM long in the VLF bands.
Surface waves and space waves occur together and the combination is called a ground wave
Ionosphere
Ionosphere is the ionised component of the earth's atmosphere stretching from 60 to 400 km above the
surface.
It is divided into 3 layers: D, E and F.
The depth and density of each layer varies with time of day, season and solar activity.
In the ionosphere the few gas molecules that are present are being constantly bombarded with solar
and cosmic radiation.
The molecules of gas, which normally have no electrical charge, are split into positively and negatively
charged ions.
The density of the ions increases with height (up to a point) and increases with the intensity of radiation.
The ionosphere is weaker at night than during the day because the ionising solar radiation is not
present.
The D Layer is present by day only and disappears at sunset.
The E Layer is present by day but may or may not be present at night (depending on daytime solar
activity)
The F Layer is split into two separate layers by day i.e. F1 and F2, which combine at night to form a
single F layer.
Sky Waves
Sky waves are refracted from the ionosphere.
Where the ion density changes radio waves will be refracted.
Most of the refraction occurs about 125km up, at what is known as the E layer.
A wave of a low enough frequency at the correct angle of incidence will be refracted back to earth.
Some sky waves will also refract from the F layer.
The distance from the transmitter to the point where the first returning sky wave is received is called the
minimum skip distance. This also decreases with frequency.
In the gap between the ground wave and the first returning sky wave nothing will be received, this is the
dead space.
Skip distances are increased at night as the ionosphere weakens and refracts less.
By day or night a returning sky wave of sufficient power can be bounced off the earth to be refracted
again.
This is known as multi-hop transmission, and may lead to four or five bounces depending on the terrain.
The maximum skip distance occurs when the signal leaves the earth at a tangent and is restricted by
the curvature of the earth.
The maximum theoretical skip distance from the E layer is about 1500 NM.
The low frequencies which refract best are also those that suffer most from ionospheric attenuation.
This means that sky waves are only reliable in the HF band, where the frequencies are low enough to
refract but not so low that they get attenuated.
Sky waves are present as interference in the MF and LF bands, notably at dawn and dusk.
Sporadic E
In times of high solar activity the E layer is much more heavily ionised than usual.
It becomes dense enough to generate returning sky wave in the VHF band leading to unusually long
range reception.
Atmospheric Ducting
When atmospheric conditions are right, radio waves in the VHF, UHF, SHF and EHF bands can find an
atmospheric duct that allows them unusually long range propagation.
Ducts near the surface need a marked temperature inversion and a rapid decrease in humidity with
height.
Air mass subsidence can produce an elevated duct.
Apart from these generalisations atmospheric ducting is unpredictable.
There is nearly always some ducting which typically extends line of sight ranges by about 15%.
This factor is included in the following formula:
Max likely range of VHF or UHF signal (in nm) = 1.23 x square root of H1 + 1.23 x square root of H2
Atmospheric ducting is also referred to as super refraction.
Super refraction in stable air masses can cause long range interference from VHF to EHF.
When refraction is less than normal then it is called sub-refraction.
Ionospheric Ducting
In the VLF band wavelengths are in the order of tens of kilometres and frequencies are so low that sky
waves would not normally be expected.
The point is reached where the signals no longer refract but reflect from the ionosphere.
The signals barely enter the ionosphere so attenuation is minimal.

Multi-hop transmissions combine with surface waves up to 4000 NM long to use the gap between the
ionosphere and the earth as a natural waveguide.
This is known as ionospheric ducting.
Static
Static is a natural phenomenon caused primarily by the electrical discharges in convective clouds.
Thunderstorms generate huge amounts of electricity and these discharges particularly affect the lower
frequencies becoming insignificant in the VHF band.
When precipitation (particularly rain) strikes an aircraft at a different electrical potential there is a
minute discharge of static.
This precipitation static is most troublesome in the LF and MF bands.
Static can interfere with radio signals.
Noise
Noise is man made interference from unshielded electrical equipment.
It mostly affects the VHF frequencies and above when alternating currents and sparking from poor
connections produce electromagnetic fields.
Noise can interfere with radio signals.
The Doppler Effect
The Doppler effect can be heard in the change in pitch of aircraft noise as an aircraft at low level passes
the observer
It is a high pitch initially. then falls to a lower pitch as the aircraft passes by.
The same effect is present with radio ,saves and. in particular. radar.
With a static transmitter and a static receiver the received frequency is the same as the transmitted
frequency.
If the transmitter is flying towards the receiver more cycles are received each second so the received
frequency is higher.
The change in received frequency is called the Doppler Shift and it is proportional to the relative
velocity.
A closing relative velocity produces an increase in frequency, a positive Doppler shift.
If the transmitter and receiver are moving apart the received frequency is lower, a negative Doppler
shift.
The formula for Doppler Shift is:
Long Range Communications
Frequencies used for long range communications are chosen primarily for their propagation
characteristics.
Though VLF band and ionospheric ducting would appear to be the most suitable but the huge aerial size
(as high as 1500 ft) make them uneconomical. High levels of static prevent conventional voice
transmission.
HF band with predictable sky wave propagation and with less static and lower costs is a reasonable
alternative to VLF band.
HF Frequency:
The HF frequencies used in aviation range from 2 MHz to 22 MHz.
HF uses SSB transmissions with a suppressed carrier wave.
Use the highest possible HF frequency that works. Attenuation and static must be minimized by keeping
the frequency as high as possible. The receiver must be kept out of the dead space.
The frequency at which the first returning skywave just hits the receiver is called the optimum
frequency.
Constantly changing conditions in the ionosphere prevent this from actually being used as slight
variations in skip distance move the receiver into and out of the dead space constantly interrupting the
signal.
The frequency is lowered slightly to keep the receiver in contact and this becomes the Maximum Usable
Frequency.
Any receiver beyond the first returning skywave would also receive the signal but it would not be the
best quality signal for that range.
The frequency could always be increased to the MUF for that range to reduce attenuation and increase
clarity.
Frequencies lower than the MUF will also be received in the same position but ionospheric attenuation
and static will increase to the point where the signal is inaudible. This is the Lowest Usable High
Frequency.
Maximum Usable Frequency vary most by day and night.
The ionosphere at night is less dense and therefore less likely to refract radio signals.
Therefore at night use a lower frequency signal which tends to bend more.
Night frequencies are typically half that of the daytime frequency.
"Sun's up, Frequency's up - Sun's down, Frequency's down"
Factors affecting range and quality of HF transmissions:
• Transmitter power
• Frequency
• Time of day
• Season
• Location (don't expect multi-hop transmissions over the ice caps).
• Disturbances in the ionosphere.
Short Range Communications
Short range comms are restricted to line of sight propagation paths i.e. frequency from VHF to EHF
would be suitable
Atmospheric attenuation becomes significant above the UHF band reducing transmission range.
Military agencies use the upper VHF and lower UHF bands.
Civil agencies use the VHF band from 118 MHz to 137 MHz which gives negligible interference from
static tied to minimal attenuation.
VHF channel spacing is currently 25 KHz in some airspace with 8.33 KHz spacing introduced in upper
airspace.
Occasionally line of sight signals and ground reflected signals which move in and out of phase can
interfere to alternately reinforce themselves and cancel each other out causing the volume of the signal
to increase and decrease. This is known as "fading".
Factors which affect range include:
• Height of transmitter & receiver
• Obstructions
• Fading
Selcal
Selcal is the short for selective calling.
Large aircraft have equipment fitted that allows the pilots to be contacted on the radios without
continuously monitoring the frequency.
It operates on HF or VHF radios.
Each airframe has a Selcal code allocated to it made up of four letters, e.g. JKLF.
The code is notified to the ATC agency on the flight plan (item 18 ).
The code is also notified to the ATC through the radio i.e. the Selcal check. It is carried out on first
contact with each new agency, even if the selcal has already been checked on the same frequency with
the previous agency.
The ATC agency can transmit coded tones corresponding to the letter code that activates a flashing light
and an audio tone in the cockpit.
Once called the crew responds on the appropriate radio.
SATCOM and Digital Data Links
Satellite links can be used to pass data, voice messages or pictures to and from aircraft and ground
stations.
The satellites are operated by INMARSAT, the International Maritime Satellite Organisation.
The satellites maintain a geostationary orbit around the equator about 30,000 km above the earth's
surface.
As this Orbit has the same period as the earth's rotation, they remain stationary above the surface.
Four satellites are able to provide coverage at all longitudes and between 80°N and 80°S.
Transmissions are in the UHF band, relying on line of sight transmission.
These frequencies only suffer slight atmospheric attenuation and little or no ionospheric attenuation.
The signals are also unlikely to be refracted significantly by the ionosphere.
Signals are digital.
ACARS
Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System
It is a data link used by operators to send and receive messages to and from aircraft in flight using the
aircraft radios.
It can operate through VHF (usual), SATCOM and HF.
Modern FMS systems and flight data recorders will automatically pass information on engine, airframe
parameters and navigational data.
CPDLC
Controller Pilot Data Link Communication.
It uses the ACARS system to pass ATC clearances and communications to the crew via a
Communications Management Unit and the FMS MCDU.
Ground Direction Finding
Some VHF ground radio stations are equipped with automatic direction finding (VHF DF).
Military stations may provide VHF DF or UHF DF.
The receiver aerials are known as Adcock aerials.
These aerials are a series of dipoles arranged in a circle.
Each aerial will receive a slightly different phase of the incoming signal.
The difference in phase indicates where the signal is coming from.
Modern displays are digital.
Bearing information is expressed as either a magnetic or true direction either to or from the station.
QDM = Magnetic bearing to the station
QDR = Magnetic bearing from the station
Just to remember: DR is 'direction radial' and DM is 'direction magnetic', but direction 'to' because a
radial is a 'direction from'.
QTE = True bearing from the station

QUJ = True bearing to the station
Just to remember: TE is 'true emanation'
Bearings are classified by their quality.
Class A bearings are accurate to ±2°.
Class B (most common) to ±5°. It can be assumed if the class is not given.
Class C to ±10°
Class D outside 10°
Ground DF stations can decline to give a bearing if accuracy is poor
Letdowns
Two types of DF letdown are:
1) VDF procedure
2) QGH procedure (GH = ground homing).
The advantage with both procedures is that no on board nav equipment is needed.
The VDF letdown is available throughout the world.
Stations which can offer the service are listed in the COM section of the AIP.
Details of the letdown are in the RAC section.
QGH is more usually only available from military controllers.
QGH procedures are not published and no chart is required.
All work is done by the controller who passes headings to steer and descent instructions to the pilot.
NDB and ADF
The Non Directional Beacon (NDB) sends out a signal in all directions.
It uses a vertical dipole aerial.
The aeroplane needs direction finding equipment i.e. ADF (Automatic Direction Finding) to find the
bearing.
NDBs are a medium range nav aid using frequencies from 190 KHz to 1750 KHz, in Europe usually 200
KHz to 455 KHz.
These frequencies straddle the MF and LF bands but the system could also be described as using
hectometric and kilometric wavelengths or it could be described loosely as an MF or hectometric aid
because most of the frequencies are in one band.
Surface waves are the primary method of signal propagation giving theoretical ranges of 300 NM over
land and over 600 NM over the sea.
Carrier Waves, Idents and the BFO
Navigational NDBs have an unmodulated carrier wave (ICAO classification N0N).
Station identification is transmitted at roughly ten second intervals.
code ident (classified as A1A).
User will have also erratic indications while the signal is interrupted in this type of beacon.
To make the unmodulated parts of the signal audible, ADF equipment incorporates a Beat Frequency
Oscillator (BF0).
More modern systems imprint the ident onto the carrier wave by 'keying' an audible, AM signal, in time
with the Morse Code ident (classified A2A).
Beat Frequency Oscillator (BF0)
To make the unmodulated parts of the AlA signal audible, ADF incorporates a BF0.
This produces a signal slightly removed from the received frequency that is then mixed with it.
The mixing of the two frequencies produces an audible beat frequency, the difference of the two.
e.g. a BFO would generate a signal of 402 KHz to match a received signal of 400 KHz.
The mixing or heterodyning of the two produces signals at 400 KHz, 402 KHz, 802 KHz and 2 KHz .
The beat frequency of 2 KHz is the audible tone.
Selecting the BFO on makes the N0N carrier wave audible and allows the A1A type of ident to be heard.
BFO is not needed for an A2A signal which is already modulated to an audible frequency.
Loop Aerial
ADF systems use a loop shaped aerial to find the direction of an incoming signal.
When the loop is in line with the path of the radio waves the difference in phase between the signals
received on the two sides of the loop causes a current to flow.
When the aerial is at right angles to the direction of travel both sides receive the same phase signal and
no current flows.
If the aerial is rotated until no current flows we can therefore be sure it lies at right angles to the wave
movement.
The only thing we cannot know is whether the NDB lies in front of us or behind us.
This is the ambiguity that needs to be resolved.
If we plot the value of the induced current as the aerial is rotated we find a figure of eight shape with
two clearly defined null points and two less clearly defined maxima.
The diagram is a polar diagram.
The double null is the ambiguity as identified above.
To resolve the ambiguity a sense aerial is added to the system.
Sense Aerial
It receives signals from all directions.
The Cardioid
When the two polar diagrams are combined the reception characteristics of the two aerials can be
added and subtracted as appropriate to produce a heart shaped polar diagram, this is called a cardioid.
The cardioid has only one null point.
Rotating the loop aerial will rotate the null so that now when no signal is received by the combined
aerial the null is pointing directly at the beacon and the aerial combination will be in line with the
incoming signals.
Range
The range of a beacon is controlled primarily by its power.
A long range NDB would have a power output of about 10KW and a range over the sea in excess of 500
NM.
A beacon designed for a range of 150 NM over the land would only need an output of 1KW.
A coarse formula (for approximate answers) to determine range is:
Max range = 3 x Square root of Power in Watts
The formula does not include the effect of ground conductivity or frequency.
To double the range requires four times the power.
Range of a beacon is not the same as its protected range.
It is highly unusual for the protected range to be greater than 200 NM.
Types of NDB Stations
There are three categories of NDB.
Locators
Low powered beacons at 15 to 40 watts with a rated coverage of between 10 and 25 nautical miles.
Usually co-located with the ILS outer marker.

