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197. Strength of association is most commonly indicated

(b) Case control
by:
(c) Random
(a) Relative risk
(d) Cross sectional
(b) Attributable risk
(c) Population attributable risk
(d) None EXPERIMENTAL EPIDEMIOLOGY

198. What is the odds ratio for the following? 207. In a double blind clinical drug trial:
(a) ad/bc (a) Each patient receives a placebo
(b) ab/cd (b) Each patient receives both (double) treatments
(c) ac/bd (c) The patients do not know which treatment they are
(d) bc/ad receiving
199. What will be the Odds ratio if the diseased with risk (d) The patients do not know that they are in a drug trial
factor =a; diseased without risk factor=b; not diseased 208. All the following are true in a randomized control trial
but with risk factor=b; a not diseased as well as not (RCT) except –
with risk factor=d? (a) Baseline characteristics of intervention are similar in
(a) ad/bc both arms
(b) ab/cd (b) Investigator’s bias is minimized by double blinding
(c) ac/bd (c) The sample size required depends on the hypothesis
(d) bc/ad (d) The dropouts from the trial should be excluded
from the analysis
200. Incidence is measured by:
(a) Case control study 209. What is the purpose of a control group in an experimental
(b) Cohort study study?
(c) Cross sectional study (a) Its permits an ethical alternative for patients who do
(d) All of these not wish to be subjected to an experimental
treatment
201. True about case control study all except: (b) It allows larger numbers of patients to be used, thus
(a) Quick increasing the power of the statistical techniques
(b) Incidence used
(c) Proceeds from effect to cause (c) It helps to eliminate alternative explanations for the
(d) None of these results of the study
(d) It reduces the likelihood of making a type II error in
202. Incidence of a disease is measured by: hypothesis testing
(a) Case control study
(b) Cohort study 210. What is the purpose of randomization in a clinical
(c) Cross sectional study trial?
(d) None of these (a) To equalize the effects of extraneous
variables, thus guarding against bias
203. Attributable risk is measured by: (b) To allow inferential statistics to be used
(a) Cohort study (c) To guard against placebo effects
(b) Case control study (d) To guard against ethical problems in the
(c) Cross sectional study allocation of patients to experimental and
(d) None control groups
204. Cohort study is: 211. A pharmaceutical company develops a new anti-
(a) Needs few patients hypertensive drug. Samples of 24 hypertensive
(b) Incidence can be calculated patients, randomly selected from a large population
(c) Proceeds from effect to cause of hypertensive people, are randomly divided into 2
(d) Odd ratio can be calculated groups of 12. One group is given the new drug over a
205. Odd’s ratio is indirect estimate of: period of 1 month; the other group is given a placebo
(a) Relative risk according to the same schedule. Neither the patients
(b) Prevalence rate nor the treating physicians are aware of which patients
(c) Attributable risk are in which group. At the end of the month,
(d) Incidence rate measurements are made of the patient’s blood
pressures. This study:
206. Study of alcohol intake for 10 year and occurring of (a) Is a randomized controlled clinical trial
hepatic disease type of study is: (b) Uses a crossover design
(a) Cohort (c) Is a single blind experiment
(d) Is a prospective study

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212. Intention-to-treat analysis is done in

