Professional Documents
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P06-17 CODE - 0
Academic Session: 2017-18
MAJOR TEST-4(MT-4)
Please read the last page of this booklet for the instructions.
V
(1) cos21 : cos22
(2) sin21 : sin22
(3) cos1 : cos2 C Vc
(4) 1 : 1
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5. In young's double slit experiment the slits 7. The direction () of E at point P due to
are 0.5 mm apart and the interference is
uniformly charged finite rod will be :
observed on a screen at a distance of 100
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9. A rod of length is oscillating as a physical 11. An approximate value of number of
pendulum about one of its end with small seconds in any year is × 107. Determine
(2) 4.3%
1 3
(1) B g
2
(3) 8.2%
3 3
(2) B g (4) 15%
8
1 3
(3) B g
8
12. In a Searle's experiment for determination
3
(4) B g
of Young's Modulus, when a load of 50 kg
has a radius that grows linearly with time. screw having pitch 1 mm needs to be given
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13. A system of coordinates is drawn in a 14. In given figure when input voltage increases,
R1
medium whose refractive index varies as
z L
2
, 0 y 1 and = 2 for y < 0 as Vin RL V0
1 y2
in the figure. At point P ray becomes (2) the current through RS increases, zener
increases but through RL remains
parallel to x-axis. The value of H is : constant
2
1/ 2 the particle is halved. What is the
(1) 1 coefficient of friction ?
3
(1)
3v 2
0
2
1/ 2 8gr
(2)
3 5v
2
0
(2)
16gr
1/ 2
(3) 3 1 (3)
5v 2
0
8gr
1/ 2
4
(4)
1 (4)
3v
2
0
3 16gr
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16. A body is free to rotate about an axis 18. The position of 12 D, 42He and 73 Li are shown
parallel to y-axis. A force of on the binding energy curve as shown in
figure.
ˆ ˆ ˆ
F 3i 2 j 6k N is acting on the body
6
The angular acceleration of body is :
5
y
4
3
2
2
D
F 1 1
r 2 4 6 8 10
O Mass Number (A)
x
The energy released in the fusion reaction
2 7 4 1
1 D 3 Li 2 2 He 0 n
y (1) 15 MeV
(2) 13 MeV
(1) 1.8iˆ 1.2ˆj 1.3kˆ rad / s2 (3) 11 MeV
(4) 9 MeV
(2) 1.8iˆ rad / s
19. A coin moves in a circular path on a rough
(3) 1.2ˆj rad / s2
rotating horizontal disk which has an
(4) 1.3kˆ rad / s2 angular acceleration . Coin does not slip
on disk. Mark the INCORRECT statement :
17. Consider the radiation emitted by large
number of singly charged positive ions of a
certain element, having even atomic Coin
number. The sample emit fifteen types of r
spectral lines, one of which is same as the
first line of lyman series. What is the
binding energy in the highest energy state (1) Power delivered by the friction on the
of this configuration? coin is positive.
(2) Power delivered by centripetal force on
(1) 13.6 eV
the particle is zero.
(2) 54.4 eV (3) Work done by the contacting frictional
(3) 6.4eV force on the system (disc + surface) is
negative.
(4) 1.6 eV (4) Power is delivered to coin by tangential
force only.
Space for Rough Work
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20. Three waves A, B and C of frequencies 22. Suppose that two heat engines are
connected in series, such that the heat
1600 kHz, 5 MHz and 60 MHz, respectively exhaust of the first engine is used a as the
are to be transmitted from one place to heat input of the second engine as shown
in figure. The efficiencies of the engines
another. Which of the following is the most are 1 and 2, respectively. The net
efficiency of the combination is given by :
appropriate mode of communication :
(1) A is transmitted via space wave while B
Th
and C are transmitted via sky wave.
Q1
(2) A is transmitted via ground wave, B via
w1
sky wave and C via space wave.
Q2
(3) B and C are transmitted via ground
Tm
wave while A is transmitted via sky
Q2
wave. w2
(4) B is transmitted via ground wave we Q3
while A and C transmitted via space Tc
wave.