Homing and Holding NDBs
Aid to the transition from the en-route stage to the destination airfield and have a rated coverage
slightly less than 50 nautical miles.
Their typical power output will be up to 200 watts.
En-Route and Long Range NDBs
Aids to navigation with a rated coverage in excess of 50 nautical miles
Tend to be in the LF end of the allocated frequencies to benefit from longer surface waves.
ADF Accuracy and Errors
ICAO requirement is an accuracy of ±6° with a signal-to-noise ratio no less than 3:1.
The ADF is subject to a number of potential errors.
Static
All forms of static can affect accuracy of the ADF.
In snow and freezing rain precipitation static reduces the accuracy and attenuation reduces the range of
bearing information.
Thunderstorms
Thunderstorms in the vicinity act as radio beacons and can cause the needle to deviate in their
direction.
In conditions like this and where heavy static is present VHF aids should be used in preference to ADF.
Night Effect
The principal propagation method of NDBs is the ground wave
However it is possible for weak sky waves to be returned at night when the ionosphere is less dense and
attenuation is least.
These sky waves tend to strike the top of the loop aerial giving a current flow where none would other-
wise be present.
This means the null is no longer sharply defined and the ADF hunts, reducing bearing accuracy.
Returning sky waves take a longer propagation path than ground waves so they are often out of phase.
Night effect can be detected by listening for fading on the carrier wave (BFO on) and by the instrument
hunting.
It is most likely at dawn or dusk.
Station Interference
The long ground waves of LF and MF signals mean that occasionally signals from stations on similar
frequencies overlap.
This will not cause errors in the daytime if the stations are only used within the protected range.
At night, returning sky waves can cause rogue signals at considerable range producing the same
problems as night effect.
The problem can be detected aurally or visually as with night effect and there should also be two station
idents audible.
Some ADF equipment have a "bandpass" switch fitted to reduce the bandwidth which is received when
the switch is set to SHARP.
An aircraft receiving station interference from another beacon on a similar but not identical frequency
can reduce the interference by listening to a sharper band.
Because of the twin errors of night effect and station interference, and because other radio sources
create more noise at night, published protected ranges are not valid in the hours of darkness.
The protected range may also be referred to as the Designated Operational Coverage (DOC).
Coastal Refraction
Speed of a surface wave is affected by the surface over which it travels (faster over water than land).
This change of speed means the wave is refracted at low altitude as it passes over a coastline.
Refraction is always towards the coast.
An aircraft receiving a refracted wave would give a false indication of the beacon's position.
It will place the aircraft nearer to the coast than it actually is.
This effect is worse the further back from the coast the beacon is sited.
It can be avoided by:
1) Taking bearings at right angles to the coast.
2) Flying at a higher altitudes.
3) Choosing beacons closer to the coast.
Quadrantal Error
The wave front from the NDB can be distorted by the aircraft's structure as it approaches the aerial.
This effect is compounded by an emf induced in the receiver aerial by the signal re-radiating from
metallic surfaces.
The aircraft structure bends the signal path.
The error is called "quadrantal error" because the effect is worst for signals arriving from 45° and 135°
left and right of the nose, the four "quadrants".
Quadrantal error is small and predictable.
It can be compensated during the installation of the receiver aerial and any residual errors can be shown
on a quadrantal error card kept near the instrument.
Modern receivers completely remove it.
Dip
Some Bendix-King aerials suffer from an error called dip which occurs when the receiver sense aerial is
masked by the loop aerial.
Dip gives large bearing errors, only occurs in a turn and is at its greatest when the NDB is on a relative
bearing of 45° and 135° left and right of the nose.
Mountain Effect
At low altitude multipath signals reflected from terrain can cause erroneous readings
This effect diminishes with height as hills are further from the line of sight and interfere less with the
surface wave.
VOR (VHF Omni-directional Range)
VOR beacons operate at shorter ranges and are free from most of the errors that afflict NDBs.
They use line of sight frequencies in the VHF band.
Frequencies are between 108 MHz and 117.975 MHz.
Between 108 MHz and 112 MHz the band is shared with ILS so VOR frequencies are only allocated at
even 100 KHz spacing
From 112 MHz to 117.975 MHz the band belongs to VOR alone and spacing is reduced to 50 KHz.
Thus 108.2 MHz and 113.35 MHz would be VOR frequencies and 108.1 MHz would not.
Q. Which of the following could be a VOR frequency?
a) 119.20 MHz
b) 111.80 MHz <-- This one
c) 108.3 MHz
d) 109.5 MHz
Within the VOR ILS shared frequency range, the allocated frequencies are as follows:
VOR = EVEN 100 kHz numerals
108.00. 108.05, 108.20. 108.25 to 111.80. 111.85
ILS = ODD 100 kHz numerals
108.10. 108.15, 108.30. 108.35 t0 111.90. 111.95
Types of VOR:
There are two types of VOR:
1) Conventional or Standard VOR.

2) Doppler VOR (modern type).
Standard VOR
The VOR ground station consists of a cylindrical cover containing a horizontal dipole which is spinning
clockwise at a rate of 30 revolutions a second.
Slots in the cylinder combined with the rotating dipole produce a limacon shaped polar diagram which
also rotates at 30 revolutions a second.
The ADF cardioid has a sharp null, but VOR limacon does not.
To a receiver listening to the signal the amplitude appears to go up and down 30 times a second as the
limacon rotates.
i.e. the received signal is amplitude modulated (AM) at 30 Hz.
The exact phase of the AM signal differs depending on the bearing of the aircraft from the VOR.
To detect this phase difference, an omni-directional reference signal (also at 30 Hz) is also sent out by
the transmitter.
In order that the two 30 Hz modulations can be distinguished the reference signal is frequency
modulated (FM).
The signals are arranged so that the reference signal and the variphase signal are in phase to the
magnetic north of the station.
Anywhere else will show a phase difference between 0° and 360°.
The receiving aircraft looks at the phase difference between the FM reference signal and the AM
variphase signal and displays it as a radial, a QDR.
No phase difference means the receiver is on the 360° radial.
A phase difference of 150° means it is on the 150° radial.
If true bearings are desired the variation at the station must be used in the conversion.
This is because the radials are referenced to magnetic north at the station, rather than at the aircraft.
The Cone of Confusion
There is an area in the overhead of a VOR transmitter where it is not possible to obtain accurate bearing
information.
A pilot flying towards the overhead would notice the deviation indicator become more sensitive and it
would eventually move well off centre as the aircraft gets very close to the beacon.
The TO/FROM flag would reverse as the aircraft passed through the overhead and the deviation indicator
would then move back towards the centre as it becomes less sensitive.
A crew navigating with an RMI would see the needle deviate then rotate through 180° as they pass
through the overhead.
The signal strength in the overhead may also be low enough to make the OFF flag flicker.
The ICAO limits of the cone of confusion are up to 50° from the vertical
Identification
The VOR carries a three letter morse ident at seven words a minute repeating every ten seconds.
Sonic beacons have voice identifiers as well e.g. "This is Miami Omni Range .." followed by the morse.
Errors and Accuracy
The Designated Operational Coverage (DOC) of a VOR, the range, sector and altitude where freedom
from interference is guaranteed, is given in the AIP.
This is valid both by day and by night (unlike NDBs).
Outside the DOC, interference from other stations is possible.
ICAO require bearing accuracy of ± 5° on 95% of occasions.
Because of its higher frequency and line of sight transmission VOR is free from sky wave interference
and coastal refraction.
Any bending of the signal by the structure of the aeroplane would not affect the indicated bearing so
quadrantal error does not exist with VORs.
Scalloping and Site Error
Reflections from terrain and man made obstructions can cause errors as two signals with different phase
differences intefere.
This will cause the course deviation indicator on the VOR indicator to move rapidly from side to side -
too fast for an aircraft to follow - and it will make the needle on an RMI wobble.
The effect is known as scalloping or, when reflections come from very near the beacon, site error.
Where scalloping is known to occur it is notified in the COM section of the AIP and on approach plates.
The unauthorised use of Passenger Electronic Devices can create a similar effect.
Scalloping should be differentiated from 'beam bends' which are also caused by reflections from
buildings but which are more predictable slight curves within the system tolerances.
Atmospheric Ducting
Atmospheric ducting can lead to synchronous transmissions even within the DOC.
Ducting is unpredictable no allowance can be made for it.
It illustrates the need to check the station ident whenever a beacon is used.
Power and Range
The power output of the transmitter continues to affect the range.
An output of 200 watts achieves ranges of up to 200NM.
An output of 50 watts will only be good for short range transmissions.
The maximum theoretical range can be calculated using the formula:

Max theoretical range = 1.23 x square root of H1 + 1.23 x square root of H2 (H1 and H2 are heights of
transmitter and receiver).
Equipment Errors
Within the ± 5° total bearing accuracy the aircraft equipment must be accurate to ± 3°.
VOR transmitter is monitored to make sure it puts out bearings accurate to ± 1°
If the monitor detects a greater bearing error the transmitter is shut down and a standby transmitter is
brought on line.
A station will also be shut down if the signal strength drops by more than 15% or if the monitor fails.
During the transfer period the station ident ceases or is replaced by a continuous tone.
The ident is resumed when the standby transmitter is operating within limits.
Doppler VOR
Standard VORs were usually sited well away from all obstructions to minimise site error.
For beacons to be sited on airfields Doppler VOR transmitter was developed.
It has a much larger diameter aerial that, because of its size, suffered much less from site error.
The Doppler VOR transmitter is a ring of stationary dipoles about 45ft in diameter.
A VHF signal is switched continuously around the ring of aerials so that it appears to come towards the
aircraft and then move away.
The relative movement of the origin of the signal produces a Doppler shift, a shift in frequency, that
varies with bearing.
This means the variphase signal in this system is now FM.
If the variphase signal is FM the reference signal must be AM.
This would produce reverse sensing at the aircraft receiver.
So the Doppler VOR signal rotates anti-clockwise at 30 Hz rather than clockwise.
This reverses the signal once again so the phase relationship at the receiver remains the same and
instrument displays are unaffected.
VOR Applications
VORs are used for en-route navigation, usually to define airway centrelines.
The overall required accuracy of the displayed information is ± 5°.
When European airways were first plotted out a lower accuracy of ± 7.5° was assumed.
To keep an aircraft within the confines of an airway 10NM, maximum distance between the beacons was
calculated to be 80NM. As a consequence many European VORs are about 80NM apart.
A terminal VOR is a low power beacon used as part of an airfield approach. TVORs share the lower
frequencies with ILS.
A broadcast VOR is usually a terminal aid with a voice broadcast giving out the airfield weather (ATIS)
superimposed on the carrier wave.
A test VOR (VOT) is a very low power beacon sited at airfields.
It puts out a constant phase difference of zero in all directions.

