MInor Test II

IIT-JAM | Other M.Sc.
Entrance
MINOR TEST - 2
IIT-JAM - 2019
S.1-30) SECTION – A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q.1) Element found in the sediments in the ocean floor is :
a) iron b) magnesium c) gold d) iodine
Ans. (c) gold
Sol. Gold is found is sediments in ocean floor.
Correct option is (c)
Q.2) Process of heating ore in air to remove sulphur is :
a) calcination b) roasting c) smelting d) none of these
Ans. (b) roasting
Sol. Roasting is a process to remove sulfur from any ore in the form of sulfur dioxide gas.
Correct option is (b)
Q.3) Choose the correct order of ionic radius for the following species
a) Cl– > I– > Te2– > Ar+ *b) Te2– > I– > Cl– > Ar+
c) I– > Te2– > Cl– > Ar+ d) I– > Cl– > Ar+ > Te2–
Ans. (b) Te2– > I– > Cl– > Ar+
Sol. Ionic radius depends on magnitude of effective nuclear experienced by valence electron
lesser the Zeff on valence electron, larger is its ionic radii.
Zeff for Te2– < Zeff of I–, due to larger electron-proton ratio in Te2– w.r.t. I–.
Consequently size trend
Te2– > I–
We know ionic size of I– > Cl– because valence shell of iodide is 5.
Zeff of Ar+ is greater than Cl– due to smaller electron-proton ratio w.r.t. Cl–.
So radius trend
Li– > Ar+
So correct order of ionic radius is given by Te2– > I– > Cl– > Ar+
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Q.4) Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing first ionization enthalpy for Ca,
Ba, S, Se and Ar?
a) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar b) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar
c) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar d) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar
Ans. (d) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar
Sol. Metal  Non  metal  noble gas

 
down the down the
group i.e. group i.e.
decrease decrease
Ba
  Ca
   Se
 S  Ar

metal non metal Noble gas
Q.5) The electronic configuration of four elements are

(I) [Kr]5s1 (II) [Rn]5f146d17s2 (III) [Ar]3d104s24p5 (IV) [Ar]3d64s2
Consider the following statements
(i) I shows variable oxidation state (ii) II is d block element
(iii) The compound formed between 1 and III are purely covalent
(iv) IV shows single oxidation state
Which statement is true (T) or false (F)
a) FTFF b) FTFT c) FFTF d) FFFF
Ans. (d) FFFF
Sol. (i) False
[Kr]5s1 is Rb element which is a s block alkali metal. Their only unique characteristic state is +1.
(ii) False
[Rn]5f146d17s2 is a f block actinoid element.
(iii) False
[Kr]5s1 – Rb, electropositive alkali metal.
[Ar]3d104s24p5 – Br, electronegative halogen
Rb has very small ionization energy so it readily loses electron to become Rb+ and since Br is
electronegative element easily accepts the electron to become Br– to form ionic RbBr
compound.
(iv) False
[Ar]3d64s2 – Fe metal
Fe4+ is very unstable due to extremely high ionization energy.
Correct option is (d)
Q.6) The sandwich complex 5  CpCoC n H n is an 18 electron species, when ‘n’ is
a) 6 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5
Ans. (b) 4
2
Sol. [(5C5H5)Co(CnHn)] is a 18 e– species so total valence electron count in valence shell of cobalt in
given OMC is given by neutral atom method. Let electron donated by CnHn be n
5 + 9 + n = 18 (given)
14 + n = 18
n = 18 – 14
n=4
therefore, C4H4  cyclobutadiene is 4 electron donor showing heptacity equal to 4.
Q.7) In synthetic gasoline process, the catalyst used in the production of gasoline is
a) zeolite b) ZSM – 5
c) TEL (tetraethyllead) d) Al(Et)3
Ans. (b) ZSM – 5
Sol. Correct option is (b)
Q.8) The stable cyclopentadienyl complex of beryllium is
a) [Be(5 – C5H5)2] b) [Be(5 – C5H5)(3 – C5H5)]
c) [Be(1 – C5H5)(3 – C5H5)] d) [Be(1 – C5H5)(5 – C5H5)]
Ans. (d) [Be(1 – C5H5)(5 – C5H5)]
Sol. [Be(1 – C5H5)(5 – C5H5)]
As Be is 2nd period element; it can maximum accomodate 8 electron in its valence shell.
Electron in valence of Be  2e–
Electron donated by 1C5H5  1e–
Electron donated by 5C5H5  5e–
Total electron in valence of Be in this complex = 8
Q.9) The correct order of energy level of d-orbital of ferrocene is
a) d x 2  y2 , d xy  d z2  d xy , d yz b) d z2  d xz , d yz , d x 2  y2 , d xy
c) d x 2  y2 , d xy  d xz , d yz  d z2 d) d yz , d xz  d x 2  y 2 ,d xy  d z2
Ans. (a) d x 2  y2 , d xy  d z2  d xy , d yz
Sol. Correct sequence of splitting of d orbital in ferocene is
d  d xy  d d  d yz
x 2  y2 z2 x2
Correct option is (a)

