1.

Homeostasis

a) refers to the steady control of a physiological setpoint.

b) refers to maintaining a stable internal environment.

c) refers to maintaining a stable external environment.

d) A and B.

Answer: d

2. Which of the following best describes the human body's defense mechanism against
environmental bacteria?

a) hair in the nose

b) mucous membranes
c) osteoblasts
d) saliva
Answer: b

3. Cell membrane is ___________

a) Semi permeable
b) Permeable
c) Selectively permeable
d) Impermeable

Answer: a
Explanation: Cell membrane is also known as plasma membrane. It is semi permeable membrane
surrounding the cytoplasm of a cell.

4. The animal cells are interconnected by _________

a) Cell wall
b) Desmosomes
c) Plasma membrane
d) Plasmodesmata

Answer: b
Explanation: Desmosomes are structure by which adjacent cells are attached, formed from
protein plagues in cell membranes linked by filaments.
5. What part of the cell’s subunit is responsible for disposal of waste, maintaining its
shape/integrity, and replicating itself?

a) Plasma membrane

b) Golgi apparatus

c) Nucleus

d) Mitochondria

Answer: a

6. which of the following components form cytoskeleton?

a) microfilaments
b) microtubules
c)intermediate filaments
d) all the above

Answer: d

7. Organelle that is involved in protein synthesis

a) Mitochondria
b) Golgi apparatus
c) rough endoplasmic reticulum
d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: c

8. Organelle involved in the Synthesis of fats and steroid hormones

a) Mitochondria
b) Golgi apparatus
c) rough endoplasmic reticulum
d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Ans: d

9. Formation of parts of ribosomes from proteins and rRNA occurs at

a) nucleolus
b) microtubules
c)intermediate filaments
d) Golgi apparatus
Answer: a
10. Peroxisomes are involved in
a) lipid metabolism
b) fatty acid oxidation and detoxification
c) formation of O2 and H2O from H2O2
d) all the above

11. Organelles involved in digestion and removal of waste products, cell debris, microbes in cell

a) Ribosomes
b) nucleus
c) Golgi apparatus
d) lysosomes

12. Protein synthesis done in

a) Ribosomes
b) nucleus
c) Golgi apparatus
d) lysosomes
Answer: a

13. Organelle which is involved in packing of proteins, transportation of lipids and synthesis of
lysosomes, that will be distributed throughout the cell?

a) Mitochondria

b) Plastids

c) Golgi apparatus

d) Vacuole

Answer: c

14. The site where most of the ATP is generated in a cell is the

a) nucleus.

b) endoplasmic reticulum.

c) Golgi apparatus.

d) mitochondria.
Answer: d
15. Detoxification of lipid drugs and other harmful compounds in ER is carried out by?
a) Cytochrome P450
b) Cytochrome bf
c) Cytochrome D
d) Cytochrome F

Answer: a
Explanation: Cytochrome P450 enzymes function to metabolize potentially toxic compounds.
There are 57 human genes coding for various cytochrome450.

16. The term “metabolism”

a) refers to all the chemical reactions that occur in the body.

b) includes the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecules.

c) includes the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler molecules.

d) includes anabolism and catabolism

Answer: d
Explanation: Active transport is the movement of ions or molecules across a cell membrane into
a region of higher concentration assisted by enzymes and requiring energy. Sodium and
potassium pumps are examples of Active transport.

17. Sodium and potassium pumps are examples of __________

a) Passive transport
b) Plasmolysis
c) Active transport
d) Osmosis

Answer: c
Explanation: Active transport is the movement of ions or molecules across a cell membrane into
a region of higher concentration assisted by enzymes and requiring energy. Sodium and
potassium pumps are examples of Active transport.

18. Name the process in which the passage of water goes from a region of higher concentration
to a region of lower concentration through a semi permeable membrane?

a) Diffusion
b) Osmosis

c) Both a) and b)

d) Neither a) nor b)

Answer: b

19. Diffusion

a) depends upon the random motion of molecules.

b) results in net movement of molecules from regions of low concentration to regions of

high concentration.

c) is important for moving molecules over large distances in the body.

d) A and B.

Answer: d

20. Which of the following does not have a membrane?

a) Ribosome
b) Mitochondria
c) Nucleus
d) Chloroplast

Answer: a
Explanation: Ribosome are the protein builders or the protein synthesizer of the cell. They
consist of two major components: the small subunit and the large subunit.