This allows aircraft to test the accuracy of their equipment on the ground.
The VOR test function is selected with a course of 000° set.
The Course Deviation Indicator should centre with FROM indicated, the RMI should indicate 180° QDM.
The beacon ident for a test VOR is a series of dots
Instrument Landing Systems (ILS)
The ILS uses separate transmitters for localizer, glidepath and markers.
Markers (short range beacons) help with distance from touchdown information. These are often
supplemented or now replaced with Distance Measuring equipment (DME).
The ILS localises works in the VHF band from 108 MHz to 111.95 MHz.
This is shared with VORs, so the localiser only uses odd 100 KHz frequencies and the odd frequencies
plus 50 KHz.
e.g. 108.1 MHz, 108.15 MHz, 108.3 MHz and 108.35 MHz are localiser frequencies.
108.2 MHz and 108.25 are VOR frequencies.
The glidepath uses 40 spot UHF frequencies from 329.3 MHz to 335 MHz paired with the VHF channels
so the signals do not mix.
The glidepath frequency is automatically selected when the paired VHF channel is dialled up.
All marker beacons operate on 75 MHz.
The ident is a 1020 Hz tone amplitude modulated on the localiser carrier wave.
The ident will be two or more letters in Morse transmitted at a rate around 6 words a minute.
Where there might be confusion. the ident is preceded by the letter "I" to emphasise that this is an ILS
ident e.g. at Madrid Torrejon the ILS codes ITJA whereas the nearby NDB codes TJA.
On some Category I or II systems voice can also be superimposed onto the localiser carrier.
The aircraft needs its own ILS receiver to use the information.
The ILS localiser display is less sensitive than the glidepath.
On a typical 5 dot display:
One dot of localiser deviation is the equivalent of 0.5° displacement with full scale deflection being 2.5°
One dot of glideslope deviation is the equivalent of 0.15° displacement with full scale deflection being
0.75°
Half full scale deflection is the maximum safe flyup indication.

The ILS data on either an HSI or a dedicated display is not affected by the course selected, it's only set
for neatness or to make sense of the indication.
Localiser
The localiser transmitter is usually in line with the runway centreline, 300 m off the upwind end.
The frangible aerial may be 20 metres wide and 3 metres high, and consists of a number of dipole and
reflector elements.
The localiser consists of two overlapping beams.
One amplitude modulated at 90 Hz and one at 150 Hz.
If there is more 90 Hz than 150 Hz the needle is deflected to the right to give a "fly right" indication.
If there is more of the 150 Hz modulation it is deflected to the left.
The airborne equipment measures the Difference in Depth of Modulation (DDM), this increases linearly
from the centreline.
e.g. An aircraft to the right of the centreline will receive a greater depth of 150 Hz modulation than 90
Hz modulation.
As the aircraft drifts further right the 150 Hz modulation will increase linearly whilst the 90 Hz
modulation will decrease linearly.
When the depth of modulation is equal the indicator shows that the aircraft is on the ILS centreline.
By convention the 90 Hz signal is known as the yellow lobe and that at 150 Hz is known as the blue lobe.
Localiser signals are protected out to 25 NM to a height of just over 6000 ft (beyond this range they may
be received but not relied upon).
At this range of 25 NM the coverage extends to 10° either side of the centreline.
The coverage is increased to 35° either side when within 17NM of the transmitter.
Where terrain gets in the way distances can be reduced to 18NM within the 10° coverage and 10NM
elsewhere.
These dimensions are for a Category I installation and can be varied for steeper glidepaths and different
categories.
In unusual cases localiser signals can be reflected outside the coverage area to give reverse indications
or false localisers.
Reflections from terrain and buildings can also occur to a much lesser extent inside the coverage area
and lead to slightly bent localiser centrelines.
Where this occurs the extent of the bending is carefully checked to be within limits during calibration
and may be notified on the approach plate.
Off-Set Localizer
Sometimes the localiser aerial cannot be sited on the runway centreline upwind and must be placed
next to the runway.
The beam is then adjusted to pass through the runway centreline at decision height and the localiser is
said to be "off-set".
If the off-set is more than 5° then the installation no longer qualifies as a precision approach (i.e. all
approaches must be flown to MDA/MDH limits and not Decision Height)
Glidepath
The glidepath works in a similar way to the localiser with its signals (UHF) modulated at 90 Hz and 150
Hz.
In the glidepath case, the 90 Hz gives a "fly down" indication and the 150 Hz "fly up".
The centre of the beam (glidepath) is set at an angle of typically 3° to give a reasonable rate of descent
(can be as high as 5.5° at some airports).
The glidepath aerial is positioned next to the instrument touchdown point, about 300m in from the
threshold and approximately 120m off the runway centreline.
The glidepath beams do not go all the way down to the surface.
The lower lobe starts at 0.45 x GP angle and the upper lobe ends at 1.75 x GP angle.
Coverage extends to 10NM and up to 8° either side of the centreline.
e.g. the limits of coverage of a 3.0° glidepath are:
Lower limit = 0.45 x 3.0° = 1.35°
Upper limit = 1.75 x 3.0° = 5.25°
A glidepath with a glide angle of more than 3.5° is known as a steep glidepath.
Limits of coverage remain the same except it now only extends to 8NM.
False Glideslopes
Even though the glideslope is pointed away from the surface some sidelobes can be created.
These beams are much less powerful than the main lobe but can provide a series of false glideslopes
above the real one.
You will never encounter a false glideslope if you approach the glidepath from below therefore you must
never attack the glideslope from above.
Additional clues come from the rate of descent required to maintain a false glidepath (often as high as
1500 fpm).
The first false glidepath will be at about twice the normal glide angle and other weaker false glideslopes
may exist at three or four times the glide angle.
A similar problem can occur with localiser beams and can create false centrelines but they are very
weak and always outside the localiser coverage area.
Marker Beacons
The final approach area of an ILS must contain a fix or facility that allows the pilot to cross check height
against range.
To satisfy this requirement older installations use up to three marker beacons.
The middle marker is just before Category I decision height (1/2 to 1/4 NM)
The inner marker is passed just before the threshold is crossed.
The outer marker equates to an aircraft height of 1200 to 1800 ft, depending on its exact position. (4 - 6
NM)
All markers operate in VHF on 75MHz and use a fan shaped beam that points directly upwards.
The signal is modulated to provide an audible morse tone and activate an indicator light in the cockpit.
The morse letter M cannot be used for the middle marker as it would be indistinguishable from 0, except
for the pitch, when sent repeatedly.
Marker beacons are becoming less common nowadays and have been largely replaced with DME
equipment.
Distance information from an installation such as this is only good within the lateral limits of the localiser
coverage and up to 25,000 ft.
A very few markers still exist on airways. These are placed to mark significant points such as mountain
ranges.
Airways markers use the same light and tone as the Inner Marker but put out a morse ident at six to ten
words a minute.
Outer marker has a Blue light and Low Pitch (400 Hz). The audio is heard as Dashes - - -, the letter 'O' in
morse, at a rate of 2 dashes per second.
Middle marker has an Amber light and Medium Pitch (1300 Hz). The audio is heard as continous
alternating dashes and dots -•-•, the letter 'C' in morse, at a rate of 2 dashes and 6 dots per second.
Inner marker has a White light and High Pitch (3000 Hz). The audio is heard as Dots ••, the letter 'I' in
morse, at a rate of 6 dots per second.
Microwave Landing System
Like ILS MLS uses two beams, one in azimuth and one in elevation.
Unlike ILS the beams both use the same frequency, one of 200 available channels in the SHF band from
5031 MHz to 5090.7 MHz.
The frequency is shared by multiplexing the signals, by sending out azimuth, elevation and data, or
special information, signals in sequence, each block preceded by an identifying preamble.
Special Information can be either system information or information about the approach conditions.
The MLS system uses separate transmitters producing two scanning beams (one in azimuth and one in
elevation) and a precision DME (DME/P) which allows the aircraft to fix its position very accurately in
three dimensions.
The on-board computers can then be programmed to fly any approach path the pilot chooses feeding
guidance data through a Flight Management System (FMS) or an Autopilot and Flight Director System
(AFDS).
Certain MLS installations provide back course guidance for departure and go-around as well as signals
that cause the aircraft to flare in an autoland approach.
The Azimuth Transmitter
The azimuth beam is a narrow fan shaped beam which sweeps back and forth between the limits of
coverage in an accurately timed sequence.
From the point of view of an aircraft on the approach the azimuth beam starts on the left and sweeps to
the right (the TO scan) then goes back to the left (the FRO scan).
During the complete cycle of the TO and FRO scan an aircraft would have the beam pass over it twice.
An aircraft close to the left hand side of the approach coverage would have a relatively large time
interval between the TO sweep and the FRO sweep passing.
An aircraft close to the right hand side would have a short interval.
The time interval between the scans is therefore a direct indication of the aircraft angular position from
the transmitter.
The azimuth transmitter is located at the upwind end of the runway in the same general position as the
ILS localiser.
The Elevation Transmitter
The elevation transmitter. which is located at the downwind end of the runway near the touchdown
point. works on a similar principle to the azimuth beam.
The same transmitted frequencies are used but now a horizontal fan shaped beam is used.
Once again the time interval between the passages of the beam indicates angular position in the
vertical plane.
Distance to Touchdown
DME/P is a modified version of normal DME (only used with MLS).
It operates in UHF and provides the third element to allow 3D fixing, range information.
As the name suggests (P for precisson) it is more accurate than normal DME.
When the DME/P is not available the MLS can only give a straight in or offset approach, more or less the
same as an ILS.
MLS Aircraft Equipment
There are three levels of equipment complement that can be fitted to the aircraft:
1) An MLS receiver, a DME/P interrogator and a control panel
This is the most common configuration for retrofitting aircraft that do not have an FMS.
The aircraft ILS display is used to show angular deviation from the glidepath and centreline.
Only straight in or offset approaches can be flown.
2) An MLS receiver, a DME/P interrogator, a control panel and a guidance computer providing
segmented approaches but without storage of the approach path database
This allows curved approaches or segmented approaches where the aircraft is directed between a series
of waypoints.
Where segmented approaches are flown the crew need to program each waypoints range, bearing and
elevation from the MLS.
Once again the normal ADI and HSI displays are used to show the aircraft flight path and any deviation
from the desired course.
3) The MLS receiver, the DME/P interrogator and a Flight Management System (FMS) incorporating
guidance algorithms and the approach path databases
This allows pre-programmed MLS approach paths to be selected on the FMS.
In EFIS equipped aircraft the MLS data is displayed on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) and the
Navigation Display (ND).
Modern multi-mode receivers can combine GPS, MLS and ILS equipment in one box to provide an
integrated navigation solution.
MLS Coverage
The azimuth limits of coverage are 40° left or right of the centreline out to a maximum of 20nm.
Elevation limits are from 0.9° to 20° from the horizontal, up to 20 000 ft and out to 20NM.
DME/P coverage goes out to 22NM.
Comparison of ILS and MLS
Both systems suffer from multipath signals and from shadowing as aircraft and vehicles near the
transmitters blank the signal path.
Multipath is the propagation phenomenon that results in radio signals reaching the receiving antenna by
two or more paths
MLS has the ability to interrupt the transmitted signal to avoid reflection by stationary objects (such as
obstructions in the appropach path) which makes the system less sensitive to geographic location.
This and the relatively low cost of the system are its main advantages.
Subsidiary advantages are the ability of MLS equipped aircraft to fly approach paths other than straight
in and the single frequency used avoiding the requirement for frequency pairing.
RADAR = Radio Detection And Ranging
Frequencies
The choice of frequencies is controlled partly by the propagation characteristics required.
If the requirement is:
1) Minimal static
2) Minimal atmospheric attenuation
3) Line of sight propagation
Then the choice would be UHF/VHF band.
Higher frequencies could be used but increasing atmospheric attenuation would mean more power is
needed for the same range.
The second controlling factor is the use the radar waves are put to.
Rather than transmitting in all directions radar energy is beamed.
Short wavelengths produce the narrower beams that are needed to identify small targets.
The fourth requirement is therefore:
4) Short wavelengths for narrow beams.
To get a decent return the wavelength used should be similar in size or smaller than the target.
Radar used to detect the rain in thunderstorms should therefore have a wavelength of centimetres or
less.
Similar wavelengths will also detect aircraft and mountains
So the fifth requirement is:
5) Wavelength chosen for target size.
It is quite usual to use a higher frequency (perhaps in the SHF band) to get a narrow beam width at the
correct wavelength and to accept that range is reduced because of attenuation from the atmosphere.
Civilian radars operate in the UHF and SHF bands whereas military radars can use frequencies as high as
EHF.
Types of Radar
1) Pulse Radar
Pulse radar sends out a short burst of energy and then determines the range of the target from the time
it takes the pulse to return.
It has its limitations regarding its maximum and minimum ranges.
Pulse radar uses a single aerial to both transmit and receive.
2) Continuous Wave Radar
Continuous wave systems avoid some of the problems of pulse radar but as there are no pulses and
echoes as such, a different system must be used to determine range.
So the frequency is cycled up and down at the transmitter.
The frequency of the returning signal will indicate how long ago it was transmitted and therefore give an
indication of the range of the target.
Continuous wave radar has no minimum range limitation.
Pulse Radar Theory
The transmitted pulses are sent out at regular intervals.
The time taken to transmit the pulse followed by the quiet period waiting for the return is called the
pulse recurrence period (PRP) or Pulse Recurrence Interval (PRI).
In other words if it took half a second to complete one cycle of transmit and receive then the PRP would
be 0.5 seconds.
Therefre in this case there would be two pulses a second. This is called the Pulse Repetition Frequency
or PRF.
A shorter PRP would mean more pulses a second and a higher PRF.
If you halve the period you double the frequency.
Expressing this relationship between period and frequency as a formula we have:
PRP = 1/PRF
or
PRF= 1/PRP
So PRP is the period or time it takes to send and receive one pulse.
And PRF is the number of pulses a second.
e.g. The PRP of a radar system is 700 micro seconds. what is the PRF?
Make sure the time is in seconds and not micro seconds.
There are a million micro seconds in a second so divide 700 by a million.
or move the decimal place six point to the left to find 700 micro seconds = 0.0007 seconds.
Now PRF = 1/PRP
= 1/0.0007
= 1429 PPS (pulses per second)