Q.10) The reaction between [PdCl4]2– and C2H4 produces a new compound. Compared to free C2H4.
The C–C bond order of the product is
a) between 1 and 2 b) less than 1
c) unaltered d) greater than 2
Ans. (a) between 1 and 2
Sol. [PdCl4]2– + C2H4  [Cl3Pd(C2H4)]–
due to back bonding from metal filled d orbital to vacant * orbital of C2H4, C=C bond becomes
weaker and hence its bond order lie between 1 – 2.
3
Q.11) In metallurgical processes the flux used for removing acidic impurities is :
a) silica b) sodium chloride
c) lime stone d) sodium carbonate.
Ans. (c) lime stone
Sol. In metallurgical process limestone Aux is used for removing acidic impurities.
Q.12) Electrolytic reduction method is used in the extraction of :
a) highly electronegative elements. b) highly electropositive elements.
c) transition metals. d) noble metals.
Ans. (b) highly electropositive elements.
Sol. Electrolytic reduction method is used in extraction of highly electropositive element.
Q.13) In which of the following arrangements the order is NOT according to the property indicated
against it?
a) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– – increasing ionic size
b) B < C < N < O – increasing first ionization enthalpy
c) I < Br < F < Cl – increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)
d) Li < Na < K < Rb – increasing metallic radius
Ans. (b) B < C < N < O – increasing first ionization enthalpy
Sol. Correct first ionization enthalpy order is
B<C<O<N
Due to decreasing size and extra stable half filled electronic configuration.
Q.14) In the extraction of Cu the reaction takes place in Bessemer converter is :
a) 2Cu2O + Cu2S  6Cu + SO2 b) 2CuFeS2 + O2  Cu2S + FeS + SO2
c) 2Cu2S + 3O2  2Cu2O + 2SO2 d) 2FeS + 3O2  2FeO + 2SO2
Ans. (a) 2Cu2O + Cu2S  6Cu + SO2
Sol. Correct option is (a)
Q.15) Which among the following factors is the most important in making fluorine the strongest oxidizing
agent?
a) Electron affinity b) Ionization energy
c) Hydration enthalpy d) Bond dissociation energy
Ans. (c) Hydration enthalpy
Sol. Oxidising strength of any oxident depends on stability of formed reduced species
F  e  F
appreciable stability of F– is due to enormous hydration energy of smaller sized F .
Q.16) Van Arkel method of purification of metals involves converting the metal to :
a) volatile stable compound b) volatile unstable compound.
c) non-volatile stable compound d) none of these
4
Ans. (b) volatile unstable compound.
Sol. In Van Arkel method of purification of metals, metal is converted to volatile unstable
compound.
Q.17) The order of basic character of given oxide is
a) Na 2 O  MgO  Al 2O3  CuO b) MgO  Al2 O3  CuO  Na 2 O
c) Al2 O3  MgO  CuO  Na 2 O d) CuO  Na 2O  MgO  Al2 O3
Ans. (a) Na 2 O  MgO  Al 2O3  CuO