(1) net = 2 + (1 – 1)2
1
(2) net
21. A particle is dropped along the axis from a 1 1 2
(3) net 1 1 1 2
f
height on a concave mirror of focal 1 1
2 (4) net
1 2 2
length f as shown in figure. The maximum
speed of image is :
23. This value of reciprocal of magnetic
t=0
g susceptibility for gadolinium (a ferromagnetic
h = f/2
substance) above it's curie point are found to
be 10 and 20 corresponding to temperature
(1)
720K and 1160 K respectively. Find the
3
(2) 3fg curies constant :
4
(1) 44K
3
(3) 3fg (2) 22K
2
(3) 280K
(4) None of these
(4) 56K
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24. When a glass capillary tube is immersed in SECTION - II
a liquid, the liquid rises to a height of 6mm. Integer value correct Type
The tube is gradually pressed down, until a This section contains 5 questions. The answer to
length of only 4 mm projects outside. The each question is a single digit integer, ranging
the angle of contact for the glass and the 26. Two tuning forks A and B lying on opposite
linearly varied from 0°C to 60°C in 10 27. Assume that the largest stone of mass 'm'
(4) 45
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28. A ring rotates about x-axis as shown in 30. If the switches S1, S2 and S3 in the figure
figure. The plane of rotation is y-z. At a are arranged such that current through the
certain instant the acceleration of the battery is minimum, find the voltage across
1m
y
P
a
value of .
2
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PART – B
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, 33. P B
N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, A
Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40,
Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65,
As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, T (k)
31. 0.1 molar aqueous solution of NaCl and 34. Which of the following is incorrectly matched
for given species ?
water are separated by semi-permeable
membrane at 27ºC. (1) XeO3 : Three (p-d) bonds
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36. The species in which (n – 1) d orbital 40. Find out standard enthalpy of formation of
x2 y2
CH3OH(l) from following data.
take part in hybridization ?
(1) PCl5 (2) [(FeCN)6] – 4 3
CH3OH() + O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O().
2
(3) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (4) (2) and (3) both
Hº = – 726 kJ/mole
37. Which of the following is correct code ? C(Graphite) + O2 CO2(g)
(T = true, F = False) Hº = – 393 kJ/mole
(a) Amongs 1s, 2p, 3d orbitals, 1s orbital 1
H2(g) + O2(g)H2O()
have the nature of r v/s r graph is different 2
from others Hº = – 286 kJ/mole
(b) According to Heisenberg uncertainty
(1) – 239 kJ/mole
principle, we can not find trajectories of
(2) 239 kJ/mole
electrons and other similar particles.
(3) 47 kJ/mole
(c) An atomic orbital is the wave function
(4) – 47 kJ/mole
for an electron in an atom.
(1) T T T (2) F T T
41. Non stoichiometric cuprous oxide Cu2O can
(3) F T F (4) T T F
be prepared in laboratory. In this oxide
38. Select correct statement regarding copper to oxygen ratio is slightly less than
[AlCl(H2O)5]Cl2 : 2 : 1. Select correct statement ;
(1) It is a paramagnetic compound. (1) It shows metal deficiency defect.
2 3
(2) Hybridisation of Al is d sp (2) This substance can act as p-type
(3) It is coloured. semiconductor.
(4) It can show hydrate isomerism. (3) In this compound copper exist as +1 & +2
oxidation state.
39. For a real gas under low pressure conditions
(4) All of these
and room temperature, which of the following
graph is correct?
42. XeF6 + H2O A + B
Compound A & B are respectively ;
(2) Xe, F2
(3) XeF2, Xe
(3) (4)
(4) XeO3, HF
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43. Statement-1 : In the extraction of copper 45. When H2O2 is added to an acidified solution
from copper pyrite, copper matte is put in of K2Cr2O7 then :
silica lined converter (i.e. Bessemer (1) solution turns green due to formation of
Cr2O3
converter).
(2) solution turns yellow due to formation of
Statement-2 : Silica removes iron compound
K2CrO4
remaining in the matte by forming silicate,
(3) a blue coloured compound CrO(O2)2 is
FeSiO3. formed
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (4) solution gives green ppt of Cr(OH)3
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1. 46. Final product of following reaction contains
2 H / Pd
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; CH3 C C CH2 C Cl
BaSO 4
II
Statement-2 is NOT a correct O
HA(aq) HA(aq)
Pt(s) H2 (g) H2 (g) Pt(s) (1) CH3 O NN
NaA(aq) NaA(aq)
Value of cell potential will not depend on - (2) H3C NN
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OH 51 The labels of two bottles containing
KOH(aq) I – +
CH3–CH–COO K compounds I and II were lost. The names of
KOH(alc) – +
these compounds were available in a
CH2=CH–COO K
P+Br2 register. Following are structures of I and II.
48. A B NH2
NH3 I Which combination of reagents cannot help
–
CH3–CH–COO NH4
in distinguishing these compounds :
1.KCN(2Eq)
+ CH3–CH–COOH
2.H2O/H I
COOH
‘A’ is
(1) CH3 CH2 CHO
(2) CH3 CH2COOH
(3) CH3 CH2CH2 OH
(4) CH3 CH2 CH2NH2 (I) NaHCO3 (II) NaNO2 / HCl
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53. C12H10 is an aromatic compound which on 55. Which of the following represents a polymer
ozonolysis gives mixture of Glyoxal and 2- of prop-2-en-1-ol ?
(3) (4)
SECTION - II
Integer value correct Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to
54. Which of the following reaction is show each question is a single digit integer, ranging from
incorrect major product ? 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
H/ 56. 100 mL, 0.2 M CH3COOH is mixed with 100
(1)
mL, 0.1 M NaOH find out pH of resulting
solution. (Given : K a( CH3COOH) = 2 × 10–5)
Toluene (Methyl benzene) (log2 = 0.3, log3 = 0.48) Give your answer to
(2) the nearest single digit integer.
Alc.KOH /
57. The following data were obtained during the
first order thermal decomposition of SO2Cl2
at a constant volume
SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
H/
(3)
Exp Time(sec) Total pressure(atm)
1 0 0.5
2 100 0.6
If rate of reaction (atm sec–1) when total
–4
pressure is 0.65 atm is y × 10 (Initially only
Al O 3 SO2Cl2 is taken) then determine the value of y.
(4) 2
400 º500 º (log2 = 0.3, log3 = 0.48, log4 = 0.6,
log 5 = 0.7)
CH3–CH=CH–CH3
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58. In how many of the following reactions
(i) NH4Cl + NaNO2
(ii) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(iii) NaN3
(iv) NH4Cl + NaNO3
(v) NH3
compound?
H 2N O 1
2 HN
4
(H3C)2N
N O
O 3 O
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2 2 2
PART – C 64. If ax + by = 1 touches x + y = p then locus
of (a, b) is
SECTION - I
(1) parabola of latus-rectum 4p
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions. 1
(2) circle of radius
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for p2
its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (3) ellipse having centre as origin
1
61. Which of the following is NOT true for any two (4) circle of radius
p
statements p and q ?
(1) ~ [p v (~ q)] = (~ p) q
2 –4 B C
(2) ~ (p v q) = (~ p) v (~q) 65. If {x(1– x )}1/ 3 x dx = A(x – 1) + K then
(3) q ~q is a contradiction
3
(4) ~ (p (~ p)) is a tautology (1) A =
8
(2) B = 2
62. Let R be the real line, consider the following
subsets of the plane R × R 4
(3) C = –
3
S = {(x, y) : y = [x], 0 < x < 4}
T = {(x, y) : x – y is an integer} (4) 8A + B + 3C + 1 = 0
which of the following is true. (Where [.]
represent) greatest integer function : 66. Equation of circle which cuts the circle
(1) T is equivalence relation on R but S is not x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y – 4 = 0 and the lines
(2) T and S both are equivalence xy – 2x – y + 2 = 0 orthogonally, is
(3) neither T nor S are equivalence (1) x2 + y2 –2x – 4y – 12 = 0
(4) S is equivalence but not T
(2) x2 + y2 –2x – 4y– 6 = 0
(3) x2 + y2 –2x – 4y + 6 = 0
63. The complete solution set of |sin x| – sin x < 1
(4) x2 + y2 –2x – 4y– 10 = 0
in x (0 , 2)
7
(1) 0, 67. There are 12 points in a plane of which 5 are
6
collinear. Barring these five points no three
11
(2) (0, ) ,2 are collinear. The number of quadrilaterals
6
one can form using these points is
7 11
(3) 0, ,2 7
(1) C 3
6 6
7
(2) P 3
7
(4) (0, ) ,2
6 (3) 10. 7 C 3
(4) 420
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68. The first term of an infinite geometric series is 2 71. For the system of equations
and its sum be denoted by S. If | S – 2 | < 1/10 ax + by + cz = q – r,
then the true set of the range of common bx + cy + az = r – p,
ratio of the series is cx + ay + bz = p – q, which of the following is
1 1 FALSE ?
(1) ,
10 5 (1) consistent if p = q = r
1 1 (2) consistent if a = b = c and p,q,r are
(2) , – {0}
2 2 distinct
(3) consistent if a,b,c are distinct and
1 1
(3) , – {0}
19 20 a+b+c0
(4) consistent if a = b = c
1 1
(4) , – {0}
19 21
2 2
72. If (x + y )dy = xydx, y(1) = 1 and y(x0) = e,
(1) 3 3 (4) e
(2) 12 3
f(x) = (e(x
– 1) 2
73. If ) (x – 1)2, then which of
(3) 2 3 following is CORRECT ?
(4) 6 3 (1) f(x) has an extremum at x = ±1.
(2) f(1) = 0
70. In a complex plane the points A and B are at (3) f (1)< 0
z1 = 5 – 2i and z2 = 1 + i. If P(z) moves such (4) f (0) > 0
that |z – z1| = 2|z – z2|, then the maximum
area of PAB is 74. The mean and variance of n observations
1 x1, x2, x3 ,......xn are 5 and 0 respectively.