Pulse Width and Power
The width of the pulse (pulse width) may also be referred to as pulse length or duration.
The power in each pulse is called the pulse power.
Pulse power averaged over a complete transmission cycle is the continuous power of a radar.
Pulse Radar Maximum Range
where c = speed of light
Q. What is the need to change the PRP?
A. Radar useage requirement.
If the purpose is to detect aircraft at long range (200 NM) then there must be a long enough quiet period
after the pulse for it to travel all the way out to the target and back (400NM in all).
If the PRP was too short the returning pulse would not arrive in the period when the radar was receiving,
or even worse, it would arrive after the next pulse had been transmitted leading to confusion.
Thus maximum range of a pulse radar is affected by PRP.
And also PRF since PRP and PRF are interlinked.
If PRF of a radar system is 400 pps then what is the maximum theoretical range in nautical miles?
= 300,000,000 / (2 x 400)
= 375,000 m
= 375 km
= 202 NM
Speed of light can be expressed as 162,000 NM/sec. If you use this for 'c' you avoid having to do a units
conversion, the answer will come straight out in nautical miles.
So a low PRF is needed for long range radars and the maximum range is controlled by PRF and power.
Pulse Radar Minimum Range
At very short ranges the beginning of the returning pulse can arrive before the tail end of the pulse has
been transmitted.
Since the radar would have not yet switched over to receive, this will not be recorded.
The solution is to use short pulses for short range radar.
Thus pulse width or pulse length (the same thing) affects the minimum range of Pulse Radar.
The formula for minimum range of a radar is:
Minimum range (in metres) = c x Pulse Length / 2
where c = speed of light

If a pulse width is 1.5 micro seconds then what is the minimum range of a pulse radar?
Minimum range (in metres) = c x Pulse Length / 2
make sure to convert microseconds to second.
Answer = 225m
So the minimum range is controlled by the pulse width.
To Memorize the Formulas for Maximum and Minimum Ranges
The common component is speed of light "C"
It will always be C/2 as the pulse goes to the target and comes back thus we are only interested in
measuring half of it.
So C/2 is common for both max and min range.
Max range is a function of PRF. More Range Less PRF i.e. an inverse relation.
So Max Range formula = C/2 x 1/PRF
or
C/2 x PRF
Min range is a function of Pulse length. Less Range Less Pulse length i.e. a direct relation.
So Min Range formula = C/2 x Pulse Length
or
C x Pulse length / 2
Factors Affecting Radar Range
To build a radar that is efficient at both long and short range, the obvious answer is to use a system with
short pulses and a long PRP.
However the long range system needs long pulses to keep the energy in the beam up, so this idea does
not work.
So the end result is a purpose built radar.
Short range systems have short pulses and a high PRF.
Long range systems have long pulses and a low PRF.
So the factors that affect the maximum range of a Pulse Radar are:
• PRP and PRF
• Pulse width
• Transmitter and target heights
• Clouds and rain (weather clutter)
• Intervening high ground
If a radar is designed for long range it will therefore have a low PRF.
The scanner rotation cannot be too fast otherwise the pulses may miss a target.
Therefore a long range radar with a low PRF must have a slow scanner rotation.
But a short range high PRF radar may have a high scan rate to rapidly update the image.
Bearing and Range Resolution
Bearing accuracy is controlled by (amongst other things) the width of the radar beam.
The beam width can be calculated from the formula:
Beam width = 70 x Wavelength / Antenna Diameter
Which means that larger parabolic dish aerials produce narrower beams than smaller ones.
It is most likely that the best bearing resolution would come from a combination of high frequencies and
a large aerial.
Range resolution is controlled by pulse length.
Short pulses produce good range resolution.
Certain ground based radars such as Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR) operate at such short
wavelengths and have such narrow beams and high rotation rates that on occasions it is possible to
even identify aircraft types from the return.
Factors Affecting the Quality of a Radar Response
Several factors affect the quality of a radar response and the range and accuracy of a radar display.
Super-Refraction (Ducting)
Under certain meteorological conditions, radio waves at frequencies higher than HF (VHF and above) will
behave in a manner that resembles sky wave propagation.
If there is a marked temperature inversion, and between that inversion and the ground there is a rapid
decrease of humidity with height, the radio wave may become trapped under the inversion and may
travel several hundred miles with little attenuation.
Hence when high pressure systems prevail, signals in these frequency bands may travel far beyond the
normal direct wave range.
In other words, detection ranges of radars may be greatly increased.
Sub-Refraction
Sub-refraction, which is again caused by temperature and humidity, is a condition where the radio
waves are bent less than normal.
Detection ranges may therefore be considerably less than would be the case under normal propagation
conditions.
Attenuation with Distance
As the transmitted electromagnetic energy gets further away from the transmitter it is dispersed over
an increasingly larger area and therefore becomes weaker.
Eventually there will be insufficient energy returning to the radar receiver to cause a paint on the radar.
Condition and Size of the Reflecting Surface
The amount of reflected energy from a given target is dependent upon:
1) The size and shape of the reflecting surface.
2) The material that the reflecting surface is made from (metal surfaces reflect better than wood).
3) The aspect of the target (an aircraft flying directly towards a radar would reflect less energy than an
aircraft flying at a constant range).
If an aircraft changes attitude whilst being illuminated by a radar there may be a change of polarisation
of the radio wave, which could result in the target fading from the radar screen.
Ground Radars
The use of ground based radar allows less separation between en-route traffic than a procedural or non-
radar service.
Ground based radar can also provide approach control and an approach service varying from a simple
cloudbreak procedure to a Precision Approach on Radar (PAR).
The busiest airports use the ASMR to observe and control the movement of aircraft on the manoeuvring
area.
As we have seen radars are designed to cope with specific tasks so no one radar could fulfil all these
needs.
They are classified into three groups.
1) Surveillance Radars.
2) Precision Approach Radars.
3) ASMRs
Aerials
Ground radar aerials are either flat phase arrays or parabolic sections designed to operate in two
dimensions.
Where systems such as PAR require elevation information a second parabolic section aerial is used
scanning up and down in the vertical plane.
Moving Target Indication
Many ground radars have a switchable option to include Moving Target Indication (MTI).
This uses the doppler shift from moving targets and the lack of doppler shift from stationary targets to
distinguish them and exclude those that are not moving (theoretically the ground clutter).
In practice MTI can also exclude targets that are moving across the screen but neither towards or away
from the radar head and therefore displaying no doppler shift.
MTI is only used with primary radar systems.
ATC Radar Displays
Modern ATC radars tend to use computer generated displays (synthetic displays) rather than raw radar
data.
En-Route Surveillance
An en-route surveillance radar would be required to operate to maximum ranges of 200NM to 300NM
and have good weather penetrating capabilities.
The long range requirement would indicate a low PRF with long pulses and lowish transmitted frequency.
This in turn, would mean that target resolution is, at best moderate.
Two radar systems are used together to meet this requirement.
A UHF primary radar in conjunction with a secondary radar.
The primary ground radar can be used to provide bearing and range from all targets.
While the secondary ground radar will provide range, bearing, identification, altitude etc from those
targets equipped with a secondary radar transponder.
The secondary radar is not susceptible to weather clutter because it uses different frequencies to
transmit and receive.
It is more likely to detect long range targets as the signal only travels one way (not there and back).
The dish shaped primary radar aerial (parabolic) and the flat phase array aerial of the secondary radar
rotate together.
Terminal Surveillance Radar
Terminal Surveillance Radars provide separation between aircraft within the terminal area during transit,
approach and departure.
They may be used to provide a radar cloudbreak.
It is a medium range radar with maximum ranges up to 60NM to 80NM.
The medium range requirement suggests higher frequencies, a higher PRF and faster scan rate giving
medium to good target discrimination.
Once again primary and secondary radars are used together.
The primary radar is likely to operate in the top end of UHF at 1000 to 1200 MHz.
Surveillance Radar displays for en-route and terminal areas are processed through computers to
combine information from both primary and secondary radar.
This can be superimposed on an airspace map for the controllers convenience.
Approach Surveillance Radar
The Approach Surveillance Radar is a short-range primary radar which is capable of being used to
provide guidance during initial, intermediate and possibly even final approach phase of the flight.
This would suggest higher frequencies. PRF and rotation rates than before
Approach Surveillance Radars tend to operate on the UHF/SHF boundary at about 3 GHz with a PRF of
about 700 PPS.
Some approach radars have very short pulses of about 1 micro second to allow them to operate to
theoretical minimum ranges of as little as 150m.
This type of radar may be used to provide a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA).
During an SRA approach the controller instructs the aircraft with heading changes down to about half a
mile from touchdown.
The controller has no view of the aircraft in the vertical plane and only advises the pilot on the heights
that the aircraft should be passing.
SRAs are flown on QFE unless the pilot requests a QNH approach or unless the normal company
procedure is QNH.
Altimeter checks are crucial.
Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
Many military airfields have PAR installations.
These are primary radar units that are designed to provide both lateral and vertical guidance during
final approach down to 200ft decision heights.
PAR equipment uses two screens and two aerials.
The controller has two displays.
One with a lateral view of the approach and one showing the vertical element.
Once the approach is commenced the talkdown is near continuous requiring no response from the pilot
unless specifically requested.
The radar itself consists of two elements, one for azimuth and one for elevation.
They are both sited at the approach end of the runway near the touchdown point.
The radar operates on 10 GHz on a sector scan rather than a complete circular scan.
The PAR must be capable of providing detection to a range of 9NM up to an elevation of 7° within 10° of
the runway centre line.
It must be capable of detecting a target with a radar cross section of 15 square meters or greater.
The maximum allowable error is ±30 feet in azimuth and ± 20 feet in elevation.
Airfield Surface Movement Radar
Aerodrome Surface Movement Radars or Indicators (ASMR or ASMI) operate at very short wavelengths of
about 3.8cm (SHF).
The beams are narrow with high rotation rates (60 RPM).
On occasions it is possible even to identify aircraft types from the return
More higher frequencies of EHF are rarely used because of scattering and absorption of the signal by
moisture and particles in the atmosphere which make them impractical.
Airborne Weather Radar
Its primary purpose is to detect thunderstorms and by inference severely turbulent weather so that it
can be avoided.
The radar can also be used as a navigation aid by mapping the terrain ahead of the aircraft and
obtaining fixes from prominent ground features
Frequency
Weather radar operates between 9 GHz and 10 GHz in the SHF band.
A frequency of 9 GHZ gives a wavelength of 3cm.
Pulse radar is used with a PRF of about 400 to 550 pulses a second.
This limits the theoretical maximum range to between 200NM and 300NM.
Equipment
The aerial fitted in the nose of the aircraft canscan up to 90 degrees left and right.
It can be tilted 15 degrees up and down.
Beam width is in the order of 3° to 5°.
Two sorts of beams are available:
1) A narrow conical beam - sometimes called a pencil beam.
2) A wider fan shaped beam.
The aerial on older aircraft is likely to be parabolic.
On modern aircraft slotted scanners are used.