Sol. Basic character of oxide depends on ease with which metal lose its electron.
Na, loses its electron more readily than Mg and Al as suggested by their metallic behaviour.
Cu loses its first electron very easily to achieve d10 configuration and now it is more reluctant to
lose further electron to form CuO.
Total ionization energy of Cu2+ is greater than Al3+ and hence CuO is least basic.
Correct order of basicity is
Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 > CuO
Q.18) The decreasing order of the first ionization energy of the following elements is
a) Xe > Be > As > Al b) Xe > As > Al > Be
c) Xe > As > Be > Al d) Xe > Be > Al > As
Ans. (c) Xe > As > Be > Al
Sol. Xe – Most stable inert gas configuration is distubred due to electron lose.
As – [Ar]3d104s24p3 extra stable half filled P subshell configuration is disturbed due to electron
lose
Be – Electron is lost from full filled 2s2 which is highly costly energetic
Al – [Ne]3s23p1 last electron can be lost most easily.
So correct trend of 1st I.E.
Xe > As > Be > Al
Q.19) The structure of Tc(3 – B3H10)(CO)3 is
a) Arachno b) Nido c) Closo d) Hypho
Ans. (c) Closo
Sol. Tc(3 – B3H10)(CO)3
TVE = 7 + 3 + 2 × 3 = 16
16  12  TVE  12H 
n+x= n  x   n = number of metal ions
2  2 
4
1 x  2
2
x=1 Closo
5
Q.20) The IR stretching frequencies of free CO and of CO in V(CO)6–, Cr(CO)6 and Mn(CO)6+ are 2143 cm–1,
1860 cm–1, 2000 cm–1, 2090 cm–1 respectively. This shows that
a) C–O bond is strongest in the cation and weakest in the anion
b) C–O bond is weakest in the cation and strongest in the anion
c) C–O bond is longer in the cation than in the anion
d) M–C bonding is evident in the cation.
Ans. (a) C–O bond is strongest in the cation and weakest in the anion
Sol. Stretching frequency of any bond is measure of its strength.
C – O structure
+
[Mn(CO)6] 2090 cm–1
[V(CO)6]– 1860 cm–1
suggests C–O bond is stronger in cation [Mn(CO)6]+ and weakest in anion [V(CO)6]–
Q.21) What is the product formed in the given reaction
H H
C=C  ?
+ Metal – H 
H H
H2C – CH2
a) CH3 – CH2 – Metal b)
Metal
CH = CH
c) d) None of these
Metal
Ans. (a) CH3 – CH2 – Metal
H H H H
Sol. +M–H  H H
H H M H
Alkene insertion in M–H bond.
Q.22) Arrange the following in increasing order of C-O stretching frequency
(i) CO (ii) (NH3)5M(CO) (iii) CO+ (iv) (PH3)5M(CO) (v) (PF3)5MCO
a) i > iii > ii > iv > v b) ii > i > v > iv > iii
c) iii > i > v > iv > ii d) ii > v > i > v > iii
Ans. (c) iii > i > v > iv > ii
Sol. Copnsider first the three M–CO complex.
C–O structure frequency depends on extent of  back bonding from metal to carbonyl.
NH3 is only  donor so in (NH3)5M(CO).
M CO  back bonding is maximum and hence C–O structure frequency is least in this
complex.
PF3 and PH3 both are  acceptor
6
PF3 is stronger  acceptor than PH3
So in M(PF3)5CO
M  CO  back bonding is weaker than (PH3)5MCO complex and hence C–O structure
frequency in (PF3)5MCO is greater than (PH3)5MCO.
Among complexes, C–O has the order (PF3)5MCO > (PH3)5MCO > (NH3)5MCO.
Now consider CO and CO+.
We know  CO    CO ass
bond order of CO+ is > 3 while that of free CO is = 3.
So correct sequence of  CO is
(iii) > (i) > (v) > (iv) > (ii)
Q.23) Among following, Nido structure is
(A) [Ni5(CO)12]2– (B) Os6(CO)17[P(OMe)3]3 (C) [Ru5N(CO)14]–
a) B and C b) A and C c) A and B d) A, B and C
Ans. (a) B and C
Sol. (A) [Ni5(CO)12]2–
TVE = 10 × 5 + 12 × 2 + 2
= 50 + 24 + 2 = 76
TVE  12H
n+x=
2
76  12  5 76  60
5+x= 
2 2
16
5+x= 8
2
x=3 Archano
(B) Os6(CO)17[P(OMe)3]3
TVE = 8 × 6 + 17 × 2 + 2 × 3
= 48 + 34 + 6
= 88
88  12  6 88  72
6x  
2 2
16
6+x= 8
2
x=2 Nido
(C) [Ru5N(CO)14]–
TVE = 5 × 8 + 5 × 2 × 14 + 1
= 40 + 5 + 28 + 1
= 74
7
74  12  5 74  60 14
5+x=   7
2 2 2
x=2 Nido
Q.24) If the complex follow 16 e– Rule, N–O bond length in [Ru(PPh3)2(NO)2Cl]+ is of
a) same length (116 pm & 116 pm)
b) different length (120 pm & 106 pm)
c) almost same length (117 pm & 116.2 pm)
d) different length (117 pm & 125 pm)
Ans. (c) almost same length (117 pm & 116.2 pm)
Sol. First we find mode of linkage of NO mean whether NO is linked as NO+ or NO–. Which is done
by neutral atom method as given [Ru(PPh3)2(NO)2Cl]+ complex follows 16 electron rule.
8 + 4 + x + y + 1 – 1 = 16
12 + x + y = 16
x+y=4
Possible combination of values of x, y is
x=1 y=3
So out of 2 NO: 1 NO is 1 electron donor other NO is 3 electron donor
 above complex can be written as [Ru(PPh3)2(NO+)(NO–)Cl]+
NO+  3 electron donor
NO–  1 electron donor
N–O bond length in NO+ is smaller then N–O bond length in NO– due to presence of electrons in
* ABMO in the latter.
N–O bond strength in NO+ > NO– but remember in M complexes NO, NO+ donates electron pair
from bonding 2pz which decreases N–O bond length whereas NO– donates from * ABMO
which increase N–O bond length, consequently N–O bond length for both NO+, NO– becomes
almost same.
Q.25) For a reaction, trans[IrCl(CO)(PPh3)2] + Cl2  trans[IrCl3(CO)(PPh3)2] the correct observation
a) CO (product) > CO(reactant) b) CO (product) < CO (reactant)
c) CO (product) = CO (reactant) d) CO(product) = CO (free CO)
Ans. (b)  CO (product) <  CO (reactant)
Cl
Ph3P Cl Ph3P Cl
Ir Ir
Sol. Ph3P C Cl 2