(c) Can’t do interim analysis
(a) Cohort study
(d) Are always prospective
(b) Survival analysis studies
(c) Randomized control trials 221. Efficacy of a new drug A is compared with an existing
(d) Multiple time series studies drug B in
(a) Clinical trial phase I
213. Random in Randomization in a clinical trial means-
(b) Clinical trial phase II
(a) Equal but unknown chance
(c) Clinical trial phase III
(b) Unequal and unknown chance
(d) Clinical trial phase IV
(c) Unequal but known chance
(d) Equal and known chance 222. Gold standard study for Clinical research is
(a) Randomised double-blind trial
214. The major purpose of random assignment in a clinical
(b) Systematic meta-analysis
trial is to:
(c) Ecological study
(a) Help ensure that study subjects are
(d) Retrospective cohort study
representative of the general population
(b) Facilitate double blinding 223. About RCT all are true except
(c) Facilitate measurement of outcome variables (a) Baseline characteristics are comparable
(d) Ensure that the study groups are comparable (b) Bias eliminated by double blinding
on base line characteristics (c) Sample size depends on type of study
215. Which one of the following statements regarding pre- (d) Dropouts are excluded from the study
post clinical trial is most appropriate? 224. Maximum tolerated dose of a new drug is evaluated in:
(a) They cannot be randomized (a) Phase 1
(b) They are useful in studies involving mortality (b) Phase 2
(c) They use the patient as his or her own control (c) Phase 3
(d) They are usually easier to interpret than the (d) Phase 4
comparable parallel clinical trial
225. Selection bias can be eliminated by:
216. The heart of randomized controlled trail is (a) Randomization
(a) Protocol (b) Single blinding
(b) Intervention (c) Double blinding
(c) Randomization (d) Matching
(d) None of the above
217. All of the following are Experimental/Interventional Review Questions
studies except:
(a) Randomised control trials 226. Randomized controlled trials are all except:
(b) Field trials (a) Clinical trials
(c) Community trials (d) Ecological studies (b) Preventive trials
218. In a controlled trial to compare two treatments, the (c) Before and after comparison studies
main purpose of randomization is to ensure that: (d) Evaluation of Health Services
(a) The two groups will be similar in prognostic 227. In Randomized control trials, randomization is an
factors attempt to eliminate:
(b) The clinician does not know which treatment (a) Selection bias
the subjects will receive (b) Out come bias
(c) The sample may be referred to a known (c) Uncontrolled trials
population (d) Natural experiments
(d) The clinician can predict in advance which
treatment the subjects will receive 228. All of the following are true regarding RCT except:
(a) Double binding is done to remove investigator bias
219. In a randomized controlled trial, the essential purpose
(b) Drop outs results are excluded from the study
of randomization is:
(c) Randomizations is the heart of a control trial
(a) To produce double blinding
(d) 1st step in RCT is drawing up a protocol
(b) To decrease the follow- up period
(c) To eliminate the selection bias 229. In randomized control trial randomization is done to
(d) To decrease the sample size avoid:
(a) Selection bias (b) Observer’s bias
220. All are true about Experimental trials except