The scanner is gyro stabilised in pitch and roll, which ensures scanner tilt is always with respect to the
earth horizontal.
Old aircraft have separate gyros for the weather radar stabilisation.
Modern aircraft use the Inertial Navs or the IRS.
Usage of an Airborne Weather Radar
A narrow conical beam is used to detect weather and indicate any areas of turbulence that might be
associated with it.
Radar will reflect from water droplets and ice in the atmosphere.
The strength of the radar return depends on the material it is reflected from.
Water is five times more reflective than ice.
The strength of the radar return also depends on the size and density of the particles.
In descending order of reflectivity, radar detects:
• Wet Hail
• Rain
• Wet Snow
• Dry Hail
• Dry Snow
• Drizzle
Radar does not detect clouds, fog or wind, windshear (except when associated with a microburst), clear
air turbulence, sandstorms or lightning.
Colours
The radar displays increasing intensity of return in colour, with green indicating the weakest returns,
then amber, then red.
On sonme radars the strongest returns are indicated by a fourth colour, magenta.
On other radars magenta is reserved for a switchable turbulence mode that uses a doppler radar to
detect turbulence.
Intensity of return is not, on its own, an indication of turbulence.
In warm, moist air, for instance, large rain droplets at lower altitudes may show as red returns, yet have
very little turbulence associated with them.
Turbulence is most likely where there are sharp updrafts near the edge of a thunderstorm cell, this
means that areas where the colours are closest together, particularly at the edge of a cell, should be
avoided.
Gain
The gain control affects the sensitivity of the display, and is usually left selected to AUTO.
Manually decreasing the gain can indicate the most intense areas of return more clearly.
Cloud Shapes
Cloud shapes can also be an indication of turbulence.
The particular shapes of return that should be avoided are those with:
1) Scalloped edges.
2) Fingers extending from the main cloud.
3) Hooked shaped returns
4) U shaped cavities
These all indicate intensive thunderstorm activity.
Radar shadowing
It is possible for intense returns to mask the clouds behind them and falsely indicate a clear area.
This effect, caused by attenuation of the signal, is called radar shadowing.
Range selection
A short range scale may seem to indicate a passage through thunderstorms which, but when looked at
with a longer range selected, it can turn out to be a blind alley.
Estimating the Height of Cloud Tops
The radar may be used to calculate the height of the top of the cloud (above or below the aircraft) by
use of the scanner tilt control.
The technique involves tilting the scanner up until the screen is clear, then reducing the scanner tilt until
the return just appears.
This means the bottom of the beam is just hitting the highest part of the cloud that gives a radar return.
If the beamwidth is known the tilt angle can be used to find the relative height of the return.
The formula is:
e.g. If an aircraft radar with a beam width of 4 degrees shows a cloud 50NM away with the scanner tilted
1 degree up, the what is the height of the cloud top if the aircraft is at 31,000ft?
Tilt 1 degree up means that the center of the beam is 1° up.
Since the beam has a width i.e. 4 degrees, the bottom of the beam is below the horizon.
Anyhow, just use the formula and preserve the sign of the angles.
If the answer is a minus figure then the cloud tops are below the aircraft, if plus then they are above.
=50 x (1-2) x 100
= -5000 ft
So the cloud tops are at 31,000 - 5000 = 26,000 ft.
Use as a Mapping Radar
Most radars have a selectable mapping mode.
Modern AWRs use a single radiation pattern for both mapping and weather with a different scanning
angle being used for each function.
The Cosec^2 Beam
Older radars produce a wide fan shaped beam (cosec^2 beam) by placing parasitic elements in front of
the radar dish to deflect the beam.
It is also referred to as the spoil beam.
The Cosec^2 beam provides a wider coverage than the conical beam at short range and its
transmission pattern has the effect of compensating for range by sending more power to the top part of
the beam which hits more distant objects.
The cosec beam works out to between 60NM and 150NM (depending on type).
Beyond that range there is not enough power in the beam to produce reasonable returns so the more
concentrated conical beam should be used instead in the weather mode.
The radar display of ground returns does not always look like the terrain would look like on a map.
Hills can cause "shadowing" at low altitude, masking the terrain behind them and giving a false
impression of water.
In arctic regions returns from ice can mask the true shape of the coastline.
DME - Distance Measuring Equipment
It is a secondary radar system, which means it has active components in the aeroplane and on the
ground.
DME operates in the UHF band, using line of sight propagation.
Frequencies range from 960 to 1215 MHz.
Principle of operation
The aircraft transmits a stream of pairs of pulses to the ground station.
The two pulses in each pair are separated by 12 micro seconds.
After a short delay of 50 microseconds the ground station then retransmits them.
The time delay between sending and receiving the pulses is converted to a range readout.
The aircraft equipment is known as the interrogator, as it initiates the exchange.
The ground equipment is called a transponder as it replies.
The aeroplane must distinguish between its own pulses returning and those of other aircraft.
So the pulse trains are made unique to each aeroplane by using a random or "jittered" PRF.
Therefore the time interval between the paired pulses is random and the chance of two pulse trains
being identical is effectively nil.
The aeroplane must distinguish between retransmitted pulses from the transponder and reflected pulses
from the ground.
To overcome this the transponder on the ground retransmits at a different frequency, 63 MHz apart from
the interrogator.
These paired frequencies are called channels and there are 252 of them available.
126 in regular use designated as X channels and another 126 Y channels which can be allocated.
To make sure that the ground equipment is not triggered by other UHF transmissions it will only reply to
pairs of pulses separated by 12 micro seconds.
To Summarize:
The DME Interrogation Signal uses a random, 'jittered' Pulse Repetition Frequency. The Interrogation
Signal is received at the ground station transponder when it is paused for 50 microseconds, during
which time it is adjusted by +/- 63 MHz (as specified in ICAO Annex 10) before being transmitted back to
the aircraft as a Reply Signal, using the same jittered PRF. The Reply Signal, on being received at the
aircraft, is checked by the Echo Protection Circuit (EPC) to ensure the PRF received is the same as that
transmitted, to eliminate the possibility that it is a reply to another interrogating aircraft.
Beacon Saturation
Although the PRF is randomised, it averages out to about 150 pulses per second when the aircraft starts
to interrogate the DME.
It drops to 60 pulses per second after 15,000 pulse pairs.
The airborne equipment searches through the possible ranges looking for a match at which point it locks
on and the PRF drops to about 24 pulses a second.
The aircraft starts looking at a time that corresponds to its minimum range and then looks for
progressively longer intervals.
Max range is never more than 300NM because this is a line of sight transmission and often it is less.
300NM range corresponds to a time delay of 3.75 milliseconds, including the 50 micro second delay.
So the transmitter looks in very accurate time slots, called gates.
The ground equipment has a limited capacity and adjusts its gain to only handle the strongest 2700
pulses a second.
Since the PRF averages out to about 150 pulses per second when the aircraft starts to interrogate the
DME.
This means that only 18 (2700/150) searching aircraft can use the facility
or
112 (2700/24) locked on aircraft as the PRF drops to about 24 pulses a second after lock on.
In practice there is a bit of each and about 100 aircraft can be served at once.
Ground equipment will answer the strongest signals not the nearest aircraft.
Accuracy
ICAO require accuracy of 0.25 nm plus 1.25% in slant range measurement for systems installed before
01 January 1989.
Systems installed after that date must have a slant range error of less than 0.2 NM on 95% of occasions.
This means that DME is the most accurate ground based short range nay aid.
Cockpit Equipment
In Public Transport aircraft the DME can often be displayed on the EFIS ND and also on a mechanical
standby instrument which combines two RMI needles with a double DME.
In all cases there is a memory function that allows the range to continue counting down at the same
rate if the signal is temporarily interrupted.
After 8 to 10 seconds the off flag will come up or, with an LED display, the range will not be displayed.
Symbols
TACAN
TACANs (TACtical Aid to Navigation) are military beacons that operate in the UHF band to give range and
bearing information to suitably equipped military aircraft.
The UHF range element of TACAN is 100% compatible with DME so that civilian DME users can obtain
range from a TACAN and military TACAN users can obtain range from a DME.
VOR/DME Association
Associated beacons are beacons with the same ident.
For VORs and DMEs to be associated they must be less than 100ft (30m) apart if used as a terminal aid.
If used for any other purpose they must be less than 2000ft (600m) apart.
Associated TACANs and VORs are called VORTACs.
When beacons are associated the three letter Morse ident is sent every seven and a half seconds.
One comes from the DME, the next three from the VOR.
The pitch of the DME ident is often higher than the VOR ident.
If beacons fail to meet these criteria they may be given similar idents.
A DME within 6NM of an en-route VOR might have the last letter of its ident changed to Z.
e.g. the VOR ident might be LIP and the DME LIZ.
Beacons that are not associated may still be frequency paired (if considered useful).
DME Range and DME Derived Groundspeed
DME indicates the slant range to the beacon.
At distances in nautical miles greater than the aircraft height in thousands of feet this difference is
negligible.
Close to the beacon it is not.
To find the plan range Pythagoras theorem (A square + B square = C Square) must be used.
Certain DME receivers use rate of change of DME to indicate groundspeed.
These are only accurate flying to or from the beacon at some range, ideally at ranges greater than the
aircraft height in thousands of feet.
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
It is a secondary radar system requiring active participation from the aircraft and the ground system.
It allows the basic primary radar information which gives the aircraft position to be supplemented with
an identification code and an altitude readout.
Basic SSR operates in Modes A and C.