 Ph P
3 C
O Cl O
In case of product, 3 -donor ligands are attached which increases more electron density on the
metal centre hence more back bonding and less stretching frequency.
Q.26) The process of removing lighter gangue particles by washing in a current of water is called:
a) levigation b) liquation c) leaching d) cupellation
Ans. (a) levigation
8
Sol. Levigation is process of removing lighter gangue particle by washing in current of water.
Q.27) If each orbital can hold a maximum of three electrons, the number of elements in 9th period of
periodic table (long form) are
a) 48 b) 162 c) 50 d) 75
Ans. (d) 75
Sol. No. of element = (no. of electron in an orbital) × no. of orbital
2
 n 1
=3×  
 2 
2
 9 1 2
 3    3  5  75
 2 
Q.28) Electron addition would be easier in :
a) S b) S+ c) S– d) S2+
Ans. (d) S2+
Sol. S2+ due to higher electronegativity among other species.
Q.29) Consider the following statements.
S1 : Fluorine does not form any polyhalide as it has low F – F bond energy.
S2 : The chlorine has the most negative electron gain enthalpy.
S3 : The first ionization potential of N and O atoms are 14.6 and 13.6 eV respectively.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
a) S1 , S2 and S3 b) S1 and S2 c) S1 and S3 d) S2 and S3
Ans. (d) S2 and S3
Sol. Statement S2 and S3 are correct
Q.30) An ore after levigation is found to have basic impurities. Which of the following can be used as
flux during smelting?
a) H2SO4 b) CaCO3 c) SiO2 d) Both CaO and SiO2
Ans. (c) SiO2
Sol. To remove basic impurities SiO2 is used as a flux during smelting process.
S.31-40) Section-B
Q.31) Select the correct statement :
a) Dolomite contains both magnesium and calcium.
b) Extraction of lead from galena involves roasting in limited supply of air at moderate temperature
followed by self reduction at higher temperature (to melt the charge).
c) Extraction of zinc from zinc blende involves roasting followed by reduction with carbon.
d) The chemical composition of ‘slag’ formed during the extraction of iron and copper is FeSiO3.
Ans. A,B and C
9
Sol. Correct options are (a), (b) and (c)
Q.32) The smelting of iron in a blast furnace involves the following processes :
a) combustion b) reduction c) slag formation d) fusion
Ans. A, B, C and D
Sol. Smelting of iron in blast furnace involve all given processes combustion, reduction, fusion and
slag formation.
Q.33) What is the relation between the I.E. of A and electron gain enthalpy of A? (compare only
magnitude)
a) IE A(g)  eg HA(g) b) IE A(g)  eg HA(g)
c) IE A(g)  eg HA(g) d) Can’t predict

Ans. B only
Sol. A  (g)  A(g)  e  eg H
A(g)  A  (g)  e  IE A(g)

It is more easier to remove electron from A–(g) w.r.t. A(g).
 Magnitude of IEA(g) is greater than egH.
Q.34) Select the correct order regarding  CO value of carbonyl complexess
a) Ni(CO) 4  [Fe(CO) 4 ]2  [Co(CO) 4 ]
b) [Cr(CO) 6 ]  CO  [V(CO) 6 ]  [Ti(CO)6 ]2
c) CO  [Cr(CO) 6 ]  [V(CO) 6 ]  [Ti(CO)6 ]2
d) Ni(CO) 4  Ni(CO)3[P(OMe)3 ]  Ni(CO)2 [P(OMe)3 ]2

Ans. C and D
Sol. Extent of  back bonding from metal to carbonyl dictates C–O bond strength and depend on
availability of electron density on metal.
Larger the electron density present on metal (lowe oxidation state) better will be MCO
 back bonding and weaker will be C–O bond.
So correct sequence of C–O bond strength.
(c) CO  [Cr(CO) 6 ]  [V(CO) 6 ]  [Ti(CO)6 ]2
(d) CO is better a stronger  acceptor compared to P(OMe)3 and hence MCO  back bonding
is least in Ni(CO)4 therefore its C–O bond strength is maximum among other.
Ni(CO) 4  Ni(CO)3 [P(OMe)3 ]  Ni(CO)2 [P(OMe)3 ]2
Correct options are (c) and (d).
Q.35) Choose the 18e– complex from the following
a) Ni(CO)4 b) Fe(CO)5 c) Rh(PPh3)3Cl d) (6 – C6H6)2Cr
Ans. A,B and D
Sol. (a) Valence electron count calculation is done using neutral atom method.
10
Ni(CO)4 2e– is donated by neutral CO
= 10 + 4 × 2
= 18 e–
(b) Fe(CO)5
=8+2×5
= 18 e–
(c) Rh(PPh3)3Cl
=9+3×2+1
= 16 e–
(d) Cr(6C6H6)2
=6+6×2
= 18 e–
(c) Rh(PPh3)3Cl
=9+3×2+1
= 16 e–
(d) Cr(h6C6H6)2
=6+6×2
= 18 e–
Correct options are (a), (b) and (d)
Q.36) (A) [Cp 2 Zr(CO)(Cl)] (B) [Cp 2 Zr(CO)2 ]
Which of the following statements is/are correct
a) the back  -bonding is more in B than in A
b)  CO of B is greater than that of A
c)  CO of A is greater than that of B
d)  M C of B is greater than that of A

Ans. A, C and D
4 2
Sol. (A) [Cp2 Zr(CO)Cl] (B) [Cp 2 Zr(CO)2 ]
1
efficiency of  back bonding  oxidation state of Zr
due to greater availability of electron density on Zr in complex B compared to A.
  backbonding in B is better than A.
 C–O bond in A is stronger than that in B and hence
( CO )A  (CO )B
Greater  backbonding, stronge M–C bond.
( M  C ) B  ( M  C ) A
Correct options are (a), (c), (d)
11
Q.37) Ferrocene can undergo
a) Friedel-Crafts acylation b) Diels-Alder reaction
c) Oxidation by Ag+ ion d) electrophilic substitutions
Ans. A, C and D
Sol. Ferrocene does not undergo diels alder reaction
Correct options are (a), (c) and (d)
Q.38) Select the correct order (s).
a) IE1 of F > IE1 of Cl b) E A of O > E A of S
+
c) Ionic radius of Cl¯ > Ionic radius of K d) None of these
Ans. A and C
Sol. First ionization energy of fluorine is very large compared to chlorine due to greater
electronegativity of F.
Zeff of K+ is greater than Cl– due to more number of protons than electron in k+ while in Cl– there
are more electrons than protons and hence ionic radius of Cl– > k+.
Correct options are (a) and (c)
Q.39) In which of the following extration no reducing agent is required?
a) Iron from haematite b) Aluminium from bauxite.
c) Magnesium from carnallite d) Zinc from zinc blende.
Ans. B and C
Sol. Correct options are (b) and (c)
Q.40) The incorrect statement among the following is:
a) the first ionisation potential of Al is less than the first ionisation potential of Mg
b) the second ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the second ionisation potential of Na
c) the first ionisation potential of Na is less than the first ionisation potential of Mg
d) the third ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the third ionisation potential of Al
Ans. A,C and D
Sol. Elements I1 I2 I3
Na 495 4560
Mg 735 1445 7730
Al 580 1815 2740
Correct options are (a), (c) and (d)
S.41-60) Section - C
Q.41) The number of metal-metal bonds in the following complex is/are________
Ir4(CO)12
Ans. 6
18n  VEC
Sol. No. of metal-metal bond =
2
Ir4(CO)12
TVE = 9 × 4 + 12 × 2
= 36 + 24 = 60
12
18  4  60 72  60 12
No. of M-M bond = =  6
2 2 2
Q.42) The total valence electron in the following complex is ________
Ta C
Cl PMe3
Ans. 16
Sol. Ta C
Cl PMe3
Cp Ta C
  
TVE  5  5  3  1  2  16
Q.43) Sum of number of unpaired electron in Mg2+, Ti3+, V+3, Fe+2, P3–, Al3+, S2–
Ans. 7
Sol. Ion No. of unpaired electrons
2+
Mg 0
Ti3+ 1
3+
V 2
Fe2+ 4
3–
P 0
Al3+ 0
2–
S 0
Sum of unpaired electron 7
Q.44) The sum of hapticities ‘x’ and ‘y’ of the arene moieties in the diamagnetic complex [(x –
C6H6)Ru(y-C6H6)] is
Ans. 10
Sol. As given diamagnetic [(xC6H6)Ru(yC6H6)].
Complex is a 18 electron species so it must have following structure
6
Ru
4
[Ru(6C6H6)(4C6H6)]
13
x=6
y=4 so x + y = 6 + 4 = 10
Q.45) The lowest electronegativity of the element from the following atomic number is.
Ans. 55
Sol. Cesium, Cs has lowest electronegativity element in periodic table with atomic number 55.
Q.46) Two elements A & B are such that B. E. of A–A, B–B & A–B are respectively 81 Kcal / mole, 64
Kcal / mole, 76 Kcal / mole & if electronegativity of B is 2.4 then the electronegativity of A may
be approximately, if xB > xA
(Write answer upto 2 decimal place)
Ans. 1.90 to 2.10
Sol. | x B  x A |  0.208 E A  B  E A A  E BB
= 0.208 76  81 64
 0.208 76  72
 0.208 4
| 2.4  x A | 0.208  2  0.416
2.4  x A  0.416
2.4 – 0.416 = xA
xA = 1.984
Q.47) The number of terminal carbonyl groups present in Fe2(CO)9 is
Ans. 6
O
C
OC O CO
OC Fe C Fe CO
Sol. OC CO
C
O
Answer is 6
Q.48) How many statements are correct ?
(i) Cuprite and Zincite are oxide ores.
(ii) Magnesite and carnallite are carbonate ores.
(iii) Chalcocite and azurite are ores of copper.
(iv) Feldspar and albite minerals contain aluminium.
Ans. 3
Sol. Chemical Formula
Cuprite Cu2O
Zincite ZnO
Magnesile MgCO3
14
Carnallite kMgCl6H2O
Chalcocite Cu2S
azurite Cu3(CO3)2(OH)2
Feldspar Silicate of aluminimum
albite Silicate of aluminium
(i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Q.49) How many ores contain both iron & copper
Cuprite, Chalcocite, Chalcopyrite, Malachite, Copper Glance, Copper pyrite
Ans. 2
Sol. Principle ore of copper is chalcopyrite which is also known as copper pyrite. Its chemical
formula is CuFeS2
Correct answer is (2)
Q.50) What is the oxidation number of lead in litharge?
Ans. 2
Sol. Litharage is PbO in which Pb is in +2 oxidation state.
Q.51) What is the group number of the element having electronic configuration [Xe] 4F14 5S2|
Ans. 3
Sol. It is a f-block element hence group no. is 3 for f block.
Q.52) Dow’s process of extraction of Mg involves extraction of Mg from sea water.
In the hydrated chloride of magnesium, MgCl2.xH2O, the value of x is :
Ans. 6
Sol. Extraction of magnesium from sea water is done using Dow’s process.
The hydrated chloride of magnesium exist as MgCl2 . 6H2O
So Answer is 6
Q.53) At what approximate temperature (in ºC), zinc and carbon have equal affinity for oxygen.
Ans. 1000
Sol. At about 1000ºC, lines cross and thus at this temperature zinc and carbon have equal affinity
for oxygen.
15
Q.54) Following method of extracting Zn is based on thermodynamics:
(A) 2ZnS + 3O2  2ZnO + 2SO2
(B) ZnO + C  Zn + CO O
G f (standard free energies of formation, in kJ mol–1) of
º
ZnS = – 205.4; ZnO = – 318.2

SO2 = – 300.4; CO = – 137.3
Calculate free energy changes of the reactions
Ans. –637.5 kJ/mol
Sol. Net Reaction
2ZnS + 3O2 + C  ZnO + 2SO2 + Zn + CO
Free energy of formation product – Free energy of formation of reactant.
= (–318.2) + 2(–300.4) – 2(–205.4)
= –318.2 – 600.8 – 137.3 + 410.8
= –1237 – 2 + 410.8
= –637.5 kJ/mol
Q.55) In a cycloctateraene metal complex, the metal is coordinated to all the carbon atoms covered
by two conjugated double bonds in the ring. The heptacity of the ligand is
Ans. 4
two conjugated
double bond
Sol.
Cyclo octatetraene
Two double bonds are coordinated to metal through four (4) carbon atoms.
Answer is (4)
Q.56) Number of metal-metal bond in [Re2Cl4(PPhMe2)4] is
Ans. 3
Cl Cl
Me2PhP PPhMe2
Sol. Re Re
Me2PhP PPhMe2
Cl Cl
VEC  7 × 2 + 1 × 4 + 2 × 4
= 14 + 4 + 8 = 26
16n  VEC
No. of M-M bond =
2
16  2  26
=
2
32  26
=
2
6
 3
2
16
Q.57) Among the following pair,
(A) Mn(CO)5, CH3 (B) Fe(CO)4, O (C) Co(CO)3, R2Si
(D) Mn(CO)5, RS (E) Mn(CO)4, CH (F) Co(CO)4, CH3
The number of isolobal pairs are______
Ans. 5
Sol. Pairs of covalent and organometallic compound which have equal deficit of valence electrons
to acheive nearst stable noble gas configuration.
Organometallic complex follow 18 e– rule whereas covalent compound follow octet rule.
Complex VEC Deficit from 18e–/octet
(A) Mn(CO)5 17 1
Covalent compound/atom
CH3 7 1 so isolobal
(B) Fe(CO)4 16 2
O 6 2 isolobal
(C) Co(CO)3 15 3
R2Si 6 2 Not isolobal
(D) Mn(CO)5 17 1
RS 7 1 isolobal
(E) Mn(CO)4 15 3
CH 5 3 isolobal
(F) Co(CO)4 17 1
CH3 7 1 isolobal
There are five isolobal pair
Answer is (5).
Q.58) The Zeff on the last electron of Zr3+ ion is ______
Ans. 4
Sol. [Kr]4d25s2
Zr  1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d25s2
Zr3+  1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d15s0
 = 0 × 0.85 + 36 × 1
Zeff = 40 – 36 = 4
Q.59) Number of statements that are true?
(i) All complex following 18 e– rule is stable
(ii) All metalocene are diamagnetic.
(iii) Ferrocene is orange coloured solid.
(iv) Complexes having VSE count less than 18 are strong reducing agents
Ans. 2
Sol. Statement (i) and (ii) are true.
17
Q.60) The electron affinity of chlorine is +37 eV. How much energy in kJ is released when 3.55 g of
chlorine is converted completely into Cl– ion in the gaseous state. (1eV = 96.45 kJ/mol)
Ans. 356.5 to 357.5
Sol. Cl  e  Cl  37 eV/mol
Calculating number of moles of Clin 3.55 g
3.55g
n
35.5g / mol
n = 10–1 mole.
Amount of energy required to convert 10–1 mole of Cl to Cl– ion.
= 37 × 10–1 eV
= 3.7 eV
Energy (kJ) = 3.7 × 96.45 kJ
= 356.8 kJ
18

MInor Test II

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IIT-JAM | Other M.Sc.

Sol. Metal  Non  metal  noble gas

Q.5) The electronic configuration of four elements are

Correct option is (a)

c) Al2 O3  MgO  CuO  Na 2 O d) CuO  Na 2O  MgO  Al2 O3

Ans. (a) Na 2 O  MgO  Al 2O3  CuO

a) IE A(g)  eg HA(g) b) IE A(g)  eg HA(g)

c) IE A(g)  eg HA(g) d) Can’t predict

A(g)  A  (g)  e  IE A(g)

a) Ni(CO) 4  [Fe(CO) 4 ]2  [Co(CO) 4 ]

b) [Cr(CO) 6 ]  CO  [V(CO) 6 ]  [Ti(CO)6 ]2

c) CO  [Cr(CO) 6 ]  [V(CO) 6 ]  [Ti(CO)6 ]2

d) Ni(CO) 4  Ni(CO)3[P(OMe)3 ]  Ni(CO)2 [P(OMe)3 ]2

c)  CO of A is greater than that of B

d)  M C of B is greater than that of A

Sol. | x B  x A |  0.208 E A  B  E A A  E BB

ZnS = – 205.4; ZnO = – 318.2

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