(c) Interviewer’s bias (d) Recall bias
(a) Can’t double blind in animal trials
(b) All animal trials are unethical
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230. Double blind study means:

237. The most important measure to establish a causal
(a) Observer is blind about the study
relationship is:
(b) Person or group being observed is blind about the
(a) Consistency
study
(b) Temporality
(c) Both observer and person or group being observed
is blind about the study (c) Biological plausibility
(d) Interpreters and analyzer are blind about the study (d) Dose-response relationship
238. Suspected cause preceding the observed effect is an
ASSOCIATION AND CAUSATION example for:
(a) Coherence
(b) Temporality
231. Most difficult criterion to establish Causal Association
(c) Biological plausibility
in aetiology of a disease is:
(a) Temporality (d) Specificity
(b) Strength of association
(c) Specificity of association Review Questions
(d) Biological plausibility
239. Current smokers are at higher risk of developing lung
232. Which of the following studies is best for establishing
cancer as compared to ex-smokers, criticality of
causation ?
casualty satisfied here is:
(a) Case-control study
(a) Temporal relationship
(b) Cohort study
(b) Consistency
(c) Randomized control trials
(c) Strength of association
(d) Case-series study
(d) Reversibility or reversible association
233. An advertisement in a medical journal stated that 2000
240. Association of high altitude areas with goiter is
subjects with sore throat were treated with our new
example of:
medicine. With in 4 days, 94% were asymptomatic. The
(a) Causal association
advertisement claims that the medicine was effective.
(b) Direct association
Based on the evidence given above, the claim:
(c) Temporal association
(a) Is correct
(d) Indirect association
(b) May be incorrect as the conclusion is not
based on a rate
(c) May be incorrect because of failure to EPIDEMIOLOGY OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES
recognize a long-term cohort effect
(d) Incorrect because as no control or comparison 241. Infections transmitted to man from vertebrate animals
group was involved are known as:
234. To test the association between risk factor and disease, (a) Exotic
which of the following is the weakest study design? (b) Anthropozoonoses
(a) Case –control study (c) Zooanthroponoses
(b) Ecological study (d) Epizootic
(c) Cohort study 242. ‘Endemic Disease’ means that a disease:
(d) Cross sectional study (a) Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
235. Of the different epidemiological study designs (b) Is constantly present in a given population
available to test the association between risk factor group
and disease, the best design is of: (c) Exhibits seasonal pattern
(a) Case-control study (d) Is prevalent among animals
(b) Ecological study 243. Occurrence of a disease in a haphazard and irregular
(c) Cohort study pattern is known as:
(d) Cross-sectional study (a) Endemic
236. In establishing Causal Association, most essential (b) Epidemic
criterion is: (c) Sporadic
(d) Pandemic
(a) Consistency of 244. Sentinel surveillance is done to detect
relationship
(b) Temporal relationship
(a) Missing number of cases
(c) Duration of relationship
(b) Total number of cases
(d) Strength of relationship
(c) Incidence of disease
(d) Factors affecting occurrence of disease