(1)
3 2
25
If x i 400 , then the value of n is equal to
(2) (1) 80
3
50 (2) 16
(3)
3 (3) 25
(4) 5 (4) 20
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x 4
nt
75. If f(x) = dt , then which of the following 78. n( (x 2)2 4 (x 2))dx =
1 t
1 0
is TRUE ? (1) n 2
x
nt
(2) 2 n 2
1
(1) f
x
t(1 t)
dt (3) 4 n 2
1 (4) 0
x
1 nt
(2) f
x t(1 t) dt
1
79. The value of 'a' for which the sum of the squares
of the roots of x2 – (4a – 6) x – (4a + 4) = 0 is least,
is
1
(3) f(x) f 0 5
x (1)
2
1 5
(4) f(x) f ( n x)2 (2)
x 4
5
n 2 n
(3)
76. If (1 + x) = C0 + C1x + C2x + ..... + Cnx , 8
then C0C2 + C1C3 + C2C4 + .... + Cn–2Cn 5
(4)
equals (where nCr = Cr) 16
(2n)!
(1)
(n 1)!(n 2)! min (x, x2 ) , x0
80. Let f(x) = ,
2
(2n)! max (2x, x 1) , x 0
(2)
(n – 2)!(n 2)! then which of the following is FALSE ?
(1) f(x) is continuous at x = 0
(2n)!
(3) (2) f(x) is differentiable at x = 1
(n)!(n 2)!
(3) f(x) is not differentiable at exactly three
(2n)! points
(4)
(n – 1)!(n 2)! (4) f(x) is continuous everywhere.
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82. A fair coin is tossed 10 times and the SECTION - II
outcomes are listed. Let Hi be the event that
the ith outcome is a head and Am be the Integer value correct Type
event that the list contains exactly m heads, This section contains 5 questions. The answer to
then
each question is a single digit integer, ranging from
(1) H3 and A4 are independent
(2) A1 and H7 are independent 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
(3) H2 and A5 are independent
(4) A1 and A9 are independent
86. If x + y + 1 = 0 is a common tangent to the
2 2
1 y = 4x and x = y then
83. Let f : 1 , [–1, 1] is defined by
2
f(x) = 4x3 – 3x, then f –1 (x) =
87. For some non zero v ector x , if x.a
1
(1) cos cos1 x
3 = x.b = x.c = 0 then [a b c] =
–1
(2) cos (3 cos x)
1
(3) sin sin1 x 88. A circular sector is formed by a thread of
3
length , what is ratio of maximum area of
2 1
(4) cos cos1 x
3 3 sector thus formed to maximum area of
rectangle formed by same thread.
84. If f(x) is a continuous function x R – {–2}
and satisfies, x3–x2(f(x)+ 2) –x+ 2(2f(x) + 1) = 0,
x R – {–2}, then f(2) is equal to 89. The value of
(1) 0 2n n 1 n n (–1)n ,
3 lim cos – 2
n 2 2n – 1 1– 2n
(2) 2n – 1 n 1
4
1 (n N), is
(3)
4
(4) undefined
90. The shortest distance between the skew lines
85. Let f : R R satisfy relation x3 y6 z x2 y z7
= = and = = is
f(x) f(y) – f(xy) = x + y x, y R and 4 3 2 4 1 1
f(1) > 0. If h(x) = f(x) f –1(x), then length of
longest interval in which h(sinx+cosx) is
strictly decreasing is.
(1)
(2)
2
(3)
4
(4)
6
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MAJOR TEST-4(MT-4) (JEE MAIN PATTERN)
P06-17 DATE : 11-01-2018 | COURSE : VIJETA (01JP) CODE - 0
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS :
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seals of this booklet before being instructed to do so by the
invigilators.
2. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
4. Write you name and roll number in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.
5. Using a black ball point pen, darken the bubbles on the upper original sheet.
6. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
7. On breaking the seals of the booklet check that it contains all the 90 questions and corresponding answer choices
are legible. Read carefully the Instructions printed at the beginning of each section.
B. Filling the ORS
Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS.
8. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS in the space
provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point
pen.
10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be
displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
11. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while darken
the bubble corresponding to your answer.
12. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not
scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS.
13. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be
taken as final.
C. Question Paper Format
The question paper consists of Three parts (Physics Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists are two
section.
14. Section 1 contains 25 multiple choice questions. Each question has Four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which only ONE is correct.
15. Section 2 contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9 (both
inclusive).
D. Marking Scheme
16. For each question in Section 1, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to only the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
17. For each question in Section 2, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to only the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
I have read all the instructions and shall I have verified all the information filled by
abide by them the candidate.
...................................... ......................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator