Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.

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Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
Test
(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2019)

(Syllabus of the Test : Science & Mathematics of Class IX)

Test Booklet Code : A

Time : 2 Hrs. Max.Marks : 360

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. The initial 10 minutes are earmarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The
candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these
initial 10 minutes.)
2. The question booklet and answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. This question booklet contains 90 questions.
4. Read each question carefully.
5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.
6. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ballpoint Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.
For Example
Q. 12 : In the Question Booklet is : Which one is known as ‘black gold’?
(Answer Sheet)
(1) Old gold Q.12.    
(2) Petroleum
(3) Silver
(4) Coal
Thus as the correct answer is choice 2, the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black Ball
point pen only) the circle corresponding to choice 2 against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet. If
more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.
8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once
marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that
Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet
are to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time,
he/she should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can
leave the examination hall before half time.
Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads NTSE & Class X - 2019 Sample Paper

SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :
1. The distance and displacement of a moving object 6. An object is thrown up with a speed of 50 m/s. Its
are equal only when it height from the ground after 7 s is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) Moves in a circle (1) 125 m (2) 20 m
(2) Slows down (3) 105 m (4) 100 m
(3) Speeds up 7. A net force of 20 N acts on a 5 kg mass kept at
(4) Moves straight without turning back rest. Distance travelled by the mass in 6 s is
2. An object of mass 5 kg occupies a volume of (1) 72 m (2) 36 m
500 cm3. The relative density of the mass is (3) 24 m (4) 12 m
(1) 0.1 (2) 10 8. Two objects of mass 1 kg and 2 kg are fixed at a
(3) 0.01 (4) 1 certain distance between them. If a mass of 4 kg,
placed between them, attains equilibrium at a
3. Maximum acceleration that can act on a 2.5 kg distance r from the smaller mass, then its distance
mass under the action of a 16 N and a 4 N force from the larger mass will be
is
(1) r (2) 2r
(1) 8 m/s2 (2) 4.8 m/s2
(3) 2r (4) 4r
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 6.5 m/s2
9. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth
4. The velocity time graph of a body is shown below.
is g. What will be the acceleration due to gravity
The corresponding displacement time graph will be
on the surface of a planet having same mass and
V diameter half as that of earth?
g g
(1) (2)
2 4
(3) 4g (4) 2g
t
S S
10. A body of mass 15 kg moving with a velocity of
10 m/s, is brought to rest by applying brakes.
Work done by the brakes is
(1) (2) (1) –250 J
t t (2) –500 J
S S (3) –750 J
(4) –1000 J
(3) (4) 11. A shell explodes and its pieces fly off in opposite
directions. Which of the following quantities will be
t t conserved?
5. Sound from a source vibrating at frequency 200 Hz
(1) Kinetic energy only
travels at speed of 300 m/s in air. Wavelength of
the sound is (2) Momentum only
(1) 15 m (2) 1.5 m (3) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy
(3) 150 m (4) 6 m (4) Both momentum and kinetic energy
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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads NTSE & Class X - 2019
12. According to Archimedes principle when a body is 18. Which of the following is an example of
immersed fully or partially in a liquid, it homogeneous mixture?
experiences an upward force that is equal to
(1) Cloud (2) Sugar solution
(1) Weight of the body
(3) Distilled water (4) Milk
(2) Weight of the part of body which is immersed
19. The dispersed phase of foam is
(3) Weight of the liquid displaced by it
(1) Gas (2) Solid
(4) Weight of the part of body not immersed
(3) Liquid (4) Water
13. If the wavelength of a sound wave is 35 cm and its
frequency is 2 kHz, then speed of the wave is 20. Which of the following techniques can be used to
(1) 350 m/s (2) 700 m/s separate a mixture of two miscible liquids A and B
having boiling points 63 K and 78 K respectively?
(3) 175 m/s (4) 7000 m/s
(1) Separating funnel
14. For an object undergoing uniformly accelerated
motion, average velocity is given by [symbols have (2) Fractional distillation
their usual meaning]
(3) Simple distillation
v –u v u (4) Chromatography
(1) (2)
2 2
21. If 10 g of sugar is dissolved in 90 g of water, then
v2 u2 v2 – u2 what will be the concentration (w/w%) of the
(3) (4)
2 2 solution?
15. The momentum of a body is always in the (1) 10% (2) 9%
direction of
(3) 1.11% (4) 0.11%
(1) Its motion (2) Its acceleration
22. The process ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ respectively are
(3) Force acting on it (4) Its weight
Salt + Salt +
16. The rate of diffusion of liquids is higher than that of Sand+ Process ‘X’
Sand
solids because Ammonium
(1) Particles of liquid have more forces of chloride + Ammonium Dissolu-
attraction between them than that of solids
chloride tion in
water
(2) Particles of liquid have less spaces between
them and hence they stick to each other and
Pure
move freely Process ‘Z’ Salt + Process ‘Y’ Sand +
salt Water Salt +
(3) Particles of liquid have more inter-particle crystals Water
+
spaces among them and they can move freely Sand
(1) Melting, filtration and evaporation
(4) Particles of solid have more inter-particle
spaces between them as compared to liquids (2) Evaporation, crystallisation and filtration
17. Which of the following gases is essential for the (3) Sublimation, filtration and crystallisation
survival of plants? (4) Sublimation, crystallisation and evaporation
(1) Oxygen only 23. Which of the following elements becomes liquid at
(2) Carbon dioxide only a temperature slightly above room temperature?
(3) Carbon monoxide only (1) Boron (2) Gallium
(4) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide (3) Germanium (4) Bromine

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads NTSE & Class X - 2019 Sample Paper
24. Which of the following has the maximum number 29. The ratio by mass of calcium to oxygen in quick
of moles? lime is
(1) 112 g of Na (2) 50 g of Ne (1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 3

(3) 40 g of He (4) 60 g of C (3) 5 : 2 (4) 5 : 1

25. Which of the following elements has the valency of 2? 30. Which of the following is not a polyatomic ion?

(1) Sodium (2) Carbon (1) Ammonium (2) Sulphite

(3) Boron (4) Oxygen (3) Sulphate (4) Sulphide

31. Bacteria are kept in the kingdom
26. Read the following statements carefully:
(1) Monera (2) Protista
(A) One water molecule contains two hydrogen
atoms and two oxygen atoms. (3) Fungi (4) Plantae
(B) Number of moles of oxygen atom present in 32. How many character(s) is/are common in pisces
0.22 g of carbon dioxide is 0.01. and amphibians?
(C) The charge on the particle which was a. They are cold blooded animals.
discovered by J.J. Thomson is negative. b. Heart is three chambered.
The correct statements are/is c. Respiration is through gills only.
(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) & (C) d. They have scales.
(3) Both (B) & (C) (4) All (A), (B) & (C) (1) One (2) Three
27. The electronic configuration of an element with (3) Two (4) Four
atomic number 20 is 33. Which of the following nutrients required in large
(1) 2, 8, 10 (2) 2, 8, 8, 2 quantities by plants?
(3) 2, 8, 2, 8 (4) 2, 2, 8, 8 (1) Iron, Calcium and Boron

28. The composition of the nuclei of three elements are (2) Nitrogen, Copper and Zinc
given as (3) Phosphorus, Manganese and Magnesium
(4) Potassium, Calcium and Sulphur
Elements A B C
34. The cell organelle found in both prokaryotes and
Number of neutrons 6 8 7 eukaryotes is
Number of protons 6 6 7
(1) Lysosome
(2) Endoplasmic Reticulum
Consider the following statements:
(3) Golgi apparatus
(i) The atomic number of element 'B' is 6 and
mass number of both 'A' and 'C' is 14 (4) Ribosome
(ii) Element 'A' and 'B' are isotopes 35. Find the incorrect match.
(iii) Element 'A' and 'C' are isobars (1) Sycon – Porifera
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct? (2) Echinus – Echinodermata
(1) Only (i) (2) Both (i) & (ii) (3) Antedon – Arthropoda
(3) Only (ii) (4) All (i), (ii) & (iii) (4) Chiton – Mollusca

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads NTSE & Class X - 2019
36. Which of the following epithelial tissues forms the 41. How many of the following crops are grown in rainy
lining of kidney tubules? season?
(1) Columnar epithelium (i) Paddy (ii) Wheat
(2) Simple squamous epithelium
(iii) Linseed (iv) Mustard
(3) Stratified squamous epithelium
(v) Soyabean (vi) Cotton
(4) Cuboidal epithelium
(1) Three (2) Two
37. Identify the cell organelle on the basis of the given
information. (3) Five (4) Four
 These are sacs for storing solid and liquid 42. Statement-1: Oxygen is an abundant element on
contents. our earth.
 These are small sized in animal cells and very Statement-2: Oxygen from atmosphere is used up
large sized in plant cells. in processes like combustion, photosynthesis,
(1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosomes respiration, etc.
(3) Vacuoles (4) SER (1) Both the statements are true
38. Which of the following permanent tissues becomes (2) Both the statements are false
modified to give buoyancy to aquatic plants and
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
helps them float?
(1) Collenchyma (2) Parenchyma (4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true

(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Xylem

After 1 hour
39. 'X' which causes Japanese Encephalitis is carried 43. Cell A Cell A
by 'Y' and affect the organ 'Z' in humans. Identify
'X', 'Y' and 'Z'.
A student observed the above change in the cell
(1) X-bacterium, Y-mosquito and Z-liver
size when the cell is kept in
(2) X-virus, Y-air and Z-lung
(1) Both isotonic and hypotonic solution
(3) X-fungus, Y-water and Z-kidney
(2) Hypotonic solution
(4) X-virus, Y-mosquito and Z-brain
(3) Hypertonic solution
40. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the organism
given in the figure. (4) Isotonic solution
44. Which of the following tissues contains haversian canal?
(1) Adipose (2) Bone
(3) Cartilage (4) Blood
45. Identify the plant tissue on the basis of given
Musca information.
(Housefly)
(i) It provides strength.
(1) It has bilateral symmetry and segmented body
(ii) It is present in the hard covering of seeds.
(2) It belongs to the largest group of animals
(3) It has closed circulatory system (1) Parenchyma (2) Chlorenchyma
(4) It has jointed legs (3) Sclerenchyma (4) Collenchyma

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads NTSE & Class X - 2019 Sample Paper

MATHEMATICS
46. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral (1) ACQ + VEB = 180°
with its circumcircle having centre O. Side DC is
(2) ACQ = UEB
extended to E. If BOD = 160°, then BCE is of
(3) RDE + VEB = 180°
(4) ACP = DEV
A B
49. ABC and PBC are two isosceles triangles on
O the same base BC such that AB = AC and
PB = PC. If BAC = 30° and BPC = 40°, then
160°
ABP is

D C A
E

(1) 40° (2) 80°

(3) 20° (4) 160°
B C
47. The difference between total surface area and
curved surface area of a hemisphere of radius r is
(1) 2r2
P
(2) 3r2
(1) 170° (2) 135°
(3) r2
(3) 145° (4) 180°
(4) 4r2
50. x3 + 3x2 – 2x – 6 can be factorised as
48. If PQ || RS || UV and a transversal AB intersects
PQ, RS and UV at C, D and E respectively, then (1) ( x  3 )( x  3)( x  2)
which of the following is not correct conclusion?
(2) (x + 2) (x – 3) (x + 1)

A (3) (x – 2) (x + 3) (x – 1)

(4) ( x  2)( x  2)( x  3)

P C Q
51. If the ratio of curved surface area and total surface
area of a cone is 3 : 4, then the ratio of height and
D radius of the cone is
R S
(1) 4 2 : 1

E (2) 2 2 : 1
U V (3) 3 : 1
B
(4) 2 : 1

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads NTSE & Class X - 2019
52. A polynomial of degree 6 in y has at most____ 60. Three coins are tossed 570 times and the
unlike terms. outcomes are recorded as below:
(1) 6 (2) 5 Number of tail 3 2 1 0
(3) 7 (4) 2 Frequency 255 90 125 100
53. The probability of an event of a trial cannot be Based on this information, the probability of getting
1 2 at most two tails is
(1) (2)
2 3 23 21
(1) (2)
4 5 28 38
(3) (4)
3 6 3 15
(3) (4)
54. The distance of the point (–6, –2) from the x-axis 19 38
is 3 3 2
61. If ax – b = (3x – 2) (9x + 6x + 4), then the value
(1) 8 units (2) 6 units of a – (b)2 is
(1) 27 (2) 4
(3) 2 units (4) 4 units
(3) 23 (4) 25
55. Which of the following is not a rational number?
62. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class
7 is 12.5 and the width of the class is 7. The lower
(1)  (2) 7.232332333.....
11 limit and upper limit of the class are respectively
(3) 0 (4) 18.25 (1) 10, 17 (2) 9, 16
56. The statements which are proved using definitions, (3) 12, 19 (4) 8, 17
axioms, previously proved statements and
deductive reasoning are called
p
63. The value of 2.9 + 2.19 in the form , where p
q
(1) Theorems (2) Axioms and q are integers and q  0 is
(3) Postulates (4) Consistent axioms 21 26
(1) (2)
57. Which of the following angles cannot be 5 5
constructed with the help of a compass and a
17 14
scale? (3) (4)
5 5
1 64. In a parallelogram PQRS, if P = 70°, then the
(1) 30° (2) 22 
2 measure of S is
(3) 165° (4) 87° (1) 120° (2) 60°
58. If one angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the (3) 110° (4) 70°
other two angles, then the triangle must be a/an
65. The point of the form (b, b) always lies on the line
(1) Isosceles triangle (1) y = 0 (2) x = 0
(2) Obtuse triangle (3) x – y = 0 (4) y + x = 0
(3) Equilateral triangle 66. Which of the following expressions is a
(4) Right triangle polynomial?
59. The capacity (in liters) of a cylindrical vessel of 1 5
(1) 1
 (2) 1  3x
height 100 cm and radius 70 cm is 3x x
(1) 1540 (2) 15.4 ( x  3)( x  5) 9 x  2x 7/2
(3) (4)
(3) 154 (4) 1.54 x 5 x

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads NTSE & Class X - 2019 Sample Paper
67. The graph of y = 7 is a line 73. A right triangle with sides 8 cm, 15 cm and
17 cm is revolved about the side 15 cm. The
(1) Parallel to x-axis at a distance of 7 units above
curved surface area of the solid so formed is
the origin
(1) 255 cm2 (2) 120 cm2
(2) Parallel to y-axis at a distance of 7 units on
the left of the origin (3) 136 cm2 (4) 122 cm2
(3) Making an intercept of 7 cm on the x-axis 74. In the given figure, the measure of SRQ is
(4) Making an intercept of 7 cm on both the axes S
68. If an isosceles right triangle has an area of
32 cm2, then the length of its hypotenuse is
50°
P Q
(1) 128 cm (2) 64 cm O

(3) 96 cm (4) 160 cm

R
69. 'Lines are parallel if they do not intersect' is stated
(1) 60° (2) 40°
in the form of a/an
(3) 100° (4) 50°
(1) Axiom (2) Definition
75. Every rational number is a/an
(3) Postulate (4) Proof
(1) Natural number (2) Integer
70. In the given figure, if O is the centre of circle, then
the measure of CAB is (3) Real number (4) Whole number
76. If S is a point on the side QR of PQR such that
PS bisects QPR, then
C O
(1) QS = RS
(2) QP > QS
70°
(3) QS > QP
40°
A B (4) RS > RP
(1) 100° (2) 40° 77. In the given figure, PQRS is a parallelogram such
that if SR = 7 cm, RQ = 10 cm and QU = 8 cm.
(3) 70° (4) 105°
The approximate length of ST is
71. If DEF and UVW are two parallel lines, then the S R
bisectors of the angles DEV, FEV, UVE and WVE
form a
(1) Square (2) Rhombus U
(3) Rectangle (4) Kite
72. If x3001 + 71 is divided by x + 1, then the remainder
is P Q
T
(1) 72 (1) 8 cm
(2) 0 (2) 10 cm
(3) 1 (3) 11 cm
(4) 70 (4) 12 cm

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads NTSE & Class X - 2019
78. ABCD and PQCA are two parallelograms. If 83. If p2 + 4p + q2 + 8q + r2 + 10r = –45, then the
ar(ABCD) = x sq. units, then ar(APQC) is equal to value of p + q – r is
P (1) 11 (2) –1
A (3) 1 (4) –11
B
84. In the given figure, NETA is a square. If PQ || AE
and M is the mid-point of PQ, then which of the
Q following is true?
D C N E
4 8
(1) 2x sq. units (2) x sq. units 2
3 1 6
x
(3)
2
sq. units (4) 3x sq. units Q
79. The mean of first eight composite natural numbers
is M
(1) 10 (2) 9.75 7
5
(3) 3.625 (4) 8 A P T
80. If points C and D lie between two points A and B
such that AC = CD = DB, then CB is equal to 1
(1) 7  8
2
2 AB
(1) AB (2) (2) 3 = 24
3 3
(3) 12
1 AB
(3) AB (4)
2 4 (4) 56

81. If (3, – 4) lies on the graph of the equation 4x + 85. The volume of the largest right circular cone that can
3ky = 2, then the value of k is be fitted in a cube whose edge is 4r is equal to
(1) Volume of a hemisphere of radius r
5
(1) –6 (2) r
6 (2) Volume of a sphere of radius
2
(3) Volume of a hemisphere of radius 2r
5
(3) 6 (4)  (4) Volume of a sphere of radius 2r
6
82. In the given ABC, if AC > AB and ADB >
ADC, then 86. The coordinates of a point on the graph of the linear
A 1
equation 3x + 4y = 11, whose abscissa is 2
3
times its ordinate are

⎛7 ⎞ ⎛ 28 ⎞
(1) ⎜ , 1⎟ (2) ⎜ , 4 ⎟
B ⎝3 ⎠ ⎝ 3 ⎠
D C
(1) BAD > CAD (2) BAD < CAD ⎛ 7 1⎞ ⎛ 7 1⎞
(3) ⎜ , ⎟ (4) ⎜ , ⎟
(3) BAD = CAD (4) ABD < ACB ⎝6 2⎠ ⎝9 3⎠

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads NTSE & Class X - 2019 Sample Paper
87. In the given figure, DEAL is a rectangle. If P and 2
Q are the mid-points of AL and DL respectively, 1 ⎛ 1⎞
89. If x  , then the value of ⎜ ⎟ is
then the length of PQ is 32 2 ⎝x⎠

D 24 cm E (1) 17  12 2

(2) 17  2 2
Q 18 cm
(3) 12  17 2

L P A (4) 12  17 2
(1) 60 cm (2) 90 cm
90. In the given figure, AC and BD are two diameters
(3) 15 cm (4) 30 cm and O is the centre of the circle. If OP and OR are
88. ABCD is a rhombus and OP  AD. If AOP = 20°, the angle bisectors of DOC and AOB
then measure of CBO is equal to respectively, then BR is always equal to
A B

R
P
20° A C
O
D B
O P

D
(1) DC
C (2) PC
(1) 70° (2) 90° (3) AO
(3) 20° (4) 50° (4) OC

  

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 Test Booklet Code: A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
Test
(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2019)

Answers

1. (4) 19. (1) 37. (3) 55. (2) 73. (3)

2. (2) 20. (2) 38. (2) 56. (1) 74. (4)
3. (1) 21. (1) 39. (4) 57. (4) 75. (3)
4. (4) 22. (3) 40. (3) 58. (4) 76. (2)
5. (2) 23. (2) 41. (1) 59. (1) 77. (3)
6. (3) 24. (3) 42. (3) 60. (2) 78. (2)
7. (1) 25. (4) 43. (3) 61. (3) 79. (2)
8. (2) 26. (3) 44. (2) 62. (2) 80. (1)
9. (3) 27. (2) 45. (3) 63. (2) 81. (2)
10. (3) 28. (3) 46. (2) 64. (3) 82. (2)
11. (2) 29. (3) 47. (3) 65. (3) 83. (2)
12. (3) 30. (4) 48. (4) 66. (4) 84. (3)
13. (2) 31. (1) 49. (3) 67. (1) 85. (3)
14. (2) 32. (1) 50. (4) 68. (1) 86. (1)
15. (1) 33. (4) 51. (2) 69. (2) 87. (3)
16. (3) 34. (4) 52. (3) 70. (4) 88. (3)
17. (4) 35. (3) 53. (3) 71. (3) 89. (1)
18. (2) 36. (4) 54. (3) 72. (4) 90. (2)