21. Digestive enzymes are present in __________

a) Liposomes
b) Lysosomes
c) Ribosome
d) Mitochondria

Answer: b

22. There is no nucleus in ______________

a) An enucleated ovum
b) Mature RBC
c) Hair root
d) Mature spermatozoa

Answer: b
Explanation: Mature RBC is flexible and oval biconcave discs. They lack a nucleus and most
organelles in order to accommodate maximum space for hemoglobin.

23. Name the process in which the membrane of a vesicle can fuse with the plasma membrane
and extrude its contents to the surrounding medium?

a) Exocytosis

b) Endocytosis

c) Osmosis

d) Diffusion

Answer. a

24. Name the process in which the ingestion of material by the cells is done through the plasma
membrane?
a) Digestion

b) Diffusion

c) Osmosis

d) Endocytosis

Answer. d

25. Cell drinking is ____________

a) Exocytosis
b) Endocytosis
c) Pinocytosis
d) Phagocytosis

Answer: c
Explanation: Cell drinking is Pinocytosis. It is ingestion of liquid into cell by the budding of
small vesicles from the cell membrane.
26. Cell eating is

a) Exocytosis
b) Endocytosis
c) Pinocytosis
d) Phagocytosis

Answer: d

Explanation: ingestion and digestion of dead cells, cell debris, microorganisms, Ag-Ab
complexes by digestive enzyme lysozyme and strong oxidants by cell by the budding of small
vesicles from the cell membrane is called as pseudopodia.

27. Centrioles or centrosomes take part in the formation of ___________

a) Cell plate
b) Spindle
c) Nucleus
d) To start cell division

Answer: b
Explanation: Centrioles are a cylindrical structure composed of tubulin. Centrioles take part in
the formation of Spindle.

28. Centromere is required for _________

a) Transcription
b) Crossing over
c) Movement of chromosomes towards opposite poles
d) Cleavage

Answer: c
Explanation: Centromere is a special region of chromosome. It helps in movement of
chromosomes towards opposite poles.

29. Resting phase of the cell, where it undergoes growth and DNA replication is
called_________
a) Mitosis phase
b) G1 phase
c) Interphase
d) M phase
Answer: c

Explanation: Interphase is also known as resting phase, time in the cell cycle where a cell is
preparing for division by undergoing the cell growth. Interphase is further divided into three
stages.

30. Which of the following is not the part of Interphase in the cell cycle?
a) S phase
b) G1 phase
c) G2 phase
d) M phase

Answer: d
Explanation: Interphase is the period before division while M phase is mitosis phase where
actual division takes place. G1, S, and G2 phase are the part of Interphase.

31. Name the state where never dividing cells of neurons and skeletal muscle present?
a) G0
b) G1
c) G2
d) M

Answer: a
Explanation: G0 is the state where cell division never occurs; cells can remain in this state for
days, weeks, and even a year. It is terminally differentiated state and most of the cell in our body
like neurons and skeletal muscle cells are in G0 state.

32. Name the process of nuclear division?

a) Ubiquitylation
b) Polymerization
c) Karyokinesis
d) Cytokinesis

Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear division is the formation of two daughter nuclei and this process known as
karyokinesis. M phase starts with the nuclear division followed by a division of cytoplasm
(cytokinesis).
33. Name the type of cell division in which daughter cells receive an exact copy of chromosomes
from parent cell?
a) Mitosis
b) Cleavage
c) Interphase
d) Meiosis

Answer: a
Explanation: Basically eukaryotes have two types of cell division, mitosis, and meiosis. Meiosis
is reductional division while mitosis is equational division and the number of chromosomes in
parent and daughter cells remain same.

34. Which of the following signal molecule is NOT used for extracellular signaling?
a) Autocrine
b) Endocrine
c) Paracrine
Ans d) Cyclic AMP

Answer: d
Explanation: Extracellular signaling in animals is carried out by four categories of signal
molecules endocrine, paracrine, autocrine, and juxtacrine signaling. Cyclic AMP is a secondary
messenger used for intracellular signaling.