More modern systems use Mode S.
Mode S SSR is also used by the Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS or ACAS) that allows aircraft to
identify potential collisions without assistance from air traffic control.
Principle of Operation
In an SSR system the ground station is the interrogator and the aircraft carries the transponder.
The ground station can ask questions by sending out trios of pulses on 1030 MHz with one of three
spacings that will be recognised by the aircraft.
The ground transmission is beamed, usually with a phase array aerial, and therefore sidelobes exist.
The aircraft will respond to the interrogation with a longer train of pulses on 1090 MHz according to the
cockpit selections.
The aircraft reply is omnidirectional.
Mode A and C
Interrogation
A reply to a sidelobe would cause confusion about the aircraft's bearing.
Pulse 2 is a standard 2 micro seconds behind pulse 1.
This is used for sidelobe suppression.
The interval between pulses 1 and 3 of the ground interrogation dictates the sort of question that is
asked or mode.
The two standard modes and their pulse spacing are as follows:
Mode A - 8 micro seconds - Civil and military identification
Mode B - 17 micro seconds - Civil identification
Mode C - 21 micro seconds - Altitude reporting
Transponder
The aircraft's response on 1090 MHz is a stream of pulses 20.3 micro seconds long framed by two frame
pulses.
Between the frame pulses there is space for 12 additional pulses, known as a 12 bit code.
The pulse train is effectively a binary code in which 2^12 or 4096 possible number combinations can be
sent.
Aircraft altitude is taken straight from digitisers on the back of the altimeter and is independent of the
subscale setting.
It is always referenced to 1013.25mb and is transmitted in the 12 bit code accurate to the nearest 100ft.
i.e. up to +/- 50ft from the actual aircraft height.
Some ground equipment has the capability to adjust this when received to a QNH based altitude for
display on the radar screen.
An additional identification pulse can be transmitted 4.35 micro seconds after the pulse train which
causes the return on the radar screen to bloom for 25 seconds.
This extra pulse is known as ident or Special Position Identification (SPI).
Special Codes and Procedures
7700 - Emergency.
7600 - Failure of two way commurications.
7500 - Unlawful interference, hijacking or unlawful interception.
2000 - Aircraft entering an FIR from an area where no code has been assigned or oceanic traffic.
The controller will check that the Mode C readout is within 300ft (200 with some European states) of the
assigned level.
If the readout is more than 300ft in error the controller may request that altitude reporting is de-
selected.
If this fails then you squawk Mode A with the code 0000 to indicate a system malfunction.
Advantages of SSR
SSR has a number of advantages over Primary Radar.
1) Since RF energy is only transmitted one way by the ground radar and transponder respectively, both
transmitters can be smaller and lighter than those used in Primary Radar.
2) By using a response of coded pulses it is possible to obtain more information from a target than just
range and bearing.
3) Secondary radars use different frequencies for transmission and reception therefore they are not
susceptible to reflections from very active clouds.
Mode A/C Errors
Fruiting
If aircraft are in range of two ground interrogators they may reply to both. The received replies may be
for the wrong station, this is called fruiting.
Garbling
If two aircraft are on the same bearing from the ground station and closer together than 1.7NM they
may produce overlapping replies to the ground interrogator. This is garbling.
Both fruiting and garbling are much reduced when mode S transponders are used.
Mode S
Whereas Mode A can only handle 4096 identities, Mode S has additional 16 777 214 twenty four bit
Aircraft Addresses (AAs) to remove any possibility of ambiguity.
Mode S also stores and is able to transmit on request hundreds of aircraft parameters and it has a
comms datalink capability.
Mode S uses the same frequencies as Mode A and C systems and both the interrogators and
transponders are backwards compatible.
i.e. A modern ground station can still interrogate a Mode A aircraft and a Mode S aircraft will still give a
Mode A and C response to an old-style interrogation.
Mode S Interrogators
The architecture of the interrogation element of Mode S is different from earlier systems.
The time interval between pulses 1 and 2 of both systems remains at 2 micro seconds but, whereas the
time interval between pulses 1 and 3 of the standard SSR varies and dictates the mode of operation,
Mode S transmits a third synchronising pulse 3.5 micro seconds after pulse 1.
This pulse is 1.25 micro seconds wide, changes phase half way through transmission and is immediately
followed by 56 or 112 data bits of message.
Mode S interrogators also have a unique code, called either the Interrogator Identifier code or the
Surveillance Identifier code. Together called Interrogator Codes (ICs).
The purpose is to identify interrogators which the transponder should either reply to or ignore.
Mode S interrogations can either be to all receiving stations, an all-call or to selected stations.
Mode S Transponders
The response from the Mode S transponder is an 8 micro seconds preamble followed by a 56 bit or 112
bit data transmission on 1090 MHz.
The short (56 bit) reply contains only control elements and simple data such as Mode A codes, the
pressure altitude or the Aircraft Address.
The longer (112 bit) transmission can contain between 56 and 80 bits of message data from the aircraft
avionics systems
Both interrogation and reply data transmissions have the same structure, though they will have differing
contents.
Transponders maintain avionics data in their Binary Data Store (BDS) registers.
There are 256 BDS registers.
Each register contains the 56 bit data payload of a particular long Mode S reply.
Which register is sent depends on the format of the interrogation.
There are 25 standard response formats.
Apart from normal interrogations, some ground stations can command that the transponder include
particular BDS data in its reply.
This is called Ground Initiated Comm-B or GICB.
Mode S Capability
ICAO classify Mode S transponder capability from Level 1 to Level 5.
Most European states require level 2 capability for aircraft over 5700kg MAUM or with a cruise TAS in
excess of 250KT to provide Elementary Surveillance (ELS) functionality.
Some require an Enhance Surveillance (EHS) capability.
Elementary Surveillance
This provides:
• A Mode A response.
• Pressure Altitude reporting in 25ft intervals.
• The Aircraft Address. This is preset and cannot be changed from the cockpit. It is generated by the
Authority of the state in which the aircraft is
registered and is nearly always the aircraft registration itself.
• The Flight Status (in flight or on the ground).
• A Data Link Capability Report.
• The Aircraft Identification which is the aircraft callsign (or unusually its registration) set through the
FMS.
• A GICB Capability Report, but not GCIB data.
• ACAS Resolution Advisory reporting capability.
There are three different identifiers that can be sent:
1) Mode A code, set through the flight deck.
2) Aircraft Identification (callsign), set through the flight deck.
3) Aircraft Address (a/c registration), which is hard wired in.
Enhanced Surveillance
Enhance Surveillance (EHS) equipment must meet the requirements of ELS and must also be able to
supply the following data in response to GCIB requests:
• Magnetic Heading
• Selected Altitude
• Indicated Airspeed
• Mach Number
• Vertical Rate
• Roll Angle
• Track Angle Rate

• True Track Angle
• Ground Speed
Mode S Antennae
Aircraft over 5700kg MAUM or those with a cruise TAS in excess of 250KT require two Mode S antennae
positioned along the centre line on the top and bottom of the fuselage.
The Mode S equipment must be capable of receiving and analysing signals simultaneously on both
antennae.
Once analysed the Mode S equipment must be able to choose the most suitable or, if both signals are
equally suitable, the strongest signal and select only that receiving antenna for the remainder of the
interrogation.
This ability is known as diversity channel selection or antenna diversity.
Mode S Operation
Mode S ground interrogators transmit a Mode S all-call at a steady rate similar to a conventional SSR.
Any Mode S transponder that is not 'locked out' will reply to the interrogation transmitting its 24 bit
Aircraft Address (registration) and its Aircraft Identification (call sign).
Mode A and C transponders reply with the appropriate code.
Once a Mode S transponder has been identified and its track established it can be 'locked out' to
prevent it replying to any further all-call interrogations from stations with the same Interrogator Code.
It will then still respond to all-calls from new stations with differing Interrogator Codes but only reply to
selective interrogations from the 'active' ground stations.
The purpose of this is to reduce the reply rates and thus the possibility of interference.
Selective interrogations use the 24 bit Aicraft Address and are only released when the radar beam is
pointing to where the aircraft is expected to be in the sky.
The aircraft reply is the Mode A code, the Aircraft Identification (call sign) and the pressure altitude.
Mode S Broadcast - Squitters
A squitter is a reply format transmission sent without being interrogated.
Mode S transponders send this 'unsolicited information' on 1090 MHz to allow other TCAS/ACAS II
equipped aircraft to track their position.
Mode S can also use squitters to send Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast (ADS-
information such as its position and altitude to ATC and other users.
Squitters are sent randomly from both top and bottom Mode S aerials.
GNSS - Global Navigation Satellite System
A satellite navigation or SAT NAV system is a system of satellites that provide autonomous geo-spatial
positioning with global coverage. It allows small electronic receivers to determine their location
(longitude, latitude, and altitude) to within a few metres using time signals transmitted along a line-of-
sight by radio from satellites. A satellite navigation system with global coverage may be termed a global
navigation satellite system or GNSS.
There are currently two systems in operation.
One is operated by the United States Department of Defence (DoD) and is known as the Navstar Global
Positioning System (GPS) which uses a notional constellation of twenty four satellites.
The second is the Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS) operated by the
Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS), formerly the Soviet Union, and is similar to that operated
by the US.
A third system underway is the European Galileo.
Legality
GPS is approved for Basic Radio NAVigation (BRNAV) in Europe, GLONASS is not.
A standalone GPS must have a RAIM facility or it must be integrated with other systems such as
automatic DME/DME fixing.
Traditional navigation equipment such as VOR and DME receivers must also be installed as a backup.
Where GPS is the only equipment used that meets BRNAV standards the RAIM availability must be
confirmed before flight.
If it is predicted to not be available for more than 5 minutes the flight does not go.
In flight, using a standalone GPS to meet BRNAV standards, conventional nav aids must be selected to
allow cross checking and to act as an immediate backup if the GPS fails.
If RAIM fails on a standalone GPS then the flight may continue using the GPS but it must be continuously
cross checked with conventional nav aids.
If an erroneous position is announced the GPS position should be disregarded and the flight should be
continued using the conventional nav aids.
The height or altitude datums when using GPS are always pressure or radio datums.
If you are cleared to fly at a flight level, for instance, you must use the altimeter with 1013.2 Hpa set.
GNSS Applications
Air Traffic Control
GNSS is also being trialled in the Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast (ADS-B)
The system, based in the aircraft, digitises the position information derived from the GNSS and
broadcasts it as part of a data stream renewed several times a second.
The data stream contains:
• Aircraft identification and flight number
• Aircraft type
• Altitude
• Speed
• Heading
• Information on aircraft attitude
The advantage of this is it can provide ATC with real time data.
For oceanic sectors the data stream could be transmitted by a satellite link through INMARSAT.
In the terminal area Mode S squitters could be used.
Aircraft Navigation
GPS is already widely used as an integrated navigation aid both in the en-route and terminal areas.
GPS precision approaches are not yet certified.
3D position data is used on some aircraft in conjunction with a computer model of the terrain to provide
an Enhanced Ground Proximity warning System (EGPWS).
In these circumstances the GPS height is zeroed to the wheel height of the aircraft by the EGPWS
software.
NAVSTAR GPS
The GPS constellation of satellites is broken down into six circular orbital planes.
Each orbital plane is at 55 degrees to the equator.
Each orbital plane consists of four to six satellites.
The satellites orbit the earth at a height of 20,200 km once every twelve hours.
Between five and eight satellites will always be in line of sight range of a receiver at any position on
earth at any one time.
The original GPS constellation (notional constellation) had 24 satellites.
The current constellation has 31.
The satellites are called the space segment.
Satellite ground tracks only go up to 55° North and South but because of their height, coverage is
global.
A satellite is not considered "visible" until it is more than 5° above the horizon.
This is called the mask angle.
Frequencies
The GPS satellites transmit ranging signals on two frequencies in UHF.
These are usually referred to as 'L' band.
L1 is 1575.42 MHz
L2 is 1227.6 MHz
Control of the satellite is maintained by an up-link in the 'S' band.
Two modulations are used.
The Precise (P) modulation or P (Y) code is used only for military and survey purposes and is transmitted
on both L1 and L2 frequencies.
This is called the Precise Positioning Service (PPS).
The second modulation which is less accurate and available for general use is known as Coarse
Acquisition (C/A).
It is transmitted only on L1 band.
This service is called the Standard Positioning Service (SPS).
The timing of each satellite's transmissions is controlled by four on board atomic clocks.
This in turn is monitored by atomic clocks maintained by the Master Control Station (MCS).
MCS send correction signals to the satellite when necessary.
The MCS also uploads navigation data to the satellites.
Master Control Stations are distributed around the world near the equator (collectively known as the
"control segment").
Principle of Operation
The orbiting satellites transmit accurately timed radio signals modulated on the L1 frequency.
The digital signals contain a unique satellite identifier and a timing message.
This unique navigational signal repeats every millisecond and is called the pseudo random noise (PRN)
code.
The receiving equipment uses its internal electronic clock to measure how long the message has been in
transit for and converts the time delay into a distance from the satellite (a sphere of range).
Ranges from two satellites produce a circular position line where the spheres intersect.
This produces an ambiguous position.
Therefore ranges from three satellites are needed for a two dimensional fix.
For a three dimensional fix, either a separate altitude information or a fourth satellite is needed.
The clock in the aircraft is less accurate than its atomic counterpart
So the initial range (pseudo range) is inaccurate.
This error is known as receiver clock bias.
The pseudo range from several satellites will not produce a precise fix.
So a correction for the receiver clock bias is needed.
The aircraft receiver changes the ranges all by the same amount at the same time until a near pinpoint
fix is achieved.
The amount the range has to be corrected by translates to a receiver clock correction.
With the correction applied this process is run again and again to get the most precise fix possible whilst
simultaneously removing receiver clock error.
This method is called an iterative process.
The correction for receiver clock bias also means that by the time a fix position is calculated the receiver
is completely synchronised to satellite time.
Satellite time is not the same as UTC. but it can be corrected.
For this system to work the receiver must be aware of the satellite positions, called their "ephemeris".
The expected positions are stored in receiver memory as an almanac.
Resolving The Position
In addition to the PRN code the satellite also sends a data stream called the NAV message with
correction factors and information to update the receiver almanac.
This is superimposed on the L1 frequency in five sub-frames.
Each set of five sub-frames make up a frame lasting 30 seconds.
There are 25 frames in all.
To send the entire navigation message takes a total of 12.5 minutes (25 x 30).
Each sub-frame starts with a burst of telemetry identifying the satellite.
Then followed by a 'hand over word' for military users needing to connect to the P code
Then a string of data.
The first three sub-frames send data on the clock correction and the satellite position, its ephemeris
(updated intermittently by the control segment).
The last two sub-frames send chunks of information on UTC corrections, ionospheric delay, almanac
information on the orbits of all the satellites in the system and satellite health data.
The receiver uses the almanac data to work out the positions of the satellites in three axes relative to
the centre of the earth called the X, Y and Z axes.
The fix is also initially expressed relative to these axes with an additional time (T) parameter.
The X, Y, Z, T fix position is then referenced in the receiver to the WGS84 ellipsoid before finally being
presented to the user as latitude, longitude and height.
Maps that have not been corrected to the WGS84 datum may show GPS positions several hundred
metres out from where they appear on the ground.
GPS receivers also have the capability to compute velocity either by using the Doppler shift from the
satellite signals or by the change in receiver position over time.
The receiver is called the "user segment"
Time To First Fix

