JCSF Engineering Review Center IPD PPD E5 T6

INDUSTRIAL/POWER PLANT ENGINEERING

(Refresher Trivia Examination IPD/PPD E5 T6)

Prepared by: Engr. Jose R. Francisco

April 2006

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil No. 1
only.

1. The cgs unit of kinematic viscosity.

a) Poise b) Pa-s c) Stoke d) ft2/s

2. The membrane–like behavior of the interface between a liquid and a gas.

a) Surface tension b) Compressibility c) Non-wetting fluid d) Fluid film

3. A measure of the random molecular motion of a system is known as:

a) Pressure b) Internal energy c) Temperature d) Viscosity

4. A unit of pressure equals to that of a column of mercury that is 1 mm Hg.

a) Bar c) mm Hg c) Torr d) psi

5. How do you call a negative gage pressure?

a) Pressure b) Gauge pressure c) Vacuum pressure d) Fluid pressure

6. A device used to measure the viscosity of a fluid.

a) Hydrometer b) Hygrometer c) Viscometer d) Bourdon gage

7. The resistance that a fluid has to shearing force is called as:

a) Viscosity b) Fluid friction c) Surface tension d) Bulk modulus

8. A liquid whose attraction for a surface exceeds the attraction of its molecules for each other.
a) Non-wetting liquid b) Wetting liquid d) Surface tension d) Fluid friction

9. The principle that a submerged body is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the liquid that it displaces.
a) Archimedes’ principle b) Bernoulli’s principle d) Blasius’ principle d) Darcy’s principle

10. An absolute pressure-measuring device used to measure the pressure of the atmosphere.
a) Bourdon gauge b) Manometer c) Barometer d) Piezometer

11. The effect that a fluid has on decreasing the weight of a body when a body is immersed in it.
a) Gravitational pull b) Surface tension c) Buoyancy d) Immersion

12. The point of an area which the area will have no net moment – if suspended from this point (in principle), the area will not rotate.
a) Center of gravity of an area b) Area moment of inertia
c) Centroid d) Balance of force

13. The point of an area where the hydrostatic force vector acts.
a) Center of gravity b) Center of force c) Center of pressure d) Centroid

14. The same as the center of gravity.

a) Center of pressure b) Center of force c) Centroid d) Balance point

15. A statement of the fact that at a given horizontal level in a fluid the pressure must be the same in all directions if the fluid is static.
a) Equal level/equal pressure principle b) Equal force principle
c) Equal mass principle d) Equal center principle

16. An instrument used to measure pressure or pressure differences in a system.

a) Bourdon gauge b) Manometer c) Barometer d) U-tube

17. The second moment of an area about an axis.

a) Center of gravity b) Center of pressure c) Moment of inertia d) Centroid

18. An agreed-upon defined atmosphere whose properties are accepted for use in performance calculations.
a) Standard pressure b) Standard atmosphere c) Absolute pressure d) Gauge pressure

19. As used in conjunction with cylinders and spheres, taken to mean a ratio of thickness to diameter of 0.1 or less.
a) Thin b) Thick c) Layer d) Height

20. A statement of the conservation of energy applied to the steady-flow of an ideal incompressible fluid in the absence of work,
friction, or heat transfer.
a) Euler’s equation b) Reynolds number c) Bernoulli’s equation d) Continuity Equation

21. A statement of the conservation of mass in a steady flow system: the mass flow rate into a system must equal the mass flow rate out
of the system. For incompressible fluids, this can also be taken to mean that the volume flow rate into a system must equal the
volume flow rate out of the system.
a) Euler’s equation b) Reynolds number c) Bernoulli’s equation d) Continuity Equation

22. The ability to do an effect.

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a) Power b) Work c) Energy d) Torque

23. The work required causing a fluid to flow into or out of a system.
a) Flow work b) Non-flow work c) Internal energy d) Shaft work

24. The terms of the Bernoulli’s equation have the dimensions of length and can be thought of as being heights of fluid.
a) Pressure b) Energy c) Head d) Surface tension

25. The ability of a body to do work as a consequence of its velocity is known as:
a) Kinetic energy b) Potential energy c) Internal energy d) Total energy

26. The ability of a body to do work as a consequence of its position relative to a reference plane is said to be:
a) Kinetic energy b) Potential energy c) Internal energy d) Total energy

27. The flow of a fluid that is independent of time.

a) Constant flow b) Uniform flow c) Steady flow d) Laminar flow

28. The statement that the velocity from a jet is equal to the velocity that a body would have if it fell freely from a height equal to the
distance from the reservoir surface to the centerline of the jet.
a) Torricelli’s theorem b) Archimedes’ Theorem c) Bernoulli’s Theorem d) Blasius’ Theorem

29. An arrangement of converging and diverging sections of pipe that is used to measure flow rates in a pipe, is known as:
a) Pitot tube b) Venturi meter c) Nozzle d) Piezometer

30. The product of area multiplied by velocity – expressed as cubic feet per second, cubic feet per minute, cubic meters per second,
cubic meters per minute, liters per minute, liters per second, or gallons per minute.
a) Volumetric flow rate b) Mass flow rate c) Discharge rate d) Velocity

31. The product of a force and the amount of displacement in the line of action of the force.
a) Energy b) Torque c) Work d) Power

32. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a) Energy b) Torque c) Work d) Power

33. The modified Bernoulli’s equation that takes into account pumps, turbines, and losses in systems in which fluids are flowing.
a) Continuity equation b) Energy equation c) Work equation d) Power equation

34. A defined rate of doing work equal to 550 ft-lb/s or 746 N-m/s is known as:
a) Power b) Kilo Watt c) Horsepower d) Kilo Joule

35. A line with the tangent to it at any point being the direction of the velocity at that point.
a) Center line b) Streamline c) Boundary line d) Peak line

36. The sum of the velocity head, pressure head, and potential head in a system is called as:
a) Velocity head b) Static head c) Pressure head d) Total head

37. Arbitrary values of the roughness of pipes use by Moody in formulating his correlation of pressure drop in pipes.
a) Relative roughness b) Absolute roughness c) Surface roughness d) Pipe roughness

38. The region adjacent to the pipe wall in which a large pressure gradient occurs.
a) Stream line b) Boundary layer c) Thin layer d) Thick layer

39. The velocity at which laminar flow breaks up and starts to become turbulent in character.
a) Maximum velocity b) Critical velocity c) Minimum velocity d) Average velocity

40. A general relation that yields the head loss as a function of L/D and the velocity head, V 2/2g.
a) Bernoulli’s Equation b) Energy Equation c) Continuity equation d) Darcy-Weisbach equation

41. For noncircular sections, a diameter that can be used in the Darcy-Weisbach equation; equal to 4A/P.
a) Equivalent diameter b) Equivalent length c) Hydraulic radius d) Wetted perimeter

42. A fictitious length that is assumed to be added to the pipe length to account for the minor losses.
a) Equivalent diameter b) Equivalent length c) Hydraulic radius d) Wetted perimeter

43. A variable in the Darcy-Weisbach equation; that is, h f = f (L/D)(V2/2g).

a) Roughness factor b) Friction factor c) Hydraulic factor d) Hydraulic gradient

44. An analytic expression for the calculation of the pressure drops in laminar flow.
a) Hagen-Poiseuille Equation b) Blasius Equation c) Darcy-Weisbach equation d) Colebrook equation

45. Flow characterized as consisting of concentric parallel cylindrical layers flowing past each other; also, flow in which Reynolds
number  2000.
a) Laminar flow b) Critical flow c) Transitional flow d) Turbulent flow

46. Losses due to entrance, valves, fittings, and so on – usually losses are a small percentage of the loss due to friction.
a) Friction losses b) Energy losses c) Major losses d) Minor losses

47. A logarithmic diagram enabling one to obtain the friction factor in turbulent flow when the relative roughness and the Reynolds
number are known – devised by L. F. Moody in 1944 based on a review of the existing literature.
a) Moody Diagram b) Darcy Diagram c) Crane Diagram d) Pipe Sizing Diagram

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48. The ratio of the absolute roughness to the diameter of the pipe, e/D.
a) Relative roughness b) Absolute roughness c) Surface roughness d) Pipe roughness

49. The ratio of the inertia forces to viscous forces; also given as DV/.
a) Viscosity b) Reynolds number c) Absolute roughness d) Relative roughness

50. Streamline flow refers to as:

a) Laminar flow b) Uniform flow d) Critical flow d) Steady flow

51. The flow regime between laminar and turbulent flow; 2000  Re  4000.
a) Laminar Region b) Transition Region d) Turbulent Region d) Boundary Region

52. A flow in which the motion of individual particles is random transverse to the main direction of flow, causing the particles to
intermingle randomly; Re  4000.
a) Laminar flow b) Turbulent flow d) Critical flow d) Steady flow

53. Viscous flow refers to as:

a) Laminar flow b) Constant flow b) Minimum flow d) Critical flow

54. A theory that considers a fan or propeller to consist of a series of small airfoils.
a) Drzewiecki blade element theory b) Euler’s blade element theory
c) Darcy-Weisbach blade element theory d) Hagen-Poiseuille Equation

55. The ratio of the power in the air stream to the power input by the propeller.
a) Propeller power b) Propeller efficiency c) Propeller peripheral Velocity d) Propeller head

56. A disk that exerts a uniform pressure or thrust on an air stream without causing rotation of the air.
a) Compressor b) Fan c) Blower d) Air booster

57. For a constant force F, it is equal to Ft, where t is the time that the force acts on a body.
a) Momentum b) Impulse c) Reaction d) Velocity

58. A device that is used principally to increase the velocity of a stream.

a) Diffuser b) Nozzle c) Fan d) Blower

59. A point on a body where the velocity of a fluid is zero.

a) Critical point b) Zero velocity point c) Extreme point d) Stagnation point

60. A cistern device used to obtain atmospheric pressure; the working fluid is usually mercury.
a) Bourdon tube b) Manometer c) Barometer d) Pitot tube

61. A correction factor used to obtain the actual area from the ideal area of a device.
a) Contraction coefficient b) Discharge coefficient c) Velocity coefficient d) friction coefficient

62. A correction factor used to obtain the actual discharge quantity from the ideal discharge quantity of a device.
a) Contraction coefficient b) Discharge coefficient c) Velocity coefficient d) friction coefficient

63. A correction factor used to obtain the actual velocity from the ideal velocity of a device.
a) Contraction coefficient b) Discharge coefficient c) Velocity coefficient d) friction coefficient

64. An accurately machined piston cylinder device used to provide a basic calibration of pressure gages.
a) Dead-weight piston gage b) Live-weight piston gage
c) Dead-weight rotary gage d) Live-weight rotary gage

65. A particular type of cistern barometer.

a) Pascal Barometer b) Newton Barometer c) Fortin Barometerd) Digital Barometer

66. An electrical device whose output varies linearly with pressure for small displacements of its core. This output can be calibrated and
amplified.
a) Linear Variable Pressure Transducer b) Linear Variable Temperature Transducer
c) Linear Variable Pressure Transformer d) Linear Variable Temperature Transmitter

67. An absolute pressure gage used for very low (vacuum) pressure measurements.
a) Fortin Gage b) Torr Gage c) Mcleod Gage d) Bourdon Gage

68. A manometer used in low-pressure measurements.

a) Micro-manometer b) Micro Fortin gage c) Micro Mcleod gage d) Torr Gage

69. Equivalent to 1000 mm or 10-6 m.

a) Nano meter b) Micron c) Mega meter d) Pico meter

70. An opening in the side of a pipe wall that is used to measure static pressure.
a) Pitot tube b) Venturi meter c) Piezometer d) Nozzle

71. A pitot tube and a piezometer combined in one device is known as:
a) Pitot-piezometer tube b) Pitot tube c) Pitot-static tube d) Pitot-meter tube

72. An open-ended tube used to determine stream velocities is called as:

a) Venturi meter b) Pitot tube c) Nozzle d) Piezometer

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73. A device that uses an elastic element to convert fluid energy to mechanical or electrical energy.
a) Barometer b) Pressure gage c) Pressure Transducer d) Pressure Reducer

74. An electrical transducer that uses the principle that the electrical resistance of an element varies with its length when it is placed
under load.
a) Strain gage b) Tension gage c) Tension meter d) Deflection gage

75. A method of calibrating an orifice using the trajectory of the stream that issues from the orifice.
a) Orifice calibrating Method b) Trajectory method
c) Vena Contracta Method d) Strain Method

76. The section of minimum area of a jet issuing from an orifice is called as:
a) Orifice throat area b) Critical area c) Vena Contracta d) Trajectory area

77. A series of equations permitting one to extrapolate the performance of one size of pump to another. It is assumed that the pumps are
geometrically similar and have similar vector diagrams.
a) Specific speed b) Similarity law c) Affinity laws d) Basic pump laws

78. The head that a pump can develop at a given speed is known as:
a) Total dynamic head b) Pump head c) Available head d) Static head

79. The formation, growth, and collapse of bubbles in a pump.

a) Cavitation b) Bubble formation c) Pressure build upd) Net Positive Suction Head

80. The outlet of a pump is called as:

a) Intake b) Outlet c) Suction d) Discharge

81. A head equivalent to energy added to the fluid being pump.

a) Pressure head b) Velocity head c) Dynamic head d) Static head

82. Pumps having geometrically similar construction and similar vector diagrams.
a) Rotadynamic pumps b) Displacement pumps c) Dynamic pumps d) Homogeneous pumps

83. The sum of the pressure head plus the velocity head minus the losses in the suction line plus or minus the distance from the
centerline of the pump to the fluid level minus the vapor pressure of the liquid.
a) Total dynamic head b) Net positive suction head c) Available head d) Discharge head

84. A pump that does not yield a given amount of fluid per revolution.
a) Dynamic pump b) Positive-displacement pump
c) Non-positive-displacement pump d) Rotary pump

85. A pump designed to provide a given amount of fluid per revolution.

a) Dynamic pump b) Positive-displacement pump
c) Non-positive-displacement pump d) Rotary pump
86. Head needed to overcome all losses plus static head plus velocity head at a given rate of flow.
a) Required head b) Pump head c) Available head d) Static head

87. A performance factor used in the preliminary design and selection of pumps.
a) Available head b) Impeller type c) Specific speed d) Efficiency

88. The distance from the centerline of the pump to the level in the discharge tank.
a) Static suction head b) Static suction liftc) Static discharge head d) Total static head

89. The pressure exerted by those molecules of fluid that escape from and exist just above the fluid surface.
a) Absolute pressure of fluid b) Fluid pressure c) Vapor pressure d) Hydrostatic pressure

90. Any surface designed to obtain reaction from the air through which it moves.
a) Fluid surface b) Airfoil c) Airplane d) Fluid wet surface

91. A mechanically driven fixed-wing aircraft, heavier than air that is supported by the dynamic reaction of the air against its wings.
a) Mechanical flying machine b) Airplane c) Flying saucer d) Mechanical kite

92. The acute angle between a reference line on a body and the line of the relative wind direction projected on a plane containing the
reference line and parallel to the plane of symmetry.
a) Angle of attack b) Angle of elevation c) Angle of depression d) Angle diffraction

93. The angle of attack when the lift of an airfoil is zero.

a) Angle of zero lift b) Angle of zero elevation
c) Angle of zero depression d) Angle zero diffraction

94. The force on an object during an aircraft maneuver such as a banked turn.
a) Total weight b) Weight curvaturec) Apparent weight d) Total weight

95. The ratio of the span to the mean chord of a wing.

a) Wing ratio b) Aspect ratio c) Banking ratio d) Specific ratio

96. A turning maneuver with the inner wing depressed and the outer wing elevated.
a) Curve b) Circle c) Bank d) Elevation

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97. The curvature of an airfoil is called as:
a) Curve b) Circle c) Bank d) Camber

98. The location of the resultant aerodynamic force on an airfoil.

a) Center of pressure b) Center of gravityc) Center of force d) Centroid

99. An arbitrary datum line from which the ordinates and angles of an airfoil are measured.
a) Chord b) Bank c) Camber d) Drag

100. The component of the total force on an airfoil parallel to the direction of flow.
a) Chord b) Bank c) Camber d) Drag

101. A dimensionless coefficient that is used to calculate the drag on an airfoil.

a) Chord coefficient b) Bank coefficient c) Camber coefficient d) Drag coefficient

102. The equilibrium velocity for an object that is falling; for an airplane occurring when it is in a dive either with or without power.
a) Maximum velocity b) Critical Velocity c) Terminal velocity d) Average velocity

103. The depth of a fluid at which the specific energy is minimum is known as:
a) Average depth b) Maximum depth c) Minimum depth d) Critical depth

104. The flow at the critical depth of a fluid.

a) Uniform flow b) Maximum flow c) Steady flow d) Critical flow

105. An empirical formula used to calculate the flow in rectangular weirs.

a) Darcy formula b) Euler’s formula c) Francis formula d) Manning’s formula

106. Where the depth in a channel is initially sub-critical and suddenly changes to a depth that is greater than the critical depth.
a) Fluid jump b) Flow jump c) Hydraulic jump d) Weir jump

107. An empirical equation used to calculate the uniform steady flow in a rectangular channel.
a) Darcy formula b) Euler’s formula c) Francis formula d) Manning’s formula

108. Flow where the channel or depth or both change from section to section.
a) Non-uniform flow b) Channel flow c) Weir flow d) Critical flow

109. Flow where there is a surface that is free and not in contact with a wall.
a) Non-uniform flow b) Open-Channel flow c) Weir flow d) Critical flow

110. A venturi-like device used to measure the flow in a open channel.

a) Parsball flume b) Venturi meter c) Weir meter d) Channel flume

111. Flow so fast that a small wave cannot travel upstream.

a) Tranquil flow b) Rapid flow c) High speed flow d) Critical flow

112. A flow slows enough for a small wave to travel upstream.

a) Tranquil flow b) Rapid flow c) High speed flow d) Critical flow

113. In a long channel, where the flow will be parallel to the bed of the channel, the flow is called as:
a) Tranquil flow b) Rapid flow c) High speed flow d) Uniform flow

114. An obstruction placed into the stream or channel that is used to obtain measurements of the flow.
a) Weir b) Chamber c) Conduit d) Channel

115. A heat engine that is used to convert the chemical energy of the fuel into mechanical energy as useful work by burning the fuel
inside the engine itself.
a) External combustion engine b) Internal Combustion Engine
b) Gas turbine d) Carnot Engine

116. A theoretical prototype of a spark-ignition engine and was developed by Nicholas A. Otto (1832-1891) is known as:
a) Air-standard Otto cycle b) Air-Standard Diesel cycle
c) Air-standard Brayton cycle d) Air-standard Dual cycle

117. Otto cycle is an ideal cycle, which is the basis of an actual;

a) Diesel engine b) Gasoline engine c) Gas turbine d) Jet engine

118. Property usually measured by the amount of KOH (potassium hydroxide) required neutralizes all or part of petroleum oil acidity.
Also known as neutralization number.
a) Acid numbers b) pH value c) Isotopes Number d) Diesel index

119. Chemical compound added to a petroleum base oil to alter its physical or chemical properties.
a) Catalyst b) Additive c) Acid d) Distilled water

120. A storage tank located in the suction line of a compressor. It allows small amounts of liquid refrigerant to boil away before entering
the compressor. Sometimes used to store excess refrigerant in heat pump systems during the winter cycle.
a) Liquid receiver b) Surge tank c) Accumulator d) Oil separator

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ANSWERS KEY

1. b 86. a
2. a 46. d 87. c
3. c 47. a 88. c
4. c 48. a 89. c
5. c 49. b 90. b
50. a
6. c 91. b
7. a 51. b 92. a
8. b 52. b 93. a
9. a 53. a 94. c
10. c 54. a 95. b
55. b
11. c 96. c
12. a 97. d
13. c 98. a
14. c 99. a
15. a 100. d
56. b
16. b 57. b 101. d
17. c 58. b 102. c
18. b 59. d 103. d
19. a 60. c 104. d
20. c 105. c
61. a
21. d 62. b 106. c
22. c 63. c 107. d
23. a 64. a 108. a
24. c 65. c 109. b
25. a 110. a
66. a
26. b 67. c
27. c 68. a
28. a 69. b
29. b 70. c
30. a 111. b
71. c 112. a
31. c 72. b 113. a
32. d 73. c 114. a
33. b 74. a 115. b
34. c 75. b
35. b 116. a
76. c 117. b
36. d 77. c 118. a
37. b 78. c 119. b
38. b 79. a 120. c
39. b 80. d
40. d
81. c
41. a 82. d
42. b 83. b
43. b 84. c
44. a 85. b
45. a