NAME: __________________________________________

SYSTEMS:

1- Which warning indicates the detection of the WINDSHEAR in front of the airplane?

a- W/S AHEAD in amber

b- W/S AHEAD in red
c- The previous ones are correct
d- WINSHEAR in red

FCOM DSC-34-SURV-30-20 P 1/4

2- Penumatic system. Temperature regulation is achieved by the precooler which

regulates and limits the temperature at:

a-150°C
b- 85°C
c- 60° C
d-200° C

FCOM DSC-36-10-20 P 4/4

3- What are the three FMGS modes?

a- Normal mode, single mode, and independent mode

b- Dual mode, independent mode and single mode
c- Independent mode, Single mode, and parallel mode
d- Single mode, Dual mode, and slave mode

FCOM DSC-22_10-30 P 1/4

4- The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) come into action when the differential pressure
between the green and the yellow system is:

a- Greater than 1000 PSI

b- Greater than 500 PSI
c- PTU is always active
d- Greater than 100 PSI

FCOM DSC-29-10-20 P 1/6

5- Each passenger door has one RED CABIN PRESSURE warning light that:

a- Warns of residual pressure in the cabin

b- Shows a possible unlocked door
c- Both are correct
d- None is correct

FCOM DSC-52-10-20 P 1/4

6- In flight, how can the crew arm the A/THR?

a- Moving thrust levers out of IDLE

b- Pushing the FCU A/THR push botton while thrust levers are out of the active
range
c- Setting both thrust levers to the CL detent
d- Moving both thrust levers out of the IDLE detent and pressing A/THR push botton
on the FCU

FCOM DSC-24-10-30-30 P 3/10

7- Which protection is not available below 100 ft AGL?

a- Pitch attitude
b- Vls
c- Alpha Speed
d- Alpha floor

FCOM DSC-22_30-90 P 9/14

8- Electrical system normal configuration ACC ESS BUS is supplied from:

a- From AC BUS 1
b- From AC BUS 2
c- From Emergency Generator
d- From Static Inverter

FCOM DSC-24-10-30-20 P 1/4

9- About the color code of C/B, determine the most complete statement.

a- Green colored C/Bs are monitored by ECAM

b- C/Bs with yellow rings must be pulled when flying on batteries only
c- Black C/B are not monitored by ECAM
d- All of the above are correct

DSC-24-10-20 P 2/4
10- In case of TR 1 and TR2 fault, which bus will supply DC BAT BUSS?

a- ESS TR
b- AC 2
c- DC BUS 2
d- Its lost

FCOM DSC-24-10-30-30 P 3/10

11- If during takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an altitude on the FCU below the
current altitude:

a- RWY mode will become active

b- CLB mode will be active as usual when proper
c- SRS mode will be active until the flight crew takes some other action
d- Master Caution will flash

FCOM DSC-22_30-80-20 P 2/4

12- What is the temperature selection range?

a- From 16C (61F) to 32C (90F)

b- From 18C (64F) to 30C (86F)
c- From 18C ( 64F) to 32C (90F)
d- From 20C (68F) tov30 C (86F)

FCOM DSC-21-10-30 P 2/2

13-The windshear detection function is provided:

a- At takeoff, 3 s after liftoff, up to 1 300 ft RA

b- At landing, from 1 300 ft RA to 50 ft RA
c- With at least CONF 1 selected
d- All of the above

FCOM DSC-22_40-40 P 1/2

14- What the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) controls?

a- The rudder, the rudder trim and yaw damper imputs

b- Normal elevator, stabilizer control and aileron control
c- Spoiler control, stand by elevator and stabilizer control
d- None of the above

FCOM DSC-22_10-10 P 4/6

15- What happens when the first inner tank level reaches 750 kg?

a- Nothing happens until both inner tanks reach 750 kg

b - Transfer valves in the associated wing will open
c- One transfer valve in each wing will open
d- The centre tank pump will stop

FCOM DSC-28-10-30 P 3/4

FCOM DSC-28-10-30 P 4/4

16- The MAN V/S CTL switch is....

a- Operative at all times, and it controls the outflow valve

b- Operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: hold up to open the outflow valve
c- Operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: hold up to close the outflow valve
d- Inoperative if the DITCHING switch is ON

FCOM DSC-21-20-40 P 2/6

17- The Trim Air Valve:

a- Are electrically controlled by the zone controller

b- Adjust temperature by adding cold air
c- Mix fresh air from the packs with recirculated cabin air
b- Regulate pack flow depending on number of passengers

FCOM DSC-21-10-20 P 4/4

18- With the PACK FLOW selector to NORM, what will the actual flow be?

a- LO oR NORM or HIGH
b- Always NORM
c- NORM or HIGH
d- NORM or LOW

FCOM DSC-21-10-50 P 2/8

19- Regarding the A/THR indications on the FMA, which is true?

a- A/THR in blue= ARMED. Actual thrust = TLA

b- A/THR in white= ARMED. Actual thrust=TLA
c- A/THR in blue = ACTIVE. Actual thrust is limited by TLA
d- A/THR in white= ACTIVE. Actual thrust is always less than TLA

FCOM DSC-22_30-100 P 7/8

20- Which are the basic modes of AP/FD?

a- Pitch and Roll

b- Hdg or Trk and V/S or FPA
c- Alt and Nav
d- Spd and Hdg

FCOM DSC-22_30-10 P 3/6

FCOM DSC-22_30-10 P 5/6

21- During COCKPIT PREPARATION we set BAT 1+2 to OFF, then to ON, what do we
check?

a- We check that voltage after reconnecting both bateries above 25,5V

b- We check that both batteries are loaded correctly: batteries current drop below
60A after 10 seconds
c- We check that voltage after reconnecting both batteries is below 25,5V
d- We check that BAT1(2) pushbotton switches are working OK

FCOM PRO-NOR-SOP

22- When can the crew engage one AutoPilot AP?

a- Aircraft airborne for at least 5 seconds

b- Below 100 feet
c- On ground, if the engines are not running
d- A and C are correct

FCOM DSC-22_30-30 P 1/4

23- What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to on?

a- The APU intake flap opens and the starter motor engages inmediately
b- The APU intake flap opens and the starter motor engages when the flap is fully
open
c- The APU Fuel Pump will operate
d- The APU Intake Flap opens among others

FCOM DSC-49-20 P 1/8

24- On the overhead, when should AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3?

a- The Captain is using RMP tuning of the NAVAIDS

b- The Captain's ACP has failed
c- The captain's loudspeaker has failed
d- Both RMPs have failed

FCOM DSC-23-20-20 P 6/6

25- In alternate law, how do indications change on the speed scale?

a- Alpha protectionis replaced by an extended Vls

b- There are not changes: it is possible to stall the aircraft
c- Vstall WARNING replaces Vls
d- Vstall WARNING replaces Alpha prot: it is possible to stall the aircraft

FCOM DSC-27-20-20 P 4/8

26- Which light turns off when the gear is retracted?

a- Nose light
b- Beacon light
c- Strobe light
d- Logo light

FCOM DSC-33-20-20 P 4/6

27- Aircraft in clean configuration, operating in NORMAL LAW, if the FAC detects a too
high AOA:

a- Stall warning is triggered

b- THR LK flashing on the FMA
c- ALPHA FLOOR function is triggered.
d- Nothing will happened unless A/THR is connected

FCOM DSC-22_40-30 P 2/4

28- When does the REFUELG memo appears?

a- When the END light illuminates steady green

b- When the MODE SELECT switch is placed to REFUEL
c- When the MODE SELECT switch is placed to REFUEL
d- When the re-fuelling control panel door is open

FCOM DSC-28-20 P 10/10

29- Which is true if fuel pumps in the centre tank fail?

a- You must descend to 15000 ft when gravity feeding becomes necessary

b- The SD shows amber XX replacing the CTR tank quantity indications
c- The SD shows amber= through the CTR tank quantity indications
d- The FOB ( EWD) will show a box (amber)

FCOM DSC-28-20 P 8/10

30- On the SD what signifies an inaccurate quantity indication?

a- An amber box round a fuel figure

b- An amber line though last two digits of a fuel figure
c- Double crosses in place of a fuel figure
d- An amber half-box round a fuel figure

FCOM DSC-28-20 P 8/10

31- Where should I look for the procedure for a flight with landing gear down?

a- FCOM PRO-NOR Normal Operation

b- FCOM PRO-SPO Special Operations
c- FCOM PRO-SUP Supplementary Procedures
d- FCOM PRO-ABN Abnormal and Emergency Procedures

FCOM PRO-SPO-25-10 P 1/2

32-Regarding landing with Autobreak MED selected, which is true?

a- Braking starts 2 secs after both main landing gear are compressed
b- Braking starts 2 secs after spoilers deployment
c- Braking starts 4 secs after mainwheel spin-up
d- During braking a specific pressure will be applied to the wheelbrakes

FCOM DSC-32-30-20 P 3/6

33- What happen if you do a rejected take-off prior to 72 knots?

a- The spoilers will deploy and the autobreak will not function
b-The spoilers will deploy and the autobreak will function
c- The spoilers will not deploy and the autobreak will function if you set both
reversers in idle
d- The spoilers will not deploy and the autobreak will not function

FCOM DSC-32-30-10 P 2/6

33- Where is displayed the indication of the water quantity in the water tank?

a- FAP and AFT service panel

b- We have no indication
c- EWD
d- SD

FCOM DSC-38-10 P 1/6

34- During a manual start, what does the MAN START pushbotton do?

a- It controls the FUEL VALVE

b- It controls the START VALVE and the FUEL VALVES
c- It opens the start valve and must be selected OFF to close the start valve
d- It opens the start valve: the start valve will close automatically

FCOM DSC-70-80-40 P 3/6

35- When the A/THR is active, in which colour is it displayed in the fifth column of the
FMA?

a- White
b- Blue
c- Magenta
d- Green

FCOM DSC-22_30-90 P 3/14

36- The cockpit voice recorder is energized on ground during the first 5 minutes after
the aircraft electrical network is energized and it will be energized again when:

a- GND switch is selected ON

b- At least one engine is running
c- Answer A and B are correct
d- Parking brake is selected OFF

FCOM DSC-23-30-10 P 1/2

37- The maximum cabin descent rate is limited in automatic to:

a- 300 ft/min
b- 800 ft/min
c- 1000 ft/min
d- 750 ft/min

FCOM DSC-21-20-30 P 2/4

38- What is displayed on the COND SD if the primary channel of the Zone Controller
has failed?

a- " ALTN MODE"

b-" PACK REG"
c- "XX"
d-"TRIM AIR VALVE FAULT"

FCOM DSC-21-10-50 P 6/8

39- At which altitude does the RWY mode engage:

a- At 20 ft RA
b- At 30 ft RA
c- This mode is only available in LVO
d- Aicraft on ground for 30 seconds

FCOM DSC-22_30-80-20 P 3/4

FCOM DSC-21-10-20 P 4/4

40- If the flight crew pushes and holds one instinctive disconnect pb for more than 15
seconds the A/THR system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight. All A/THR
functions including ALPHA FLOOR are lost, and they can be recovered only at the next
FMGC power-up (on ground).

a- True
b- False

FCOM DSC-22_30-90 P 6/14

41- How many pressurization modes exist on A320?

a- 2 modes: Automatic and manual

b- 3 modes: Automatic, Semi-Automatic and Manual
c- 1 mode: Automatic
d- 3 modes: Automatic, Manual and Dependent

FCOM DSC-21-20-10 P 1/4

42- On the ACP, what does an amber light on a Transmission Key indicate?

a- Failure of the associated transmitter

b- Failure of the associateded transmitter and receiver
c- SELCAL operation only
d- SELCAL operation or, a call from maintenance or the cabin

FCOM DSC-23-20-20 P 1/6

43- What is the effect of selecting the GEN1 LINE to OFF?

a- Fuel Pump operations transferred to ACC ESS BUS

b- GEN is fed directly onto the ACC ESS BUS
c- GEN 1 is de-energised
d- GEN 1 is line contactor opens

FCOM DSC-24-20 P 7/18

44- The Ram Air Turbine RAT extends automatically when:

a- AC BUS 1 fault and it can only be stowed on ground

b- AC BUS 2 fault and can be stowed in flight
c- AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 fault, it can only be stowed on ground
d- RAT can only be extended manually

FCOM DSC-29-10-20 P 2/6

45- What will trigger a fire warning?

a- Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other ( Engine)

b- Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other( APU)
c- Fire detection by loops A and B together ( Engine)
d- Fire detection by loops A or B ( Engine)

FCOM DSC-26-20-10 P 1/2

46- Regarding the flight crew portable oxygen system:

a- The effective time of use is 13 minutes

b- The effective time of use is 5 minutes
c- The effective time of use is 22 minutes
d- The effective time of use is 15 minutes

FCOM DSC-35-40-10 P 1/2

47- Following an engine fire, when will AGENT pushbotton lights illuminate?

a- SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed, DISCH when squib has fired
b- SQUIB when squib has failed, DISCH when squib has fired
c- SQUIB as soon as the fire is detected
d- SQUIB when engine fire Pushbotton is pushed, DISCH when extinguisher bottle
is depressurized

FCOM DSC-26-20-20 P 2/8

48- Which parts of the aircraft are electrically heated?

a- Sensors, pitot probes, static ports, engine air intake and flight compartment
windows
b- Three outboard leading-edge slats of each wing and the engine air intake
c- Pitot probes, static ports, sensors, the waste-water drain mast and flight
compartment windows
d- Static ports, pitot probes and flaps

FCOM DSC-30-10-10 P 1/2

49- When will MECH BACK-UP occur?

a- Loss of all electrical power. Aicraft control is done with stab & ailerons
b- Loss of all electrical power. Aicraft control is done with THS and pedals
c- Loss of G and Y hydraulics. Aircraft control is done with stab & rudder
d- Loss of all hydraulics. Aircraft control cannot be accomplished

FCOM DSC-27-20-20 P 7/8

50- If a spoiler has failed, how does the system compensate for undesirable yaw?

a- Automatic rudder trim

b- Inhibition of the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing
c- FAC commands
d- ELAC turn co-ordination commands

FCOM DSC-27-10-20 P 6/14

51- The LDG INHIBIT is available

a- From 1500 ft to 15 ft RA
b- From 800 ft to 80 kt
c- From 800 ft to 15 ft RA
d- From 1500 ft to 80 kt

FCOM DSC-31-15 P 3/6

FCOM DSC-31-15 P 4/6

52- Complete the following statement. " With the Yellow Electric Pump not switched
ON, it will operate automatically....

a- I the Yellow Engine Driven Pump fails

b- If the yellow system pressure falls below 2500 PSI
c- When the Cargo Door selector is operated
d- When a Cabin Door is opened with the slide armed

FCOM DSC-29-20 P 2/8

53-In case of electrical power failure...

a- Engine anti-ice valve opens

b- Engine anti-ice valve closes
c- Engine anti ice is lost
d- Engine anti-ice valve keeps in last position

FCOM DSC-30-30-10 P 1/2

54- What does a red UNLK light indicate on the Landing Gear indicator panel?

a- LGCIU 1 and 2 failure

b- Associated doorcis notclocked/ closed
c- Associated gear leg is in transit
d- Associated gear leg is not locked in selected position

FCOM DSC-32-10-40 P 1/6

55- What is the procedure for heavy rain after parking? Where can I find it?

a- EXTRACT AUTO , PACKS check ON. QRH

b- EXTRACT OVRD, PACKS check ON. FCOM Suplementary Procedures
c- EXTRACT OVRD, PACKS check ON. FCOM Special Operations
d- EXTRACT OVRD, PACKS check OFF. FCOM Special Operations

FCOM PRO-SUP-30 P 2/4

PRO-SUP-30 P 3/4

56- When will CPC changeover take place?

a- Automatically 70 seconds after landing or if the active CPC fails

b- Both CPC work constantly to ensure the proper control cabin pressure
c- Manually selected in the MCDU
d- 70 seconds after take-off or if the active CPC fails

FCOM DSC-21-20-30 P 1/4

57- The tail cone of the aircraft is a pressurized area

a- True
b- False

FCOM DSC-20-20 P 3/6

58- What are the Idle modes of The Full Authority Digital Engine Control ( FADEC) ?

a- Approach idle and reverse idle

b- Modulated idle, approach idle and reverse idle
c- Approach idle
d- Approach idle, reverse idle and thrust idle

FCOM DSC-70-20 P 5/8

59- With reference to the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton, which of the following is
true?

a- The system should only be selected ON in icing conditions.

b- In AUTO mode, the windows are heated only when necessary.
c- The system should only be selected ON after first engine start.
d- Window heating comes on automatically after first engine start.

FCOM DSC-30-40-10 P 1/2

60- In case of APU fire on ground, the fire extinguisher bottle will not discharge
automatically

a- True
b- False

FCOM DSC-26-20-10 P 2/2

FMS:

61- EXPEDITE CLIMB is not useful above FL-250 as the Mach Number corresponding to
Green Dot is too low to mantain a high rate of climb

a- True
b- False

FCOM PRO-NOR-SRP-01-40 P 7/10

62- Entering a PERF factor of +1.5 means that flight operations have evaluated the
aircraft fuel deviation as ?

a- 5 %
b- 15 %
c- 1,5 %
d- Its not related to the aircraft fuel deviation

FCOM DSC-22_20-40-30 P 13/18

63- Select the true statement.

a- Wind to be inserted in PERF APPR page must include gusting provided by TWR or
ATIS
b- Gusting must not be inserted in PERF APPR pages as GS mini takes care of it
c- GS mini is indicatedon PFD with magenta triangle that moves with gusting
d- The magenta triangle on PFD is the target speed, and does not move with wind

FCOM DSC-22_30-90 P 11/14

64- On the F-PLAN Page, its written between two waypoints " TOO STEEP PATH" when:

a- The distance between the two waypoints is to short

b- You are too high on the profile
c- When FM predicts that is impossible to fly at the planned descent speed with
half speedbrakes extended
d- This message doesn't exist

FCOM DSC-22_30-70-50 P 13/14

65- Can you get "DES" mode during descent if "NAV" mode is engaged?

a- Yes
b- No, its only available in "HDG" mode

FCOM DSC-22_30-10 P 4/6

66-How long does a normal IR alignment take?

a- Approximately 3 minutes
b- Approximately 6 minutes
c- Approximately 10 minutes
d-Approximately 13 minutes

FCOM DSC-22_20-20-40 P 1/2

67- The predicted data for the alternate on the FMS are computed with Cost Index
(CI)?
a- CI 0
b- CI 15
c- CI 99
d- CI 10

FCOM DSC-22_20-30-10-15 P 41/56

68- On the PERF PAGE, the selected LDG CONF (CONF 3 or FULL) determines the
applicable:

a- Vapp
b- Vls and Vapp
c- F and S speeds
d- Vls, Vapp, S, F and Green Dot

FCOM DSC-22_20-40-10 P 2/8

69- On the PERF GO AROUND page you have inserted the altitude of the ENG OUT ACC
(5R), but what happen if after going around if you have an engine-out, what can you
expect on the (FMA) passing the altitude of the engine out acceleration?

a- Aircraft start to accelerate

b- Nothing special, its for display only, as a reminder
c- "ENG OUT ACC" will flash
d- "LVR CLB" will flash

FCOM DSC-22_20-50-10-25 P 119/134

70- If a take-off is performed with no V2 entry:

a- SRS will engage

b- Aicraft will accelerate to Green Dot
c- V/S will engage and current speed becomes the target speed
d- FMS recalculate a safe speed for the current weight and configuration

FCOM PRO-NOR-SRP-01-30 P 8/10

GLASS COCKPIT:

71- Where can you see metric altitude?

a- Ewd
b-SD
c- PFD
d- ND

FCOM DSC-31-20 P 7/8

72- We press the ILS/LS pushbotton of the EIS control panel, when do the deviation
indexes of the ILS appear? NAV glass

a- Inmediately
b- Theyonly appear below 2500ft
c- When there is a valid signal of the ILS
d- Never

FCOM DSC-31-40 P 18/26

73- In the ROSE ILS mode, what information have we got in the ND?

a- The localizer and GLIDE PATH scales

B- The deviation bar and the selected course
c- The deviation bar, the selected course and the GLIDE PATH scale
d- The selected ILS course, LOC and GLIDE deviation bar, selected ILS information,
and ILS message

FCOM DSC-31-45 P 3/26

74- When the message " SET OFF SIDE RANGE/MODE" displayed on the ND:

a- IRS are not aligned

b- The FMGCs are not synchronized (independent mode)
c- ND on the side with failed FMGC is set to a different range or mode than the
other Nd
d- The display (CRT or LCD) has failed

FCOM DSC-31-45 P 24/26

74- What is the main function of the DMCs ?

a- To compute and to elaborate what is seen in the screens

b- To generate the audio alarms
c- To generate the amber warnings
d- To generatethe red warnings

FCOM DSC-31-05-30 P 1/4

75- On the E/WD, when does the LDG memo appear automatically?

a- Below 800 ft radio altitude

b- Below 2000ft radio altitude
c- With selection of FLAP2 on the approach
d- With selection of GEAR DOWN

FCOM DSC-31-15 P 5/6

76- What does the green arrow on the EWD al botton centre signify?

a- Refer to the SD for more information

b- There is more information. To acces it, Press the CLR botton
c- There is more information. To acces it, press the STS botton
d- You should press the emergency cancel botton

FCOM DSC-31-15 P 2/6

77- The Captain left EFIS has failed, so what must be done to display the PFD?

a- Push the botton on the Captain's panel ( outboard of the EFIS screen)
b- Nothing. the PFD will automatically go to the right EFIS screen
c- Using the ECAM/ND SWITCHING PANEL switch
d- Nothing. it cannot be displayed on the Captain's right EFIS

FCOM DSC-31-05-60 P 1/4

78- The analog pointer and the digital indication become amber if V/S is greater than
6000 ft/min

a- True
b- False

FCOM DSC-31-40 P 13/26

LIMITATIONS:

79- What is the minimum fuel for take-off?

a- 2000 kg
b- 1800 g
c- 1500 kg
d- 1500 kg and WG TANK LO LVL not displayed

FCOM LIM-28 P 2/4

80- What is the maximum speed for the use of windscreen wipers?

a- 200 kt
b- 250 kt
c- 230 kt
d- Green dot

FCOM LIM-13 P 5/10

81- What is the minimum speed for use of full reverse thrust?

a- 50 kt
b- 60 kt
c- 70 kt
d- 75 kt

FCOM LIM-70 P 3/4

82- What is the maximum runway slope?

a- +/- 1%
b- +1%/ -2%
c- +/- 2%
d- +2% / -1%

FCOM LIM-12 P 1/4

83- What is the limiting altitude for APU start on battery only?

a- 15000 ft
b- 20000 ft
c- 25000 ft
d- 39000 ft

FCOM LIM-49-20 P 1/4

84- Can I perform a CAT II and CAT III fail passive autoland with one engine out?

a- No
b- Yes
c- Yes, but only approved in configuration FULL, and if engine-out procedures are
completed before reaching 1 000 ft in approach.
d- Yes, but only approved in configuration 3, and if engine-out procedures are
completed before reaching 1 000 ft in approach

FCOM LIM-22-20 P 3/4

85- If one tire is deflated on one or more gears, the speed should be limited when
turning to:

a- 7 kt
b- 10 kt
c- 4 kt
d- 3 kt

FCOM LIM-32 P 1/2

86- Can the APU be started and operated when the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is
displayed?

a- No
b- Yes
c- Yes, but a maintenance action is required within next 10 hours of APU operation
d- At airline policy

FCOM LIM-49-10 P 1/2

87- Maximum fuel temperature for JET A:

a- 54C
b- 49C
c- -43C
d- 36C

FCOM LIM-28 P 2/4

88- What is the maximum EGT at FLEX THR.

a- 710 C
b- 950 C
c- 765 C
d- 690 C

FCOM LIM-70 P 1/4

ABN & EMER:

89- Initial actions in the event of a GPWS alert including PULL UP?

a- AP ON, TOGA power- Select V/S 3000 ft/ min

b- AP OFF- TOGA power- Select 17 degrees pitch-up
c- AP OFF, sidestick full back, TOGA power
d- AP OFF-.TOGA power- follow pitch demands on FD

QRH ABN/EMER 34.05A

90- Where can I find the ECAM Advisory Conditions?

a-FCOM
b- QRH
c- FCTM
d- Checklist

QRH ABN/EMER 80.15A

91- Following a TCAS " Descend, descend now" what are the initial actions?

a- Follow Flight Director commands

b- AP OFF- A/THR OFF- increase rate of descend
c- AP OFF- Both FD's OFF- set vertical speed to green area
d- AP OFF- THR LVRs idle- set vertical speed to green area

QRH ABN/EMER 34.08A

92- Unreliable speed indication procedure below thrust reduction altitude

a- AP/FD OFF, A/THR OFF, 15 TOGA, mantain current Flap configuration( unless in
Flap Full) speed brakes check retracted, L/G up
b- AP/FD OFFF, A/THR ON, 15 TOGA, mantain current Flap configuration
c- AP/FD ON, A/THR ON, 10 TOGA
d- AP/FD OFF, A/THR OFF, 10 TOGA, maintain current Flap Configuration( unless in Flap
Full) speed brakes check retracted, L/G up

QRH ABN/EMER 34.01A

93-Following a Gravity Extension which statement is true?

a- Brakes and nosewheel steering will be normal

b- Nosewheel steering will operate normally
c- Nosewheel steering will be lost
d- Nosewheel steering will be normal and anti-skid will not be available

FCOM PRO-ABN-32 P 48/68

94- What condition will result in an engine vibration advisory message?

a- Vibration N1> 10 units

b- Vibration N1> 8 units
c- Vibration N1> 2 units
d- Vibration N1> 6 units

QRH ABN/EMER 80.15B

95- Inmediate action after a stall warning at lift-off. What should I do If, after proper
corrective action, stall warning continues ?

a- Thrust TOGA, pitch attitude 15, wings level. If stall warning continues increase
pitch
b- Thrust TOGA, pitch attitude 10, wings level. If stall warning continues consider It
spurious
c- Thrust TOGA, pitch attitude 15, wings level. If stall warning continues consider it
spurious
d- Thrust TOGA, pitch attitude 15, wings level. If stall warning continues select Flap 1

QRH ABN/EMER 80.08A

96- Predictive whindshear in inhibited above 100 knots until 50 ft

a- True
b- False

97- " TERRAIN AHEAD" Master Caution during daylight and VMC

a- FLIGHT PATH ADJUST. Adjust pitch, bank and thrust to silence the alert
b- AP OFF, PITCH PULL UP, THRUST TOGA, SPEED BRAKES LEVER CHECK RETRACTED,
BANK WINGS LEVEL OR ADJUST
c- AP OFF, PITCH PULL DOWN, THRUST TOGA
d- APP OFF, PITCH PULL UP, THRUST TOGA, SPEED BRAKES LEVER CHECK RETRACTED

QRH ABN/EMER 34.06A

98- A diagonal line on a DU is usually caused

a- By intermittent Electrical Power Supply Interruptions. Consider APU start

b- By a DMC fault. Use EIS DMC SWITCHING as required
c- By Gen 1 fault.
d- After affected DU is blank or the display distorted

QRH ABN/EMER 31.01A

99- If a level off is expected during the final approach in a straight-in- approach with
one engine inoperative

a- Perform the approach and landing in CONF FULL

b- Unable to perform the approach
c- Perform the approach in CONF 3 until short final, then FLAP FULL
d- Perform the approach and landing in CONF 3

QRH ABN/EMER 80.01A

100- Which is the only situation where I should perform a two steps flap retraction
after a Go-around?

a- Overweight landing with FLAP FULL configuration

b- Never use 1+ F after a go- around
c- Overweight landing with CONF 3 configuration
d- Tailstrike

QRH ABN/EMER 80.07A