When the receiver is first turned on it looks for satellites where it expects to find them according to the
almanac of space segment orbital data held in memory.
If the receiver has been moved a long way since it was last used it gets confused and has to search the
sky to determine which satellites are overhead.
This can take 4 or 5 minutes.
If the almanac is Out of date it has to download new almanac information from the satellites.
Once the satellites are identified, clock bias is corrected for and the position is computed 'Time To First
Fix' can be shortened by entering a position, time and date to give the receiver a new starting datum
and shorten the search for the satellites.
Accuracy and System Errors, UERE
Fixing accuracy of plus or minus 13 metres on 95% of occasions is quoted for raw signals.
Several system errors are classified as User Equivalent Range Errors or UERE. They are:
Satellite Ephemeris Error
Ephemeris error is caused by the satellite not being where it should be.
This can be caused by gravity changes in the earth's gravitational field or the fields from the sun and
moon.
Atmospheric drag, solar winds and electromagnetic forces can also produce errors.
Control of position is so stringent that errors caused are in the region of plus or minus 0.5m
Atmospheric or Ionospheric Error
Variations in ionospheric density and atmospheric conditions are the largest individual source of error.
Satellites that are overhead have the least errors and provide the most accurate ranges.
The delay in the transmission time caused by the ionosphere and atmosphere is proportional to 1/f^2
(where f is the frequency of the carrier wave).
Military receivers operating on two frequencies can compare the delays on their two frequencies to
compute a near total correction for ionospheric error.
A civilian receiver operating on one frequency (C/A signal) can not take advantage of this method and
relies instead on a mathematical model of the ionosphere which is downloaded from the satellites as
part of the data message and subsequently stored in its memory.
The latter method only reduces the error by about 50%, down to plus or minus 4m.
Instrument/Receiver Error
These are caused by electrical noise, computational errors or errors arising when matching the pseudo-
random signals.
Errors in range from this source are only expected to be in the region of one metre.
Multipath Signals
Signals reflected from terrain can be confused with direct signals and reduce the accurate by 0.5m or
so.
The error arising from multipath signals can be reduced by aerial design and software fixes.
Clock Bias
Timing errors at the receiver will lead to fixing errors.
Receiver clock bias can be corrected out.
Errors at the satellite are less likely but more serious as these can only be corrected as the satellites
pass over the Master Control Station.
Fixing Errors, Dilution of Precision (DOP)
Dilution of Precision can be caused by:
Satellite Geometry Error
Strictly speaking this is not a GPS error at all but is based on the principle of using position lines to
obtain a fix.
The optimum geometry for four satellites is to have three separated by 120° in azimuth and elevated a
little above the horizon with a fourth directly overhead.
On the other hand, if the satellites are close together, the angle of cut between the range lines will be
shallow and the fix is liable to be less accurate.
The term used to describe this effect in GPS fixing is Geometric Dilution Of Precision (GDOP).
Position errors of up to 70m can unusually occur.
GDOP is made up of four components
• PDOP - The Position Dilution of Precision in 3D (Spherical DOP).
• HDOP - The Horizontal Dilution of Precision (Latitude & Longitude).
• VDOP - The Vertical Dilution of Precision (Height).
• TDOP - The Time Dilution of Precision (Time).
While each of these GDOP terms can be individually computed, they are not independent of each other.
e.g. A high TDOP will cause receiver clock errors which will eventually result in increased position errors.
Coverage Problems
There have been many reported cases of GPS coverage being less than expected because the satellite
signal has been blocked.
These "worm holes" can cover relatively large areas and last from minutes to days.
Worm holes are caused by accidental or deliberate jamming of the satellite signals.
Sometimes by transmissions on the same frequency and sometimes by harmonics from similar
frequencies such as UHF television broadcasts.
Receivers and Aerials
Single-Channel
This type uses just one channel which moves from one satellite to another to collect data for
navigational purposes.
As the data is not simultaneous the movement of the receiver can degrade overall accuracy.
Multi-Channel Receivers
With three channels, one channel is used to calculate range whilst the others read the NAV messages.
Compared to a single channel receiver time to first fix is reduced and the receiver can maintain tracking
at moderate speeds.
Multiplex Receivers
Multiplex receivers use a single channel which switches every 5 milliseconds between satellites in view.
They provide a high quality fix but are susceptible to jamming, either real or accidental.
Continuous Receivers
Continuous receivers are used in specialised circumstances such as survey work or for scientific
purposes.
Operating on between four and twelve channels they give instantaneous read out of position and speed.
Normally the four satellites that are predicted to give the best geometric solution are tracked.
This minimises GDOP.
Continuous receivers track all visible satellites simultaneously.
The disadvantage is their high cost.
Aerial Location
Receiver aerials are positioned on the top of the fuselage to give a clear view of the sky.
GLONASS
Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System
Space Segment
The GLONASS system is similar in operation and design to GPS
24 satellites orbit the earth in 3 orbital planes.

Eight satellites in each orbit equally displaced by 45° of latitude.
The satellites in each plane are each 15° Out of synch with those in the next one so only one satellite
crosses the equator at once, not three together.
The near circular orbits are inclined at an angle of 64.8 degrees to the equator
The satellites fly at a height of approximately 19,100 km, lower than GPS.
Since the orbit is lower the orbital time is also less, 11 hours 15 minutes.
Frequencies
Each satellite transmits navigation signals on two L-band frequencies.
L1 around 1.6 GHz.
L2 around 1.2 GHz.
L1 carries a standard precision (SP) signal designed for worldwide civil users - the equivalent of C/A.
L2 carries a high precision (HP) encrypted signal for authorised users only - the equivalent of GPS P
code.
GPS satellites all use the same L1 frequency and are identified by their PRN code.
The GLONASS satellites use 12 different channels on slightly higher L1 frequencies than GPS.
System Operation
The user segment calculates range from satellites using the SP signal in exactly the same way as GPS.
However the reference systems are different.
GLONASS position information is calculated using the PZ-90 Earth-centred Earth-fixed reference system.
This bases its position on the average position of the geographic north pole between 1900 and 1905.
The GLONASS time reference is to the Russian version of UTC, called UTC(SU), which is then offset to
UTC(SU) + 3 hours, effectively Moscow time.
Satellite time is transmitted as the numbers of hours, minutes and seconds from a daily datum.
This gives rise to the slightly odd description of satellite time transmission in official documentation as
"enumeration of satellite time marks".
The message from the satellite has a duration of 2 seconds and contains "immediate" data and "non-
immediate" data.
Immediate data relates to the actual satellite transmitting the specific navigation signal.
Non-immediate data relates to all other satellites within the constellation.
Immediate Data comprises:
• Enumeration of satellite time marks
• Difference between satellite time and GLONASS time

• Relative differences between the satellite carrier frequency and its nominal value
• Ephemeris parameters
Non-immediate Data comprises:
• Data concerning the status of all the satellites in the constellation
• Coarse corrections to satellite time relative to GLONASS time
• Orbital parameters for all of the GLONASS satellites
• Correction for GLONASS time to UTC(SU) (must be within 1 microsecond)
Integrity Monitoring
Integrity monitoring is carried Out by the satellites themselves and through the control segment.
If a malfunction occurs an "unhealthy" flag appears within the "Immediate" data of the navigation
message.
Besides monitoring the control segment provides corrections to the orbital parameters and uploads
navigation data.
The GLONASS control segment is located entirely in the former Soviet Union.
GALILEO
The European Galileo system will eventually consist of 30 satellites orbiting in three planes, inclined at
an angle of 56 degrees to the equator.
Each near circular orbit will contain nine satellites, plus a spare replacement.
Satellites will fly at an altitude of 23,222 km.
The orbital period will be 14 hours.
Frequencies
Like GPS, GALILEO satellites all use the same frequencies and carry an identifier as part of the
navigation message.
The satellite navigation signals are transmitted in three bands:
1164 - 1215 MHz.
1260 - 1300 MHz.
1559 - 1591 MHz.
The last of these bands is shared with NAVSTAR.

GALILEO signals are transmitted over a wider range of frequencies than required using a technique
called spread spectrum modulation which reduces interference generally and also allows GALILEO to use
the same L1 frequency as GPS without interfering with the GPS signal.
System Operation
Galileo will work on the same ranging principle as GPS and GLONASS.
Three service levels will be provided:
1) The Open Service (OS) - an accuracy comparable to the GPS C/A signal.
2) The Commercial Service (CS) - (available for a fee) will use an additional third frequency band (E6) to
provide a higher level of accuracy than OS fixing (down to 1m).
3) The Public Regulated Service (PRS) - an accuracy comparable to OS but more securely for use by
security forces and Air Traffic Control.
The GALILEO satellites will also be able to pick up and report signals from Search and Rescue beacons
operating on 406 MHz.
The hardware and software in the GALILEO satellites has three specific functions:
1) Timing.
2) Signal Generation.
3) Transmision.
Satellite time is provided by two clocks.
1) A Rubidium Frequency Standard clock
2) Passive Hydrogen Maser clock (more precise)
MASER = Microwave Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
The navigation signals generated consist of a ranging code identifier plus the navigation message.
In general terms, the navigation message contains information concerning the satellite orbit
(ephemeris) and the clock references.
The navigation message is uploaded onto four navigation signal carrier waves, the outputs being
combined in a multiplexer before transmission
Navigation Aerials
Galileo navigation aerials have been designed to minimise interference between satellites by having
equal power level propagation paths independent of satellite elevation angle.
System Monitoring and Control
The Galileo Space Segment will be monitored both by the satellites themselves and by a Control
Segment based in Europe.
Airborne Based Augmentation Systems (ABAS)

At present three methods exist within airborne equipment to provide integrity of navigation.
1) The first is to use GPS with another satellite system such as GLONASS. This increases the number of
satellites in view and, by using two separate frequencies, reduces the effect of propagation errors. This
method is not yet approved for IFR navigation.
2) The second method is to use a system called Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM).
3) The third method is to integrate satellite positioning with alternative (conventional) navigation
systems and is referred to as Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (AAIM)
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)
The receiver normally tracks four satellites to give a 3D fix.
Every twenty seconds data from one of the four satellites is replaced by data from a fifth.
If the position changes either the satellite that was rejected or the new one is in error.
By continuously sampling the satellites a faulty one can be identified.
This means that whereas a 2D fix normally requires 3 satellites and a 3D fix requires four, when RAIM is
monitoring the navigation solution four satellites are needed for a 2D fix and requires five to monitor a
3D fix.
If an error is found a further satellite must be available for RAIM to continue to function.
So the ideal is to have two 'spare' over and above the minimum needed for a fix.
Unmonitored
Number of satellites required for 2D Fix = 3

RAIM motoring

RAIM with one reduntant satellite

If the receiver is fed barometric altitude this effectively creates another sphere of position and reduces
the number of satellites required for each function by one.
RAIM routinely operates with GPS and is expected to operate with GALILEO but has not yet been used
with GLONASS, partly because of the low number of operational satellites.
Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (AAIM)
Disadvantages like the presence of 'worm holes' makes the satellite system not quite suitable to be
used as a stand alone navigation aid.
One way around this is to combine satellite navigation with other navigation systems and create a
multisensor nay system possibly also using inputs such as barometric altitude and time.
Satellite fixing can be combined with either INS/IRS or with radio fixing or both.
Satellite fixing integrated with INS is an ideal match of two quite different systems.
INS is not as accurate as satellite navigation but its position only drifts out, it will always be close.
Inertial Navigation systems usually run in threes so that if one IN drifts away the others will be able to
'out-vote' it.
Satellite navigation is very accurate but when it goes wrong it loses its position completely.
This allows the satellite navigation receiver to update the triple-mixed IN position but if the satellite
fixing fails the signal can be discarded.
Since not all aircraft have Inertial Navs fitted.
The ideal solution would be then to use GPS with RAIM combined with radio navigation.
IN this case the aircraft automatically tunes VORs and DMEs through the FMS to obtain the best cross-
cut.
FMS radio navigation is very accurate (often to less than 400m), though not as good as GPS, but still
more reliable.
Multisensor systems like this use GPS as a primary nav system when RAIM is functioning.
When there are insufficient satellites for RAIM to operate RNAV automatically becomes the primary nay
system.
ABAS does not improve satellite navigation accuracy
Ground Based Augmentation Systems (GBAS)
The principle of a GBAS is to make ground measurements of the signal errors transmitted by satellites.
Measured errors are then relayed to various users to enable raw GPS data to be corrected.
The ICAO GBAS standard is based on this technique and uses a VHF data link (108 — 118 MHz) to
deliver corrections to the user.
ICAO standards provide the possibility to interconnect GBAS stations to form a network broadcasting
large-scale differential corrections.
These systems may be referred to as Ground Regional Augmentation Systems (GRAS).
A GBAS ground subsystem provides two services:
1) The precision approach service
Provides deviation guidance for final approach segments.
2) The GBAS positioning service

Provides horizontal position information to support RNAV operations in terminal areas.
A single ground station can support all the aircraft in its area of coverage, providing those aircraft with
approach data, corrections and integrity information for all satellites in view via a VHF data broadcast
(VDB).
The minimum GBAS plan coverage is 15NM from the landing threshold out to 35 degrees either side of
the final approach path.
A further extension is out to 20NM and out to 10 degrees either side of the final approach path.
A GBAS that is based on GPS is sometimes referred to as a Local Area Augmentation System (LAAS).
Differential GPS
Differential GPS (dGPS) is one form of Ground Based Augmentation System.
GPS signals are received on the ground by a continuous receiver at an accurately surveyed location.
The ground installation then computes the difference between its known position and that from the GPS
and sends the correction to any aircraft within 30km using an ACARS datalink.
The refined position will be accurate from 1 to 3m.
DGPS corrects for errors induced by satellite clocks, ephemeris and ionospheric propagation.
It cannot correct for receiver errors, multipath signals or some atmospheric propagation errors.
Pseudolites
A development of dGPS is to include an extra ground station that acts like another satellite, a pseudo
satellite or pseudolite.
The pseudolite sends satellite type signals to the receiver and sends the dGPS correction.
The benefit is greater than "raw" dGPS because the pseudolite gives another range input to increase the
accuracy of the fix, particularly in the vertical plane reducing the VDOP.
Pseudolites are short range devices intended to increase GPS position accuracy in the approach.
Since they are placed on the ground, they can have problems with the aircraft fuselage screening the
receiver aerial.
For this reason they tend to be placed off to the side of the approach path.
Satellite Based Augmentation Systems (SBAS)
Both dGPS and pseudolites provide a high level of accuracy over a small area.
Satellite Based Augmentation Systems take the ideas of dGPS and apply them over a wide area.
There are four systems under development, all of which work on the same basic principle. They are:
• The Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS), developed in the US.
• The Multi-functional Satellite Augmentation System (MSAS) from Japan

• The GAGAN system in India
• The European Geostationary Navigation Overlay System (EGNOS) in Western Europe and the
Mediterranean.
All four operate on the same basic principle and aim to eventually provide accuracy sufficient to enable
Category 1 precision approaches.
An SBAS uses the same architecture as GPS with three segments, a ground segment, a space segment
and a user segment consisting of airborne SBAS receivers.
The ground segment consists of a number of precisely surveyed:
Wide Area Reference Stations (WARS).
A "Wide Area Master Station" (WAMS).
A Ground Earth Station (GES).
The WARS and WAMS stations are interconnected by data links.
The network of reference stations (WARS) continuously downloads satellite data and passes this
information to the WAMS.
The WAMS collects the data, determines the differential corrections for each satellite being tracked,
organises the data and formats a data broadcast.
This is sent to the ground earth station (GES).
Which then uplinks to the space segment.
The space segment is a geostationary satellite System which allows transmission of the message over a
wide area.
The American WARS and the European EGNOS systems use INMARSAT communication satellites.
The Japanese plan to use their own multi-functional satellites MTSAT 1 and MTSAT 2.
The satellite receives the data and transmits it to all users modulated on the GPS L1 frequency.
The message consists of:
• An integrity message indicating the status of all GPS satellites in a use/don't use format.
• Wide Area DGPS error corrections.
• An ionospheric delay model.
• Ephemeris and clock data for the geostationary satellite.
The satellite information also includes information that can be used to determine a range from the
geostationary satellite increasing the fix accuracy.
SBAS Coverage and Service Areas
The SBAS coverage area is that area within which the SBAS broadcast can be received (the
geostationary satellite footprint).
The SBAS service area is a defined area, within the coverage area, where SBAS meets the specific
requirements for supporting approved operations.
Area Navigation (RNAV)
It is a navigation system which allows aircraft operations on any desired track within the coverage of
station–referenced navigation signals (VORs, GPS etc), or within the limits of a self-contained navigation
system (IRS and others).
Types of RNAV
There are 3 types of RNAV system:
1) 2D RNAV: Provides navigation in the horizontal plane only.
2) 3D RNAV: Provides navigation in the horizontal plane and also has a guidance capability in the vertical
plane.
3) 4D RNAV: Provides navigation in the horizontal plane, has a guidance capability in the vertical plane
and has a timing function.
RNP Standards
ICAO classify navigation performance standards by the ability to maintain an accuracy of a particular
amount for 95% of the time.
The standards are called Required Navigation Performance (RNP) and the accuracy is listed after it in
nautical miles.
Thus RNP5 means "a required navigation performance to within 5NM on 95% of occasions".
Some RNP standards that are being considered for use contain a vertical element listed in feet.
RNP 0.01/15 means "a required navigation performance to 0.01NM laterally and 15ft vertically"
(proposed standard for CAT II approaches).
The current RNP standards in Europe are:
Departure
Normally based on RNP 1
Where necessary and appropriate, RNP 0.5 or RNP 0.3
Departures are not associated with an RNP less than 0.3
En-Route
Normally based on RNP 4 or higher.
Where necessary and appropriate, may be RNP 1
Non Precision Approaches
Normally based on RNP 0.5 for the initial approach only.

or RNP 0.3 for initial, intermediate and final approach.
Non-precision approach procedures must be at least RNP 0.3
B-RNAV
The present standard of RNAV is called Basic RNAV or BRNAV
B-RNAV defines European RNAV operations which satisfy a required track keeping accuracy of ± 5NM for
at least 95% of the time inside the ECAC member states, equivalent to RNP5.
This level of navigation accuracy is comparable with that which can be achieved by conventional
navigation techniques on ATS routes defined by VOR and DME when the VORs are less than 100 NM
apart
B-RNAV requirements are mandatory in ECAC airspace on the entire ATS route network above FL95
(higher in some states)
B-RNAV can be achieved using inputs from:
• DME/DME
• VOR/DME, within 62NM of the VOR
• INS or IRS (with radio updating or limited to 2 hours use after last on-ground position update)
• LORAN C (where available and certified)
• GPS
The minimum requirements for B-RNAV equipment are that there should be
• Continuous display of cross track position in the pilot(s) primary field of view
• Display of distance and bearing to the active waypoint
• Display of either time to the active waypoint or groundspeed
• A capability to store at least four waypoints
• Indications of RNAV system failure and sensor failure
P-RNAV
Precision Area Navigation (P-RNAV) equates to RNP1 giving an accuracy of 1 NM on 95% of occasions.
It is not yet mandatory.
P-RNAV may use inputs from:
• DME/DME
• VOR/DME, when within 15NM of the station
• GPS
• IRS
P-RNAV procedures must be referenced to WGS 84 coordinates.
Navaid Priority
The FMS continuously computes the aircraft position, using data from the IRS, VOR, DME and the ILS
localiser as required.
In route navigation the order of priority for selecting input data to obtain the most accurate fix is:
1) DME/DME crosscut.
2) DME/VOR.
3) VOR/VOR.
4) IRS.
The system will tune its own DME frequencies in sequence according to the route information in the
navigation database.
If the IRS is the only position reference the FMC computes its position from those positions with a pre-
calculated typical IRS error value applied.
When radio data is available the FMC computes a position taking account of the likely errors in both
radio and IRS data through a device called a Kalman filter.
Because radio errors are small and the IRS can drift miles over a long route this will be closer to the
radio position than the IRS position.
The B737-800 has two IRS platforms but only takes data from the left hand IRS, unless it is faulty.
No radio updates are available to the FMS whilst the aircraft is on the ground so the most accurate
updates come from double DME.
FMS position and IRS position are the same until the aircraft is lined up for take-off.
As the TOGA button is pressed for take-off the FMS resets itself to the threshold co-ordinates of the
runway in use.
After takeoff DME/DME updates keep the FMS position updated.
Unlike the Airbus, the B737 will not accept VOR information.
If the FMS is suddenly updated by DME/DME or GPS the EFIS MAP display will readjust itself in a series of
small steps.
This phenomenon is known as 'Map Shift'.

Radio Navigation

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Radio Navigation

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

RADIO NAVIGATION

Decimetric waves correspond to the frequency range:

3000 to 30000 MHz

Decimeter: A metric unit of length, equal to one tenth of a meter.

Decameter: A metric unit of length, equal to 10 meters.

Wavelength = Speed of Sound / Frequency

Received frequecy = 10 GHz + 11,000 HZ = 10,000011000 Hz or 10.000011 GHz

Which of the following statements is correct in respect of a RF signal:

the plane of polarisation is dictated by the oscillator unit in the transmitter

RF signal at 18 MHz has a wavelength = Speed of sound / frequency

Half wave dipole = 16.66 / 2 = 8.33 meters

Which of the following statements is true?

A broad bandwidth gives a narrow beam width

Diffraction of a RF signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to:

reflection from the surface

Refraction of an electro-magnetic radiation is:

sun down frequency down

Ground direction finding at aerodromes utilises what frequencies?

"VHF at civil aerodromes and UHF at military aerodromes"

The emission characteristics A3E describe:

Type of Radio Emissions: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Types_of_radio_emissions

QDR - Magnetic Bearing From

The gain of an aerial is a measure of its ability to:

The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of:

The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What is the frequency?

Frequency = Speed of Sound / Wavelength

= 1,500,000 or 1.5 MHz

100 NM long in the HF band.

The speed of a radio wave in nm/sec is:

Very High Frequency Direction Finding (VHF D/F or VDF)

Bearings that a pilot may request from a VDF operator are:

QDM: magnetic bearing TO the station;

Accuracy and Errors

Class A: accurate to within +/-2°

H1 = height of the transmitter (in feet above msl)

H2 = height of the receiver (in feet above msl)

Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?

It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft

When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz

The VDF Homer service provides:

Accurate bearings on demand

An aircraft wishing to use the VDF service must:

Be equipped with a VOR indicator unit

An aeroplane requesting a VDF bearing should:

The VDF class B bearing is accurate to within:

Class A: accurate to within +/-2°

When a pilot is conducting a VDF/QGH procedure, he will require:

an operator on the ground only for the VDF procedure

the requesting aircraft is not from a consenting country

Magnetic heading decreases = Wind from left = Drift towards right

An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:

Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect

Timing error and latitude error are the odd ones.

height error - station interference - mountain effect

Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF:

selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect

Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day

What gives the greatest error in ADF:

Which combination gives the greatest reduction in reliability of ADF:

Station interference; Static interference; Lane slip

Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?

static interference, height effect, lack of failure warning

magnetic; horizontal; vertically

The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to: