1-ChapteR-Short-Question-With-Answer (20 Files Merged) PDF

1st year chemistry notes
Chapter No. 1
BASIC CONCEPTS
Short Question With Answer
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Q.1 Calculate the grams atoms in 0.4 gm of potassium.
Ans.
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e.c
Gram atoms of potassium =
= = 0.01 grams atoms
Q.2 23 grams of sodium and 238 gram of uranium have equal number
of atoms in them.
fre
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Ans.
Mass of sodium = 23 gms= 1mole=6.02 x 1023 atoms
Mass of uranium = 238g=1 mole= 6.02x 1023 atoms
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Both the substances have equal number of atoms because they have same
no.of moles.
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Q.3 Mg atom is twice heavier than that of carbon.

Ans.
The atomic mass of Mg is 24 which is to twice as mass as compared to the
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atomic mass of carbon i.e. 12. So Mg atom is twice heavier than that of
carbon.
Q.4 180 grams of glucose and 342 gram of sucrose have the same
number of molecules but different number of atoms present in them.
Ans.
180 grams of glucose (C6H12O6) and 342 grams of sucrose (C12H22O11)
are their molar masses indicating one mole of each (glucose and sucrose)
www.allonlinefree.com
one mole of a substance contains equal number of molecules i.e.

6.02 x 1023.
Mass of glucose (C6H12O6)=180g=1mole=6.02x1023molecules
=24NAatoms
Mass of Sucrose (C12H22O11)=342g=1mole=6.02 x 1023 molecules
=45NAatoms
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Q.5 4.9 g of H2SO4 when completely ionized in water have equal
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number of positive and negative ions, but the number of positively charged
e.c
ions are twice the number of negatively charged ions.
Ans.
H2SO4 fre
→ 2H+ + SO4-2
When one mole of H2SO4 ionizes, it produces 2H+ and
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SO4–2 ions. Hydrogen ions contains +1 charge while sulphate ions have –
2 charge. Hydrogen ions are twice in number than that of SO ion. Charges
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on both ions are equal (with opposite sign). Similarly ions produced by
complete ionization of 4.9 grams of H2SO4 in water will have equal +ve
and –ve charges but the number of H+ ions are twice than number of
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negatively charged sulphate ions.

Q.6 One mg of K2CrO4 has thrice the number of ions than the number
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of molecules when ionized in excess of water.

Ans. K2CrO4 → 2K+ + CrO4–2
When K2CrO4 ionizes in water, its one molecule gives three ions i.e. two
K+ and one CrO4–2 (chromate) ions. The ratio between the number of
molecules and number of ions than the number of molecules when ionized
in water.
Q.7 Two grams of H2, 16g of CH4 and 44 gram of CO2 occupy
separately the volumes of 22.414 dm3 at STP, although the sizes and
masses of molecules of three gases are very different from each other.
Ans.
One mole of gas at STP occupies a volume of 22.4 dm3 sizes and masses
of molecules of different gas do not affect the volume. Normally it is known
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that in the gaseous state, the distance between the molecules is 300 times
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greater that their diameter. Therefore two grams of H2, 16 grams of
e.c
CH4 and 44 grams of CO2 (1 mole of each gas) separately occupy a
volume of 22.4 dm3. This is called molar volume.
fre
2gH2=1mole, 16gCH4=1 mole, 44gCO2=1 mole
1mole=22.414dm3
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Q.8 Define Stoichiometry ?

Ans.
Stoichiometry is the branch of chemistry which gives a quantitative
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relationship between reactants and products in balanced chemical

equation.
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Q.9 What is limiting reactant? How does it control the quantity of the
product formed? Explain with three examples. /Many chemical reactions
taking place in our surroundings involve limiting reactants give examples?
Ans.
The reactant which controls (limits) the amount of product formed
during a chemical reaction is called limiting reactant. In our surrounding
many chemical reactions take place which involve limiting reactants some
of these reactions are:
(i) Burning of coal to form CO2---Coal is limiting reactatnt C +
O2 ® CO2
(ii) Burning of sui gas to form CO2 and H2O
CH4 + 2O2 ® CO2 + 2H2O
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(iii) Rusting of iron----iron is limiting reactant
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In above reactions oxygen is always in excess, while other
e.c
reactants are consumed earlier. So other reactants are limiting reactants.
Q.10 One mole of H2O has two moles of bands, three moles of atoms,
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ten moles of electron and twenty–eight moles the total fundamental
particles present in it.
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Ans.
One molecule of H–O–H has two bounds between hydrogen and
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oxygen. There are three atoms i.e. two

H atoms and one O atom, therefore one mole of H2O contains two moles
of bonds and three moles of atoms
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(2 moles of H atoms and one mole of O atoms).

Similarly, there are eight elections in oxygen and one electron in
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each of the two, H atoms one molecule of H2O so has 10 electrons, so one
mole of water contains 10 moles of electrons. There are 28 moles of all
fundamental particles in one mole of water i.e.
10 moles of electrons.
10 moles of protons.
8 moles of neurons (8 neutrons in oxygen and there is no neutron in

hydrogen) 28 moles of fundamental particles.
Q.11 One mole of H2SO4 should completely react with two moles of
NaOH. How does Avogadro’s number help to explain it?
Ans.
The balanced chemical equation between H2SO4 and NaOH
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H2SO4 + 2NaOH ® Na2SO4 + H2O
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H2SO4® 2H+ + SO4-2
e.c
2NaOH®2Na+ + 2OH-
2H+ + 2OH- ® 2H2O
2NA 2NA fre
This is an acid base reaction, one mole of H2SO4 releases two moles of
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H+ ion in solution. It needs two moles of OH ions for complete
neutralization. So two moles of NaOH which releases two moles of OH are
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required to react with one mole of H2SO4. One mole of H2SO4 releases
twice the Avogadro’s number of H+ ions and it will need the Avogadro’s
number of OH ions for complete neutralization.
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Q.12 N2 and CO have same number of electrons, protons and neutrons.

Ans.
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Both N2 and CO have same number of electrons, protons and

neutrons as it is clear from the following explanation.
For N2 No. of electrons in N2 = 7 + 7 = 14
No. of protons in N2 = 7 + 7 = 14
No. of neutrons = 7 + 7 = 14
For CO number of electrons
in C = 6
No. of electrons in O = 8
Total no. of protons = 6 + 8 = 14
No. of neutrons in C = 6
No. of neutrons in O = 8
Total no. of neutrons = 6 + 8 = 14
Q.13 How many molecule, of water are in 12 gram of ice?
m
Ans.
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Mass of ice (water) = 12.0 gm
e.c
Molar mass of water = 18 g/mol
No. of molecules of water
= fre
=
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No. of molecules of water = 0.66 x 6.02 x 1023
= 3.97 x 1023
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Q.14 Differentiate between limiting and non–limiting reactant ?

Ans. Limiting Reactant:
A limiting reactant is a reactant and that controls the amount of the
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product formed in a chemical reaction.

Non–Limiting Reactant:
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The reactant which produces the excess amount of the product is

called non–limiting reactant.
Q.15 Distinguish between actual yield and theoretical yield ?
Ans. Actual Yield:
The amount of the products obtained in a chemical reaction is
called actual yield based on experiment.
Theoretical (Experiment) Yield:
The amount of the products calculated from the balanced chemical

equation is called theoretical yield.
Q.16 What do you mean by percent yield? Give its significance ?
Ans.
The yield which is obtained by dividing actual yield with theoretical
yield and multiplying by 100 is called percent yield.
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% yield = x 100
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Significance:
e.c
(i) % yield indicates the efficiency of reaction.
(ii) More is the percent yield higher will be the efficiency of reaction.
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Q.17 Why actual yield is less than the theoretical yield?
Ans.
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(a) Side reaction may takes place
(b) All the reactant may not be converted into products
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(c) Mecahanical loss may occur like during

e.g Filtration, evaporation, crystallization, distillation etc.
Q.18 Calculate the mass of 10–3 moles of MgSO4.
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Ans.
MgSO4 is an ionic compound. We will consider its formula mass
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instead of molecular mass.

Number of moles of substance
=
Formula mass of MgSO4 = 120 gm/ml
Number of moles of MgSO4 = 10–3 moles
Applying formula
10–3 =
Mass of MgSO4 = 120 x 10–3 = 0.12 moles
Q.19 Define Avogadro’s number ?

Ans.
Avogadro’s number is the number of atoms, molecules and ions in
one gram atom of an element, one gram molecule of a compound and one
m
gram ion of substance, respectively. It is equal to 6.02 x 1023.
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Q.20 Define mole ?
e.c
Ans.
The molecular mass of a substance expressed in grams is called
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molecule or gram mole or simply the mole of a substance.
Moles of substance =
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1 mole of water = 18.0 g
1 mole of H2SO4 = 98.0 g
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Q.21 Define isotopes ?

Ans.
Atoms of the same element which have different masses but same
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atomic numbers are called isotopes. For example carbon has three
isotopes.
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12C6 13C6 14C6 and expressed as C–12, C–13 and C–14.

Similarly hydrogen has three isotopes H H H called protium, deuterium
and tritium.
Q.22 Define (i) ions (ii) Positive ion (iii) Negative ion.
Ans. Ion
As specie having positive or negative charges are called ions. For
example Cl–1, NO, Na+, Ca++.
Positive Ion (Cation):

A specie has +ve charge is called positive ion and attracted towards
Cathode . For example Na+, K++, Ca++.
Negative Ion (Anion)
A specie which has negative charge is called negative ion and
attracted towards anode . For example F–1,Cl–1,Br–1andS–2P–3,C–4,SO,
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Cr2O, CO.
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e.c
Q.23 Define and explain the molecular ion ?
Ans.
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When a molecule loses or gains an electron, molecular ion is
formed. For example CH4+, CO+, N2+. Cationic molecular, ions are more
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abundant than anionic ions.
The molecular ions find applications of in calculation of molecular
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mass of a compound. The molecular ions also help in the determination of

structure of macro molecules.
The break down of molecular ions obtained from the natural
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products can give important information about their structure.

Q.24 What do understand by the relative atomic mass ?
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Ans.
Relative atomic mass is the mass of an atom of element as
compared to the mass of an atom of carbon taken as 12.
The unit used to express the relative atomic mass is called atomic mass
unit (amu). It is th of the mass of one carbon atom. The relative atomic
mass of 12C6 is 12.00 amu. The relative atomic mass of H is 1.0078 amu.
Q.25 Define Gram atom ?
Ans.
The atomic mass of an element expressed in grams is called gram
atom of an element.
Number of gram atoms of a meter an element
m
=
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For example 1 gram atom of hydrogen = 1.008 gm
e.c
1 gram atom of carbon = 12.00 gm
1 gram at of uranium = 238 gm
Q.26 Define gram ion ? fre
Ans.
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The ionic mass of an ionic specie expressed in grams is called one
gram ion or one mole of ions.
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Number of gram ions =

1 gram ion of OH–1 = 17 grams
1 gram ion of SO = 96 gram
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1 gram ion of CO = 60 gram

Q.27 Define gram formula and moles ?
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Ans.
The formula mass of an ionic compound expressed in grams is
called gram formula of the substance.
Number of gram formula or moles of a substance
=
1 gram formula of NaCl = 58.50 gms
1 gram formula of Na2CO3 = 106 gm
1 gram formula of AgNO3 = 170 gm

The atomic mass, molecular mass, formula mass or ionic mass of
the substance expressed in grams is called moles of those substances.
Q.28 Define molar volume ?
Ans.
The volume occupied by one mole of an ideal gas at standard
m
temperature and pressure (STP) is called molar volume. The volume is
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equal to 22.414 dm3.
e.c
Q.29 Define and explain atomicity ?
Ans.
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The number of atoms present in a molecule is called the atomicity.
The molecule can be monoatomic, diatomic and triatomic etc. If the
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molecule contains one atom it is monoatomic, if it contains two atoms it is
diatomic, and if it contains three atoms it is triatomic. Molecules of elements
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may contain one two or more same type of atoms. For example He, Cl2,
O3, P4, S8. The molecules of compounds consist of different kind of atoms.
For example HCl, NH3, H2SO4, C6H12O6.
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Q.30 Define an atom and molecule ?

Ans. Atom:
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Atom is now defined as the smallest particle of an element, which

may or may not have independent existence. For example He and Ne
atoms have independent existence. While atoms of hydrogen, nitrogen and
oxygen do not exist independently.
Molecule:
A molecule is the smallest particle of a pure substance( element or

Compound ) which can exist independentally. For example N2, O2, Cl2,
HCl, NH3 and H2SO4 are examples of molecules.
Q.31 What do you mean by empirical formula and molecular formula?
How they are related to each other ?
Ans. Empirical Formula:
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It is the simplest formula that gives information about the simple
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ratio of atoms present in a compound.
e.c
In an empirical formula of a compound Ax By, there are X atoms
of an element A and y atoms of an element B.
Molecular Formula: fre
The formula of a substance which is based on the actual molecule
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is called molecular formula. It gives the usual number of atoms present in
the molecule. For example molecular formula of benzene is C6H6, while
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that of glucose is C6H12O6. The molecular formula and empirical formula

are related to each other by the following relationship.
Molecular formula = n x (Empirical formula)
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Where n is simple integer.

Q.32 Is it true many compounds have same empirical and molecular
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formula ?
Ans.
There are many compounds, whose empirical formulas and
molecular formulas are the same. For example H2O, CO2, NH3 and
C12H22O11 have the same empirical and molecular formulas. Their simple
multiple n is unity. Actually value of n is the ratio of molecular mass and
empirical formula mass.
n =
Q.33 Ethylene glycol is used in automobile antifreeze. It has 38.7%
carbon, 9.7% hydrogen and 51.6% oxygen. Its molar mass is 62 gms
mole–1. Determine its empirical and molecular formula ?
Ans.
C = 38.7%, H = 9.7%, O = 51.6%
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Dividing above %ages by atomic mass.
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We get molar ratios
e.c
C = = 3.225
H = = 9.7
O = = 3.225 fre
Dividing above molar ratio by least ratio we get atomic ratio.
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C = = 1
H = = 3
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O = = 1
Empirical formula is CH3O
Molar mass = 62
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Empirical formula mass = 12 + 3 + 16 = 31

Now
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n =
= = 2
Molar formula = n x Empirical formula
= 2 x CH3O
Molecular formula = C2H6O2
Hence molecular formula of Ethylene glycol = C2H6O2
Q.34 The combustion analysis of an organic compound shows it to

contain 65.44% carbon 5.5% hydrogen and 29.06% of oxygen. What is the
empirical formula of the compound? If the molecular mass of the
compound is 110.15. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound.
Ans.
First of all divide the percentage of each element by its atomic mass
m
to get the number of from atoms or moles.
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No. of gram atoms of carbon =
e.c
= 5.45 gram atoms of C
No. of gram atoms of hydrogen =
fre = 5.45 gram atoms of H
No. of gram atoms of oxygen =
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= 1.82 gram atoms of 0
Mole ratio C : H: O
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4.45 5.45 1.82

Divide number of grams atoms by the smallest number
C: H: O
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: :
3: 3: 1
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Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen are present in the given organic

compound in ratio of 3 : 3 : 1. So the empirical formula is C3H3O.
In order to calculate the molecular formula first calculate the
empirical formula mass.
Empirical formula mass = 3 x 12 + 3 x 1 + 16
= 36 + 3 + 16 = 55.05
Molar mass of the compound = 110.15
h = = = 2
Molecular formula = n x empirical formula
= 2 x C3H3O
= C6H6O2
Q.35 Give relationships, between the amounts of substances and
number of particles. There are three useful relationships ?
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Ans.
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1. Number of atoms of an element = x NA
e.c
2. Number of molecules of a compound
= x NA
3. fre
Number of ions of ionic species = x NA
NA is the Avogadro’s number. The value is 6.02 x 1023.
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Q.36 What are the types of relationships of stoichiometric calculations ?
Ans.
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There are three types of relationships of stoichiometric calculations.

1. Mass–Mass Relationship
The relationship in which the mass of one substance is given and
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the mass of other substance is calculated.

2. Mass–mole or mole–mass relationship
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The relationship in which mass of one substance is given and

moles of other substance is to be calculated or vice versa.
3. Mass–volume or volume mass relationship
The relationship in which the mass of one substance is given and
the volume of other substance is to be calculated or vice versa.
Q.37 Law of conservation of mass has to be obeyed during the
stoichiometric calculations ?
Ans.
Stoichiometric calculations are based on balanced chemical
equation and equation is balanced on the basis of Law of conservation of
mass e.g
C+O2→ CO
In this equation stoichiometric calculations are not possible because it is
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not a balanced equation and it is not obeying Law of coseravtion.
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e.c
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w.a
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Chapter No. 1
BASIC CONCEPTS
MCQs
Q.1 Smallest particle of an element which may or may not have independent
existence
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(a) a molecule (b) an atom
(c) an ion (d) an electron
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Q.2 Swedish chemist J. Berzelius determined the
(a) atomic no. (b) atomic volume
e.c
(c) atomic mass (d) atomic density
Q.3 The number of atoms present in a molecule determine its
(a) molecularity (b) basicity
(c) acidity fre
(d) atomicity
Q.4 When an electron is added to a unipositive ion we get
(a) anion (b) cation
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(c) neutral atom (d) molecule
Q.5 CO+ is an example of:
(a) free radical (b) cationic molecular ion
(c) an ionic molecular ion
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(d) stable molecule

Q.6 Relative atomic mass is the mass of an atom of an element as compared to
the mass of
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(a) oxygen (b) hydrogen

(c) nitrogen (d) carbon
Q.7 Isotopes are the sister atoms of the same element with similar chemical
properties and different
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(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass

(c) atomic volume (d) atomic structure
Q.8 The instrument which is used to measure the exact masses of different
isotopes of an element called
(a) I.R. Spectrophotometer (b) U.V. Spectrophotometer
(c) Mass Spectrometer (d) Colourimeter
Q.9 Mass spectrometer separates different positive isotopic ions on the basis
of their
(a) mass value (b) m/e value
(c) e/m value (d) change value
Q.10 Simplest formula that gives us information about the simple ratio of
atoms in a compound is called
(a) structural formula (b) molecular formula
(c) empirical formula (d) molar ratio
Q.11 Percentage of oxygen in H2O is
(a) 80% (b) 88.8%
(c) 8.8% (d) 9.8%
Q.12 More abundant isotope of an element is one with
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(a) even atomic no. (b) odd atomic no.
(c) Even mass no. (d) odd mass no.
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Q.13 Large no. of isotopes are known for the elements whose masses are
multiple of
e.c
(a) two (b) four
(c) six (d) eight
Q.14 When 0.01 kg of CaCO3 is decomposed the CO2 produced occupies a
volume at S.T.P.
(a) 2.2414 dm3
fre
(b) 22.414 dm3
(c) 22414 dm3 (d) 224014 dm3
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Q.15 The no. of covalent bond in 10gm of NH3 are
(a) 6.022 x 1023 (b) 1.062 x 1023
(c) 10.62 x 1024 (d) 1.062 x 1024
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Q.16 No. of molecules present in 10gm of water are

(a) 3.37 x 1023 (b) 33.7 x 1023
(c) 3.37 x 1024 (d) 3.037 x 1024
Q.17 The no. of covalent bonds present in 10gm of water are
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(a) 6.074 x 1023 (b) 6.74 x 1023

(c) 6.074 x 1024 (d) 6.74 x 1024
Q.18 The least no. of molecules present in 30 gm of
(a) N2O (b) NO
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(c) NO2 (d) N2O3

Q.19 Which of the following has highest percentage of nitrogen
(a) (NH4)2SO4 (b) NH4H2PO4
(c) (NH4)2HPO4 (d) (NH4)3PO4
Q.20 0.1 mole of Na3PO4 completely dissociates in water to produce Na+
(a) 6.02 x 1022 (b) 6.02 x 1023
(c) 1.806 x 1023 (d) 1.806 x 1022
Q.21 Efficiency of chemical reaction can be checked by calculating
(a) amount of limiting reactant
(b) amount of the reactant in excess
(c) amount of the product formed
(d) amount of the reactant unused

Q.22 A limiting reactant is one
(a) which is present in least amount
(b) which produces minimum no. of moles of product
(c) which produces maximum no. of moles of product
(d) does not effect the amount of product
Q.23 Stoichiometry is the branch of chemistry which deals with the study of
quantitative relationship among the various
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(a) reactants (b) products
(c) Reactants and products (d) all of above
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Q.24 500 cm3 of H2 gas at STP contradictions of hydrogen
(a) 6.02 x 1023 (b) 3.01 x 1022
e.c
(c) 2.68 x 1022 (d) 1.34 x 1022
Q.25 Largest number of H+ ions are produced by complete ionization of
(a) 0.01 mole of HCl (b) 0.0050 mole of H2SO4
(c)
(d)
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0.000334 moles of H3PO4
all above
Q.26 The Avogadro’s number is
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(a) 6.02 x 1024 (b) 6.02 x 10–24
(c) 6.02 x 10–23 (d) 6.02 x 1023
Q.27 The largest number of H+ are produced by complete ionization of
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(a) 0.100 2 moles of HCl (b) 0.051 moles of H2SO4

(c) 0.0334 moles of H3PO4 (d) All of the above
Q.28 A sample of pure matter is
(a) element (b) compound
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(c) substance (d) mixture

Q.29 nm stands for
(a) Newton meter (b) Nanometer
(c) Newton square meter (d) none of the above
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Q.30 One calorie is equal to

(a) 4.184 J (b) 41.84 J
(c) 0.4184 J (d) 0.04184 J
Q.31 The number of moles of CO2 which contains 8.0 gm of oxygen
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.50
Q.32 27 grams of Al will react completely with how much mass of O2 to
produce Al2O3
(a) 8 gm of oxygen (b) 16 gm of oxygen
(c) 32 gm of oxygen (d) 24 gm of oxygen
Q.33 Mole of SO2 contains
(a) 6.02 x 1023 atoms of oxygen

(b) 18.1 x 1023 molecules of SO2
(c) 6.023 x 1023 atom of sulphur
(d) 4 gram of SO2
Q.34 The largest number of molecules are presenting
(a) 3.6 gram of H2O (b) 4.8 gram of C2H5OH
(c) 2.8 gm of CO (d) 5.4 gms of N2O5
Q.35 The mass of one mole of electron is
m
(a) 1.008 mg (b) 0.184 mg
(c) 1.673 mg (d) 0.55 mg
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Q.36 Isotopes differ in
(a) properties which depend on mass
e.c
(b) arrangements of electrons in orbital
(c) chemical properties
(d) the extent to which they may be affected in electromagnetic field
Q.37
(a) 224 dm3
fre
The volume occupied by 1.4 gm of N2 at STP is
(b) 22.4 dm3
(c) 1.12 dm3 (d) 112 cm3
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Q.38 Many elements have fractional atomic mass. This is because
(a) the mass atom is itself fractional
(b) atomic masses are average masses of isobars
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(c) atomic masses are averages masses of isotopes

(d) atomic masses are average masses of isotopes
proportional to relative abundance
Q.39 A limiting reactant is one which
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(a) is taken in lesser quantity in grams as compared to other

reactants
(b) is taken in lesser quantity in volume as compared to the
other
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(c) gives the maximum amount of the product which is required

(d) gives the minimum amount of the product under
consideration
Q.40 Isotopes when even atomic masses are a comparatively abundant
(a) demper’s spectrograph is superior to that of Aston’s
(b) 0.1 mg of H2O has greater number of molecules then 0.1 mg of
CH4
(c) the number of H+ and PO–3 ions are not equal but the number of
positive and negative charges
(d) are equal when 100 molecules of H3PO4 are thrown in excess of
water
Q.41 A molecule having two atoms is called

(a) monoatomic molecules (b) diatomic molecules
(c) Polyatomic molecules (d) homoatomic molecule
Q.42 An ordinary misoscope is used to measure the object of size
(a) upto 500 nm (b) upto 850 nm
(c) upto 1000 nm (d) upto 1200 nm
Q.43 1 atomic masses unit (amu) is equation
(a) 1.66 x 10–27 kg (b) 1.56 x 10–27 kg
m
(c) 1.76 x 10–21 kg (d) 1.8 x 10–27 kg
Q.44 Nickel has isotopes
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(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7
e.c
Q.45 Cadmium has isotopes
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 9
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Q.46 The pressure of vapours in the separating isotopes by mass spectrometry
is kept at
(a) 10–6 torr (b) 10–4 torr
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(c) 10–3 torr (d) 10–5 torr
Q.47 Number of gram atoms in 0.1 gm of Na is
(a) 0.0043 (b) 0.0403
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(c) 0.403 (d) None of these

Q.48 Molecule of haemoglobin contains atoms
(a) 15,000 (b) 12,000
(c) 10,000 (d) 8,000
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Q.49 Haemoglobin is heavier than a hydrogen atom

(a) 65,000 (b) 68,000
(c) 62,000 (d) 60,000
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Answers
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Answers b C d c b
Questions 6 7 8 9 10
Answers d b c b c
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers b c b a d
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers a b d d c
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers c b d c d
Questions 26 27 28 29 30
Answers d d a b a
Questions 31 32 33 34 35
Answers a d c a d
Questions 36 37 38 39 40
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Answers a c d d c
Questions 41 42 43 44
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Answers c a a c
e.c
Questions 45 46 47 48 49
Answers d a a c b
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w.a
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Chapter No. 1
BASIC CONCEPTS
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TEXT BOOK EXERCISE
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e.c
Q1. Select the most suitable answer from the given ones in each question.
(i) The mass of one mole of electrons is
(a) Properties which depend upon mass
(b)
(c)
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Arrangement of electrons in orbital
Chemical properties
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(d) The extent to which they may be affected in electromagnetic field
(ii) Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) isotopes with even atomic masses are comparatively abundant
(b) isotopes with odd atomic masses and even atomic number are
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comparatively abundant
(c) atomic masses are average masses of isotopes.
(d) Atomic masses are average masses of isotopes proportional to their
relative abundance
w.a
(iii) Many elements have fractional atomic masses, this is because

(a) The mass of the atom is itself fractional
(b) Atomic masses are average masses of isobars
(c) Atomic masses are average masses of isotopes.
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(d) Atomic masses are average masses of isotopes proportional to their

relative abundance
(iv) The mass of one mole of electrons is
(a) 008mg (b) 0.55mg (c) 0.184mg (d) 1.673mg
(v) 27g of Al will react completely with how much mass of O2 to produce
Al2O3
(a) 8g of oxygen (b) 16g of oxygen
(c) 32g of oxygen (d) 24g of oxygen
(vi) The number of moles of CO2 which contain 8.0 g of oxygen.
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 (c) 1.0 (d) 1.50
(vii) The largest number of molecules are present in

(a) 3.6g of H2 O (b) 4.8g of C2H5 OH
(c) 2.8 g of CO (d) 5.4g of N2O5
(viii) One mole of SO2 contains
(a) 6.02x1023 atoms of oxygen
(b) 18.1x1023 Molecules of SO2
(c) 6.02x1023 atoms of sulphur
(d) 4 gram atoms of SO2
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(ix) The volume occupied by 1.4 g of N2at STP is
(a) 2.24 dm3 (b) 22.4dm3
1.12 dm3 112 cm3
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(c) (d)
(x) A limiting reactant is the one which
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(a) is taken in lesser quantity in grams as compared to other reactants
(b) is taken in lesser quantity in volume as compared to the other reactants
(c) give the maximum amount of the product which is required
(ii)d
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(d) give the minimum amount of the product under consideration
Ans: (i)a (iii)d (iv)b (v)d (vi)a (vii)a (viii)c
(ix)c (x)d
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Q2: Fill in the blanks:
(i) The unit of relative atomic mass is-----------
(ii) The exact masses of isotopes can be determined by ------------
spectrograph.
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(iii) The phenomenon of isotopes was first discovered by --------------

(iv) Empirical formula can be determined by combustion analysis for those
compounds which have-----------and -----------in them.
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(v) A limiting reagent is that which controls the quantities of -------------

(vi) I mole of glucose has-----------atoms of carbon ---------------of oxygen
and ----------of hydrogen.
(vii) 4g of CH4 at OoC and I atm pressure has ---------molecules of CH4.
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(viii) Stoichiometry calculations can by performed only when -------------law is

obeyed.
Ans: (i) amu (ii) mass (iii) Soddy (iv) carbon, hydrogen
(v) Products (vi) 6NA,6NA,12NA
23
(vii) 1.505x10 (viii) conservation and multiple
proportion
Q3: Indicate true or false as the case may be:
(i) Neon has three isotopes and the fourth one with atomic mass 20.18 amu.
(ii) Empirical formula gives the information about he total number of atoms
present in the molecule
(iii) During combustion analysis Mg(CIO4)2 is employed to absorb water

vapors.
(iv) Molecular formula is the integral multiple of empirical formula and the
integral multiple can never be unity.
(v) The number of atoms in 1.79 g of gold and 0.023g of sodium are equal.
(vi) The number of electrons in the molecules of CO an dN2 are 14 each, so
1 mg go each gas will have same number of electrons.
(vii) Avogadro’s hypothesis is applicable to all types of gases, i.e., ideal and
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non-ideal .
(viii) Actual yield of a chemical reaction may by greater than the theoretical
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yield.
Ans. (i) False (ii) False (iii) True (iv) False
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(v) False (vi) True (vii) False (viii) False
Q4: What are ions? Under What condition are they produced?
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Ans: Ions can be produced by the following processes:
(i) By dissolving ionic compounds in water
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(ii) By X-rays
(iii) In mass spectrometry
(iv) By removing or adding electron in atom
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Q4:
(a) What are isotopes? How do you deduce the fractional atomic masses of
elements form the relative isotopes abundance? Give two examples in
w.a
support of your answer. ( See detail in Sublime subjective)

(b) How does a mass spectrograph show the relative aboundace of isotopes of
an element? . ( See detail in Sublime subjective)
(c) What is the justification of two strong peaks in the mass spectrum for
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bromine; while for iodine only one peak at 127 amu , is indicated?
Ans The two strong peak in the mass spectrum for bromine represent two
different isotopes of bromine having nearly equal natural abundances. Only
one peak at 127 amu in the mass spectrum for iodine indicates that it has
only one isotope of atomic mass 127 amu.
Remember that!
Height of the peaks ∞ Relative abundance of isotopes
No. of peaks = No. of isotopes
Q5: Silver has atomic number 47 and has 16 known isotopes but two occur
naturally I,e, Ag _____107 . and Ag _____109 . Given the following mass
spectrometric data, calculated the average atomic mass of silver,
Isotopes mass (amu) percentage abundance

107
Ag 106.90509 51.84
109
Ag 108.90476 48.16
Solution: The mass contribution for silver are:
Isotopes Fractional abundance isotopic mass mass contribution
107
Ag 107 0.5184x107=55.4688
m
109Ag 107 0.4816x109=52.4944
Fractional atomic mass of silver =107.9632
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Hence the fractional atomic mass of silver is =107.9632 Ans.
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Q6: Boron with atomic number 5 has two naturally occurring isotopes.
Calculate the percentage abundance of 10B and 11B from the following
information.
Average atomic mass of boron =10.81 amu
Isotopic mass of B
Isotopic mass of B
10
11
fre =10.0129 amu
=11.0093
10
Solution: Let, the fractional abundance of B =x
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The fractional abundance of 11B =1-x
Remember that the sum of the fractional abundances of isotopes must be
equal to one, now, The equation to determine the atomic mass of element is
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(fractional abundance) (isotopic mass) (fractional abundance of 10B)(isotopic

mass of 10B )+(fractional abundance of 11B) (isotopic mass of 11B)
=Average atomic mass of Boron
(x)(10.0129)+(1-x)(11.0093) =10.81
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10.0129x+11.00093x =10.81
10.0129x-11.00093x =10.81-11.0093
-0.9964x =-0.1993
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x =
10
Fractional abundance of B =0.2000
Fractional abundance of 11B =(1-0.2000)=0.8000
By percentage the fractional abundance of isotope is
%of 10B =0.2000x100 =20% Answer
11
% of B =0.8000x100 =80%Answer
Q7: Define the following terms and give three examples of each.
(i) Gram atom (ii) Gram molecular mass
(iii) Gram molecular mass (iv) Gram ion

(v) molar volume (vi) Avogadro’s number
(vii) Stoichiometry (viii) Percentage yield
Q8: Justify the following statements:
(a) 23 g of sodium and 238g of uranium have equal number of atoms in the (b)
Mg atom is twice heavier than that of carbon
(c) 180g of glucose and 342 g of sucrose have the same number of molecules
but different number of atoms present in them.
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(d) 4.9g of H2 SO4 when completely ionized in water , have equal number of
positive and negative charges but the number of positively charged ions are
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twice the number of negatively charged ions.
(e) One mg of K2 Cr O4 has thrice the number of ions than the number of
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formula units when ionized in water.
(f) Two grams of H2 , 16 g of ch4 and 44g of CO2 occupy separately the
volumes of 22.414 dm3 , although the sizes and masses of molecules of three
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gases are very different from each other.
Solution:
(a) 23g of Na =1 mole of Na =6.02x1023 atoms of Na
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238g of U =1 mole of U =6.02x1023 atoms of U.
Since equal number of gram atoms(moles) of different elements contain
equal number of atoms. Hence, 1 mole (23g ) of sodium and 1 mole (238)g of
uranium contain equal number of atoms , i , e ,6.02x1023 atoms.
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(b) Since the atomic mass of Mg (24) is twice the atomic mass of carbon (12)
therefore, Mg atom is twice heavier than that of carbon. Or
Mass of 1 atom of Mg=
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Mass of 1 atom of C =
Since the mass of one atom of Mg is twice the mass of one atom of C, therefore,
Mg atom is twice heavier than that of carbon.
(c) 180 g of glucose = 1 mole of glucose =6.02x10 23 molecules of glucose 342
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g of sucrose=1mole of sucrose =6.02x1023 molecules of sucrose

Since one mole of different compounds has the same number of molecules.
Therefore 1 mole (180g) of glucose and I mole (342g) of sucrose contain the
same number (6.02x1023)of molecules. Because one molecule of glucose, C6H12O6
contains 45 atoms whereas one molecules of glucose, C 12 H22 O11 contains 24
atoms. Therefore, 6.02x1023 molecules of glucose contain different atoms as
compound to6.02x1023 molecules of sucrose. Hence, 180 g of glucose and 342g og
sucrose have the same number of molecules but different number of atoms present
in them.
(d) H2 SO4 2H+ + SO
When one molecules of H2 SO4 completely ionizes in water it produces two

+
H ion and one SO ion,. Hydrogen ion carries a unit positive charge whereas SO
ion carries a double negative charge. To keep the neutrality, the number of
hydrogen are twice than the number of soleplate ions. Similarly the ions produced
by complete ionization of 4.8g of H2 SO4 in water will have equal number of
positive and negative but the number of positively charged ions are twice the
number of negatively charged ions.
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(e) H2 SO4 2H+ + SO
K2 Cr O4 when ionizes in water produces two k+ ions one C O ion. Thus
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each formula unit of K2 Cr O4produces three ions in solution .Hence one mg of K2
e.c
Cr O4 has thrice the number of ion than the number of formula units ionized in
water.
(f) 2g of H2 =1 mole of H2 =6.02x1023 molecules of H2 at STP =22.414dm3 16g
of CH4 =1mole of CH4 =6.02x1023 molecules of CH4 at STP =22.414dm3 144g of
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CO2 =1mole of CO2 =6.02x1023 molecules of CO2 at STP =22.144dm3
Although H2 , CH4 and CO2 have different masses but they have the same
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number of moles and molecules . Hence the same number of moles or the same
number of molecules of different gases occupy the same volume at STP. Hence 2 g
of H2 ,16g of CH4 and 44 g of CO2 occupy the same volume 22.414 dm3 at STP.
The masses and the sizes of the molecules do not affect the volumes.
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Q10: Calculate each of the following quantities

(a) Mass in grams of 2.74 moles of KMnO4 .
(b) Moles of O atoms in 9.0g of Mg (NO3)2 .
(c) Number of O atoms in 10.037g of Cu SO4 .5H2 O.
w.a
(d) Mass in kilograms of 2.6x 1020 molecules of SO2 .

(e) Moles of C1 atoms in 0.822g C2H4C12 .
(f) Mass in grams of 5.136 moles of silver carbonate .
Mass in grams of 2.78x1021 molecules of CrO2 C12 .
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(g)
(h) Number of moles and formula units in 100g of KC1O3 .
(i) Number of K+ ions C1O ions, C1 atoms, and O atoms in (h)
Solution:
(a) No of moles of KMnO4 =2.74moles
formula mass of KMnO4 =39+55+64=158g mol -1
Mass of KMnO4 =?
Formula used:
Mass of KMnO4 = no of mole of KMnO4 x formula mass of KMnO4
=2.74 mol x 158 g mol-1
=432.92g Answer
(b) Mass of Mg (NO3)2 =9g

Formula mass of Mg (NO3)2 =24+28+96=148g mol -1
No of moles of O atoms =?
Formula used:
No of mole of Mg (NO3)2 =
Now, I mole of Mg (NO3)2 contains = 6moles of O atoms
0..06 moles of Mg (NO3)2contains =6x0.6
=0.36 moles of O atoms
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Alternatively,
148g of Mg (NO3)2 contains =6moles of O atoms
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g of Mg (NO3)2contains =
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=0.36 mole Answer
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(c) Mass of CuSO . 5H2O=10.037g
Formula mass of CuSO4. 5H2O=63.54+32+64+90
No of moles of CuSO4. 5H2O

fre =249.546g mol -1
=?
4
No of moles of CuSO . 5H2O =
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=
Now, 1 mole of CuSO4 .5H2O contains 9moles of O atoms
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0.04 mole of CuSO4 .5H2O contains=9x0.04

=0.36 moles of O atoms
Now, I mole of O atoms contains =6.02x1023 O atoms
0.36 mole of O atoms contains =6.02x1023 x0.36 oxygen
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atoms
=2.17x1023 oxygen atoms
=2.17x1023 atoms Answer
(d) No of molecules of SO2 . =2.6x1020 molecules
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Molecular mass of SO2 . =32+32=64 g mol-1

Now, Avogadro’s number , NA =6.02x1023 molecules of SO2
Mass of SO2 molecules
=27.64x10-3 g
=
=27.64x10-6 kg
=2.764x10-3 kg Answer
(e) Mass of C2 H4C1 = 0.822g
Molecular mass of C2 H4C1 =24+4+71=99 g mol-1

No of moles of C2 H4C1 =
Now, 1 mole of C2 H4C1 contains =2moles of C1 atoms
8.3x10-3mole of C2 H4C1 contains =2x8.3x10-3 mole of atom
=16.6x10-3
=0.0166mole of C1 atom
=0.017 mole Answer
(f) No of mole of Ag2 CO3 =5.136moles
=215.736+12+48=275.736 g mol-1
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Formula mass of Ag2 CO3
Mass of Ag2 CO3=No of moles of Ag2 CO3xformula mass of Ag2 CO3
=5.136molx275.736 g mol-1
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=416.18g
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=1416.2 g Answer
(g) Molecular mass of CrO2C12 =52+32+71=155g mol-1
NA =6.02x1023 molecules mol-1
Now, mass of CrO2C12

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Molecules of CrO2C12==2.78x1021 molecules
= =
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=71.578x10-2 g
=0.71578
=0.716 g Answer
(h) Mass of KCIO3 =100g
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Formula mass of KCIO3 =39x35.5+48=122g mol-1

No of moles of KCIO3 =?
w.a
No of moles of KCIO3 =
= =0.816mole Answer
No of formula units No of moles x Avogadro,s No
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=0.816mole x 6.02x1023 formula units

=4.91x1023 formula units
(i) No of K+ ions =4.91x1023 Answer
No of CIO ions =4.91x1023 Answer
No of CIO ions =4.91x1023 Answer
No of O atoms = 4.91x1023 x3
=14.73x1023 =1.473x1024 Answer
Q 11 Aspartame he artificial sweetener, has a molecular formula of C14 H18
N2O5 .
(a) What is the mass of one mole of aspartame?
(b) How many moles are present in 52g of aspartame?

(c) What is the mass in grams of 10.122 moles of aspartame?
(d) How many hydrogen atoms are present in 2.34g of aspartame?
(a) Molecular mass of aspartame =168+18+28+80=295g mol-1
Mass of 1 mole of aspartame =294g mol-1 Answer
(b) Mass of aspartame =52g
Molecular mass of aspartame =294g mol-1
m
No of moles of aspartame =
=
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=0.1768 mol
e.c
=0.177 mol Answer
(c) No moles of aspartame = 10.122 moles
Molecular mass of aspartame =294g mol-1
Mass of aspartame fre
=No of moles x Molar mass
=10.122mol x 294g mol-1
=2975.87 g Answer
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(d) Mass of aspartame =243g
Molar mass of aspartame =294g mol -1
No of molecules of aspartame=?
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No of molecules of aspartame= xNA

=
=
w.a
=4.98x1021 molecules.
Now,1 molecule of aspartame contains =18 H atoms
4.98x 1022 molecules =18x4.98x1021 H atoms
=89.64x1021H atoms
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=8.964x1022 H atoms Answer

Q 12: A sample of 0.600 mole of a metal M reacts completely with excess of
fluorine to from 46.8g MF2 .
(a) How many moles of F are present in the sample of MF2 that forms.
(b) which elements is represented by the symbol M ?
Solution:
(a) Formula of compound =MF2
No of moles of M =0.6 mol
Mass of MF2 =46.8g
The molar of M:F in the compounds;
No of moles of F =0.6x2=1.2mol Answer

Mass of F =No of moles of Fx At . mass of F
=1.2x19=22.8g
Mass of compound =46.8g
m
Mass of metal, M =46.8-22.8
=24
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e.c
At mass of M =
=
(b) fre
The atomic mass of the elements, M =40
The metal is calcium, Ca Answer
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Q 13 : In each pair , choose the larger of the indicated quantity ,or state if the
samples are equal.
(a) Individual particles: 0.4 mole of oxygen molecules or0.4mole of
oxygen atom.
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(b) Mass: 0.4 mole of ozone molecules or0.4mole of oxygen atoms

(c) Mass: 0.6 mole of C2 H4 or 0.6mole of 12
(d) Individual particles: 4.0g N2O4 or 3.3g SO2
(e) Total ions: 2.3 moles of NaC1O3 or 2.0mole of MgC12
w.a
(f) Molecules: 11.0g of H2Oor 11.0g H2O2

(g) Na+ ion: 0.500 moles of NaBr or 0.0145kg NaC1
(h) Mass: 6.02x1023 atoms of 235U or 6.02x1023 atoms of 238U
Ans:
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(a) Number of molecules =moles x NA

Number of O2 molecules =0.4x6.02x1023 =2.408x1023 molecules
No of O atoms=0.4x6.02x1023=2.108x1023 atoms
There are equal number of individual particles in 0.4 mole of oxygen
molecules and 0.4 mole of oxygen atom. In general, equal number of moles of
different substances contains equal number of particles.
Both are equal Answer
(b) Mass of substance = moles x molar mass
Mass of oxygen atoms =0.4x16=64g
Mass of ozone, O3 molecules =0.4x48=19.2g
0.4 moles of ozone molecules have larger mass than 0.4mole of oxygen atoms.
Ozone Answer
(c) Mass of C2H4 =0.6x28=1.68g
Mass of 12 =0.6x127=254g
0.6mole of 12 have larger mass than 0.6 mole of C2H4
12 Answers
(d) No of molecules =
m
No of molecules in N2 O4 = x6.02x1023 =2.62 x1023 molecules
No of molecules in SO2 =x6.02x1023 =3.1x1022 molecules
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3.3g of SO2 have larger number of individual particles than 4.0 g of N2 O4 .
SO2 Answer
e.c
(e) No of formula units =Moles x NA
3
No of formula units of NaC1O =2.3x6.02x1023=1.38x1024 formula
units
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No of ions in 1 formula units of NaC1O3=2
Total no of ions in MgC12 =2x1.38x1023=2.76x1024 ions
No of formula units of MgC12 =2.0x6.02x1023 x3=3.6x1024 ions
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No .of ions in one formula unit of MgC12 =3
Total no of ions in MgC12 =1.20x1024 x3=3.6x1024 ions
2.0moles of MgC12 contain lager number of total ions than 2.3 moles of NaC1o3-
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MgC1 Answer
(f) No of molecules = NA
w.a
No of molecules in H2 O2 = x6.02x1023=3.68x1023 molecules
No of molecules in H2 O2 = x6.02x1023=1.95x1023 molecules

11.0g of H2 O2contains larger number of molecules than 11.0g of H2 O2
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H2 O2Answer
(g) No of formula units =moles xNA
No of formula units NaBr =0.5x6.02x1023=3.01x1023 formula units
One formula units o NaBr contain Na+ ions =1
3.01 x1023 formula unit of NaBr contains Na +ions =3.01x1023 Na+ ions
No of formula units of NaC1 = x6.02x1023 =1.49x1023formula

units
One formula unit of NaC1 contains Na+ ions =1
1.49x1023 formula units of NaC1 contains =1.49x1023 Na+ ions
0.500 moles of NaBr contains lager number of Na+ ions than 0.0145kg ofNaC1.
NaBr Answer
(h) Mass of atoms of an element =
Mass of 235Uatoms =x6.02x1023 =235g
Mass of 238U atoms =x6.02x1023=238g
238
U Answer
Q 13:
(a) Calculate the percentage of nitrogen in the four important fertilizer i.e.,
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(i)NH3 (ii)NH2CONH2(Urea) (iii)(NH4)2SO4 (iv)NH4 NO3
(b) Calculate the percentage of nitrogen and phosphorus in each of the
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following:
(i) NH4H2PO4 (ii) (NH4)) PO4 (iii) (NH4)4 PO4
e.c
Solution:
(a) Mol-mass of NH3 =14+4=17g
Mass of N =14g
% of N fre
=82.35% Answer
=x100
(b) Mol-mass of NH2 CONH2 =28+4+12+16=60g

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Mass of N =28g
%of N =x100
=46.35% Answer
(c) Mol-mass of (NH2 )2 SO4 =28+8+32+64=132g
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Mass of N =28g
% of N =x100
=21.21% Answer
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(d) Mol-mass of (NH2 )2 SO4 =28+4+48=80g

Mass of N =28g
%of N =x100
=35% Answer
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(I) Mol-mass of (NH2 )2 SO4 =14+6+31+64=115g

Mass of N =14g
Mass of P =31g
%of N =x100=12.17% Answer
%of P ==26.96% Answer
(II) Mol-mass of ((NH2 )2 SO4 =28+9+31+64=132g
Mass of N =28g
Mass of P =
%of N = =21.21% Answer
%of P = =23.48% Answer
(III) Mol-mass of (NH2 )2 SO4 =42+12+31+64=149g
Mass of N =42g
Mass of P =31g
%of N =
%of P =
Q 14: Glucose C6 H12 O6 is the most important nutrient in the cell for generating
chemical potential energy. Calculate the mass% of each element in glucose and
determine the number of C,H and O atoms in 10.5g go the sample.
m
Solution:
Mol-mass of glucose C6 H12 O6 =72+12+96=180g
o
Mass of C =72
Mass of H =12
e.c
Mass of O =96
% of C = =40% Answer
% of H = =6.66% Answer
% of O
Mass of C6 H12 O6
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= =53.33% Answer
=10.5g
Mol-mass of C6 H12 O6 =180g
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Mol-mass of =180g mol-1
No of moles of C6 H12 O6 =
No of molecules of glucose =No of moles x NA
=0.058 molx 6.02x1023 molecules mol-1
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=0.35x1023 molecules
=3.5x1022 molecules
Now, 1 molecule of glucose contains =6C-atoms
w.a
22
3.4x10 molecules of glucose contains =6x3.5x1022 C-atoms
=21x1022 =2.1x1023 C atoms Answer
1 molecules of glucose contains =12H-atoms
3.5x10 molecules glucose contains =12x3.5x1022
22
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=4.2x1023 H- atoms Answer

1 molecule of glucose contains =6 O –atoms
22
3.5 x 10 molecules of glucose contains =6x3.5x1022
=2.1x1023 O-atoms Answer
Q 16: Ethylene glycol is used as automobile antifreeze .It has 38.7% carbon,
9.7% hydrogen and 51.6% oxygen. Its molar mass is 62.1 grams mol -1 .Determine
its molecular formula.
Solution:
% of C=38.37 g % of H =9.7g % of O=51.6g
-1 -1
At. Mass of C=12g mol At. Mass of H=1.008g mol At. Mass of O =16g
-1
mol
No of moles of C =
No of moles of H =
No of moles of O =
Atomic ratio is obtained by dividing the moles with 3.23, which is the smallest
ratio.
C :H :O
m
1 :3 :1
o
3
Empirical formula =CH O
Empirical formula mass =31
e.c
n=
Molecular formula =2x CH3 O
fre=C2 H6 O2 Answer
Q 16: Serotonin (Molecular mass= 176g mol-1 ) is a compound that conducts
nerve impulses in brain and muscles. It contains 68.2 % C, 6.86% H, and 9.08%
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O. What is its molecular formula?
Solution:
No of moles of C =
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No of moles of H =
No of moles of N =
No of moles of O =
C : H : N : O
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Atomic : : :
Ratio
10 : 12 : 2 : 1
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Empirical formula =C10 H12 N2 O

Empirical formula mass =120+12+28+16=176g mol-1
Molecular mass =176g mol-1
n=
Q17: An unknown metal M reacts with S to from a compound with a formula
M2S3 .If 3.12 g of M reacts with exactly 2.88 g of sulphur, what are the names of
metal M and the compound M2 S3 .
Solution:
Formula of compound = M2 S3
Mass of M =3.12g
Mass of S =2.88g
Atomic mass of S =32g mol-1

No of moles of S =
No of moles of S =
The molar ratio of M: S in the compound is :
o m
No of moles of M =
e.c
=0.06 mole
Now, No of moles of M =
At. Mass M = fre

The mass of M used in the formation of M2S3 is 3.12g. The product M2S3 therefore
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also contains 3.12g of M, because mass is conserved. The amount of M before and
after reaction must be the same. Since we know both the number of moles of M
and the mass of M , we can cal calculate the atomic mass of M as follows:
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At. Mass of M =
=52
Atomic number, Z =52
Q19: The octane present in gasoline burns according to the following equation.
w.a
2C8 H18 (i) + 2502(g) 16CO 2(g) + 18H2O (i)

(a) How many moles of O2 are needed to react fully with 4 moles of
actane?
(b) How many moles of CO2 can be produced from one mole of actane?
ww
(c) How many moles of water are produced by the combustion of 6 moles
of octane?
(d) If this reaction is to be used to synthesize 8 moles of CO 2 how many
grams of oxygen are needed? How many grams of octane will be used?
Solution:
4 moles
2C8 H18 (i) + 2502(g) 16CO 2(g) + 18H2O (i)
2 moles 25 moles
(a)
2 moles of C8 H18 =25 moles of O2
4 moles of C8 H18 =
=50moles of O2 Answer
(b) 1 moles
2C8 H18 (i) + 2502(g) 16CO 2(g) + 18H2O (i)
2 moles
Now, 2 moles of C8 H18 =16 moles of CO2

1 mole of C8 H18 =
=8 moles of CO2 Answer
(c) 6 moles
m
2C8 H18 (i) + 2502(g) 16CO 2(g) + 18H2O (i)
2 moles
o
Now, 2 moles of C8 H18 =18 moles of H2 O(i)
6 moles of C8 H18 =
e.c
=54 moles of H2 O
(d) 6 moles
2C8 H18 (i) + 2502(g) 16CO 2(g) + 18H2O (i)
2 moles
Now, 16 moles of CO2

fre 1800moles
=25 moles of O2
8 moles of CO2 =
line
=12.5 moles of CO2
Mol-mass of O2 =32g mol-1
=12.5 molx 32g mol-1
=400g of O2
llon
Now, 16moles of CO2 =2moles of C8 H18

8 moles of CO2 =
=1 mole of C8 H18
w.a
Mol-mass of C8 H18 =96+18=114g mol-1

Mass of C8 H18 =No of moles of C8 H18xMol.mass ofC8
H18 =1 molx 114 g mol-1
114g Answer
ww
Q19: Calculate the number of grams of A12 S3 which can be prepared by the
reaction of 20 g of A1 and 30 g of sulphur. How much the non-limiting reaction is
in excess?
Solution:
Mass of A1 =20g
Molar mass of A1 =27g mol-1
No of moles of A1 =
Mass of S = 30g
Molar mass of S =32g mol-1
No of moles of S =
0.74 mole 0.94 mole
2A1 + 3S A12 S3
2 mole 3 mole 1 mole
Now, 2 moles of A1 =1 mole of A12 S3

0.74 moles of A1 =
=0.37 mole of A12 S3
Now, 3 moles of S =1 moles of A12 S3
0.94 moles of S =
=0.313 mole of A12 S3
m
Since S give the least number of moles of A12 S3 therefore, it is the limiting
reactant.
o
No of moles of A12 S3 =0.313 mole
Molar mass of A12 S3 =150g mol-1
e.c
Mass of A12 S3=No of moles of A12 S3xMolar mass of A12 S3
=0.313molx 150 g mol-1
=46.95 g of A12 S3 Answer
fre
The non-limiting reactant is A1 which is in excess. Now mass of A1 required
reacting completely with 0.94 moles of S can be calculated as:
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0.94 mole
2A1 + 3S A12 S3
2 mole 3 mole
Now, 3 moles of S =2 moles of A1

0.94 moles of S =
llon
=
Mass of A1 =No of moles of A1 x molar mass of A1
=0.63x 27
w.a
=17g of A1
Mass of A1available =20g
Mass of A1 which reacts completely =17g with available S
Excess of A1 =20-17=3g
ww
Q20: A mixture of two liquids, hydrazine N2H4 and N2 O4 are used as a fuel in
rockets. They produce N2 and water vapors. How many grams of N2 gas will be
formed by reacting 100g of N2 O4 and 200g g of N2 O4.
2N2H4 + N2O2 3N2 +4 H2O
Solution:
Mass of2N2H4 =100g
Mass of N2O2 =200g
Molar mass of 2N2H4 =28+4=32g mol-1
Molar mass of N2O2 =28+64=92g mol-1
No of moles of N2H4 =
No of moles of N2O2 =
3.125moles 2.174 moles

2N2H4 + N2O2 3N2 +4 H2O
2 moles 1mole 3moles
Now , 2moles of N2H4 =3moles of N2

3.125moles of N2H4 =
=4.69 mole of N2
Now , 1 mole of N2O2 =3moles of N2
2.174 moles of N2O4 =
m
=6.52 mole of N2O2
Since N2H4gives the least number of moles of N2, hence it is the limiting reactant.
o
Amount of N2 produced =4.69 moles
2
Molar mass of N =28g mol-1
e.c
Mass of N2 =4.69g molx 28g mol-1
=131032 g Answer
Q21: Silicon carbide (SiC) is an important ceramic material . It is produced by
3C
fre
allowing sand (SiO2 )to react with carbon at high temperature.
SiO2 + SiC + 2CO
When 100kg sand isn reacted with excess of carbon, 51.4 kg of Sic is produced.
line
Solution:
Mass of SiO2 =100 kg=100000g
Mass of SiC produced =5.14 kg =51400g
llon
100000g
SiO2 + 3C SiC + 2CO
60g 40g
Now, 60g of SiO2 =40g of SiC

w.a
100000g of SiO2 =
=66666.67 g
Actual yield of Sic =51400 g
Theoretical yield of SiC =66666.67g
ww
% yield =
=
=77.1%
Q22: (a) What is Stoichiometry? Give its assumptions? Mention two
important law, which help to perform the Stoichiometry calculations.
(b) What is a limiting reactant? How does it control the quantity of
the product formed? Explain with three examples
Q 23: (a) Define yield. How do we calculate the percentage yield of a
chemical reaction?
(b) What are the factors which are mostly responsible for the low yield
of the products in chemical reactions.
Q24: Explain the following with reasons.

(j) Law of conservation of mass has to be obeyed during Stoichiometric
calculations.
(ii) Many chemical reactions taking place in our surrounding involves the
limit reactants.
(iii) No individual neon atom in the sample of the element has a mass of
20.18amu.
(iv) One mole of H2 SO4 should completely react with two moles of NaOH.
m
How does Avogadro, s number help to explain it.
(v) One mole H2 O has two moles of bonds , three moles of atoms , ten
o
moles of electrons and twenty eight moles of the total fundamental particles
present in it.
e.c
(vi) N2 and CO have the same number of electrons, protons and neutrons.
Ans. (i) According to law of conservation of mass, the amount of each
element is conserved in a chemical reaction. Chemical equations are written
fre
and balanced on the basis of law of conversation of mass. Stoichiometry
calculations are related with the amounts of reactants and products in a
balanced chemical equation. Hence, law of conservation of mass has to be
line
obeyed during stoichiometric calculations.
(ii) In our surrounding many chemical reactions are taking place which
involve oxygen. In these reactions oxygen in always in excess quantity while
other reactant are in lesser amount. Thus other reactants act as limiting
llon
reactants.
(iii) Since the overall atomic mass of neon in the average of the determined
atomic masses of individual isotopes present in the sample of isotopic
w.a
mixture .Hence, no individual neon atom in the sample has a mass of

20.18amu.
(iv) H2 SO4 +2NaOH Na2 SO4 + 2H2 O
1 mole 2moles
ww
2 moles of H+ ions 2 moles of OH ions

2x6.02x1023 H+ ions 2x6.02x1023 OH ions
Once mole of H2SO4 consists of 2 moles of H+ ions that contains twice the
Avogadro’s number of H+ ions. For complete neutralization it needs 2 moles
of one mole of H2 SO4 should completely react with two moles of NA OH.
(v) Since one molecule of H2O has two covalent bonds between H and O
atoms. Three atoms, ten electrons and twenty eight total fundamental
particles present in it. Hence, one mole of H2 O has two moles of bond, three
moles of atoms, ten moles of electrons and twenty eight moles of total
fundamental particle present in it.
In N2 there are 2 N atoms which contain 14 electrons (2x7),14 protons (2x7) and 14
neutrons (2x7) . In CO, there are one carbon and one oxygen atoms. It contains 14
electrons (6carbon e +8 oxygen e), 14 protons (6 C proton +8 O proton ) and 14
neutrons (6 neutrons +8 O neutrons).Hence , N2 and CO have the same number of
electrons, protons and neutrons. Remember that electrons, protons and neutrons of
atoms remain conserved during the formation of molecules in a ch emical reaction.
o m
e.c
fre
line
llon
w.a
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1st year n0tes chemistry new
Chapter No. 2
EXPERIMENTAL TECHNIQUES IN CHEMISTRY
m
MCQs
o
Q.1 Science of the chemical characterization is stand under the heading of
e.c
(a) industrial chemistry (b) experimental chemistry
(c) analytical chemistry (d) physical chemistry
Q.2
(a)
fre
Several types of filter media are used for filtration depending on
nature of reaction (b) nature of reactants
(c) nature of precipitate (d) nature of filter paper
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Q.3 Filtration by a glass funnel and filter paper is very
(a) time consuming (b) difficult
(c) fast (d) accurate
Q.4 Date of filtration through conical funnel can be considerably
llon
increased by using
(a) fine filter paper (b) ordinary filter paper
(c) fluted filter (d) under suction crucible
w.a
Q.5 Gooch crucible is used to filter the solution of

(a) K2Cr2O7 (b) KMnO4
(c) KOH (d) under suction crucible
Q.6 Basic principles of crystallization is that solute should be soluble in a
ww
suitable solution at
(a) freezing temperature (b) room temperature
(c) high temperature (d) low temperature
Q.7 Premature crystallization of solution of filter paper or in funnel can
be avoided
(a) filtering hot saturated solution using hot funnel
(b) filling warm solution
(c) quick filtration
(d) filtering cold solution
Q.8 Safe and reliable method of drying crystal in through
(a) pressing it between folds of filter paper
1
(b) drying it in oven

(c) evaporation of solution
(d) vacuum desiccator
Q.9 In solvent extraction solute can be separated from solution by shaking the
solution with solvent which the solute is
(a) more soluble (b) partially soluble
(c) insoluble (d) soluble at high
m
temperature
Q.10 Repeated extraction using small portions of solvent are more
o
(a) accurate (b) efficient
e.c
(c) slow (d) rapid
Q.11 To achieve a good separation the two liquids are gently shaken to
increase their area of
Q.12
(a)
(c)
miscibility
contact fre (b)
(d)
separation
solubility
Chromatography in which stationary phase is solid is called
line
(a) partition chromatography
(b) paper chromatography
(c) high pressure
(d) adsorption chromatography
llon
Q.13 Chromatography involves these distribution of a solution between

(a) two stationary phase
(b) two mobile phase
(c) a stationary phase and a mobile phase
w.a
(d) two stationary and two mobile phase

Q.14 Chromatography in which the stationary phase is liquid is called
(a) partition chromatography
ww
(b) descending chromatography

(c) column chromatography
(d) Adsorption chromatography
Q.15 In paper chromatography the rate at which solutes move depends on
(a) distribution law (b) distribution coefficients
(c) law of partial pressure (d) law of specific proportion
Q.16 Solvent extraction is an equilibrium process and it is controlled by
(a) law of mass action (b) the amount of solvent
used
(c) distribution law (d) the amount of solute
2
Q.17 The comparative rates at which the solutes move in paper

chromatography depend on
(a) the size of paper used
(b) Rf values of solutes
(c) temperature of the experiment
(d) size of the chromatographic tank used
Q.18 A filtration process could be very time consuming if it were not aided by
m
the gentle suction, which is developed
(a) if the paper covers the funnel up to its circumference
o
(b) if the paper has got small sized pores in it
e.c
(c) if the stem of the funnel is large so that it dips into the filtrate
(d) if the paper fits tightly
Q.19 Solvent extraction method is particularly useful technique for separation,
when product to be separated is
(a)
(b)
fre
non–volatile or thermally unstable
volatile or thermally stable
line
(c) non volatile or thermally stable
(d) non–volatile or thermally unstable
Q.20 During the process of crystallization, the hot saturated solution
(a) is cooled very slowly to get large sized crystals
llon
(b) is cooled at a moderate rate to get medium sized crystals

(c) is evaporated to get the pure crystals of the product
(d) is mixed with an immiscible liquid, to get the pure
crystals of the product
w.a
Q.21 Aqueous solution of iodine is prepared first by dissolving which

compound in water
(a) KBr (b) KI
ww
(c) KCl (d) NaCl

Q.22 The meaning of chromatos
(a) colour writing (b) colour writing
(c) colour forming (d) colour spreading
Q.23 Which is not common way of carrying chromatography
(a) ascending (b) descending
(c) radial/circular (d) spreading irregularly
Q.24 In paper chromatography the stationary phase is
(a) water (b) organic liquid
(c) inorganic liquid (d) none of the above
Q.25 In paper chromatography the mobile phase is
3
(a) organic liquid (b) water

(c) inorganic liquid (d) none of the above
ANSWERS
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
m
Answers c c a c b
o
Answers c a d a b
e.c
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers c d c a b
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers
Questions
c
21
freb
22
d
23
d
24
b
25
Answers b a d a a
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w.a
ww
4
Chapter No. 2
m
SHORT QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
o
Q.1 Define analytical chemistry ?
e.c
Ans.
The branch of chemistry which deals with the qualitative and
quantitative analyses of sample is called analytical chemistry.
Q.2
Ans.
fre
Define analysis and analyte ?
Analysis:
The determination of the composition of a sample is called
line
analysis.
Analyte:
The sample being analyzed is called analyte.
llon
Q.3 Differentiate between qualitative and quantitative analysis.

What is analytical data ?
Ans. Qualitative analysis:
w.a
The analysis which deals with the detection or identification of

the elements present in a compound is called qualitative analysis. It
includes salt analysis and detection of functional groups.
Quantitative analysis:
ww
The analysis in which the relative amounts of constituents are

estimated is called quantitative analysis. For example combustion
analysis.
Analytical data:
The results obtained by qualitative and quantitative analysis
are called analytical data.
Q.4 Name the experimental techniques for purification of
substances ?
Ans.
1
(1) Filtration.
(2) Crystalization.
(3) Sublimation.
(4) Solvent Extraction.
(5) Chromatography.
Q.5 Define filtration ?
m
Ans.
The process in which the insoluble particles are separated from
o
the liquid by passing through several types of filter media is called
e.c
filtration.
Q.6 Define the following.
(i) Filter (ii) Filtrate (iii) Residue
Ans.
(iv) Filter Medium.
Filter:
fre
line
Any water insoluble porous material having measurable
degree of rigidity is called filtrate.
Filtrate:
llon
The liquid which after passing the mixture through filter

medium is collected is called filtrate.
Residue:
The solid left behind on the filter medium during filtration is
w.a
called residue.
Filter medium:
The porous material used for filtration is called filter medium.
ww
It may be filter paper, cotton, woven wire, cloth etc.

Q.7 Give reasons that the funnel in filtration should be several
inches long ?
Ans.
The stem of the funnel should be several inches long so that it
can extend a few centimeters down into the receiving beaker and tip
should touch the side of beaker in order to avoid splashing.
2
Q.8 Discus the points should be kept in mind during the folding
of the filter paper ?
Ans.
1. Filter paper should be folded twice. The first fold should
be along the diameter, and the second fold should be such that
m
edges do not quite match.
2. Folded filter paper should be open slightly on the larger
o
section. This provides a cone with three fold thickness half way
e.c
and one thickness the other half way round.
3. The apex angle is greater than 60o.
4. The paper may be inserted in to 60 degree funnel
Q.9
fre
moistened with water and firmly pressed down.
Rate of filtration through funnel can be increased by using
line
a fluted filter paper why ?
Ans.
A fluted filter paper is prepared by folding ordinary filter
llon
paper in such a way that fan like arrangement with alternate elevation
and depression at various folds is formed.
Q.10 Differentiate b/w Gooch crucible and sintered glass
crucible.
w.a
Ans.
(i) The filtering process can be done of the Gooch crucible is
placed in suction filtering apparatus. But in filtration by sintered
ww
glass crucible no preparation is needed.

(ii) The reagents which react with paper e.g. HCl, KMnO4 etc.
Cannot be filtered through Gooch crucible. But reactive solution
like HCl, KMnO4 can be filtered with out any alteration in the
sintered crucible.
(iii) Gooch Crucible for filtration of such types of precipitates
which need to be heated at high temperature. But in sintered
crucible while collecting the residue there is no contamination of
filter paper.
3
Q .11 Define crystallization.

Ans.
The removal of a solid from solution by increasing its
m
concentration above the saturation point in such a way that the excess
solid separates out in the form of crystals is called crystallization.
o
Q.12 What is the principle of crystallization?
e.c
Ans.
The basic principle of crystallization is the fact that solute
should be soluble in a suitable solvent at high temperature and the
Q.13
fre
excess amount of the solute is thrown out as crystals when it is cooled.
What is the objective of crystallization ?
line
Ans.
The preparation of chemical compound usually has a crude
product and there is a need to purify it by crystallization from a suitable
llon
solvent
Q.14 Name the solvents commonly used for crystallization.
Ans.
The solvents which are mostly used for crystallization are,
w.a
water, rectified spirit, (95% ethanol), absolute ethanol, diethylether

acetone, chloroform, carbon tetrachloride, acetic acid and petroleum
ether.
ww
If none of the above solvents is found suitable for

crystallization, a combination of two or more miscible solvents may be
employed.
Q.15 Describe the preparation of saturated solution ?
Ans.
After selecting a suitable solvent the substance is then
dissolved in a minimum amount of solvent and is heated directly or on a
water bath with constant stirring. Add more solvent to the boiling
solution, if necessary until all the solute has dissolved.
4
Q.16 What are the safe and reliable methods for drying the
crystals ?
Ans.
1. Drying through vacuum desiccator
A safe and reliable method of drying crystals is through a
vacuum desiccator. In this process the crystals are spread over water
m
glass and kept in a vacuum desiccator for several hours. In the desiccator
CaCl2, silica gel or P2O5 are used as drying agents
o
2. Drying in an oven
e.c
The crystals are dried in an oven provided the substance does
not melt or decompose on heating at 1000c.
Q.17 How the undesirable colours are removed in crystals ?
Ans. fre
Sometimes during the preparation of crude substance, the
line
colouring matter or resinous products affect the appearance of product
and it may appear coloured. Such impurities are conveniently removed
by boiling the substance in a solvent with the sufficient quantity of
llon
finely powdered animal charcoal and the pure decolourized substance

crystallizes out from the filtrate on cooling.
Q.18 Define mother liquor? How the crystals can be obtained
from mother liquor ?
w.a
Ans.
The remaining solution after the formation of crystals is called
mother liquor.
ww
1. The mixture of crystals and mother liquor is filtered

through a Gooch crucible connected with a vacuum pump.
2. After full suction to drain the mother liquor as
effectively as possible. When the filter is rigid enough it is pressed
carefully but by firmly by means of a cork in order to drain the left
over liquid.
3. The crystals are then washed will small portion of cold
solvent repeating this process many times.
5
4. The crude mother liquor is concentrated by evaporation

and it get good crops of crystals.
Q.19 Define sublimation.
Ans.
When substance is heated it goes directly in to vapours
without passing through the liquid state and vapours thus formed are
m
condensed back it form the solid on cooling once again with out passing
though liquid state is called sublimation.
o
Examples of such solids are iodine, ammonium chloride,
e.c
naphthalene , benzoic acid and camphor.
Q.20 What is sublimand ?
Ans.
fre
The compound which is sublimed is called sublimand.e.g In
the mixture of benzoic acid in sand, benzoic acid is sublimand.
line
Q.21 What is the main function and limitation of sublimation ?
Ans.
By this process of sublimation certain substance can be
llon
purified. It is only suitable for those substances which have high V.P
than their melting point.
Q.23 What is solvent extraction? When it is applicable ?
Ans.
w.a
It is a technique, in which a solute can be separated from a

solution by shaking the solution with a solvent in which the solute is
more soluble and added solvent does not mix with the solution.
ww
The technique of solvent extraction is mostly applied to

separate organic compounds from water.
Q.24 What is the most common solvent in solvent
extraction method? Why we choose ether in solvent extraction?
Ans.
The common solvent is ether in the solvent extraction we
choose ether in the solvent extraction because ether layer is separated
and organic product is obtained by evaporating ether repeated
6
extractions using small portions of solvent ether are more efficient than
using single but larger volume of solvent.
Q.25 State distribution law or partition law ?
Ans.
Distribution law:
This law states that a solute distribute itself between two
m
immiscible liquids in a constant ratio irrespective of the amount of solute
added.
o
The ration of the amounts of solute dissolved in two
e.c
immiscible liquids at equilibrium is called distribution coefficient.
Distribution coefficient KD =
Q.26 Discuss the importance of solvent extraction method.
Ans. fre
Separation can be carried out on macro as well as micro level.
line
2. There is no need of any instrumentation except separating
funnel.
3. It can be used for preparation, purification and analysis on all
llon
scales of working.
Q.27 Define chromatography? What is the principle of
chromatography?
Ans.
w.a
Chromatography is a technique used for separating the

components of a mixture. These components are separated due to the
relative affinity for stationary phase and mobile phase.
ww
Q.28 Define and explain, stationary phase and mobile phase.

Ans.
Stationary phase:
The phase over which mobile phase flows in chromatography
is called stationary phase.
The stationary phase may be a solid or liquid supported on a
solid. It adsorbs the mixture under separation.
Examples of stationary phase are silica gel, alumina and filter
paper etc.
7
Mobile phase:
The solvent or mixture of solvents for this separation of
components is called mobile phase.
The mobile phase may be liquid or gas and while passing one
the stationary phase, competes with it for the constituents of mixture.
Examples of mobile phase are, water, ethanol, ethanoic acid
m
and propanone (acetone) etc.
o
e.c
Q.29 What is the principle of chromatography ?
Ans.
fre
The principle involved in the chromatography depends upon
the relative solubilities of the components, between the two phases. The
line
distribution of the components mixture between the two phases is
governed by the distribution coefficient KD, which is ratio of component
in mobile phase to the concentration of component in stationary phase.
llon
KD =
Q.30 What is the importance of distribution coefficient ?
Ans.
(i) The component of a mixture with a small value of KD
w.a
mostly remains in the stationary phase as moving phase flows over

it.
The component with a greater value of KD remains largely
ww
dissolved in the mobile phase and passes over the stationary phase
quickly.
Q.31 Differentiate between adsorption chromatography and
partition chromatography ?
Ans. Adsorption chromatography:
Type of Chromatography in which the stationary phase is
solid, is called adsorption chromatography. Example of this
chromatography is Thin layer chromatography.
Q.32 What is partition chromatography ?
8
Ans. Partition chromatography:

Type of Chromatography in which the stationary phase is
liquid is called partition chromatography. Example of this
chromatography is paper chromatography.
Q.33 Define and explain paper chromatography ?
Ans.
m
It is a technique of partition chromatography in which the
stationary phase is water adsorbed on a paper. The mobile phase is
o
usually an organic liquid.
e.c
In paper chromatography the adsorbed water behaves as an
immiscible liquid towards the mobile phase, which passes over the
paper.
Q.34
Ans.
fre
Name the different ways of paper chromatography.
line
There are three ways of carrying out paper chromatography.
(i) Ascending chromatography
(ii) Descending chromatography
llon
(iii) Radial/Circular chromatography.

Q.35 What do you mean by Rf value?
Ans.
Each component has specific retardation factor called Rf
w.a
value. Rf value is related to distribution coefficient and is given by

Rf =
Q.37 What is chromatogram ?
ww
Ans. Finished or Devolped paper obtained after Chromatography is

called Chromatogram:
Q.38 Name the types of chromatography on the basis of phase.
Ans.
There are four types of chromatography.
(i) Liquid–liquid chromatography
(ii) Liquid–solid chromatography
(iii) Gas–liquid chromatography
(iv) Gas–solid chromatography
9
Q.39 Give uses of chromatography.

Ans.
The techniques of chromatography is very useful in organic
synthesis for separation, isolation, and purification of the products.
Mostly used for the separation of amino acids.
Q.40 Why is there a need to crystallize the crude products ?
m
Ans.
When a chemical compound is synthesised, it is crude product.
o
Therefore, there is need to purify the compound. This is done by
e.c
crystallizing the compound.
Q.41 A water soluble organic compound aspirin is prepared by
the reaction of salicylic acid with a mixture of acetic acid and acetic
fre
anhydride. How will you separate the product from the reaction
mixture ?
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Ans.
During the preparation of aspirin, it is obtained as only liquid
which can be separated by solvent extraction technique using a non–
polar solvent like CCl4 and mixture is transferred to separating funnel
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where only layer is separated.

Q.42 A solid compound is soluble in water as well as in
chloroform. During its preparation it remains in aqueous layer.
w.a
Describe a method to obtain it from the layer.

Ans.
The compound can be extracted by solvent extraction
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technique. As it is mentioned that compound is soluble in polar solvents

(water, chloroform). If a non–polar solvent is mixed and the mixture is
transferred to a separating funnel, where two layers are formed. By
separating water layer and evaporating it, organic compound is obtained.
Q.43 why repeated extractions using small portions of solvent are
more efficient than using a single but larger volume of solvent?
Ans.
It has been observed that repeated extractions using small
portions of solvent are more efficient than using a single but larger
10
volume of solvent. Because more product is extracted with more

extractions using small portions of solvent.
Q.44 Write down the main characteristics of a solvent selected
for the crystallization of compound.
Ans.
A solvent should have the following characteristics
m
1. It should dissolve a large amount of solute in its boiling part.
2. It should have not reaction with the solute.
o
3. It should neither dissolve the impurities, nor crystallize them
e.c
with the solute.
4. It should be perfectly safe to use.
5. It should be easily removable.
6. fre
It should be inexpensive.
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w.a
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11
Chapter No. 2
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TEXT BOOK EXERCISE
o
Q.1. Multiple choice questions.
e.c
i. Filtration process could be very time consuming if it were not
aided by a gentle suction which is developed:
(a) fre
if the paper covers the funnel upto its circumference.
(b) if the paper has got small sized pores in it.
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(c) if the stem of the funnel is large so that it dips into the
filtrate.
(d) if the paper fits tightly.
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ii. During the process of crystallization, the hot saturated solution:
(a) is cooled very slowly to get large sized crystals

w.a
(b) is cooled at a moderate rate to get medium sized crystals

(c) is evaporated to get the crystals of the product.
(d) is mixed with an immiscible liquid to get the pure
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crystals of the product.
iii. Solvent extraction is an equilibrium process and it is controlled by.
(a) law of mass action

(b) the amount of solvent used
(c) distribution law
(d) the amount of solute
1
iv. Solvent extraction method is a particularly useful technique for

separation when the product to be separated is:
(a) non-volatile or thermally unstable

(b) volatile or thermally stable
(c) non-volatile or thermally stable
m
(d) volatile or thermally unstable
o
v. The comparative rates at which the solutes move in paper
e.c
chromatography depend on:
(a) the size of paper

(b)
(c) fre
Rf-value of solutes
temperature of the experiment
(d) size of the chromatographic tank used
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Ans: (i) d (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d (v) b
Q.2. Fill in the blanks.
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i. A complete chemical characterization of a compound must include

________.
ii. During filtration the tip of the stem of the funnel should touch the
side of the beaker to avoid ________.
w.a
iii. A fluted fuller paper is used to ________ the process of filtration.

iv. A solvent used for crystallization is required to dissolve ________
of the substance at its boiling point and _________ at the room
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temperature.
v. Repeated solvent extractions using small portions of solvent are
________.
Ans: (i) qualitative & quantitative analysis (ii) splashing (iii)

increase (iv) large amount, small amount (v) more efficient
Q.3. Tick the correct sentences. If the sentence is incorrect,
write the correct statements.
2
i. A qualitative analysis involves the identification of elements

present in a compound.
ii. If the process of filtration is to run smoothly, the stem of the funnel
should remain empty.
iii. If none of the solvents is found suitable for crystallization, a
combination of two or more immiscible solvents may be used.
m
iv. A solute distributes itself between two immiscible liquids in a
constant ratio of concentrations depending upon the amount of
o
solvent added.
e.c
v. Paper chromatography is a technique of partition chromatography.
Ans: (i) true (ii) false (iii) true (iv) false (v) true
Q.4.
Ans:
fre
Why is there a need to crystallize the crude product?
When a compound is prepared in laboratory, it may contain
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impurities. This impure and un-refined compound is called crude
product. It is necessary to purify the crude product. So there is a
need to crystallize the crude product.
Q.5. A water insoluble organic compound aspirin is prepared by
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the reaction of salicylic acid with a mixture of acetic acid and

acetic anhydride. How will you separate the product from the
reaction mixture?
w.a
Ans: Aspirin is separated from reaction mixture is added to cold

water. The aspirin forms crystals and other products remain in
solution. Finally aspirin is filtered from water by sintered glass
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crucible.
Q.6. A solid organic compound is soluble in water as well as in
chloroform. During its preparation, it remains in aqueous
layer. Describe a method to obtain it from this layer.
Ans: The organic compound can be extracted by solvent extraction.
The aqueous solution of compound is mixed with carbon
tetrachloride (CCl4). The mixture is put into the separating funnel.
Here two layers are formed. The water layer is separated and
evaporated to get the compound.
3
Q.7. The following figure shows a developed chromatogram on

paper with five spots. (i) Unknown mixture X (ii) Sample A
(iii) Sample B (iv) Sample C (v) Sample D
Find out (i) the composition of mixture X (ii) which sample is
impure & what is its composition.
Ans: The unknown mixture X contains the components B and C.
m
The sample D is impure. It contains components A and C. We
should know that a pure sample give only one spot. The samples A
o
and C are pure.
e.c
Q.8. In solvent extraction technique, why repeated extraction
using small portions of solvent are more efficient than using a
single extraction but larger volume of solvent?
Ans: fre
The solvent extraction technique is based upon distribution
coefficient. The ratio of concentration of a solute dissolved in two
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immiscible solvents is a constant. It is called distribution
coefficient.
In repeated extractions, we can get maximum amount of solute
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from the other solvent. It is the reason that repeated extractions

using small portions of solvent are more efficient than using a
single extraction but larger volume of solvent.
w.a
Q.9. Write down the main characteristics of a solvent selected

for crystallization of a compound.
Ans: The process of crystals formation is called crystallization.
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When a hot saturated solution of a substance is cooled, then

crystals of solid substance separate out. It is called crystallization.
This process is used for purification of solid compounds. E.g.
Purification of Naphthalene. The process of crystallization
involves the following steps.
i. Choice of Solvent:
A suitable solvent is choosen by hit and trial method. An ideal
solvent has following properties
i. It should dissolve maximum amount of solute.

4
ii. It should not react with solute.

iii. It should not dissolve the impurities.
iv. On cooling, it should form pure crystals
v. It should be cheap (in-expensive)
vi. It should be easily removable.
vii. Its use should be safe
m
viii. An inflammable solvent should be heated on water bath. The most
common solvents are water, rectified spirit, absolute alcohol, ether,
o
chloroform, acetone, acetic acid, carbon tetra chloride.
e.c
ii. Preparation of Saturated Solution:
The substance is dissolved in minimum amount of solvent. To
fre
dissolve more and more solute, the solution should be heated
directly or on water bath. The stirring of solution is necessary.
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iii. Filtration:
The hot saturated solution is filtered to remove insoluble
impurities. Sometimes premature crystals can form. It can be
prevented by using hot water funnel.
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iv. Cooling:
The hot filtered solution is cooled. The moderate cooling gives the
medium sized crystals and slow cooling gives bigger crystals.
w.a
Sometimes a few crystals of pure solid are added in solution to

start the crystallization process.
v. Collecting the Crystals:
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When the crystallization is complete, then mixture of crystals and

mother liquor is filtered through Gooch crucible using a vacuum
pump. The mother liquor is removed completely by full suction.
Then the filter cake is pressed to remove the rest mother liquor.
Finally the crystals are washed with small amount of cold solvent.
This process is repeated many times till pure crystals are formed.
By evaporation of the mother liquor we can get a fresh crop of
crystals.
vi. Drying of Crystals:
There are three methods for drying the crystals.
5
a) Press the crystals between the folds of filter paper. Repeat this
process many times method crystals are crushed and fibers of filter
paper mix with them.
b) Dry the crystals at 100oC in an oven. Here solid should not
melt or decompose at 100oC.
c) Spread the crystals over watch glass and keep in a vacuum
m
desiccators for many hours. The drying agents used in desiccators
are CaCl2, P2O5, Silica gel.
o
vii. Decolourization of Undersirable Colours:
e.c
Sometimes crystals become coloured due to impurities. To prevent
it, the substance is boiled with animal charcoal. Animal charcoal
absorbs the coloured impurity. The pure colourless crystals are
Q.10.
fre
formed by cooling the filtrate.
Write down the procedure to separate the mixture of three
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inks with the help of paper chromatography.
Ans: Take a 20cm strip of whatman filter paper No 1. The strip is
2.5cm wide. Mark a pencil line 2.5cm from lower end. A spot of
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mixture inks is placed on pencil line. The separate spots of three

pure inks are also placed on the pencil line. Then filter paper is
suspended into the tank containing solvent. The lower end of filter
paper dips 5-6mm into the solvent. When mobile phase (solvent
w.a
front) rises 3/4 the paper, then remove it. Every ink gives a
coloured band. But the mixture gives three bands. The Rf values of
all bands are calculated. In this way we can separate mixture of
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three inks.
6
Chapter No.3
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GASES
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TEXTBOOK EXERCISE
e.c
Q1: Select the correct answer out of the following alternative
suggestions:
(i) fre
Pressure remaining constant, at which temperature the
volume of a gas will become twice of what it is at 0oC .
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a. 546oC b.200oC c. 546 k d. 273k
Hind: V T.
(ii) Number of molecules in one dm3 of water is close to
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a. b. c. d.
Hint: 1 dm3 of H2O =1000cm3 of H2O; 1000cm3 of H2O
=1000g of H2O
w.a
No of moles of H2O = moles ( 1 ml of H2O =1 f

of H2O)
(iii) Which of the following will have the same number of
ww
molecules at STP?
a. 280cm3 of CO2 and 280 cm3 of N2 O
b. 11.2dm3 of O2 and 32 g of O2
c. 44g of CO2 and 11.2 dm3 of CO
d. 28 g of N2 and 5.6 dm3 of oxygen
(iv) If absolute temperature of a gas is doubled and the
pressure is reduced to one half , the volume of the gas will
a. remain unchanged b. Increase four times
1
c. reduce to d. be doubled
Hint: PV = RT, V= :V
(v) How should the conditions be changed to prevent the
volume of a given gas from expanding when its mass is
increased?
m
a. Temperature is lowered and pressure is
o
increased.
e.c
b. Temperature is increased and pressure is lowers.
c. Temperature and pressure both are lowered
d. Temperature and pressure both are increased.
Hint: PV =
constant)
RT, V=fre : V ( M and R being
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(vi) The molar volume of CO2 is maximum at
a. STP b. 127oC and 1 atm
c. 0oC and 2 atm d. 273 oC 1 atm
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Hint:For1 mole of CO2 PV = RT, V= : V or Vm

w.a
(vii) The order of the rate of diffusion of gases NH3, SO2

C12 and CO2 si :
a. NH3 > SO2 > C12 > CO2
b. NH3 > CO2 > SO2 > C12
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c. C12 >SO2 > CO2 >NH3

Hint: r
(viii) Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty
container at 25 oC . The fraction of total pressure exerted by
oxygen is
a. b.
c. d.
2
Hint: In an empty container, the partial pressure of gas

is directly proportional to the mole-fraction of the gas. Partial
pressure mole fraction, at STP.
(viii) Gases deviate from ideal behavior at high pressure.
Which of the following is correct for non-ideality?
a. At high pressure, the ga molecules move in one
m
direction only.
b. At high pressure, the collision between the gas
o
molecules are increased manifold.
e.c
c. At high pressure, the intermolecular attractions
become significant.
d. At high pressure, the intermolecular attractions
(ix)
fre
become significant.
The deviation of a gas from ideal behavior is maximum
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at
a. -10oC and 5.0atm b. -10oC and 2.0atm
c. 100 oC and 2.0 atm d. 0.oC and 2.0atm
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(xi) A real gas obeying van der Waals equation will resemble
ideal gas if
a. both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are larger b. both ‘a’ and
‘b’ are small
w.a
c. ‘a’ is small and ‘b’ is larger d. ‘a’ is larger

and ‘b’ is small
Ans: (i)c (ii)d (iii)a (iv)b (v)a (iv)b (vii)b (viii)a
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(ix)d (x)a (xi)b

Q2. Fill in the blanks.
(i) The product of PV has the S.I. unit of _______.
(ii) Eight grams each of O2 and H2 at 27oC will have total
K.E in the ratio of ________.
(iii) Smell of the cooking gas during leakage from a gas
cylinder is due to of the property of _______of gases.
(iv) Equal _________of ideal gases at the same temperature
and pressure contain ________number of molecules.
3
(v) The temperature above which a substance exists only

as gas is called _____.
Ans. (i) atm dm3 (ii) :16 (iii) diffusion
(iv) Volumes: equal (v) Critical temperature
Q3. label the following sentences as true or false.
(i) Kinetic energy of molecules is zero at 0oC.
m
(ii) A gas in a closed container will exert much higher
pressure at the bottom due to gravity than at the top.
o
(iii) Real gases show ideal gas behavior at low pressure and
e.c
high temperature.
(iv) Liquefaction of gases involves decrease in
intermolecular spaces.
(v)
effect.
fre
An ideal gas on expansion will show Joule-Thomson
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Ans. (i) False (ii) False (iii) True (iv) False
(v) False
What is Boyle’s law of gases? Give its experimental

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Q4: (a)
verification.
(b) What are isotherms? What happen to the positions of
isotherms when they plotted at high temperature for a particular
w.a
gas.
(c) Why do we get a straight line when pressures exerted on
a gas are plotted against inverse of volumes. This straight line
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changes its position in the graph by varying the temperature.

Justify it.
(d) How will you explain that the value of the constant k in
equation PV=k depends upon
(i) The temperature of the gas (ii) the quantity of the
gas.
Ans: (a) Isotherms: The P-V curves obtained at constant
temperature are called isotherms. These curves are obtained by
4
plotting a graph between pressure on the x-axis and volume on

the y-axis. Similar curves are obtained at fixed temperatures.
When the isotherms (P-V curves are plotted at high
temperature, they go away from the axes. The reason is that, at
higher temperature, the volume of the gas increase.
Ans.(c) A plot of P versus gives a straight line at constant
m
temperature. This shows that p is directly proportional to . This
straight line will meet at the origin where both P and are zero.
o
The P goes down as the gas expands, falling away to zero as the
e.c
volume approaches infinity (= =0)
This straight line changes its position because both pressure
fre
and volume varies on varying the temperature. When
temperature is increased both pressure and volume will increase.
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Keeping T constant and plotting P versus another straight line
is obtained. This straight line goes away from x-axis. However ,
when temperature is decreased both the values of P and V will
decrease. Again a straight line is obtained. This straight line will
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be closer to the x-axis

Ans.(d) General equation: PV=nRT _______(1)
The general gas equation contains the Boyle’s law, for which
w.a
nRT are constant at fixed T and n.

Bolyle’s law: PV=k _______(2)
Form Eq (1) and Eq (2), we get
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K=nRT
K=
K=constant x mT (at fixed R and M )
K mT _______(3)
This relation indicates that
(i) k T; it means k depends upon the temperature of the
gas
(ii) k m; it means k depends upon the quantity of the gas.
5
Q5. (a) What is the Charles’s law? Which scale of temperature is

used to verify that = k (pressure and number of moles are
constant)
(b) A sample of carbon monoxide gas occupies 150.0mL at
25.0o C. it is then cooled at constant pressure until it occupies
100.0mL. What is the new temperature?
m
(c) Do you think that the volume of any quantity of a gas
becomes zero at -273oC. Is it not against the law of
o
conservation of mass? How do you deduce the idea of absolute
e.c
zero from this information?
Ans.(a) The relation, =k can be verified only when T is taken on the
Kelvin scale.
Ans.(b) fre
V1 =150 mL
V2 =100 mL
T1 =273+25=298K
T2 =?
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Formula Used:
=
or
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T2 =
T2 =
T2 =198.67k
T2 =273+toC
w.a
toC=T2 – 273
toC=198.67-273
=-74.33oC Answer
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Ans.(c) We know that : V1 =Vo (1+)

At -273oC, V-273 = Vo (1-)= Vo (1-1) =Vo x0=0
The volume of the gas become zero at- 273oC. But it is impossible
to imagine that a
Gas which is matter occupies no space. It goes against the law of
conservation of mass.
Hence, it follows that -273oC is the lowest temperature which a
body can ever have. So -273o C is called the absolute zero of
6
temperature. The scale of temperature on which -273oC is taken as

zero is called absolute scale of temperature.
Q6. (a) What is Kelvin scale of temperature ? Plot a graph for
one mole of an ideal gas to prove that a gas become liquid, carlier than
-273o C .
(b) Throw some light on the factor in Charles’s law.
m
Ans.(b) In Charles’s law, the factor (0.00366 ) is the coefficient of
expansion of given mass of gas at constant pressure. It shows
o
that a gas expands by parts of its volume at 0o C for a rise of
e.c
temperature of 1oC.
Statement of Charles’s Law: “At constant pressure, the volume
of a given mass of gas increases or decreases by of its volume
fre
at0oC for every 1oC rise or fall in temperature .”
Mathematically.
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Vt -=Vo +
It means that if we have 273 cm3 of gas at 0oC, its volume
will increase by 1 cm3 for every 1oC rise in temperature if it is
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heated at constant pressure Thus,

At 1oC , the volume will become 274 cm3.
w.a
Similarly, if the gas is cooled by 1oC at constant pressure, its

volume will decrease by 1 cm3 . Thus,
At -1oC , the volume of the gas becomes 272 cm3.
ww

Q7. (a) What is the general gas equation? Derive it in various
forms.
(b) Can we determine the molecular mass of an unknown gas
if we know the pressure, temperature and volume along with
the mass of that gas?
7
(c) How do you justify from general gas equation that increase
in temperature or decrease of pressure decreases the density
of gas?
(d) Why do we feel comfortable in expressing the densities of
gases in the units of g dm-3 rather than g cm-3, a which is used
to express the densities of liquids and solids.
m
Ans.(b) Yes, we can determine the molecular mass of an
unknown gas if we know its, P,T,V and m by applying the
o
following formula:
e.c
M=
Ans.(c) We know form general gas equation,
d=
d=constant x fre
(M and R being constant)
d=
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Density is directly proportional to pressure and
inversely proportional to temperature or decrease of pressure,
decreases the density of the gas.
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Ans.(d) The densities of gases are very low. They are about 1000
times smaller than the densities of liquids and solids. So, if gas
densities are expressed in g cm-3, then the values will be very
w.a
small. They may go to fourth place of decimal for some gases.

When we express the densities in g dm-3, then the values of the
densities become reasonable to be expressed. For example, the
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density of CH4 gas is 0.7168 g dm-3 at STP, but if it is expressed

in g cm-3 , then it is 0.0007168 g cm-3 at STP. Therefore, we feel
comfortable in expressing the densities of gases in the units of g
dm-3 rather than in g cm-3.
Q8. Derive the units for gas constant R in general gas equation:
(a) When the pressure is in atmosphere and volume in dm3.
(b) when the pressure is in Nm-2 and volume in m3 .
8
( c) when energy Is expressed in ergs.
Q9. (a) what is Avogadro’s law of gases?

(b) Do you think that 1 mole of H2 and 1 mole NH3 at 0oC and 1
atm pressure will have equal Avogadro’s number of
particles? If not, why?
m
(c) Justify that 1 cm3 of H2 and 1 cm3 of CH4 at STP will have
the same number of molecules, when one molecules of CH 4
o
is 8 times heavier than that of hydrogen.
e.c
Ans (b) 1 mole of H2 and 1 mole of NH3 at 0oC and 1 atm pressure
will have equal number of molecules under the same conditions
fre
of temperature and pressure. Hence, 1 cm3 of H2 and 1 cm3 of
CH4 at STP will have the same number of molecules.
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Q10. (a) Dalton’s law of partial pressure is only obeyed by those
gases which do not have attractive forces among their molecules.
Explain it.
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(c) Derive an equation to find out the partial pressure of a

gas knowing the individual moles of component gases and
the total pressure of the mixture.
(d) Explain that the process of respiration obeys the
w.a
Dalton’s law of partial pressure.

(e) How do you differentiate between diffusion and
effusion? Explain Graham’s law of diffusion.
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Ans. (a) For Dalton’s law of partial pressure to hold, there will be
no attractive forces among the molecules on the walls of the gases.
The pressure of a gas is due to the collisions of the molecules on
the walls of the container. In the absence of attractive forces each
molecules of gas mixture will hit the walls of the container with
the same number of times and with the same force. Thus the partial
pressure of a given gas is unaffected by the presence of other
gases. In this case, the total pressure. Hence the law will not hold
in the presence of attractive forces among the molecules.
9
Q11. (a) What is critical temperature of a gas? What is its

importance for
Liquefaction of gases? Discuss Linde’s method of
liquefaction of gases.
(b) What is Joule-Thomson Effect? Explain its importance in
linde’s method of liquefaction of gases.
m
Ans. (a) Importance of Critical temperature for liquefaction of
gases.
o
The critical temperature of the gases provides us the
e.c
information about the
Condition under which gases liquefy. For example,O2 ,has a
critical temperature 154.4k(-118,75 oC). It must be cooled below
fre
this temperature before it can be liquefied by applying high
pressure.
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Q12. (a) What is Kinetic molecular theory of gases? Give its
postulates.
(b) How dose Kinetic molecular theory of gases explain the
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following gas laws:

(i) Boyle’s law (ii) Charles’s law
(iii) Avogadro’s law (iv) Graham’s law of
diffusion.
w.a
Q13. (a) Gases show non-ideal behavior at low temperature and

high pressure.
Explain this with the help of a graph.
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(b) Do you think that some of the postulates of Kinetic

molecular theory of gases are faulty? Point out these
postulates.
(c) Hydrogen and helium are ideal at room temperature, but
SO2 and C12 are non ideal. How will you explain this?
Ans. (c) Hydrogen (b.p-253oC) and helium b.p-269oC)have a very
low boiling points .They are far away from their boiling points at
room temperature. Also, they have smaller number of electrons in
their molecules and smaller molecular sizes, i.e., molecular weight.
10
So, intermolecular forces are negligible at room temperature.

Hence, they behave as an ideal gases at room temperature.
On the other hand, SO2 (b.p-10oC) and C12 (b.p-34oC)
have boiling points near to room temperature. They are not far
away from their boiling points at room temperature. Also, they
have larger number of electrons in their molecules and larger
m
molecular sizes. So, sufficient intermolecular attractive forces are
present at room temperature. Hence, they behave as non-ideal at
o
room temperature.
e.c
Q14. (a) Derive van der Waals equation for real gases.
(b) What is the physical significance of van der Waals
constant, ‘a’ and ‘b’.
Ans. (b)
Give their units. fre
Physical Significance of van der Waals constant ‘a’ and
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‘b’
(i) Significance of’ a’: The value of constant ‘a’ is a
measure of the intermolecular attractive forces and greater will be
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the ease of its liquefaction.

Units of ‘a’ :
The units of ‘a’ are related to the units of pressure,
volume and number of moles.
w.a
P= or
a= =
a= atm dm mol-2
6
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In SI units: a= ==Nm4 mole -2

(iii) Significance of ‘b’: The value of constant ‘b’ us related
to the size of the molecule. Larger the size of the molecule,
lager is the value of ‘b’. It is effective volume of the gas
molecules.
Units of ‘b’:
‘b’ is the compressible volume per mole of gas. So the units
of ‘b’ are related to the units of volume and moles.
V=nb or b=
11
b==dm3 mol-1
In SI units: b===dm3 mol-1
Q15. Explain the following facts:
(a) The plot of PV versus P is a straight line at constant
temperature and with a fixed number of moles of an ideal
gas.
m
(b) The straight line in (a) is parallel to pressure-axis and goes
away from the pressure axis at higher pressure for many
o
gases.
e.c
(c) The van der walls constant ‘b’ of a gas is four times the
molar volume of that gas
(d) Pressure of NH3 gas at given conditions (say 1 atm pressure
fre
and room temperature) is less as calculated by van der Waals
equation than that calculated by general gas equation.
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(e) Water vapors do not behave ideally at 273 k.
(f) SO2 is comparatively non-ideal at 273 k but behaves ideally
at 327 K.
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Ans. (a) At constant temperature and with a fixed number of

moles of an ideal gas, when the pressure of the gas is varied, its
volume changes, but the product PV remains constant. Thus,
P1 V1 = P2 V2 = P3 V3 =
w.a
Hence, for any fixed temperature, the product PV when plotted

against P.a straight line parallel to P-axis is obtained. This straight
line indicates that PV remains constant quantity.
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Ans. (b) Now, increase the temperature of the same from T1 to T2

.At constant temperature T2 and with the same fixed number of
moles of an ideal gas, when the constant. However, the value of
PV increase with increase in temperature. On plotting graph
between P on x-axis is obtained. This straight line at T2 will be
away from the x-axis. This straight line also shows that PV is a
constant quantity.
Ans. (c) Excluded volume, ‘b’ is four times the molar volume
fo gas. The excluding with each other as shown in Fig. The spheres
12
are considered to be non-compressible. So the molecules cannot

approach each other more closely than the distance, 2r . Therefore,
the space indicated by the dotted sphere having radius, 2r will not
be available to all other molecules of the gas. In other words, the
dotted spherical space is excluded volume per pair of molecules.
Let each molecules be a sphere with radius =r
m
Volume of one molecules (volume of sphere)=
The distance of the closest approach of 2 molecules =2 r
o
The excluded volume for 2 molecules=
e.c
The excluded volume for 1 molecule=
fre =
=4Vm =b
line
The excluded volume for ‘n’ molecules=n b
Where Vm is the actual volume of a molecule.
Hence, the excluded volume or co-volume or non-compressible
llon
volume is equal to 4 times the actual volume of the molecules of

the gas.
Ans. (d) The pressure of NH3 calculated by general gas equation is
high because it is considered as an ideal gas. In an ideal gas, the
w.a
molecules do not exert any force of attraction on one another. On

the other hand, when the pressure of NH3 is considered as a real
gas. Actually, NH3 is a real gas. It consists of polar NH3 molecules
ww
approaches the walls of the container, it experiences an inward

pull. Clearly, the molecule strikes the wall with a lesser force than
it would have done it these are no attractive forces. As a result of
this , the real gas pressure is less than the ideal pressure.
Ans. (e) Water vapors present at 273K do not behave ideally
because polar water molecules exert force of attraction on one
another.
Ans. (f) At low temperature, the molecules of SO2 possess low
kinetic energy. They come close to each other. The e
13
intermolecular attractive forces become very high. So, it behave

non-ideally at 273K. At high temperature, the molecules of SO2
have high kinetic energy. The molecules are at larger distances
from one other another. The intermolecular attractive forces
become very weak. So, it behaves ideally at 327K.
Q16. Helium gas in a 100 cm3 container at a pressure of 500 torr is
m
transferred to a container with a volume of 250cm3.What will be
the new pressure
o
(a) if no change in temperature occurs
e.c
(b) if its temperature changes from 20 oC to 15 oC?
Solution:
(a) Given: P1=500 torr P2 =?
Formula used:
fre
V1 =100cm3 V2 =250cm3
P2 V2 = P1V1
line
P2 =
P2 =
llon
=250torr Answer
(b) Given: P1 =500torr ; P2 =?
V1 =100cm3 ; V2 =250 cm3
w.a
T1 =273 +20=293K : T2=273+15=288K

Formula Used: =
ww
P2 = x
=
=196.58 torr Answer
Q17. (a) What are the densities in kg/m3 of the following gases at
STP
(i) Methance, (ii) oxygen (iii) hydrogen
-2
(P=101325Nm , T=273k, molecular masses are in kg
mol-1 )
14
(b) Compare the values of densities in proportion to their

mole masses.
(c) How do you justify that increase of volume upto 100 dm3
at 27 oC of 2 moles of NH3 will allow the gas behave ideally.
Solution:
(a) (i)Given P=101325Nm-2
m
T=273K
Molar mass of CH4 =12+4=16g mol-1 =16x10-3 kg mol-1
o
R=8.3143NmK-1 mol-1
e.c
d=?
Formula Used: d=
d= fre
d= 0.714kgm-3
line
P=101325Nm-2
T=273k
Molar mass of O2 =32g mol-1
llon
d= ?
Formula used: d=
w.a
d=
d=1.428kgm-3
(iii) P=101325Nm-3 ; T=273k
ww
Molar mass of H2 =2x10-3kg mol-1 :R=8.3143 NmK-1

mol-1
d=?
Formula Used: d=
d=
d=0.089kg m-3
15
Q18. A sample of krypton with a volume of 6.25 dm3 , a pressure of

765 torr and a temperature of 20oC is expanded to a volume of 9.55 dm3
and a pressure of 375 torr. What will be its final temperature in oC?
Solution:
P1 = 765torr ; P2 =375torr
3
V1 =6.25dm ; V2 =9.55 dm3
m
T1 =273+20 =273k ;T2 =?
o
Formula used: x
e.c
T2 =
T2
T2
fre
=
=
line
T1 =273+o C
o
C =T-273=219.46-273
=-53.54 oC Answer
llon
Q19. Working at a vacuum line, a chemist isolated a gas in a weighing

bulb with a volume of 255 cm3 , at a temperature of 25 oC and
under a pressure in the bulb of 10.0torr. The gas weight 12.1 mg.
what is the molecular mass of this gas?
w.a
Solution:
V=255 cm3 =0.255 dm3
P=10.0torr =
ww
T1 =273+25=298K
m=12.1mg=0.0121g
R=0.0821dm3 atom K-1 mol-1
Formula Used: PV= RT
M=
M=
16
M=87.93 g Mol-1 Answer

Q20. What pressure is exerted by a mixture of 2.00g of H 2 and 8.00g
of N2 at 273 K in a dm3 vessel?
Solution:
Given: V=10dm3 ; T=273k
R=0.0821 dm3 atm K-1 mol-1
m
P H2 =? PN2 =?
Mass of H2 =2.00g Mass of N2 =8.00g
o
Molar mass of H2 =2g Molar mass of N2 =28g
e.c
-1
mol
nH2 = =1 mole ;n N2 = =0.286
mole fre
n=mH2 +nN2 =1+0.286=1.286 moles
line
PV=nRT
P x10 dm3 =1.286 molx 0.0821dm3 atm k-1 mol-1 x 273K
P=
llon
P=2.88 atm Answer

Q21. (a) The relative densities of two gases A and B are 1:1.5 find
out the volume of B which will diffused in the same time in which
w.a
150 dm3 of A will diffuse?

(b) Hydrogen (H2 ) diffuses through a porpous plate at a rate of
500cm3 per minute at 0oC. What is the rate of diffusion of
oxygen through the same porpous plate 0oC?
ww
(c) The rate of effusion of an unknown gas A through a

pinhole is found to be 0.279 times the rate of effusion of H 2
gas through the same pinhole.
Calculate the molecular mass of the unknown gas at STP.
Solution:
Given:
dA =1 rA=150dm3
17
rB=
(b) rH 2=500 cm3 per minute MH2 = 2 g mol-1
ro2=? Mo2 =32 g mol-1
mo
e.c
=
=4
ro2==125cm3 Answer
(c) Given: rH2=1
MA =?
fre
rA=0.279
MH2=g mol-1
line
=
=
llon
=
w.a
0.078=
MA =
ww
MA =25.64 g mol-1 Answer

Q22. Calculate the number of molecules and the number of atoms in
the given amounts of each gas
(a) 20cm3 of cH4 at 0oC and pressure of 700 mm of
mercury
(b) 1 cm3 of NH4 at 100oC and pressure of 1.5 atm
Solution:
(a) Given: P=700 mm =0921atm
V=20cm3 =0.02dm3
18
R=0.0821dm3 atm K-1 mol-1

T=273+0=273K
N=?
Formula Used: PV=nRT
n=
n=
m
No of molecules =No of moles x NA
o
=8.22x1020 molecules Answer
e.c
Since 1 molecule of CH4 contains =5 atoms
Therefore, No of atoms =5x4.948x1020
=24.74x1020 atoms Answer
(b)
K-1 mol-1
Given fre
P=105 atm ; R=0.0821dm3 atm
cm3 =0.001dm3
line
V=1 ;
T=273+100=373K
n=?
Formula Used: n=
llon
n=
No of molecules =4.89x10-5 x6.02x1023
w.a
=29.44x1018 =2.944x1019 molecules

Answer
No of atoms =2.944x1019 x4=1.18x1020 atoms Answer
Q23. Calculate the masses of 1020 molecules of each of H2 ,O2 and CO2
ww
at STP. What will happen to the masses of these gases, when the
temperature of these gases are increased by 100oC and pressure is
decreased by 100 torr.
Solution:
(a) Given: Molecules of H2 =1020
Now , 6.02x1023 molecules of H2 at STP =1mole =2g
20
10 molecules of H2 at STP =
=0.332x10-5 g
19
=3.32x10-4 g
Answer
(b) Given: Molecules of O2 =1020
23
Now, 6.02x10 molecules of O2 at STP =32g
1020 molecules of CO2 STP =
=5.32x 10-3 g
m
Answer
o
(c) Given: Molecules of CO2 =1020
e.c
Now, 6.02x1023 molecules of CO2 at STP =44g
20
10 molecules of CO2 at STP =
=7.30x10-3 g Answer
Q24. (a) fre
Two moles of NH3 are enclosed in a 5dm3 flask at 27oC.
calculate the pressure exerted by the gas assuming that
line
(i) it behaves like an ideal gas
(ii) it behaves like a real gas
a=1.17 atm dm6 mol-2
b=0.0371 dm3 mol-1
llon
(b) Also calculate the amount of pressure lessened due to

forces of attractions at these conditions of volume and
temperature.
w.a
(c) Do you expect the same decreased in the pressure of 2

moles of NH3 having a volume of 40dm3 and at temperature
of 27oC.
ww
Solution:
(a.i) Given: V=5dm3 ; T=273+27=300K
n=2mole ; R=0.821dm3 atm K-
1
mol-1
P=?
P=
P==
20
P=9.852 atm Answer

(a.ii) Given: n=2mol
a=4.17atm dm3 mol-1
b=0.0371dm3 mol-1
V=5dm3
R=0.0821atm dm3 K-1 mol-1
m
T=273+27=300K
P=?
o
e.c
Formula Used: (V-nb)=nRT
On rearranging the equation
P=-
fre
On substituting the values
P=-
line
P=-
P=-
llon
P=9.99-0.667
P=9.32atm Answer
(b) Difference of pressure , P=9.852-9.32=053atm Answer
(c) Given: n = 2 mol ;
w.a
3
V=40dm ;T=273+27=300K
p =?
ww
P=
P=
P=1.232 atm
The decrease in pressure is not the same
21
Chapter 3rd
GASES
MCQs
m
Q.1 The order of the rate of diffusion of gases NH3, SO2, Cl2 and
o
CO2 is:
e.c
(a) NH3 > SO2 > Cl2 > CO2
(b) NH3 > CO2 > SO2 > Cl2
(c) Cl2> SO2 > CO2 > NH3
fre
(d) None of these
line
Q.2 Pressure remaining constant at which temperature the volume of

gas will become twice of what it is at 0C.
llon
(a) 546 oC (b) 200 oC

(c) 546 K (d) 273 K
w.a
Q.3 Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty

container at 25oC. The fraction of the total pressure exerted by the
oxygen is:
ww
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q.4 Which of the following of will have the same number of

molecules at STP?
(a) 280 cm3 of CO2 and 280 cm3 of N2O

(b) 11.2 dm3 of O2 and 32 g of O2
1
(c) 44g of CO2 and 11.2 dm3 of CO

(d) 28g of N2 and 5.6 dm3 of oxygen
m
o
e.c
fre
line
llon
w.a
ww
2
Q.5 Number of molecules in one dm3 of water is close to:

(a) x 1023 (b) x 1023
(c) x 1023 (d) 55.6 x 6.02 x 1023
Q.6 If absolute temperature of a gas is doubled and the pressure is
reduced to one half the volume of gas
will.
m
(a) remain unchanged (b) increases four times
(c) reduce to (d) be double
o
e.c
Q.7 How should the conditions be changed to prevent the volume of
a given mass of gas from expanding when its mass is increased
(a) temperature is lowered and pressure is increased
(b)
(c)
fre
temperature is increased and the pressure is lowered
temperature and pressure both are lowered
line
(d) temperature and pressure both are increased
Q.8 The molar volume of CO2 is maximum at

llon
(a) STP
(b) 127 oC and 1 atm
(c) 0 oC and 2 atm
(d) 273 oC and 2 atm
w.a
Q.9 Gases deviate from ideal behaviour at high pressure. Which of

the following is correct for non–ideality?
ww
(a) At high pressure, the gas molecules move in one direction only
(b) At high pressure, the collisions between, the gas molecules are
increased manifold
(c) At high pressure, the volume of gas becomes insignificant
(d) AT high pressure, the intermolecular attractions, become
significant
Q.10 The deviation of a gas from ideal behaviour is maximum at,

(a) – 10 oC and 5.0 atm (b) – 10 oC and 2.0 atm
(c) 100 oC and 2.0 atm (d) 0 oC and 2.0 atm
3
Q.11 At high temperature isotherm moves away from both the axis
because of increase in,
(a) pressure (b) volume
(c) no. of moles (d) all above
Q.12 Values of Charle’s law constant K depends upon.
(a) mass of gas (b) pressure gas
m
(c) no. of moles of gas (d) all above
Q.13 Equal volumes of H2 and He are inserted in the same vessel. The
o
pressure exerted by H2 and He are in the ratio:
e.c
(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1
(c) 1:2 (d) all above
Q.14 Which of the following have same no. of molecules at STP
(a)
(b)
1000 cm3 of N2H4 and O2
200 cm3 of CO2 and N2O
fre
line
(c) 50 cm3 each of CO and N2
(d) all above
Q.15 If absolute temperature is doubled and the pressure is increased 4
llon
times. The volume is

(a) half (b) double
(c) four times (d) remains the changed
Q.16 Density of a gas is usually expressed in
w.a
(a) kg m3 (b) kg dm3

(c) g dm–3 (d) g cm–3
Q.17 Units of gas constant R in SI system is:
ww
(a) 0.0821 dm3 atm k–1 mol–1

(b) 82.1 cm3 atm k–1
(c) 8.31 Nm k–1 mol–1
(d) 1.987 cal k–1 mol–1
Q.18 Concept of distribution of velocities among the gas molecules
was developed by
(a) Claudius (b) Maxwell
(c) Boltzman (d) Vanderwaal
Q.19 Absolute temperature of gas is proportional to
4
(a) translational kinetic energy

(b) rotational kinetic energy
(c) vibrational kinetic energy
(d) potential energy
Q.20 Deviation a gas from ideal behaviour is maximum at
(a) low temperature, low pressure
m
(b) low temperature, high pressure
(c) high temperature, low pressure
o
(d) high temperature high pressure
e.c
Q.21 Most ideal gas at room temperature is:
(a) CO2 (b) NH3
(c) SO2 (d) N2
fre
Q.22 22.414 dm3 of various ideal gases at STP will have Avogadro’s
number of molecules
line
(a) 6.02 x 1023 (b) 6.02 x 1024
(c) 0.602 x 1023 (d) 6.02 x 1022
Q.23 Gases are ideal at
llon
(a) low pressure and high temperature

(b) low temperature and high pressure
(c) high pressure and high temperature
(d) low pressure and low temperature
w.a
Q.24 The value of compressibility factor for an ideal gas is equal to:
(a) 1 (b) 1.5
(c) 2 (d) 2.5
ww
Q.25 An ideal gas obeys

(a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law
(c) Avogadro’s law (d) all above
Q.26 A real gas obeying Vander Waal’s equation will resemble ideal
gas if:
(a) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are large
(b) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are small
(c) ‘a’ is small and ‘b’ is large
(d) ‘a’ is large and ‘b’ is small
5
Q.27 Deep sea divers breath mixture of nitrogen and oxygen in a ratio
of:
(a) 96% N2 and 4% O2 (b) 4% and N2 and 96% O2
(c) 80% N2 and 20% O2 (d) 20% N2 and 80% O2
Q.28 One mole of any gas at STP occupies volume
(a) 2.24 dm3 (b) 22.4 dm3
m
(c) 44.4 dm3 (d) 48.4 dm3
Q.29 K.E. of gas molecules is equal to:
o
(a) (b) m v2
e.c
(c) (d)
Q.30 All gases solidify before reaching at
(a) 373 oK (b) 273 oC
(c) – 473 oC fre
(d)
Q.31 Kinetic equation is equal to
0 oK
line
(a) PV=nRT (b) PV=RT
(c) PV = m n c2 (d) PV = m n c2
Q.32 Root mean square velocity is equal to
llon
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q.33 Kinetic energy associated with one molecule of a gas due to
translational motion is given by
w.a
(a) EK = (b) Ek = m v2
(c) Ek = m n c2 (d) Ek =
Q.34 Density of gas is usually expressed as
ww
(a) kg m–3 (b) kg dm–3

(c) g dm–3 (d) g cm–3
Q.35 Weight of one dm3 of O2 at STP is
(a) 1.4384 gm (b) 1.4394 gm
(c) 1.6384 gm (d) 1.3384 gm
ANSWERS
Question 1 2 3 4 5
6
s
Answers b c a a a
Question 6 7 8 9 10
s
Answers b a b d a
Question 11 12 13 14 15
m
s
o
Answers b d a d a
Question 16 17 18 19 20
e.c
s
Answers c c b a b
Question
s
21 22
fre 23 24 25
Answers d a a a d
line
Question 26 27 28 29 30
s
Answers b a b d d
llon
Question 31 32 33 34 35
s
Answers c a a c a
w.a
ww
7
Chapter 4rth
LIQUIDS AND SOLIDS
m
MCQs
o
e.c
Q.1 Ionic solids are characterized by
(a) low melting points
(b)
(c)
fre
good conductivity in solid state
high vapour pressure
line
(d) solubility in polar solvents
Q.2 Amorphous solids.
(a) have sharp melting points
llon
(b) undergo clean cleavage when cut with knife

(c) have perfect arrangements of atoms
(d) can presses small regions of orderly arrangements of atoms
w.a
Q.3 The force of attraction between the atoms of helium is

(a) hydrogen bonding
(b) coordinate covalent bond
(c) covalent bond
ww
(d) london dispersion force

Q.4 Which of the following is a pseudo-solid
(a) CaF2 (b) Glass
(c) NaCl (d) All
Q.5 Diamond is a bad conductor because
(a) It has a tight structure (b) It has a high density
(c) There is no free electron present in the crystal of diamond to
conduct electricity
(d) None of the above
1
Q.6 The weakest intermolecular for a

(a) dipole–dipole force
(b) electrostatic force between ions
(c) ion–dipole force
(d) dipole–induced dipole force
Q.7 In liquids intermolecular forces are
m
(a) very weak (b) very strong
(c) reasonably strong (d) ion–dipole force
o
Q.8 Values of heat of vaporization for liquids, with strong dipole–
e.c
dipole forces will be
(a) very high (b) very low
(c) reasonably high (d) negligible
Q.9
(a) dipole force
fre
Instantaneous dipole–induced dipole force is also called
(b) london dispersion
line
(c) hydrogen bonding (d) none of the above
Q.10 Down the group polarizability generally
(a) increases (b) decreases
llon
(c) remains constant (d) do not follow a regular trend

Q.11 Trend of boiling points of halogens from fluorine to iodine is
that it.
(a) decreases (b) increases
w.a
(c) remains constant (d) negligible

Q.12 Molecules of hydro carbons with large chain lengths experience
(a) repulsive forces (b) strong attractive force
ww
(c) weaker attractive forces

(d) no attractive force
Q.13 Hydrocarbons which generally have high molecular masses exist
is.
(a) solid form (b) liquid form
(c) vapour form (d) gaseous form
Q.14 Exceptionally low acidic strength of HF is due to
(a) strong polar bond (b) small size of fluorine
(c) strong hydrogen bonding (d) Vander Waal’s forces
2
Q.15 Long chain of amino acids are coiled about one another into
spiral by.
(a) covalent bond (b) ionic bond
(c) hydrogen bond (d) Vander Waal’s forces
Q.16 Evaporation of water is possible at
(a) 100oC (b) 0oC
m
(c) at all temperatures (d) above 100oC
Q.17 Boiling point is low for liquid with
o
(a) high vapour pressure at given temperature
e.c
(b) low vapour pressure at a given temperature
(c) very high vapour pressure
(d) very low vapour pressure
become very high

fre
Q.18 At equilibrium rate of evaporation and rate of condensation
(a) (b) become very low
line
(c) can never be equal (d) become equal
Q.19 In an open system vapour pressure of water at 100oC at sea level
is
llon
(a) 700 mm of Hg (b) 760 mm of Hg

(c) 670 mm of Hg (d) 1000 mm of Hg
Q.20 Molar heat of vaporization of water is
(a) 140.6 kJ/mol (b) 14.06 kJ/mol
w.a
(c) 18 kJ/mol (d) 40.6 kJ/mol

Q.21 When external pressure is 23.7 torr boiling point of water is
(a) 100oC (b) 200oC
ww
(c) 98oC (d) 25oC

Q.22 Distillation under very reduced pressure is called
(a) fractional distillation (b) distillation
(c) vacuum destructive distillation
(d) destructive distillation
Q.23 Water may boil at 120oC when external pressure is
(a) 760 torr (b) 100 torr
(c) 1489 torr (d) 700 torr
3
Q.24 Amount of heat absorbed when one mole of solid melts into
liquid form at its melting point is called
(a) molar heat of sublimation
(b) heat of vaporization
(c) latent heat of fusion
(d) molar heat of fusion
m
Q.25 Ethanol is much more soluble in water than ethyl ethanuate
which one of the following statement correctly account for this
o
(a) ethanol is polar molecule but ethyl ethanoate is non–polar
e.c
(b) ethanol is non polar molecule but ethyl ethanoate is polar
(c) a hydrogen bond is formed between H–atom of the OH group in
ethanol and O–atom of water molecule
(d) fre
a hydrogen bond is formed between the H–atom of the OH
group in ethanol and hydrogen of the water molecule
line
Q.26 The boiling point of a liquid will be
(a) lower at high altitude
(b) higher at high altitude
llon
(c) same at sea level and high altitudes

(d) equal to atmospheric pressure
Q.27 The process in which liquids can be made to boil at low
temperature is called
w.a
(a) vacuum distillation

(b) destructive distillation
(c) distillation
ww
(d) vacuum destructive distillation

Q.28 Why is the boiling point of methane greater than that of neon
(a) a molecule of methane has a greater mass
(b) a molecule of methane has more electrons than a molecule of
neon
(c) the molecules of methane have stronger intermolecular forces
than those of neon
(d) the molecule of methane is polar but that of neon is not
4
Q.29 The amount of heat required to vaporize one mole of a liquid at

its boiling point is called
(a) molar heat of vaporization
(b) molar heat of fusion
(c) latent heat of fusion
(d) molar heat of sublimation
m
Q.30 Which of the elements in its crystalline form will have the lowest
enthalpy change of vaporizations
o
(a) chlorine (b) argon
e.c
(c) phosphorous (d) silicon
Q.31 Crystals show variation in physical properties depending upon
the direction. The property is called
(a)
(c)
isomorphism
anisotropy
fre
(b)
(d)
polymorphism
isotropy
line
Q.32 Certain melt to a turbid liquid phase with properties of liquids as
well as some degree of order like solid. Such turbid liquids are called
(a) anorphous solid (b) vitreous solid
llon
(c) crystalline solid (d) liquid crystal

Q.33 Isomorphous crystals show
(a) same chemical properties
(b) same physical properties
w.a
(c) same crystalline form

(d) same melting point
Q.34 Existence of an element in more than form is known as
ww
(a) allotropy (b) isomorphism

(c) isotropy (d) none of these
Q.35 Crystalline forms of the same, substance can coexist in
equilibrium with each other at its
(a) melting point (b) transition temperature
(c) boiling point (d) none of these
Q.36 Crystal lattice of substance can be catagorised into
(a) five types (b) seven types
(c) six types (d) none of these
5
Q.37 Covalent solids are composed of

(a) ions (b) different molecules
(c) neutral atoms (d) any of the above
Q.38 Carbon atoms of diamond are
(a) sp hybridized (b) sp2 hybridized
(c) sp3 hybridized (d) unhybridized
m
Q.39 Molecular crystals are generally
(a) hard (b) soft
o
(c) unstable (d) stable
e.c
Q.40 Ionic crystals are
(a) hard (b) soft
(c) brittle (d) amorphous
Questions 1
ANSWER
2 3
fre4 5
line
Answers d d d b c
Answers d c c b a
llon
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers b b a c c
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers a c d b d
w.a
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers d c c d c
Questions 26 27 28 29 30
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Answers a a c a b
Questions 31 32 33 34 35
Answers c d c a b
Questions 36 37 38 39 40
Answers b c c b a
6
Chapter4rth
LIQUIDS AND SOLIDS
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SHORT QUESTION WITH ANSWERS
Q.1 what is difference between
o
(i) Intermolecular forces and intermolecular forces
e.c
(ii) Polar molecules and non–polar molecules
(iii) Induce and dipole and instantaneous dipole
(iv) Dipole
Ans. (i) Intermolecular Forces:

fre
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The forces of attraction between two different atoms ions and
molecules are called intermolecular forces.
For example H—Cl……H--Cl…….H--Cl
Intermolecular Forces:
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The forces of attraction between two atoms or group of atoms

present with in the same molecule, are called intermolecular
forces.e.g covalent bond ,ionic bond etc
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(ii) Polar molecules:

A molecule which has partial +ve and partial –ve charges on it
due to difference of electro negativity between bonded atoms is
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called polar molecules. For example H8+ – Cl8–

Non–polar molecules:
A molecule in which bonded atoms have zero or negligible
electro negativity difference is called non–polar molecules.
For example
H
|
Cl–Cl, H–H, H–C–H
|
1
H
Important point to remember: All molecules having same
atoms(Homoatomic) are non polar
(iii) Induced Dipole:
A molecule in which polarity is created due to other polar
molecule is called induced dipole.
m
Instantaneous Dipole:
The temporary dipole (polarity) produced in a non–polar
o
molecule at a certain instant is called instantaneous dipole.
e.c
(iv) Dipole
A molecule which has two poles i.e. two charges partial +ve and
partial –ve is known as dipole.e.g H8+ – Cl8–
Q.2 fre
Define intermolecular forces, and the types of intermolecular
forces?
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Ans. Intermolecular Forces:
The forces of attraction that exist between all kinds of atoms,
molecules, when they are sufficiently close to each other are
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called intermolecular forces.

Types of intermolecular forces:
There are four types of intermolecular forces.
(a) Dipole–dipole forces
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(b) Ion–dipole forces

(c) Dipole–induced dipole forces (Debye forces)
(d) Instantaneous dipole–induced dipole forces or (London
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dispersion forces).
(a) Dipole–dipole forces:
The forces of attraction between the positive end of one polar
molecule and the negative end of other polar molecule are known
as dipole–dipole forces.
Example is of HCl.
H8+ ® Cl8– ® H8+ ® Cl8– ® H8+ ® Cl8–
(b) Ion–Dipole forces:
2
The forces of attraction in which the negative ends of polar

molecules are attracted towards the cation (+ve ion) and positive
ends towards anion (– ion) are called ion–dipole forces. Ionic
compounds like Mx are normally soluble in polar solvent like
water. Water molecules break the crystal lattice and the ions are set
free. These positive and negative ions are then surrounded by
m
water molecules. The negative ends of the dipole of the water are
attracted towards the cation (M+) while the positive ends are
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attracted towards the anion (X–). The dissolution of most of the
e.c
ionic compounds in water is due to this reason. The forces of
attraction between ions and water molecules are known as Ion–
dipole forces.
(c) fre
The forces of attraction that exist between already polar molecules
and the molecule having induced dipole forces. The forces are also
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called Debye forces.
(d) Instantaneous Dipole–Induced Dipole forces. (London
dispersion forces).
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The momentary forces of attraction that exist between

instantaneous dipole and the induced dipole are called
instantaneous dipole–induced dipole forces.
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The momentary force of attraction between instantaneous dipole

and the induced dipole is known as instantaneous–induced
dipole forces.
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Q.3 Explain the factors affecting the London forces.

Ans.
The strength of these forces depends upon the following two
factors.
1. Size of electronic cloud:
As the size of electronic cloud of atoms or molecules increases,
dispersion becomes easier and these forces are more permanent.
3
The elements of zero group are monoatomic gases due to their

complete outermost shells, they do not form covalent bonds. Their
boiling points increase from top to bottom in a group.
2. Polarizability:
The quantitative measurement of the extent to which the electronic
cloud can be polarized or distortedis called polarizability.
m
The boiling points of halogens increase from top to bottom i.e.
from fluorine to iodine.
o
3. Number of atoms:
e.c
As the number of atoms in non–polar molecule increases
polarizability of the molecule
increases and London forces become stronger.
fre
The boiling points of saturated hydrocarbons increase as the number
of atoms increases.
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Q.4 Define and explain hydrogen bonding./ What is the origin of
intermolecular forces in water?
Ans. Hydrogen bonding:
―The electrostatic force of attraction between electronegative atom
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and partial positive hydrogen atom is called hydrogen bonding.‖

Explanation:
Consider water molecules to understand hydrogen bonding
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oxygen is more electronegative than

hydrogen. So water is polar molecule. There will be dipole–dipole
forces of attraction between water
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molecules. The electrostatic force of attraction between

electronegative oxygen of one molecule and
partial positive hydrogen of other molecule is called hydrogen
bonding.
Strength of H–Bonding:
Hydrogen bonding is stronger than simple dipole–dipole forces.
This is due to the following reasons.
1. There are two lone pairs on oxygen atom. Oxygen forms
coordinate covalent bond with hydrogen.
4
2. There is sufficient partial positive charge on hydrogen. Both

positively charged hydrogen of water molecules produce strong
electric field due to their small size.
Hydrogen bonding in water molecules acts like a bridge between
two electronegative oxygen atoms.
Generally, the strength of H–bonding is twenty times less than
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that of covalent bond.
Q.5 Give the properties of compounds containing hydrogen
o
bonding.
e.c
Ans.
1. There are dynamic properties of covalent compounds.
2. Solubility of Hydrogen bonded molecules.
3.
4.
Cleansing action. fre
Application of hydrogen bonding in biological compounds.
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5. Surface tension.
6. Effect of hydrogen bonding on viscosity.
7. Hydrogen bonding in paints and dyes.
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8. Clothing.
9. Food material.
10. Structure of ice.
Q.6 Explain the following with reasons.
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(a) In the hydrogen bonded structure of H–F, which is stronger

bond, the shorter covalent bond or the longer hydrogen between
different molecules?
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(b) In a very cold winter fish in garden ponds owe their lives to
hydrogen bonding.
(c) Water and ethanol can mix easily and in all proportions.
Ans.
(a) There is sufficient hydrogen bonding in H–F molecules and
it gives zig zag structure. Fluorine atom is present at the end while
H atoms are entrapped between two strong electronegative atoms.
The covalent bond between H and F is stronger because it is
5
produced by the overlapping of orbital’s and two electrons have

been shared to give sigma bond.
The bond which is shown by the dotted line is the hydrogen bond
due to electrostatic forces of attraction so, it is a weaker bond.
(b) When water is frozen at 0oC, then it expands. This is due to the
fact that due to H-bonding in ice the
m
molecules become arranged density of ice is decreased. That’s
why ice floats on water.
o
(c) Water (H-OH) and ethanol (C2H5OH) have both are polar
e.c
solvents and having OH groups. So, they
can do the hydrogen bonding extensively. That is they can mix
with each other in all proportions.
Q.7
Ans:
fre
Why H2S is a gas while H2O is liquid at room temperature?
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This is due to high electro negativity of oxygen as compared to

sulphur. Water has hydrogen bonding, but H2S does not have.
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Due to absence of hydrogen bonding in H2S at room

temperature, it is a gas.
Q.8 Earthen ware vessels keep water cool?
Ans:
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Earthen were vessels are porous- water molecules come out from
these pores and evaporate. Heat of the atmosphere can not
enter into the liquid. So temperature of the liquid in
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earthenware's remains less.

Q.9 one feels sense of cooling under the fan after bath?
Ans:
When one takes bath and sits in front of a fan, water on the surface
of body evaporates with greater rate.The high energy molecules
escape from surface of the body and one feels sense of cooling.
Q.10 Why the heat of vapourization of water is greater than that
of CH4?
Ans:
6
Water is a polar liquid and due to strong hydrogen bonding high

energy is required to separate the molecules from each other at its
boiling point. CH4 is a non-polar and has weak London dispersion
forces.
Q.11 Define and explain evaporation is a cooling process. Give reason.
Ans. Evaporation: The spontaneous change of liquid into its vapours
m
is called evaporation. It continues at all temperature. Evaporation
increases with the increase of temperature.
o
Explanation: The molecules of liquid are not motionless. The
e.c
energy of the molecules is not equally distributed.The molecules
which have low kinetic energy move slowly while others with high
kinetic energy move faster. If one of the higher speed molecules
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reaches the surface, it may escape the attractions of its neighboring
molecules and leaves the bulk of the liquid. This spontaneous
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change of liquid into its vapours is called evaporation
Evaporation causes cooling:
The reason is that when high energy molecules leave the
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liquid and low energy molecules are left

behind, the temperature of the liquid falls and heat moves
from the surrounding to the liquid and
the temperature of the surrounding also falls. So evaporation
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is a cooling process.
Q.12 H-bonding is present in chloroform and acetone-justify it?
Ans:
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Chloroform is a polar compound. Acetone is also a polar

compound. When chloroform and acetone are mixed with each
other, than they create the forces of attractions due to hydrogen
bonding.
Q.13 Evaporation of a liquid takes place at all temperatures give
reason?
Ans:
7
Evaporation takes place due to the K.E of the molecules since the
K.E of the molecules can not be zero at any temperature therefore
evaporation takes place at all temperatures.
Q.14 What are the factors that affect the rate of evaporation?
Ans.
1. Surface Area:
m
Evaporation takes place from liquid surface. If area of the surface of
liquid increases the rate of evaporation will also increase.
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2. Temperature:
e.c
Temperature also affects rate of evaporation Higher the
temperature faster will be the rate of evaporation.
3. Intermolecular forces:
fre
Stronger the intermolecular attractive forces slower is the value
of evaporation and vice versa.
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Q.15 Define and explain the vapour pressure.
Ans. Vapour Pressure:
The pressure exerted by the vapours on the surface of liquid at
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equilibrium state at a given temperature is called vapour pressure.

Explanation:
Consider a liquid closed in container at a certain temperature.
High energy molecules leave the surface of liquid and gather above
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the surface in the empty space in the form of vapours. These

molecules collide with the walls of container as well as with the
surface of liquid. In this way they lose some their kinetic energy
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and there is a chance that these molecules are recaptured by the

liquid surface. This process is known as condensation. Both the
process i.e. condensation and evaporation continue, till rates of
both processes become equal. This state is called dynamic
equilibrium, and the pressure exerted by the vapours at this state on
the liquid surface at particular temperature is called
vapour pressure. Vapour pressure does not depend upon amount or
volume of liquid and surface area.
Q.16 What are the factors affecting vapour pressure.
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Ans.
1. Nature of liquid
2. Strength of intermolecular forces
3. Size of molecules
4. Temperature.
Q.17 Define boiling point.
m
Ans.
The temperature at which the vapour pressure of liquid becomes
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equal to the external atmospheric pressure is called boiling point of
e.c
liquid.
Q.18 Give variation of vapour pressure and boiling point.
Ans.
fre
Vapour pressure is closely related to boiling point. Variation in
vapour pressure depends upon the following factors.
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1. Temperature:
vapour pressure of a liquid increases by increasing
temperature. Higher the temperature more will be the vapour
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pressure and vice versa. Liquids boil at that temperature when their
vapour pressures are equal to 760 torr at sea level. By increasing
external pressure boiling point can be increased.
2. Strength of intermolecular forces:
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Stronger the intermolecular forces lower will be vapour

pressure and higher will be the boiling point.
Q.19 What is the effect of external pressure on boiling point?
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Ans.
A liquid boils when its internal pressure becomes equal to external
atmospheric pressure so, by changing external pressure, a liquid
can be boiled at any temperature. If external pressure is greater, the
liquid needs more heat to equalize the internal pressure to external
atmospheric pressure. Similarly if external pressure is lower, liquid
needs less amount of heat to equalize its vapour pressure, the
external pressure. under 700 torr (at Murree hills) water boils at
98oC.
9
Q.20 Why boiling point of water is 980C at Murree?

Ans:
At high altitudes the atmospheric pressure becomes low
therefore B.P of water at Murree is 980C.
Q.21 Why boiling point of water is 1200C at 1489 torr why?
Ans:
m
The normal B.P of H2O is 1000C at 760 torr since B.P increases
by increasing pressure therefore B.P of H2O is 1200C at 1489 torr.
o
Q.22 Why the boiling points of the hydrides of second period in
e.c
group IV-A,V-A,VI-A and VII-A are greater than the B.P of
hydrides of third period?
Ans:
fre
The elements of second period are more electronegative than the
respective element third period. So,the polarities of the bonds with
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hydrogen are greater than the third period elements.
H2 O > H2 S; NH3 > P H3 ;HF > HCI; CH4 < SiH4
Q.23 Define molar heat of vapourization?
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Ans:
The amount of heat required to vapourize one mole of liquid at its
boiling point is called molar heat of vapourization.
Q.24 What is vacuum distillation? Explain.
w.a
Ans. Definition:
The process in which liquid is heated under reduced pressure, to
convert it into its vapours at low temperature and then to condense
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these vapours into liquid is known as vacuum distillation.

Explanation:
In vacuum distillation boiling point of liquid decreases by
reducing the pressure. This is done by connecting the distillation
apparatus to the vacuum pump. In this way liquids with high
boiling points can be boiled at low temperature.
Q.25 Define enthalpy change.
Ans.
10
If physical or chemical change occurs at constant pressure then

it is known as enthalpy change.
Q.26 What are types of enthalpy changes?
Ans.
There are three types of enthalpy changes.
1. Molar Heat of Fusion (DHf):
m
The amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a solid to melt it
into liquids at its melting point at atmospheric pressure is called
o
molar heat of fusion. It is denoted by D Hf.
e.c
2. Molar Heat of vapourization (D Hv):
The amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a liquid to convert it
into one mole of vapours at its boiling point at 1 atmospheric
fre
pressure is called molar heat of vapourization. It is denoted by D
Hv.
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3. Molar Heat of sublimation (D Hs):
The amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a solid to convert
it directly into one mole of its vapours at particular temperature at
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1 atmospheric pressure is called molar heat of sublimation. It is

denoted by D Hs.
Q.27 What are liquid crystals? Give their types.
Ans.
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The molecules which are large somewhat rigid and linear having
some of structures of solids showing optical properties and some of
the freedom of motion of liquids are called liquid crystals.
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Types of liquid crystals:

(a) Smectic liquid crystals.
(b) Nematic liquid crystals.
(c) Cholesteric liquid crystals.
Q.28 What are solids?
Ans.
Solids are those substances which are rigid, hard, have definite
shape and definite volume. The atoms, ions, and molecules, that
11
make up a solid are close packed. They are held together by strong
cohesive forces.
Q.29 Crystals have their own habits justify it?
Ans:
The shape of a crystal in which it usually grows called habit of a
crystal. The shape of the crystal remains same if its conditions
m
remain same. For example When 10%urea is added in NaCl then
needle like crystals are formed instead of cubic crystals
o
Q.30 Justify that solids are rigid?
e.c
Ans:
The solids are very rigid. This rigidity is due to the fixed positions
of the particles. The presence of strong cohesive forces makes
fre
particles unable to change their positions. This rigidity of solids
can be changed under stress
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Q.31 Give types of solids?
Ans.
There are two types of solids:
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(i) Crystalline solids

(ii) Amorphous solids
Crystalline solids:
Those solids in which atoms, ions or molecules are arranged
w.a
to a definite three dimensional pattern,are called crystalline solids.

Amorphous solids:
Those solids whose constituent atoms, ions or molecules do not
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possess a regular orderly arrangement are called amorphous

solids.The best examples are glass, plaster and rubber, glue, etc.
Q.32 Define the following:
(i) Cleavage planes.
(ii) Anisotropy
(iii) Symmetry
(iv) Habit of a crystal
Ans.
(i) Cleavage planes:
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whenever the crystalline solids are broken they do so along

definite planes. These planes are called the cleavage planes.
(ii) Anisotropy:
Some of the crystals show variation in physical properties
depending upon the direction; such properties are called
anisotrophic properties and the phenomenon is called anisotropy.
m
(iii) Symmetry:
The repetition of faces angles or edges when a crystal is
o
rotated by 360o along its axis is called symmetry.
e.c
(v) Habit of a crystal:
The shape of a crystal in which it usually grows is called habit of
crystal.
Q.32 Define the following:
(i) Isomorphism
fre
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(ii) Polymorphism
(iii) Allotropy
(iv) Transition temperature
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(v) Crystal lattice

(vi) Unit cell
Ans.
(i) Isomorphism:
w.a
Isomorphism is the phenomenon in which two different

substances exist in the same crystalline form. These different
substance are called isomorphs of each other.
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Examples of ismorphs are NaNO3, CaCO3,K2SO4,

K2CrO4.
(ii) Polymorphism:
Polymorphism is a phenomenon in which a substance exists in
more than one crystalline forms. The substance which exists in
more than one crystalline forms is called polymorphic, and these
forms are called polymorphs of each other. Polymorphs have same
chemical properties but they differ in the physical
propertiesAgNO3, CaCO3 are polymorphs.
13
(iii) Allotropy:
The existence of an element in more than one crystalline form is
known as allotropy and these forms of the element are called
allotropes or allotropic forms.
Element Crystalline forms
Carbon Cubic (Diamond)
m
Hexagonal (Graphite).
(iv) Transition Temperature:
o
It is that temperature at which two crystalline forms of the
e.c
same substance can coexist in equilibrium with each other. At this
temperature one crystalline form of substance changes to one
another.95.50
(v) Crystal lattice:

fre
Sulphur S8 (rhombic) sulphur S8 (monoclinic)
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A crystal lattice is defined as an array of points representing
atoms, ions or molecules of a crystal arranged at different sites in
three dimensional space.
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(vi) Unit cell:

The smallest part of crystal lattice has all the characteristic
features of the entire crystal is called unit cell.
The simplest unit cell is a cubic unit cell.
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Q.33 Name the crystal systems.

Ans. (Cu T Or T He Mo Tri)
1. Cubic system
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2. Tetragonal system
3. Orthorhombic or Rhombic system
4. Monoclinic system
5. Hexagonal system
6. Trigonal system
7. Triclinic system
Q.34 Define lattice energy.
Ans.
14
The energy released when one mole of the ionic crystal is formed
from the gaseous ions.It is also defined as the energy required to
break one mole of solid into isolated ions in the gas phase. It is
expressed in kJ mol–1.
Na+(g) + Cl–(g) ® NaCl(s) D H – 792 kJ mol–1
or
m
NaCl(3) ® Na+(g) + Cl–(g).
Q.35 Describe the types of crystalline solids.
o
Ans.
e.c
There are four types of crystalline solids, depending upon the type of
bond present in them.
1. Ionic solids.
2.
3.
Covalent solids.
Metallic solids.
fre
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4. Molecular solids.
1. Ionic Solids:
Crystalline solids in which the particles forming the crystals are
llon
positively and negatively charged ions are called ionic solids.These

ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction.
These attractive forces are also called ionic bonds. The crystals of
NaCl, KBr etc. are ionic solids.
w.a
2. Covalent solids:
The crystalline solids in which atoms of similar or different
elements are held together by covalent bonds are known as
ww
covalent solids. They are also called atomic solids.

There are two types of covalent solids.
Type 1:
When covalent bonds give joint molecules like diamond,
silicon carbide or Aluminum nitride.
Type 2:
When atoms join to form the covalent bonds and separate
layers are produced like that of graphite, cadmium
iodide and boron nitride.
15
3. Molecular solids:
The solid substance in which the particles forming the crystals
are polar or non–polar molecules or atoms, are called molecular
solids. In solidified noble gases, there are non–polar atoms. Two
types of intermolecular forces hold them together.
1. Dipole–dipole interactions
m
2. Vander Waal’s forces
These intermolecular forces are much weaker then the forces of
o
attraction between the cations and the anions in ionic crystals and
e.c
between the atoms in the covalent crystals. Ice and the sugar are
the best example of crystals having polar molecules, whereas
iodine sulphur and carbon dioxide form crystals containing non–
4.
polar molecules.
Metallic solids:
fre
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The crystalline solids in which the metal atoms are held
together by metallic bonds are known as metallic solids.
Metallic Bond:
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The force of attraction that binds positive metal ion to the

number of electrons with in its sphere of influence is called
metallic bond.
Theories of metallic bond:
w.a
1. Electron gas theory

2. Valence bond theory
3. Molecular orbital theory
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Q.36 Iodine dissolves readily in tetrachloromethane. Give reason.

Ans.
We know that ―like dissolve like‖. Iodine is a non–polar
substance. So it becomes solvable in non–polar solvent CCl4.
Q.37 Justify molecular solids are soft and compressible?
Ans:
The forces which hold the molecules together in molecular
structure are weak so, they are soft and compressible
Q.38 What is crystallite?
16
Ans:
The small regions in amorphous solids where particles have a regular
arrangement are called crystallites.
Q.39 Why diamond is bad conductor of electricity?
Ans:
In diamond each carbon is SP3 hybridized there is no free electron to
m
conduct electricity therefore it is bad conductor.
Q.40 Why metals have shiny surface?
o
Ans:
e.c
When light falls on the surface of metals then the electrons are
excited after de-exictation they emit energy in the form of light
therefore they show shiny surface.
fre
Q.41 Why Na is soft while Cu is hard?
Ans:
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In sodium only one mobile electron is present while in copper two
mobile electrons are present due to strong metallic bond in
copper it is hard.
llon
Q.42 Why ionic crystals are brittle?

Ans:
Because ionic solids are composed of parallel layers which
contain cations & anions in alternate positions, so that the opposite
w.a
ions in the various parallel layers lie over each other. When an
external force is applied one layer of the ions slide pass over other
layer. In this way due to repulsion of similar ions the crystals show
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brittleness.
Q.43 Electrical conductivity of metals decreases by increasing
temperature?
Ans:
With the increases in temperature the positive ions of metals
also vibrate which hinders the motion of mobile electrons due to
this hindrance electrical conductivity also decreases.
Q.44 What is coordination no. of an ion? What is the coordination
no of the cation in (a)NaCl, and(b)CsCl?
17
Ans:
The no. of positive ions which surround the anion called
coordination no. of anion (a) Coordination no. Na in NaCl is
6 (b) Coordination no of Cs in CsCl is 8 (due to the greater
size of Cs)
om
e.c
fre
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w.a
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18
Chapter4rth
LIQUIDS AND SOLIDS
m
TEXT BOOK EXERCISE
o
Q.1. Multiple choice questions.
e.c
London dispersion forces are the only forces present among the:
(a) molecules of water in liquid state
(b) atoms of helium in gaseous state at high temperature
(c)
(d)
fre
molecules of solid iodine
molecules of hydrogen chloride gas
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Acetone and chloroform are soluble in each other due to
(a) intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(b) ion-dipole interaction
(c) instantaneous dipole
llon
(d) all of the above

NH3 shows a maximum boiling point among the hydrides of Vth group
elements due to
w.a
(a) very small size of nitrogen

(b) I one pair of electrons present on nitrogen.
(c) enhanced electronegative character of nitrogen
ww
(d) pyramidal structure of NH3

When water freezes at 0oC, its density decreases due to
(a) cubic structure of ice
(b) empty spaces present in the structure of ice
(c) change of bond lengths
(d) change of bond angles
In order to mention the boiling point of water at 110 oC, the external
pressure should be
(a) between 760 torr and 1200 torr
(b) between 200 torr and 760 torr
1
(c) 765 torr

(d) any value of pressure
Ans: (i) c (ii) a (iii) c (iv) b (v) a
m
i The polarizability of noble gases ________ down the group and
results in the increase in their
o
ii ________boiling points is developed in acetone and chloroform
e.c
when they are mixed together.
iii Exceptionally weak ________ of HF is due to strong hydrogen
bonding present in it.
iv fre
The concept of dynamic equilibrium is the ultimate ________ of
all reversible systems.
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v HV of C6H14 should be ________ than that of C2H6.
vi During the formation of ice from liquid water there is a
________ % increase in volume.
llon
vii The rate of increase of vapour pressure of water ________ at

high temperatures
viii A layer of ice on the surface of water ________ the water
underneath for further heat loss.
w.a
ix Evaporation is a ________ process.

x Liquid crystals are used in the display of ________ devices.
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Ans: (i) increases (ii) H-bonding (iii) acidic strength (iv) result /
goal (v) greater (vi) 9 (vii) increases (viii) insulates or
prevents (ix) cooling (x) electrical.
Q.4. (a) What type of intermolecular forces will dominate in the

following liquids.
(i) Ammonia, NH3 (ii) Octane, C8H18 (iii) Argon, Ar (iv)
Propanone, CH3COCH3 (v) Methanol, CH3OH
2
(b) Propanone (CH3COCH3), propanol (C3CH2CH2OH) and butane

have very similar relative molecular masses. List them in the
expected order of increasing boiling point. Explain your
answer.
Answers:
In ammonia (NH3) hydrogen bonding will dominate. It is due to
m
high E.N of Nitrogen
Octane (C8H18) has weak Vander Waal’s Forces but no hydrogen
o
bonding.
e.c
Argon has wear London dispersion forces.
Propanone (acetone, CH3COCH3) has dipole-dipole interactions.
Methanol (CH3OH) has hydrogen bonding. It is due to high E.N of
(a)
oxygen fre
The increasing order of boiling points is Butane < Propanone <
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Propanol
The propanol (CH3-CH2-CH2-OH) has hydrogen bonding. So it has
maximum boiling point.Propanone has dipole-dipole interaction
llon
while butane has no such forces.

Q.5. Explain the following with reasons.
In the hydrogen bonded structure of HF, which is the stronger
bond: the shorter covalent bond
w.a
or the longer hydrogen bond between different molecules.

In a very cold winter the fish in garden ponds owe their lives to
hydrogen bonding?
ww
Water and ethanol can mix easily and in all proportions.

The origin of the intermolecular forces in water.
Answer:
The hydrogen bonded structure of HF is shown in figure. The
fluorine has maximum electro negativity.The shorter covalent
bond. H-F is shorter than longer hydrogen bond H---F.When
winter comes, then temperature falls down. The water at 4oC has
maximum density. So it goes to the bottom of pond. The surface
water freezes into ice. During ice formation the water molecules
3
get regular arrangements due to H-bonds. In these arrangements

there are many empty spaces and ice occupies 9% more volume
than liquid water. Thus ice has less density and floats on water.
Moreover ice is an insulator of heat. So it prevents underneath
water from freezing. Therefore fish and other aquatic animals live
(survive) under thick blanket of ice.Both water and Ethanol
m
(C2H5OH) show H-bonding with each other. It is the reason that
they can mix easily in all proportions.The oxygen atom has small
o
size and high electro negativity. There is high electro negativity
e.c
difference between oxygen and hydrogen. This high E.N difference
between O-atom and H-atom is the origin of intermolecular forces
in water.
fre
Q.6. (a) Briefly consider some of the effects on our lives if water has
only a very weak hydrogen bonding present among its molecules.
line
(b) All gases have a characteristic critical temperature.
Above the critical temperature it is impossible to liquefy a
gas. The critical temperatures of carbon dioxide and methane
are 31.14oC and -81.9oC, respectively. Which gas has the
llon
stronger intermolecular forces? Briefly explain your choice?

Answer:
(a) If water had only very weak hydrogen bonding, then its freezing
w.a
point would be less than 0oC of ice would not have been less than
liquid water. These facts would create problems for human beings
and aquatic animals.
ww
(b) Because critical temperature of CO2 is higher than that of CH4, SO,
SO2 has stronger intermolecular forces and CH4 has very weak
intermolecular forces.
Q.7. Three liquids have the properties mentioned against their
names.
NO water
propanone pentane
4
i Molecular formul H2O

C3H6O C5H12
ii Relative molecular mass (amu) 18
58 72
iii Enthalpy change of vaporization (KJ mol-1) 14.1
31.9 27.7
m
iv Boiling Point (oC) 100 56
36
o
e.c
(a) What type of intermolecular force predominates in each liquid ?
(i) In water (ii) In propanone (iii) In Pentane
(b) What do you deduce about the relative strength of these forces
fre
in the liquids? Justify your conclusions.
(c) If the liquids are shaken together in pairs,
line
(i) Which pair would be unlikely to mix ?
(ii) Explain this immiscibility in terms of the forces between the
molecules.
llon
(iii) Choose one of the pairs that mix and say whether the enthalpy
change on mixing would be positive or negative.
Answer:
(a) Water has hydrogen bonding, propanone has dipole-dipole
w.a
interactions and pentane (C5H12) has London dispersion fores.

(b) From boiling points and enthalpy of vaporizations of three
liquids we deduce that
ww
H-bonding in water is very strong

Dipole-dipole interactions in propanone are weak
London dispersion forces in pentane are very weak.
(c)
i. The pair (water + pentane) would be unlikely to mix.

ii. Water is polar molecule and pentane is non-polar molecule or
water has H-bonding and pentane has very weak London
dispersion forces so this pair of liquids is immiscible.
5
iii. Water and Propanone mix into each other because both
liquids are polar. The process of mixing is an exothermic
process and some heat will evolve. Therefore enthalpy
change will be negative.
Q.8. Describe the various forces responsible for keeping the
m
particles together in the following elements and compounds
and their effect on physical properties making use of the data
o
below:
e.c
Substances Formula Molar Mass M.P (oC)
(a.m.u)
Neon Ne 20 -248
Argon
Water
Ar
H2O
40
18
fre -189
0
line
Sodium NaF 42 993
fluoride
Diamond C 12 3350
llon
Answer:
Neon:
Neon is a noble gas. It has very weak London dispersion
w.a
Forces. Thus it has the least melting point (-248oC).

Argon:
Argon is also a noble gas. It has very weak London dispersion
ww
Forces. But it has high polarizability

than that of Neon. So its melting point is higher (-189oC) than
neon (-248oC).
Water:
Water has hydrogen bonding. Due to strong intermolecular
forces melting point of ice (water) is high.
Sodium Fluoride:
6
Sodium fluoride has ionic bond. The positive (Na+) and

negative (F-) ions are strongly held by electrostatic forces. It is the
reason that melting point of NaF is very high.
Diamond:
In diamond there is SP3 hybridization. Each carbon atom is
bonded with four other carbon atoms. A huge network structure is
m
formed. From this network structure a single unit can not be
removed. It is the reason diamond has very high melting point
o
(3350oC).
e.c
Q.9. The boiling and molar masses of hydrides of some first row
elements are tabulated below:
Substance fre
Boiling Point (K) Molar Mass (g mol-
1
)
line
CH4 109 16
NH3 240 17
H2O 373 18
llon
Suggest reasons for the difference in their boiling points in terms

of the type of molecules involved and the nature of the forces
present between them.
Answer:
w.a
CH4:
CH4 is non polar molecule. It has only weak London dispersion
Forces. It the reason that CH4 has very low boiling point (109 K or
ww
-164oC).
NH3:
NH3 is a polar molecule. It has hydrogen bonding and dipole-
dipole interactions. It is the reason that boiling point of NH3 is high
(240 K or -33oC).
H2O:
H2O is a polar molecule. It has hydrogen bonding and dipole-
dipole interaction. Because oxygen is more electronegative than
7
Nitrogen. So wager has greater hydrogen bonding than ammonia.

It is the reason H2O has higher boiling point (373 K or 100oC).
Q.10. Explain the term saturated vapour pressure. Arrange in
order of increasing vapour pressure: 1dm3 water, 1dm3
ethanol, 50cm3 water, 50cm3 ethanol and 50cm3 of ether.
Answer:
m
See page No.
50cm3 ether > 50cm3 ethanol = 1dm3 ethanol > 1dm3 H2O =
o
50cm3 H2O
e.c
Q.11. While a volatile liquid standing in a breaker evaporates, the
temperature of the liquid remains the same as that of its
surrounding. It the same liquid is allowed to vapourize into
fre
atmosphere in an insulated vessel, its temperature falls below
that of its surrounding. Explain the difference in behaviour.
line
Answer:
When a liquid evaporates in a beaker, it causes cooling. Now
heat from surrounding enters into the liquid. It is the reason
llon
temperature remains same. But when a liquid is present in an

insulated vessel, then evaporation of liquid causes cooling. But
heat can not enter into liquid from surrounding due to insulated
vessel. It is the reason that the temperature of liquid falls below
w.a
that of surrounding.
Q.13. What are liquid crystals? Give their uses in daily life.
ww
Ans: The turbid liquids with some degree of order are called liquid
crystals. The liquid like crystals which exist between melting
temperature and clearing temperature are called liquid
crystals.First of all liquid crystals were discovered in 1888 by
Frederick Reinitzer an Austrain botanist. He was studying an
organic compound cholesteryl benzoate. This compound turns
milky liquid at 145oC and becomes a clear liquid at 179oC. By
cooling, the reverse process occurs and liquid crystals are formed.
The liquid crystals are composed of long rod like molecules. They
8
have some degree of order. On the basis of ordering, the liquid

crystals are of three types.
(i) Nematic (ii) Smectic (iii) Cholestric
Properties:
(i) Liquid crystals are always isotropic.
(ii) They have optical properties.
m
(iii) They have fluidity, surface tension, viscosity etc.
(iv) Their properties are in between liquids and crystals.
o
e.c
Uses of Liquid Crystals:
(i) Liquid crystals are used as solvents in
chromatography.
(ii) fre
Liquid crystal screens are used in oscillographic
and TV displays.
line
(iii) Liquid crystals are used in thermometers.
(iv) Liquid crystals are used in electrical circuits to find
out potential failure.
llon
(v) Liquid crystals are used in the display of digital

watches, calculators and laptop computers.
(vi) Liquid crystals are used as temperature sensors.
When white light is reflected from liquid crystal then its
w.a
colour changes. When temperature changes, the colour of

reflected light also changes. Thus temperature is
accurately measured.
ww
(vii) Liquid crystals are used to locate infection, tumors

and breast cancer. They are also used to detect blockage of
veins and arteries. These parts are warmer than other
tissues. When liquid crystal is painted on them, they
produce blue coloured spots. Thus indication of any
problem is easy.
Q.14. Explain the following with reasons.
(i) Evaporation causes cooling.
(ii) Evaporation takes place at all temperatures.
9
(iii) Boiling needs a constant supply of heat.

(iv) Earthenware vessels keep water cool.
(v) One feels sense of cooling under the fan after bath.
(vi) Dynamic equilibrium is established during
evaporation of a liquid in a closed vessel at constant
temperature.
m
(vii) The boiling point of water is different at Murree
hills and at Mount Everest.
o
(viii) Vacuum distillation can be used to avoid
e.c
decomposition of sensitive liquid.
(ix) Heat of sublimation of a substance is greater than
that of heat of vaporization.
(x) fre
Heat of sublimation of iodine is very high as
compared to other halogens.
line
Answer:
(i) The reason is that during evaporation first of all high
energy molecules leave the liquid and low energy molecules
llon
are left behind. So temperature of the liquid falls and cooling

is produced. To continue the evaporation heat moves from
surrounding to the liquid. Thus temperature of surrounding
also falls. For example when we put spirit on our hands then
w.a
spirit evaporates and hand feels cooling.

(ii) Evaporation is a surface process. It takes place at all
temperatures. When high energy molecules come at the
ww
surface of liquid, they escape out of surface. However by

increasing temperature, the average K.E of molecules
increases. Hence rate of evaporation increases by increasing
the temperature.
(iii) When we supply heat to a liquid, then K.E of molecules
and rate of evaporation increase. At boiling point the K.E of
molecules becomes maximum. Thus heat supplied at boiling
point is used to break intermolecular forces. So there is no
increase in K.E of molecules. Hence temperature remains
10
constant at boiling point. It is the reason that boiling needs a

constant supply of heat.
(iv) Earthenware vessels have pores in them. Water evaporates
from these pores and causes cooling. During evaporation, the
escaping molecules get energy from neighbours to overcome
intermolecular forces. Thus temperature of remaining water
m
decreases. In the old earthenware’s pores are blocked with
dust. So water can not evaporate. Thus they do not keep
o
water cool.
e.c
(v) One feels sense of cooling under the fan after bath. It is due
to evaporation process. After a bath some water molecules
are present on the body. These molecules get heat from the
fre
body and evaporate. Thus body feels cooling.
(vi) See page No. 139
line
(vii) Atmospheric pressure is different at Murree hills and at
Mount Everest. Due to different atmospheric pressure boiling
point of water is different at two places. At Murree hills
llon
atmospheric pressure is 700 torr and boiling point of water is

98oC. At Mount Everest the atmospheric pressure is further
reduced and boiling point of water is 69oC.
(viii) The distillation which is carried out at low pressure is
w.a
called Vacuum distillation. It has many advantages.

(i) It decreases the time for distillation.
(ii) It decreases fuel cost for distillation.
ww
(iii) It prevents decomposition of compounds

For example B.P of glycerine is 290oC. Pressure of 760 torr
but at this temperature glycerine decomposes. Hence
distillation of glycerine is impossible at 290oC. Therefore its
vacuum distillation is done at 120oC at reduced pressure of
50 torr.
(ix) In sublimation a substance directly changes into vapours. It
is two steps process (Solid liquid vapours) on other hand
vaporization is single step process. It is the reason heat of
11
sublimation of a substance is greater than that of heat of

vaporization.
(x) Iodine has biggest atomic size than other halogens (F2, Cl2, Br2).
So I2 has high polarizability. Due to high polarizability Iodine has
greater London dispersion forces. It is the reason that heat of
sublimation of Iodine is very high
o m
e.c
fre
line
llon
w.a
ww
12
CHAPTER 5
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
MCQs
Q.1 Splitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to strong
m
electric field is called
(a) Zeeman effect (b) Stark effect
o
(c) Photoelectric effect (d) Compton effect
e.c
Q.2 The velocity of photon is
(a) independent of its wavelength
(b) depends on its wavelength
(c)
(d)
fre
equal to square of its amplitude
depends on its source
line
Q.3 The nature of positive rays depend on
(a) the nature of electrode
(b) the nature of discharge tube
(c) the nature of residual gas
llon

Q.4 The wave number of the light emitted by a certain source is 2 x
106 m. The wavelength of this light is
w.a
(a) 500 nm (b) 500 m

(c) 200 nm (d) 5 x 10–1 m
Q.5 Rutherford’s model of atom failed because
ww
(a) the atom did not have a nucleus and electrons

(b) it did not account for the attraction between protons and
neutrons
(c) it did account for the stability of the atom
(d) there is actually no space between the nucleus and the
electrons
Q.6 Bohr’s model of atom is contradicted by
(a) Planck’s quantum theory
(b) Pauli exclusion principle
(c) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
1
(d) All of the above

Q.7 Quantum number value for 2p orbitals are
(a) n = 2, l = 1 (b) n = 1, l = 2
(c) n = 1, l = 0 (d) n = 2, l = 0
Q.8 In the ground state of an atom, the electron is present
(a) in the nucleus (b) in the second shell
m
(c) nearest to the nucleus (d) farthest from the nucleus
Q.9 When the 6d orbital is complete the entering electron goes into
o
(a) 7f (b) 7s
e.c
(c) 7p (d) 7d
Q.10 Orbitals having same energy are called
(a) hybrid orbitals (b) valence orbitals
(c) fre
degenerate orbitals (d) d–orbitals
Q.11 The e/m value for the positive rays is maximum for
line
(a) hydrogen (b) helium
(c) nitrogen (d) oxygen
Q.12 Neutron was discovered by Chadwick in
llon
(a) 1935 (b) 1930

(c) 1932 (d) 1934
Q.13 The velocity of photon is
(a) equal to square of its amplitude
w.a
(b) independent of its wavelength

(c) Equal to its wave number
(d) equal to the velocity of light
ww
Q.14 Quantum number values for 3p orbitals are

(a) n = 0, l = 3 (b) n = 3, l = 1
(c) n = 2, l = 1 (d) n = 1, l = 3
Q.15 The radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom
(a) 0.329 Ao (b) 0.429 Ao
(c) 0.529 Ao (d) 0.229 Ao
Q.16 All atoms are principally composed of few fundamental particles
which are in number
(a) 2 (b) 3
2
(c) 4 (d) 5
Q.17 Which scientist gave the name of electron to the cathode rays
(a) Planck (b) Einstein
(c) Stoney (d) Bohr
Q.18 The divisibility of atom was showed by
(a) Stoney (b) J.J. Thomson
m
(c) Millikan (d) Rutherford
Q.19 The nature of cathode rays remains the same irrespective of the
o
material used for
e.c
(a) gas (b) cathode
(c) glass (d) electrode
Q.20 Mass of electron is
(a)
(c)
9.1 x 10–31 kg
8.1 x 10–31 g
fre (b)
(d)
9.109 x 10–32 gm
9.1 x 10–31 mg
line
Q.21 The charge on an electron is
(a) 1.602 x 10–19 c (b) 1.602 x 10–18 c
(c) 1.602 x 10–19 c (d) 1.602 x 10–21 c
llon
Q.22 The charge on the proton is

(a) + 1.602 x 10–19 c (b) zero
(c) – 1.602 x 1019 c (d) 1.602 x 10–19 c
Q.23 The charge on the neutron is
w.a
(a) 1.602 x 10–19 c (b) zero

(c) – 1.602 x 10–19 c (d) + 1.602 x 10–19 c
Q.24 The calculated e/m value of electron is
ww
(a) 1.602 x 1019 c kg–1 (b) 1.7588 x 10–11 c kg–1

(c) 1.7588 x 10–13 c kg–1 (d) 1.759 x 109 c kg
Q.25 The mass of proton is
(a) 9.11 x 10–31 kg (b) 1.676 x 10–27 kg
(c) 1.60 x 10–19 kg (d) 1.675 x 10–27 kg
Q.26 The mass of neutron is
(a) 1.675 x 10–27 kg (b) 1.675 x 10–25 kg
(c) 9.11 x 10–31 kg (d) 1.60 x 10–19 kg
Q.27 The charge on electron was determined by
3
(a) J.J. Thomson (b) Millikan

(c) Rutherford (d) Bohr
Q.28 Alpha particles are identical to
(a) hydrogen atoms (b) helium atoms
(c) helium nuclei (d) fast moving electrons
Q.29 Bombardment of Beryllium with alpha particles generates
m
(a) proton (b) neutron
(c) electron (d) positron
o
Q.30 The colour of the glow produced in the discharge tube depends
e.c
upon
(a) gas (b) electrodes
(c) composition of gas (d) pressure
fre
Q.31 When the pressure of the gas in discharge tube is reduced, which
of the following becomes more prominent
line
(a) gas glows (b) gas ionizes
(c) a discharge takes place (d) gas conducts
electricity
llon
Q.32 Goldstein discovered that besides the cathode rays, another type
of rays are produced in the discharge tube which are called
(a) alpha rays (b) beta rays
(c) positive rays (d) gamma rays
w.a
Q.33 The e/m value for the positive rays in the discharge tube depends
upon
(a) nature of electrode use
ww
(b) nature of gas used

(c) composition of the gas
(d) pressure
Q.34 The distance between the two adjacent crests or troughs is called
(a) wave number (b) frequency
(c) wavelength (d) amplitude
Q.35 The value of Planck’s constant “h” is
(a) 6.625 x 10–34 cal (b) 6.625 x 10–34 J sec
(c) 6.625 x 10–34 kJ (d) 6.625 x 10–34 k cal
4
Q.36 In the Bohr’s model of atom the electron in an energy level emits
or absorbs energy only when it
(a) remains in the same energy level
(b) dies out
(c) changes its energy level
(d) jumps away
m
Q.37 The energy associated with an electron resolving in first orbit is
(a) – 2.178 x 10–18 k J/mol
o
(b) – 1313.31 k J/mol
e.c
(c) – 328.32 k J/mol
(d) – 82.08 k J/mol
Q.38 The regions of spectrum are
(a)
(c)
three
eight
fre (b)
(d)
seven
five
line
Q.39 The dispersion of the components of white light when it is passed
through prism is called
(a) rainbow (b) light pattern
llon
(c) refraction (d) spectrum

Q.40 Which of the following colours has the shortest wavelength in
the visible spectrum of light
(a) red (b) blue
w.a
(c) violet (d) green

Q.41 Which of the following colours has the longest wavelength in the
visible spectrum of light
ww
(a) red (b) blue

(c) violet (d) green
Q.42 A spectrum containing wavelength of all wavelengths is called
(a) continuous (b) discontinuous
(c) line (d) atomic
Q.43 A spectrum showing only certain colours of light is called
(a) continuous (b) line
(c) discontinuous (d) band
Q.44 The wavelength range of visible spectrum is
5
(a) 400–750 nm (b) 300–400 nm

(c) 350–600 nm (d) 200–400 nm
Q.45 The spectral lines of Lyman series (uv region) are produced
when electron jumps from higher orbit to
(a) 1st orbit (b) 2nd orbit
(c) 3rd orbit (d) 4th orbit
m
Q.46 The spectral lines of Balmer series (visible region) are produced
o
e.c
Q.47 The spectral lines of Paschen series (visible region) are produced
(a)
(c)
1st orbit
3rd orbit
fre (b)
(d)
2nd orbit
4th orbit
line
Q.48 The spectral lines of Bracket series (visible region) are produced
llon

Q.49 A dual character of matter particles in motion was postulated by
(a) De–Broglie (b) Planck
(c) Einstein (d) Schrodinger
w.a
Q.50 If an electron is moving with a velocity of 2.188 x 106 m/s then

its wavelength will be
(a) 0.33 x 106 nm (b) 0.33 x 10–2 nm
ww
(c) 0.33 nm (d) 0.22 nm

Q.51 If a stone of 1gm is many with a velocity of 10m/s then its
wavelength will be
(a) 6.65 x 10–30 m (b) 6.65 x 10–25 m
(c) 6.65 x 10–28 m (d) 6.65 x 10–12 m
Q.52 The space around the nucleus where the probability of finding
the electron is maximum is called
(a) an orbital (b) an orbit
(c) energy level (d) a shell
6
Q.53 Which orbital has dumb–bell shape

(a) s–orbital (b) p–orbital
(c) d–orbital (d) f–orbital
Q.54 Which of the following quantum numbers describes energy of an
electron in an atom
(a) principal quantum (b) azimuthal quantum
m
(c) magnetic quantum (d) spin quantum
Q.55 Which of the following quantum numbers describes shape of an
o
electron in an atom
e.c
(a) principal quantum (b) azimuthal quantum
(c) magnetic quantum (d) spin quantum
Q.56 The degenerate orbital in p–subshell is
(a)
(c)
2
5
fre (b)
(d)
3
7
line
Q.57 When 4p orbital is complete the entering electron goes into
(a) 4d (b) 4f
(c) 5s (d) 5p
llon
Q.58 x + l value for 3d will be

(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
Q.59 Maximum number of electrons in 3f orbitals is
w.a
(a) 2 (b) zero

(c) 6 (d) 14
Q.60 Maximum number of electrons in M–shell is
ww
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 18 (d) 32
Q.61 An orbital can have maximum electrons
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 18 (d) 6
Q.62 n + l value for 4f will
(a) 2 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 9
7
Q.63 When a spectrum of light is formed by the radiation given off by

a substance it is called
(a) line spectrum (b) continuous spectrum
(c) emission spectrum (d) absorption spectrum
Q.64 Neutron was discovered by
(a) Chadwick (b) Bohr
m
(c) J.J. Thomson (d) Einstein
Q.65 Cathode rays can drive a small paddle wheel which shows that
o
they
e.c
(a) are positively charged
(b) possess momentum
(c) do not possess momentum
(d) none of these fre
Q.66 Slow neutrons are generally more effective than fastness for the
line
purpose of
(a) effusion (b) fission
(c) penetration (d) absorption
llon
Q.67 The wavelength associated with the moving stone

(a) can be measured by many methods
(b) cannot be measured by any method
(c) can be measure by some method
w.a
(d) none of these

Q.68 Radius of orbit of an electron and velocity of electron are
(a) directly proportional to each other
ww
(b) inversely proportional to each other

(c) independent to each other
(d) none of these
Q.69 The values of magnetic quantum number give us information
about the number of orbitals in a
(a) small shell (b) orbit
(c) subshell (d) none of these
Q.70 Which of the following terms are used for the number of positive
charges on the nucleus of an atom
8
(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass

(c) nuclear charge (d) atomic charge
Q.71 The uncertainty principle was stated by
(a) de Broglie (b) Heinsenberg
(c) Einstein (d) Schrodinger
Q.72 When a pressure in a discharge tube is reduced, which of the
m
following phenomenon becomes very prominent
(a) gas conducts electricity
o
(b) a discharge takes place
e.c
(c) gas ionizes
(d) gas glows
Q.73 Atom bomb is based on the principle of
(a)
(b)
nuclear fusion
nuclear fission
fre
line
(c) fusion and fission both
(d) radioactivity
Q.74 A spinning electron creates
llon
(a) magnetic field (b) electric field

(c) quantum field (d) none of these
Q.75 The volume of space in which there is 95% chance of finding an
electron is
w.a
(a) orbit (b) atomic orbital

(c) degenerate orbital (d) quantized orbital
Q.76 Planck’s equation is
ww
(a) E = mc2 (b) E = hv

(c) E = hv2 (d) E = mc
Q.77 In an atom, the electrons
(a) are stationary in various energy levels
(b) are distributed in three dimensional charge cloud around
the nucleus
(c) embedded in space around the nucleus
(d) revolve around the nucleus at random
Q.78 The mass number of an element is equal to
9
(a) number of electrons in an atom

(b) number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus
(c) number of protons in the nucleus
(d) number of neutrons in the nucleus
Q.79 The energy of bounded electron in H atom is
(a) positive (b) negative
m
(c) zero (d) none of these
Q.80 Quantum number which has symbol “n” is called
o
(a) principal quantum (b) Azimuthal quantum
e.c
(c) Spin quantum (d) Magnetic quantum
ANSWERS
Question
s
1 2 3 fre
4 5
line
Answers b a c a c
Question 6 7 8 9 10
s
llon
Answers c a c c c
Question 11 12 13 14 15
s
Answers a c d b c
w.a
Question 16 17 18 19 20
s
Answers b c b d a
ww
Question 21 22 23 24 25
s
Answers c a b b b
Question 26 27 28 29 30
s
Answers a b c b c
Question 31 32 33 34 35
s
Answers c c b c b
10
Question 36 37 38 39 40
s
Answers c b c d c
Question 41 42 43 44 45
s
Answers a a b a a
m
Question 46 47 48 49 50
s
o
Answers b c d a c
e.c
Question 51 52 53 54 55
s
Answers
Question
a
56
a
57
b
58 frea
59
b
60
s
line
Answers b c c b c
Question 61 62 63 64 65
s
llon
Answers a c c a b
Question 66 67 68 69 70
s
w.a
Answers b b b c a
Question 71 72 73 74 75
s
Answers b b b a b
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Question 76 77 78 79 80
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Answers b b b b a
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CHAPTER 5
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
SHORT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
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Q.1 Why it is necessary to decrease the pressure in the discharge tube
to get the cathode rays?
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Ans.
e.c
The current does not flow through the gas at ordinary pressure
even at high voltage about 500 volts. However when the pressure
inside the tube is decreased, the gas in the tube begins to conduct
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electricity at low pressure. Therefore it is necessary to decrease the
pressure in the discharge tube to get the cathode rays.
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Q.2 Which ever gas is used in the discharge tube the nature of the
cathode rays remains the same why?
Ans.
A cathode ray consists of beam of electrons and electrons are
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constituents of all matter so, cathode rays do not depend upon the
nature of the gas. Therefore, whichever gas is used in the discharge
tube, the nature of cathode rays remains the same.
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Q.3 Why e/m value of cathode rays is just equal to that of electrons?
Ans.
A cathode ray consists of beam of electrons, so cathode rays are
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actually electrons. Therefore e/m value of cathode ray is just equal

to that of electron.
Q.4 The bending of the cathode rays in the electric and magnetic field
show that they are negatively charged.
Ans.
The cathode ray beam travels in a straight line from the cathode
to anode. The beam bends toward the south pole of the magnet
when it passes through the magnetic field, which shows the
cathode rays are negatively charged.
Q.5 Why positive rays are also called canal rays?
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Ans.
Since positive rays produced in the discharge tube passed
through the canals or holes of cathode, therefore positive rays are
also called canal rays.
Q.6 The e/m values of positive rays for different gases are different
but those for cathode rays, the e/m value is the same.
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Ans.
The e/m value of positive rays depends upon the nature of gas
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used in the discharge tube. The characteristic of the gas varies from
e.c
gas to gas, but for cathode rays e/m value is independent of the
nature of the gas. Therefore, e/m values of positive rays for
different gases are different but those for cathode rays the e/m
Q.7
value is the same. fre
The e/m value for positive rays obtained from hydrogen gas 1836
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times more than that of an electron?
Ans.
The mass of hydrogen gas is 1836 times more than that of an
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electron. Cathode rays consist of beam of electrons. The e/m value

for positive rays depends upon the gas used in the tube, and e/m
value for cathode rays is independent of the nature of the gas.
Therefore e/m value for positive rays obtained from H2 gas is 1836
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times less than that of cathode rays. Heavier the gas, the smaller
the e/m value for positive rays.
Q.8 Justify, that cathode rays are material particles.
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Ans.
Cathode rays drive a small paddle, wheel which shows that these
rays posses momentum. From this observation, it is inferred that
cathode rays are not rays but particles having a definite mass and
velocity. Therefore cathode rays are material particles.
Q.9 How neutrons are produced?
Ans.
2
When a stream of –particles from a polonium source is directed

at beryllium target, penetrating radiations are produced, which are
called neutrons.
He + Be  C + n
Q.10 Why the neutrons are used as projectile?
Ans:
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The particles, which hit the nucleus and can change its nature are
called projectile. A projectile must be chargeless otherwise it will
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be captured or repelled by the nucleus. The slow moving neutrons
e.c
cause nuclear reactions like fission and are used in artificial
radioactivity. They are chargeless; therefore they can be used as
projectile in nuclear research.
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n + Cu → Cu + hv ( - radiations)
Cu → -1e ( -particle)
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Zn +
Q.10 How are x–rays produced?

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Ans.
X–rays are produced when fast moving electrons collide with
heavy metal anode in the discharge tube.
Q.11 why the potential energy of bounded electron is negative in
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Bohr’s model?
Ans.
The potential energy of bounded electron is negative, because the
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energy of separated nucleus and electron is taken to be zero. As

electron is brought from infinity towards the nucleus to form a
stable state of the atom, energy is released because of attractive
forces and the energy becomes less than zero, or negative.
Therefore, the energy of the bounded electron is negative.
Q.12 Why the total energy of bounded electron in negative in Bohr’s
model?
Ans.
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The total energy of bounded electron is negative because the

electron is under the force of attraction of the nucleus to have a
stable state of the atom. More over when we calculate the total
energy of the bounded electron, which is the sum of K.E. and P. E
comes which is also negative.
Q.13 Explain that energy of an electron is inversely proportional to n2,
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but energy of higher orbits are always greater than those of the lower
orbits in Bohr’s model.
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Ans.
e.c
The energy of an electron in the nth orbit is
En = –
where e, m, 00 and h are all constants, thus En 
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The more negative the energy is the more stable will be the atom.
The energy becomes successively less negative, therefore the
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energy values of higher orbits are always greater than those of the
lower orbits.
Q.14 Explain the energy difference between adjacent levels goes on
decreasing sharply in Bohr’s model.
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Ans.
The energy difference between adjacent levels goes on
decreasing, because the distance between the adjacent orbits
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increases.
Q.15 why does cathode rays produce shadow of an opaque object
placed in their path.
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Ans.
Any object which is material in nature, produces its shadow.
Since cathode rays are material in nature, therefore, they produce
shadow of an opaque object placed in their path.
Q.16 Give the main points of quantum theory of radiation.
Ans.
1. Energy is emitted or absorbed by atoms only in the form of
packets called quantum.
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2. The amount of energy associated with a quantum of radiation is

proportional to the frequency () of the radiation.
E
or E = h
3. A body can emit or absorb energy only in terms of integral
multiples of quantum.
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E = nh (where n = 1, β, γ, 4, 5, ……..)
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Q.17 Define frequency, wavelength and wave number.
Ans. Frequency ():
e.c
The number of waves passing through a point per second is
called frequency (). Its units are cycles s–1.
Wavelength (): fre
The distance between two successive crests or troughs is called
wavelength “” and is expressed in Ao or nm.
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Wave number:
The number of waves per unit length is called wave number and
is reciprocal of wave length.
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=
The wave number is expressed (m–1) or per meter.
Q.18 What is spectrum? Differentiate between continuous spectrum
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and line spectrum.

Ans.
The dispersion of the components of white light, when it is
passed through prism is called spectrum. The distribution among
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various wavelengths of the radiant energy emitted or absorbed by

an object is also called spectrum.
Continuous spectrum:
A spectrum containing light of all wavelengths is called
continuous spectrum.
In this type of spectrum, the boundary line between the colours
cannot be marked. The colours diffuse into each other. One colour
merges into another without any dark space. The best example of
continuous spectrum is rainbow.
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Line spectrum:
When an element or its compound is volatilized on a flame and
the light emitted is seen through, a spectrometer. We see distinct
lines separated by dark spaces. This type of spectrum is called line
spectrum. This is the characteristic of an atom.
Q.19 Describe briefly Rutherford’s atomic model.
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Ans.
According to Rutherford’s model most of the mass of the atom
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(99.95%) is concentrated in a positively charged centre, called
e.c
nucleus around which the negatively charged electrons move.
Q.20 On which experiment Rutherford’s atomic model is based on,
describe it briefly?
Ans. fre
Rutherford’s atomic model is based on the scattering of –
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particles emitted from radioactive substances pass through the
metal atoms of the foil undeflected by the light weight electrons.
When an –particle does happen to hit a metal–atom nucleus.
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However, it is scattered at a wide angle because it is repelled by

the massive positively charged nucleus.
Q.21 Define orbit and orbital.
Ans. Orbit:
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A definite circular path at a definite distance from the nucleus in

which the electrons revolve around the nucleus is called an orbit.
K, L, M, N are orbits.
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Orbital:
A three dimensional region or space around the nucleus, within
which the probability of finding an electron is maximum called an
orbital, s, p, d and f are atomic orbitals.
Q.22 What do you understand by wave particle duality and what is the
de Broglei relation?
Ans.
According to de Broglei, all matter particles in motion have a
dual character. It means that electrons, protons, neutrons, atoms,
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and molecules, possess the characteristics of both the material

particle and a wave. This is called wave particle duality in matter.
De Broglei derived a mathematical equation which relates the
wavelength () of the electron to the momentum of electron (mv)
 =
Where  = wavelength v = velocity of electron
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M = mass of electron and h is Planck’s constant.
This equation  = is called de Broglie relation.
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Q.23 What is Heisenberg’s uncertainty principles?
e.c
Ans.
Heisenberg showed that it is impossible to determine
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simultaneously both the position and momentum of an electron.
Suppose that x is the uncertainty in the measurement of the
position and p is the uncertainty in the measurement of
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momentum of an electron.
x . p 
This relationship is called uncertainty principle.
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Q.24 What are quantum numbers?

Ans.
The dimensionless numbers, rise naturally when the Schrodinger
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wave equation is solved for electron wave patterns and their

energies are called quantum numbers.
These numbers describe the behaviour of electron in an atom
completely.
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There are four quantum numbers.

1. Principal quantum number “n”
It describes the energy of an electron in an atom. The value of n
represents the shell or energy level in which the electron revolves
around the nucleus. These shells are named as K, L, M, N, O, P,
having the values of n, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 respectively. The greater
the value of n, the greater will be the distance from the nucleus and
greater will be the energy of electron in the shell.
2. Azimuthal quantum number “l”
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It determines the shape of orbital, it can have any integer value

from 0 to n–l. this quantum number is used to represent the sub–
shells, and these value are l = 0, 1, 2, 3. These values represent
different sub–shells which are designated as s, p, d, and f, with
values of l = 0, 1, 2, 3 respectively.
3. Magnetic quantum number (m)
m
It describes the orientation of the orbital in space. It can have all
the integral values between + l and – l through zero i.e. + l
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…….. 0 …….. – l. For each value of l, there will be
e.c
(2l + 1) values of m. actually the values of m gives us the
information of degeneracy of orbitals in space.
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4. Spin quantum number (s)
It describes the spin of electron in atom. Since an electron can
spin clockwise or anti clockwise, thus two possible values are +
and – depending upon the spin of electron.
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Q.25 What is n + l rule?

Ans.
This rule says that sub–shells are arranged in the increasing order
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of (n + l) values and if any two sub–shells have the same (n + l)

values, then the sub–shell is filled first whose n values is smaller.
Q.26 What is the origin of line spectrum?
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Ans.
According to Bohr’s theory each bright line in a line spectrum
results from the downward jump of electron from a higher energy
E2 to lower energy E1. This difference in energy (E2 – E1) is
emitted as radiation of definite frequency in the form of spectral
line.
According to the quantum theory of radiation,
E1 – E2 = h
Or  =
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Q.27 When is Zeeman effect?

Ans.
When the excited atoms of hydrogen are placed in a magnetic
field, its spectral line are further split up in to closely spaced lines.
This type of splitting of spectral lines is called Zeeman effect.
Q.28 What is stark effect?
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Ans.
When the excited hydrogen atom are placed in an electric field,
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its spectral lines are further split up into closely spaced lines. This
e.c
type of splitting of spectral lines is called stark effect.
Q.29 What is Mosely’s Law?
Ans.
fre
Mosely’s law states that the frequency of spectral line in
x–ray spectrum varies as the square of atomic number of an
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element emitting it. This law convinces us that it is the atomic
number and not the atomic mass of the element which determines
its characteristic properties, both physical and chemical.
Q.30 Describe Summerfield’s modification of Bohr’s model atom.
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Ans.
Summerfield suggested that the moving electron revolves in
elliptical orbits in addition to circular orbit, with the nucleus
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situated at one of the foci of the ellipse. The elliptical paths of the
moving electron go on changing their position in space, and the
nucleus is buried by the electronic cloud from all the sides.
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Q.31 Which of these orbitals, 3d or 4s has higher energy level?

Ans.
For 3d, n + l = 3 + 2 = 5 and for 4s, n + l = 4 + 0 = 4.
Therefore 3d orbital has higher energy, than 4s orbital.
Q.32 How many maximum number of electron can have an orbital and
a shell?
Ans.
An orbital can have maximum two electrons with opposite spins.
A shell can have maximum of βnβ electrons, where “n” is the
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principal quantum number. First shell can have maximum 2

electrons, 2nd shell have 8 electrons 3rd shell have 18 electrons
etc.
Q.33 Distribute electrons in orbitals of 19K, 29Cu, 24Cr, 53I.
Ans.
19K  1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1
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29Cu  1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 3d10, 4s1
24Cr  1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 3d5, 4s1
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53I  1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p6, 4d10, 5s2, 5p5
e.c
Q.34 What does it mean, when we say energy is quantized?
Ans.
fre
Quantization means that energy can only be absorbed or emitted
in specific amounts or multiples of these amounts. This minimum
amount of energy is equal to a constant times the frequency of the
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radiation absorbed or emitted E = hv.
Q.35 Why do not we notice the quantization of energy in every day
activities?
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Ans.
In everyday activities, macroscopic objects such as our bodies
gain or lose total amounts of energy much larger than a single
w.a
quantum, hv. The gain or loss of the relatively minuscule quantum

of energy in unnoticed.
Q.36 Explain the existence of line spectra is consistent with Bohr’s
theory of quantized energies for the electron in the hydrogen atom.
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Ans.
When applied to atoms, the notion of quantized energies means
that only certain values of  E are allowed. These are represented
by the lines in the emission spectra of excited atoms.
Q.37 In what ways does de Broglie’s hypothesis require revision of
our picture of the H–atom based on Bohr’s model?
Ans.
De Broglie’s hypothesis not electrons have a characteristic
wavelength requires, revision of Bohr’s particle only model. For
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example the idea of a fixed orbit for the electron in hydrogen is

hard, to reconcile with the wave properties of electron.
Q.38 (a) For n = 4 what are possible values of l?
(b) For l = 2 what are the possible values of m.
Ans.
(a) n = 4 l = 3, 2, 1, 0
m
(b) l = 2 m = – 2, – 1, 0, 1, 2
Q.39 Which of the following are permissible sets of quantum numbers
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for an electron in a hydrogen atom?
e.c
(a) n = 2 l = 1 m = 1
(b) n = 1 l = 0 m = –1
(c) n = 4 l = 2 m = –2
(d)
Ans.
n = 3 l = 3 m = 0 fre
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(a) permissible 2p (b) not permissible
(c) Permissible 4d (d) not permissible
Q.40 (a) What are the possible values of the electron spin quantum
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numbers?
(b) What piece of experimental equipment can be used to distinguish
electrons that have different values of the electron spin quantum
number?
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(c) Two electrons in an atom both occupy the Is orbital. What

quantity must be different for the two electrons? What principle governs
the answer to this question?
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Ans.
(a) +,–
(b) A magnet with a strong inhomogeneous magnetic field.
(c) They must have different spin quantum number values. The
Pauli exclusion principle.
Q.41 Give region of different spectral lines.
Ans.
1. Lyman series (U. V. region)
2. Balmer series (visible region)
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3. Paschen series (I. R. region)

4. Bracket series (I. R. region)
5. Pfund series (I. R. region)
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e.c
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w.a
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CHAPTER 5
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
TEXT BOOK EXERCISE
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Q1. Select the most suitable answer for the given one.
i. The nature of the positive rays depends on
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(a) The nature of the electrode
e.c
(b) The nature of the discharge tube
(c) The nature of the residual gas
ii. fre
The velocity of photon is
(a) Independent of its wavelength
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(b) Depends on its wavelength
(c) Equal to square of its amplitude
(d) Depends on its source
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iii. The wave number of the light emitted by a certain source is 2 x

106 m. the wavelength of this light will be
(a) 500nm (b) 500m
(c) 200nm (d) 5 x 107 m
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iv. Rutherford’s model of an atom failed because

(a) The atom did not have a nucleus an electron
(b) It did not account for the attraction between protons and
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neutrons
(c) It did not account for the stablility of the atom
(d) There is actually no space between the nucleus and the
electrons
v. Bohr model of atom is contradicted by
(a) Planck quantum theory
(b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(c) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
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vi. Splitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to

strong electric field is called.
(a) Zeeman effect (b) Stark effect
(c) Photoelectric effect (d) Compton Effect
vii. In the ground state of an atom, the electron is present
(a) In the nucleus (b) in the second shell
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(c) Nearest to the nucleus
(d) farthest from the nucleus
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viii. Quantum number values for 2p orbitals are
e.c
(a) n=2, l=l (b) n=1, l=2
(c) n=1, l=0 (d) n=2, l=0
ix. Orbitals having same energy are called
(a)
(c)
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Hybrid orbitals
Degenerate orbitals (d)
(b) valence orbitals
d-orbitals
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x. when 6d orbitals is complete, the entering electron goes into
(a) 7f (b) 7s (c) 7p (d) 7d

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Ans. (i)c (ii)a (iii)a (iv)c (v)c

(vi)b (vii)c (viii)a (ix)c
(x)c
Q.2 Fill in the blanks with suitable words
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(i) B-particles are nothing but _______moving with a very high

speed.
(ii) The charge on one mole of electrons is ________coulombs.
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(iii) The mass of hydrogen atom is _________grams.

(iv) The mass of one mole of electron is _________.
(v) Energy is ________when electron jumps from higher to a
lower orbit.
(vi) The ionization energy of hydrogen atom can be given by
formula ________.
(vii) For d sub-shell, the azimuthal quantum number has a value of
________.
2
(viii) The number of electrons in a given sub-shell is given by

formula ________.
(ix) The electronic configuration of H- is ________.
Ans. i)electrons ii)96500 iii)1066x10-24

iv)5.484x10-7kg v)emitted vi)
m
Bohr vii)2 viii)2(2l+1) ix) 1s2
Q.3 Indicate true or false as the case may be.
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(i) A neutron is slightly lighter particle than a proton.
e.c
(ii) A photon is the massless bundle of energy but has momentum.
(iii) The unit of Rydberg constant is the reciprocal of unit of
length.
(iv)
(v)
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The actual isotopic mass is a whole number.
Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle is applicable to
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macroscopic bodies.
(vi) The nodal plane in an orbital is the plane of zero electron
density.
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(vii) The number of orbitals present in a sublevel is given by the

formula (2l_1)
(viii) Magnetic quantum number was introduced to explain Zeeman
and stark effects.
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(ix) Spin quantum number tells us the direction of spin of

electron around the nucleus.
Ans. i)False ii)True iii)True
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iv)False v)False vi)True vii)True

viii)True ix)Ture
Q.4 Keeping in mind the discharge tube experiment , answer the
following questions.
(a) Why is it necessary to decrease the pressure in the discharge
tube to get the cathode rays?
Ans. There will be no flow of current through the gas when the
pressure in the discharge tube is high. In the presence of high
pressure, the cathode rays will not flow from the cathode surface.
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(b) Which ever gas is used in the discharge tube the nature of the
cathode rays remains the same. Why?
Ans. Cathode rays are composed of negatively charged particles
(electrons). They are constituents of all gases. So, cathode rays are
independent of the nature of the gas in the discharge tube.
(c) Why e/m value of the cathode rays is equal to that of electron?
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Ans. Cathode rays are composed of electrons, so their e/m value is just
equal to that of electron.
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(d) How the bending of the cathode rays in the electric and magnetic
e.c
fields shows that they are negatively charged?
Ans. when cathode rays are passed through an electric field created by
two charged metal plates, they are deflected towards the positively
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charged plate. This shows that they are negatively charged.
When cathode rays are passed between the poles of a
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magnet, the magnet neither attracts nor repels but cause them to
move in a curved path perpendicular to the line drawn between the
poles of the magnet. This shows that they are negatively charged.
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(e) Why positive rays are also called canal rays?

Ans. Positive rays pass through canals or holes in the cathode, so they
are called canal rays.
(f) The e/m value of positive rays for different gases are different but
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those for cathode rays the e/m values is the same Justify it.
Ans. The e/m value for positive rays are different for different gases
because they differ in mass. the mass of the positive particles is the
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same as that of the atom or molecule form which it is created.

Heavier the gas, smaller the e/m value.
The e/m value for cathode rays is the same because
cathode rays are composed of electrons which have constant mass.
(g) The e/m value for positive rays obtained from hydrogen gas
is 1836 time less than that of cathode rays. Justify it.
Ans. The e/m value for positive rays obtained form hydrogen gas is
1836 time less than that of cathode rays. This is because the mass
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of proton which is created from H-atom is 1836 time more than

that of an electron (cathode rays particle).
Q.5 (a) Explain Milliken’s oil drop experiment to determine the
charge of an electron.
(b) What is J.J Thomson’s experiment for determining e/m
value of electron?
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(c) Evaluate mass of electron from the above two
experiments.
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Q.6 (a) Discuss Chadwick’s experiment for the discovery of
e.c
neutrons. Compare the properties of electron, proton, and
neutron.
(b) Rutherford’s atomic model is based on the scattering of a-
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particles from a thin gold foil. Discuss it and explain the
conclusions.
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Q.7 (a) Give the postulates of Bohr’s atomic model. Which
postulate tell us that orbits are stationary and energy is
quantized?
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(b) Derive the equation for the radius of nth orbit of hydrogen
atom using Bohr’s model.
(c) How does the above equation tell you that?
(i) Radius is directly proportional to the square of the number of
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orbit.
(ii) Radius is inversely proportional to the number of proton in the
nucleus.
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Ans. The equation for the radius of nth orbit is:

r=
Since, , h, ,m and e are constant , therefore , the factor is

constant.
Therefore, r=constant x
Or
r=
Hence, we can say:
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(i) Radius is directly proportional to the square of the number of

orbit.
(ii) Radius is inversely proportional to the number of protons in the
nucleus
(d) How do you come to know that the velocities of electrons in
higher orbits are less than those in lower orbits of hydrogen atom?
m
Ans. According to Bohr, since the electron keeps on revolving around
the nucleus:
o
Therefore, centrifugal force=Electrostatic force of attraction
e.c
=
or
For H-atom,Z=1
r=
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r=
Since, e, , and m are constant, therefore, the factor is constant.

llon
Therefore, r=constant x
r=
w.a
Hence, the radius of a moving electron is inversely proportional

to the square of its velocity. The smaller the radius of the orbit, the
higher is the velocity of electron. Hence, the velocities of electrons in
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higher orbits are less than those in lower orbits of hydrogen atom.
(e) Justify that the distance gaps between different orbits go on
increasing form the lower.
Ans. We know that: r=0.529 x[n2]
When n=1 r1=0.529
When n=2 r2=0.529 x4=2.11
When n=3 r3=0.529 x9=4.75
When n=4 r4=0.529 x16=8.4
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When n=5 r5=0.529 x25=13.22

Distance between orbits are:
r2 –r1=(2.11 – 0.529) =1.581
r3 –r2=(4.75 – 2.11) =2.64
r4 –r3=(8.4 – 4.75) =3.65
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r5 –r4=(13.22 – 8.4) =4.82
From the data of radius difference, it is clear that the distance
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gaps between different orbits go on increasing from the lower to
e.c
the higher orbits.
Q8. Derive the formula for calculating the energy of an electron in
nth orbit using Bohr’s model. Keeping in view this formula explain
the following: fre
(a) The potential energy of the bounded electron is negative.
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Ans. According to Bohr, the energy of electron is calculated from the
equation:
En=- 2.178 x 10-18[]
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When n= , then En=0

Consider that an electron is present at an infinite distance from
the nucleus, so there is no interaction between the two. The energy of
this electron is zero.
w.a
Now, suppose that the electron moves closer and closer to the
nucleus. Since electron is negatively charged and nucleus is positively
charged, no work needs to be done on the electron. The electron can
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move towards the nucleus by itself due to electrical attraction. Thus,

work is done by the electron itself as it moves towards the nucleus. As a
result, the potential energy falls, i.e. it become less than zero. Any value
less than zero is negative. Hence, the potential energy of electron
becomes more and more negative as the electron moves closer and
closer towards the nucleus.
(b) Total energy of the bounded electron is negative.
Ans. When the electron is at infinite distance from the nucleus, there is
no electrostatic interaction between the two. Therefore, the energy of the
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system in this state is assumed to be zero. As the electron moves closer

to the nucleus, it does some work and energy is of the electron becomes
negative. The negative value of energy would keep increasing as the
electron moves to the energy levels nearer to the nucleus. the negative
value of total energy shows that electron is bound by the nucleus i.e,
electron is under the force of attraction of the nucleus.
m
(c) Energy of an electron is inversely proportional to n2 , but energy
of higher orbits are always greater than those of the lower orbits.
o
Ans. Energy of electron:
e.c
The energy of electron in different orbits can be calculated by
using the following equation:
En = - kJmol-1
fre
Energy of an electron is inversely proportional to n2.
When n =1 E1= =1312.36kJ mol-1
line
When n =2 E2= =328.09kJ mol-1

When n =3 E3= =145.82kJ mol-1
llon
When n =4 E4= =82.023kJ mol-1

When n =5 E1= =52.49kJ mol-1
w.a
The energy of an electron is inversely proportional to n2 .

As the value of ‘n’ increases, the value of energy increases. The
energy of higher orbits are always greater than those of the lower
ww
orbits.
E5 >E4 >E3> E2 >E1
(d) The energy difference between adjacent levels goes on
decreasing sharply.
Ans. The energy difference between adjacent levels can be found as:
E=E2 – E1 =(- 328.09) – (-1312.36) =984.27kJmol-1
E=E3 – E2 =(- 145.82) – (- 328.09) =182.27kJmol-1
E=E4 – E3 =(- 82.023) – (- 145.82) =63.797kJmol-1
E=E5 – E4 =(- 52.49) – (- 82.023) =29.533kJmol-1
8
From the data of energy difference, it is found that the energy

difference between adjacent levels goes on decreasing sharply.
Q9. (a) Derive the following equation for hydrogen atom which
are related to:
i. Energy difference between two levels, n1 and n2 .
ii. Frequency of photon emitted when an electron jumps
m
from n2 to n1 .
iii. Wave number of the photon when the electron jumps
o
from n2 to n1 .
e.c
(b) Justify that Bohr’s equation for the wave number can
explain the spectral lines of Lyman, Blamer and paschen
series.
Q10. (a) fre
What is spectrum? Differentiate between continuous
spectrum, and line spectrum.
line
(b) Comparison between line emission and line absorption
spectra.
Ans.
llon
Line emission spectrum Line absorption

spectrum
1. “An atomic 1. “An atomic
spectrum which spectrum which
w.a
consists of bright consists of bright

lines against a dark lines against a dark
background is called background is called
ww
line emission line emission

spectrum. “ spectrum. “
2. it is produced when 2. it is produced
radiations emitted when white is
by an excited passed through the
substance are gaseous element
analysed in a and the transmitted
spectroscope. rays are analysed in
a spectroscope.
9
(c) What is the origin of the line spectrum?

Q11. (a) Hydrogen atom and He+ are monoelectronic system, but
the size of He+ is much smaller than H+ , why?
Ans. H-atom and He+ are monoelectronic system. It means both H-
atom and He+ have one electron in the valence shell. H-atom has
one proton in the nucleus whereas He+ has two proton in the
m
nucleus. So, the force of attraction between two protons and one
electron is greater than one proton and one electron. Hence, the
o
size of He+ is much smaller than H-atom.
e.c
Also, we know that: r=0.529
The size of H-atom:

fre
r=0.529 =0.2645
line
The size of He+ ion: r=0.529 =0.529 x =0.2645
Hence, the size of He+ is much smaller than H-atom. This is because the
llon
nucleus of He+ has greater attraction for the electron as compared to H-

atom which contains one proton in the nucleus.
(b) Do you think that the size of li-2+ is even smaller than HE+ ?
w.a
Justify with calculation.

Ans. The size of He+ ion: r=0.529 =0.2645
ww
The size of li-2+ ion: r=0.529 =0.1763

The size of li-2+ ion is much smaller than the size of He+ ion:
Q12. (a) What are X-rays? What is their origin? How was the idea
of atomic number derived from the discovery of X-rays?
(b) How does the Bohr’s model Justify the Moseley‘s
equation?
Q13. Point out the defects of Bohr’s model. How these defects are
partially covered by dual nature of electron and Heisenberg’s
uncertainty principle?
10
Q14. (a) Briefly discuss the wave mechanical model of atom.

How has it given the idea of orbital. Compare orbit and orbital.
Ans. Comparison between orbit and orbital:
Orbit Orbital
1. “A circular path around 1. “The volume of space
the nucleus in which the within an atom in which
m
electron revolves is called there is 95% chance of
an orbit.” finding an electron is
o
2. It is circular in Shape. called orbital.”
e.c
3. It represents that an 2. It may be spherical,
electron moves around dumbbell or double
the nucleus in one plane, dumbbell in shape.
i.e., in a flat surface.
4. It is against Heisenberg’s
fre 3. It represent that an
electron can move
line
uncertainty principle. around the nucleus in
5. The maximum number of three dimensional space.
electrons in an orbit is 4. It is in accordance with
2n2, where ‘n’ is the Heisenberg’s uncertainty
llon
number of the orbit. principle.

5. The maximum number of
electrons in an orbital is
w.a
two.
(b) What are quantum number? Discuss their significance.
(c) When azimuthal quantum number has a value 3, then
ww
there are seven value of magnetic quantum number. Give reasons.

Q15. Discuss rules for the distribution of electrons in energy sub-
shells and in orbitals. (a) What is (n+ l ) rule. Arrange the
orbitals according to this rule. Do you think that this rule is
applicable to degenerate orbitals?
(b) Distribute electrons in orbitals of 57La, 29Cu, 79Au,
24Cr, 53I, 86Rn.
Ans. Electronic configurations:
2 2 6 6 2 10 6 2 10 6 2 4
57La=1s 2s 2p 3p 4s 3d 4p 5s 4d 5p 6s 4f (Actual configuration)
11
=1s2 2s2 2p6 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2 4d10 5s2 5p6 5d1(Expected configuration)
2 2 6 9 2
29Cu =1s 2s 2p 3d 4s (Actual configuration)
2 2 6 6 2 10 1
=1s 2s 2p 3p 4s 3d 4s (Expected configuration)
2 2 6 6 2 10 6 2 10 14 2 6 10 1
79Au=1s 2s 2p 3p 4s 3d 4p 5s 4d 4f 5s 5p 5d gs
24
Cr=1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2 (Actual configuration)
2 2 6 2 6 4 1
=1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s (Expected configuration)
m
2 2 6 2 6 10 2 6 10 2 5
53I=1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 4d 5s 5p
86
Rn==1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2 4p6 4d10 4f14 5s2 5p6 5d10 6s2 6p6
o
From the above configuration, it is important to note that there are three
e.c
irregularities in the general trend. The electronic configuration of Cr and
Cu show deviation from the expected configuration.
Expected Configurations: Cr=1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s1
Actual Configurations:
fre Cu=1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s1
Cr=1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2
line
Cu=1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2
This is because the half filled and fully filled configurations
5 10 7 14
(i.e.,d ,d ,f ,f )have lower energy ot more stability. Thus, in order to
llon
become more stable, one of 4s electrons goes into 3d orbitals so that 3d

orbitals get half filled or fully filled configuration in Cr and Cu
respectively.
Reasons for stability of Half filled and fully filled orbitals:
w.a
1. Exchange energy; All the orbitals in a given sub-shell have

equal energies. The electrons present in different orbitals of the same
sub-shell can exchange their positions. Such an exchange of electrons
ww
results in release of energy called exchange energy . Greater the

exchange energy, more is the stability associated with the orbitals. It has
been observed that in case of exactly half-filled and fully filled orbitals
the electrons can exchange their positions more readily as compared to
other configurations. As a result, half-filled and fully filled
configurations are more stable.
2. Symmetry: If removal or addition of an electron results in the
symmetrical distribution of electrons in an orbital, the electronic
configuration becomes more stable. Therefore, half-filled and fully filled
12
configurations in which each orbital contains one and two electrons

respectively , are more stable.
Irregular Structure of La: The electronic configuration of La is irregular
and does no t follow the general trend. This is because strong nuclear
attraction and less shielding effect caused by d and f electrons. In this
case remember before adding any electron in the 4f orbital, a single
m
electron is added to a 5d orbital. The remaining nine electrons enter the
5d sub-shell after the 4f sub-shell has been completely filled with
o
fourteen electrons. Similarly, one electron enters the 6d sub-shell before
e.c
any electron enters the 5f sub-shell.
Q16. Draw the shapes of s, p and d-orbitals. Justify these by keeping
in view the azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers.
fre
Q17. A photon of light with energy 10-19 j is emitted by a source of
light/
line
(a) Convert this energy into the wavelength, frequency and
wave number of the photon in terms of meters, hertz and m-1
respectively.
llon
Solution:
E=10-19 J h=6.625 x 10-34 js
Formula used: E=hv
V=
w.a
V=
V=1.51 x 1014 s-1
ww
V=1.51 x 1014 Hz [CPS=s-1 =Hz]

Now, =
E=10-19 J=10-19 kg m2 s-2 [1 J=1 kf m2 s-2 ]
h =6.625 x 10-34 kg m2 s-2 s
=6.625 x 10-34 kg m2s-1
=
=19.875x 10-7 m
=1.9875 x 10-6 m=1.9875 x 10-4 cm
13
Now,
=0.51 x 106 m-1

=5.1 x 105 m-1 =5.1 x 103 cm-1
(b) Convert this energy of the photon into ergs and calculate the
m
wave length in cm, frequency in Hz and wave number in cm-1 .
h=6.625x 10-34 js or 6.625 x 10-27 ergs. C=3 x 108 ms-1 or 3x 10
o
+10
cms-1 .
e.c
Solution:
E= 10-19 J =10-19 x 107 erg [1 j =107 erg]
=10-12 erg
fre
=1.98 x 10-6 m=1.98 x10-6 x 102 cm=1.98 x 10-4 cm
=5x105 m-1 =5 x 105 x 10-2 cm-1 =5x 103 cm-1
line
Q18. The formula for calculating the energy of an electron in
hydrogen atom gives by Bohr, s model
En =
llon
Calculate the energy of the electron in first orbit of hydrogen

atom. The values of various parameters are same as provided in
w.a
Q.19.
Solution:
n= E=?
En =-2.178 x 10-18 [ ]J
ww
Formula:
En=-2.178 x 10-18 [ ]J
E=-2.178 x 10-18 J
E=-2.18 x 10-18 J
Q19. Bohr’s equation for the radius of nth orbit of electron in
hydrogen atom is
rn =
14
(a) When the electron moves from n=1 to n=2, how much does the
radius of the orbit increases.
Solution:
=8.85 x10-12 C2 J-1 m-1 ; m=9.108 x 10-31 kg
h=6.624 x 10-34 js ; e=1.602 x 10-19 C ;
=3.14
m
Form n=1 to n=2 : J=kg m2 s-2 : C= s-1
o
Formula: rn =
e.c
r1=
r1= fre
r1=
line
r1= 5.29 x 10-11 jm-1 s2 kg-1

r1= 5.29 x 10-11 kg m2 s2m-1 s2 kg-1
r1= 5.29 x 10-11 m
llon
r1= 5.29 x 10-1

r1= 0.529
w.a
Also r2= 0.529 [22]

R2= 0.529 x 4 =2.116
Increase in radius, (r2 - r1) =2.116 - 0.529
ww
=1.587
(b) What is the distance traveled by th electron when it goes from
n=2 to n =3and n =9 to n=10?
=8.85x 10-12 C2 J-1 m-1 , h=6.24x10-34 js, =3.14,
m=9.108 x10-31 kg , C=1.602 x 10-19 C
While doing calculations take care of units of energy
parameter.
J=kgm2 s-2 , c=kg m s-1
Solution: r=0.529 (n2)
15
For n=2 r2 =0.529 (22) =2.116

n =3 r3=0.529 (32) =4.761
Distance traveled by the electron when it goes from n=9 to n
=3
r3 – r2 =4.761 - 2.116 =Answer
m
For n=9 r9 =0529(92)=42.849
n =10 r10=0.529 (102)=52.9
o
Distance traveled by the electron when it goes grom n=9 to n=10
e.c
r10 – r9 =52.9 - 42.849 =10.051 Answer
Q20. Answer the following questions, by performing the calculation
s.
fre
(a) Calculate the energy of first five orbits of hydrogen atom an
determine the energy differences between them.
line
(b) Justify that energy difference between second and third orbits
is approximately five times smaller than that between first and
second orbits.
llon
(c) Calculate the energy of electron in He+ in first five orbits and
justify that the energy differences are different from those of
hydrogen atom.
(d) Do you think that group of the spectral lines of He+ are at
w.a
different places than those for hydrogen atom? Give reasons.

Q21. Calculate the value of principal quantum number if an electron in
hydrogen atom revolves in an orbit of energy - 0.242 x 10-18 j.
ww
Solution:
E= - 242 x 10-18 j ; n=?
Formula: E=- 2.178 x 10-18
n2= - 2.178 x 10-18 x
n2=- 2.178 x 10-18x
n2=
16
n2=9
n= 3 Answer
Q22. Bohr’s formula for the energy levels of hydrogen atom for any
system say H, He+, Li-2+ , etc is
En=
m
Or
o
En= - k [ ]
e.c
For hydrogen Z=1 and for He+ , Z=2
(a) Draw an energy level diagram for hydrogen atom and He+ .
(b) Thinking that k = 2.18 x 10-18 j, calculate the energy needed
fre
to remove the electron from hydrogen atom and from He+ .
Solution:
Z=1 ; n=1 ; k=2.18 x 10-18 j
line
For H;
Formula En =-k[ ]
E1 = -2.18 x 10-18 [ ]
llon
E1=-2.18 x 10-18 j
=-2.18 x 10-18 [ ]J
w.a
=-2.18 x 10-18 0j=0

Now energy required to remove an electron from the orbit:
= - E1
ww
=0 – (-8.72 x10-18 J)
=8.72 x 10-18 J Answer
(c) How do you justify that the energies calculated in (b) are the
ionization energies of H and He+ ?
Ans. The energy difference between first and infinite levels of energy
for H atom is 2.18x 10-21 kJ and for He+ ion is 8.72x10-21 kJ are the
ionization energies of H and He+ respectively. These values are the
same as determined experimentally.
17
(c) Use Avogadro’s number to convert ionization energy values

in kJ mol-1 or H and He+ .
Solution:
For H: =2.18 x 10-18 J
The value of energy obtained for the electron is in J/atom. If this
quantity is multiplied by Avogadro’s number and divided by 1000,
m
the value of E will become.
o
=
e.c
=13.1236 x 102 kJ mol-1
=1312.36 kJ mol-1
Answer For He+ ;
=8.72 x 10-18 J/atom fre
=8.72 x 10-18 x
line
=52.4944 x 102 kJ mol-1
=5249.44 kJ mol-1 Answer
(e) The experimental values of ionization energy of H and He+ are
llon
1331 kJ mol-1 and 5250 kJ mol-1 respectively. How do you compare

your values with experimental values ?
Q23. Calculate the wave number of the photon when the electron
w.a
jumps from
i. n=5 to n=2.
ii. n=5 to n=1.]
ww
In which series of spectral lines and spectral regions these

photons will appear.
Solution:
(i) n=5 to n =1 . =?
Formula : =1.09678 x 107 [ - ]m-1
=1.09678x 107[ - ]m-1

=1.09678x 107[ ]m-1
18
=1.09678x 107[ ]m-1

=1.09678x 107m-1 =2.3x106 m-1 Answer
The photon will appear in the Balmer series
ii) n =5 to n= 1
Solution:
m
n = 5 to n=1 ; =?
Formula: =1.09678 x 107 [ - ]m-1
o
e.c
=1.09678 x 107 [ - ]m-1
=1.09678 x 107 [ - ]m-1

fre
=1.09678 x 107 [ ]m-1
line
=1.09678 x 107 m-1 Answer
The photon will appear in the Lyman series.
Q24. A photon of a wave number 102.70 x 105 m-1 is emitted when
llon
electron jumps form higher to n=1.

(a) Determine the number of that orbit from where the electron falls.
Solution:
=102.70 x 105 ; n2=?
w.a
Formula used: =1.09678 x 107 [ - ]m-1
102.70x 105 m-1 =1.09678 x 107 [ - ]m-1

ww
=[ - ]
0.936=1-
=1-0.936
=0.064
19
=
=16
n2 = =4 Answer
(b) Indicate the name of the series to which this photon belongs.
Ans. Since the electron falls from n=4 to n=1, therefore, the name of
m
the series is Lyman series
(d) If the electron will fall from higher orbit to n=2, then
o
calculate the wave number of the photon emitted. Why this energy
e.c
difference is so small as compared to that in part (a)?
Solution:
n1 =2 ; n2=4
=? fre
Formula: =1.09678 x 107 [ - ]m-1
line
=1.09678 x 107 [ - ]m-1
=1.09678 x 107 [ - ]m-1

llon
=1.09678 x 107 [ ]m-1

=0.20565x 107 m-1
w.a
=0.20565x 105m-1 Answer

Q25. (a) What is de Broglie’s wavelength of an electron in meters
traveling at half a speed of light ?
ww
m =9.109 x 10-31 kg , c=3x 108 ms-1

Solution:
M=9.109 x 10-31 kg : v= x3x 108 ms-1 =1.5x 108
ms-1
h =6.624 x 10-34 js =6.624 x 10-34 kg m2 s-1
Formula: =
=
20
=0.485 x 10-11 m
=0.485 x 10-12 m
=0.485 x 10-12 x 1010
=0.485 x 10-2 =0.0485 Answer
(b) Convert the mass of electron into grams and velocity of light
into cms-1 , and then calculate the wavelength of an electron in cm.
m
Solution:
o
m=9.109 x 10-31 kg =9.109 x 10-31 x 103 g =9.109 x 10-28 g
c =3 x 10-8 ms-1 =3 x 10-8 x 102 cms-1 =3 x 108 cms-1
e.c
=4.85 x 10-12 m=4.85 x 10-12 x102 cm =4.85 x 10-10 cm
=0.048 x 10-8 cm Answer
(c)
i) nm ii)
fre
Convert the wavelength of electron from meters to
iii) pm
line
Solution:
i) =4.85 x 10-12 m=4.85 x 10-12 x109 cm =4.85 x 10-3 nm=0.048nm
ii) =4.85 x 10-12 m=4.85 x 10-12 x1010 =4.85 x 10-2 =0.0485 Ans.
llon
iii) =4.85 x 10-12 m=4.85 x 10-12 x10-12 pm =4.485 x 10-24 pm Ans.

w.a
ww
21
CHAPTER 6
CHEMICAL BONDING
MCQs
Q.1 An ionic compound A+ B– is most likely to be formed when
(a) The ionization energy of A is high and electron affinity
m
of B is low
(b) The ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity of
o
B is high
e.c
(c) Both the ionization energy and electron affinity of B are
high
(d) Both the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B
are low
Q.2
fre
The number of bonds in nitrogen molecules
line
(a) one  and one 
(b) one  and two 
(c) three sigma only
llon
(d) two  and one 

Q.3 Which of the following statements is not correct regarding
bonding molecular orbitals?
(a) bonding molecular orbitals possess less energy than
w.a
atomic orbitals from which they are formed

(b) bonding molecular orbitals have low electron density
between the two nuclei
ww
(c) every electron in the bonding molecular orbitals

contributes to the attraction between atoms
(d) bonding molecular orbitals are formed when the electron
waves undergo constructive interference
Q.4 Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?
(a) NH3 (b) CHCl3
(c) H2O (d) BF3
Q.5 Which of the hydrogen halides has the highest percentage of
ionic character
1
(a) HF (b) HBr

(c) HCl (d) HI
Q.6 Which of the following molecules has unpaired electrons in anti–
bonding molecular orbitals
(a) O2 (b) N2
(c) Br2 (d) F2
m
Q.7 Which of the following involve ionic bonding only?
(a) Li3N (b) NaCl
o
(c) NCl3 (d) O2
e.c
Q.8 Which of the following involve covalent bonding only?
(a) KF (b) KCl
(c) CH4 (d) MgCl2
Q.9
(a) CO2
fre
Which of the following molecules has a net dipole moment?
(b) CS2
line
(c) SO2 (d) CCl4
Q.10 H2S has a net dipole moment while BeF2 has zero dipole
moment, because
(a) H2S molecule is linear while BeF2 is angular
llon
(b) H2S molecule is angular, while BeF2 molecule is linear

(c) Fluorine has more electronegativity than S
(d) Be is more electronegative than S
w.a
Q.11 Which of the following ions has larger ionic radius?

(a) Na+ (b) K+
(c) Mg2+ (d) Al3+
ww
Q.12 Which of the following bonds is least polar?

(a) H–Se (b) P–Cl
(c) H–Cl (d) N–Cl
Q.13 Which one has the least bond angle?
(a) NH3 (b) CH4
(c) H2O (d) BF3
Q.14 Coordinate covalent bonds are formed by
(a) sharing of electrons
(b) donation of electrons
2
(c) transference of electrons

(d) none of these
Q.15 Which of the following molecules would be expected to have
zero dipole moment?
(a) H2S (b) PF3
(c) TeF6 (d) H2O
m
Q.16 The bond formed between the elements of low ionization energy
and elements of high electron affinity is
o
(a) ionic (b) covalent
e.c
(c) metallic (d) coordinate
Q.17 The side ways overlap of two–p orbitals to form a bond is called
(a) sigma bond (b) pi () bond
(c) ionic bond fre (d) covalent bond
Q.18 The head overlap of p–orbitals of two atoms give rise to bond
line
called
(a) sigma bond (b) pi () bond
(c) ionic bond (d) covalent bond
llon
Q.19 Which element would be the most electronegative element with

(a) high ionization energy (IE) and low electron affinity
(EA)
(b) low ionization energy (IE) and high electron affinity
w.a
(EA)
(c) low ionization energy and low electron affinity
(d) high ionization energy and high electron affinity
ww
Q.20 Which element would be the least electronegative element with

(a) high I.E. and low E.A. (b) low I.E. and high E.A.
(c) low I.E. and low E.A. (d) high I.E. and low E.A.
Q.21 Which of the following substances has the least ionic character in
its bond?
(a) CCl4 (b) KCl
(c) BeCl2 (d) MgCl2
Q.22 Which of the following best describes ionization energy?
3
(a) energy needed to remove the most loosely bound electron

from its ground state
(b) it decreases from left to right across a period
(c) it increases down the periodic table
(d) it is represented by x + e–  x– + energy
Q.23 Which one of the following characteristics is not usually
m
attributed to ionic substances
(a) high melting point (b) deform when struck
o
(c) crystalline in solid state
e.c
(d) well defined three dimensional structure
Q.24 Which of the following bond is less polar?
(a) B–Cl (b) C–Cl
(c) H–I fre (d) C–I
Q.25 Which type of the orbital hybridization and geometry is used by
line
the central atom of NH2–?
(a) sp2 hybridization and trigonal planar
(b) sp hybridization and tetrahedral geometry
llon
(c) sp2 hybridization and trigonal planar

(d) sp3 hybridization and tetrahedral geometry
Q.26 Which of the following compounds has most likely been formed
by covalent bonding of atoms
w.a
(a) CaF2 (b) MgO

(c) SiH4 (d) NaCl
Q.27 Identify the compound below which has bonds formed by an
ww
overlap of sp and p–orbitals

(a) BF3 (b) BeCl2
(c) NH3 (d) H2O
Q.28 The most electronegative of these group I element is
(a) Na (b) K
(c) Li (d) Cs
Q.29 The type of bonding in HBr is
(a) ionic (b) polar covalent
(c) non–polar covalent (d) coordinate covalent
4
Q.30 Which of the following statement is not correct

(a) sigma bond is weaker than a pi bond
(b) sigma bond is stronger than a pi bond
(c) double bond is stronger than a single bond
(d) double bond is shorter than a single bond
Q.31 Which of the following molecules has a pyramidal structure?
m
(a) CH4 (b) NH3
(c) H2O (d) C2H4
o
Q.32 The bond angle in water is
e.c
(a) 109–5o (b) 104.5o
(c) 107.0o (d) 120o
Q.33 During the formation of chemical bond, the potential energy of
the system
(a) decreases
fre (b) increases
line
(c) does not change (d) none of these
Q.34 H2O molecule has
(a) no lone pair (b) one lone pair
llon
(c) two lone pairs (d) none of these

Q.35 NH3 molecule has
(a) no lone pair (b) one lone pair
(c) two lone pairs (d) three lone pairs
w.a
Q.36 In NH3 the covalent bond formed are due to

(a) s–sp overlap (b) s–sp2 overlap
(c) s–sp3 overlap (d) sp2–sp2 overlap
ww
Q.37 Which of the following is largest atom

(a) Mg (b) Be
(c) Sr (d) Ca
Q.38 As compared to covalent compounds, ionic compounds generally
have
(a) low melting points and low boiling points
(b) low melting points and high boiling points
(c) high melting points and high boiling points
(d) high melting points and low boiling points
5
Q.39 The attractive force that holds atoms together in a molecule is

called
(a) force of attraction (b) electrostatic force
(c) bond (d) chemical bond
Q.40 Which of the following bonds will be formed between alkali
metals and halogens
m
(a) ionic (b) covalent bond
(c) metallic bond (d) coordinate covalent bond
o
Q.41 The bond formed between the atoms by mutual sharing of
e.c
electrons is
(a) ionic (b) coordinate covalent bond
(c) covalent (d) metallic
ionic
fre
Q.42 A chemical bond formed between two similar atoms is purely
(a) (b) covalent
line
(c) metallic (d) coordinate
Q.43 On the basis of VSEPR model the geometry of BeCl2 is
(a) linear (b) trigonal
llon
(c) tetrahedral (d) angular

Q.44 On the basis of VSEPR theory, a molecule with three bond pair
and no lone pair of electrons will have a structure
(a) linear (b) trigonal planar
w.a
(c) tetrahedral (d) trigonal pyramidal

Q.45 The geometry of NH3 on the basis of VSEPR model is
(a) trigonal planar (b) trigonal pyramidal
ww
(c) tetrahedral (d) linear

Q.46 In which of the following theories the hybridization is considered
(a) VSEPR (b) Lewis
(c) molecular orbital (d) valence bond
Q.47 The angle between 3 sp2 hybrid orbital is
(a) 90o (b) 120o
(c) 130o (d) 180o
Q.48 The unhybridized “p” orbital in sp2 hybridization is
(a) parallel to sp2 (b) in the same plane
6
(c) perpendicular to sp2 orbitals

(d) out of plane
Q.49 Which of the following theories gives the idea of delocalization
of electrons
(a) Lewis theory (b) VSEPR theory
(c) valence bond theory (d) molecular orbital theory
m
Q.50 The tandency of an atom to attract, a shared electron pair towards
itself is called
o
(a) electron affinity (b) electronegativity
e.c
(c) dipole moment (d) ionization potential
Q.51 Energy needed to remove an electron from its gaseous atom is
called
(a)
(c) lattice energy
fre
electron affinity
(d)
(b) ionization energy
electronegativity
line
Q.52 A bond having partial positive and negative charges is
(a) ionic (b) covalent
(c) polar covalent (d) non–polar covalent
llon
Q.53 A bond formed by the linear overlap of atomic orbitals is called

(a) sigma (b) ionic
(c) pi (d) polar
Q.54 Which of the following elements is the most electronegative
w.a
(a) Li (b) F
(c) O (d) Cl
Q.55 Some covalent compounds dissolve in water due to
ww
(a) hydrolysis (b) hydration

(c) hydrogen bonding (d) metallic bonding
Q.56 Which of the following compounds will have the lowest boiling
point?
(a) PH3 (b) ASH3
(c) NH3 (d) SbH3
Q.57 Which of the following molecules has a coordinate bond?
(a) NH4Cl (b) NaCl
(c) HCl (d) AlCl3
7
Q.58 The half of the difference between the number of electrons in

bonding MO and antibonding MO is called
(a) molecule order (b) bond order
(c) proton order (d) electron order
Q.59 The bond order for He2 molecule is
(a) zero (b)
m
(c) 1 (d) 2
Q.60 The bond order for H2 is
o
(a) zero (b)
e.c
(c) 1 (d) 1.5
Q.61 The bond order in N2 molecule is
(a) zero (b) 1
(c) 2 fre (d)
Q.62 The bond order in O2 molecule is
3
line
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) zero
Q.63 Which one of the following is diamagnetic
llon
(a) B2 (b) C2
(c) N2 (d) O2–
Q.64 Which one of the following molecule is paramagnetic
(a) B2 (b) C2
w.a
(c) N2 (d) F2
Q.65 Which of the following ions is diamagnetic
(a) O (b) O
ww
(c) O (d) N
Q.66 Pi bond consists of two regions of electron cloud density
(a) along the bond axis
(b) along and perpendicular to bond axis
(c) above and below the bond axis
(d) none of these
Q.67 Sigma bond consists of one region of electron density
(a) along the bond axis
(b) along and perpendicular to bond axis
8
(c) above and below the bond axis

(d) none of these
Q.68 The electron cloud density is symmetrical along the bond axis in
(a) sigma bond (b) pi bond
(c) both sigma and pi bond
(d) neither sigma nor pi bond
m
Q.69 The electron cloud density is not symmetrical along the bond
axis in
o
(a) sigma bond (b) pi bond
e.c
(c) both sigma and pi bond
(d) neither sigma nor pi bond
Q.70 Covalent bonds are
(a)
(b)
fre
rigid and directional
rigid and non–directional
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(c) neither rigid nor directional
(d) non–rigid and directional
Q.71 Ionic bonds are
llon
(a) rigid and directional

(b) rigid and non–directional
(c) non rigid non directional
(d) non–rigid and directional
w.a
Q.72 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the

covalent compounds
(a) covalent compounds do not exhibit isomerism
ww
(b) covalent compounds exhibit isomerism

(c) covalent compounds are soluble in water
(d) covalent compounds are insoluble in non–polar solvents
Q.73 The C–C bond length in ethane (C2H6) is
(a) 154 pm (b) 133 pm
(c) 120 pm (d) 105 pm
Q.74 The C–C bond length in ethene (C2H4) is
(a) 154 pm (b) 133 pm
(c) 120 pm (d) 105 pm
Q.75 The C–C bond length in ethyne is
9
(a) 154 pm (b) 133 pm

(c) 120 pm (d) 105 pm
Q.76 The atomic radii of the elements have a general trend of
fluctuating periodically throughout the
(a) group (b) period
(c) periodic table (d) series
m
Q.77 Which of the following atom has the shortest atomic radius
(a) N (b) F
o
(c) O (d) B
e.c
Q.78 The half of the single bond length between two atoms in a
molecule is called
(a) ionic radius of an element
(b)
(c)
fre
covalent radius of an element
both ionic and covalent
line
(d) none of these
Q.79 Octet rule is not followed in the formation of
(a) CH4 (b) NF3
llon
(c) BCl3 (d) H2O

Q.80 Select the atom with the largest ionization energy in the
following atoms
(a) N (b) P
w.a
(c) AS (d) Sb
Q.81 Select the largest atom in the following atoms
(a) O (b) S
ww
(c) Se (d) Te
Q.82 Which of the following group of elements on the average has the
highest ionization energies
(a) IA (b) IIIA
(c) IVA (d) VIIIA
Q.83 Molecular orbital theory has
(a) the superiority over the VB theory
(b) the inferiority over the VB theory
(c) neither superiority nor inferiority over VB theory
10
(d) none of these

Q.84 The bond between H–H is
(a) stronger than the bond between H–Cl
(b) weaker than the bond between H–Cl
(c) neither stronger nor weaker than the bond between H–Cl
(d) none of these
m
Q.85 In which of the following molecules, the value of bond order in
maximum
o
(a) H2 (b) O2
e.c
(c) N2 (d) Cl2
Q.86 When the S–character of hybridized orbital decreases the bond
angle
(a)
(c)
decreases
does not change
fre (b) increases
(d) becomes zero
line
Q.87 One of the causes of reactions is that the systems attains the
energy state which is of
(a) higher in energy (b) lower in energy
llon
(c) balanced in energy (d) equal in energy

Q.88 The increase in the bond energy of a covalent bond is due to
(a) electronegativity (b) ionization energy
(c) polarity (d) symmetry
w.a
Q.89 The polarity of a molecule is expressed by

(a) bond strength (b) dipole moment
(c) bond length (d) shape
ww
Q.90 Dipole moment of H2O is

(a) 1.85 (b) 1.82
(c) 1.87 (d) 1.83
ANSWERS
Question 1 2 3 4 5
s
Answers b b b d a
Question 6 7 8 9 10
11
s
Answers a a c c b
Question 11 12 13 14 15
s
Answers b d c b c
Question 16 17 18 19 20
m
s
o
Answers a b a d c
Question 21 22 23 24 25
e.c
s
Answers a a b d d
Question
s
26 27 28
fre
29 30
Answers c b c b b
line
Question 31 32 33 34 35
s
Answers b b a c b
llon
Question 36 37 38 39 40
s
Answers c b c d a
w.a
Question 41 42 43 44 45
s
Answers c b a b b
Question 46 47 48 49 50
ww
s
Answers d b d d b
Question 51 52 53 54 55
s
Answers b b a b c
Question 56 57 58 59 60
s
Answers c a b a b
Question 61 62 63 64 65
12
s
Answers d b d a c
Question 66 67 68 69 70
s
Answers c a a b a
Question 71 72 73 74 75
m
s
o
Answers c d b b c
Question 76 77 78 79 80
e.c
s
Answers c b b c a
Question
s
81 82 83
fre
84 85
Answers d d a b c
line
Question 86 87 88 89 90
s
Answers a b c b a
llon
w.a
ww
13
CHAPTER 6
CHEMICAL BONDING
SHORT QUESTION WITH ANSWERS
Q.1 Dipole moments of chlorobenzene is 1.70 D and of
chlorobenzene is 2.5 D while that of paradichlorbenzene is zero; why?
m
Ans.
Benzene has zero dipole moment as it is a symmetrical planar
o
hexagonal molecule. The substitution of benzene ring with two Cl–
e.c
atoms at the para positions does not add any dipole moment to the
benzene as the dipoles created being equal and opposite cancel out each
other’s effect. As, there is no such cancellation in monochlorobenzene.
fre
These molecules have resultant dipole moments of 1.70 D and 2.5 D
respectively.
line
Q.2 What is covalent bond?
Ans.
A chemical bond formed by the sharing of a pair of electrons
between atoms is called covalent bond.
llon
H+H  H–H
Q.3 What is meant by a coordinate covalent bond?
Ans.
w.a
A coordinate covalent bond is for a bond formed, when both

electrons of the bond are denoted by one atom.
Q.4 What is the difference between a localized  bond and a
ww
delocalized one?
Ans.
In a localized  bond, the electron density is concentrated
between the two atoms forming the bond. In a delocalized  bond, the
electron density is spread over all the atoms that contribute p orbitals to
the net work.
Q.5 How will you differentiate between a polar covalent bond and
non–polar covalent bond?
Ans.
1
A covalent bond between two dissimilar atoms in which the

shared electron pair is not attracted equally by the two atoms and the
bonded atoms acquire a partial positive and negative charge is called
polar covalent bond.
A covalent bond between two like atoms such as H–H,
Cl–Cl, in which shared electron pair is attracted equally by both the
m
atoms is called a non–polar covalent bond.
Q.6 Indicate the hybridization and bond angles associated with each
o
of the following (a) linear (b) tetrahedral (c) trigonal planar.
e.c
Ans.
(a) Sp. 180o (b) Sp3. 109o (c) Sp2. 120o
Q.7 What are the similarities and differences between atomic orbitals
and molecular orbitals?
Ans.
fre
line
Both atomic and molecular orbitals have a characteristic energy
and shape each can hold a maximum of the two electrons. Atomic
orbitals are localized and their energies are the result of
llon
interactions between the subatomic particles in a single atom.

Molecular orbitals can be delocalized and their energies are
influenced by interactions between electrons on several atoms.
Q.8 Why is the bonding molecular orbital of H2 at lower energy than
w.a
the electron in a hydrogen atom?

Ans.
There is a net lowering in energy that accompanies bond
ww
formation because the electrons in H2 are strongly attracted to both

H nuclei, while in H–atom the electron is attracted by only one
nucleus.
Q.9 How many electrons can be placed into each molecular orbital of
a molecule?
Ans.
Two electrons can be placed into each molecular orbital of a
molecule.
Q.10 What is meant by an ionic bond?
2
Ans.
An ionic bond is a chemical bond formed by the electzostatic
attraction between positive and negative ions. The bond formed
between two atoms when one or more electrons are transformed
from valence shell of one atom to the valence shell of the other.
The atom that loses electrons becomes cation and the atom that
m
gains electrons becomes anion. The electronic configurations of
both ions are those of noble gas atoms. All metals react with non–
o
metals to form ionic compounds.
e.c
Na(g)  Na+ + e–
Cl(g) + e–  Cl–(g)
Na+(g) + Cl–(g)  NaCl
fre
Q.11 Can a molecule have polar bonds and not a dipole?
Ans.
line
Yes a molecule can have polar bonds and not a dipole, if the
orientation of the polar bonds in the molecule cancel each other’s
effect e.g. CO2.
llon
Q.12 Can a molecule have non–polar bonds only and have a dipole?
Ans.
No. A molecule which have non–polar bonds only cannot have a
dipole.
w.a
Q.13 State the difference between a polar bond and a polar molecule.
Ans.
A polar bond is a covalent bond that exists between two atoms
ww
having an electronegativity difference greater than 0.2 a polar

molecule results, if one or more polar bonds in a molecule is not
balanced by other polar bonds in the
Q.14 According to molecular orbital theory, would Be2 be expected to
exist? Explain.
Ans.
Be2 is not expected to exist, it has bond order of zero and is not
energetically favoured over isolated Be atoms.
Q.15 What is meant by bond order?
3
Ans.
The bond order is half the difference between the number of
bonding electrons and the number of antibonding electrons.
Bond order =
(No. of bonding electrons – No. of antibonding electrons)
Q.16 What is meant by paramagnetic substance?
m
Ans.
A paramagnetic substance is a substance that is attracted by a
o
magnetic field and this attraction is generally the result of unpaired
e.c
electrons. The more unpaired electrons in a species (substance), the
stronger the force of attraction. This type of magnetic behaviour is
called paramagnetism.
fre
Q.17 What is meant by a diamagnetic substance?
Ans.
line
A diamagnetic substance is a substance that is not attracted by a
magnetic field. This property is called diamagnetism. This property
generally means that substance has only paired electrons.
llon
Q.18 (a) what is hybridization at carbon atom in CH4, C2H4 and

C2H2.
(b) The carbon atom in CH4 cannot participate in multiple bonding,
whereas that is C2H4 can. Explain.
w.a
Ans.
(a) The hybridization at the carbon atom in CH4 is Sp3, in C2H4 is
sp2 and in C2H2 is sp.
ww
(b) The C atom in CH4 is sp3 hybridized, there are no un–

hybridized p orbitals, available for the  overlap required for
multiple bonds. In C2H4, the C atom is sp2 hybridized with two p
atomic orbitals (one on each C atom), available to form the 
overlap in the C = C double bond.
Q.19 Describe briefly the VSEPR theory.
Ans.
The VSEPR theory predicts the shape of molecules and ions in
which valence shell electron pairs are arranged around the central
4
atom of a molecule or ions in such a way that there is maximum

separation so that electron repulsions are minimized and electron
nucleus attractions are maximized. Some of these electron pairs are
bonding and some are lone pairs. The direction in space of the
bonding pairs gives the molecular geometry. A lone pair of
electrons occupy more space than a bonding pair. Repulsive forces
m
decrease sharply with increasing interpair angle. They are strong at
90o much weaker at 120o and very weak at 180o. in VSEPR
o
model, each multiple bond is treated as though it were a single
e.c
electron pair.
Q.20 A lone pair of electrons occupies more space than a bond
pair?
Ans: fre
A lone pair of electrons occupies more space than bond pair
line
because lone pair is attracted by only one nucleus while bond pair
is attracted by two nuclei. Due to less nuclear attraction to lone
pair its electronic charge is spread ot more in space than that of
llon
bond pair.
Q.21 Predict the geometry of (a) BeCl2 (b) BF3 (c) SiH4
molecules.
w.a
Ans.
(a) The two bond pairs of electrons in BeCl2 molecule arrange
themselves as far apart as possible to minimize the repulsion
ww
between them. The only arrangement which can satisfy this

condition is linear i.e. at angle of 180o.
: Cl ––– –– Cl
5
(b) The BF3 molecule containing three bond pairs of electrons is

trigonal planar because, this structure gives maximum separation among
the three bonding electron pairs.
::: :
m
(c) In SiH4 molecule, the electrostatic repulsion between four
o
bonding electron pairs will be minimum, when they are present at
e.c
corners of a regular tetrahedron making angle 109.5o with each other.
Q.22 Describe briefly the valence bond

fre
theory.
Ans.
line
According to valence bond
theory, a covalent bond is formed by
pairing of electrons by the overlap of half (partially) filled atomic
llon
orbitals of two atoms. The two overlapping orbitals must be

valence orbitals, must be half filled and must retain their identities.
By overlap means that the electrons of overlapping orbitals share a
common region of high electron density, along the line between
w.a
two nuclei called bond axis.

This theory explains the bonding in terms of overlapping of
atomic orbitals and mixing of atomic orbitals called hybridization.
ww
Multiple bond occurs via the overlap of atomic orbitals to give 

bonds and  bonds.
Q.23 Why monoatomic cations smaller than their corresponding
neutral atoms?
Ans.
Electrostatic repulsions are reduced by removing an electron
from a neutral atom, effective neutral charge increases and
therefore the cation is smaller than their corresponding neutral
atoms.
6
Q.24 Why are monoatomic anions larger than their corresponding

neutral atoms?
Ans.
The additional electrostatic repulsion produced by adding an
electron to a neutral atom decreases the effective nuclear charge
experienced by the valence electrons and increases the size of
m
anions.
Q.25 Why does the size of ions increase as one produced down a
o
column in the periodic table?
e.c
Ans.
Going down a column, valence electrons are further from the
nucleus and they experience greater shielding by core electrons.
fre
The greater radial extent of the valence electrons outweigh the
increase in atomic number. Therefore the size of ions increase as
line
one proceeds down a column.
Q.26 What is an isoelectronic series?
Ans.
llon
An isoelectronic series is a group of atoms or ions that have the

same number of electrons, and thus the same electronic
configuration.
Q.27 Why noble gases are most stable?
w.a
Ans.
Noble gases are most stable because their s and p orbitals are
completely filled.
ww
Q.28 Why O2 molecule is paramagnetic in nature?

Ans.
O2 molecule is paramagnetic in nature due to presence of
unpaired electrons in its molecule.
Q.29 Why CO2 is non–polar molecule although C–O bond is polar?
Ans.
Each C–O bond in CO2 is polar. The two bond dipoles in CO2
are equal in magnitude and are exactly opposite in direction. The
7
bond dipoles cancel each other. Therefore, the overall dipole

moment of CO2 is zero. Thus CO2 is a non–polar molecule.
O– = C = O+
Q.30 Why H2O is a polar molecule?
Ans.
H2O is a bent molecule with two polar bonds. Both the bonds are
m
identical, so the bond dipoles are equal in magnitude. Because the
molecule is bent, however the bond dipoles do not directly oppose
o
to each other and therefore, do not cancel each other.
e.c
Hence the H2O molecule has an overall dipole moment
( = 1.85D), because H2O has dipole moment, it is polar
molecule.
fre
Q.31 The melting and boiling points of electrovalent compounds are
very high as compared with those of covalent compounds. Explain.
line
Ans.
The melting and boiling points of electrovalent compounds are
very high, because the ions are tightly packed in the crystal lattice
llon
by strong attractive forces and high thermal energy is required to

separate them from one another. The atoms of molecules in
covalent compounds are held together by weak intermolecular
forces and less energy is required to separate the atoms or
w.a
molecules in a solid or liquid.

Q.32 (a) Why solid NaCl does not conduct electricity?
(b) What will happen if electric currents is passed through molten
ww
NaCl or its aqueous solution? Explain.

Ans.
(a) Solid NaCl does not conduct electricity because the oppositely
charged ions are held together by strong electrostatic forces and the
ions do not free to move.
(b) However, in the molten NaCl or its aqueous solution the
ions because quite free to migrate in an electric field and conduct
electricity when passed through them.
Q.33 What is molecular orbital theory?
8
Ans.
According to molecular orbital theory, atomic orbitals overlap to
form molecular orbitals n atomic orbitals combine to form n
molecular orbitals. Half of them are bonding molecular orbitals
and half antibonding molecular orbitals. In this combination, the
individual atomic orbital character is lost in order to form an
m
entirely new orbital that belongs to whole molecule. The theory
successfully explains bond order and paramagnetic property of
o
O2.
e.c
Q.34 In many cases, the distinction between a coordinate covalent and
a covalent bond vanishes after bond formation. Explain with the help of
an example.
Ans. fre
A coordinate covalent bond is not essentially different from other
line
covalent bonds, it involves the sharing of pair of electrons between
two atoms. An example is formation of NH4+ ion in which all
bonds are identical, so the distinction between a coordinate
llon
covalent bond and covalent bond vanishes after bond formation.

H+ + :NH3  H –  H+
or
Q.35 PF3 is a polar molecule with dipole moment 1.02 D and thus the
w.a
P–F bond is polar. Si, being in proximity of P in the periodic table, it is

expected that Si–F bond would also be polar, but SiF4 has no dipole
moment. Explain why it is so?
ww
Ans.
PF3 has one lone pair of electrons and one P atom lies out of
plane of rest of the atom and thus PF3 is pyramidal molecule and
has 1.02 D dipole moment and thus the P–F bond is polar.
SiF4 molecular has tetrahedral shape and the SiF bonds are
directed by Symmetrically about the central Si atom. Although Si–
F bonds are polar, but all the four bond moments cancel out one
another and give SiF4 molecule of zero dipole moment.
9
Q.36 NaCl is a harder substance at room temperature than glucose

explain.
Ans.
The hardness of substance depends on the strength of the forces
between the particles forming a substance. NaCl is an ionic
compound and consists of Na+ and Cl– ions which are held
m
together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction while glucose
consists of molecules which are held together by weak
o
intermolecular forces. Therefore, NaCl is a harder substance at
e.c
room temperature than glucose.
Q.37 The linear of BeCl2 suggests that central Be atom is sp–
hybridized. What type of hybridization a central atom undergoes when
fre
the atoms bonded to it are located at the corners of (a) an equilateral
triangle and (b) a regular tetrahedron.
line
Ans.
(a) The central atom undergoes Sp2 hybridization when the atoms
bonded to it are located at the corners of an equilateral triangle.
llon
(b) The central atom undergoes Sp3 hybridization when the atoms
bounded to it are located at the corners of a regular tetrahedron.
Q.38 A double bond is shorter and stronger than a single bond.
Ans.
w.a
The greater the number of electron pairs in the bond, the shorter
and stronger will be the bond because of greater nuclei–electron
attractions. A double bond has two shared electron pairs, while a
ww
single bond has only one shared electron pair. Thus a double bond
has a greater nuclei electron attraction, than a single bond.
Therefore, a double bond is shorter and stronger than a single
bond.
Q.39 NH3 and H2O can form coordinate covalent bond with H+ but
CH4 cannot do so.
Ans.
NH3 and H2O both have lone pair of electrons on N and O atoms
which can donate to a H+ (electron deficient) to from a coordinate
10
covalent bond. In CH4 there is no lone pair of electrons to donate

H+ for the formation of coordinate covalent bond. Therefore, NH3
and H2O can form coordinate covalent bond with H+ but CH4
cannot do so.
H3N: + H+  [H3N  H]+
H2O + H+  H3O  [H2O+  H]+
m
Q.40 Covalent bond may be non–polar but coordinate covalent bond is
always polar.
o
Ans.
e.c
A covalent bond between two like atoms is always non–polar,
whereas between two unlike atoms, it is a polar. In coordinate
covalent bond the shared electron pair is denoted by only one of
fre
the two bonded atoms. The atom which denotes the electron pair
acquires partial positive charge and the atom which accepts the
line
electron pair acquires partial negative charge. Therefore,
coordinate covalent bond is always polar. Hence a covalent bond
may be non–polar, but coordinate covalent bond is always polar.
llon
Q.41 Molecule of O2 is paramagnetic in nature. Explain.

Ans.
A substance is paramagnetic, when it has unpaired electrons.
According to molecular orbital theory, O2 has two unpaired
w.a
electrons in the degenerate orbitals 2 py and *2 px. Due to the

presence of these two unpaired electrons O2 molecule is
paramagnetic.
ww
Q.42 Dipole moment of CO2 is zero but that of CO is o.12

Debye.Why?
Ans:
CO2 is a linear molecule and the tow diploes cancel the effect of
each other. In CO there is a single dipole directed from carbon to
oxygen and it not cancelled.
Q.43 Why dipole moment of benzene is zero?
Ans:
11
Benzene is symmetrical planar molecule. It has six C – H there are

six dipole moments. All the dipole moments cancel the effect of
each other and net value is zero.
Q.44 I.E is index of metallic character why?

Ans:
m
Metals have loosely held electrons which are delocalized and are
responsible for the properties of metals. So, metals have low
o
ionization energies.
e.c
Q.45 The abnormality of the bond length and bond strength in HI
is less prominent than that of HCl, give reason?
Ans:
fre
Chlorine has higher electronegative than iodine. So, the polarities
of HCI and HI bonds are unequal. Therefore, abnormality of bond
line
length and bond strength of HCI is more prominent than HI.
Q.46 How does electro negativity difference decide the nature of
ionic bond?
llon
Ans:
When the electro negativity difference between two bonded atoms
is 1.7 or move than that, then the bond is said to be ionic,
otherwise, covalent. The % age of ionic character is more the 51%
w.a
when the electro negativity difference is 1.7.

Q.47 Why NH3 and PH3 give coordinate covalent bond?
Ans:
ww
NH3 and PH3 have lone pairs of electrons, which can be donated to
H+ to make a coordinate covalent bond. In this way, NH4+ and
PH4+ are produced which have perfect tetrahedral structure and all
the four bonds have perfectly equal status.
Q.48 Most of the elements of the periodic table attain the

electronic configuration of inert gases during bond formation.
Justify it
Ans:
12
Inert gases are not reactive due to complete octet except He, Most
of the S- and P- block elements may attain eight electrons in the
outermost orbitals they do so either by losing gaining or sharing
the electrons.
Q.49 Define octet rule?
m
Ans:
The tendency of the atoms to attain a maximum of eight electrons
o
in the valence shell is called octet rule.
e.c
Q.50 What is an ionic radius?
Ans:
The ionic radius of an ion is the radius of the ion while considering
it to be spherical in shape.fre
line
Q.51 What is a covalent radius?
The covalent radius of an element is defined as half of the single
bond length between tow similar atoms covalently bonded in a
llon
molecule.
Q.52 What is difference between sigma & pi bond?
Ans:
SIGMA BOND:
w.a
The bond which is formed by the head to head overlapping called

sigma bond. The electron density is present between two nuclei.
Pi BOND:
ww
The bond which is formed by the sideways overlapping of two half

filled orbitals. The electron density is present above and below the
line joining the two nuclei.
Q.53 Why the size of an atom can not be measured directly?

Ans:
The size of an atom can not be measured directly due following
reasons:
13
(i)There is no sharp boundary of an atom. The probability of

finding an electron never becomes zero even at larger distances
from the nucleus.
(ii) The electronic probability distribution is affected by
neighbouring atoms. For this reason the size of an atom may
change from one compound to another.
m
Q.54 Why E.A of Flourine is less than the expected value?
o
Ans
e.c
Since the size of fluorine is very small when electron is added in
the fluorine it is strongly repelled by the already existing electrons.
An extra amount of energy is provided to add an electron therefore
fre
its electron affinity is less than the expected value.
line
Q.55 Why sigma bond is stronger than pi bond? Or Why pi bond
is more diffused than sigma bond?
Ans:
llon
Sigma bond is more diffused than pi bond due to the linear

overlapping of orbitals. Moreover electron density is present
between two nuclei which is strongly attracted by two nuclei.
While in pi bond electron density is not strongly attracted by two
w.a
nuclei therefore it is weak than pi bond

ww
Q.56 Define bond length.

Ans.
The distance between the nuclei of two atoms forming a covalent
bond is called bond length. In general it is the sum of the covalent
radii of the combined atoms.
Q.57 What is dipole moment? What are its units?
Ans.
The dipole moment may be defined as the product of electric
charge (q) and distance (r) between the two oppositely charged
14
centres. It is vector quantity as it has magnitude and direction. It

plays a major role in determining the % age ionic character of a
covalent bond and the shapes of molecules.
The dipole moment is measured in Debye units (D). It is denoted
by symbol .
Q.58 Define bond energy Give its units.
m
Ans.
The bond energy is defined as the average amount of energy
o
required to break all bonds of particular type in one mole of
e.c
substance. It is determined by measuring the heat involved in a
chemical reaction.
It is also defined as the energy required to break Avogadro’s
fre
number (6.02 x 1023) of bonds or the energy released when an
Avagadro number of bonds are formed. It is a measure of strength
line
of bonds. The bond energy is measured in KJ mol–1.
Q.59 Define the following terms.
(a) Ionization energy
llon
(b) Electron affinity

(c) electronegativity
Ans.
(a) Ionization energy:
w.a
The minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron

from an atom is called ionization energy.
It depends upon the atomic size, nuclear charge and shielding
ww
effect of electrons.
(b) Electron Affinity:
The minimum amount of energy released when an electron is
added to an isolated neutral gaseous atom in the lowest energy
state to produce an anion is called electron affinity. It is measured
in kJ mol–1.
(c) Electronegativity:
15
The tendency of an atom to attract shared pair of electron

towards itself is called electronegativity. It is measured in electron
volts.
o m
e.c
fre
line
llon
w.a
ww
16
CHAPTER 6
CHEMICAL BONDING
TEXT BOOK EXERCISE
Q.1. Select the correct statement.
m
i. An ionic compound A+B- is most likely to be formed when
o
a. the ionization energy of A is high and electron affinity of B is
e.c
low.
b. the ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity of B is
high.
c.
fre
both the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B is
high.
d. both the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B is low.
line
ii. The number of bonds in nitrogen molecule is
a. one and one

llon
b. one and two

c. three sigma only
d. two and one
w.a
iii. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding bonding

molecular orbitals?
ww
a. Bonding molecular orbitals possess less energy than atomic

orbitals from which they are formed.
b. Bonding molecular orbitals have low electron density between
the two nuclei
c. Every electron in the bonding molecular orbitals contributes to
the attraction between atoms.
d. Bonding molecular orbitals are formed when the electron waves
Undergo constructive interference.
1
iv. Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?
a. NH3 b. CHCl3 c. H2O

d. BF3
v. Which of the hydrogen halides has the highest percentage of ionic
m
character?
o
a. HCl b. HBr c. HF d. HI
e.c
vi. Which of the following species has unpaired electrons antibonding
molecular orbitals?
a.
Ans:
b. fre c.
(i) b (ii) b (iii) b (iv) d (v) c (vi) b
B2 d. F2
line
i. The tendency of atoms to attain maximum of ________ electrons

in the valence shell is called completion of octect.
llon
ii. The geometrical shape of SiCl4 and PCl3 can be explained on the
has of ________ and ________ hybridizations.
iii. The VSEPR theory stands for ________.
w.a
iv. For N2 molecule, the energy of (2p)x orbital is ________ than

(2py) orbital.
v. The paramagnetic property of 02 is well explained on the basis on
ww
M.O theory in terms of the presence of _________ electrons in two

M.O orbitals.
vi. The bond order of N2 is ________ while that of Ne2 is ________.
vii. The values of dipole moment for CS2 is ________ while for SO2 is
________.
Ans: (i) eight (ii) SP3, SP2 (iii) valence shell electron pair
repulsion (iv) greater (v) un-pairs electron (vi) tree, zero
(vii) zero, 1.61 D
Q.3. Classify the statements as true or false. Explain with reasons.
2
i. The core of an atom is the atom minus its valence shell.

ii. The molecules of nitrogen (N N) and acetylene (HC CH) are not
iso-electronic.
iii. There are four coordinate covalent bonds in ion.
iv. A bond is stronger than bond and the electrons of bond are more
diffused than bond.
m
v. The bond energy of heteroatomic diatomic molecules increases
with the decrease in the electro negativities of the bonded atoms.
o
vi. With increases in bond order, bond length decreases and bond
e.c
strength increases.
vii. The first ionization energies of the elements rise steadily with
increasing atomic number from top to bottom is a group.
viii. fre
A double bond is stronger than a single bond and a triple bond is
weaker than a double bond.
line
ix. The bonds formed between the elements having electro negativity
difference more than 1.7 are said to be covalent in nature.
x. The repulsive force between then two bonding pairs is less than
llon
that between the two lone pairs.

xi. The number of covalent bonds an atom can form is related to the
number of unpaired electrons it has.
xii. The rules which govern the filling of electrons into the atomic
w.a
orbitals also govern the filling of electrons into the molecular

orbitals.
ww
Ans: (i) true (ii) false (iii) false (iv) false (v) false (vi) true
(vii) false (viii) true (ix) false (x) false (xi) true (xii) true
Q.5.a. Define ionization energy and electron affinity. How these

qualities change in the periodic table. What factors are responsible
for their variation?
3
b. Explain, what do you understand by the term electro

negativity? Discuss its variations in the periodic table. How does it
affect the bond strengths?
Ans: a. Ionization Energy
The minimum energy required to remove an electron from
gaseous atom to form positive ion is called ionization energy. The
m
process is called ionization. E.g.
o
e.c
The ionization energy indicates the stability of an isolated atom.
Moreover ionization energy is an index to the metallic character.
i.
fre
The elements with low I.E are metals
ii. The elements with high I.E are non-metals
line
iii. The elements with intermediate I.E values are metalloids.
Factors Influencing Ionization Energies:

llon
The I.E depends upon following factors
i. Atomic radius or atomic size

ii. Nuclear charge (Proton number) of atom
w.a
iii. Shielding effect of inner electrons

iv. Nature of orbital
ww
Higher Ionization Energies:

The energy required to remove an electron after the removal of
first electron is called second ionization energy. E.g.
The energy required to remove an electron after the removal of

second electron in called third ionization energy. E.g.
It is fact that 3rd I.E > 2nd I.E > 1st I.E
4
The reason is that after the removal of one or more electrons, the
remaining electrons are held tightly by nuclear positive charge. Thus
further removal of electrons requires more energy.
Ionization Energy and Valency:
We can guess the valency of an element from gap between first,
second, third and higher I.E values. If there is big gap between first and
m
second I.E, then valency of element is one. Similarly if there is big gap
between second and third I.E, then valency of element is two. E.g.
o
valency of K is one.
e.c
Variation of I.E in Periodic Table:
(a) I.E in a Group:
The ionization energy decreases from top to bottom of a group.
fre
The reason is that new shells are added from top to bottom of group.
Thus valence electrons are at large distance from the nucleus. So force
line
of attraction between nucleus and outer electron decreases. Therefore I.E
decreases down the group.
(b) I.E in a Period:
llon
The I.E increases from left to right of a period. The reason is that
in a period nuclear charge increases one by one but no new shell is
added so atomic size decreases. Thus force of attraction between nucleus
and outer electron increases. Therefore I.E increases in a period.
w.a
Electron Affinity
The energy released when an electron is added to the partially
filled orbital of a gaseous atom to form negative ion is called electron
ww
affinity. E.g.
Electron affinity is the measure of attraction between nucleus of

an atom and extra incoming electron.
Factors Influencing Electron Affinity:
Electron affinity depends upon following factors.
i. Atomic radius
ii. Nuclear charge
5
iii. Shielding effect of inner electrons

iv. Nature of orbital
In general electron affinity decreases with increase of atomic

radius. The reason is that by increasing distance between nucleus and
valence electrons, the force of attraction decreases. Hence E.A decreases
m
with increase of atomic radius.
Variation of E.A in Periodic Table:
o
e.c
i. E.A in a Group:
When we go from top to bottom in a group the proton number

fre
increases and new electronic shells are introduced. So atomic radius
increases. Thus force of attraction between nucleus and valence
electrons decreases. Hence E.A decrease from top to bottom in a group.
line
ii. E.A in a Period:
When we go from left to right in a period, the proton number

llon
increases one by one but no new electronic shell is added. So atomic

radius decreases. Therefore force of attraction between nucleus and
valence electrons increases. Hence E.A increases from left to right in a
w.a
period.
Exceptional Cases:
The electron affinity of fluorine is less than that of chlorine. The
ww
reason is that seven valence electrons of fluorine are present in 2s and 2p

sub shells. These sub shells have thick electronic cloud. This thick
electronic cloud repels the incoming electron. Hence E.A of fluorine is
less than that of chlorine.
Q.7.a. Explain qualitatively the valence bond theory. How does it

differ from molecular orbital theory?
b. How the bonding in the following molecules can be explained
with respect to valence bond theory? Cl2, O2, N2, HF, H2S.
6
Ans: (a) Valence Bond Theory:

According to V.B theory molecule is formed by overlap of two
atomic orbitals. In the resulted molecule the atomic orbitals retain their
identity. The atomic orbitals are monocentric.
M.O. Theory:
According to M.O. theory a molecule is formed by linear
m
combination of atomic orbitals. Here atomic orbitals are buried into each
other and lose their identity. Moreover molecular orbitals are
o
Polycentric.
e.c
(b) Cl2:
fre
The Cl2 molecule has a sigma bond due to linear overlap of
partially filled orbitals.
O2 Molecule:
line
O2 molecule has a double bond (one and one) for other

molecules.
llon
Q.9. The molecules NF3, BF3 and CIF3 all have molecular formula
of the type XF3. But they have different structural formulas.
Keeping in view VSEPR theory sketch the shape of each molecule
w.a
and explain the origin of differing in shapes.

Ans:
(i) In BF3, the central atom
boron contains three electron
ww
pairs. All three pairs are

bonding. Thus shape of BF3 is
triangular planar. Each angle is
of 120o. It is shown in fig.
(ii) In NF3, the

central atom
Nitrogen contains
four electrons
7
pairs. Three are

bonding electrons
pairs and one is
lone pair of
electrons. Thus
shape of will be
m
tetrahedral.
o
(iii) In ClF3, the
e.c
central atom
Chlorine contains
five electron pairs.
Three pairs are fre
bonding and two
line
are lone pairs of
electrons. Thus
according to
llon
VSEPR theory the

molecule ClF3 has
a T-Shaped
structure.
w.a
Q.10. The species , NH3, have bond angles of 105o, 107.5o and
109.5o respectively. Justify these values by drawing their structures.
ww
Ans:
(i) In ,
nitrogen atom
forms two covalent
bonds with two
hydrogen atoms.
Nitrogen has two
lone pairs of
electrons. These
8
lone pairs of
electrons repel
each other. Thus
angle
decreases from
o o
109.5 to 105 .
m
(ii) In ,
o
nitrogen forms
e.c
covalent bonds
with three
hydrogen atoms.
There is one lonefre
pair of electrons on
line
nitrogen atom. The
lone pair of
electrons on
llon
nitrogen atom. The

lone pair of
electron repels
bond pairs of
w.a
electrons. Thus
angle decreases
from 109.5o to
ww
107o.
(iii) In ,
nitrogen forms
three covalent
bonds and one
coordinate bond.
There is no lone
pair of electrons on
9
nitrogen. So ion
has perfect
tetrahedral
structure. All bond
angles are equal to
109.5o.
m
a. Hybridization for PH3:
In PH3,
o
phosphorus shows
e.c
SP3 hybridization.
Four SP3 hybrid
orbitals are
fre
resulted. Three SP3
hybrid orbitals
line
form -bonds with
1S orbital of three
H-atoms. In fourth
SP3 hybrid orbital
llon
one lone pair of

electrons is present.
Due to repulsion
w.a
between lone pair

and bond pairs, the
angle decreases
ww
from 109.5o to
107o.
Geometry of CCl4:
In CCl4,
carbon shows SP3
hybridization. Four
SP3 hybrid orbitals
are formed. They
overlap with P-
10
orbitals of four Cl-

atoms. So structure
of CCl4 is perfect
tetrahedral. Each
angle is 109.5o.
Geometry of PCl3:
m
In PCl3,
phosphorus shows
o
SP3 hybridization.
e.c
Four SP3 hybrid
orbitals are formed.
They form three -
bonds with P-
orbitals of three
fre
line
Chlorine atoms. In
the fourth SP3-
hybrid orbital a
llon
lone pair of
Due to lone pair-
bond pair repulsion
w.a
angle decreases
from 109.5o to
107.5o
ww
Geometry of H2S:
In H2S,
sulphur shows SP3
hybridization. Four
SP3-hybrid orbitals
are formed. Two
SP3 orbitals
overlap with 1S
orbtials of two H-
11
atoms. In the
remaining two SP3
orbitals, two lone
pairs of electrons
are present. Due to
lone pair-lone pair
m
repulsions, angle
decreases from
o
109.5o to 104.5o.
e.c
b. (i) When atoms are located at the corners of equilateral triangle,
then central atoms SP2-hybridization.
(ii) When atoms are located at the corners of regular tetrahedron,
fre
then central atom shows SP3-hybridization.
(iii) When atoms are located at the corners of a triangular
line
bipyramide, then central atom shows SP3-hybridization.
Q.13.a Sketch the molecular orbital pictures of
(i) 2py and 2py (ii) O2, , (iii) He2 and
llon
Ne2
(a) Molecular Orbital Picture of Ne2:

w.a
The M.O picture of Ne2 (Neon molecule) is shown below. The

bond order = = 0. Because bond order of Neon is zero. So Ne2
ww
molecule does not exist.

(b) Hybrid Orbital of PCl3:
Phosphorous
shows SP3
hybridization in
PCl3. The four SP3
hybrid orbitals are
formed. Three form
bonds with P-
12
orbitals of three
chlorine atoms. In
fourth SP3-hybrid
orbital lone pair of
Hybrid Orbital of SF6:
m
In SF6,
sulphur shows
o
2 6
d SP
e.c
hybridization. Six
d2SP6 hybrid
orbitals are formed.
They all
overlap with P-
fre
six
line
orbitals of six-
fluorine atoms.
Hybrid Orbital of SiCl4:
llon
In SiCl4,
silicon shows SP3
hybridization. Four
SP3 hybrid orbitals
w.a
are formed. They

overlap with four
P-orbitals of four
ww
Chlorine atoms.
Hybrid Orbital of :
In ,
Nitrogen shows
SP3 hybridization.
Nitrogen forms
three covalent bond
with three covalent
bond with three H-
13
atoms and one

coordinate bond
+
with H ion.
Q.14.
b. How do you compare the bond strengths of
m
(i) Polar and non-polar molecules, (ii) and bonds?
c. Calculate the bond energy of H-Br. The bond energy of H-H is
o
436 KJ mol-1 and that of Br-Br I s 193 KJ mol-1.
e.c
b.i. A covalent bond between two alike atoms is called. e.g. Cl-Cl,
Br-Br. A covalent bond between two unlike atoms is called polar bond.
e.g. , . In a polar bond the shared pair of electrons is
fre
slightly shifted towards more electro-negative (E.N) atom. So atoms
have partial positive and partial negative charges. Thus atoms are
line
attracted due to extra electrostatic (dipole-dipole) forces. Hence a polar
bond is stronger than a non-polar bond.
ii. A bond formed by head to head or linear overlap of two partially
llon
filled orbitals is called -bond. A bond formed by parallel overlap of two

partially filled P-orbitals is called -bond. In -bond, overlapping of
orbitals is symmetrical on the bond axis. In a -bond overlapping of
orbitals is spread above and below the bond axis. So -bond is stronger
w.a
than a -bond.
c. Bond energy of = 436 Kj mol-1
Bond energy of per molecule = = 7.24 10-22 Kj
ww
Bond energy of 1atom of hydrogen = = 3.62 10-22 Kj

Bond energy of = 193 Kj mol-1
Bond energy of per molecule = = 3.20 10-22 Kj
Bond energy of 1atom of Bromine = = 1.60 10-22 Kj

Bond energy of 1molecule of = 3.62 10-22 + 1.60 10-22 =
5.22 10-22Kj
14
Bond energy of per mole = 5.22 10-22 6.02 1023 = 314.2

Kj mol-1
Q.15.
b. The bond length of H-Br is 1.4 10-10m. Its observed dipole
moment is 0.79D. Find the percentage ionic character of the bond.
Unit positive charge = 1.6022 10-19 c and 1D = 3.336 10-30mc.
mo
e.c
b. Bond length of HBr, r = 1.4 10-10m, = 0.79D
-19
Unit positive charge, q = 1.6022 10 C
%ionic character = ? fre
= q r = 1.6022 10-19 1.4 10-10 = 2.24 10-29cm
line
= = 6.72 D
%ionic character of H-Br =
llon
= = 11.7 %
Q.16. PF3 is a polar molecular with dipole moment 1.02 D and thus
w.a
the P-F bond is polar. Si, is in proximity of P in the periodic table. It

is expected that Si-F bond would also be polar, but SiF4 has no
dipole moment. Explain it?
ww
Ans: PF3 is a
Pyramidal
molecule like NH3.
All three P-F bonds
are polar. Their
polarity is not
cancelled. So PF3
has a net dipole
moment of 1.02D.
On other hand SiF4
15
is a perfect
tetrahedral
molecule. All four
Si F bonds are
polar but their
polarity is
m
cancelled out.
Hence net dipole
o
moment of SiF4 is
e.c
zero.
Q.17. Which of the following molecules will be polar or non-polar,

fre
sketch the structures and Justify your answer.
(i) CCl4 (ii) SO3 (iii) SF4 (iv) NF3 (v)
line
PF5
(vi) SO2 (vii) SF6 (viii) IF7
Ans:
llon
i. CCl4:
The CCl4
molecule is perfect
tetrahedral. All C Cl
w.a
bonds are polar. Their

polarities cancel each
other. Thus net dipole
ww
moment is zero. So CCl4

is a non-polar molecule.
ii. SO3:
The SO3 molecule
is plane triangular. All
bonds are polar but their
polarities cancel each
other. Thus net dipole
16
moment is zero. So SO3

is a non-polar.
iii. SF4:
The molecule SF4
is trigonal bi pyramidal.
m
All four S F bonds are
polar. Their bond
o
moments do not cancel
e.c
each other. Hence net
dipole moment of SF4 is
not zero. Therefore SF4 is
a polar molecule. fre
line
iv. NF3:
The molecule NF3
is trigonal pyramidal. All
llon
four N F bonds are

polar. Their bond
moments do not cancel
each other. So net dipole
w.a
moment is not zero.

Hence NF3 is a polar
molecule.
ww
v. PF5:
The molecule PF5
is trigonal bi pyramidal.
All P F bonds are polar.
Their bond moments
cancel each other. So net
dipole moment is zero.
Hence PF5 is a non polar
17
molecule.
vi. SO2:
The molecule SO2
is a angular V shaped.
Two bond moments do
m
not cancel each other.
Thus net dipole moment
o
is 1.6D. Hence SO2 is a
e.c
polar.
vii. SF6:
fre
The molecule SF6
is octahedral. All bond
line
moments cancel one
another. Thus net dipole
moment is zero. Hence
llon
SF6 is a non-polar
molecule.
viii. IF7:
w.a
The molecule IF7

is Pentagonal bi
pyramidal. All I-F bond
ww
moments cancel each

other. So net dipole
moment is zero. Hence
IF7 is a non-polar.
Q.18. Classify the statements as true or false. Explain with reasons.
i. Bond distance is the compromise distance between two atoms.
18
ii. The distinction between a coordinate covalent bond and a covalent

bond vanishes after bond formation in , H3O+ and .
iii. The bond angles of H2O and NH3 are not 109.5o like that of CH4.
Although, 0-and N-atoms are sp3 hybridized.
iv. are more diffused than .
v. The abnormality of bond length and bond strength in HI is less
m
prominent than that of HCl.
vi. Solid sodium chloride does not conduct electricity, but when
o
electric current is passed through molten sodium chloride or its
e.c
aqueous solution, Electrolysis takes place.
vii. The melting points, boiling points, heat of vaporization and heats
of sublimations of electrovalent compounds are higher as
fre
compared with those of covalent compounds.
line
Ans.
i. When two atoms come close to make a bond, then their attraction
increases and P.E decreases. At a certain distance atomic attraction
llon
is maximum and energy is minimum. It is compromise distance

between two atoms. Here bond formation takes place. It atoms
come further closer, then nuclear repulsions takes place and energy
w.a
of system increases. Here bond formation does not occur. Hence

bond distance is the compromise distance between two atoms.
ii. In a covalent bond two atoms provide shared pair of electrons. In a
ww
coordinate covalent bonds and one coordinate bond then there is no

difference between their bond length and bond energy. E.g. in
ion all four bonds are taken equally. It is the reason that distinction
between covalent and coordinate covalent bond vanishes after their
formation.
iii. In NH3 and H2O there is SP3 hybridization like CH4. Four SP3
hybrid orbitals are formed. The angle between SP3 orbitals should
be 109.5o. But we know that NH3 has one lone pair and H2O has
two lone pairs of electrons. There is repulsion between lone pairs
19
and bonding pairs of electrons. Due to lone pair-bond pair

repulsion the bond angles in NH3 and H2O are not 109.5o like CH4
which has no lone pair of electrons.
iv. Sigma bond is formed by head to head (liner) overlap of two
partially filled orbitals. Here electron density is symmetrically
spread around the bond axis. The Pi-bond formed by parallel
m
overlap of two partially filled P-orbitals. Here electron density is
spread above and below the bond axis. It is the reason that are
o
more diffused than .
e.c
v. Chlorine has smaller size and higher electro negativity than Iodine.
Thus HCl has more polarity than HI. Due to this reason
abnormality of bond length and bond strength in HI is less
vi.
prominent than that of HCl.fre
In solid sodium chloride, the Na+ and Cl- ions have strong
line
electrostatic attractions. Thus they are tightly held and occupy
fixed positions. But in molten or solution form, ions become free
and move towards opposite electrodes. It is the reason that sold
llon
NaCl does not conduct electricity but in molten or solution form

NaCl conducts electricity.
In electrovalent compounds, the opposite ions have strong electrostatic

w.a
attractions. Thus they are tightly held and occupy fixed positions. It is
the reason that electrovalent compounds have high melting points,
boiling points, heat of vaporization and heat of sublimations as
ww
compared with those of covalent compounds.
20
CHAPTER 7
THERMOCHEMISTRY
MCQs
m
Q.1 Which of the following statements is contrary to the first law of
thermodynamics?
o
(a) energy can neither be created nor destroyed
e.c
(b) one form of energy can be transferred into an equivalent
amount of other kinds of energy
(c) in an adiabatic process, the work done is independent of
its path
(d)
fre
continuous production of mechanical work with out
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equivalent amount of heat is possible
Q.2 The change in heat energy of a chemical reaction at constant
temperature and pressure is called
(a) enthalpy change (b) bond
llon
energy
(c) heat of sublimation (d) internal energy
change
w.a
Q.3 For the reaction NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O, the change in
enthalpy is called as:
(a) heat of reaction (b) heat of
ww
formation
(c) heat of neutralization (d) heat of combustion
Q.4 Calorie is equivalent to
(a) 0.4184 J (b) 41.84 J
(c) 4.184 J (d) 418.4 J
Q.5 For a given process, the heat change at pressure (qp) and constant
volume (qv) are related to each other as
(a) qp = qv (b) qp < qv
(c) qp > qv (d) qp =
1
Q.6 The net heat change in a chemical reaction is same whether. It is

brought about in two or more different ways in one or several steps. It is
known as
(a) Henry’s law (b) Joule’s principle
(c) Hess’s law (d) Law of conservation of
energy
m
Q.7 Enthalpy of neutralisation of all the strong acids and strong bases
has the same value because
o
(a) neutralisation leads to the formation of salt and H2O
e.c
(b) strong acid and bases are ionic substances
(c) acids always give rise to H+ ions and bases always
furnish OH– ions
(d) fre
the net chemical change involve the combination of H+
and OH– ions to form water
line
Q.8 If an endothermic reaction is allowed to take place very rapidly
in the air. The temperature of the surrounding air
(a) remains constant (b) increase
llon
(c) decrease (d) remain unchanged

Q.9 In endothermic reactions, the heat content of the
(a) products is more than that of reactants
(b) reactants is more than that of products
w.a
(c) both (a) and (b)

Q.10 Hess’s law is also called
(a) first law of thermodynamics
ww
(b) second law of thermodynamics

(c) first law of thermochemistry
(d) second law of thermochemistry
Q.11 Pressure – volume work is
(a) PDv (b) Fxd
(c) hv (d) H+pv
Q.12 Kinetic energy of molecules is due to
(a) rotational energy (b)
vibrational energy
2
(c) translational energy (d) all of these

Q.13 The condition for standard enthalpy change is
(a) 1 atm 30oC (b) 1 atm 0oC
(c) 1 atm 25oC (d) 760 atm 25oC
Q.14 The unit of enthalpy change is
(a) calorie (b) joule
m
(c) volt (d) coulomb
Q.15 The sum of all kinds of a system is ions or molecules of a system
o
is
e.c
(a) vibrational energy (b) potential energy
(c) kinetic energy (d) internal energy
Q.16 An endothermic reaction is one is which
(a)
(b)
fre
enthalpy of reactants and products are same
enthalpy of products is greater than reactant
line
(c) enthalpy of products is lesser than reactants
(d) heat is evolved from system
Q.17 Bomb calorimeter is used to determine
llon
(a) enthalpy of solution

(b) enthalpy of atomization
(c) enthalpy of combustion
(d) enthalpy of neutralization
w.a
Q.18 Glass calorimeter is used to determine

(a) enthalpy of combustion
(b) enthalpy of reaction
ww
(c) pressure–volume work

(d) none of above
Q.19 Born–Haber cycle is used to calculate
(a) enthalpy of combustion
(b) lattice energy of ionic camps
(c) both a and b
(d) none of above
Q.20 Born–Haber cycle is an application of
(a) first law of thermodynamics
3
(b) second law of thermodynamics

(c) first law of thermochemistry
(d) Hess’s law
Q.21 An exothermic reaction is one in which
(a) enthalpy of reactants and products are same
(b) heat is absorbed by system
m
(c) enthalpy of products is greater than reactants
(d) enthalpy of reactants is lesser than products
o
Q.22 A substance under observation during an experiment
e.c
(a) surrounding (b) system
(c) state function (d) universe
Q.23 Enthalpy of neutralization is merely
(a)
(c)
heat of solutionfre
heat of combustion
(b) heat of atomization
line
(d) heat of formation of H2O
Q.24 Lattice energy of NaCl is
(a) + 500 kJ (b) – 344 kJ
– 776 kJ – 411 kJ
llon
(c) (d)
Q.25 Standard enthalpy of Al2O3 cannot be measured because
(a) it does not catch fire
(b) it reacts with CO2
w.a
(c) protective layer of oxide cover the surface

(d) none of above
Q.26 Ammonium chloride dissolve in water this process is
ww
(a) endothermic process (b) exothermic process

(c) simple hydration (d) none of above
Q.27 First law of thermodynamics is represented as
(a) DE = q+RT (b) DE = q+DP
(c) E = q+P (d) E = q+w
Q.28 Pumping of water uphill is
(a) spontaneous reaction (b) exothermic reaction
(c) non–spontaneous reaction
(d) endothermic
4
Q.29 In exothermic reaction D H is

(a) positive (b) negative
(c) zero (d) none of above
ANSWERS
Question 1 2 3 4 5
m
s
Answers D a c c C
o
Question 6 7 8 9 10
e.c
s
Answers c d c c D
Question 11 12 13 14 15
s fre
Answers a d c a d
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Question 16 17 18 19 20
s
Answers b c b b d
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Question 21 22 23 24 25
s
Answers c b d c c
w.a
Question 26 27 28 29
s
Answers a d b b
ww
5
CHAPTER7
THERMOCHEMISTRY
TEXT BOOK EXERCISE
Q1. Select the suitable answer from the given choices.
m
(i) If an endothermic reaction is allowed to take place very
rapidly in the air the temperature of the surrounding air
o
(a) Remains constant (b) increases
e.c
(c) dereases (d) remain unchanged
(ii) In endothermic reactions, the heat content of the
(a) Products is more than that of reactants
(b)
(c)
fre
Reactants is more than that of reactants
Both (a) and (b)
line
(d) Reactants and product are equal
(iii) Calorie is equivalent to
(a) 0.4184 J (b) 41.84J
(c) 4.184 J (d) 418.4 J
llon
(iv) The change in heat energy of a chemical reaction at constant

temperature and pressure is called
(a) enthalpy change (b) bond energy
w.a
(c) heat of sublimation (d) internal energy

change
(v) Which of the following statements is contrary to the first law of
ww
thermodynamics?
(a) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
(b) One form of energy can be transferred into an equivalent
amount of of other kinds of energy.
(c) In an adiabatic process, the work done is independent of its
path.
(d) Continuous production of mechanical work without
supplying an equivalent amount of heat is possible
1
(vi) For a given process, the heat changes at constant pressure (q p )

and at constant volume (qv) are related to each other as
(a) qp =qv (b) q p < qv
(c) qp > qv (d) qp = qv/2
(vii) For the reaction NaOH + HC1 NaC1 + H2O. The change
in enthalpy is called
m
(a) Heat of reaction (b) heat of formation
o
(c) Heat of neutralization (d) heat of
combustion
e.c
(viii) The net heat change in a chemical reaction is same whether it is
brought about in two or more different ways in one or several
steps. It is known as
(a) Henry‟s law fre (b) Hess‟s Law
(c) Joule‟s principle (d) Law of conservation
line
of energy
(ix) Enthalpy of neutralization of all the strong acids and strong
bases has the same value because
llon
(a) Neutralization leads to the formation of salts and water

(b) Strong acids and bases are ionic substances
(c) Acids always give rise to H+ ions and bases always
furnish OH- ions.
w.a
(d) The net chemical change involve the combination of H+

and OH- ions to form water
Ans. i)c ii)a iii)c iv)a v)d vi)c vii)c viii)b
ww
ix)d
Q2. Fill in the blanks with suitable words.
(i) The substance undergoing a physical or a chemical change
forms a chemical ________.
(ii) The change in internal energy _________be measured.
(iii) Solids which have more than one crystalline forms
possess_________values of heats of formation.
(iv) A process is called___________if it takes place on its own
without any outside assistance.
2
(v) A __________is a macroscopic property of a system which

is __________of the path adopted to bring about that change.
Ans. i)system ii)can iii)different
iv)spontaneous v)state function : independent
Q3. Indicate the true or false as the case may be.
(i) It is necessary that a spontaneous reaction should be
m
exothermic.
(ii) Amount of heat absorbed at constant volume is internal
o
energy change.
e.c
(iii) The work done by the system is given the positive sign.
(iv) Enthalpy is a state function but internal energy is not.
(v) Total heat content of a system is called enthalpy of the
Ans.
system.
i) False ii)
fre True iii) False iv) False v)
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True
Q4. Define the following terms and give three examples of each
i) System ii)
llon
Surroundings
iii) State function iv) Units of energy
v) Exothermic reaction vi) Endothermic
reaction
w.a
vii) Internal energy of the system viii)Enthalpy of the

system.
Q5. (a) Differentiate between the following:
ww
(i) Internal energy and enthalpy

(ii) Internal energy change and enthalpy change
(iii) Exothermic and endothermic reactions
(b) Define the following
(i) Standard enthalpy of reaction
(ii) Standard enthalpy of combustion
(iii) Standard enthalpy of atomization
(iv) Standard enthalpy of solution
3
Q6. (a) What are spontaneous and non-spontaneous processes?

Give examples.
(b) Explain that burning of a candle is a spontaneous
process.
(c) Is it true that a non-spontaneous process never
happens in the universe?
m
Explain it.
Q.7 (a) What is the first law of thermodynamics? How does it
o
explain that
e.c
(i) qv = E ii) qp = H
(b) Wow will you differentiate between E and H ? Is it true
that H and E have the same values for the reaction taking
fre
place in the solution state.
Hint: For reactions taking place in the solution state. Since the
line
change in volume is insignificant, i.e . V=0, so
H= E + P V
H = E +Px0
llon
H= E
Hence, H and E have the same values for the reaction taking
place in the solution state.
Q.8. (a) What is the difference between heat and temperature ?
w.a
Write a mathematical relationship between these two parameters.

Ans. Difference between heat and temperature
Temperature: “ A measure of the average kinetic energy of all
ww
the particles in a system is called temperature .”

Temperature is a state function. If we transfer energy to a system,
the kinetic energy of the particles in the system increases.
Therefore, the temperature rises.
Heat: “The transfer of energy caused by a difference in temperature
between a system and its surroundings or between a system and
another system is called heat.”
Heat is not a state function. It depends on the path of the system.
A mathematical relationship between heat and temperature is :
4
q= ms T
(b) How do you measure the heat of combustion of a substance by
bomb calorimeter.
Q9. Define heat of neutralization. When a dilute solution of a strong
acid is neutralized by a dilute solution of a strong base, the heat of
neutralization is found to be nearly the same in all the cases. How
m
do you account for this?
Q10. (a) State the laws of thermo-chemistry and show how are
o
they based on the firs law of thermodynameics.
e.c
Ans. Laws of Thermochemistry
There are two thermochmical laws. They are based on the law of
conservation of energy. These law are:
1. fre
First Thermo chemical Law (Lavoisier and Laplace-1780)
“The quantity of heat required to decompose a compound into its
line
elements is equal to the heat evolved when that compound is
formed from its elements, but with opposite sign.”
In other words the heat of decomposition of a binary
llon
compound is numerically equal to the heat of formation of a compound,

but of opposite sign.
Examples:
H= -285.58kJ mol-1
w.a
(1) H2(g )+ O2 (g) H 2O(g)

H2O(l ) H 2O(g) + O2 (g) H= +285.58kJ mol-1
(2) C(s ) O2(g) +CO2 (g) H= -393.7kJ mol-1
ww
CO(g ) C(s) + O2 (g) H= +393.7kJ mol-1

(3) H2 (g) + 12 (s) H1(g) H= +26.48kJ mol-1
H1(g) H2 (g) + 12 (s) H= -26.48kJ mol-1
2. Second Thermaochemical law (Hess’s Law-1840)
“ The amount of heat evolved or absorbed in a chemical reaction
is the same whether the reaction takes place in one step or in several
steps.”
Mathematically:
5
H = H1 + H2 + ………….
Where H is the enthalpy change for the reaction when the
reactants are directly converted into products in one step and H1 and
H2 are the enthalpies of different steps when the reactants are converted
into products in two steps.
(b) What us a thermochmical equation? Give three examples. What
m
information do they convey?
Ans. Thermochmical Equation
o
“A chemical equation which gives an idea about the heat evolved
e.c
or absorbed during the reaction is called a thermochmical equation.”
Examples: (i) C(s) +O2 (g) CO3(g) H= -393.7kJ mol-1
H= -285.58kJ mol-1(iii)
(ii) H2(g )+ O2 (g)
N2(s) +O2 (g)
fre
H 2O(l)
2NO(g) H= +180.51kJ mol-1
H= -41.6kJ mol-1
line
(iv) N2(s) +3H2 (g) 2NH3(g)
Information conveyed by a thermochmical equation
A thermochmical equation give the following information.
(i) The heat evolved or absorbed in a reaction. H is always
llon
negative for an exothermic reaction where as it is positive for an

endothermic reaction.
(ii) The physical state of reaction and products because they will
w.a
effect the heat of reaction.

(iii) It is treated as a standard equation. The coefficients of reactants
and products always represent their mole.
ww
(iv) If the conditions of the reaction are not given, then it is assumed
that the reaction is taking place at 1 atm pressure and 25oC.
(v) If the termochemical equation is reversed, the sign of the heat of
reaction will be reversed but the magnitude remains the same.
(c) Why is it necessary to mention the physical states of reactants
and products in a thermochemical reaction? Apply Hess‟s law to
justify your answer.
Ans. Since the heat of reaction depends upon the physical state of the
reactants and products, therefore, while writing a thermochemical
6
equation, the physical state of the reactants and products must be

mentioned.
If the reaction A B is exothermic, than B A will be
endothermic.
Q11. (a) Sate and explain Hess‟s law of constant heat summation.
Explain it with examples and give its applications.
m
(b) Hess‟s law helps us to calculate the heats of those
reactions, which cannot be normally carried out in a laboratory.
o
Explain it.
e.c
Q12. (a) What is lattice energy ? How does Bron-Haber Cycle
help to calculate the lattice energy of NaC1?
(b) Justify that heat of formation of a compound is the sum
fre
of all the other enthalpies.
Q13. 50 cm3 of 1.0 M HC1 is mixed with 50 cm3 of 1.00 M NaOH in
line
a glass calorimeter. The temperature of the resultant mixture
increases from 21.0oC to enthalpy change mole-1 for the reactions.
The density of solution to be considered is 1 g cm-3 and specific
heat is 4.18 Jg -1 k-1 .
llon
Solution:
Volume of 1.0 MHC1 =50cm3
Volume of 1.0 MNaOH =50cm3
w.a
Initial temperature of HC1 =21.0oC

Initial temperature of NaOH =21.0oC
Final temperature of reaction mixture =27.5oC
ww
Temperature rise for reaction mixture =27.5 – 21.0 =6.5oC

Specific heat capacity of reaction mixture =4.10 jg-1 k-1
=4.18 jg -1 oC-1
Density of solution =1 gcm-3
Volume of reaction mixture =50 cm 3 + 50 cm3 =100 cm3
Mass of reaction mixture =volume x density
=100 cm3 x 1 g cm-3
=100 g
Amount of total heat evolved, q =m x s x T
7
=100g x 4.18 Jg -1 oC-1 x 6.5oC

=2717 J , =2.717 KJ
Since the reaction is exothermic, so, q = - 2.717 kJ
Vol. Of NaOH = =0.05 dm3
No. of moles of HC1 =Molarity x vol. of soln. In dm3
m
=1.0 x 0.05
0.05 mole
o
Vol. Of NaOH = =0.05 dm3
e.c
No. of moles of HC1 =Molarity x vol. of soln. In dm3
=1.0 x 0.05
fre 0.05 mole
line
Equation of reaction: HC1(aq) +NaOH (aq) NaC1(aq) + H2 O(l)
1mole
1mole 1mole
llon
0.05 mole 0.05mole

0.05mole
Now, 0.1 mole of formation of H2 O liberates heat =-2.717 KJ

w.a
1 mole of formation of H2 O liberates heat =
=- 54.34 kJ
ww
Enthalpy of neutralization, Hn = -54.34 kJ Answer

Q14. Hyrazine N2 H4 is a rocket fuel. It burns in o2 to N2 and H2O.
N2H4(l) +O2(g) N2(g) + 2H2 O(g)
1.00 g of N2H4 is burned in a bomb calorimeter. An increase of
temperature 3.51oC is recorded. The heat capacity of calorimeter is
5.5 kJK-1 . Calculate the quantity of heat evolved. Also calculate
the heat of combustion of 1 mole of N2 H4.
Solution:
8
Mass of N2H4 = 1g
Rise of temperature =3.51 oC
Sp. Heat capacity of calorimeter =5.5 kJK-1 =5.5 kJ oC-1
q =?
Formula Used: q =mxsx T
=1 g x 5.5 kJ oC-1 x 3.51oC
m
=19.31 kJ
Since combustion is an exothermic reaction, so
o
q =- 19.31 kJ Answer
e.c
Now, No of moles of N2 H4 =1 mole
Mass of N2H4 =No. of moles x Molar
mass
fre =1 mol x 32 g mol-1
=32 g
line
Heat of combustion of 1 g of N2 H4 = -19.31 kJ
Heat of combustion of 32 g of N2 H4 =- 19.31 kJ x 32
Hence, heat of combustion of N2 H4 = -618 kJ mol-1 Answer
llon
Q15. Octane C8 H18 is a motor fuel. 1.80 g of a sample of octane is

burned in a bomb calorimeter having heat capacity 11.66 kJk -1 .
The temperature of the calorimeter increases from 31.36 oC to
28.78oC. Calculate the heat of combustion for 1 g of octane. Also
w.a
calculate the heat for 1 mole of octane.

Solution:
Mass of octane, C8 H18 =1.80g
ww
Sp. Heat capacity of calorimeter =11.66 kJK-1 =11.66 kJ oC-1

Rise in temperature, T =(28.78 – 21.36 ) oC =7.42 oC
Heat of combustion, q =?
Formula Used: q=m x s x T
=1.80 g x 11.66 kJ oC-1 x 7.42 oC
=155.73 kJ Answer
Since combustion reaction is an exothermic, so
Heat of combustion = -155.73 kJ
Now, heat o combustion of 1.80 g of octane =- 155.73 kJ
9
Heat of combustion of 1 mole of octane =- x1g

= - 86.52 kJ
Heat of combustion of 1 mole of octane = -86.52 kJ
No, of moles of octane =1 mole
Molar mass of octane, C8 H18 =96+18=114 g mol-1
m
Mass of octane = moles of octane x molar mass of octane
= 1 mol x 114 g mol-1
o
=114 g
e.c
Now, heat of combustion of 1 g of octane = -86.52 kJ
Heat of combustion of 114 g of octane = x 114 g
Hence,
fre = - 9863 kJ
heat of combustion of 1 mole of octane=- 9863 kJ mol-
1
Answer
line
Q16. By applying Hess‟s law calculate the enthalpy change for the
formation of an aqueous solution of NH4 C1 from NH3 gas and
HC1. The results for the various reactions and pressure are as
llon
follows.
(i) NH3(s) +aq NH3(aq) H= -35.16kJ mol-1
w.a
(ii) HC1(g) +aq HC1(aq) H= -72.41kJ mol-1

(iii) NH3(s) +HC1(aq) NH4 C1(aq) H= -35.16kJ mol-1
Solution:
ww
NH3(g) +HC1(g)+ aq NH4C1(aq) H= ?

(i) NH3(g) +aq NH3(aq) H= -35.16kJ mol-1
(ii) NH3(g) +aq HC1(aq) H= -72.41kJ mol-1
(iii) NH3(aq) +HC1(aq) NH4 C1(aq) H= -51.48kJ mol-1
Add Eq (i), Eq (ii)
(i) NH3(g) +aq NH3(aq) H= -35.16kJ mol-1
(ii) NH3(g) +aq HC1(aq) H= -72.41kJ mol-1
__________________________________________________________
__
(iv) NH3(g) +HC1(g)+2aq NH3(aq)+HC1(aq) H= -107.57kJ mol-1
10
Now, add Eq (iii)and Eq(iv)

(iii) NH3(aq) +HC1(aq) NH4 C1(aq) H= -51.48kJ mol-1
(iv) NH3(g) +HC1(g)+2aq NH3(aq)+HC1(aq) H= -107.57kJ mol-1
__________________________________________________________
__
(v) NH3(g) +HC1(g)+2aq NH3(aq)+HC1(aq) H= -159.05kJ mol-1
m
Since any integer multiplied by „aq‟ is equal to „q‟
So, 2 x aq =aq
o
Hence, Eq(v)becomes,
e.c
NH3(g) +HC1(g)+2aq NH3(aq)+HC1(aq) H= -159.05kJ mol-1
H= .159.05 kJ mol-1 Answer
Q17. Calculate the heat of formation of ethyl alcohol from the
following information
(i)
fre
Heat of combustion of ethyl alcohol is – 1367 kJ mol-
line
1
(ii) Heat of formation of ethyl alcohol is – 393.7 kJ mol-1
(iii) Heat of formation of water is - 285.8 kJ mol-1
llon
Solution:
2C(s) +3H 2(g) + O2(g) C2 H 5OH(l) H= ?
(i) C2 H5 OH(l) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3H2 O(g) H= -1367kJ
w.a
(ii) C(s) +O2(g) CO2(g) H= -393.7kJ

(iii) H2(s) + O2(g) H2 O(l) H= -285.8 kJ
Multiply Eq(ii) by 2 and Eq (iii) by 3 and then add the resultant
ww
equation
(iv) 2C(s) +2O2(g) 2CO2(g) H= -787.4kJ
(v) 3H2(g) + O2(g) 3H2 O(l) H= -857.4 kJ
__________________________________________________________
__
(iv) 2C(s)+ 3H2(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g)+3H2 O(l) H= -1644.8 kJ
Now, subtract Eq(i) from Eq(iv),
11
(vi) 2C(s)+ 3H2(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g)+3H2 O(l) H= -1644.8 kJ

(i) C2H5OH(l) 3O2(g 2CO2(g) 3H2 O(l) H= 1367 kJ
__________________________________________________________
__
2C(s)+ 3H2(g) + O2(g) – C2H5 OH(l) 0 H= -277.8 kJ
m
or
o
2C(s)+ 3H2(g) + O2(g) C2H5 OH(l) H= -277.8 kJ
e.c
Hence, the heat of formation of ethyl alcohol is - 277.8 kJ
Answer
Q18. If the heats of combustion of C2H2, H2 and C2 H6 are – 337.2 , -
fre
68.3 and – 372.8 k calories respectively , then calculate the heat of
the following reaction.
line
C2H2(g)+ 2H2(g) C2H6 (g)
Solution:
C2H2(g)+ 2H2(g) C2H6 (g) H= ?
llon
(i) C2H2(s)+ O2(g) 2CO2(g)+ C2H6(g) H= -337.2 kJ

(ii) H2(s)+ O2(g) H2 O(l) H= -68.3 kJ
w.a
(iii) C2 H6(s)+ O2(g) 2CO2(g) +3H2O(l) H= -372.8 kJ

Multiply Eq (ii) by2
(iv) 2H2(g)+ O2(g) 2H2O(l) H= -136.3kJ
ww
Add Eq (i) , Eq (iv)

(i) C2H2(s)+ O2(g) 2CO2(g)+ H2O(l) H= -337.2 kJ
(ii) 2H2(g)+ O2(g) 2H2O(l) H= -136.3kJ
(v) C2 H2(s)+ 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g) +3H2O(l) H= -473.8 kJ
From Eq(v) subtract Eq(iii)
(v) C2 H2(s)+ 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g) +3H2O(l) H= -473.8 kJ
(iii) C2H6(g) O2(g) 2CO2(g) 3H2 O(l) H= 372.8 kJ
12
C2H2(g)+ 2H2(g) - C2H6 (g) 0 H= -101.0 k cal

Or
C2H2(g)+ 2H2(g) - C2H6 (g) H= -101.0 k cal
H= -101.0 k cal Answer
Q19. Graphite and diamond are two forms of carbon. The enthalpy of
combustion of graphite at 25oC is – 393.51 kJ mol-1 and that of
m
diamond is – 395.41 kJ mol-1.
What is the enthalpy change of the process? Graphite
o
Diamond at the same temperature?
e.c
Solution: C(graphite) C(diamond) H=?
(i) C(graphite) +O2(g) CO2(g) H= -393.51 kJmol-1
(ii) C(diamond ) +O2(g) CO2(g) H= -395.41 kJmol-1
(i)
fre
From Eq(i) Subtract Eq(ii)
C(graphite) +O2(g) CO2(g) H= -393.51 kJmol-1
line
(ii) C(diamond) O2(g) CO2(g) H= 393.41 kJmol-
__________________________________________________________
__
H=1.9 kJ mol-1
llon
C(graphite) - C(diamond) 0
C(graphite) C(diamond) H=1.9 kJ mol-1
H=1.9 kJ mol-1 Answer
Q20. What is the meaning of the term enthalpy ionization? If the heat
w.a
of neutralization of HC1 and NaOH is – 57.3 KJ mol-1 and heat of

neutralization of CH3COOH with NaOH is - 55.2 kJ mol-1 ,
calculate the enthalpy of ionization of CH3COOH.
ww
Solution:
CH3 COOH(l) CH3 COO-(aq) + H-(aq) H=?
+ - + - +
(i)H (aq) + C1 (aq) + Na (aq) +OH (aq) Na (aq)+H2O(l) H=57.3 kJ mol-
1
(ii)CH3COOH(l) + Na+(aq) +OH-(aq) CH3COO –(aq) + Na+(aq)+H2O(l)

H=55.2kJ mol-1
Now, from Eq(ii), Subtract Eq(i)
(ii) CH3COOH(l) + Na+(aq) +OH-(aq) CH3COO –(aq) + Na+(aq)+H2O(l) H=-
55.2kJ mol-1
13
(i) H+(aq) C1-(aq) Na+(aq) OH-(aq) Na+(aq) H2O(l) H=

57.3 kJ mol-1
CH3 COOH(l) CH3 COO-(aq) + H-(aq) H=2.1 kJ mol-1

CH3 COOH(l) CH3 COO-(aq) + H+(aq) H=2.1 kJ mol-1
H=2.1 kJ mol-1Answer
m
Q21. (a) Explain what is meant by the following terms.
(i) Atomization energy
o
(ii) Lattice energy
e.c
(b) Draw a complete, fully labeled Born-Haber Cycle for
the formation of potassium bromide.
(c) Using the information given in the table below ,
Reactions:
fre
calculate the lattice energy of potassium bromide.
H / kJ mol-1
line
K(s) + Br2(l) -392
K(s) K(g) +90
K(g) +420
llon
Br2(l) +112
Br(g) + -342
Solution:
w.a
Hf(KBr)=-392 kJ mol-1
Hat (K) =90kJ mol-1
Hi(K)=420 kJ mol-1
ww
HD/2 (Br2)=112 kJ mol-1

He (Br) = -342 kJ mol-1
Hl =?
According to Born-Haber cycle
Hf(KBr) = Hf + Hat(k) + Hi(k) + HD/2 (Br2 )
+ He(Br)
On putting the values,
-392 kJ mol = Hl + 90 kJ mol-1 + 420 kJ mol-1 + 112 kJ mol-1 –
-1
342 kJ mol-1
-392 kJ mol-1 = Hl + 280 kJ mol-1
14
Hl = -392 kJ mol-1 – 280 kJ mol-1

Hl =-672 kJ mol-1
Hence, lattice energy of KBr = - 672 kJ mol-1 Answer
m
o
e.c
fre
line
llon
w.a
ww
15
CHAPTER 7
THERMOCHEMISTRY
SHORT QUESTION AND ANSWERS
Q.1 Define the following terms and give three examples of each.
Ans.
m
(i) System:
The substance which is under experiment or under observation is
o
called as system.
e.c
Examples:
(i) Pb(NO3)2 in decomposition of Pb(NO3)2.
(ii) Zn and CuSO4 solution, the reaction mixture in the vessel.
(iii)
(ii)
fre
CaCO3 in thermal decomposition of CaCO3
Surroundings:
line
Everything around the system which is not a part of system is
called surroundings.
For example
During the reaction between Zn and CuSO4 solution vessel and
llon
air etc are surroundings.

(iii) State function:
A macroscopic property of a system which has some definite
w.a
value for initial and final state and independent of the path
followed e.g.
(i) Pressure (ii) Temperature (iii) Internal energy.
ww
Note: Heat is not a state function.

Q.2 Describe the units of energy.
Ans.
Mostly Joule and calorie are used for the measurement of energy.
Calorie:
The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of one
gram of water from 14.5oC to 15.5oC is called one calorie.
Joule:
1
It is SI unit of energy and defined as energy expanded when a

force of one Newton moves a body through one meter in the
direction in which force is applied.
Joule = Force x distance
1J = 1 N x 1 m
Q.3 What are rhermochemical reactions?
m
Ans:
Exothermic reaction:
o
Those thermochemical reactions in which heat is evolved as a
e.c
result of reaction are called as exothermic reactions.
C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g) H = – 393.7 kJ/mole
H2(g) + O2(g)  H2O(l) H = – 285.5 kJ/mole
fre
N2 + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) H = – 41.6 kJ/mole
Endothermic reactions:
line
Those thermochemical reactions in which heat is absorbed as a
result of reaction are called as endothermic reaction.
N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g) H = + 180.51 kJ/mole
llon
H2O(l)  H2(g) + O2(g) H = + 285.58 kJ/mole

H2(g) + I2(g)  2H I H = + 52.96 kJ/mole
Q.4 Differentiate between internal energy and enthalpy of a
w.a
system?
Ans:
Internal energy:
The total of all kinds of K.E and P.E of all the particles of a
ww
system is called as internal energy. It is denoted by “E’ e.g., kinetic

energy may be in the form of translation, vibrational and rotational
motion and potential energy is intermolecular and intramolecular
forces of attraction.It is a sate function of system.
E= K.E + P.E
Enthalpy of the system:
The total heat contents of a system and denoted by H. The
increase in the internal energy of a system plus work done is called
as enthalpy i.e.
2
H = E + Pv
Q.5 Define the followings:
(i) Enthalpy of reaction
(ii) Enthalpy of neutralization
(iii) Enthalpy of combustion
Ans:
m
Standard Enthalpy of reaction:
The enthalpy change when no. of moles of reactants as indicated
o
by the balanced chemical equation react completely together to
e.c
give the products under the standard conditions.
H2(g) + O2(g)  H2O(l) H = – 285.5 kJ/m
N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g) H = + 180.5 kJ/m
Standard Enthalpy of Combustion:fre
The enthalpy change when one mole of a substance is completely
line
burnt in excess of oxygen under standard conditions.
` C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g)  2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l) H
= – 1368 kJ/m
llon
C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g) H = – 393.7 kJ/m

2Al(s) + O2(g)  Al2O3(s) H = – 1675.7 kJ/m
Standard enthalpy of atomization:
w.a
The enthalpy change when one mole of gaseous atoms are

formed from the elements under the standard conditions is called
enthalpy of atomization.
 H(g) H = 218 kJ/mole
ww
Cl2  Cl(g) H = + 121 kJ/mole

Q.6 Why it is essential to mention the physical states of reactants and
products in a thermochemical equation?
Ans.
The heat of reaction depends upon the physical states of the
reactants and products, heat of reaction is different in different
physical states therefore, while writing a thermochemical equation
it is essential to mention the physical states of the reactants and
products.e.g
3
H2(g) + 1/2O2(g) → H2O(g) ∆H = -241.5 KJ mol-1

H2(g) + 1/2O2(g) → H2O(l) ∆ H= -285.8 KJ mol-1
Q.7 Differentiate between spontaneous and non–spontaneous
reaction?
Ans.
The process which takes place on its own without any outside
m
help and moves from a non–equilibrium state to equilibrium state
is called spontaneous or natural process. It is real, unidirectional
o
and irreversible e.g. water flows from higher level to low leve,
e.c
reaction between acid and base etc.
There are certain reactions which need energy to start but once
they start they proceed their own for example burning of candle.
fre
The process which does not take place on its own and does not
occur in nature is called as non–spontaneous. It is reverse of the
line
spontaneous process i.e. pumping of water uphill, flow of heat
from colder to hotter region etc.
Q.8 Prove that change in enthalpy is equal to heat of reaction? /
llon
prove that qp =H?
Ans.
We know that enthalpy is equal to the internal energy plus
w.a
product of pressure and volume.

H = E + Pv
According to first law of the thermodynamics
ww
q = E + w
At constant pressure w = Pv
qp = E + Pv
qp = (E2 – E1) + (v2 – v1)p
qp = E2 – E1 + Pv2 – Pv1
qp = (E2 + Pv2) – (E1 + Pv1) H2 = E2 + Pv2
qp =H2 – H1 H1 = E1 + Pv1
qp =H
4
This shows that enthalpy change is equal to amount of heat

absorbed at constant pressure.
Q.9 Briefly explain laws of thermochemistry.
Ans. First law of thermochemistry:
The enthalpy of formation of a compound to the enthalpy of
decomposition of that compound. e.g.
m
H2(g) + O2(g)  H2O(l) H = – 285.5 kJ/mole
H2O(l)  H2(g) + O2(g) H = + 285.5 kJ/mole
o
Second law of thermochemistry (Hess’s law):
e.c
The amount of heat evolved or absorbed in a chemical reaction is
same whether the reaction takes place in one or several steps. e.g.
single step process.
fre
C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g) H1 = – 393.7 kJ
Two steps process:
line
C(s) + O2(g)  CO(g) H2 = – 110.7kJ
H1 = H2 + H3
– 393.7 = – 110.7 – 283
llon
– 393.7 = – 393.7
Q.10 Draw a complete, fully labeled Born–Haber cycle for the
formation of KBr.
w.a
Reactions:
K(s) + Br2(l)  K+ Br–  H/kJ mole–1
– 392 kJ mole–1
K(s)  K(g) + 90 kJ mole–1
ww
K(g)  K+ e– + 420 kJ mole–1

Br2(l)  Br(g) +112 kJ mole–1
Br(q) + e–  Br–(g) – 342 kJ mole–1
Solution:
The heat of formation of KBr is equal to sum of all the
enthalpies.
Hf = – 392 kJ mole–1 (Heat of formation)
Hs = + 90 kJ mole–1 (Heat of sublimation)
5
Hi = + 420 kJ mole–1 (Ionization pot of k)

HD/2 = + 112 kJ mole–1 (Dissociation energy of Br2)
He = – 342 kJ mole (electron affinity)
Hl = ? (Lattice energy of kBr)
Hf = Hat + Hi + Hd + He + Hl
– 392 = + 90 + 420 + 112 + (– 342) + Hl
m
Hl = – 672 kJ mole–1
o
Q.11 Heat is evolved in exothermic reactions and absorbed in
e.c
endothermic relations.
Ans.
When bond formation energy is greater than the bond breaking
fre
energy then the excess of energy is evolved making the reaction
exothermic. When the bond breaking energy is greater than the
bond formation energy then the difference of energy is supplied
line
from surrounding making the reaction is endothermic.
Q.12 How would you explain that change in enthalpy is a state
function?
llon
Ans.
As H = E + PV
As E, P and v are state functions as they are independent of
w.a
path and depend only on the initial and final state of the system
therefore enthalpy of a system is also a state function because
enthalpy depends on E, P and V.
ww
Q.13 How can you prove that (w = –

PV)
Ans.
We know that
6
Work = Force x distance

Initial volume= V1
Final volume = V2
Change in volume V = V2 – V1
In the expansion of gases, the work is expressed in terms of pressure and
m
change in volume. So,
Work = P x V
o
= w = – PV
e.c
The work is negative because it is done by the system.
Q14. What is difference between heat and temperature? Write a
fre
mathematical relationship between these two parameters?
Ans:
Heat: The measure of total energy of a substance is called heat. It is
line
property of a body which flows from a body at higher temperature to a
body at lower temperature. It is denoted by ‘q’. It depends upon the
quantity of a substance. It is measured by calorimeter. It is not a state
llon
function.
Temperature: It is measure of average K.E of the molecules in
the system. It is denoted by ‘T’. It is independent of the quantity of a
substance. It is measured by thermometer. It is a state function.
w.a
Realtionship: q= m x S x ∆T
Q15. What is enthalpy of neutralization? Why enthalpy of
neutralization of strong acid and base is always -57.4 KJ mol-1?
ww
Ans:
It is the amount of heat eveolved or absorbed when one mole of
H ions from an acid reacts with one mole of OH - from a base to form
+
one mole of H2O. Under standard conditions it is called standard

enthalpy of neutralization, and it is denoted by ∆Hn.
H+ + OH- → H2O ∆Hn = -57.4 KJ mol-1
The heat of neutralization of strong acid or base is always -57.4 KJ mol-1
because strong acid or base is completely ionized and when acid and
base is mixed no bond has to be broken
7
mo
e.c
fre
line
llon
w.a
ww
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1st year chemistry notes

Q.3 Mg atom is twice heavier than that of carbon.

one mole of a substance contains equal number of molecules i.e.

negatively charged sulphate ions.

of molecules when ionized in excess of water.

Q.8 Define Stoichiometry ?

relationship between reactants and products in balanced chemical

oxygen. There are three atoms i.e. two

(2 moles of H atoms and one mole of O atoms).

8 moles of neurons (8 neutrons in oxygen and there is no neutron in

Q.12 N2 and CO have same number of electrons, protons and neutrons.

Both N2 and CO have same number of electrons, protons and

Q.14 Differentiate between limiting and non–limiting reactant ?

product formed in a chemical reaction.

The reactant which produces the excess amount of the product is

The amount of the products calculated from the balanced chemical

(c) Mecahanical loss may occur like during

instead of molecular mass.

Mass of MgSO4 = 120 x 10–3 = 0.12 moles

Q.19 Define Avogadro’s number ?

Q.21 Define isotopes ?

12C6 13C6 14C6 and expressed as C–12, C–13 and C–14.

Positive Ion (Cation):

mass of a compound. The molecular ions also help in the determination of

products can give important information about their structure.

Q.25 Define Gram atom ?

Number of gram ions =

1 gram ion of CO = 60 gram

1 gram formula of AgNO3 = 170 gm

Q.30 Define an atom and molecule ?

Atom is now defined as the smallest particle of an element, which

A molecule is the smallest particle of a pure substance( element or

that of glucose is C6H12O6. The molecular formula and empirical formula

Where n is simple integer.

Empirical formula mass = 12 + 3 + 16 = 31

Q.34 The combustion analysis of an organic compound shows it to

4.45 5.45 1.82

Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen are present in the given organic

There are three types of relationships of stoichiometric calculations.

the mass of other substance is calculated.

The relationship in which mass of one substance is given and

(d) stable molecule

(a) oxygen (b) hydrogen

(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass

Q.16 No. of molecules present in 10gm of water are

(a) 6.074 x 1023 (b) 6.74 x 1023

(c) NO2 (d) N2O3

(d) amount of the reactant unused

(a) 0.100 2 moles of HCl (b) 0.051 moles of H2SO4

(c) substance (d) mixture

Q.30 One calorie is equal to

(a) 6.02 x 1023 atoms of oxygen

(c) atomic masses are averages masses of isotopes

(a) is taken in lesser quantity in grams as compared to other

(c) gives the maximum amount of the product which is required

Q.41 A molecule having two atoms is called

(c) 0.403 (d) None of these

Q.49 Haemoglobin is heavier than a hydrogen atom

(iii) Many elements have fractional atomic masses, this is because

(d) Atomic masses are average masses of isotopes proportional to their

(vii) The largest number of molecules are present in

(iii) The phenomenon of isotopes was first discovered by --------------

(v) A limiting reagent is that which controls the quantities of -------------