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245. HIV cases are reported from all over the world. This is
254. Disease imported in a country, which was not otherwise
called as
present?
(a) Endemic
(a) Epornithic disease
(b) Epidemic
(b) Zoonotic disease
(c) Pandemic
(c) Exotic disease
(d) Sporadic
(d) Epizootic disease
246. Following is part of “Sentinel Surveillance” EXCEPT
DISEASE TRANSMISSION
(a) Method for identifying the missing cases
(b) Supplementing the notified cases
255. Soil is an important reservoir for all except:
(c) To estimate the disease prevalence in total popu-
lation (a) Brucellosis
(b) Coccidiomycosis
(d) To estimate the fatality of the disease
(c) Anthrax
247. The ability of an infectious agent to invade and (d) Tetanus
multiply in a host is called
256. The time taken for 50% of patients to develop the
(a) Pathogenicity
disease following exposure to the disease is known as:
(b) Infectivity
(c) Virulence
(a) Incubation period
(d) Communicability
(b) Median incubation period
248. Pandemics are caused by: (c) Generation time
(a) Hepatitis B (d) Secondary Attack rate
(b) Influenza – A
257. In a 6-membered family, there are two parents and
(c) Influenza – B
four children all aged between 2-6 years. One of the
(d) Influenza – C
children (3 yr old) is completely immunized for his
249. Post exposure vaccination is given in: age, whereas other 3 siblings are totally unimmunised.
(a) Typhoid On 12 August 2006, one of the latter got measles. 2
(b) Rabies other siblings also got measles by 18 August 2006.
(c) Mumps Secondary attack rate is:
(d) Rubella (a) Zero
250. Disease(s) infectious before onset of symptoms is/are: (b) 33 %
(a) Measles (c) 66 %
(d) 100%
(b) Mumps
(c) Cholera 258. A village has 100 under five children. The coverage of
(d) Hepatitis B measles vaccine is 60%. Following a measles case 26
(e) Poliomyelitis children developed measles. The secondary attack rate
is:
Review Questions (a) 25%
(b) 40%
251. Hospital acquired infection of surgical wound is (c) 50%
mostly by: (d) 65%
(a) Doctor 259. Generation time in epidemiology is defined as:
(b) Patient (a) The interval between marriage and the birth of first
(c) Air borne child
(d) Instruments (b) The interval of time between the receipt of infection
by host and maximal infectivity of the host
252. Subclinical infection is not seen in:
(c) The interval of time between primary case and
(a) Rabies secondary cases
(b) AIDS (d) Interval of time between invasion by infectious
(c) Polio agent and appearance of first sign or symptom of
(d) Hepatitis A the disease/in question
253. Hospital Acquired infections are called as: 260. All of the following are used as proxy measures for
(a) Emporiatric infections incubation period in disease except:
(b) Nosocomial infections (a) Latent
(c) Iatrogenic infections (b) Period of communicability
(d) Epomithic infections (c) Serial interval 141
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261. Soil act as reservoir of infection for all of the following 269. The transmission of filariasis is an example of
except: (a) Propagative transmission
(a) Tetanus (b) Cyclical transmission
(b) Anthrax (c) Cyclo-developmental transmission
(c) Coccidiomycosis (d) Cyclo-propagative transmission
(d) Dracunculiasis
270. The following diseases are communicable during later
262. A family consists of 2 parents & 6 children susceptible part of incubation period EXCEPT
to measles. There occurs a primary case of measles (a) Measles
and 3 secondary cases within a short period of time. (b) Whooping Cough
Secondary attack rate is: (c) Hepatitis A
(a) 60% (d) Typhoid
(b) 38%
271. Which of the following statement about “Reservoir” of
(c) 67%
an infection is NOT correct?
(d) 50%
(a) Reservoir can transmit infection to a susceptible
263. Denominator while calculating the secondary attack host
rate includes: (b) “Reservoir” and “Source” of infection are synony-
(a) All the people living in next fifty houses mous
(b) All the close contacts (c) Non-living thing can be Reservoir
(c) All susceptibles amongst close contact (d) Reservoir can be an animal
(d) All susceptibles in the whole village 272. The gap in time between the onset of the primary case
264. Serial interval is: and the secondary case is called
(a) Time gap between primary and secondary case (a) Serial interval
(b) Time gap between index and primary case (b) generation time
(c) Time taken for a person from receipt of (c) incubation period
infection to develop maximum infectivity (d) communicable period
(d) The time taken from infection till a person
273. Which of the following statement about “Incubation
infects another person
Period” (IP) is NOT correct?
265. Which of the following is not spread by fomites? (a) It is the time interval between invasion by an
(a) AIDS infectious agent and appearance of the first sign or
(b) Typhoid symptom
(c) Diarrhea (b) During IP, the infectious agent undergoes
(d) Hepatitis A multiplication in the host
(c) The factors such as infective dose of pathogens and
266. Serial interval means portal of entry determines IP
(a) Difference between primary and secondary cases (d) Infectious disease are not communicable during IP
(b) Longest incubation period
(c) Shortest incubation period 274. Which of the following does not have non human
(d) Time in which the parasite develops in the vector reservoirs
(a) Polio
267. Time interval between receipt of infection by a host (b) Pertussis (c) Salmonella Typhi
and maximum infectivity of that host is known as (d) Neisseria meningitidis (e) Cl. Teani
(a) Generation time
(b) Incubation period 275. Disease highly transmitted during incubation period is/
(c) Serial interval are:
(d) Secondary attack rate (a) Pertussis
(b) Cholera
268. Generation time in epidemiology is defined as (c) Measles
(a) The interval between marriage and the birth of first (d) Brucellosis
child The interval of (e) Chicken-pox
time between the receipt of infection by host and
maximal infectivity of the host 276. Incubatory carriers seen in:
(b) The interval of time between primary case and (a) Cholera
secondary cases (b) Bubonic plague
(c) Interval of time between invasion by infection agent (c) Mumps
and appearance of first sign or symptom of the (d) Measles
disease/ in question (e) Influenza

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277. Sex ratio is:

286. The gap in time between the onset of the primary case
(a) 1 male per 1000 female and the secondary case is called
(b) 1000 female per 1000 male (a) Serial interval
(c) Females per 1000 male (b) Generation time
(d) 1000 female per 10000 male (c) Communicable period
(e) One lakh female per one lakh (d) Median incubation period
278. Isolation is needed in which of the following diseases:
287. Isolation is useful for:
(a) Diptheria
(a) Hepatitis A
(b) T.B.
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Cholera
(c) Typhoid
(d) Herpes zoster
(e) Streptococcal pharyngitis (d) Cholera
(e) Poliomyelitis
279. Isolation is advised in
(a) Polio 288. All of the following are used as proxy measures for
(b) Diphtheria incubation period, except:
(c) Leprosy (a) Latent period
(d) Pneumonic plague (b) Period of communicability
(e) HIV (c) Serial interval
(d) Generation time
280. Carrier stage seen in:
(a) Polio 289. Quarantine period should be:
(b) Cholera (a) Minimum incubation period
(c) Pertusis (b) Maximum incubation period
(d) Plague (c) Period of communicability
(e) Tetanus (d) Median incubation period
281. Which of the following diseases have incubation period 290. Interval between primary and secondary case is called
< 10 days: as:
(a) Cholera (a) Generation time
(b) Influenza (b) Serial interval
(c) Plague (c) Incubation period
(d) Measles (d) Lead time
(e) Rubella 291. First case that comes to notice of physician is:
282. Isolation is done in following case/s: Primary case
(a) T.B Secondary case
(b) Cholera Index case
(c) Measles Refer case
(d) Typhoid.
(e) Streptococcal pharyngitis 292. Application of incubation period is all except:
283. Healthy carrier seen in: (a) To differentiate primary case from secondary cases
(a) T.B.
(b) To find out time for isolation
(b) Diphtheria
(c) To find out time for quarantine
(c) Cholera
(d) To prevent infection to the contacts of the infected
(d) Typhoid
person
(e) Tetanus
293. Chronic carrier state is seen in:
284. Healthy carrier seen in:
(a) Poliomyelitis
(a) T.B
(b) Diabetes (b) Measles
(c) Cholera (c) Malaria
(d) Rabies (d) Tetanus
(e) Tetanus 294. Time between infection and maximum infectivity is
285. Presence of infectious arthropod agent on clothes or known as
dressing is termed (a) Incubation period
(a) Infection (b) Serial interval
(b) Infestation (c) Generation time
(c) Contamination (d) Communicable period
(d) Contagion

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295. Serial interval is: (c) Hepatitis-A

(a) Time interval between invasion of infection and (d) Tuberculosis
appearance of first sign or symptom
304. Herd immunity is not seen in:
(b) Time between onset of primary case and secondary
case (a) Polio
(c) Interval of time between receipt of infection by a (b) Tetanus
host and maximum infectivity (c) Measles
(d) Time in which infectious agent is transferred from (d) Diphtheria
one host to another 305. The following set of words cannot be used
296. All of the following are correct regarding Period of synonymously in epidemiology:
isolation except (a) Source and Reservoir
(a) Measles – Upto 3 days of onset of rash (b) Index and primary case
(b) Chicken pox – Upto 6 days of onset of rash (c) Latent infection and subclinical infection
(c) Herpes zoster – Upto 6 days of onset of rash (d) Serial interval and incubation period
(d) Rubella – Until 7 days after appearance of rash 306. Serial interval means:

Review Questions (a) Time between primary or secondary case

(b) Interval of time between receipt of infection by a
297. Man is dead end for: host and maximal infectivity of that host
(a) Tetanus, measles (c) Time during which an infectious agent may be
(b) Measles, yellow fever transferred directly or indirectly from an infected
(c) Tetanus, yellow fever person to another person
(d) Rabies, tetanus (d) The time interval between invasion by an infectious
agent and appearance of the first sign or symptom
298. All of the following are used as proxy measures for of the disease in question
incubation period except?
307. Communicability of a disease is determined by:
(a) Latent period
(b) Period of communicability (a) Relative risk
(c) Serial interval (b) Primary attack rate
(c) Attributable risk
(d) Generation time
(d) Secondary attack rate
299. Man is the dead end for:
(a) Tetanus 308. Following are biological transmission except:
(b) Rabies (a) Developmental
(c) Measles (b) Propagative
(c) Cyclopropagative
(d) Pertussis
(d) Cyclodevelopmental
300. Which of the following carriers excrete infectious
agents for indefinite periods: 309. Man is an host with dead end transmission all of the
following diseases, except:
(a) Incubatory carrier
(b) Convalescent carrier (a) Rabies (b) Tetanus
(c) Healthy carrier (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Chronic carrier 310. A carrier who gets infected from another carrier is
known as:
301. Vertical transmission is seen in :
(a) Herpes simplex (a) Incubatory carrier
(b) Paradoxical carrier
(b) Leprosy
(c) Convalescent carrier
(c) Tetanus
(d) Pseudo carrier
(d) Whooping cough
311. Carrier has no role in transmission of which of the
302. A patient will not shed organisms in:
following disease:
(a) Latent infection
(a) Cholera
(b) Incubation period
(b) Measles
(c) Carrier State
(c) Diphtheria
(d) Convalescence
(d) Typhoid
303. Isolation is required till negative cultures in:
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Polio

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