35. Which of the following is a microtubule organizing center?

a) Centrosome
b) Kinetochore
c) G2 phase
d) Centrioles

Answer: a
Explanation: Microtubule organizing center (MTOC) is centrosome, present outside the nuclear
membrane. It regulates the cycle of cell division as well as microtubule formation.

36. In which of the following phase, sister chromatids move towards opposite poles?
a) Telophase
b) Anaphase
c) Prophase
d) Metaphase
Answer: b
Explanation: The sister chromatids are attached to the kinetochore tubule at the metaphase state
and start moving towards the opposite poles at anaphase stage. At anaphase, the sister chromatids
split apart and move to opposite poles of the spindle.

.37. Blood helps in transportation of the following components, except one, identify that?
a) Hormone
b) Oxygen
c) Heat
d) Lymph
Answer: c
Explanation: Lymph has its own capillaries for transportation, it does not transport through the
blood. Blood carries oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, waste, heat, and hormones.

38. What is a serum in the blood?

a) Liquid portion of blood
b) Plasma minus fibrinogen
c) Tissue fluid within lymphatic vessel
d) Formed elements and plasma

Answer: b
Explanation: Serum is plasma minus fibrinogen while plasma is the liquid portion of the blood.
Lymph is the tissue fluid within the lymphatic vessels.

39. What is the site of hemopoiesis in an embryo?

a) Yolk sac
b) Liver
c) Thymus
d) Spleen

Answer: a
Explanation: Hemopoiesis first start in the yolk sac of an embryo and later in the liver, spleen,
thymus, and lymph nodes of the fetus.

40. Name the term given to abnormally low levels of white blood cells?
a) Leukocytosis
b) Leucopenia
c) Lymphocyte
d) Thrombopoietin

Answer: b
Explanation: Leucopenia is a condition when the count of white blood cells goes below
5000/microliter while leukocytosis is an increase in the number of WBC above 10,000/
microliters.
41. Name the term given to the failure of bone marrow to produce RBC.
a) Aplastic anemia
b) Hemolytic anemia
c) Thalassemia
d) Hemorrhagic anemia

Answer: a
Explanation: Aplastic anemia is the condition when bone marrow failed to produce RBC or red
bone marrow gets destructed by any toxic chemicals or radiations.

42. Name the term which defines the amount of RBC present in the blood?
a) Hemoglobin
b) Hemopoiesis
c) Hematocrit
d) Myoglobin

Answer: c
Explanation: Hematocrit is the percentage of the RBC present in the blood, like if the value of
hematocrit is 40 percent, then the volume of blood is 40% occupied by RBC.

43. Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein?

a) Albumin
b) Globulin
c) Fibrinogen
d) Fibronectin

Answer: d
Explanation: Fibronectin is not a plasma protein, but it is an extracellular matrix protein which
helps in binding collagen and fibrin. Albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen are plasma proteins.
44. Out of the following, which one is NOT the physical characteristics of the blood?
a) Volume is 15-16 liters in an average sized adult male
b) Slightly alkaline pH
c) Constitute 20% of extracellular fluid
d) Provide 8% of total body mass

Answer: a
Explanation: Total 5-6 liters of blood is present in an average adult sized male, while a human
female contains 4-5 liters of blood.

45. Name the signaling which requires physical contacts between the cells involved.
a) Paracrine signaling
b) Intracellular signaling
c) Autocrine signaling
d) Juxtacrine signaling

Answer: d
Explanation: Juxtracrine signaling is different from another signaling as it requires physical
contact between the cells, these signals neither travel to distant target nor act on the same cell.

46. Group of cells, which is similar in structure and function are structured into___________
a) Organ system
b) Muscles
c) Bone
d) Tissues

Answer: d

47. Name the tissues that are involved in the formation of membranes.
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Nervous tissue
c) Muscular tissue
d) Connective tissue

Answer: a
Explanation: Epithelial tissues form a membrane which is used to cover and line the surface of
glands and the body.
48. What is the name of the tissues which helps in protection and support of the body?
a) Muscular tissue
b) Nervous tissue
c) Connective tissue
d) Epithelial tissue

Answer: c
Explanation: Basic function of connective tissues is the protection of the body. There are various
types of connective tissues which bind organ together, provide immunity to a pathogenic
organism and store energy reserves as fat.

49. Name the tissues which detect changes inside and outside the body and respond by action
potential?
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Connective tissue
c) Muscular tissue
d) Nervous tissue

Answer: d
Explanation: Nervous tissue helps in maintaining homeostasis by detecting changes inside and
outside the body and providing response in the form of nerve impulse or action potential.

50. Which of the following tissues helps in the movement of body structure?
a) Nervous tissue
b) Muscular tissue
c) Epithelial tissue
d) Connective tissue

Answer: b
Explanation: Movement in body structure is supported by the muscular tissues. Muscular tissues
form during embryonic development of the process of myogenesis.

51. Name the epithelium which consists of two or more than two layers of cells that protect the
core tissues?
a) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
b) Simple columnar epithelium
c) Stratified epithelium
d) Simple cuboidal epithelium
Answer: c
Explanation: Stratified epithelium consists of more than two layers of the cells. It protects the
underlying tissues at the location where it occurs.

52. Most abundant and widely distributed tissues of the body is___________
a) Organ system
b) Muscular tissue
c) Nervous tissue
d) Connective tissue

Answer:d
Explanation: Connective tissues are composed of two basic elements, i.e., cells and extracellular
matrix. These tissues are widely distributed in the body.

53. Which of the following does not come under the category of loose connective tissue?
a) Elastic connective tissue
b) Adipose tissue
c) Areolar tissue
d) Reticular connective tissue

Answer:a
Explanation: Elastic connective tissue falls under the category of dense connective tissue while
areolar, reticular, and adipose tissues are loose connective tissues.

54. System of the body which coordinates and controls its activity is known as ___________
a) Organ system
b) Muscular system
c) Nervous tissue
d) Nervous system

Answer: d
Explanation: Nervous system is the one which is responsible for all the activities of the body. It
coordinates and controls the activities of the animal.

55. Name the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system.
a) Neuroglia
b) Glial cells
c) Neurons
d) Perikaryon

Answer: c
Explanation: Nervous system has been composed of two types of cells, i.e., neurons and
neuroglia. Neurons are the basic functional and structural unit of the nervous system.
56. Which of the following cells supports, nourishes, and protect the neurons?
a) Nissl bodies
b) Perikaryon
c) Ganglia
d) Glial cells

Answer: d
Explanation: Glial cells (glia = glue) are also called neuroglia, these cells support, nourishes, and
protect the neurons while ganglia are the cluster of cell bodies which found in the PNS.

57. What is the speed of nerve impulse?

a) 60 m/s
b) 0.5 – 130 m/s
c) 10-30 m/s
d) 50 -150 m/s

Answer: b
Explanation: Nerve impulse or action potential is the electrical signals which travel through the
membrane of the neurons. The speed of these signals ranges from 0.5 to 130 m/s.

58. What are Nissl bodies?

a) Golgi bodies
b) Lysosomes
c) Cluster of rough endoplasmic reticulum
d) Mitochondria

Answer: c
Explanation: Neurons are made up of three parts, i.e., cell body, dendrites, and axon. The cell
body consists of ribosomes and a cluster of endoplasmic reticulum, which is known as Nissl
bodies.

59. How many bones do es an adult human skeleton have?

a) 206
b) 209
c) 207
d) 20

Answer: a
60.Name the four classes of bones?
a) Long, short, regular, irregular
b) Big, small, flat, bulged
c) Long, Short, Flat, and Irregular
d) Big, small, regular, irregular

Answer: c

61. Name the two kinds of tissues present in the bone?

a) Cancellous tissue and non-compact tissue.
b) Compact tissue and non-compact tissue
c) Compact tissue and cancellous tissue
d) Non compact tissue and cancellous tissue

Answer: c
62. Which of the following connective tissue envelopes the bone?
a) Periosteum
b) Pericardium
c) Myocardium
d) bone Marrow

Answer: a

63. Which cell secretes the matrix for bone formation?

a) Osteoclasts
b) Osteoclast
c) Mesoblasts
d) Osteoblasts

Answer: d

64. Which vertebra has odontoid process?

a) Atlas
b) Axis
c) thoracic
d) Coccyx

Answer: b

65. The joint between atlas and axis is_____________

a) Ball and socket joint
b) Saddle joint
c) Pivot joint
d) Angular joint

Answer: c

66. The major function of intervertebral discs is to__________

a) Absorb shock
b) String the vertebrae together
c) Prevent injuries
d) Prevent hypertension

Answer: a

67. Little beam like structures present in long or compact bones are
a) haversian systems or osteon
b) trabeculae
Answer: a
68. Honey comb framework of cancellous or spongy bone is formed by
a) haversian systems or osteon
b) trabeculae
Answer: b
69. Which of the following is not part of the circulatory system.

A Heart B Lungs C Blood D Blood vessels

Ans: b
70. Which is not a pulse in the body
A Carotid B Radial C Femoral ANS D Temprial

71. Blood pressure is

A 140/80 B 140/100 C ANS 120/80 D 120/100

72. What is carried mainly in plasma

ANS A White blood cells B Glucose C Carbon Dioxide D Oxygen

73. Vasodilation is
ANS A Vessels expand B Muscles expand C Vessels shrink D Muscles shrink

74. Too cold

A Hyperthermia ANS B Hypothermia C Lowthermic D Hythermic

75. What is an average Heart rate of a fit 18-year-old at rest

A 40 ANS B 65 TO 75 C 85 D 120

76. What gives red blood cells their color

A Muscle B Oxygen ANS C Hemoglobin D Plasma

77. Which has no nucleus

A White blood cells ANS B Red blood cells C Heart cells D Lung cells

78. Which contains Oxygenated blood

A Pulmonary artery B Right ventricle ANS C Left Ventricle D Venules

79. Which contains de-oxygenated blood

Ans A Right ventricle B Bicuspuid valve C Pulmonary vein D Aorta

80. In the circulatory system, which is correct

Ans A Right ventricle, Semi-lunar valve, Pulmonary artery, Lungs
B Left ventricle, Semi-lunar valve, Pulmonary artery, Lungs
C Right ventricle, Semi-lunar valve, Pulmonary Vein, Lungs
D Left ventricle, Semi-lunar valve, Pulmonary Vein, Lungs

81. What is responsible for blood clotting

A Plasma Ans B Platelets C Corpuscles D Protein

82. How much % of water is in blood

A 60 B 70 C 80 Ans D 90

83. What is not a function of blood

A Carries waste products away
B Controls temperature
C Controls balance of chemicals in body
Ans D Produces acid

84. Smallest blood vessels are

A Arteries B Arterioles C Venules Ans D Capillaries

85. How much blood is in the body

Ans A 5 litres B 5 pints C 15 litre D 15 pints

86. Which is the only artery to carry de-oxygenated blood

A Carotid B Femoral C Brachial Ans D Pulmonary

87. Another name for the bicuspid valve is the

Ans A Mitral B Pitral C Vitral D Bitral
88. Formula for cardiac output is
A SV/HR B HR/SV C HR + SV ANS D HR x SV

89. The highest blood pressure is found in the

A Venules B Aorta Ans C Arteries D Veins

80. Walls are thickest in the

A Right atrium B Right ventricle C Left atrium Ans D Left ventricle

91. Where would you find valves

A Arterioles B Capillaries Ans C Veins D Lungs

92. What circulation carries oxygenated blood to the body

Ans A Systemic B Coronary C Muscular D Pulmonary

Physical Characteristics of Blood

Thicker (more viscous) than water

Temperature of 100.4 F
pH ~ 7.4
8 % body weight
Blood volume - 5 to 6 liters in average male - 4 to 5 liters in average female

Components of Blood

1. Blood Plasma:> 90% water - 7% plasma proteins –

Albumin maintain blood osmotic pressure

Globulins (immunoglobulins)

Fibrinogen: for clotting

2% other substances : electrolytes, nutrients, hormones, gases, waste products

2. Formed Elements of Blood:

1. Red blood cells (erythrocytes ) – 4.5 to 5.4 million/cumm of blood

2. White blood cells (leukocytes ) – 5000 to 10000/cumm of blood

granular leukocytes:

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

agranular leukocytes:

lymphocytes = T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells

monocytes
3. Platelets (special cell fragments) – 150000 - 400000/cumm of blood

93. Hematocrit: Percent of blood occupied by RBC’s

94. Blood cells formation is hematopoiesis or hemopoiesis

95. Erythropoietin (EPO) produced by the kidneys increase RBC precursors

96. Thrombopoietin (TPO) hormone from liver stimulates platelet formation

97. Leukocytosis refers to an increase in the total number of white blood cells (WBCs) above
10000
99. Thrombocytopenia is a condition in which you have a low blood platelet count below
150000
100. Pancytopenia is a condition that occurs when a person has low counts for all three types of
blood cells: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
101. polycythemia: increase in hematocrit value more than 70 percent
102. thalassemia: any of a group of hereditary haemolytic diseases caused by faulty haemoglobin
synthesis, widespread in Mediterranean, African, and Asian countries.
103. hemostasis: arrest or stopping of blood loss
104. heart is located in a cavity is mediastinum and surrounded by pericardium
105. pericardium two types a) fibrous
b) serous two types 1) parietal continuous with fibrous
2) visceral continuous with epicardium

106. layers of heart

a) endocardium- inner
b) myocardium- middle
c) epicardium- outer

107. layers of blood vessel

a) Tunica intima-inner
b) Tunica media- middle
c) tunica adventitia-outer

108. autonomic regulation of heart rate by

1.Cvc in medulla
2. baroreceptors- carotid sinus and aortic arch
3. chemoreceptors – Aortic and carotid bodies
4. mechanoreceptors – joints, ligaments, tendons, muscles and skin
109. inner extensions of ventricles- trabeculae cornea
Cone shaped trabeculae cornea- papillary muscles
Papillary muscles and AV valves are connected by chorda tendinea
110. fossa ovalis is remnant of foramen ovale, located at inter atrial septum
111. a hole in between aorta and pulmonary trunk in fetus is called ductus arteriosum will close
soon after birth and forms ligamentum arteriosum.
112. ECG waves
P wave- atrial depolarization
QRS wave- ventricular depolarization
T wave- ventricular repolarization

The epidermis includes five main layers:

the stratum corneum,
stratum lucidium,
stratum granulosum,
stratum spinosum, and
stratum germinativum.

This set of Human Physiology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Neural Control and Coordination – Sense Organs”.

The inner most layer of human eye is _____

a) Sclera
b) Cornea
c) Choroid
d) Retina
Answer: d
Explanation: Retina is the inner most layer of human eye. It is light sensitive layer. The retina
converts the light rays into impulses that travel through the optic nerve to brain where they are
interpreted as the image we see.

Color blindness is due to defect in ________

a) Cones
b) Rods
c) Rods and cons
d) Rhodopsin
Answer: a
Explanation: Color blindness is a reduced ability to distinguish between certain colors. It is a
very common defect. Color blindness is due to defect in cones.
The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in rods type of photoreceptor cell is a derivative
of ______
a) Vitamin B1
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin A
Answer: d
Explanation: Rhodopsin is derivative of vitamin A. Vitamin A includes retinol, retinal and
carotenoids. Rhodopsin is a light sensitive receptor protein involved in visual photo transduction.

Eustachian tube connects ________

a) Pharynx with middle ear
b) Middle ear with external ear
c) Middle ear with external ear
d) External ear with internal ear.

Answer: a
Explanation: Eustachian tube connects Pharynx with the middle ear. It controls pressure within
the middle ear, making it equal with the air pressure outside the body.

Aqueous and vitreous humours are divided by ________

a) Lens
b) Iris
c) Retina
d) Optic nerve
Answer: a
Explanation: Aqueous humours fill both anterior and posterior chambers of the eye. Vitreous
humours are a clear gelatinous mass found in rear part of eyeball. Aqueous and vitreous humours
are divided by lens.

Organ of Ruffini is sensitive to _____

a) Cold
b) Heat
c) Pressure
d) Touch
Answer: b
Explanation: Organ of Ruffini is sensitive to heat. It is also referred as bulbus or ruffini
corpuscles.

Sense of smell is perceived by __________

a) Pituitary
b) Hypothalamus
c) Olfactory lobe
d) Cerebrum
Answer: c
Explanation: Sense of smell is perceived by Olfactory lobe. It is seen in the cerebrum. It contains
the ending of olfactory nerves.

Autonomic nervous system affects ______

a) Reflex actions
b) Sensory organs
c) Visceral organs
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Autonomic nervous system is a control system that acts largely unconsciously and
regulates bodily function. It affects Visceral organs.

Which of the following is an example of the autonomic nervous system?

a) Peristalsis of intestine
b) Swallowing
c) Movement of eyes
d) Knee jerk
Answer: a
Explanation: Peristalsis of intestine is an example of the autonomic nervous system. Movement
in intestine so that the food can move forward is known as peristalsis.

Which of the following ganglia is not a collateral ganglion?

a) Celiac
b) Superior mesenteric
c) Inferior mesenteric
d) Cervical
Answer: d
Explanation: Cervical ganglia is a para vertebral ganglion. It has three paravertebral ganglia.
Collateral ganglion is ganglia which lie between paravertebral ganglia and target organ.

The brain area that most directly controls the activity of the autonomic nervous system is the
_____
a) Pituitary gland
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Cerebellum
d) Hypothalamus
Answer: b
Explanation: Medulla oblongata is located in the brain stem. It controls the activity of the
autonomic nervous system. It is the lowest part of the brain.

Targets of autonomic nervous system include all of the following except _____
a) Cardiac muscle
b) Endocrine glands
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Exocrine glands
Answer: c
Explanation: Skeletal muscle is formed of striated muscle tissue. It is under voluntary control of
the somatic nervous system.

Nurilenma provides nourishment for ________

a) Nerve fibers
b) Nerve impulse
c) Effectors
d) Receptors
Answer: a
Explanation: Nurilenma provides nourishment for nerve fibers. These are benign, encapsulated
tumors of the nerve sheath. They are derived from neural crest.

Parasympathetic nerve arises from which region of the nervous system?

a) Cranio sacral
b) Lumbar
c) Cervical
d) Thoracolumbar
Answer: a
Explanation: Parasympathetic nerve arises from Cranio sacral region of the nervous system.
Parasympathetic nervous system nerves arise from the central nervous system.

Which of the following is released by Parasympathetic nervous system?

a) Serotonin
b) Acetylcholine
c) Epinephrine
d) Nor epinephrine
Answer: b
Explanation: Acetylcholine is released by Parasympathetic nervous system. Acetylcholine is a
neurotransmitter. It is released by nerve cells.

Which of the following is true about parasympathetic neurons?

a) The nerve fibers are contained in spinal nerves
b) The synapse in terminal ganglia either next to or within the organs innervated
c) They originate in thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord
d) Postganglionic fibers are usually longer than those of sympathetic neurons
Answer: b
Explanation: Ganglions is a structure containing a number of nerve cell bodies typically linked
by synapse and often forming a swelling on a nerve fiber.

Which system is not regulated by a centre in the medulla oblongata?

a) The cardiovascular system
b) The respiratory system
c) The immune system
d) The digestive system
Answer: c
Explanation: The organs and the processes of the body that provide resistance to infection and
toxins. The immune system is not regulated by a centre in the medulla oblongata. Thymus, bone
marrow and lymph nodes include an immune system.
. Nerve fibers are _____
a) Nuclear processes
b) Protoplasmic processes
c) Endoplasmic process
d) Cytoplasmic processes
Answer: d
Explanation: Nerve provides a common pathway for the electrochemical nerve impulses that are
transmitted along each of the axons to peripheral organs.

Sympathetic stimulation causes - fight or flight response

Post ganglionic neurotransmitter in sympathetic nervous system- noradrenaline

Post ganglionic neurotransmitter in parasympathetic nervous system- acetylcholine
Preganglionic neurotransmitter in both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system- acetyl
choline

Sympathetic neurons – thoracolumbar

Para sympathetic neurons- craniosacral

Neurons carries sensation from periphery to CNS are – ascending, sensory, afferent.
Neurons transmit response from CNS to periphery are- descending, motor, efferent.
Sympathetic stimulation causes contraction of radial muscle of eye and subsequent dilation of
pupil is called mydriasis
Parasympathetic stimulation causes contraction of circular or ciliary muscle of eye and
subsequent constriction of pupil is called miosis
Sympathetic stimulation causes - increase in heart rate – tachycardia and constriction of blood
vessels
Parasympathetic stimulation causes- decrease in heart rate- bradycardia and dilation of blood
vessels
Sympathetic stimulation causes- decreased peristalsis, decreased GIT secretions, decreases
insulin release
Parasympathetic stimulation causes- increased peristalsis, increased GIT secretions, increases
insulin release
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation stimulate salivary glands and increase
salivary secretion
Sympathetic stimulation - sweating